MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. New pension system for new entrants to Central Government service was introduced
from ...............................

(a) 22-12-2003

(b) 01-04-2004

(c) 01-01-2004

(d) 31-12-2003

2. Who of the following are exempted from the New Pension System?

(a) Armed Forces

(b) Railway Services

(c) P & T Department

(d) None of the above

3. What is the monthly rate of contribution by Government servants to Tier I of the New Pension Scheme?

(a) 6 % of Basic Pay plus DA

(b) 7.5 % of Basic Pay plus DA

(c) 9 % of Basic Pay plus DA

(d) 10 % of Basic Pay plus DA

4. What is the rate of Government contribution to the employee's account under Tier I of the New Pension
Scheme?

(a) 5 % of Basic Pay plus DA

(b) 7.5 % of Basic Pay plus DA

(c) 14 % of Basic Pay plus DA

(d) 15 % of Basic Pay plus DA

5. The Chairperson of PFRDA shall hold office for a term of ....................... from the date on which he enters
his office.

(a) Five years

(b) Ten years

 (c) Six years

(d) Four years

6. A whole time member of PFRDA shall hold office until he attains the age of

(a) 60 years

(b) 61 years

(c) 62 years

(d) 65 years

7. What are the powers delegated to the Chairperson of PFRDA?

(a) Financial Powers

(b) Legal Powers

(c) Administrative Powers

(d) All the above

8. No person shall hold office as a Chairperson of PFRDA after he has attained the age of .....................

(a) Fifty eight years

(b) Sixty years

(c) Sixty two years

(d) Sixty five years

9. Under which of the following circumstances will the Chairperson or any other member be removed by the
Central Government from PFRDA ?

(a) When the person is adjudged as insolvent

(b) When the person becomes physically or mentally incapable

(c) When the person is convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude

(d) All the above

10. Who is competent to preside over the meeting of PFRDA in the absence of the Chairperson for any reason?

(a) The Chairperson can nominate someone

 (b) Any seniormost member

(c) Any other member chosen by the members present from amongst themselves at the meeting

(d) None other than the Chairperson can preside over the meeting

11. The provisions of PFRDA Act, 2013 is not applicable to the schemes or funds under_

(a) Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952

(b) Coal Mines Provident Fund Act, 1948

(c) Seamen's Provident Fund Act, 1966

(d) All the above

12. To be appointed as a member of PFRDA in which of the following discipline experience is required?

(a) Economics

(b) Finance

(c) Law

(d) Any one of the above

13. Who is competent to relax the normal restriction on future employment of members of the Authority ?

(a) Central Government

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Members of PFRDA

(d) President of India

14. Who is empowered to extend New Pension Scheme to the employees of Union Territory?

(a) Ministry of Pension and Pensioners' Welfare

(b) Finance Ministry

(c) Central Government

(d) Administrator of a Union Territory

15. Who is competent to appoint officers and employees to discharge the functions under this Act?
 (a) Any of the whole time members

(b) The Chairperson

(c) The Chairperson

(d) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority

16. What is the time limit prescribed for the Investigating Authority to keep any books, registers, other
documents and records under its custody for the purpose of investigation as per PFRDA Act, 2013?

(a) Nine Months

(b) Six Months

(c) Two months

(d) Four months

17. Which officer is competent to search and seize any documents, books or papers relating to any claim,
rebate or commission, etc. under PFRDA Act, 2013?

(a) Any intermediary associated with the scheme

(b) An officer of the Authority, not below the rank equivalent to that of a Gazetted Officer

(c) Any member of the Authority

(d) Any one of the above

18. The books, accounts, papers, receipts, vouchers, reports or other documents seized for investigation shall
not be retained by the Authorized Officer for a period exceeding ....................... from the date of seizure.

(a) 140 days

(b) 160 days

(c) 120 days

(d) 180 Days

19. What is the maximum per cent of the contribution made by the subscriber that is allowed to be withdrawn
from the pension account under the National Pension System?

(a) 0.1

(b) 0.25

(c) 0.5

(d) 0.9
20. What is the maximum amount of funds that can be invested by a subscriber in Government securities?

(a) 0.4

(b) 0.5

(c) 0.9

(d) 1

21. What are the eligibility norms for a Central Recordkeeping Agency specified in the regulations?

(a) Minimum capital requirement

(b) Ability to provide returns

(c) Geographical reach

(d) All the above

22. Who will grant a certificate of registration for commencement of any activity relating to a Pension Fund?

(a) Ministry of Pension

(b) Ministry of Finance

(c) Central Government

(d) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority

23. What is the penalty imposed on an intermediary for carrying out any activity relating to a Pension Fund
without obtaining the certificate of registration?
(a) One lakh rupees for each day during which the failure continues or one crore rupees, whichever is
less

(b) Seventy five thousand rupees per day until it obtains a certificate of registration

(c) One crore rupees per year until it obtains the certificate

(d) Fifty thousand rupees perday until it obtains a certificat of registration

24. To which Fund are the sums realized by way of penalties imposed on intermediaries to be credited?

(a) Government Account

(b) Subscriber Education and Protection Fund

(c) PFRDA Account

 (d) Pension Fund

25. Who will appoint an adjudicating officer for holding an inquiry?

(a) Ministry of Pension and Pensioner's Welfare

(b) Prime Minister of India

(c) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority

(d) None of the above

26. What is the punishment imposed in case a person fails to pay the penalty or fails to comply with directions
issued by the member of this Authority?

(a) Imprisonment for a term of up to ten years

(b) Fine to the tune of twenty five crore rupees

(c) Imprisonment of one month only

(d) (a) or (b) or both

27. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority is exempted from which of the following taxes?

(a) Wealth Tax

(b) Income Tax

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

28. Any person aggrieved by an order made by PFRDA or by an adjudicating officer under PFRDA Act, 2013
may prefer an appeal before the ............................

(a) Central Administrative Tribunal

(b) State Administrative Tribunal

(c) Securities Appellate Tribunal

(d) Civil Court

29. What is the time limit prescribed to prefer an appeal before the Securities Appellate Tribunal by a person
aggrieved by an order made by PFRDA?

(a) Thirty days from the date of receipt of the order

(b) Forty five days from the date of receipt of the order
 (c) Twenty five days from the date of receipt of the order

(d) Sixty days from the date of receipt of the order

30. Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Securities Appellate Tribunal under this Act may file
an appeal to the ............................

(a) High Court

(b) Civil Court

(c) District Court

(d) Supreme Court

31. What is the time limit prescribed for filing an appeal by a person aggrieved by any decision or order of the
Securities Appellate Tribunal?

(a) Thirty days from the date of communication of the decision or order

(b) Sixty days from the date of communication of the decision or order

(c) Forty five days from the date of communication of the decision or order

(d) Ninety days from the date of communication of the decision or order

32. Who is competent to sanction grants for the expenses of the Authority?

(a) Finance Ministry

(b) Cabinet Secretary

(c) Central Government

(d) Pension Ministry

33. The Pension Regulatory and Development Fund shall be utilized for_

(a) Paying salary and other remuneration of members of PFRDA

(b) Paying pension to subscribers

(c) Granting donations

(d) Paying the taxes of PFRDA

34. What is the time limit prescribed for the disposal of appeal filed before the Securities Appellate Tribunal ?

(a) 3 months
 (b) 6 months

(c) 4 months

(d) 2 months

35. Which of the following amounts are being credited to the Subscriber Education and Protection Fund ?

(a) Grants and donations by Central, State Governments

(b) Interest or other income received out of investments made

(c) Sums realized by way of penalties by the Authority

(d) All the above

36. Who will Audit the annual accounts of the Authority?

(a) Controller General of Accounts

(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(c) Accountant General

(d) Pay and Accounts Officer

37. The Pension Advisory Committee shall consist of_

(a) Not more than ten members

(b) Not more than fifteen members

(c) Not more than twenty members

(d) Not more than twenty five members

38. What is the purpose of Pension Advisory Committee ?

(a) To advise the Authority on matters relating to making regulations consistent with the Act

(b) To control the Subscriber Education and Protection Fund

(c) To supervise the finance and accounts of the Authority

(d) To supervise the overall function of the Authority

39. After the close of each financial year, PFRDA shall submit to the Central Government a report giving a
true and full account of activities including activities of promotion and development of schemes of pension
funds within_
 (a) Six months

(b) Nine months

(c) Four months

(d) Two months

40. From which Fund are the salaries, allowances and other remuneration of the Chairperson, other members,
officers and other employees of the Authority being paid under this Act?

(a) Subscriber Education and Protection Fund

(b) Pension Regulatory and Development Fund

(c) Consolidated Fund of India

(d) Any one of the above

41. The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall endorse a copy of every order made by it to ........................

(a) The Adjudicating Officers

(b) The parties

(c) The Authority

(d) All the above

42. When can a Government servant exit from Tier I of the New Pension Scheme?

(a) On or after the age of 55 years

(b) On or after the age of 58 years

(c) On or after the age of 60 years

(d) On or after the age of 62 years

43. What is the mandatory percentage fixed for investment of pension wealth to purchase an annuity from an
IRDA regulated Life Insurance Company to provide for pension for lifetime of the employee and his
dependants, if he exits at the age of 60 years?

(a) 0.4

(b) 0.5

(c) 0.5

(d) 0.5
44. Mention the mandatory annuitization percentage of the pension wealth on exit before attaining the age of
60 years.

(a) 0.5

(b) 0.6

(c) 0.7

(d) 0.8

45. What are the elements of salary to be taken to determine the contributions of Government servants under
Tier I of the Scheme?

(a) Basic Pay

(b) Basic Pay plus DA

(c) Basic Pay plus DA and HRA

(d) Basic Pay plus DA, HRA and Transport Allowance

46. A person joins Central Government service in the month of April, 2018. When will the deductions towards
Tier I contribution start from his pay bill?

(a) From April, 2018

(b) From May, 2018

(c) From June, 2018

(d) From April, 2019

47. What is the percentage of deduction of GPF for Government servants joining after 1-1-2004?

(a) 0.06

(b) 0.1

(c) 0.14

(d) No deduction

48. Who will allot an unique 16 digit Permanent Pension Account Number (PPAN) to the employees?

(a) DDO

(b) PAO

(c) IRDA
 (d) CPAO

49. A Government servant is drawing pay Rs. 60,400 in Level 7 during the month of September, 2018 (DA 9%,
HRA 24%, TPT Rs. 3,600 plus DA). Calculate the NPS contribution recovered from his pay bill for
September, 2018.

(a) Rs. 8,426

(b) Rs. 8,033

(c) Rs. 6,040

(d) Rs. 6,584

50. What action is to be taken by the DDO, if an official is transferred from one accounting circle to another
accounting circle with regard to his Pension Fund?

(a) Balance will be transferred by PAO

(b) Transfer the entire ledger cards along with covering letter

(c) PAO will intimate the balance to the CPAO

(d) DDO should indicate in LPC the Unique Account Number, the month up to which Government
servant's contribution and Government's contribution have been transferred to the Pension Fund

51. Who will prepare annual account statements for each employee at the end of each financial year?

(a) Principal AO

(b) Pay and Accounts Officer

(c) CPAO

(d) DDO

52. Indicate the meaning of the last five digits in the unique 16 digit Permanent Pension Account Number
(PPAN).

(a) Calendar year of the joining of the Government servant

(b) PAO Code

(c) Running serial number of the individual Government servant

(d) Civil Ministry Code

53. State whether a Government servant who joined duty after 1-1-2004 is eligible for encashment of leave
salary after retirement under NPS?

(a) Earned leave, being a part of pensionary benefits will be credited to the pension account
 (b) Not eligible for encashment

(c) The benefit of encashment of leave salary is admissible in terms of CCS (Leave) Rules

(d) Maximum of one month salary is eligible as encashment

54. Is Non Practising Allowance (NPA) which is payable to Medical Officers, taken into account for the
purpose of working out contributions to NPS?

(a) NPA is to be taken into account for calculation of NPS contribution

(b) 50% of NPA is to be taken into account for calculation of NPS contribution

(c) 25% of NPA is to be taken into account for calculation of NPS contribution

(d) NPA not to be taken into account for calculation of NPS contribution

55. A Government servant who was already in service prior to 1-1-2004, is appointed subsequently in a
different post under Government of India governed by the NPS and joins on technical resignation. State
whether he will be covered under CCS (Pension) Rules or New Pension Scheme?

(a) Will be covered by (CCS) Pension Rules, 1972

(b) Past service will not count for Pension under (CCS) Pension Rules, 1972

(c) Past service will be covered under New Pension Scheme

(d) Retirement benefits will be paid for past service

56. What is the method followed for interest calculation on NPS accumulations?

(a) Interest is calculated quarterly

(b) Simple interest is calculated on monthly basis

(c) Savings Bank interest calculation method

(d) Simple interest calculated yearly

57. From which date is the revised rate of monthly contribution at the rate of 14% by Central Government
given effect?

(a) 01-01-2019

(b) 10-12-2018

(c) 01-04-2019

(d) 31-01-2019

58. How will the pay of the Chairman be regulated, if he is appointed from a PSU to Interim Pension Fund
Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
 (a) As decided by Central Government

(b) Last pay drawn in the PSU

(c) Last pay drawn after deducting pension

(d) Pay admissible to a Secretary to GoI

59. How will the pay of a person be fixed if he is appointed from a private sector as Chairman for PFRDA?

(a) As decided by the Government

(b) Last pay drawn in the Private Sector

(c) Rupees One lakh

(d) 25% increase in the last pay drawn in the Private Sector

60. State whether the Chairperson and members will be entitled to get other allowances during their tenure in
PFRDA?

(a) Entitled to Basic Pay only

(b) Entitled to DA, CCA, LTC, TA and DA at the rate admissible to officers of equivalent pay in the
Government

(c) Entitled to DA only

(d) Not entitled to any allowances

61. The Chairman and any Member of PFRDA may visit abroad officially without any Government approval if
the visit is for less than .........................

(a) 30 days

(b) 20 days

(c) 12 days

(d) 15 days

62. How many days of EL per year of service is a Chairperson or Member of PFRDA entitled to?

(a) 30 days

(b) 20 days

(c) 60 days

(d) Not eligible

63. What is the entitlement of EL encashment to a Chairman and members of PFRDA at any time?

(a) 25% of EL at credit

(b) 50% of EL at credit

(c) 75% of EL at credit

(d) 100% of EL at credit

64. Of the following, identify the persons not eligible for leave encashment?

(a) Chairman and Members appointed from PSU

(b) Chairman and Members appointed from Private Sector

(c) Chairman and Members appointed from Government

(d) All the above

65. How is TA/DA regulated for Chairman and members of PFRDA?

(a) As applicable to Government servants drawing same Basic Pay

(b) A lumpsum amount to be paid

(c) Actual expenditure reimbursed

(d) No TA/DA is allowed

66. To what extent is medical facilities available to the Chairman and members of PFRDA?

(a) Reimbursement of actual medical expenditure

(b) A lumpsum amount equal to Basic Pay

(c) Not eligible for reimbursement of medical expenditure

(d) Reimbursement of actual premium paid to purchase medical Insurance cover

67. What is the mandatory share of an individual Government servant required to be invested from pension
wealth to purchase an annuity during exit at or after 60 years?

(a) 50% of Pension Fund

(b) 40% of Pension Fund

(c) 30% of Pension Fund

 (d) 25% of Pension Fund

68. What is the percentage of lumpsum payment made to a Government servant from the pension wealth at the
time of exit at or after 60 years?

(a) 0.8

(b) 0.5

(c) 0.6

(d) Full i.e. 100%

69. ................................ contribution shall be made during suspension under NPS.

(a) 0.1

(b) 0.5

(c) 0.6

(d) No

70. What will be the rate of contribution recovered from the employee during Half Pay Leave under NPS?

(a) Restricted to that proportionate to leave salary

(b) No contribution to be recovered

(c) Full contribution to be recovered

(d) 25% of contribution to be recovered

71. If the Government servant exits prior to the age of 60 years by means of removal / resignation, what will
be the mandatory annuitization percentage of the Pension Wealth?

(a) 80% of the Pension Wealth

(b) 60% of the Pension Wealth

(c) 50% of the Pension Wealth

(d) 75% of the Pension Wealth

72. Indicate the rate of contribution payable by a Government servant and the Government for an employee on
EOL including medical grounds?

(a) Full contribution by both

(b) No contibution either from Government servant or from the Government

 (c) 50% of contribution is to be recovered from the Government servant

(d) Full contribution only by Government

73. A Government servant was drawing pay @ Rs. 52,000 in Level 8 from 1-9-2018. He was placed under
suspension for the period from 1-10-2018 to 31-10-2018. What will be the amount of contribution recovered
during the suspension period?

(a) Rs. 5,668

(b) Rs. 5,200

(c) Rs. 2,834

(d) None of the above

74. A Central Government servant is drawing pay @ Rs. 66,000 in Level 7 from 1-11-2018. He proceeded on
HPL from 1-12-2018 to 31-12-2018. What will be his NPS contribution for the month of December 2018?

(a) Rs. 3,597

(b) Rs. 3,300

(c) Rs. 9,240

(d) Rs. 5,036

75. An Office Assistant in a Central Government office is drawing pay @ Rs. 40,400 from 1-8-2018 with
special allowance Rs. 1,500, HRA 24%. He was sanctioned EXOL with MC for one month from 1-10-2018 to
31-10-2018. Indicate the amount of NPS contribution of the employee.

(a) Rs. 970

(b) Rs. 1,120

(c) No contribution to be made

(d) Rs. 4,404

76. Mr. 'A' appointed in Central Government service on 1-1-2004 retired on invalidation not attributable to
Government duty on 30-6-2018. State what type of pension he is eligible for?

(a) No pension is admissible

(b) Invalid pension calculated in terms of Rule 38 and Rule 49 of CCS (Pension) Rules, 1972

(c) Only Retirement Gratuity is admissible

(d) Pension equal to last pay drawn is admissible

77. An Income Tax Inspector covered under NPS died in service attributable to Government duty. State
whether he is eligible for family pension.
 (a) Not eligible for family pension

(b) Minimum family pension is admissible

(c) Extraordinary Family Pension computed in terms of CCS (EoP) Rules is admissible

(d) Only death grauity is admissible

78. A Central Government servant was covered under NPS from 1-1-2005. He was discharged from
Government service due to disease / injury attributable to Government duty on 31-1-2016. Elucidate his
pension benefit.

(a) Disability pension computed in terms of CCS (EoP) Rules

(b) Not eligible for any pension

(c) Minimum pension eligible as per (CCS) Pension Rules, 1972

(d) A lumpsum compensation is to be paid

79. What is the percentage of family pension under EoP Rules in case of death of an employee covered under
NPS holding a non pensionable post?

(a) 30% of Basic Pay

(b) 40% of Basic Pay

(c) 60% of Basic Pay

(d) 50% of Basic Pay

80. Calculate the invalid pension in respect of a NPS Central Government servant invalided not attributable to
Government duty. The details are given below: (1) Date of appointment 1-7-2008. (2) Date of invalidation 28-
2-2018. (3) Emoluments Rs. 55,200 from 1-7-2017.

(a) Invalid pension not admissible since the Qualifying Service is less than 10 years

(b) Rs. 27,600 p.m. from 1-3-2018

(c) Rs. 9,000 p.m. from 1-3-2018

(d) Rs. 7,946 p.m. from 1-3 -2018

81. A Government servant covered by NPS died in service not attributable to Government duty. His service
particulars are given below. Calculate his eligible family pension. (1) Date of appointment 1-10-2016. (2) Date
of death 10-7-2018. (3) Emoluments on date of death Rs. 37,600.

(a) Rs. 11,280 p.m.

(b) Rs. 9,000 p.m.

(c) Rs. 18,800 p.m.

 (d) Rs. 22,560 p.m.

82. What is the ceiling limit for availing tax benefit under Section 80 CCE for NPS contribution?

(a) Rs. 1.5 lakhs

(b) Rs. 2 lakhs

(c) Rs. 1 lakh

(d) No limit

83. What is the additional tax benefit under Section 80 CCD (1 B) for contribution to NPS from the Financial
Year 2015 2016 ?

(a) Rs. 30,000

(b) Rs. 25,000

(c) Rs. 40,000

(d) Rs. 50,000

84. Who is called an annuity service provider under NPS?

(a) A Life Insurance Company registered and regulated by IRDA

(b) A Mutual Fund Authority

(c) A Nationalized Bank

(d) Private Banks approved by Government

85. At what age can a subscriber covered under NPS exit from the pension account?

(a) Having attained the age of 55 years

(b) Having attained the age of 58 years

(c) Having attained the age of 60 years

(d) Having attained the age of 62 years

86. How are subscribers to National Pension System categorized for the purpose of exit?

(a) Government sector

(b) All citizens including corporate sector

 (c) NPS Lite and Swavalamban subscribers

(d) All the above

87. Who are the family members eligible to receive the annuity as per annuity contract when an NPS
subscriber dies?

(a) Spouse of the deceased subscriber

(b) Living dependent mother of the deceased subscriber

(c) Living dependent father of the deceased subscriber

(d) All the above

88. If an NPS subscriber of Government sector does not desire to withdraw the balance amount after purchase
of mandatory annuity, such subscriber shall have the option to defer the withdrawal of the lumpsum amount
until he or she attains the age of .................

(a) Sixty five years

(b) Seventy years

(c) Seventy five years

(d) Sixty two years

89. Within how many days should the option be exercised by the NPS subscriber of Government sector for
continuing to contribute to his retirement account beyond the age of sixty years or superannuation, as the case
may be to the central recordkeeping agency?

(a) Thirty days prior to attaining sixty years or superannuation

(b) Twenty days prior to attaining sixty years or superannuation

(c) Fifteen days prior to attaining sixty years or superannuation

(d) Forty days prior to attaining sixty years or superannuation

90. State whether a Corporate Sector subscriber can withdraw the full amount of accumulated Pension Wealth
wherein the amount is equal to or less than a sum of Rs. two lakh rupees ?

(a) Can withdraw full amount as per his option

(b) 40% is to be allocated for purchase of annuity

(c) Can withdraw lumpsum amount of 50% of the Fund

(d) No provision to withdraw full amount from the Fund

91. What is the minimum period of subscription required by a corporate subscriber in case he opts to exit from
the NPS voluntarily before attaining the age of 60 years or superannuation as prescribed in the service rules?
 (a) 15 years

(b) 12 years

(c) 10 years

(d) 20 years

92. What is the quantum of accumulated pension wealth paid to the nominees / legal heirs of a corporate NPS
subscriber if he dies before attaining the age of sixty years?

(a) Fifty per cent of accumulated Pension Wealth Fund

(b) Sixty per cent of accumulated Pension Wealth Fund

(c) Eighty per cent of accumulated Pension Wealth Fund

(d) Entire amount of accumulated Pension Wealth Fund

93. Which document is essentially required for family members to claim the Accumulated Pension Wealth, if
the nomination is not registered by the deceased NPS corporate subscriber before his death?

(a) Any documentary proof from Revenue Authority

(b) Any documentary proof in respect of the living dependant of the deceased officer

(c) A certificate from the Village Administrative Officer (VAO)

(d) Legal heir certificate / sucession certificate from respective competent authorities

94. What is the prescribed age for exit by a Swavalamban subscriber?

(a) Fifty eight years

(b) On superannuation

(c) sixty years

(d) Fifty five years

95. What is the minimum pension to be generated by the annuity purchased by a Swavalamban subscriber?

(a) Rs. 1,000

(b) Rs. 1,500

(c) Rs. 1,275

(d) Rs. 2,500

96. If the accumulated pension wealth of the Swavalamban subscriber is equal to or less than a sum of one
lakh rupees, the subscriber shall have the option to withdraw ...............

(a) 25% of the accumulated pension wealth

(b) 50% of the pension wealth

(c) 75% of the pension wealth

(d) Entire pension wealth

97. What is the percentage allocated for the purpose of accumulated pension wealth for purchase of annuity in
case a Swavalamban subscriber exits before attaining the age of sixty years?

(a) Fifty per cent

(b) Forty per cent

(c) Eighty per cent

(d) Seventy per cent

98. Within how many days should the withheld amount of pension wealth be paid to the subscriber on
conclusion of the departmental or judicial proceedings?

(a) Within 60 days

(b) Within 90 days

(c) Within 45 days

(d) Within 30 days

99. A partial withdrawal of accumulated pension wealth of the subscriber not exceeding ....................... of the
contributions made by the subscriber is permitted.

(a) Fifteen per cent

(b) Twenty per cent

(c) Thirty per cent

(d) Twenty five per cent

100. When is a subscriber permitted a partial withdrawal from Pension Fund under NPS?

(a) He should have been in the NPS at least for a period of three years from the date of joining

(b) He should have been in the NPS at least ten years from the date of joining

(c) He should have been in the NPS at least five years from the date of joining
 (d) When he has only one year left for retirement

101. How many times can withdrawal under NPS be allowed during the entire tenure of subscription?

(a) A maximum of six times

(b) A maximum of three times

(c) A maximum of four times

(d) A maximum of five times

102. For which purpose is withdrawal under NPS allowed to a subscriber?

(a) Marriage of his / her children

(b) Purchase or construction of a residential house or flat

(c) Higher education of his / her children

(d) All the above

103. Which authority is competent to process a withdrawal from the Pension Wealth Fund under NPS?

(a) DDO

(b) Pr. PAO

(c) PAO

(d) Central Recordkeeping Agency / National Pension System Trust

104. When is the Tier II account automatically closed under NPS?

(a) At the time of request made by the subscriber

(b) At the time of exit of the subscriber from NPS

(c) When the subscriber is on long leave

(d) When the subscriber is under suspension

105. Which authority is responsible for processing, authorizing and approving the withdrawal and exit claims
lodged by the subscribers under PFRDA (National Pension Systems Trust) Regulations, 2015?

(a) National Pension System

(b) Any other intermediary

 (c) Any entity authorized by the Authority

(d) All the above

106. Who will provide a monthly or periodical annuity or pension to the subscriber at the time of Exit from
NPS?

(a) An annuity service provider empanelled by the atuhority

(b) Any insurance company approved by the authority

(c) Public sector funds authority

(d) Central Government

107. What is the fee fixed for the certificate of empanelment of annuity service providers to be paid to the
authority under PFRDA (Exits and Withdrawals under NPS) Regulations, 2015?

(a) Rupees Fifty thousand

(b) Rupees one lakh

(c) Rupees seventy five thousand

(d) Rupees one lakh and fifty thousand

108. In how many days should the empanelment fee be realized by the authority from the date of sending
intimation of grant of certificate of empanelment?

(a) Within thirty days

(b) Within twenty five days

(c) Within fifteen days

(d) Within ten days

109. What is the rate of interest to be paid for NPS contributions which were deducted from salary of the
Government employee but not remitted to CRA system or remitted late?

(a) 10% Compound interest

(b) 12% Compound interest

(c) 15% Compound interest

(d) GPF rate of interest

110. What is the minimum net worth required for an applicant to act as an empanelled annuity service
provider?

(a) Rupees Two hundred and fifty crores

 (b) Rupees Two hundred crores

(c) Rupees One hundred and fifty crores

(d) Rupees Three hundred crores

111. Which of the following eligibility criteria are required for an applicant to act as an empanelled annuity
service offering of provider?
(a) Any life insurance company registered and regulated by the IRDA can act as an annuity service
provider
(b) The applicant should not be barred from dealing with or selling annuity products in the market by
IRDA

(c) The applicant shall have competency in design, development and offering of annuity products

(d) All the above

112. An application for grant of certificate of empanelment to be an annuity service provider shall be disposed
of by the Authority within

(a) Forty five days

(b) Sixty days

(c) Thirty days

(d) Twenty days

113. What is the fee to be paid by the annuity service provider before expiry of 5 years to keep the
empanelment in force?

(a) Rupees Twenty thousand

(b) Rupees Thirty thousand

(c) Rupees Fifty thousand

(d) Rupees Twenty five thousand

114. Who is competent to give exemptions in certain eligibility criteria case of an annuity service provider?

(a) Central Recordkeeping Agency

(b) NPS Trust

(c) Authority (IRDA)

(d) RBI

115. On what basis is the annuity payment made by the annuity service provider to the Government sector
subscribers?
 (a) Half yearly basis

(b) Yearly basis

(c) Monthly basis

(d) Quarterly basis

116. Who handles subscribers requests regarding change in address, nomination or any other activity in
connection with annuity contract?

(a) Central Recordkeeping Agency

(b) Annuity service provider

(c) National Pension System Trust

(d) PAO
 KEY

Sl. No. Answer Reference

1. (c) G.I., M.F., Notfn. No. 5/7/2003 ECB & PR, dated 22-12-2003

2. (a) G.I., M.F., Notfn. No. 5/7/2003 ECB & PR, dated 22-12-2003

3. (d) Para. 2 of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with O.M.
No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
4. (c) Para. 2 of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with O.M.
No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004 and G.I., M.F., Notification No. F.
No. 1/3/2016 PR, dated 31-1-2019
5. (a) Section 5 (1)

6. (c) Section 5 (1)

7. (c) Section 8

8. (d) Proviso 1 to Section 5 (1)

9. (d) Section 6 (1)

10. (c) Section 9 (2)

11. (d) Section 12 (3)

12. (d) Section 4

13. (a) Section 7 (1)

14. (d) Section 12 (4)

15. (d) Section 11 (1)

16. (b) Section 16 (4)

17. (b) Section 17 (1)

18. (d) Section 17 (5)

19. (b) Section 20 (2) (b)

20. (d) Proviso (a) to Section 20 (2)

21. (d) Section 26

22. (d) Section 27 (1)

23. (a) Section 28 (1) (a)

24. (b) Section 29 of PFRDA Act, 2013

25. (c) Section 30 (1)

 KEY

Sl. No. Answer Reference

26. (d) Section 32 (2)

27. (c) Section 34

28. (c) Section 36 (1)

29. (b) Section 36 (2)

30. (d) Section 38

31. (b) Section 38

32. (c) Section 39

33. (a) Section 40

2 (a)
34. (b) Section 36 (5)

35. (d) Section 41 (2)

36. (b) Section 42 (2)

37. (d) Section 45 (2)

38. (a) Section 45 (4)

39. (b) Section 46 (2)

40. (b) Section 40 (2)

41. (d) Section 36 (4)

42. (c) Para. 9 of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with O.M.
No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
43. (a) Para. 9 of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with O.M.
No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
44. (d) Para. 9 of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with O.M.
No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
45. (b) Para. 10 (b) of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with
O.M. No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
46. (b) Para. 10 (d) of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with
O.M. No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
47. (d) Para. 4 of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with O.M.
No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
48. (b) Para. 10 (h) of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with
O.M. No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
49. (d) Para. 2 of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with O.M.
No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
50. (d) Para. 10 (w) of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with
O.M. No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
 KEY

Sl. No. Answer Reference

51. (c) Para. 10 (z) of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with
O.M. No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
52. (c) Para. 10 (h) of G.I., M.F., F. No. 1 (7)(2)/2003/TA/11, dated 7-1-2004 read with
O.M. No. 1 (7) (2)/2003/TA/67 74, dated 4-2-2004
53. (c) Query No. 1 of G.I., M.F., CGA., F. No. 1(7) (2)/2003/TA/245, dated 21-4-2004

54. (a) Query No. 20 of G.I., M.F., CGA., F. No. 1(7) (2)/2003/TA/245, dated 21-4-2004

55. (a) Query No. 21 of G.I., M.F., CGA., F. No. 1(7) (2)/2003/TA/245, dated 21-4-2004

56. (b) G.I., M.F., F. No. 5 (31)/2005 ECB & PR, dated 30-9-2005 _(Order No. 14)

57. (c) Notfn., dated 21-1-2019

58. (b) Para. (c) of Annexure I to G.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No. 20/1/07 P&PW
(F), dated 18-9-2007
59. (a) Para. (c) of Annexure I to G.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No. 20/1/07 P&PW
(F), dated 18-9-2007
60. (b) Para. (e) of Annexure I to G.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No. 20/1/07 P&PW
(F), dated 18-9-2007
61. (d) Para. (g) of Annexure I to G.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No. 20/1/07 P&PW
(F), dated 18-9-2007
62. (a) Para. (m) of Annexure I toG.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No. 20/1/07 P&PW
(F), dated 18-9-2007
63. (b) Para. (m) of Annexure I to G.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No. 20/1/07 P&PW
(F), dated 18-9-2007
64. (b) Para. (m) of Annexure I to G.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No. 20/1/07 P&PW
(F), dated 18-9-2007
65. (a) Para. (f) of Annexure I to G.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No. 20/1/07 P&PW
(F), dated 18-9-2007
66. (d) Para. (j) of Annexure I to G.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No. 20/1/07 P&PW
(F), dated 18-9-2007
67. (b) Query No. 1 of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. 1 (2)/E.V/2008, dated 19-1-2009

68. (c) Query No. 1 of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. 1 (2)/E.V/2008, dated 19-1-2009

69. (d) Query No. 2 of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. 1 (2)/E.V/2008, dated 19-1-2009

70. (a) Query No. 3 of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. 1 (2)/E.V/2008, dated 19-1-2009

71. (a) Query No. 1 of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. 1 (2)/E.V/2008, dated 19-1-2009

72. (b) Query No. 4 of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. 1 (2)/E.V/2008, dated 19-1-2009

73. (d) Query No. 2 of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. 1 (2)/E.V/2008, dated 19-1-2009

74. (a) Query No. 3 of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. 1 (2)/E.V/2008, dated 19-1-2009

75. (c) Query No. 4 of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. 1 (2)/E.V/2008, dated 19-1-2009
 KEY

Sl. No. Answer Reference

76. (b) Para. A (a) of Order No. 30 read with G.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No.
7/5/2012 P&PW(F)/B, dated 26-8-2016
77. (c) Para. D (a) of Order No. 30 read with G.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No.
7/5/2012 P&PW(F)/B, dated 26-8-2016
78. (a) Para. C (a) of Order No. 30 read with G.I., Dept. of Pen. & P.W., O.M. No.
7/5/2012 P&PW(F)/B, dated 26-8-2016
79. (c) Para. 2 of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. CPAO/NPS/2017 18, dated 11-12-2017

80. (b) Para. A (a) of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. 1 (7)/DCPS (NPS)/2009/TA/221,dated 2-7-
2009 read with Corrigendum No.F. No. 1 (7)/DCPS (NPS)/2009/TA/336
396,Dated 29-9-2009
81. (a) Para. B (a) of G.I., M.F., O.M. No. 1 (7)/DCPS (NPS)/2009/TA/221,dated 2-7-
2009 read with Corrigendum No.F. No. 1 (7)/DCPS (NPS)/2009/TA/336
396,dated 29-9-2009 read with sub rule 3 (a) (i) of Rule 54 of CCS (Pension)
Rules
82. (a) Para. 1 of G.I., PFRDA, Letter No. PFRDA/23/CORP/20/5, dated 25-2-2016

83. (d) Para.1 of G.I., PFRDA, Letter No. PFRDA/23/CORP/20/5, dated 25-2-2016

84. (a) Section 2 (d) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
85. (c) Section 2 (k) (ii) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
86. (d) Para. 1 of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
87. (d) Proviso 1 (i) of Section 3 of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No.
ADVT III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5 2015
88. (b) Proviso 1 (ii) of Section 3 of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No.
ADVT III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
89. (c) Proviso 1 (vi) of Section 3 of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, NotificationNo.
ADVT III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
90. (a) Section 4 (a) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
91. (c) Section 4 (b) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
92. (d) Section 4 (c) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
93. (d) Proviso (ii) to Section 4 (b) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No.
ADVT III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
94. (c) Section 5 (a) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
95. (a) Proviso (i) to Section 5 of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
96. (d) Proviso (ii) to Section 5 (a) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No.
ADVT III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
97. (c) Section 5 (b) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
98. (b) Section 6 (c) (iii) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
99. (d) Section 8 (1) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
 KEY

Sl. No. Answer Reference

100. (a) Section 8 (B) (a) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
101. (b) Section 8 (C) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
102. (d) Section 8 (A) (b, c, a) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
103. (d) Section 8 (C) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
104. (b) Proviso to Section 8 (C) (2) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No.
ADVT III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
105. (d) Section 9 of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
106. (a) Section 10 (1) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
107. (b) Section 11 (2) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
108. (c) Section 11 (2) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
109. (d) G.I., M.F., Notification No. F. No. 1/3/2016 PR, dated 31-1-2019

110. (a) Section 12 (b) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
111. (d) Section 12 of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
112. (b) Section 16 (5) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
113. (d) Section 20 (2) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
114. (c) Section 21 (2) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
115. (c) Section 22 (3) (d) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015
116. (b) Section 22 (4) of G.I., Min. of Law and Justice, Notification No. ADVT
III/4/Exty./203/49/15, dated 11-5-2015