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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A1509

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE AND ORGANIZATION
(Common to Computer Science and Engineering, Information Technology,
Electronics and Communication Engineering & Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
Date: 21 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit - I
1. a) List the steps needed to execute the machine instruction. Add R1, R2, R3 and also show 7M
connections between the processor and the main memory.
b) Explain in brief the 4 bit arithmetic circuit which can perform addition, subtraction, 8M
increment and decrement operations.

2. a) Convert (9.75)10 in to floating point representation. 6M


b) A digital computer has a common bus system for 16 registers of 32 bits each. The bus 9M
constructed with multiplexers:
i. How many selection lines are there in each multiplexer
ii. What size of multiplexers are needed
iii. How many multiplexers are there in the bus
Also draw the bus system.

Unit - II
3. a) Explain basic instruction format. 5M
b) What is Addressing mode? Explain following addressing modes: 10M
i. Direct addressing mode
ii. Indexed addressing mode
iii. Auto increment addressing mode
iv. Auto decrement addressing mode
v. In direct addressing mode

4. a) What is instruction cycle? Explain various steps involved in the instruction cycle. 7M
b) What are the basic differences between a branch instruction, a call subroutine
instruction and a program interrupt? 8M

Unit - III
5. a) Define the following: 8M
i. Microoperation
ii. Microinstruction
iii. Microprogram
iv. Microcode
b) Write Booth multiplier recoding table. Using Booth’s algorithm to multiply +13 *-6. 7M

6. a) Write the circuit of Microprogram sequencer for control memory, explain in brief. 8M
b) List out the steps in non restoring division method to perform 8  3. 7M

Cont…2
::2::

Unit - IV
7. a) What is paged placement algorithm? Consider the page reference string 2 3 2 1 5 2 4 5 3 8M
2 5 2. find the number of page faults using the page replacement algorithms:
i. Optimal
ii. FIFO
iii. LRU
Assume that the number of frames available in the memory is 3.
b) Explain RAID Technology? 7M

8. a) Explain the organization of a 2Mx32 memory module using 512kx8 static 9M


memory chips
b) Explain different Read Only Memories. 6M

Unit – V
9. a) What is the purpose of system bus controller in system bus structure for multiprocessors? 8M
Explain how the system can be designed to distinguish between references to local
memory and references to common shared memory.
b) What is cache coherence? Why is it important in shared-memory multiprocessor 7M
systems? How can the problem be resolved with a snoopy cache controller?

10. a) Explain 8x8 omega switching network for multistage switching networks to control 8M
processor-memory communication in a tightly coupled multiprocessor system.
b) Explain in brief the serial arbitration (daily-chain) procedure. 7M
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1508

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Regular/Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/11A)
OPERATING SYSTEMS
(Common to Computer Science and Engineering, Information Technology)
Date: 23 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. a) What are system calls? Write the sequence of system calls for copying a file to another 7M
file.
b) Discuss the services provided by an operating system. 8M
2. a) What are the differences between a trap and an interrupt? What is the use of each 7M
function?
b) Consider the following set of processes, with the length of the CPU burst given in 8M
milliseconds.
Process Burst time Priority
P1 10 3
P2 1 1
P3 2 3
P4 1 4
P5 5 2
The processes are assumed to have arrived in the order P1, P2, P3, P4, and
P5 all at time 0.
i. Draw the Gantt charts that illustrate the execution of these processes using the
following scheduling algorithms, FCFS, SJF, non-preemptive priority. Note: A smaller
priority number implies a higher priority and RR (quantum=1)
ii. What is the turnaround time of each process for each of the scheduling algorithms
iii. What is the waiting time of each process for each of the scheduling algorithms
Unit – II
3. a) What is the difference between MUTEX and semaphore? Give an example for 8M
semaphore implementation in detail.
b) Consider the following snapshot of a system, using bankers algorithm answer the 7M
following:
i. What is the content of the need matrix
ii. Is the system in a safe state
iii. If a request from process P1 arrives for (0, 4, 2, 0) can the request be granted
immediately
Allocation Max Available
Processes
A B C D A B C D A B C D
P0 0 0 1 2 0 0 1 2 1 5 2 0
P1 1 0 0 0 1 7 5 0
P2 1 3 5 4 2 3 5 6
P3 0 6 3 2 0 6 5 2
P4 0 0 1 4 0 6 5 6

Cont…2
:: 2 ::

4. a) Explain Peterson’s solution for critical section problem. 8M


b) What are the necessary conditions of deadlock? Explain resource allocation graph with 7M
example.
Unit – III
5. a) Explain contiguous memory allocation in detail. 8M
b) Explain different methods of free space management. 7M
6. a) Explain different file system implementation. 8M
b) Given reference to the following pages by a program: 7M
0, 9, 0, 1, 8, 1, 8, 7, 8, 7, 1, 2, 8, 2, 7, 8, 2, 3, 8, 3
How many page faults will occur if the program has three page frames available to it and
uses?
i. FIFO replacement
ii. LRU replacement
iii. Optimal replacement
Unit – IV
7. a) Explain boot block and bad blocks in detail. 7M
b) Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O to blocks on cylinders: 98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 8M
124, 65, 67. If the disks head is initially at cylinder 53, find out the total head movements
by:
i. C-Look
ii. SCAN scheduling algorithm
8. a) Explain interrupts driven I/O cycle with flow chart. 8M
b) Describe the different steps in DMA transfer with a block diagram. 7M
Unit – V
9. a) Discuss the strengths and weakness of implementing an access matrix using access lists 7M
that are associated with objects.
b) Explain in detail about firewall to protect systems and networks. 8M

10. a) What is access matrix? Explain the implementation methods of access matrix. 8M
b) Discuss briefly about: 7M
i. Intrusion detection
ii. Virus protection
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1510

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
THEORY OF COMPUTATION
(Computer Science and Engineering)
Date: 26 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit - I
1. a) Obtain a DFA for accepting the set of all strings of 0’s and 1’s such that the 10th symbol 6M
from the right end is 1 and remaining nine symbols are 0’s.
b) Obtain an NFA to accept all strings of a’s and b’s ending with ab or ba. From this NFA, 9M
obtain an equivalent DFA.
2. a) List the steps used for converting the given ε-NFA to an equivalent DFA. 4M
b) Write the complete algorithm to minimize the given DFA and also minimize the 11M
following DFA:
A=({ q1,q2,q3,q4,q5 ,q 6},{a, b }, , q1,{ q3,q6})
( q1 , a ) = q2 ( q4, a ) = q4 ( q5 , a ) = q4 ( q1 , b ) = q6 ( q4, b) = q2
( q5 , b ) = q5 ( q2 , a ) = q1 ( q3 , a ) = q 2 ( q2, b ) = q 3 ( q3 , b) = q4
( q6, a ) = q 5 ( q 6, b) = q4
Unit - II
3. a) Write the regular expression for the following: 7M
i. The set of all strings of a’s and b’s such that every block of four consecutive symbols
contains at least two a’s
ii. L = { anbm | m+n is even }
b) Construct ε-NFA for the following regular expressions: 8M
i. (a+b)*aa(a+b)*
ii. a*+b *+c*
4. a) Give and explain the recursive definition of regular expressions. 6M
b) State and prove the pumping lemma for regular languages. 9M
Unit - III
5. a) What is meant by ambiguous grammar? Show that S  aSbS | bSaS |  ambiguous 6M
Grammar.
b) What is meant by CNF? Write a procedure to convert CFG into CNF and also give the CNF 9M
*
 R
 R
for the following language L  ww | w a, b , w reverse of string.

6. a) Give the GNF grammar for the following CFG: 9M


S  AS | a , A  SA | b
b) State and explain decision properties of CFL. 6M
Unit - IV
7. a) Give and explain the formal definitions of the languages accepted by a PDA by empty 6M
stack and final state.
b) Design PDA for the following language accepted by final state. 9M
L  a b
n m n m
c : m  0 , n  0

Cont…2
::2::

8. a) Write the algorithm to convert from the given CFG to a PDA. 5M


b) Convert the PDA P = { {q0,q1}, {0,1}, {Z0,X}, , q1, Z0) to a CFG, if  is given by: 10M
(q1,1, Z0 )={(q1, X Z0)} (q1,0,X )={(q0, X )}
(q1,1, X )={(q1, X X)} (q1, , X )={(q1,  )}
(q0,1, X )={(q0,  )} (q0,0, Z0 )={(q1, Z0)}

Unit - V
9. a) Design Turing machine that converts unary number into binary conversion. 8M
b) Discuss various types of Turing machines. 7M
10. a) Discuss Chomsky hierarchy of languages. 6M
b) Write a short notes on Halting problem. 9M
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1511

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS
(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)
Date: 03 May, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit - I
1. a) Explain three schema architecture, the Logical data independence and Physical data 8M
independence.
b) Define entity, attribute and explain notations of ER diagram with an example. 7M
2. a) Explain DDL DML and DCL commands with syntax. 7M
b) Define relationship and relationship set. Explain key constraint and participation 8M
constraint with an example.

Unit – II
3. a) Define view? Illustrate view with an example. 7M
b) What is a relation convert ER model to relational model? 8M
4. a) Discuss with an example, the standard operations on sets are available in relational 6M
algebra.
b) Consider the following relational schema: 9M
Account: Account_number, account_type, balance
Customer: Customer_number, Name, Adhaar_number, address.
Deposits: Account_number, Customer_number,
Write the optimized SQL queries for the following:
Write create command to create the table ‘deposits’ by considering all schema level
constraints:
i. Write SQL insertion query to insert few tuples to all the relations
ii. Add 5% interest to the customer who have less than 10,000 balances and 6%
interest to remaining customers
iii. Find the customers whose balance is more than the average balance of the entire
customers

Unit – III
5. a) What is the need for normalization? Discuss all normal forms with a diagram and 8M
example.
b) Define BCNF? Compare BCNF and 3NF with an example. 7M
6. a) Illustrate lossless join decomposition. 6M
b) i. Find the minimal cover of the following set of functional dependencies. 9M
F=[A->D BC->AD C->B E->A E->D]
ii. What is the key of R .Consider the universal relation?
R(A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I,J) and the set of functional dependencies.
F=[{A,B}-> C,{A}-> {D,E}, {B} -> {F},{F}->{G,H} {D}-> {I ,J}]Decompose R into 2NF and then
3NF RELATIONS?

Cont…2
::2::

Unit – IV
7. a) Describe Properties of a Transaction with state Transition diagram. 6M
b) Discuss the anomalies of interleaved execution of transaction in detail with an example. 9M
8. a) Write about Shadow paging. 7M
b) Discuss Time-stamp ordering protocol for concurrency control. How does strict time 8M
stamp ordering differ from basic time stamp ordering?

Unit – V
9. a) What alternatives are available for the data entries in index? Are all of them suitable for 8M
secondary indexes? Explain.
b) What is clustered index organization? Illustrate with examples, the importance of 7M
clustered index on a range query, search key and aggregate operations.
10. a) Discuss any two basic file organizations. Also compare I/O cost. 8M
b) Explain all operations of B+ trees (search, insert, and delete). 7M
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A1603

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
WEB TECHNOLOGIES
(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)
Date: 28 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. a) Write a JavaScript to find Fibonacci numbers using function, use the prompt box to take 8M
the input and alert to display the output.
b) Write a Java script program to demonstrate and display the reverse order of the digit and 7M
find the position in the string of the left most vowel.
2. a) Write a java script to counter controlled repetition to calculate average (A class of 10 8M
students took a quiz, the marks verified 1 - 25 for this quiz and available to us) determine
the class average.
b) Design a webpage for online registration form, to accept name, gender(as radio button), 7M
DOB, age category(as a checkboxes), Email, Zip code, username, password, country(Select
option) and about field which is a multiline input field and submit and clear action
buttons.
Unit – II
3. a) Define XML Parsing. List and discuss various types of XML parsers and their purposes. 6M
b) Generate an XML document to list any five titles of computer science and engineering 9M
books available in your Library along with its stock status. Assume each book has an
unique identifier. Display NIL if the stock is zero.
4. a) What is the purpose of Jigsaw? List any four salient features of Jigsaw. 6M
b) Create an XML document with its DTD to store the type of social networking sites used by 9M
your friends. The details includes mobile number and the site name. The site name could
include Whatsapp, Facebook, Telegram, etc.
Unit – III
5. a) Write a simple servlet that counts and displays the number of times it has been 7M
accessed?
b) Explain the following: 8M
i. ServletInterface
ii. HTTPServlet Class
6. a) Explain how java servlets perform session handling. 7M
b) Give the architecture diagram for the servlet Life cycle. Explain. 8M
Unit – IV
7. a) Write the purpose of JSP directive; Discuss all the three types of JSP directives. 7M
b) Create a bean class called Employee for storing the name and age of the employee. 8M
Within the JSP to which form is submitted, do the following using only standard actions;
Declare an instance of the Employee JavaBean; Populate the Employee object with
values from form submission; Retrieve the values and display it with proper template
text.

Cont…2
:: 2 ::
8. a) With the syntax, discuss various scripting elements of JSP. Give suitable examples for the 7M
same.
b) List the steps involved in building a simple Javabean component. 8M
Unit – V
9. a) Define Content Management System. Discuss some of the essential features of CMS. 7M
b) Which are the common page and control events in ASP? 8M
10. a) Write the purpose of AJAX. List any five salient features of AJAX framework. 7M
b) What is Joomla? Discuss any six core features of Joomla system. 8M
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1604

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
COMPUTER GRAPHICS
(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)
Date: 30 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit - I
1. a) With a neat diagram, explain the working principle of Cathode Ray Tube (CRT). 7M
b) List the operating characteristics of the following display technologies : 8M
i. Plasma Panels
ii. LCDs
2. a) Explain the architecture of raster graphics system with a display processor. 7M
b) Describe any four specialized input devices designed for interactive input. 8M

Unit - II
3. a) Write the steps involved in generating circle using mid-point circle algorithm. 7M
b) Explain the scan line polygon filling algorithm. Also write the data structures used for 8M
implementing algorithm.
4. a) Explain flood filling algorithm with pseudo code. 7M
b) Write the code segment along with procedures for implementing the mid-point ellipse 8M
algorithm.

Unit - III
5. a) Show that the composition of two rotations is additive: 7M
R(Ѳ1)*R(Ѳ2)=R(Ѳ1+Ѳ2)
b) Determine a sequence of basic transformation that are equivalent to an x direction 8M
shearing matrix.
6. a) Derive the transformation matrix for fixed point scaling. 7M
b) A Polygon has 4 vertices located at A(20,10), B(60,10), C(60,30), D(20,30). Indicate a 8M
transformation matrix that double the size of the polygon with point A located at the
same place.

Unit - IV
7. a) Determine 3D transformation matrix to scale the line AB in Z-direction 3.5 by keeping 7M
point A fixed .Then rotate this line by 450 anticlockwise about x-axis. Given A(10,15,20)
and B(45,60,30).
b) A Bezier curve is to be drawn, given the control points P1(40,40), P2(10,40), P3(60,60), 8M
P4(60,0). Calculate the coordinates of the points on the curve corresponding to the
parameter t=0.2, 0.4, 0.6. Draw a rough sketch of the curve and show coordinates of the
various points on it.
8. a) Give the sequence of steps for 3D rotation about an arbitrary axis. 8M
b) Define orthographic projection. Give the transformation matrix and corresponding 7M
expressions for orthographic projection on to the co-ordinate planes.

Cont…2
::2::

Unit - V
9. a) What is visible surface detection? Give its classification. Explain briefly Back Face 8M
detection method.
b) Define Morphing? Explain morphing methods applied to any motion or transition 7M
involving a change in shape.
10. a) Explain Depth sorting algorithm for detecting visible surfaces. 7M
b) Describe the steps involved in animation sequence. Explain raster methods for computer 8M
animation.
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1602

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
DATA COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
(Information Technology)
Date: 26 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. a) With a diagram, explain OSI seven layer protocol hierarchy. 9M
b) Explain the following terms : 6M
i. Thermal noise
ii. Correlated noise
iii. Impulse noise
2. a) List and define the three parameters used to describe the sine wave. Also calculate the 6M
frequency in kilo hertz if the period of a sine wave is 100ms.
b) Explain the use of the following : 9M
i. Fourier series
ii. Even symmetry
iii. Odd symmetry
Unit – II
3. a) Describe the terms Velocity Factor and Dielectric Constant. 10M
b) What are plenum cables? Bring out their properties / characteristics. 5M
4. a) What are the features of Unshielded twisted-pair cable? List the categories of UTP 12M
defined by Electronic Industries Association. State the advantages of the UTP.
b) Write a brief note on open-wire transmission lines. 3M
Unit – III
5. a) Explain how pulse modulation is performed. 6M
b) With neat block diagrams explain the single channel, simplex PCM transmission system. 9M
6. a) Define dynamic range. Write and explain any three variant formulas for dynamic range. 5M
b) Explain the different line-encoding formats. 10M
Unit – IV
7. a) What is POSTNET code? Explain briefly the format of POSTNET code. 7M
b) Explain any four primary ways of calculating a checksum. 8M
8. a) Discuss briefly the following asynchronous data link protocols: XMODEM, YMODEM, 9M
ZMODEM.
b) What is Hamming Distance? Design “good” code words for the following data words: 6M
00, 01, 10, 11. Assume each code word is 4 bits long.
Unit – V
9. a) What are digital service unit and channel service unit? 6M
b) Write a note on the following : 9M
i. Bits per second versus Baud
ii. Data communications Equipment
10. a) List any four functions of a telephone set. 8M
b) With a diagram explain telephone call procedure. 7M
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1408

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
ELECTRONIC CIRCUIT ANALYSIS
(Electronics and Communication Engineering)
Date: 28 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

UNIT - I
1. a) Draw the circuit of CE transistor configuration and give its h-parameter model. 8M
b) For the CE amplifier, the h-parameter are given as hfe=50, hie=1.1kΩ, hre=2.5x10-4 and 7M
hoe=24µmhos. Calculate Ai, R1, Av and Ro if RL=10kΩ and Rs=1kΩ.
2. a) Draw the common gate configuration using JFET and derive an expression for Zi and Zo. 7M

b) The common-gate circuit shown in Fig.1 has a FET with Yfs=3000μs and rd=50KΩ. 8M
Determine the circuit input and output impedances and the circuit voltage gain.

Fig.1
Unit - II
3. a) For a current series feedback amplifier, derive expressions for Rif and Rof. 8M
b) Determine the voltage gain, input and output impedence with feedback for voltage 7M
series feedback, having A= -100, Ri=10kΩ,Ro= 20kΩ for feedback of:
i. β= - 0.1
ii. β= -0.5
4. a) With a neat circuit diagram, explain the working of an RC phase shift oscillator. 9M
b) Calculate the frequency of a Wien bridge oscillator where R=10KΩ and C=2400pf. 6M
Derive the relationship used.
Unit - III
5. a) Draw the circuit of two stage RC-coupled amplifier using BJT and briefly explain the 9M
frequency response of it along with its operation.
b) The total dB gain of a 3 stage system is 120 dB. Determine the dB gain of each stage of 6M
the 2nd stage has the twice the dB gain of the 1st stage and the 3rd has 2.7 times the dB
gain of the 1st stage. Determine also the voltage gain of each stage.
6. a) Derive the expressions for all the hybrid-π parameters in terms of low frequency h 9M
parameters in CE transistor.
b) An amplifier system consists of 3 cascaded stages which have identical half power 6M
frequencies, They are 10Hz and 25 KHz, determine the half power frequencies of the
system.
Cont….2
:: 2 ::

UNIT - IV
7. a) What are the classifications of power amplifiers? Explain in detail? 9M
b) A class B amplifier provides a 20V peak output signal to 15Ω load. The system operates 6M
on a power supply of 25 volts determine the efficiency of the amplifier.
8. a) Draw the circuit of class A large signal amplifier, explain its output characteristics and 7M
hence derive an expression for power.
b) A transformer-coupled class A power amplifier draws a current of 200mA from a 8M
collector supply of 10v, when no signal is applied to it.
Determine:
i. Maximum output power
ii. Maximum collector efficiency and
iii. Power rating of the transistor
If the load connected across the transformer secondary is of 2Ω and transformer turn-
ratio is 5:1, comment on the impedance matching.

Unit - V
9. a) Explain the advantages of tuned amplifiers. 6M
b) Draw the circuit diagram of a single tuned capacitance coupled amplifier and derive 9M
expressions for the voltage gain and bandwidth.
10. a) Explain in brief the advantages of using double tuned circuit over single tuned circuit. 6M
b) Explain the working of a tuned amplifier with inductive coupling. 9M
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1409

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/11A)
PULSE AND DIGITAL CIRCUITS
(Electronics and Communication Engineering)
Date: 30 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I

1. a)
v v 8M
Verify v1  T / 2 RC
, v1  T / 2 RC
for a symmetrical square wave applied to high
1 e 1 e
pass RC circuit.
b) Draw the output waveform for the first two cycles if the voltage wave shown in Fig.1 is 7M
applied at t=0 to a low pass circuit. Initially the capacitor is not charged. The time
constant of the circuit is 2msec.

Fig.1
2. a) Draw the response of a series RLC network to a step input voltage, Derive the response in 9M
undamped case.
b) The limited ramp shown in Fig.2. is applied to an RC differentiator. Draw to scale the 6M
output waveform for:
i. T = RC
ii. T = 0.2 RC
iii. T = 5RC

Fig.2
Unit – II
3. a) The input voltage V i is applied to a two level clipper as shown in Fig.3. varies linearly from 9M
0 to 150V, sketch the output Vo to the same time scale as the input voltage. Assume ideal
diodes.

Fig.3

Cont…2
:: 2 ::

b) Draw the wave form of the output voltage Vo of the clamping circuit shown in Fig.4 6M
Assuming very large time constant RC and ideal diodes. The input is a symmetrical square
wave of 20 volts excursion.

Fig.4
4. a) State and prove the clamping theorem. 7M
b) A square wave of amplitude 10V and frequency 10KHz is applied to the clamper circuit 8M
shown in Fig5. Following parameters are given. Rf= Rs =100Ω, R =20KΩ, C =1μf, Draw the
first few cycles of the response.

Fig.5
Unit – III
5. a) With a neat circuit diagram explain the working of a collector coupled astable 7M
multivibrator. Derive the equation for the time period.
b) Design a a Schmitt trigger circuit shown in Fig.6, with UTP=6 and LTP=3V. Assume Ge 8M
transistors with hFE(min) = 50 and IC = 4mA. Supply voltage =15V

Fig.6
6. a) With a neat circuit diagram explain the working of an collector coupled monostable 8M
multivibrator. Derive the equation for the pulse width.
b) Design a self-bias bistablemultivibrator with a supply voltage of –12 V. A p-n-p silicon 7M
transistors with hFE(min)= 50, VCE(sat)= –0.3V,VBE(sat)= –0.7 V and IC2= –4 mA are used.
Unit – IV
7. a) Define the three errors that occur in a sweep circuit and obtain an expression for these 8M
errors for an exponential sweep circuit.
b) For the bootstrap sweep generator shown in Fig.7, estimate: 7M
i. Sweep error
ii. Sweep amplitude
iii. Retrace duration
Plot to scale the output and input waveforms on the same time scale.
Given VCC = 10V, VEE = 10V R =10KΩ, C =0.05μf , Rb = 10KΩ, Re =5KΩ, hfe= 100, hie=2K,
hoe= 1/40K. Assume that input is a 1kHz symmetrical square wave.

Fig.7
Cont…3
:: 3 ::

8. a) With a neat circuit diagram explain the working of a simple current sweep generator 8M
using necessary waveforms and derivations.
b) Write important applications of time base circuits. With reference to time base circuits 7M
define the following terms:
i. Fly back time
ii. Transmission error
Unit – V
9. a) With a neat diagram, explain how an unidirectional diode gate can be used to transmit 8M
positive pulses.
b) With a neat circuit diagram explain the working of 2-input TTL NAND gate 7M
10. a) With reasons explain why the ECL is fastest of all the logic families? What are the main 7M
drawbacks? Write the important characteristics of ECL.
b) In the circuit shown in Fig.8. 10b, RL = R1 = 100KΩ, R2 = 50KΩ and the signal has a peak 8M
value of 20V. Find:
i. A
ii. V(c) min
iii. V(n) min
iv. Ri when the diodes are ON

Fig.8
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A1410

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
ELECTROMAGNETIC THEORY AND TRANSMISSION LINES
(Electronics and Communication Engineering)
Date: 23 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit - I
1. a) State and prove Gauss’s Law. 6M
b) A charge of -0.3  C is located at A (25,-30, 15) in cm, and a second charge of 0.5  C is 9M

 
B(-10, 8, 12) cm. find Electric field intensity E at
i. Origin
ii. P(15, 20, 50) cm
2. a) Calculate the work done in moving a charge of 15  C in an electro static field with 9M

E  8xy ax  4 x 2 a y  2a zV / m from point B(1, 7, 4) to (2, 17, 5), if the path selected
is y=3x2+z. and z =x+3
b) Obtain an expression for electric potential at any point distance ‘r’ from a point charge Q 6M
at the origin.

Unit - II
3. a) The positive y-axis (semi-infinite line with respect to the origin) carries a filamentary 7M
current of 2A in–ay direction. Assume it is a part of large circuit. Find the magnetic field
intensity at:
i. A(2, 3, 0)
ii. B(3, 12, -4)
b) A circular loop located on x2+y2= 9, z=0 carries a direct current of 10A along aφ direction. 8M
Find H at (0, 0, 4). Also derive the required relation.
4. a) Derive the expression for the magnetic field intensity H at a point P along the axis of a 8M
solenoid of length L and radius ‘a’ which consists of ‘N’ turns of wire carrying current I.
b) Planes z=0 and z=4 carry current k  10a x A/m and k  10 ax A/m respectively. 7M
Determine H at (1,1,1) and at (0,-3, 10).

Unit - III
5. a) List the Maxwell’s equation for good conductor and time varying fields. 10M
 
b) If the H   3x cos   6 y sin   az : find J , if fields are invariant with respect to time. 5M
  E 7M
6. a) Do the field E  EM sin x sin t a y and H  M cos x cos t a z satisfy Maxwell’s equation.
0
b) Two extensive homogenous isotropic dielectric meet on plane z=0. For z>0  r1  4 and 8M
for z<0  r2  3 . A uniform electric filed E1  5ax – 2a y  3a z kV / m exists for z>0:
i. Find E2 for z<0
ii. The angles E1 and E2 make with the interface
iii. The energy density in medium-1

Cont…2

::2::
Unit - IV
7. a) Derive the expression for electromagnetic wave propagating through lossy dielectric 8M
medium.
b) A plane wave propagating through a medium with  r  8 and r  2 has 7M
E=e –z/3
 sin  10 t – βz   a x  V/m . Determine β, intrinsic impedance and wave velocity.
8

8. a) State and prove Poynting theorem. 8M


b) In a homogenous non magnetic medium E=4sin(2πx107t–0.8x) ax v/m. Find relative 7M
permitivity, intrinsic impedance and the time average of power carried by the wave.

Unit - V
9. a) The primary constants for a coaxial cabel at f=1GHz are L=250 nH/m, C=95 pF/m, 7M
R=0.06  /m and G=0 determine:
i. 
ii. 
iii. Phase velocity
iv. r
b) Describe the single stub and double stub in a lossless line. 8M
10. a) A lossless transmission line with characteristic impedance 50 ohm and is 30m long 10M
operates at 2 MHz. The line is terminated with a load of 60 + 40j ohm. If u = 0.6c on the
line. Find the reflection coefficient, standing wave ratio and input impedance using
smith chart.
b) A telephone line has R=6  /km, L=2.2mH/km, C=0.005  F/km and G=0.05   /km. 5M
Determine Z0,  ,  @ 1KHz. If the line length is 100km, determine the attenuation and
phase shift of the signal. Calculate the phase velocity of the signal.
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1405

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Regular Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11A)
ELECTRONIC DEVICES AND CIRCUITS
(Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)
Date: 23 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. a) Explain the Avalanche and zener breakdown with the help of V-I characteristics. 6M
b) Explain the working of a full wave rectifier and derive expressions for: 9M
i. Idc
ii. Irms
iii. Ripple factor
2. a) Write the current equation of a PN junction and explain the V-I characteristics. What is 7M
the effect of temperature on cut in voltage and reverse saturation current?
b) The half wave rectiver with internal resistance of a diode is 10 is to supply power to a 8M
500 ohm load from a 10V, 50 Hz supply. Calculate:
i. Im
ii. Idc
iii. Vdc
iv. Rectifier efficiency
Unit – II
3. a) Draw a sketch to show the various current components in a transistor. Write the 6M
equations relating IE, IB and IC.
b) Determine the quiescent current and collector to emitter voltage for a silicon transistor 9M
with =50 in the self biasing arrangement. The circuit component values are VCC=20V,
RC=2K, RE=0.1K, R1=100K, R2=5K. Also find S.
4. a) Explain in brief at least 5 important specifications of BJT. 5M
b) Define biasing of a transistor, compare the base bias, collector to base bias and voltage 10M
divider bias and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the three types of bias
circuits.
Unit – III
5. a) Draw the h parameter model for CE amplifier and define all h parameters. 7M
b) A CE transistor amplifier is driven by a voltage source VS of internal resistance RS=1200. 8M
The load impedance is a resistance RL=1200.The h parameters of the transistor are
hie=1100 ohm, hfe=51, hre=2.5x10-4 hoe=25mhos. Compute:
i. AI
ii. Zi
iii. AV
iv. Z0

Cont…2
:: 2 ::

6. a) Using h parameter model of CE transistor configuration, derive expressions for: 8M


i. AI
ii. Zi
iii. AV
iv. Z0
b) Compare the three transistor configurations with respect to: 7M
i. Ri
ii. R0
iii. Ai
iv. AV
v. Phase difference between input and output
Unit – IV
7. a) Explain the construction and transfer characteristic of a N channel JFET. 8M
b) Determine the following for the network shown in Fig.1: 7M
i. VGS
ii. ID
iii. VDS, given IDSS = 10mA, VP = -4V

Fig.1

8. a) With relevant sketches, Explain the construction and characteristic of a N channel 8M


enhancement MOSFET.
b) Sketch and explain the small signal model of JFET configuration. 7M
Unit – V
9. a) Derive the relationship between the gain without feedback and gain with feedback for a 7M
general feedback amplifier.
b) List the advantages of crystal oscillator. Explain the working of a crystal oscillator. 8M
10. a) If an amplifier has bandwidth of 200KHz and a voltage gain of 100. What will be the new 8M
bandwidth and gain if 5% negative feedback is introduced?
b) In RC phase shift oscillator, the phase shift network uses the resistance each of 4.7KΩ 7M
and capacitance each of 0.47μF. Find the frequency of oscillation.
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A1401

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Regular Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11A)
ELECTRONIC DEVICES
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
Date: 23 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit - I
1. a) Explain the principle of electrostatic focusing in a CRO. Explain how to measure phase and 8M
frequency of signals can be determined using Lissajous Patterns.
b) Explain the principle of Halleffect. Lists its applications. 7M
2. a) Explain the energy based diagrams for N and P type semiconductors. 7M
L..l d 8M
b) Show that the electrostatic deflection sensitivity (S) of a CRT is S =
2dEa

Unit - II
3. a) Explain with relevant sketches and equation the volt- Ampere characteristic of a diode. 9M
b) Sketch and describe the diode equivalent circuits. 6M
4. a) Compare Zener and Avalanche breakdown mechanism. 7M
b) Describe the transition and diffusion capacitance of a diode, with relevant equations. 8M

Unit - III
5. a) Explain the working of a full wave rectifier and derive an expression for its efficiency. 9M
b) Explain the operation of a photodiode with neat sketch of the circuit and the 6M
characteristics.
6. a) Describe the construction and characteristic of SCR. 9M
b) Calculate the value of ‘C’ that has to be used for capacitor filter of a full wave rectifier to 6M
get a ripple factor of 6.01%. The rectifier supplies a load of 20KΩ, while supply frequency
is 50Hz.

Unit - IV
7. a) Draw the CE transistor circuit to obtain input and out characteristics. Mark different 8M
regions and explain in brief.
b) Explain the construction and working of enhancement MOSFET. 7M
8. a) Explain in brief the following transistor specifications: 8M
i. fT
ii. f
iii. hFE
iv. IC
b) Explain the construction and working of JFET. 7M

Cont…2
::2::

Unit – V

9. a) Discuss bias compensation technique using diode. 7M


b) Determine the following for the network shown in Fig.1: 8M
i. VGSQ
ii. IDQ
iii. VDS
iv. VD
v. VG
vi. VS

Fig.1
10. a) Determine the DC bias voltage V CE and current IC for the voltage divider configuration 8M
shown in Fig.2:

Fig.2

b) Explain the fixed bias configuration using JFET. Also derive equation for VDS. 7M
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1013

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/11A)
MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS AND FINANCIAL ANALYSIS
(Electronics and Communication Engineering)
Date: 03 May, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. a) Distinguish between Individual demand and Market demand. 5M
b) Explain determinants of demand. 10M
2. a) What is the purpose of demand forecasting? 5M
b) Discuss critically the different methods of demand forecasting. 10M
Unit – II
3. a) Explain External Economies of Scale. 5M
b) Find out the break even units for a company whose selling price per unit is Rs.100, 10M
variable cost per unit is Rs.60 and total fixed cost is Rs.1,20,000. Also find the number of
units the company should sell to earn a profit of Rs. 50,000.
4. Assuming that the cost structure and selling prices remain the same in periods I and II find 15M
out:
i. P/V ratio
ii. Break even sales
iii. Profit when sales are 1,00,000
iv. Sales required to earn a profit of Rs.20,000
v. Margin of safety in period I and II
Period Sales(Rs) Profit(Rs)
I 1,20,000 9,000
II 1,40,000 13,000

Unit - III
5. a) What is Pure Monopoly? What are the causes and kinds of monopoly? 6M
b) Write a note on price and output determination in the short run under monopolistic
competition. Illustrate with graphs. 9M
6. a) What is market structure? Explain the different types of market structure. 7M
b) How pricing is done for a new product? Which are the two kinds of pricing strategies for 8M
a new product? Explain.
Unit – IV
7. a) Distinguish between a partnership firm and Joint stock company. 6M
b) How changing business environment in post-liberalization scenario has affected India in 9M
last two decades.

Cont…2
:: 2 ::

8. a) Explain the sources of rising long term finance. 6M


b) Calculate the net present value and payback period for the following cash flows. 9M
Years 0 1 2 3 4
Cash flows (Rs.) 11,50,000 3,00,000 4,00,000 4,50,000 3,50,000
Cost of capital is 14 per cent.
Unit – V
9. Pass Journal Entries for the following transactions. 15M
Jan 1 Started business with cash Rs.100,000
2 Deposited Rs.75,000 to bank
3 Purchased furniture Rs.20,000 and paid by cheque (Through Bank)
4 Purchased goods for cash Rs.15,000 and on credit for Rs.30,000 from
Ganesh
5 Paid shop rent Rs.2,500 cash
6 Sold goods for cash Rs.5,000 & on credit Rs.20,000 to Priya
7 Withdrew from bank for personal use Rs.1,000
8 Sold goods on credit Rs.6,000 to Jithesh
9 Received Rs.19,500 from Priya in full settlement of her account.
10 Received interest from bank Rs.600

10. a) Distinguish between profit and loss account and balance sheet? 6M
b) If current ratio = 2.8 acid-test ratio = 1.5 working capital = Rs.1,62,000 find out: 9M
i. Current Assets
ii. Current Liabilities
iii. Liquid Assets
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1212

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
CONTROL SYSTEMS
(Common to Electronics and Communication Engineering &
Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
Date: 26 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. a) An automobile driver uses control systems to maintain the speed of a car at a prescribed 7M
level. Sketch the block diagram to illustrate this feedback control system.
b) Obtain the transfer function c(s)/R(s) for the system shown in Fig.1 using block 8M
diagram reduction method.

Fig.1

2. a) Using the Mason’s gain formula, obtain the overall transfer function whose signal flow 8M
graph is shown in Fig.2.

Fig.2
V2 ( s)
b) Use SFG to obtain for the network shown in Fig.3. 7M
V1 (s)

Fig.3
Cont…2

:: 2 ::
Unit – II
3. a) Obtain expressions for rise time, peak time and % peak over shoot of a 2nd order under 8M
damped control system subjected to unit step input.
k
b) The open loop transfer function of an unity feedback system is G  s   if 7M
s  s  15 
K=225. What change must be made to reduce the peak over shoot by 50%. Without
change in settling time also find the new transfer function assuming 2% tolerance.
4. a) Determine the range of K for stability of an unity feedback control system with 6M
K
G s  using R-H criteria.
S 1  T1 S 1  T2 S 
Sketch the complete root locus diagram of the system whose open loop transfer 9M
b) K
function G  s  H  s  
S  S  6S  10 
2

Unit – III
5. a) Explain Nyquist stability criteria. 5M
b) Draw bode plot and hence determine maximum value of K for stability for the system 10M
k
with G  s  H  s  also determine GM, PM for K=1.
s 1  0.02 s 1  0.2 s 

k
6. a) For an unity feed back systems with G  s   draw bode plot 10M
s 1  0.1s 1  0.025 s 
and determine maximum value of K for stability and GM for K=1.
1
b) Draw polar plot for the system with G  s   . 5M
1  ST 
Unit – IV
7. a) What is a PI controller? Write the transfer function and its effect on system performance. 8M
b) Explain PD, PID controllers with respect to system performance with any example. 7M
8. a) What are the characteristics of Lead compensation? When lead compensation is 7M
employed?
b) Why compensation is necessary in feedback control system? Draw the lag compensator 8M
network and derive its transfer function. Also draw Pole-zero plot.
Unit – V
9. a) State properties of state transition matrix. 7M

  0 1   x1 
x
b) State equation of a control system is given by,  1       . Obtain the state 8M
x 
 2  2  3  x 2 
transition matrix.
10. a) A linear time-invariant system is characterized by homogeneous state equation. 7M

  1 0   x 
 x1     
1
 . Compute the solution of the homogeneous equation assuming the
 x  1 1   x 2 
 2
1 
initial state vector X0 =   .
 0
b) Construct a state model for a system characterized by the differential equation: 8M
3 2
d y d y dy
3
 6 2  11  6 y  4  0.
dt dt dt
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1209

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
POWER SYSTEM GENERATION
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
Date: 03 May, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. a) Discuss about base load and peak load power station. 6M
b) Discuss briefly the various modes of classification of hydro -electric power plant. 9M
2. a) Discuss about different types of conventional and non-conventional sources of energy. 6M
b) Calculate the average power in kW that can be generated in a hydro-electric project 9M
from the following data:
Catchment area= 5× 109m2
Annual rain fall= 1.25m
Mean head= 30mt
Yield factor =80%
Overall efficiency of plant=70%
If the load factor is 40%, what is the maximum demand?
Unit – II
3. a) What are the types of steam turbine? Briefly discuss their use and characteristics. 8M
b) A thermal power plant spends 25lakhs in one year as coal consumption. The coal has 7M
heating value of 5000Kcal/Kg. and costs 500 per ton. If the thermal efficiency is 35% and
electrical efficiency is 90%. Find the average load on the power plant.
4. a) Describe the schematic arrangement of a thermal power station and explain the function 10M
of each briefly.
b) The relation between water evaporated, coal consumption and energy generated for 5M
8hours shift in a thermal power plant is given by M =15000+10KWh, C = 5000 + 5KWh.
To what limiting value does the water evaporation per Kg of coal consumed approach as
the station output increases?
Unit – III
5. a) With a neat sketch explain the working of a nuclear power plant. 7M
b) Briefly explain about nuclear chain reaction and reactor control. 8M
6. a) With a neat sketch explain the working of a boiling water reactor. Also mention its 6M
disadvantages over pressurized water reactor.
b) Explain the methods adopted to improve the thermal efficiency of a gas power plant. 9M
Unit – IV
7. a) Define substation and explain about indoor and outdoor substation. 6M
b) Explain with a neat sketch in detail about single bus bar and single bus bar with bus 9M
sectionalizer.

Cont…2
:: 2 ::

8. a) Explain about SF6 gas insulated substation mentioning its merits and demerits. 7M
b) Define the following term with respect to substation: 8M
i. Relay
ii. Isolator
iii. Surge arrestor
iv. Main and transfer bus
Unit – V
9. a) What is tariff? Briefly explain about two part tariff. 6M
b) A factory has a maximum load of 240kW at 0.8p.f. lagging with an annual consumption 9M
of 50,000 units. The tariff is Rs 50perkVA maximum demand plus 10paisa per unit.
Calculate the flat rate of energy consumption. What will be annual saving if p.f. is raised
to unity?
10. a) Discuss about causes of low power factor and different methods of improving power 9M
factor.
b) A 3 phase, 5kW induction motor has a p.f. of 0.75 lagging. A bank of capacitors is 6M
connected in delta across the supply terminals and p.f. raised to 0.9 lagging. Determine
the kVAR rating of the capacitors connected in each phase. Consider efficiency of the
motor as 100%.
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1210

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/11A
AC MACHINES-I
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
Date: 30 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. a) Derive the EMF equation of a single phase transformer. 6M
b) A 40kVA single phase transformer with a ratio of 2000/250V has a primary resistance of 9M
1.15Ω and a secondary resistance of 0.0155Ω. Calculate:
i. The total resistance in terms of the secondary winding
ii. The total resistance drop on full load
iii. The total copper loss on full load
iv. If iron loss is 1500W then determine the full load efficiency of transformer at unity
power factor
2. a) Draw the complete Phasor diagram of a transformer for lagging p.f. and leading power 6M
factor
b) Define all day efficiency of a transformer? And find all day efficiency of a transformer 9M
having maximum efficiency of 98% at 15 KVA at unity power factor, and loaded as
follows 12 hours – 2 KW at 0.5 p.f. lag, 6 hours – 12 KW at 0.8 p.f. lag, 6 hours – No load.
Unit – II
3. a) Draw the connection diagram for conducting Sumpner’s test on a pair of single phase 5M
transformers.
b) The following data were obtained for the open circuit test on a small transformer: 10M
Terminal Voltage V 200 150 100 50
Frequency, c/s 50 37.5 25 12.5
Power input, W 55 38 23 10.25
Calculate the values of the hystersis and eddy current loss for frequency of 60Hz.
4. a) Derive the expression for saving of copper in a single phase step down transformer 8M
when compared to a two winding single phase transformer.
b) Two similar 200kVA, 1 phase transformers gave the following results when tested by the 7M
back to back method: W1 in supply line, 4kW, W2 in the primary series circuit when full
load current circulated through secondaries, 6kW. Draw the connection diagram and
calculate the efficiency of each transformer.
Unit – III
5. a) Describe the function of a closed delta terriarry winding employed in some three phase 6M
transformers.
b) Two single phase scott connected transformers supply a 3 phase four wire distribution 9M
system with 231V, between lines and the neutral. The H.V. windings are connected to a
two phase system with a phase voltage of 6600V. Determine the number of turns in
each section of the H.V. and L.V. winding and the position of the neutral point if the
induced voltage per turn is 8 volts.

Cont…2
:: 2 ::

6. a) Mention the purpose of connecting the tertiary winding. 7M


b) A 3 phase transformer rated at 1000KVA, 11/3.3KV has its primary windings star 8M
connected and its secondary windings delta connected. The actual resistances per phase
of these windings are primary 0.375, secondary 0.095 and the leakage reactances
per phase are primary 9.5, secondary 2. Calculate the voltage at normal frequency
which must be applied to primary terminals in order to obtain full load current in the
windings when the secondary terminals are short circuited. Also calculate the power
input under these conditions.

Unit – IV
7. a) Show that the output of a 3 phase stator is a rotating magnetic field which runs at 8M
synchronous speed.
b) Draw the power stages of a 3 phase induction motor and obtain the relationship 7M
between slip, rotor input and rotor copper loss.
8. a) With neat diagram explain the principle of operation of a deep bar rotor. 7M
b) A 4 pole, 3 phase induction motor operates from a supply whose frequency is 50Hz. 8M
Calculate:
i. The speed with which the field of the stator is rotating
ii. The speed of the rotor when the slip is 0.04
iii. The frequency of the rotor currents when the slip is 0.03
iv. The frequency of the rotor currents at stands till
Unit – V
9. a) State the different methods of starting a 3 phase induction motor and explain any two 9M
methods.
b) Two 50Hz, 3 phase induction motor having 6 poles and 4 poles respectively are 6M
cumulatively cascaded, the pole motor being connected to the main supply. Determine
the frequencies of the rotor currents and the slips referred to each stator fields if the set
has a slip of 2%.
10. a) Explain with circuit diagram any two speed control of a 3 phase induction motor from 8M
stator side.
b) A 3 Phase induction motor has a ratio of maximum torque to full load torque as 2.5: 1. 7M
Determine the ratio of actual starting torque to full load torque for star – delta starting.
Given R2 = 0.4 and X2 = 4.
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A1211

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
ELECTROMAGNETIC FIELDS
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
Date: 23 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. a) A point charge Q1=10μc is located at P1(1,2,3)m in free space while Q2=-5μc is at 7M
P2(1,2,10)m.
i. Find the vector force exerted on Q2 by Q1
ii. Find the co-ordinates of P3 at which point the charge Q3 experiences no force
b) Given the potential field V=50xyz volts in free space, find the total energy stored within 8M
the cube 0  x , y , z  2
2. a) The finite sheet 0  x  1, 0  y  1 on the z=0 plane has a charge density 8M
2 2 3/2
 S  xy ( x  y  25) Find:
i. The total charge on the sheet
ii. The electric field at (0,0,5)
iii. The force experienced by a -1mC charge located at (0,0,5)

b) Given the non uniform electric field E=ya x +xa y +2a z determine the work expended in 7M
2 2
carrying 2C from B(1,0,1) to A(0.8,0.6,1) along the shorter arc of the circle x  y  1
and z  1 and along the straight - line path from B to A.

Unit – II
3. a) Derive the expression for magnetic field intensity at a point due to infinite sheet of 8M
current.

b)    
Let H   y x 2  y 2 ax  x x 2  y 2 a y A / m in z=0 plane for 5  x  5m and 7M
5  y  5m . Find the total current passing through the z=0 plane in the  az direction
inside the rectangle -1<x<1 and -2<y<2.
4. a) State Biot – Savart’s law for magnetostatic fields. 3M

b) Using Ampere’s circuit law, determine H the magnetic field intensity in various regions 12M
of the infinitely long coaxial transmission line as shown in Fig.1.

Fig.1

Cont…2
:: 2 ::
Unit – III
5. a) Let V=2xy2z3 and ε=ε0. Given point P(1,2,-1), find: 7M
i. V at P
ii. E at P
iii. ρv at P
iv. The equation of the streamline passing through P
v. Does V satisfy Laplace equation?
 1
b) If J  (2cos( )ar  sin( )a ) A / m2 , calculate the current passing through: 8M
r3
i. A hemispherical shell of radius 20cm
ii. A spherical shell of radius 10cm
6. a) Determine the capacitance of each of the capacitors in the below Fig.2 given εr1 =4, εr2=6, 8M
d=5mm and S=30cm2:

Fig.2
b) Two homogeneous isotropic dielectrics meet on plane z=0 as shown in figure. 7M

For z ≥ 0, εr1=4 and εr2=3. A uniform electric field, E  5a x  2a y  3a z KV / m exists for z
≥ 0. Find:

i. E2 for z ≤ 0.
ii. The angles between electric field intensity and the normal to the boundary surface
in both media

Fig.3

Unit – IV
7. a) A small current loop L1 with magnetic moment 5az A.m2 is located at the origin while 7M
another small loop L2 with magnetic moment 3ay A.m2 is located at (4,-3,10). Determine
torque on L2.
b) Calculate M for a material in which 8M
i. Relative permeability is 1.4 and H = 350 ax A/m
ii. Relative permeability = 6 and there are 25 x 1028 atoms/m3 each having magnetic
dipole moment of 2.8 x 10-30 ax A.m2
iii. B = 8 x 10-3 az and susceptibility 0.4

Cont…3
:: 3 ::

8. a) A current distribution gives rise to the vector magnetic potential 7M


A  x 2 y ax  y 2 x ay  4 xyz az wb/m. Calculate B at (-1,2,5) and the flux through the
surface defined by z= 1m 0<x<1m, -1<y<4m.
b) A current of 6A flows from M(2,0,5) to N(5,0,5 ) in a straight solid conductor in free space 8M
an infinite current filament lies along the z-axis and carries a 50amp in the âZ direction
compute the vector torque as the wire segment using an origin at
i. (0,0,5)
ii. (0,0,0)
iii. (3,0,0)
Unit – V
9. a) State and explain Faraday’s law. 7M
b) State and explain Maxwell’s equations in time varying fields in both differential and 8M
integral forms.
10. a) State and prove Poynting theorem. 8M
b) In free space E = 20 cos(wt-50x) ay wb/m. Calculate displacement current density, 7M
magnetic field intensity and frequency.
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A1411

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
Date: 28 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. a) Briefly explain the low frequency response of an FET amplifier including the capacitive 9M
elements.
b) Given IE=2.5mA,hfe=140,hoe =20us,hob=0.5us, determine: 6M
i. The Common emitter hybrid equivalent circuit
ii. Represent the CE hybrid equivalent circuit parameters
2. a) Draw and explain the output characteristics of a BJT in CE configuration. 5M
b) DC analysis of the following source follower network results in VGSQ=-2.86V, IDQ=4.56mA, 10M
IDSS=16mA, Vp=4V and yOS=25us. Determine:
i. gm
ii. rd
iii. zi
iv. zo with and without rd
v. Av with and without rd

Fig.1
Unit – II
3. a) Explain the classification of power amplifiers. 7M
b) Explain the working of a class B push pull amplifier. Prove that the maximum efficiency is 8M
78.5%.

4. a) With necessary diagrams and equations deduce an expression for a class A series fed 10M
amplifier.
b) Calculate the harmonic distortion components for an output signal having fundamental 5M
amplitude of 2.5V,second harmonic amplitude of 0.25V,thirdharmonic amplitude of 0.1V
and fourth harmonic amplitude of 0.05V. Also calculate the total harmonic distortion.

Cont…2
:: 2 ::
Unit – III
5. a) Explain the working of a RC phase shift oscillator. 7M
b) For a trans conductance amplifier with series feedback has the following parameters. 8M
RB=470Ω, Rc=2.2KΩ, RE=510Ω, β=120, re=7.5Ω. Compute gain, input impedance and
output impedance with and without feedback.
6. a) Mention the different feedback configurations with neat diagrams. 8M
b) Deduce an expression for gain, input impedance and output impedance for voltage 7M
shunt feedback.
Unit – IV
7. a) Draw the circuit of a two level clipper circuit which is used to convert a sinusoidal signal 8M
into an approximate square wave. Draw its transfer characteristics, input and output
characteristics and explain its operation.
b) A high voltage generator gives a linear pulse rising for 0.05sec. remaining constant 7M
thereafter for 1sec. The rate of rise of the pulse is measured with an RC differential
circuit whose time constant is 150Psec. if the positive output voltage from the
differentiate has a maximum values 15V, determine the peak voltage of the generator.
8. a) Draw a high pass circuit, derive response for a ramp input of this circuit and show input 7M
and output characteristics.
b) Draw the transfer characteristics and output waveform for the two level clipper shown in 8M
Fig.2. Assume ideal diodes. The input is a sinusoidal signal of 40V peak value.

Fig.2
Unit – V
9. a) Explain the working of a self-biased Bistable multivibrator. 7M
b) Explain the working of a Schmitt trigger with a circuit diagram and necessary waveforms. 8M
10. a) With the help of circuit and waveforms, explain the working of emitter coupled astable 7M
multivibrator.
b) Design a collector coupled one shot multivibrator circuit using NPN transistor. Neglect ICBO 8M
and junction voltages of the transistor in saturation. Assume hfe(min) = 20. The stable
state of the transistor has VBE = -1. The on transistor has base current IB which is 50% in
excess of the IB(min) value. VCC = 8V, IC(sat) = 2mA, Delay time = 2500sec. Choose R1 = R2.
Question Paper Code:
Hall Ticket No:
A1215

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
ELECTRICAL TECHNOLOGY
(Common to Mechanical Engineering, Aeronautical Engineering & Civil Engineering)
Date: 21 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. a) List the different types of DC generators and also give their connection diagram. 8M
b) Derive the EMF equation of a D.C. Generator. 7M
2. a) Explain the swinburn’s test and derive the efficiency equation for generator. 8M
b) Explain back emf and derive the torque equation of a D.C. motor. 7M
Unit – II
3. a) Derive the EMF equation of a transformer. 5M
b) A 250 KVA, 11000/415V, 50Hz single phase transformer has 80 turns in the secondary, 10M
calculate:
i. The rated primary and secondary currents
ii. The number of primary turns
iii. The maximum value of flux
iv. Voltage induced per turn
4. a) Explain different losses available in transformer and then explain how to minimize the 5M
losses.
b) A 4 kVA, 400/200V, 50 Hz, single phase transformer gave the following results: 10M
No-load test : 200V, 0.7A, 60W (lv side)
Short-circuit test: 15V, 10A, 61W (hv side). Calculate:
i. Components of no-load current
ii. Efficiency on full-load at 0.8pf lagging
iii. Regulation at full load at 0.8pf lagging
Unit – III
5. a) Explain the principle of operation of a three phase induction motor. 6M
b) Draw slip-torque curve of an induction motor and obtain the relationship between, 9M
slip, rotor input and rotor copper loss.
6. a) Explain the starting methods of 3 phase induction motor and explain any one method. 7M
b) The power input to the rotor of a 440V, 50Hz, 6 pole 3 phase induction motor is 8M
100KW. The rotor electromotive force is observed to make 120 cycles per minute.
Calculate
i. Slip
ii. Rotor speed
iii. Mechanical power developed
iv. The rotor copper loss per phase
v. Speed of stator field with respect to rotor
Cont…2

:: 2 ::

Unit – IV
7. a) Derive an equation for the voltage induced in an alternator and the applications of 8M
different types of alternators.
b) Find the no load phase and line voltage of a star connected 3 phase, 6 pole alternator 7M
which runs at 1200 rpm, having flux per pole of 0.1 wb sinusoidally distributed. Its
stator has 54 slots having double layer winding. Each coil has 8 turns and the coil is
chorded by 1 slot.
8. a) Derive the emf equation of an alternator. Explain distribution factor and pitch factor. 8M
b) Tabulate the differences between salient and non – salient pole machines. 7M

Unit – V
9. a) Explain with neat diagram the working of a synchro transmitter system and give its 6M
application.
b) Discuss the function of an AC tacho-generator. Explain with neat diagram the 9M
construction and principle of operation.
10. a) Name the different types of single phase AC motors. Give some important applications 8M
of these motors.
b) What are servo motors? List its features to use for an application. 7M
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1014

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/11A)
PROBABILITY AND STATISTICS
(Mechanical Engineering)
Date: 03 May, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. a) A book shelf contains 20 books of which 12 are on Electronics and 8 are on 8M
Mathematics. If three books are taken out at random, find the probability that all the
three are on the same subject.
b) A problem in statistics is given to the 3 students A, B, C whose chances of solving it are 7M
1 3 1
of , and respectively. What is the probability that the problem is
2 4 4
solved?
2. a) In a certain town 40% have brown hair, 25% have brown eyes and 15% have both 8M
brown hair and brown eyes. A person is selected at random from the town.
i. If he has brown hair, what is the probability that he has brown eyes also
ii. If he has brown eyes, determine the probability that he does not have brown hair
b) The chance that doctor A will diagnose a disease X correctly is 60%. The chance that a 7M
patient will die by his treatment after correct diagnose is 40% and the chance of death
by wrong diagnosis is 70%. A patient of doctor A, who had disease x, died. What is the
chance that his disease was diagnosed correctly?
Unit – II
3. a) The probability of a man hitting a target is 1/3. 7M
i. If he fires 5 times, what is the probability of his hitting the target at least
twice
ii. How many times must he fire so that the probability of his hitting the
target at least once is more than 90%
b) Marks in an aptitude test given to 800 students of a school were found to be normally 8M
distributed. If 10 % of the students scored below 40 marks and 10 % of the students
scored above 90 marks, find the mean and S.D of the distribution.
4. a) The mean and variance of a binomial variable with parameters n and p are 16 and 8. 7M
Find:
i. p ( x  1)
ii. p ( x  2)
b) Find the mean and standard deviation of a normal distribution in which 7% of items 8M
are under 35 and 89% are under 63.
Unit – III
5. a) A random sample of 400 items chosen from an infinite population is found to have a 8M
mean of 82 and a standard deviation of 18. Find the 95% confidence limits for the mean
of the population from which the sample is drawn.
b) Define the following: 7M
i. Null hypothesis
ii. Alternative hypothesis
iii. Type I error
iv. Type II error
Cont…2
::2::

6. a) In a big city 325 men out of 600 men were found to be smokers. Does this information 7M
support the conclusion that the majority of men in this city are smokers?
b) According to the norms established for a mechanical aptitude test, persons who are 18 8M
years old have an average height of 73.2 with a standard deviation of 8.6. If 4 randomly
selected persons of that age averaged 76.7, test the hypothesis µ=73.2 against the
alternative hypothesis µ> 73.2 at the 0.01 level of significance.
Unit – IV
7. a) To test the hypothesis that a coin is fair, the following rule of decision is adopted: 8M
Accept the hypothesis if the number of heads in a sample of 100 tosses is between 40
and 60; reject the hypothesis otherwise. Find the probability of making the type I
error.
b) The mean weekly sale of soap bars in departmental stores was 146.3 bars per store. 7M
After an advertising campaign the mean weekly sales in 22 stores for a typical week
increased to 153.7 and showed a standard deviation of 17.2. Was the advertising
campaign successful?
8. a) In one sample of 8 observations, the sum of the squares of deviations of the sample 7M
values from the sample mean was 84.4 and in the other sample of 10 observations it
was 102.6. Test whether this difference is significant at 5 per cent point of F for n1  7
and n1  9 degrees of freedom is 3.29.
b) The means of two random samples of sizes 9 and 7 are 196.42 and 198.82 8M
respectively. The sum of the squares of the deviations from the mean is 26.94 and
18.73 respectively. Can the sample be considered to have been drawn from the same
normal population?
Unit – V
9. a) A Super market has two girls ringing up sales at the customers. If the service time for 8M
each customer is exponential with mean 4 minutes and if the people arrive in a
Poisson fashion at the rate of 10 per hour.
i. What is the probability of having to wait for service
ii. What is the expected percentage of idle time for each girl
b) On average 96 patients over 24 hour day require the service of an emergency classic. 7M
Also on average a patient requires 10 minutes of active attention. Assume that the
facility can handle any one emergency at a time. Suppose that it costs the clinic Rs.100
per patient treated to obtain an average servicing time of 10 minutes and that each
minute of decrease in this average time would cost Rs.10 per patient treated. How
much would have to be budgeted by the clinic to decrease the average size of the
queue from 4/3 patient to 1/2 patient?
10. Traffic to a message switching center for one of the outgoing communication lines arrive in 15M
a random pattern at an average rate of 240 messages per minute. The line has a
transmission rate of 800 characters per second. The message length distribution (including
control characters) is approximately exponential with an average length of 176 characters.
Calculate the following principal statistical measures of system performance, assuming
that a very large number of message buffers are provided:
i. Average number of messages in the system
ii. Average number of messages in the queue waiting to be transmitted
iii. Average time a message spends in the system
iv. Average time a message waits for transmission
v. Probability that 10 or more messages are waiting to be transmitted
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1312

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
THERMAL ENGINEERING-I
(Mechanical Engineering)
Date: 26 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit - I
1. a) State the functions of the following in an IC engine: 8M
i. Valve spring
ii. Fins
iii. Piston Rings
iv. Connecting rod
v. Piston
vi. Crank shaft
vii. Cam Shaft
viii. Engine Bearings
b) Draw a typical Valve time diagram of a 4 stroke engine. What is valve overlapping and 7M
what is its necessity?
2. a) With the help of P-V diagrams distinguish the Theoretical and Actual diesel cycle. 8M
b) With the help of a P-V diagram show how blowdown loss is affected by exhaust valve 7M
opening.
Unit - II
3. a) With the help of P-θ diagram explain the different stages of SI engine combustion. 8M
b) What is the effect of the following engine variables on SI engine Ignition lag: 7M
i. Self Ignition temperature of the fuel,
ii. Mixture strength,
iii. Initial temperature and
iv. Turbulence
4. a) How do the following variables affect the Delay period in CI engines: 8M
i. Intake Temperature
ii. Intake pressure
iii. Speed
iv. A/F ratio
b) With sketches show how Swirl and Squish are induced in the CI engine combustion 7M
chamber.
Unit - III
5. a) Define the following terms: 10M
i. Indicated Power
ii. Brake Power
iii. Mechanical Efficiency
iv. Brake mean effective pressure
v. Volumetric efficiency
b) The following observations have been made from the test of a four-cylinder, two- 5M
stroke gasoline engine. Diameter=10 cm, Stroke=15cm, Speed=1600rpm, Area of the
positive loop of indicator diagram=5.75 cm2, Area of the negative loop of indicator
diagram=0.25 cm2, Length of indicator diagram=55mm, Spring constant=3.5bar/cm,
find the indicated power of the engine.
Cont…2
::2::

6. a) Schematically explain the use of the study of the heat balance of an engine. 5M
b) The following data were recorded during a test on single-cylinder four-stroke oil 10M
engine. Bore=150mm, Stroke=300mm, Speed=18000rph (revolutions per hour), Brake
Torque=200N-m, indicated mean effective pressure=7 bar, fuel
consumption=204kg/hr, cooling water flow rate=5kg/min, cooling water temperature
rise=300C. Air-fuel ratio=22, exhaust gas temperature=4100C, Specific heat of exhaust
gases=1kJ/kgK, Room temperature=200C, calorific value of fuel=42MJ/kg. Determine:
i. Mechanical efficiency
ii. BSFC
iii. Draw heat balance sheet on minute basis and percent basis
Unit - IV
7. a) Derive the expression for work done on a Single stage Compressor without clearance. 7M
b) Define the following: 8M
i. Volumetric efficiency
ii. Clearance ratio of a compressor and derive the expression for volumetric
efficiency in terms of clearance ratio and pressure ratio
8. a) A single stage reciprocating air compressor takes 1m3 of air/minute at 1.013bar and 7M
150C and delivers it at 7bar. Assuming that the law of compression is pV1.35=const and
with no clearance calculate the indicated power.
b) A single stage double acting air compressor is required to deliver 14m3 of air/minute 8M
measured at 1.013bar and 150C. The delivery pressure is 7bar and the speed 300rpm.
The clearance is 5% of the swept volume with the compression and expansion index
n=1.3. Calculate:
i. Swept volume of the cylinder
ii. Delivery Temperature
iii. Indicated power
Unit - V
9. a) With a neat sketch analyze the variation of pressure and velocity of air passing through 7M
the impeller and the diffuser of a centrifugal compressor.
b) Compare the Axial Flow and Centrifugal Flow compressors. 8M
10. a) Compare the work inputs required for a Roots blower and a Vane type compressor 7M
having the same induced volume of 0.03m3/rev, the inlet pressure being 1.013bar and
the pressure ratio 1.5 to 1. For the vane type assume that internal compression takes
place through half the pressure range.
b) An axial flow compressor having 8 stages and with 50% reaction design compresses air 8M
in the pressure ratio of 4:1. The air enters the compressor at 200C and flows through it
with a constant velocity of 90m/s. The mean speed of rotating blades of the
compressor is
180 m/s. Isentropic efficiency of the compressor may be taken as 82%. Calculate:
i. Work done by the machine
ii. Blade Angles
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A1313

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY
(Mechanical Engineering)
Date: 28 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. a) What is manufacturing process? Explain the steps involved in a casting process. 10M
b) List the advantages of casting process. 5M

2. a) What is a pattern? Explain the various pattern allowances. 10M


b) Explain solidification in pure metals and alloys. 5M
Unit – II
3. a) With a neat sketch explain transferred and non transferred arc of plasma arc welding 8M
process.
b) Mention the classification of welding process. 7M

4. a) Mention the principle of resistance welding, list its types and explain any one. 8M
b) With a sketch explain the features of different types of flames in gas welding. 7M
Unit – III
5. a) With a neat sketch explain about friction welding and mention its advantages, 10M
disadvantages and application.
b) List the types of destructive and non destructive test done for checking the quality of 5M
welds.

6. a) With a neat sketch explain the welding process used for joining micro components with 9M
advantages and disadvantages.
b) Differentiate between soldering and welding. 6M
Unit – IV
7. a) Draw a neat sketch and explain the principles of bending and forming and state its 6M
applications.
b) Explain with sketch any 3 types of rolling mill. 9M

8. a) With a neat sketch explain tube drawing operation. 6M


b) Explain the following with sketch: 9M
i. Blanking
ii. Punching
iii. Coining
Unit – V
9. a) Differentiate between Direct and Indirect methods of extrusion with sketches. 8M
b) With neat sketch, explain Hydrostatic Extrusion process. 7M

10. a) Explain the process of injection molding with a neat sketch. 9M


b) Explain the properties of thermoplastics and their application. 6M
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1314

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
HYDRAULIC MACHINERY AND SYSTEMS
(Mechanical Engineering)
Date: 23 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. a) State and explain the Impulse momentum principle. 5M
b) A Jet of water of diameter 7.5cm strikes a curved plate at its centre with a velocity of 10M
20m/s, which is moving with a velocity of 8m/s in the direction of the jet. The Jet is
deflected through an angle of 165˚. Assuming the plate as smooth, find:
i. The force exerted by the Jet on the plate
ii. The power of the Jet
iii. The efficiency of the Jet
2. a) Prove that the force exerted by the Jet of water on a fixed semicircular plate in the 7M
direction of the jet when the jet strikes at the centre of a semicircular plate is two times
the force exerted by the Jet on a fixed vertical plate.
b) A Jet of water of diameter 50mm, having a velocity of 20m/s strikes a curved vane, 8M
which is moving with a velocity of 10m/s in the direction of jet. The Jet leaves the vane
at an angle of 60˚ to the direction of motion of vanes at outlet. Determine the following:
i. The force exerted by the Jet on the vane in the direction of motion
ii. The work done by the Jet per sec
Unit – II
3. a) Discuss the suitability of hydraulic turbines based on available head. 6M
b) A pelton wheel is supplied with a75mm diameter jet having a velocity of 100m/s. The 9M
buckets deflect the jet by 170o when stationery. The ratio of their vane speed to jet
speed is 0.47. Neglecting losses find:
i. Wheel diameter
ii. Power developed
iii. Kinetic energy head of the jet leaving the pelton wheel. Take speed of the turbine
as 600rpm
4. a) With the help of sketches explain briefly any four types of draft tubes. 5M
b) Determine the absolute pressure head at the inlet of a vertical divergent draft tube from 10M
the following data. Total length of draft tube is 5.75m, length of draft tube 1.25m, head
loss due to friction is 0.25 X kinetic head at outlet velocity, velocity of water at inlet is
5m/s. Tube inlet diameter is 0.6m, outer diam of tube is 0.9m. Find the efficiency of
draft tube.
Unit – III
5. a) Define unit speed, unit power and unit discharge with respect to turbines and write their 9M
corresponding mathematical expressions.
b) A pelton wheel turbine is to operate under a head of 400m at 400rpm. If a single jet of 6M
150mm diameter is used. Find the specific speed of this turbine. The following data may
be used. Cv=0.98, v=0.45 , overall efficiency as 85%. Find also pitch circle diameter.
:: 2 ::

6. a) What is the effect of acceleration in suction pipe on the pressure head in the cylinder of 8M
a reciprocating pump?
b) A single acting reciprocating pump has a plunger of diameter 125mm and a stroke of 7M
300mm. The length of the suction pipe is 9m and the diameter is 75mm. Find the
acceleration pressure head at the beginning of the suction stroke when the pump is
running at 30rpm. If the axis of the pump is 3m above the sump level. Find the absolute
pressure head in the cylinder at the beginning stroke. Take atmospheric head as 10.3m
of water.
Unit – IV

7. a) What is meant by manometric efficiency, mechanical efficiency and overall efficiency of 6M


a centrifugal pump?
b) A centrifugal pump is running at 1000 rpm. The outlet vane angle of the impeller is 45˚ 9M
and velocity of flow at outlet is 2.5m/s. The pump is working against a total head of 20m
and discharge through the pump is 0.2cumecs. If the manometric efficiency of the pump
is 80%, determine the diameter of the impeller and width of impeller at outlet.
8. a) Draw and discuss the operating characteristics curves of a centrifugal pump. 6M
b) Two geometrically similar pumps are running at the same speed of 1000rpm. One pump 9M
has an impeller diameter of 0.3m and lifts water at the rate of 20litres per sec, against a
head of 15m. Determine the head and impeller diameter of the other pump to deliver
half of the discharge.
Unit – V
9. a) Derive an expression for power transmission through pipes. What is the condition for 6M
maximum transmission of power and corresponding efficiency of transmission?
b) A Pipe of diameter 300mm and length 3500m is used for transmission of power by 9M
water. The total head at the inlet of the pipe is 500m. Find the maximum power
available at the outlet of the pipe, if the value of f is 0.006.
10. a) Derive an expression for the propelling force and the work done per sec on a tank which 6M
is provided with an orifice through which a jet of water is coming out and tank is free to
move?
b) The water in a Jet propelled boat is drawn amid-ship and discharged at the back with an 9M
absolute velocity of 20m/s. The cross sectional area of the jet at the back is 0.02m2 and
the boat is moving in sea water with a speed of 30Km/h. Determine the:
i. Propelling force on the boat
ii. The power required to drive the pump
iii. The efficiency of Jet propulsion
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1315

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
KINEMATICS OF MACHINERY
(Mechanical Engineering)
Date: 30 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. a) What are quick return mechanisms? Where they are used? Sketch and explain the 10M
functioning of Whitworth’s quick return mechanism.
b) Sketch the following: 5M
i. Spherical pair
ii. Sliding pair
2. a) With the help of neat diagrams explain any two inversions of single slider crank 8M
mechanism.
b) Explain crank and slotted lever quick return mechanism with a neat sketch. 7M
Unit – II
3. a) Explain the mechanism of Pantograph with a neat diagram. 7M
b) Prove that the Peaucellier mechanism can be used to draw exact straight line motion. 8M
4. a) Write a short note on Grasshopper mechanism. 7M
b) Explain briefly Scott Russel’s mechanism with suitable diagram. 8M
Unit – III
5. For the configuration of the crank and slotted lever mechanism shown in Fig.1 below find 15M
the velocity and acceleration of tool S and the angular velocity and angular acceleration of
link RS. The crank OP rotates at 210 rpm.

Fig.1
6. a) Explain with neat sketch Ackerman steering gear mechanism. 7M
b) In a pin jointed four bar mechanism ABCD, link AB = 300 mm, BC = CD=360 mm, and the 8M
fixed link AD = 600 mm. Link AB makes an angle of 60° with the link AD. Locate all the
instantaneous centers.
Unit – IV
7. Design a cam for operating the exhaust valve of an oil engine. It is required to give equal 15M
uniform acceleration and retardation during opening and closing of the valve each of which
corresponds to 60° of cam rotation. The valve must remain in the fully open position for 20°
of cam rotation. The lift of the valve is 37.5mm and the least radius of the cam is 40mm. The
follower is provided with a roller of radius 20mm and its line of stroke passes through the
axis of the cam.
Cont…2
::2::
8. a) State and prove law of gearing. 7M
b) Two 20 degree involute spur gears mesh externally and give a velocity ratio of 3. The 8M
module is 3mm and the addendum is equal to 1.1module. If the pinion rotates at
120rpm, determine the:
i. Minimum number of teeth on each wheel to avoid interference
ii. Contact ratio
Unit – V
9. a) A shaft runs at 80rpm and drives another shaft at 150rpm through belt drive. Diameter 8M
of the driving pulley is 600mm. Determine the diameter of the driven pulley in the
following cases:
i. Neglecting the belt thickness
ii. Taking belt thickness as 5 mm
iii. Assuming for case
iv. a total slip of 4%
v. Assuming for case
vi. a slip of 2% on each pulley
b) The driving pulley of an open belt drive is of 800mm diameter and rotates at 320rpm 7M
while transmitting the power to a driven pulley of 250mm diameter. The Young’s
modulus of elasticity of the belt material is 110N/mm2. Determine the speed lost by the
driven pulley due to creep if the stresses in the tight and slack side of the belt are found
to be 0.8N/mm2 and 0.32N/mm2.

10. An epicyclical gear train shown in Fig.2, is composed of fixed annular wheel ‘A’ having 150 15M
teeth. The wheel ‘A’ is meshing with wheel ‘B’ which drives wheel ‘D’ through an ideal wheel
‘C’. ‘D’ being concentric with ‘A’, the wheels ‘B’ and ‘C’ are carried on an arm which revolves
clockwise at 100 rpm about the axis of ‘A’ and ‘D’. If the wheels ‘B’ and ‘D’ have 25 teeth and
40 teeth respectively, find the number of teeth on ‘C’ and the speed and sense of rotation of
‘C’.

Fig.2
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1704

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
AERODYNAMICS-I
(Aeronautical Engineering)
Date: 23 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. Derive the expression for Cn and Ca in terms of shear stress, normal pressure and slope at a 15M
point on the airfoil.
2. a) With a neat sketch, explain in detail the airfoil nomenclature and characteristics. 9M
b) Consider a NACA 2412 airfoil with a chord of 0.64m in an airstream at standard sea level 6M
conditions. The free-stream velocity is 70m/s. The lift per unit span is 1254N/m.
Calculate the AOA and the drag per unit span.
Unit – II
3. Explain the following with relevant expressions and neat sketches: 15M
i. Kelvin’s circulation theorem
ii. Vortex sheet
iii. D. Alembert’s paradox
4. Consider the non-lifting flow over cylinder circular in cross section. Derive an expression for 15M
2
the pressure coefficient as, C p  1  4sin  , considering an arbitrary point (r, θ) in the flow.

Unit – III
5. Explain Complex potential function and conformal transformation with a brief explanation on 15M
Joukowski and Karman-Trefftz transformation.
6. Derive the fundamental thin airfoil relation and hence obtain an expression for lift coefficient 15M
and lift slope of a cambered airfoil.
Unit – IV
7. Derive the expressions for lift, downwash, induced angle of attack and induced drag for an 15M
elliptical lift distribution over a finite wing using Prandlt’s Lifting line theory.
8. Measured lift slope of NACA 23012 aerofoil is 0.1080 degree-1, and αL=0=-1.3°. Consider a 15M
finite wing using this airfoil, AR=8 and taper ratio=0.8. Assume δ = τ = 0.054, Calculate the lift
and induced drag coefficients for this wing at a geometric angle of attack = 7°.
Unit – V
9. a) Explain the Kutta-Joukowski theorem and generation of lift. 9M
b) How do source panel and vortex panel methods differ? 6M
2
th  v 
10. Derive an expression for Cp @ i control point, C p ,i   1  i  based on the source panel 15M
 v 
method for non – lifting flow over arbitrary bodies.
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1705

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
AIRCRAFT PRODUCTION TECHNOLOGY
(Aeronautical Engineering)
Date: 26 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. Describe the principle, process and equipment used in centrifugal casting method and 15M
investment casting.
2. a) What are the criteria to be considered while selecting a manufacturing process and 10M
Explain the steps involved in sand casting.
b) Write a note on pattern allowances. 5M
Unit – II
3. a) With a neat sketch explain arc welding circuit and equipment. 7M
b) Explain Brazing and its types. 8M
4. a) What are the different types of electrodes and write about flux coating and its 8M
functions?
b) Explain Soldering and the different fluxes used in soldering. 7M
Unit – III
5. a) What are the various components of a lathe machine? 7M
b) What are the different types of milling machines? 8M
6. a) Explain up milling and down milling. 7M
b) Explain Deep drawing with a sketch. What are the common defects associated with it? 8M
Unit – IV
7. With the help of schematic diagram, explain the working and applications of plasma arc 15M
machining.
8. a) Explain Electro-chemical machining with a neat sketch. 8M
b) Explain the process of lapping to achieve surface finish. 7M
Unit – V
9. Describe in detail dye penetrant test and magnetic particle testing. 15M
10. a) Explain milling fixtures and drilling fixtures. 7M
b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of Ultrasonic Testing? 8M
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1706

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/11A
AEROSPACE VEHICLE STRUCTURES-I
(Aeronautical Engineering)
Date: 28 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. a) Explain statically determinate and statically indeterminate structures with an example. 7M
b) Derive equations of equilibrium for a deformable body under three dimensional force 8M
system.
2. A plane, pin-jointed framework consists of six bars forming a rectangle ABCD 4000mm by 15M
3000mm with two diagonals, as shown in Fig.1. The cross-sectional area of each bar is 200
mm2 and the frame is unstressed when the temperature of each member is the same. Due to
local conditions the temperature of one of the 3000mm members is raised by 30o C, Calculate
the resulting forces in all the members if the coefficient of linear expansion α of the bars is
7 x 10-6 /oC, E=200,000 N/mm2.

Fig.1
Unit – II
3. a) Explain the Effect of boundary conditions on mode shapes and critical loads. 8M
b) Write a note on Models of instability of columns. 7M
4. A column of length lm has the cross-section shown in Fig.2. If the ends of the column are 15M
pinned and free to warp, calculate its buckling load; E=70000 N/mm2, G=30 000 N/mm2.

Fig.2
Unit – III
5. A rectangular element in a linearly elastic isotropic material is subjected to tensile stresses of 15M
83 and 65N/mm2 on mutually perpendicular planes. Determine the strain in the direction of
each stress and in the direction perpendicular to both stresses. Find also the principal
strains, the maximum shear stress, the maximum shear strain, and their directions at the
point. TakeYoung’s modulus E=2,00,000 N/mm2 and Poisson’s ratio ν=0.3.
Cont…2
:: 2 ::
6. At a particular point in a structural member, a two-dimensional stress system exists where 15M
σx=60N/mm2,σy=-40 N/mm2 and τxy=50 N/mm2. If the Young’s modulus E=200000=N/mm2
and Poisson’s ratio ν = 0.3, calculate the direct strain in the x and y directions and the shear
strain at the point. Also calculate the principal strains at the point and their inclination to the
plane on which σx acts; verify these answers using a graphical method.
Unit – IV
7. Derive an expression for total potential energy. 15M
n
TPE  U  V  U     Pr  r 
r 1

The symbols used in the above expression have their usual meanings.
8. Determine the deflection of the mid-span point of the linearly elastic, simply supported 15M
beam shown in Fig.3. the flexural rigidity of the beam is EI.

Fig.3
Unit – V
9. Explain Castigliano’s theorems. 15M
10. Calculate the shear flow distribution and the stringer and flange loads in the beam shown in 15M
Fig.4. at a section 1.5 m from the built-in end. Assume that the skin and web panels are
effective in resisting shear stress only; the beam tapers symmetrically in a vertical direction
about its longitudinal axis.

Fig.4
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1707

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/11A
FLIGHT MECHANICS-I
(Aeronautical Engineering)
Date: 30 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. a) Draw a neat sketch of standard atmosphere showing temperature gradient lines and 5M
isothermal lines.
b) Derive pressure and density variation in the isothermal and gradient regions of the 10M
atmosphere.
2. a) Write down role and design specifications of the aircraft performance requirements. 6M
b) Write briefly about Off - standards and design atmosphere. 9M
Unit – II
3. a) Derive an expression for Thrust required by an aircraft. 5M
b) Explain the thrust available for a jet aircraft and determine maximum velocity graphically 10M
and analytically.
4. a) Derive Breguet Range equation for propeller driven airplane. 8M
b) Derive Endurance expression for jet powered airplane. 7M
Unit – III
5. a) Draw a neat sketch of hodograph diagram for climb performance at a given altitude and 7M
explain its components.
b) Derive an expression for rate of Climb in terms of excess power. Also explain this 8M
concept using power required and power available curves.
6. What is Energy Height? Explain energy methods for optimal climbs, minimal time climbs 15M
and minimum fuel climbs.
Unit – IV
7. Derive an expression for take-off performance of an aircraft. 15M
8. Describe the various aspects of mission profile and fuel planning with relevant sketches. 15M
Unit – V
9. a) Describe payload range diagram. 8M
b) Write a short note on aircraft weight and balance. 7M
10. a) Explain the operational flight plan for an aircraft. 8M
b) Explain the maximum takeoff net weight with suitable sketches. 7M
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1708

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
MECHANISMS AND MECHANICAL DESIGN
(Aeronautical Engineering)
Date: 03 May, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. a) Explain the following terms with examples: 10M
i. Element
ii. Kinematic pair
iii. Mechanism
iv. Inversion
v. Machine
b) Determine the mobility of the mechanism shown in Fig.1. 5M

Fig.1
2. a) Prove that the Peaucellier mechanism can be used to draw exact straight line motion. 5M
b) What is an inversion? Explain any one inversion of a double slider crank chain. Also 10M
explain Whitworth quick return motion mechanism with the help of a neat sketch.
Unit – II
3. Find the velocity and acceleration of the piston of a slider crank mechanism by KLEIN’S 15M
constructions to the following specifications:
Crank radius = 150mm
Length of connecting rod = 600mm
Crank speed = 300rpm (clockwise)
Crank Angle = 450
4. The crank of a slider crank mechanism is 480mm long and rotates at 20rad/s in the counter 15M
clockwise direction. It has a connecting rod of 1600mm long. Determine the following when
the crank is 600 from the inner dead centrer:
i. Velocity of the slider
ii. Angular velocity of the connecting rod
iii. Position and velocity a point A on the connecting rod having least absolute velocity

Cont…2
:: 2 ::
Unit – III
5. a) State and prove Kennedy theorem. 6M
b) In a four bar mechanism shown in Fig.2, the link 2 is driven at 36rad/s. Find the velocity 9M
of link 3 and the velocity of point B by instantaneous center method. Link O2A = 50 mm,
O4B = AB = 200mm, distance O2O4 = 175 mm.

Fig.2
6. a) What do you mean by gyroscopic couple? Derive a relation for its magnitude. 7M
b) Derive an expression for effect of gyroscopic couple and centrifugal couple of stability of 8M
two-wheel vehicle taking a turn.
Unit – IV
7. A cam drives a flat reciprocating follower in the following manner : 15M
During first 120° rotation of the cam, follower moves outwards through a distance of 20mm
with simple harmonic motion. The follower dwells during next 30° of cam rotation. During
next 120° of cam rotation, the follower moves inwards with simple harmonic motion. The
follower dwells for the next 90° of cam rotation. The minimum radius of the cam is 25mm.
Draw the profile of the cam.
8. A cam is to be designed for a knife edge follower with the following data: 15M
Cam lift = 40 mm during 90° of cam rotation with simple harmonic motion
Dwell for the next 30°
During the next 60° of cam rotation, the follower returns to its original position with simple
harmonic motion
Dwell during the remaining 180°.
Draw the profile of the cam when:
i. The line of stroke of the follower passes through the axis of the cam shaft
ii. The line of stroke is offset 20mm from the axis of the cam shaft
The radius of the base circle of the cam is 40mm. Determine the maximum velocity and
acceleration of the follower during its ascent and descent, if the cam rotates at 240rpm.
Unit – V
9. a) A leather belt is required to transmit 7.5kW from a pulley 1.2m in diameter, running at 7M
250r.p.m. The angle embraced is 1650 and the coefficient of friction between the belt
and the pulley is 0.3. If the safe working stress for the leather belt is 1.5MPa, density of
leather is 1Mg/m3 and the thickness of belt l0mm, determine the width of the belt
taking centrifugal tension into account.
b) Design a helical compression spring to carry a load of 500N with a deflection of 20mm. 8M
Permissible shear stress = 350MPa. The spring index may be taken as 6. Modulus of
rigidity = 82.7kN/mm2.
10. a) State law of gearing and derive an equation for the same. 5M
b) In a reverted epicyclic gear train, the arm A carries two gears B and C and a compound 10M
gear D - E. The gear B meshes with gear E and the gear C meshes with gear D. The
number of teeth on gears B, C and D are 75, 30 and 90 respectively. Find the speed and
direction of gear C when gear B is fixed and the arm A makes 100r.p.m. clockwise.
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1107

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/VCE-11A)
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS-II
(Civil Engineering)
Date: 26 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. a) What do you understand buy the theories of failure? Explain principal stress theory. 7M
b) A bolt is subjected to an axial pull of 12kN together with a transverse shear force of 8M
6kN. Determine the diameter of bolt using maximum principal stress theory.
2. At a point in strained material there is a tensile stress of 80N/mm2 upon a horizontal plane 15M
and a compressive stress of 40N/mm2 upon a vertical plane. There is also a shear stress of
40N/mm2 upon each of these planes. Determine the maximum stresses at the point.
Determine also the resultant stresses on the plane and sketch the resultant stresses.
Unit – II
3. a) Using Euler’s theory derive an equation for the crippling load for long column both ends 10M
fixed.
b) Calculate the critical load Pcr for a 8 X35 steel column (see Fig.1) having length 5M
L =24m and E =30 X106 Mpa under the following conditions:
i. The column buckles by bending about its strong axis (axis 1-1)
ii. The column buckles by bending about its weak axis (axis 2-2)
iii. In both cases, assume that the column has pinned ends

Fig.1
4. A steel bar has a square cross section of width b = 2.0m. (see Fig2). The bar has pinned 15M
supports at the ends and is 3.0m long. The axial forces acting at the end of the bar have a
resultant P =20kN located at distance e =0.75m. from the center of the cross section. Also,
the modulus of elasticity of the steel is 29,000Mpa.
i. Determine the maximum compressive stress in the bar
ii. If the allowable stress in the steel is 18,000Mpa, what is the maximum permissible
length of the bar?

Fig.2

Cont…2
:: 2 ::

Unit – III
5. a) Derive the torsion equation for circular shafts. 7M
b) A solid shaft transmits 250kN at 100rpm. If the shear stress is not to exceed 75N/mm2, 8M
what should be the diameter of the shaft. If this shaft is to be replaced by a hollow one
whose internal diameter =0.6 times the outer diameter, determine the size of shaft.
6. a) A railway wagon weighing 65kN and moving with a speed of 18kmph has to be stopped 8M
any four buffer springs. The maximum compression allowed in each spring is 200mm.
Calculate the no. of turns required in each spring if the diameter of the wire of the spring
is 20mm.The mean diameter of each coil is 200mm. C=0.84x105 N/mm2.
b) An open coiled helical spring is subjected to an axial load of 50kN. Determine the 7M
deflection of the spring and maximum shear stress in the spring wire where number of
coils =4, mean radius of coil =30mm, diameter of spring wire =5mm.C=80000MPa, angle
of helix=10o , E=1x105N/mm2.
Unit – IV

7. a) List the stability requirements of masonry dams. 5M


b) A concrete dam of trapezoidal section having water in its vertical face is 16meters heigh. 10M
The base of dam is 8m wide and top is 3m wide. Find:
i. Resultant thrust per meter length of dam
ii. Intensities of maximum and minimum stress across the base. Weight of
concrete=24kN/m3.Water level coincides with top of dam
8. A masonry retaining wall of trapezoidal section is 6m high and retains earth which is level 15M
upto the top. The width at the top is 1m and exposed face is vertical. Find the minimum width
of the wall at the bottom in order the tension may not be induced at the base. The density of
masonry and earth is 2300 and 1600kN/m3 respectively. The angle of repose of the soil is 30°.
Unit – V
9. Determine the magnitude and the nature of forces in the members of the truss shown in 15M
Fig.3. Use method of sections.

Fig.3
10. Evaluate the forces in the members of the truss shown in Fig.4, by the method of joints and 15M
indicate their nature.

Fig.4
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1108

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/11A)
STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-I
(Civil Engineering)
Date: 28 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks

Unit – I
1. Analyse the propped cantilever loaded as shown in Fig.1. Draw BMD and SFD. Assume 15M
constant EI throughout the span.

Fig.1
2. Determine the deflection at quarter span points for the prop as shown in Fig 2. 15M

Fig.2
Unit – II
3. Analyse a fixed beam of span ‘L’ with an eccentric point load ‘P’ for fixed end moments. 15M
Draw SFD and BMD.

Fig.3
4. Analyse the given continuous beam using three moment theorem. Draw SFD and BMD. 15M

Fig.4
Unit – III
5. A train of wheel loads as shown in Fig.5. crosses a simply supported beam of span 24 m from 15M
left to right. Calculate the maximum negative shear and maximum positive shear force
values at the centre of the span and also the absolute maximum bending moment anywhere
in the span.

Fig.5
Cont…2
:: 2 ::

6. Determine the vertical and horizontal deflection at point E in the frame shown in the Fig.6. 15M
Assume EI constant throughout.

Fig.6
Unit – IV
7. Two wheel loads of 160kN and 400kN spaced 2m a part move on a simply supported beam 15M
girder of span 16m as shown in Fig.7. Find the maximum positive and negative shear force at
a section:
i. 4m from the left end
ii. 6m from the left end

Fig.7
8. Analyse the two span continuous beam shown in Fig.8. by slope deflection method and draw 15M
BMD and SFD and elastic curve.

Fig.8
Unit – V
9. Determine the horizontal displacement at B for the truss loaded as shown in Fig.9. The area 15M
of cross section of each member is given in adjoining circle in mm2. E=200GPa.

Fig.9
10. Find the degree of static indeterminacy for the structures as shown in Fig.10. 15M

Fig.10
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1109

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
HYDRAULICS AND HYDRAULIC MACHINES
(Civil Engineering)
Date: 23 April, 2016 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. a) State Buckingham’s  -theorem. What do you mean by repeating variables? How are the 7M
repeating variables selected in dimensional analysis?
b) Find an expression for the drag force on smooth sphere of diameter D, moving with a 8M
uniform velocity V in a fluid of density ρ and dynamic viscosity μ.
2. a) Define the following non-dimensional numbers: 8M
i. Reynold’s Number
ii. Froude’s Number
iii. Mach Number
iv. Euler’s Number
b) A pipe of diameter 1.5m is required to transport an oil of sp. gr. 0.90 and viscosity 3 x 10 -2 7M
poise at the rate of 3000litre/s. Tests were conducted on a 15cm diameter pipe using
water at 200C. Find the velocity and rate of flow in the model. Viscosity of water at 200C is
0.01poise.
Unit – II
3. a) Prove that the force exerted by a jet of water on a fixed semi-circular plate in the 10M
direction of the jet when the jet strikes at the centre of the semi-circular plate is two
times the force exerted by the jet on a fixed vertical plate.
b) A jet of water of diameter 50mm moving with a velocity of 40m/sec, strikes a curved 5M
fixed symmetrical plate at the centre. Find the force exerted by the jet of water in the
direction of the jet, if the jet is deflected through an angle of 120o at the outlet of the
curved plate.
4. a) Derive an expression for the force exerted by a jet of water on moving inclined plate in 7M
the direction of jet.
b) A jet of water having a velocity of 45m/s impinges without shock a series of vanes 8M
moving at 15m/s, the direction of motion of the vanes being inclined at 20o to that of
the jet. The relative velocity at outlet is 0.9 of that at inlet and the absolute velocity of
water at exit is to be normal to motion of the vanes. Find:
i. Vane angles at entrance and exit
ii. Work done on vanes per unit weight of water supplied by the jet
Unit – III
5. a) Define the term most economical section of a channel. What are the conditions for the 8M
rectangular channel of the best section?
b) A rectangular channel carries water at the rate of 400litres/s when bed slope is 1 in 2000. 7M
Find the most economical dimensions of the channel if C = 50.

Cont…2
:: 2 ::
6. a) Explain the following terms: 8M
i. Specific energy of a flowing liquid
ii. Minimum specific energy
iii. Critical depth
iv. Critical velocity
b) A rectangular channel 2m wide carries a discharge of 6m3/s. Calculate the critical depth, 7M
critical velocity and specific energy at critical depth.
Unit – IV
7. a) Obtain an expression for work done per second by water on the runner of a Pelton 8M
wheel. Hence derive the expression for maximum efficiency.
b) A Kaplan turbine produces 60,000kW under a net head of 25m with an overall efficiency 7M
of 90%. Taking the value of speed ratio as 1.6 and flow ratio as 0.5. Assume hub
diameter as 0.35 times the outer diameter. Find the diameter and speed of the turbine.
8. a) Explain different characteristic curves of a hydraulic turbine. 8M
b) The quantity of water available for a hydroelectric station is 275m3/s, under a head of 7M
18m. Assuming the speed of the turbine to be 150rpm, and their efficiency 82%,
determine the number of turbines required if:
i. Francis turbine whose specific speed must not exceed 395rpm
ii. Kaplan turbine whose specific speed must not exceed 690rpm
Unit – V
9. a) Define suction head, delivery head, static head and manometric head in a centrifugal 8M
pump.
b) The diameters of an impeller of a centrifugal pump at inlet and outlet are 30cm and 7M
60cm respectively. The velocity of flow at outlet is 2.0m/s and the vanes are set back at
an angle of 45o at the outlet. Determine the minimum starting speed of the pump, if the
manometric efficiency is 70%.
10. a) Explain various efficiencies applicable to single stage centrifugal pumps. 8M
b) The internal and external diameters of the impeller of a centrifugal pump are 200mm 7M
and 400mm respectively. The pump is running at 1200rpm. The vane angles of the
impeller at inlet and outlet are 20o and 30o respectively. The water enters the impeller
radially and velocity of flow is constant. Determine the work done by the impeller per
unit weight of water.
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1110

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
BUILDING PLANNING AND DRAWING
(Civil Engineering)
Date: 30 April, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. a) Explain the needs of lighting and ventilation requirements for a building. 7M
b) Explain plinth area, floor area and carpet area with examples. 8M
2. a) Write a brief note on classification of buildings. 7M
b) How do you justify the open area requirements for a building? Explain briefly. 8M
Unit – II
3. Develop a line diagram to a suitable scale for a bank building with the following requirements: 15M
i. Manager’s cabin with attached toilet
ii. Banking hall
iii. Cash counter
iv. Waiting hall, entrance lobby
v. Strong room
vi. Toilet block
4. Prepare a line diagram for canteen for the following requirements( capacity 100) 15M
i. Kitchen with store
ii. Entrance lobby with cash counter
iii. Dining area
iv. Service counters
v. Toilet block
vi. Wash area
vii. Utility
Unit – III
5. a) Compare between CPM and PERT and give an example each on its applicability. 7M
b) Briefly explain two different techniques to draw network diagrams. 8M
6. a) Write short note on project planning. 7M
b) Give the advantages of construction scheduling. 8M
Unit – IV
7. Draw neat sketches of the following in English bond: 15M
i. Plan and elevation showing alternate courses of 1 ½ brick thick wall
ii. Plan and elevation showing alternate courses of 2 brick thick wall
8. Describe with neat sketches any two of the following: 15M
i. Queen post truss
ii. Couple roof or collar roof
iii. Steel window

Cont…2
:: 2 ::
Unit – V
9. For the given line diagram of a residential building Fig.1, arrange doors, windows, ventilators 15M
and open spaces at required places and draw the plan and elevation along A-B. Assume
suitable dimensions for foundation, doors and windows etc.

Fig.1
10. Draw plan and section for the given line diagram of a residential building Fig.2, arrange 15M
doors, windows, ventilators and open spaces at required places and assume suitable
dimensions for foundations, doors and windows etc.

Fig.2
Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A1111

VARDHAMAN COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING


(AUTONOMOUS)
B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2016
(Regulations: VCE-R11/R11A)
SURVEYING-II
(Civil Engineering)
Date: 03 May, 2016 Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75
Answer ONE question from each Unit
All Questions Carry Equal Marks
Unit – I
1. a) What is local attraction? How it is detected and eliminated? 7M
b) The following are the bearings taken in a closed compass traverse. Compute the interior 8M
angles and correct them for observational errors.
Side Fore- bearing Back-bearing
AB 80° 10’ 259° 00’
BC 120° 20’ 301° 50’
CD 170° 50’ 350° 50’
DE 230° 10’ 49° 30’
EA 310° 20’ 130°15’
2. a) What are the basic parts of a prismatic compass? Explain the function of each part. 7M
b) Convert the following whole circle bearings to quadrantal bearings: 8M
i. 56o20’
ii. 170o 05’
iii. 218o30’
iv. 272o 50’
Unit – II
3. a) What are the accessories used in plane table survey? Explain them briefly with sketches. 7M
b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of plane table surveying? 8M
4. a) What is orientation? Explain different methods of orientation of a plane table. 7M
b) List and Explain different types of errors in plane table surveying. 8M
Unit – III
5. a) Explain anallatic lens. What are its advantages? 7M
b) A leveling staff is held vertical at distances of 100m and 300m from the axis of a 8M
tachometer and the staff intercept for horizontal sights are 0.99m and 3.00m
respectively. Find the constants of the instrument.
6. a) Derive the distance and elevation formula for the line of sight horizontal and staff held 7M
vertical.
b) A tacheometer is setup at an intermediate point on a traverse course PQ and the 8M
following observations are made on a vertically held staff.
Staff station Vertical angle Staff intercept Axial hair reading.
P 8° 36’ 2.350 2.105
Q 6° 6’ 2.055 1.895
The instrument is fitted with an anallatic lens and the constant is 100. Compute the length
of PQ and reduced level of Q, that of P being 321.50metrs.

Cont…2
:: 2 ::

Unit – IV
7. a) Explain the basic features of total station. 8M
b) Define Geographic Information System (GIS). Mention the basic objectives of GIS. 7M
8. a) Compare the features of a total station with conventional survey instruments. 7M
b) Explain the principle of Global Positioning System. 8M

Unit – V
9. a) Draw a neat diagram of compound circular curve and label the components. 7M
b) Determine the chainages of PC, PCC and PT of a right hand compound curve, given the 8M
following data:
Total deflection angle = 800
Radius of 1st arc = 200m
Radius of 2nd arc = 250m
Chainage of point of intersection = 1504.8m
Deflection angle of 1st arc = 500
10. a) Draw a neat diagram of simple curve and label the components. 7M
b) Calculate the necessary data for setting out a simple curve of radius 250m to connect two 8M
tangents by methods of offsets from chord produced, if the deflection angle is 46030’,
chord length of 20m, chainage of intersection point being 2032.0m.

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