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All of the following are criteria for an effective mission statement EXCEPT b. narrow in scope
a. sharply focused
b. narrow in scope
c. inspires commitment
d. defines why the organization exists
Which of the following is defined as knowing that an inherent risk exists with d. assumption of risk
participation in an activity, but choosing to participate anyway?
a. negligence
b. liability
c. standard of care
d. assumption of risk
a. negligence
b. liability
c. standard of care
d. assumption of risk
Which of the following is defined as doing what a reasonable and prudent person c. standard of care
would do under similar circumstances?
a. negligence
b. liability
c. standard of care
d. assumption of risk
Which of the following is defined as failure to act as a reasonable and prudent a. negligence
person would act under similar circumstances?
a. negligence
b. liability
c. standard of care
d. assumption of risk
Which of the following would void the liability of an equipment manufacturer and a. The professional altered the product from
place responsibility in the hands of the strength and conditioning professional? the condition in which it was originally sold.
a. The professional altered the product from the condition in which it was originally
sold.
b. The professional used the product as intended by the manufacturer.
c. Existing professional standards and guidelines were followed.
d. Warning labels were placed on the product in plain view.
Which of the following is the first role that needs to be attended to by the staff of a a. provision of immediate care to the injured
strength and conditioning facility in the case of an emergency? athlete
All of the following are recommended ways the strength and conditioning d. asking more experienced athletes to help
professional can safely monitor athletes in a training facility EXCEPT supervise newer athletes
Which of the following documents should be maintained for as long as possible to a. injury report forms
help protect a strength and conditioning facility from lawsuits?
a. athlete’s parents
b. athletic director
c. sports medicine staff member
d. head strength and conditioning coach
Which of the following is the recommended minimum amount of floor space for an c. 100 square feet (9.3 m2)
athlete within a strength and conditioning facility?
Which of the following is the recommended ceiling height for a strength and c. 12 to 14 feet (3.7-4.3 m)
conditioning facility?
a. 6 to 8 feet (1.8-2.4 m)
b. 9 to 11 feet (2.7-3.4 m)
c. 12 to 14 feet (3.7-4.3 m)
d. 15 to 17 feet (4.6-5.2 m)
Mirrors in a strength and conditioning facility should be positioned at what b. 6 inches (15 cm)
minimum distance from any equipment?
What is the minimum recommended distance between the ends of racked bars in b. 36 inches (91 cm)
a strength and conditioning facility?
Which of the following is a standard for safe and sufficient access to a strength a. rough strips on the edge of each step
and conditioning facility?
Which of the following are the optimal temperature and humidity setting, b. 67 to 71 °F (19-21 °C); 60% to 70%
respectively, for a strength and conditioning facility?
Placing the __________________ in the center of the room would create a space a. dumbbell rack
with a clear view for coaches or facility supervisors.
a. dumbbell rack
b. circuit training machine
c. elliptical
d. stationary bike
If repair for a broken elliptical machine will be delayed, what should the strength a. remove the machine from the floor and
and conditioning professional do with the machine during the delay? place it in storage
Which of the following is the recommended amount of floor space for the standing d. 52 square feet (4.8 m2)
shoulder press exercise if the athlete is using a 7-foot (2.1 m) barbell?
The responsibility for the day-to-day physical health of an athlete falls to which of b. athletic trainer
the following members of the sports medicine team?
a. tendinitis
b. sprain
c. contusion
d. subluxation
After suffering a broken wrist, what is the sequence of phases of healing that an a. inflammatory response, fibroblastic repair,
athlete must go through before returning to play? maturation-remodeling
Which of the following phases of healing is characterized by random deposits of a. fibroblastic repair
Type III collagen fibers along the injured structure?
a. fibroblastic repair
b. inflammatory response
c. maturation-remodeling
d. phagocytosis-macrophage
Which of the following is a treatment goal for rehabilitation during the inflammatory b. prevention of new tissue disruption
response phase of an injury?
Which of the following is an exercise strategy during the maturation-remodeling d. joint angle-specific strengthening
phase of an injury?
Which of the following is an exercise strategy during the fibroblastic repair phase d. submaximal isokinetic exercise
of an injury?
a. deadlift
b. lateral raise
c. bench press
d. shoulder press
Which of the following is an example of an open kinetic chain exercise? d. leg curl
a. push-up
b. front squat
c. pull-up
d. leg curl
Which of the following is the period between the preparatory and competitive b. first transition
periods?
a. strength/power
b. first transition
c. basic strength
d. second transition
An athlete has just finished the preparatory period of his training and is now d. first transition period
focusing on his strength and power capabilities. This portion of training is generally
referred to as what?
a. competitive phase
b. basic strength phase
c. off-season
d. first transition period
Which of the following makes the specific preparatory phase distinct from the d. inclusion of sport-specific training activities
general preparatory phase?
In what method of periodization might an athlete perform four sets with a 6RM c. undulating periodization
load on the first day of the week, three sets with a 10RM on the next training day,
and five sets with a 3RM load on the last training day of the week?
a. linear periodization
b. traditional periodization
c. undulating periodization
d. fluctuating periodization
An athlete is performing back squats at 95% of her 1RM for six sets of two d. basic strength
repetitions. This is most consistent with which phase of training?
a. muscular endurance
b. specific preparatory
c. hypertrophy/strength endurance
d. basic strength
a. off-season
b. preseason
c. competitive
d. strength/power phase
All of the following are benefits of a three-week second transition period EXCEPT a. preparing for the upcoming competitive
period
a. preparing for the upcoming competitive period
b. rehabilitating injuries that may have occurred
c. refreshing mentally and physically before a new training block
d. helping to reduce the risk of overtraining
In what method of periodization might an athlete perform five sets of four d. traditional periodization
repetitions at 85% of 1RM on the first day of the week, five sets of four repetitions
at 80% of 1RM on the next training day, and five sets of four repetitions at 70% of
1RM on the last training day of the week?
a. undulating periodization
b. nonlinear periodization
c. daily undulating periodization
d. traditional periodization
During which of the following phases should athletes ideally be tested to determine c. first week of the off-season
initial training loads for the exercises in the first mesocycle?
Which of the following describes an athlete’s maximum lactate steady state? a. Maximal lactate production is equal to
maximal lactate clearance.
a. Maximal lactate production is equal to maximal lactate clearance.
b. Blood lactate concentration is greater than resting lactate levels.
c. Maximal lactate production is greater than maximal lactate clearance.
d. Blood lactate concentration is lower than resting lactate levels.
Which of the following describes a technique guideline for an optimal running gait? b. The arms should swing in a reciprocating
motion with the lower body.
a. The foot should land in front of the hips to avoid "braking."
b. The arms should swing in a reciprocating motion with the lower body.
c. The weight should transfer from the inside of the heel and continue to shift.
d. The shoulders should be rounded.
Which of the following describes the minimum suggested hypoxic dose for an b. 12 hours/day at moderate altitudes for at
athlete to see an ergogenic effect from altitude training? least 3 weeks
All of the following are benefits from resistance training for a highly trained aerobic c. improvement in
endurance athlete EXCEPT
An athlete who typically runs for 70 minutes at 65% to 75% of her is looking to d. cycling at 75% of for 70 minutes
maintain a minimal level of conditioning. Which of the following workouts would
provide the best stimulus for cross-training?
a. Fartlek
b. high-intensity interval
c. aerobic-anaerobic interval
d. pace/tempo
Which of the following is the maximum recommended weekly increase in training b. 10%
duration for an off-season athlete?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
a. 2
b. 20
c. 35
d. 245
A 30-year-old athlete with a resting heart rate of 50 beats/min is training at 60% of b. 134 beats/min
her maximal heart rate. Using the Karvonen method, what is her exercise heart
rate?
a. 84 beats/min
b. 134 beats/min
c. 140 beats/min
d. 152 beats/min
A 50-year-old athlete with a resting heart rate of 60 beats/min is training at 70% of b. 119 beats/min
his maximal heart rate. Using the maximal heart rate method, what is his exercise
heart rate?
a. 102 beats/min
b. 119 beats/min
c. 137 beats/min
d. 154 beats/min
Agility is similar to speed, except that agility also includes which of the following d. perceptual-cognitive ability
components that is not part of speed?
a. acceleration
b. maximal velocity
c. capacity to produce force
d. perceptual-cognitive ability
Which of the following describes the rate and amplitude of impulses being sent b. neural drive
from the nervous system to the target muscles?
a. elastic energy
b. neural drive
c. eccentric-concentric coupling
d. stretch-shortening cycle
Which of the following is the cause of an athlete’s prematurely having an upright b. inadequate push-off force
posture when starting a sprint?
Which of the following is the cause of an athlete’s overstriding when sprinting at d. misunderstanding of force application
maximum velocity?
a. squat
b. overhead press
c. snatch
d. walking lunge
Which of the following agility tests requires the longest time to complete? c. T-test
a. 505 test
b. pro agility test
c. T-test
d. L-run
Which of the following is a field and court drill for a novice athlete who needs to b. deceleration drills
work on eccentric strength?
a. unilateral lifts
b. deceleration drills
c. leaning drills
d. Olympic lifts
When examining factors that provide insight into an athlete’s change-of-direction a. duration of the test
and agility performance capabilities, all of the following are typically considered
EXCEPT
Which of the following has been shown to improve change-of-direction ability? b. lower center of mass height
After a needs analysis is performed, which of the following steps comes next when b. Determine strengths and weaknesses by
developing a program for agility development? comparing results to performance standards.
a. Plan the development of a primary area of need and a secondary area of need.
b. Determine strengths and weaknesses by comparing results to performance
standards.
c. Distribute the time available for agility development based on need identification.
d. Provide a preliminary plan for transition of percent distribution through the training
blocks.
Which of the following is the order of the phases of the stretch-shortening cycle? c. eccentric, amortization, concentric
Which of the following explains why a static squat jump results in a lower jump b. lower potentiation
height than a countermovement jump?
What type of lower body plyometric drill requires a higher horizontal speed than d. bounding
the other types of drills?
a. jump in place
b. standing jump
c. multiple hops
d. bounding
Which of the following is a recommended landing surface for performing d. suspended floor
plyometrics?
a. tile
b. hardwood
c. exercise mat
d. suspended floor
When an athlete lands on the ground from a lower body plyometric jump, the c. knees
shoulders should be in line with the ____ when viewed from the side.
a. toes
b. ankles
c. knees
d. hips
What type of drill used to warm up for a plyometric training session emphasizes a. marching
posture and movement technique?
a. marching
b. jogging
c. skipping
d. footwork
Which of the following is a method to increase the intensity of the plyometric a. Use only one leg.
lateral barrier hop drill?
Which of the following is NOT part of the starting position for the plyometric single- d. Rotate the throwing arm so the forearm is
arm throw drill? parallel to the floor.
Which of the following is the best recommendation for combining plyometric a. high-intensity lower body resistance
training with resistance training in a single workout session? training with low-intensity upper body
plyometrics
a. high-intensity lower body resistance training with low-intensity upper body
plyometrics
b. low-intensity lower body resistance training with low-intensity upper body
plyometrics
c. high-intensity upper body resistance training with high-intensity upper body
plyometrics
d. low-intensity upper body resistance training with high-intensity upper body
plyometrics
Which of the following is the maximum recommended depth jump box height for b. 18 inches (46 cm)
an athlete who weighs over 220 pounds (100 kg)?
The acronym SAID stands for which of the following? d. specific adaptation to imposed demands
When developing a resistance training program, which of the following program b. needs analysis
design variables should be addressed first?
a. exercise order
b. needs analysis
c. exercise selection
d. training frequency
Which of the following best describes core exercises and assistance exercises, a. recruit one or more large muscle areas and
respectively? receive priority when selecting exercises;
recruit smaller muscle areas and are
a. recruit one or more large muscle areas and receive priority when selecting considered less important to improving sport
exercises; recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to performance
improving sport performance
b. can include both multijoint and single-joint exercises and are used primarily for
rehabilitation; recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to
improving sport performance
c. recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to improving sport
performance; recruit one or more large muscle areas and are usually multijoint
exercises
d. can include both structural and power exercises; are considered more important to
sport performance
Which of the following is an antagonistic muscle group in the bench press c. rhomboids
exercise?
a. anterior deltoid
b. serratus anterior
c. rhomboids
d. triceps brachii
Which of the following exercises requires the least amount of recovery time a. lateral raise
between training sessions?
a. lateral raise
b. bench press
c. leg (knee) extension
d. front squat
Which of the following is the best example of a pair of exercises that, when c. upright row and shoulder press
performed sequentially with little to no rest between them, constitute a compound
set?
All of the following influence an athlete’s volume-load for a resistance training a. repetition and set scheme
program EXCEPT
If an athlete is tested in the bench press and is found to have a 1RM of 220 c. 185 pounds (85 kg)
pounds (100 kg), approximately what weight should this athlete lift if he is
performing six repetitions per set?
Which of the following percentages of an athlete’s 1RM should be assigned for a a. 0-30%
non-weightlifting multijoint exercise to maximize power output?
a. 0-30%
b. 40-60%
c. 75-85%
d. 90-100%
Which of the following volumes has the greatest potential to increase muscular c. 5 sets of 15 repetitions
endurance?
a. 5 sets of 5 repetitions
b. 1 set of 5 repetitions
c. 5 sets of 15 repetitions
d. 1 set of 15 repetitions
Which of the following is the best exercise to train the anatomical core c. back squat
musculature in individuals who want to improve sport performance?
a. prone plank
b. side plank
c. back squat
d. leg raise
Which of the following is an advantage of machine-based training? a. enhanced ability to target specific muscle
groups
a. enhanced ability to target specific muscle groups
b. greater activation of stabilizer muscles
c. improved muscle activation patterns in athletic movements
d. stronger carryover to sport performance
Which of the following does NOT occur when a ground-based free weight training d. need to perform other exercises decreases
exercise is performed on an unstable surface?
Which of the following factors is held constant during an accommodating b. speed of movement
resistance training exercise?
a. external load
b. speed of movement
c. range of motion
d. mechanical advantage
Which of the following factors is held constant during a traditional resistance a. external load
training exercise?
a. external load
b. speed of movement
c. range of motion
d. mechanical advantage
Which of the following is an advantage of variable-resistance training? d. matches the changes in joint leverage
Which of the following techniques to flip a heavy-equipment tire commonly uses c. sumo
the narrowest hand position or grip?
Weaker individuals often display _______________ and may benefit from the use c. bilateral deficits
of unilateral training methods.
a. bilateral facilitation
b. unilateral deficits
c. bilateral deficits
d. unilateral facilitation
Which of the following muscles are primarily trained during the single-leg a. gluteus maximus
Romanian deadlift exercise?
a. gluteus maximus
b. rectus femoris
c. vastus medialis
d. trapezius
The single-leg Romanian deadlift can be performed with the weight held in the a. ipsilateral; contralateral
hand of the same side of the body as the support leg (_______) or in the hand of
the opposite side of the body as the support leg (_______).
a. ipsilateral; contralateral
b. unilateral; bilateral
c. contralateral; ipsilateral
d. bilateral; unilateral
Which of the following grips is used for the hammer curl exercise? c. closed, neutral
a. open, pronated
b. open, alternated
c. closed, neutral
d. closed, supinated
All of the following are points of contact with the bench or the floor when an athlete b. right hand
is in the five-point body contact position EXCEPT
a. head
b. right hand
c. left foot
d. buttocks
As the bench press exercise is performed, the sticking point occurs at which of the d. soon after the transition from the eccentric
following points within an athlete’s range of motion? phase to the concentric phase
An athlete performing which of the following workouts has the greatest need for a a. back squat at 90% 1RM
weight belt?
Which of the following exercises does not require one or more spotters? d. snatch
Which of the following grip widths can be determined using the fist-to-opposite- b. snatch grip
shoulder method or the elbow-to-elbow method?
a. wide grip
b. snatch grip
c. common grip
d. clean grip
Which of the following is a guideline for proper technique for the first pull of the b. As the bar is raised, keep it as close to the
power clean exercise? shins as possible.
When an athlete is performing the upward movement phase of the seated barbell c. Grasp the bar with a closed, alternated
shoulder press exercise, all of the following specify the action of the spotter to grip inside the athlete’s hands.
assist the athlete to perform the first repetition EXCEPT
a. Stand erect behind the bench with the feet shoulder-width apart.
b. Position the knees slightly flexed.
c. Grasp the bar with a closed, alternated grip inside the athlete’s hands.
d. Signal the athlete and then lift the bar off the supports.
Which of the following is a major muscle involved with the leg extension exercise? d. rectus femoris
a. semimembranosus
b. biceps femoris
c. semitendinosus
d. rectus femoris
Which of the following describes the difference between the upward movement a. Hip and knee extension thrust is only
phase of the push press compared to the push jerk? forceful enough to drive the bar one-half to
two-thirds the distance overhead.
a. Hip and knee extension thrust is only forceful enough to drive the bar one-half to
two-thirds the distance overhead.
b. The hips and knees are slightly flexed after the thrust.
c. The bar is accelerated so forcefully that it ends in the overhead position.
d. Hip and knee extension occurs only at the end of the upward movement phase.
Which of the following is a temperature-related effect of a well-designed warm-up? a. enhanced neural function
Which of the following are the components of the RAMP protocol? c. raise, activate, mobilize, potentiate
An athlete performing ballistic stretching should follow which of the following b. Involve an active muscular effort.
guidelines?
Which of the following describes a Golgi tendon organ? a. sensitive to increases in muscular tension
During a PNF stretch, all of the following muscle actions are used to facilitate the a. isometric muscle action of the agonist
passive stretch of a muscle EXCEPT
An athlete is performing repeated walking knee lift stretches. Which of the b. dynamic stretching
following is the best definition of the type of stretching being completed?
a. passive stretching
b. dynamic stretching
c. ballistic stretching
d. PNF stretching
Which of the following describes muscle and connective tissue elasticity? b. ability to return to original resting length
after a passive stretch
a. the ability of a muscle to stretch
b. ability to return to original resting length after a passive stretch
c. the tendency to gain GTOs from a ballistic stretch
d. the tendency to assume a new and greater length after a passive stretch
Regarding age and sex of individuals, which of the following is true? d. Fibrous connective tissue replaces
degenerating muscle fibers in older people.
a. Males tend to be more flexible than females.
b. Older people tend to be more flexible than younger people.
c. Flexibility between older men and women is due to structural and anatomical
differences.
d. Fibrous connective tissue replaces degenerating muscle fibers in older people.
Which type of joint in the body typically exhibits the greatest ROM? d. ball-and-socket
a. hinge
b. saddle
c. ellipsoidal
d. ball-and-socket
Which of the following describes the difference between dynamic ROM and static b. Static ROM is greater than dynamic ROM.
ROM?
Which of the following is an example of a low-speed muscular strength test? b. bench press 1RM
An athlete struggles to return to a "ready" stance after jumping for a ball. This c. stability
deficiency demonstrates a need to improve which of the following components of
athletic performance?
a. balance
b. flexibility
c. stability
d. local muscular endurance
a. height
b. weight
c. body girths
d. BMI
During the 300-yard (274 m) shuttle run, how far away are the lines, and how a. 15 yards (13.7 m) apart with 20 trips
many round trips are made to complete this test?
For men and women respectively, which of the following loads should be used for b. 80 pounds (36.4 kg) and 35 pounds (15.9
the YMCA bench press test? kg)
Which of the following is a valid test of local muscular endurance for a well-trained a. push-up test
athlete?
a. push-up test
b. Wingate anaerobic test
c. star excursion balance test
d. Yo-Yo intermittent recovery test
A female athlete’s body fat percentage was measured before the competitive c. 19-20%
season. If she was classified as "leaner than average," what was her
measurement?
a. <15%
b. 16-18%
c. 19-20%
d. 21-25%
Which of the following allows for someone to draw conclusions about a population c. inferential statistics
from the information collected in a population sample?
a. magnitude statistics
b. central tendency
c. inferential statistics
d. effect size
Which of the following instructions should the coach give to an athlete when a. "Place your hands on your hips while on
assessing the athlete’s reactive strength index? top of the drop box."
a. "Place your hands on your hips while on top of the drop box."
b. "Jump off the box as high as possible."
c. "When you contact the ground, jump as far forward as possible."
d. "Change your strategy with each jump to try to get the greatest distance."
Which of the following is the effect size for a 10-week squat training program? The b. 1.0
athletes’ pretraining 1RM squat mean was 150 kg (330 pounds), the posttraining
1RM squat mean was 156 kg (343.2 pounds), and the standard deviation was 6 kg
(13.2 pounds).
a. -1.0
b. 1.0
c. -0.03
d. 0.04
An athlete is having measurements taken to assess her body composition. The a. concurrent
coach uses a DEXA scan and a new method he is being asked to test. The
purpose of using these two measures is to establish what type of validity of the
new test?
a. concurrent
b. predictive
c. construct
d. discriminant
If an athlete’s test result is high on one day and low the next day, which of the b. reliability
following aspects of test quality appears to be compromised?
a. face validity
b. reliability
c. recognized measure of the test
d. criterion-referenced validity
If a coach is planning to schedule testing and it must all be performed on the same b. nonfatiguing, agility, maximum power and
day, which is the most ideal sequence for testing? strength, sprints, local muscular endurance,
anaerobic capacity, aerobic capacity
a. agility, maximum power and strength, sprints, local muscular endurance,
anaerobic capacity, aerobic capacity, nonfatiguing
b. nonfatiguing, agility, maximum power and strength, sprints, local muscular
endurance, anaerobic capacity, aerobic capacity
c. aerobic capacity, anaerobic capacity, local muscular endurance, sprints, maximum
power and strength, agility, nonfatiguing
d. maximum power and strength, agility, sprints, aerobic capacity, local muscular
endurance, nonfatiguing, anaerobic capacity
Due to availability of the track, a coach testing her athletes’ 5K time must test them a. Be acclimatized to the heat and humidity
in the early afternoon, which is the hottest part of the day in their location. Which for 2 hours before testing.
of the following guidelines is LEAST effective for minimizing health risks and
obtaining accurate results?
What is the minimum length of the rest period recommended between trials that b. 3 minutes
are close to an athlete’s maximum?
a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 4 minutes
d. 5 minutes
Which of the following combination of tests would be most relevant for an d. vertical jump and 30- to 100-yard (27-91
American football wide receiver? m) sprint
One scorer for a group testing allowed a partial last repetition to count toward an c. interrater reliability
athlete’s total score on the pull-up test, while another scorer did not count that
repetition. This difference between scorers is related to which of the following?
a. intrasubject variability
b. intrarater variability
c. interrater reliability
d. test-retest reliability
All of the following are athlete-related factors to consider when selecting tests d. biomechanical movement pattern
EXCEPT specificity
a. training age
b. sport skill level
c. position within the sport
d. biomechanical movement pattern specificity
An athlete is able to identify that the back squat 1RM test is being used to test her b. face validity
maximal lower body strength. This is an example of which of the following?
a. reliability
b. face validity
c. convergent validity
d. interrater agreement
Which of the following is LEAST helpful to record to aid in future testing sessions a. mental state of athlete on testing day
for an athlete?
All of the following are typical patterns for the usage of steroids EXCEPT c. augmented
a. stacking
b. step-up pattern
c. augmented
d. cyclic pattern
Which of the following is the term for hormone precursors that are theorized to a. prohormones
increase the body’s ability to produce a given specific hormone?
a. prohormones
b. HCG
c. prior hormones
d. testosterone
Acromegaly, a disfiguring disease characterized by a widening of the bones, b. HGH
arthritis, organ enlargement, and metabolic abnormalities, is a risk factor for
athletes who use which of the following as an ergogenic aid?
a. testosterone
b. HGH
c. HCG
d. erythropoietin
a.
b. erythropoietin
c. bolasterone
d.
An athlete has been taking a supplement for roughly 40 days. He has seen an a. creatine
increase in his squat 1RM, body weight, and vertical jump height. Which of the
following is he most likely supplementing with?
a. creatine
b. insulin
c. sodium citrate
d. HMB
A marathon runner is looking to improve her time to fatigue and ability to run d. caffeine, citrus aurantium, and
longer distances. A combination of which supplements would best help her to erythropoietin
achieve these goals?
a. produce
b. gain lean muscle mass
c. use amino acids
d. regulate H+ concentrations.
Which of the following substances should the strength and conditioning a. clenbuterol
professional suspect an athlete is taking if the athlete is experiencing tremors,
dizziness, heart palpitations, and insomnia?
a. clenbuterol
b.
c.
d. sodium bicarbonate
Which of the following is the purported ergogenic effect of oral supplementation of c. increased muscle blood flow
arginine?
a. 25 g
b. 50 g
c. 75 g
d. 110 g
If an adult athlete is training to increase muscle hypertrophy, which of the following b. Consume 20 g of high-quality, high-leucine
is a primary nutrition recommendation? protein every 3 to 4 hours.
If an athlete weighs 158 pounds (72 kg) and is 5 feet, 7 inches (170 cm) tall, what a. 20.3 kg/m² b. 24.7 kg/m² c. 30.7 kg/m² d.
is the athlete’s BMI? 42.3 kg/m²
a. 20.3 kg/m²
b. 24.7 kg/m²
c. 30.7 kg/m²
d. 42.3 kg/m²
An athlete is complaining that he is suffering from constipation and frequently feels d. anorexia nervosa
cold. Coaches have also noticed his skin has a slight yellow tint with dry patches.
Which of the following conditions should the strength and conditioning professional
suspect?
a. pica
b. binge eating
c. bulimia nervosa
d. anorexia nervosa
Which of the following is the main challenge with carbohydrate loading in females? b. an insufficient overall caloric intake
An individual often eats his meals alone, is overweight, and seems to eat large b. binge eating
amounts of food even when not very hungry. Which of the following conditions
should the strength and conditioning professional suspect?
a. pica
b. binge eating
c. bulimia nervosa
d. anorexia nervosa
All of the following are characteristics of sports with an increased prevalence of a. involvement of a strength component
disordered eating and eating disorders EXCEPT
Which of the following contributes the most to total energy expenditure? c. basal metabolic rate
a. exercise
b. fat mass
c. basal metabolic rate
d. diet-induced thermogenesis
Which of the following are the appropriate fluid intake recommendations during a. 5 ounces (148 ml) every 20 minutes
practice and competition for children weighing 40 kg (88 pounds), even if they do
not feel thirsty?
All of the following are factors that may affect the amount of muscle damage d. endurance capabilities of the athlete
experienced by athletes in high-intensity intermittent sports EXCEPT
a. protein
b. fiber
c. sodium
d. water
The minimum recommended intake of protein for athletes is ______ g/kg of body b. 1.0
weight.
a. 0.7
b. 1.0
c. 1.4
d. 1.7
A deficiency in which of the following nutrients is the most prevalent nutrition d. iron
deficiency worldwide and can cause weakness, fatigue, and decreased exercise
capacity?
a. calcium
b. B12
c. protein
d. iron
After a 2-hour outdoor training session, an athlete lost 3 pounds (1.4 kg). How a. 1.5 L (50 ounces)
much fluid should this athlete consume to return to a more ideal hydration state?
Which of the following conditions is defined as having diluted blood sodium levels c. hyponatremia
(<130 mmol/L)?
a. hypohydration
b. hypernatremia
c. hyponatremia
d. euhydration
A high serum level of which of the following substances is protective against heart d. HDL
disease?
a. cholesterol
b. VLDL
c. triglycerides
d. HDL
An athlete training for a marathon averages around 95 minutes of training a day at c. 456 g
75% of her If she weighs 126 pounds (57 kg), what is her minimum recommended
daily intake of carbohydrate?
a. 85.5 g
b. 285 g
c. 456 g
d. 570 g
Excessive intake of which of the following vitamins can lead to liver damage, a. A
dizziness, and joint pain?
a. A
b. D
c. E
d. K
During prolonged activity in hot weather, an athlete should consume a sport drink a. 5-10% of carbohydrate
that meets which of the following guidelines?
a. 5-10% of carbohydrate
b. 0-5 °C (32-41 °F)
c. 200-300 mEq of sodium per liter
d. 12-15 mEq of potassium per liter
All of the following describe the ideal performance state EXCEPT b. effective analysis of the performance
______ anxiety is the actual experience of apprehension and uncontrolled arousal d. State, trait
and ______ anxiety is a personality characteristic, which represents a latent
disposition to perceive situations as threatening.
a. Somatic, cognitive
b. Trait, state
c. Cognitive, somatic
d. State, trait
According to Hull’s drive theory, which of the following factors affect an athlete’s a. skill level, task complexity
level of arousal and, consequently, the athlete’s performance?
Which of the following describes how the individual zones of optimal functioning d. Ideal performance does not always occur
theory differs from the inverted-U theory? at the midpoint of the arousal continuum.
A coach informs his athletes that at the beginning of the competitive season he will d. motive to achieve success
be testing the back squat 1RM on all athletes and he hopes to see at least a 5%
improvement for each team member. Shelby is excited by this new goal and the
chance to evaluate her abilities. She likely is experiencing what type of
motivation?
Which of the following is a relaxation technique that has been shown to be useful b. autogenic training
in injured and older athletes?
Winning is typically the primary focus of what type of goal? a. outcome goal
a. outcome goal
b. process goal
c. optimal goal
d. master goal
What are the five main primary methods of incorporating a practice structure and d. whole, part, random, variable,
schedule into an athlete’s program? observational
a. Observational, segmented
b. Personal, team
c. Intrinsic, augmented
d. Guided, explicit
A coach informs the team running a 40-yard (37 m) sprint that she would like d. knowledge of results
everyone to complete the first trial in under 4.8 seconds. This coach is providing
what kind of feedback to her athletes?
a. intrinsic
b. instructional
c. analysis of practice
d. knowledge of results
A strength and conditioning professional is training two 16-year-old males; one has c. skeletal age
developed facial hair and a deepened voice, while the other has not. Which of the
following is the most effective indicator of their physical maturation level?
a. exercise readiness
b. chronological age
c. skeletal age
d. emotional maturity
As boys grow, they become taller and gain body mass. During this time, muscle d. mass; high-level force production
changes as well, first in _______________ and second in _______________.
a. mesomorph
b. endomorph
c. polymorph
d. ectomorph
Which of the following is the primary mechanism leading to strength gains in d. neural factors (motor unit activation and
preadolescents? synchronization)
a. hypertrophy
b. hyperplasia
c. circulating hormones (testosterone and growth hormone)
d. neural factors (motor unit activation and synchronization)
All of the following are benefits of resistance training in youth EXCEPT a. decreased insulin sensitivity
When comparing males and females, which of the following is true regarding c. When strength is expressed relative to
strength and power capabilities? muscle cross-sectional area, no significant
difference exists between sexes.
a. Absolute upper body strength of women is generally closer to male values as
compared to the absolute values for lower body strength.
b. When expressed relative to body weight, the upper body strength of women is
similar to that of men.
c. When strength is expressed relative to muscle cross-sectional area, no significant
difference exists between sexes.
d. Women’s absolute power output is about 63% of men’s power output.
The female athlete triad is the interrelationship between what three factors? b. energy availability, menstrual function,
bone mineral density
a. overtraining, menorrhagia, inadequate protein intake
b. energy availability, menstrual function, bone mineral density
c. inadequate iron intake, osteogenesis, performance decrements
d. prolonged menstruation, gastrointestinal complications, weight-bearing activities
Which of the following is generally discouraged in older adults, due to the sudden c. Valsalva maneuver
rise in blood pressure it can create?
a. power training
b. balance and flexibility training
c. Valsalva maneuver
d. stair climbing
Sarcopenia is associated with all of the following changes due to advancing age a. decreased axial skeletal height
EXCEPT
Joint laxity, skill level, limb alignment, and neuromuscular deficiency are all a. anterior cruciate ligament tear
thought to be factors in the occurrence of what common injury?
Stroke volume is regulated by which of the following mechanisms? c. end-diastolic volume and catecholamines
Which of the following is an effect of the Frank-Starling mechanism? a. increased cardiac emptying
Which of the following is the standard deviation of the 220 – age in years equation c. ±10 to 12 beats/min
to estimate maximal heart rate?
a. ±2 to 4 beats/min
b. ±6 to 8 beats/min
c. ±10 to 12 beats/min
d. ±14 to 16 beats/min
a. 192.5
b. 55.0
c. 15.7
d. 2.1
Which of the following areas of the pulmonary system is not functional for gas d. anatomical dead space
exchange in healthy athletes?
a. bronchi
b. bronchioles
c. physiological dead space
d. anatomical dead space
Which of the following physiological characteristics decreases as an adaptation to a. resting cardiac output
aerobic endurance training?
Which of the following is a potential marker of aerobic overtraining? b. decreased total testosterone concentration
All of the following are reasons why maximal aerobic power decreases with age b. lowered incidence of sarcopenia
EXCEPT
Which of the following explains the differences in aerobic power between men and a. Women have a higher percentage of body
women who are matched by age? fat.
Which of the following are primary neural adaptations to anaerobic training? b. increased neural drive and reductions in
inhibitory mechanisms
a. decreased firing rates and alterations to selective recruitment
b. increased neural drive and reductions in inhibitory mechanisms
c. decreased neuromuscular junction size and increased firing rates
d. lowered EMG at maximal force output and decreased reflex potentiation
_______________ is the enlargement of muscle fiber cross-sectional area, and b. Hypertrophy; hyperplasia
_______________ is the increase in the number of muscle fibers via longitudinal
fiber splitting.
Which of the following have been observed in men in elevated concentrations up a. testosterone, growth hormone, and cortisol
to 30 minutes after a resistance training workout?
As an adaptation to anaerobic training, which of the following is the benefit of the c. increased force production
myotatic reflex harnessing the involuntary elastic properties of muscle?
As an adaptation to resistance training, which of the following is a beneficial b. increased fascicle length
change in pennated muscles?
a. tendon formation
b. muscular development
c. bone formation
d. hormone production
Which of the following is an adaptation in tendons from high-intensity anaerobic b. increased packing density of collagen
training? fibrils
All of the following factors affect the degree to which blood flow is increased in the c. resting heart rate of the athlete
working muscles during anaerobic training EXCEPT
An athlete has spent the last four resistance training sessions overworking his d. functional overreaching
body. He is hoping to see a substantial increase in performance after a week of
active rest. Which of the following describes his current condition?
a. prolonged maladaptation
b. parasympathetic overtraining
c. overtraining syndrome
d. functional overreaching
Which of the following is a symptom specific to nonfunctional overreaching? b. decreased muscle glycogen
All of the following hormones use a second messenger to cause effects in the c. cortisol
body EXCEPT
a. norepinephrine
b. serotonin
c. cortisol
d. insulin
An athlete just completed a resistance training workout. All of the following are a. amount of effort the athlete gave during
factors that influence the magnitude of the postworkout hormonal response the workout
EXCEPT
All of the following are adaptations of the endocrine system to resistance training d. type of hormones released
EXCEPT
a. testosterone
b. insulin
c. growth hormone
d. thyroid hormone
Polypeptide hormones are made of chains of which of the following substances? c. amino acids
a. polypeptides
b. secondary messengers
c. amino acids
d. mRNA
If the stress of a training session is too great, which of the following is true? b. anabolic reactions < catabolic reactions in
the muscle
a. anabolic reactions = catabolic reactions in the muscle
b. anabolic reactions < catabolic reactions in the muscle
c. anabolic reactions > catabolic reactions in the whole body
d. anabolic reactions > catabolic reactions in the muscle
When one examines the effects of a resistance training program via peripheral a. Higher blood hormone levels do not
blood hormone levels, which of the following is false? indicate higher receptor interaction
probability.
a. Higher blood hormone levels do not indicate higher receptor interaction
probability.
b. Higher blood hormone levels do not indicate the status of receptor populations.
c. Increases in circulatory concentrations mean an increase in hormone release if
plasma volume stays constant.
d. Increases in peripheral hormones must be bound to a receptor in order to be
realized.
Which of the following is a physiological role of growth hormone and its d. increased immune cell function
superfamily?
Which of the following substances is an important biomarker for health and b. IGF superfamily
performance?
a. cortisol superfamily
b. IGF superfamily
c. sex hormone-binding globulins
d. catecholamines
a. mitochondria
b. nucleus
c. membrane
d. cytoplasm
The law of mass action states which of the following? b. The concentrations of reactants or
products will drive the direction of the
a. A stronger action potential cannot produce a stronger contraction. reactions.
b. The concentrations of reactants or products will drive the direction of the
reactions.
c. The weight or mass of an object creates a stronger action potential.
d. The rate of product formation is greatly influenced by the concentrations of the
reactants.
An aerobic endurance athlete is trying to give himself a competitive edge over his b. high intensity; shifts to the right
opponents. To improve his lactate threshold, what type of training should he
engage in, and in what direction would this shift his threshold?
Two athletes are competing in upcoming competitions, a weightlifting meet and a d. phosphagen and oxidative
marathon. Which energy systems will each be primarily using, respectively?
Which of the following describes the portion of the total energy cost of exercise c. oxygen deficit
that must be supplied through anaerobic mechanisms due to the slow response of
the aerobic system to the initial increase in the demand for energy?
a. oxygen debt
b. recovery O2
c. oxygen deficit
d. EPOC
The excess postexercise oxygen consumption experienced by athletes is caused b. decreases in body temperature
by all of the following EXCEPT
a. 5 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 1 minute
d. 2 minutes
During higher-intensity exercises, athletes often experience peripheral fatigue. d. metabolic acidosis
Which of the following is believed to be the reason for this type of fatigue?
a. lactate
b. increase in muscle pH
c. gluconeogenesis
d. metabolic acidosis
An athlete is used to performing high-intensity aerobic exercise; however, she will a. transition from almost exclusively
now be changing to longer-duration, submaximal exercise on a regular basis. This carbohydrate to mostly fat
change in training strategy will typically result in what changes concerning energy
supply?
a. alanine
b. aspartate
c. glutamate
d. isoleucine
a. inferior
b. medial
c. superior
d. lateral
Which of the following is the smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle? B. sarcomere
a. myosin
b. sarcomere
c. epimysium
d. sarcolemma
Which of the following describes Type I muscle fibers? D. fatigue resistant with high aerobic energy
supply
a. inefficient and easily fatigable
b. rapid force development capabilities
c. high myosin ATPase activity
d. fatigue resistant with high aerobic energy supply
Which of the following describes the flow of blood? a. right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left
atrium, left ventricle, body
a. right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body
b. left ventricle, left atrium, body, right ventricle, right atrium, lungs
c. body, right ventricle, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, left atrium
d. right ventricle, right atrium, body, left ventricle, left atrium, lungs
On average, how many times per minute does the SA node discharge at rest? c. 60-80
a. 10-30
b. 35-55
c. 60-80
d. 85-105
Which of the following are the two main divisions of the skeletal system? b. appendicular and axial
Some of the highest bone mineral densities have been seen in which of the a. gymnasts
following types of athletes?
a. gymnasts
b. cross-country skiers
c. swimmers
d. field hockey players
a. hyaline
b. multiaxial
c. biaxial
d. simple
Which of the following is the order of the phases of a muscle contraction? c. resting, excitation-contraction coupling,
contraction, recharge, relaxation
a. contraction, relaxation, excitation-contraction coupling, recharge, resting
b. excitation-contraction coupling, relaxation, contraction, resting, recharge
c. resting, excitation-contraction coupling, contraction, recharge, relaxation
d. relaxation, recharge, excitation-contraction coupling, resting, contraction
The chronotropic effect is caused by stimulation of the _______________ nervous d. sympathetic; increase
system and causes the heart rate to _______________.
a. parasympathetic; decrease
b. parasympathetic; increase
c. sympathetic; decrease
d. sympathetic; increase
Two individuals of the same body mass are lifting weights. Assuming all other d. farther from; a heavier
factors to be equal, the person with tendons inserted on the bone
_______________ the joint center should be able to lift _______________ weight.
a. sagittal
b. transverse
c. perpendicular
d. frontal
An athlete in the weight room is performing the barbell bench press. If he moves a c. 150 N
mass of 75 kg with an acceleration of 2 m/s², what force is he exerting?
a. 37.5 N
b. 37.5 kg·m-1·s²
c. 150 N
d. 150 kg·m-1·s²
Neural control affects the maximal force output of a muscle by determining which c. recruitment; rate coding
and how many motor units are involved in a muscle contraction and the rate at
which the motor units are fired. These two factors are known as what,
respectively?
All of the following are considered to be advantages when using weight-stack b. simulates real-life activities
machines EXCEPT
a. design flexibility
b. simulates real-life activities
c. reduced likelihood of injury
d. easy to use
Which of the following is the resistive force encountered when one attempts to a. friction
move an object while it is pressed against another object?
a. friction
b. inertia
c. obstruction
d. gravity
Eighty-five to ninety percent of all intervertebral disk herniations occur at what two b. L4-L5 and L5-S1
locations?
An athlete produced 840 watts of power in 0.6 seconds. How much work did this d. 504 J
individual perform during the exercise?
a. 1400 kJ
b. 504 kJ
c. 1400 J
d. 504 J
Which of the muscles or muscle groups have a fusiform pennation? b. biceps brachii
a. deltoid
b. biceps brachii
c. rectus femoris
d. tibialis posterior
As an athlete’s body size increases, which of the following describes how body b. Body mass increases more rapidly than
mass and muscular strength change? muscular strength