Question Bank 2

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Question Bank 2 I
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1. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is seen more commonly with which of the L
J
following lung carcinoma’s
J
B B
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
I I
G b. Adenocarcinoma G
D D
c. Epidermoid carcinoma
E E
A d. Oat cell carcinoma A
L L
2. By knowing the half life of a drug it would help in knowing the
J J
B a. Median lethal dose B
I I
b. Median effective dose
G G
D D
c. Potency of drug
E E
A
d. Frequency of dosing A
L L
3. Which of the following types of human papiloma viruses is implicated in causation
J
J of carcinoma cervix
B
B
a. 6 I
I
G
G
b. 11
D
D
E c. 16 E
A
A
d. 42 L
L
J
J
4. The best way to visualize the corneoscleral angle is
B
B
a. Slit lamp microscopy I
I
G
G b. Gonioscopy
D
D
c. Opthalmoscope E
E
A
A
L
L
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J
J
B
B
I d. Keratometer I
G
G
D
5. Mebendazole is used for treatment of all of the following except
D
E
a. Intestinal ameobiasis E
A
A
L b. Trichuriasis L
J c. Ankylostoma J
B B
I
d. Round worm
I
G G
6. Which of the following causes visceral larva migrane
D D
E a. Toxocara catis E
A A
b. Ankylostoma doudenale
L L
J
c. Loa Loa J
B B
d. Trichuris trichura
I I
G 7. Which of the following is content of littre’s hernia G
D D
a. Sigmoid colon
E E
A A
b. Urinary bladder
L L
c. Meckel’s diverticulum J
J
B
B
d. Ileus
I
I
G 8. Amino Acid Score (AAS) refers to G
D
D
a. The ratio of number of essential amino acids present in the given diet to E
E
reference protein
A
A
b. The ratio of number of limiting amino acids present in given diet to the L
L
reference protein J
J
B
B c. The number of limiting amino acids present in the given diet
I
I
d. The number of essential amino acids present in the given diet G
G
D
D
9. Most common tumor of the appendix is E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I a. Adenocarcinoma I
G
G
D
b. Carcinoid
D
E
c. Squamous cell carcinoma E
A
A
L d. Metastasis L
J 10. Formation of ammonium ions to remove the excess acid in urine is produced by which of the J
following enzymes
B B
I I
a. Glutaminase
G G
D b. Glutamate pyruvate transaminase D
E E
c. Glutamate dehydrogenase
A A
L d. Carboxylase L
J J
11. The normal PR interval is in seconds
B B
I a. 0.05-0.08 I
G G
b. 0.12-0.16
D D
E c. 0.8-1.6 E
A A
L
d. 1.2-2.3 L
J
J 12. The normal sperm count is
B
B
I
a. 4-5 million/mm3 I
G
G
b. 60-120 million/ml
D
D
c. 60-120 lakhs/ml E
E
A
A
d. 40-50 lakhs/mm3 L
L
J
J 13. To balance pressure natriuresis, the renal sodium excretion is
B
B
a. Increased with increased arterial pressure I
I
G
G b. Decreased with increased pressure
D
D
c. Decreased with decreased pressure E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. Increased with decreased pressure I
G
G
D
14. The limiting amino acid in wheat is
D
E
a. Lysine E
A
A
L b. Threonine L
J c. Tryptophan J
B B
I
d. Cysteine
I
G G
15. Chronic retropharyngeal abcess is formed due to
D D
E a. Acute cervical lymphadenitis E
A A
b. Caries spine
L L
J
c. Tonsillitis J
B B
d. Trauma
I I
G 16. Post cricoid malignancy is commonly in G
D D
a. Alcoholics
E E
A A
b. Smokers
L L
c. Plummer vinsons syndrome J

J
B
B
d. Reflux esophagitis
I
I
G 17. The Henderson Hassalbach equation is used for measuring G
D
D
a. The sodium potassium balance E
E
A
A b. The acid base balance
L
L
c. The kinetics of enzymatic reaction J
J
B
B d. Anion gap
I
I
18. All of the following are anabolic except G
G
D
D
a. Growth hormone E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I b. Cortisol I
G
G
D
c. Insulin
D
E
d. IGF-1 E
A
A
L 19. In right homonymous hemianopia the lesion is in L
J a. The right optic nerve J
B B
I
b. Optic chiasma
I
G G
c. The left Optic tract
D D
E d. The Optic radiations in the left cortex E
A A
20. Osteochondritis of the lunate bone is known as
L L
J
a. Friebergs J
B B
b. Keinbocks
I I
G c. Perthes G
D D
d. Kohlers
E E
A A
21. The incubation period of mumps is
L L
a. 7 days J
J
B
B
b. 10 days
I
I
G c. 18 days G
D
D
d. 25 days E
E
A
A 22. To differentiate between osmotic and secretory diarrhea it is best to measure
L
L
a. The stool osmolol gap J
J
B
B b. The stool and plasma osmolality
I
I
c. The stool anion gap G
G
D
D
d. The water content of the stools E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I 23. Cobble stone appearance is seen in I
G
G
D
a. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
D
E
b. Vernal conjunctivitis E
A
A
L c. Trachoma L
J d. Herpes Infection J
B B
I
24. The difference between use of a selective alpha1 blocker to using a non selective
I
alpha blocker is
G G
D a. Less reflux tachycardia D
E E
A
b. Decreased postural hypotension
A
L L
c. More vasodilation
J J
d. Vasoconstriction
B B
I I
25. All of the following are actions of epinephrine on beta receptors except
G G
D
a. Tachycardia D
E E
b. Ventricular arrythmia’s
A A
L c. A-V block L
J
J
d. Increased cardiac output
B
B
I
I
G
G
26. Symes amputation is of which of the following types D
D
E
E
a. Provisional non end bearing
A
A
b. Provisional end bearing L

L
J
J c. Definitive non end bearing
B
B
I
I
d. Definitive end bearing
G
G
27. All of the following are true about amiodarone D
D
E
E a. It acts on fast sodium channels
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I b. Increase action potential I
G
G
D
c. It decreases conduction in HIS purkinje fibres
D
E
d. It increases refractory period in A-V node E
A
A
L 28. The cell of origin in giant cell tumor is L
J a. Osteoblast J
B B
I
b. Osteoclast
I
G G
c. Undifferintiated cells
D D
E d. Giant cells E
A A
29. In vaginal prolapse the cause for decubitus ulcer is
L L
J
a. Friction J
B B
b. &nbsn style='color:navy;layout-grid-mode:line'>c. It decreases conduction in HIS purkinje fibres
I I
G d. It increases refractory period in A-V node G
D D
28. The cell of origin in giant cell tumor is
E E
A A
a. Osteoblast
L L
b. Osteoclast J
J
B
B
c. Undifferintiated cells
I
I
G d. Giant cells G
D
D
29. In vaginal prolapse the cause for decubitus ulcer is E
E
A
A a. Friction
L
L
b. Congestion J
J
B
B c. Infection
I
I
d. Mechanical G
G
D
D
30. DIC is seen in all of the following except E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I a. Intra uterine death I
G
G
D
b. Extraamniotic instillation of ethacrydine lactate
D
E
c. Blood loss E
A
A
L d. Amniotic fluid embolism L
J 31. All of the following are conservative management used in ectopic pregnancy except J
B B
I
a. Salpingostomy
I
G G
b. Salpingotomy
D D
E c. Salpingectomy E
A A
d. Methotrexate
L L
J
32. Hyperemisis Gravidarium in 1st trimester is seen with increased frequency in all of J
the following except
B B
I I
a. H.Mole
G G
D
b. Twins D
E E
c. Preeclampsia
A A
L d. Primigravida L
J
J
33. Volume of synovial fluid in knee joint is
B
B
I
I a. 0.5-4 ml
G
G
b. 4-8 ml D
D
E
E
c. 10-20 ml
A
A
d. 8-12 ml L
L
J
J 34. The increased production of vitamin D induced transport protein increases
B
B absorption of
I
I
a. Iron G
G
D
D
b. Magnesium E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I c. Calcium I
G
G
D
d. Zinc
D
E
35. The blocking antibodies in pernicious anemia are E
A
A
L a. Directed against parietal cells L
J b. Prevents binding of IF and B12 J
B B
I
c. Prevents absorption of IF and B12 complex
I
G G
d. Are directed against enterocytes in ileum
D D
E 36. Most common site of urethral rupture is E
A A
a. Prostatic
L L
J
b. Penile J
B B
c. Bulbar
I I
G d. Membranous G
D D
37. WHO day is celebrated all over the day on
E E
A A
a. April 10
L L
b. April 7th J
J
B
B
c. May 31st
I
I
G d. Dec 1st G
D
D
38. Small Pox was declared globally eradicated on E
E
A
A a. 7th May 1977
L
L
b. 1975 J
J
B
B c. 8th May 1980
I
I
d. 14th April 1977 G
G
D
D
39. The membranous separating the region between the feotal skull bones is called as E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I a. Fontanels I
G
G
D
b. Wormian Bones
D
E
c. Sutures E
A
A
L d. Ostia L
J 40. Bisphosphonates act by J
B B
I
a. Preventing calcium absorption in GIT
I
G G
b. Inhibiting osteoclast mediated bone resorption
D D
E c. Preventing Ca excretion E
A A
41. Altering blood pH and preventing Ca resorption
L L
J
a. Odd’s ratio measures the strength of association and J
B B
b. The ratio of incidence of disease in exposed to nonexposed
I I
G c. The risk factors and outcome G
D D
d. The ratio between exposed to the incidence of disease in the total population
E E
A A
42. The structures marking the seperation of the duodenum and the jejunum is
L L
a. The superior mesenteric vein J

J
B
B
b. The bile duct
I
I
G c. The ligament of trietz G
D
D
d. The caudate lobe of liver E
E
A
A 43. In an immunosupressed individual suffering from viral , opportunistic fungal and
parasitic infections is suffering mainly from a defect in L
L
J
J a. B cells
B
B
I
I
b. T cells
G
G
c. Complement D
D
E
E d. Neutrophils
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I 44. For contraception (post contraception) all of the following are used except I
G
G
D
a. Mifepristone
D
E
b. Oral contraceptives E
A
A
L c. Levonorgestrol L
J d. Prostaglandins J
B B
I
45. All of the following are used in treatment of endometriosis except
I
G G
a. Danazol
D D
E b. Gonadotropin releasing hormone E
A A
c. OCP’s
L L
J
d. Gonadotropin releasing hormone agonist J
B B
46. During a surgery ligation of which of the following small veins in the abdomen can
I I
lead to death of the patient
G G
D
a. IVC D
E E
b. Superior mesenteric vein
A A
L c. Coronary vein L
J
J
d. Splenic vein
B
B
I
I 47. All of the following are associated with maculopapular rash except
G
G
a. Typhoid D
D
E
E
b. Dengue
A
A
c. Chicken pox L
L
J
J d. Measles
B
B
I
I
48. Punctate basophilia is seen in
G
G
a. Erythrocytes D
D
E
E b. Nuetrophils
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I c. Lymphocytes I
G
G
D
d. Eosinophils
D
E
E
A
A
L
L
J 49. The fibrous layer is missing in J
B B
I
a. Pars tensa
I
G G
b. Pars flaccida
D D
E c. Umbo E
A A
d. Anullus of tympanic membrane
L L
J
50. Myotonic dystrophy inheritance is by J
B B
a. Autosomal Dominant
I I
G b. X-linked recessive G
D D
c. Autosomal recessive
E E
A A
d. Multifactorial
L L
51. X-linked dominant inheritance pattern is seen in J

J
B
B
a. Polycystic Kidney disease
I
I
G b. Vitamin D resistant rickets G
D
D
c. Cystic fibrosis E
E
A
A d. Von willibrands disease
L
L
52. Von Willibrands disease is transmitted as J
J
B
B a. Autosomal recessive
I
I
b. Autosomal Dominant G
G
D
D
c. X-linked recessive E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. Y-linked recessive I
G
G
D
53. Internal hordeolum is
D
E
a. Chronic granulomatous infection of Meibomian glands E
A
A
L b. Acute supperative infection of Miebomian glands L
J c. Acute infection of glands of Zei’s J
B B
I
d. Lacrimal gland infection
I
G G
54. The protein content in breast milk is
D D
E a. 0.8 gm/100 ml E
A A
b. 0.9 gm/10 ml
L L
J
c. 1 gm/10ml J
B B
d. 2 gms/100 ml
I I
G 55. Dysphagia lusoria is due to G
D D
a. Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery
E E
A A
b. Abnormal origin of right subclavian artery
L L
c. Compression by aortic arch J

J
B
B
d. Obstruction due to foreign body
I
I
G 56. Sensitivity is written in the formula as G
D
D
a. TP/FP+FN E
E
A
A b. TP/FN+TN
L
L
c. TP/TN+TP J
J
B
B d. TP/TN+FP
I
I
57. Annual parasite incidence measures G
G
D
D
a. Number of confirmed cases due to malaria in 1 yr *1000 / Population under E
E surveillance
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I b. Number of cases of malaria due to falciparam in 1 yr * 1000 / Total I
G population
G
D
D
c. Number of slides examined *1000 / Total population
E
E
A d. Number of faciparum malria cases in 2-10 yr old children*1000 / Total A
L population
L
J 58. As per WHO TB is said to be under control when J
B B
I
a. <1% population is tuberculin positive
I
G G
b. <1% population is sputum positive
D D
E c. <1% infection in children less then 14 years E
A A
d. <5% TB cases
L L
J
59. Tullio Phenomenon refers to J
B B
a. Increased sensitivity to hearing
I I
G b. Better hearing in noisy surrounding G
D D
c. Impedence matching
E E
A A
d. Vertigo on hearing high freq sounds
L L
60. Thornwalds disease is infection of J

J
B
B a. Pharyngeal bursa
I
I
G b. Space of gillete G
D
D
c. Crypta magna
E
E
A
A d. Subhyoid infection
L
L
61. All of the following are true regarding ulcerative colitis except J
J
B
B a. Decreased goblet cells
I
I
b. Crypt abcess G
G
D
D
c. Destruction of crypts E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. Transmural infarction I
G
G
D
62. Avoiding reflex is due to
D
E
a. Right frontal lobe disease E
A
A
L b. Dominant parietal lobe disease L
J c. Non dominant parietal lobe disease J
B B
I
d. Left Frontal lobe disease
I
G G
63. All of the following are true regarding cerebellar lesion except
D D
E a. Hypotonia E
A A
b. Adiodokinesia
L L
J
c. Resting tremors J
B B
d. Ataxia
I I
G 64. Normal oxygen tension with decreased oxygen carrying capacity is seen in G
D D
a. Histotoxic hypoxia
E E
A A
b. Anemic hypoxia
L L
c. Stagnant hypoxia J
J
B
B
d. Hypoxic hypoxia
I
I
G
G
D
D
65. Loss of speech with inability to read, understand in a patient is referred to as E
E
A
A a. Dyslexia
L
L
b. Aphasia J
J
B
B c. Disconnection syndrome
I
I
d. Apraxia G
G
D
D
66. Abelson oncogene is associated with which of the following leukemias E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I a. Acute myeloid leukemia I
G
G
D
b. Acute leukemic leukemia
D
E
c. Chronic myeloid leukemia E
A
A
L d. Chronic leukemic leukemia L
J 67. In CML the translocation occurring is J
B B
I
a. Abl of chromosome 9 to bcr of chromosome 21
I
G G
b. Abl of chromosome 9 to bcr of chromosome 22
D D
E c. Bcr of chromosome 9 to abl of chromosome 21 E
A A
d. Bcr of chromosome 9 to abl of chromosome 22
L L
J
68. M4 in the classification of AML denotes which of the following stages J
B B
a. Promyelocytic
I I
G b. Monocytic G
D D
c. Myelomonocytic
E E
A A
d. Megakaryocytic
L L
69. The M4 stage in AML is associated with the presence of J

J
B
B
a. Megaloblasts
I
I
G b. Myeloblasts G
D
D
c. Both myeloblasts and megaloblasts E
E
A
A d. Promylocytes
L
L
70. KANAVEL’S sign is seen in J
J
B
B a. Acute tenosynovitis
I
I
b. Pancreatitis G
G
D
D
c. Appendicitis E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. Ectopic pregnancy I
G
G
D
71. The most common cause of multiple strictures in the small intestine is
D
E
a. TB E
A
A
L b. Ischeamic enteritis L
J c. Crohns disease J
B B
I
d. Ulcerative colitis
I
G G
72. In a post appendectomy patient the cause of an external fistula formation is
D D
E a. TB E
A A
b. Intussuception
L L
J
c. Crohns disease J
B B
d. Ulcerative colitis
I I
G 73. Feacal fistula at the umbilicus is due to G
D D
a. Patent urachus
E E
A A
b. Vescico intestinal diverticulum
L L
c. Omphalocele J
J
B
B
d. Infection
I
I
G 74. Most common cause of vescico vaginal fistula in developing countries is due to G
D
D
a. Obstructed labour E
E
A
A b. Werthiems hysterectomy
L
L
c. Ceasarian section J
J
B
B d. Forceps delivery
I
I
75. All of the following operations are done in incontinence except G
G
D
D
a. Kelleys stitch E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I b. Aldridge’s operation I
G
G
D
c. Marshal marchetti krantz operation
D
E
d. Shirodhkars sling operation E
A
A
L 76. Most common type of incontinence seen in UTI is L
J a. False J
B B
I
b. Overflow
I
G G
c. Urge
D D
E d. True E
A A
77. Deep tranverse arrest is commonly associated with which of the following types of
L L
pelvis
J J
a. Platypelloid
B B
I I
b. Android
G G
D
c. Anthrapoid D
E E
d. Gyenecoid
A A
L 78. Which of the following is responsible for inability to rotate anteriorly in the L
occipitoposterior position J
J
B
B a. Moderate size fetus
I
I
G b. Gynecoid pelvis G
D
D
c. Weak uterine contractions
E
E
A
A d. Good levator ani muscle contractions
L
L
79. Which of the following sinuses is commonly associated with development of J
J osteomyelitis in the face
B
B
I
I
a. Maxillary
G
G
b. Ethmoid D
D
E
E c. Frontal
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. Sphenoid I
G
G
D
80. Atropine causes decrease salivation and bronchodilatation . These properties enable
D
it to used in as
E
E
A a. Preaneasthetic medication A
L
L
b. Hyertension
J J
B c. Supraventricular tachycardia B
I I
d. MI
G G
D D
E E
A
81. All of the following are true about succinylcholine except
A
L L
a. Causes persistent depolarizing block
J J
b. Metabolized by psuedocholinesterase
B B
I I
c. Block can be reversed by neostigmine
G G
D
d. Has a short half life D
E E
82. Maculopaular rash is seen is all of the following except
A A
L a. Typhoid L
J
J
b. Varicella
B
B
I
I c. Dengue
G
G
d. Measles D
D
E
E
83. Diastomatomyelia is
A
A
a. Discontinuity in spinal cord L

L
J
J b. Spur in spinal cord
B
B
I
I
c. Absence of dorsal column
G
G
d. Dislocated disc D
D
E
E 84. The weight of the body is transmitted through the axis of the vertebrae passing
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I through I
G
G
D
a. Lamina
D
E
b. Vertebral Body E
A
A
L c. Pedicle L
J d. Dorsal arch J
B B
I
85. All of the following are selective beta blockers except
I
G G
a. Atenolol
D D
E b. Metoprolol E
A A
c. Bisoprlol
L L
J
d. Propranolol J
B B
86. All of the following are seen in Tetralogy of Fallot except
I I
G a. VSD G
D D
b. Overiding aorta
E E
A A
c. Pulmonary stenosis
L L
d. Left ventricular hypertrophy J

J
B
B
87. In most patients with multiple sclerosis, CSF proteins are
I
I
G a. Increased G
D
D
b. Decreased E
E
A
A c. Normal
L
L
d. Absent J
J
B
B 88. In Freidrichs type V hyperlipedemias the protein raised is
I
I
a. IDL G
G
D
D
b. VLDL E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I c. LDL I
G
G
D
d. Chylomicronsii
D
E
89. Atoprine is used in treatment of all of the following except E
A
A
L a. Iridocyclitis L
J b. Angle closure glaucoma J
B B
I
c. Corneal ulcer
I
G G
d. Before refraction assessment
D D
E 90. Wickhams striae is characteristically is seen in E
A A
a. Psoriasis
L L
J
b. Lichen planus J
B B
c. Pemphigus
I I
G d. Pemphigoid G
D D
91. Rhinitis sicca involves
E E
A A
a. Anterior nares
L L
b. Septum J
J
B
B
c. Posterior wall
I
I
G d. Lateral wall G
D
D
92. Acute pancreatitis is caused most commonly by E
E
A
A a. Gallstones
L
L
b. Alcohol J
J
B
B c. Truama
I
I
d. Drugs G
G
D
D
93. All of the following about meperidine are true except E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I a. Has shorter half life then morphine I
G
G
D
b. Greater spasmogenic action then morphine
D
E
c. Has dependency E
A
A
L d. Better oral avialabilty L
J 94. The lateral boundary of femoral canal is formed by J
B B
I
a. Lacunar ligament
I
G G
b. Femoral ligament
D D
E c. Femoral vein E
A A
d. Femoral nerve
L L
J
95. Posterior relation of Winslows foramen is J
B B
a. IVC
I I
G b. Liver G
D D
c. Doudenum
E E
A A
d. Pancreas
L L
96. The death sentence given by a judicial officer has to be confirmed by J

J
B
B
a. Sessions court
I
I
G b. Additional sessions court G
D
D
c. High court E
E
A
A d. Supreme court
L
L
97. The asbestos which of least likely pathogenic is J
J
B
B a. Crocodolite
I
I
b. Crysolite G
G
D
D
c. Amsolyte E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. Trenolite I
G
G
D
D
E
98. Most common surgical complication of typhoid is E
A
A
L a. Myocarditis L
J b. Cholecystitis J
B B
I
c. Hemorrhage
I
G G
d. Ileal perforation
D D
E 99. In a patient with highly selective protienuria the protein lost is E
A A
a. Transferrin
L L
J
b. Albumin and fibronogen J
B B
c. Transferrin and fibronogen
I I
G d. Fibronogen G
D D
100. The immunologic response giving protection to Hepatitis A for long periods
E E
A A
a. IgM
L L
b. IgG J
J
B
B
c. IgA
I
I
G d. IgD G
D
D
101. In window period in Hepatitis B infection, the severly shows E
E
A
A a. HbsAg
L
L
b. Anti HbsAg J
J
B
B c. HbeAg
I
I
d. Anti HbeAg G
G
D
D
102. Characteristic skin lesion in Peutz Jeghers syndrome is E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I a. Freckles I
G
G
D
b. Lentigenes
D
E
c. Café u-lait spots E
A
A
L d. Adenoma Sebacium L
J 103. Characteristic lesion in tuberous sclerosis J
B B
I
a. Café u lait
I
G G
b. Adenoma sebaceum
D D
E c. Lentigenes E
A A
d. Melanoma
L L
J
104. All of the following are common uses of beta blockers and calcium channel blockers J
except
B B
I I
a. Atrial arrythmias
G G
D
b. Hypertension D
E E
c. Variant angina
A A
L d. Migraine L
J
J
105. Cardiac output is decreased by
B
B
I
I a. Increased sympathetic activity
G
G
b. Tachycardia D
D
E
E
c. Increased preload
A
A
d. Decreaesd venous return L

L
J
J 106. The parasympathetic effect on bronchial smooth muscle causes
B
B
I
I
a. Increased tidal volume
G
G
b. Bronchoconstriction D
D
E
E c. Bronchodilatation
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. No effect I
G
G
D
D
E
E
A
A
L 107. All of the following are true about cochlea except L
J a. Lesion in cochlea causes nerve deafness J
B B
I
b. Contains the tectorial membrane which is fine tuned
I
G G
c. It contains the hearing sense organs
D D
E d. Lesion causes vertigo E
A A
108. Myopia is best corrected by
L L
J
a. Convex lenses J
B B
b. Concave lenses
I I
G c. Astigmatic lenses G
D D
d. Prisms
E E
A A
109. All of the following are causes of complicated cataract except
L L
a. Malignant Myopia J
J
B
B
b. Diabetes mellitus
I
I
G c. Retinitis Pigmentosa G
D
D
d. Iridocyclitis E
E
A
A 110. The most common cause of psuedohermaphroditism is
L
L
a. Ovarian dysgenesis J
J
B
B b. Ovarian tumor
I
I
c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia G
G
D
D
d. PCOD E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I 111. The D/D of rectal prolapse in a child is I
G
G
D
a. Intusseception
D
E
b. Rectal polyp E
A
A
L c. Heamorrhoids L
J d. Tumor J
B B
I
112. Most common cause of stridor in newborn is
I
G G
a. Subglottic stenosis
D D
E b. Laryngomalacia E
A A
c. Foreiegn Body
L L
J
d. Infection J
B B
113. All of the following are functions of saliva except
I I
G a. Acts as lubricant for mastication G
D D
b. It helps in perception of taste by dissolving
E E
A A
c. It helps in digestion of carbohydrates
L L
d. It helps in digestion of proteins J

J
B
B
114. The blood supply of SA node is
I
I
G a. Left coronary artery G
D
D
b. Right coronary artery E
E
A
A c. Left circumflex artery
L
L
d. Anterior descending artery J
J
B
B 115. The graph used to measure to unrelated variables like height and weight are
I
I
a. Scatter diagram G
G
D
D
b. Bar chart E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I c. Pie chart I
G
G
D
d. Histogram
D
E
116. Reverse intussuception occurs in E
A
A
L a. Ileocolic L
J b. Ileoceacal J
B B
I
c. Colocolic
I
G G
d. Jejunogastric
D D
E 117. Aspirin can be used in all of the following except E
A A
a. Dysmennorhes
L L
J
b. Acute inflammation of joints J
B B
c. Post MI
I I
G d. Viral infection G
D D
118. All of the following are true about metropathia heamoragica except
E E
A A
a. Swiss cheese endometrium
L L
b. Common nearing menopause J

J
B
B
c. Anovulatory cycles
I
I
G d. Metrorhagia G
D
D
119. Savlon contains E
E
A
A a. Cetavlon + hibitane
L
L
b. Cetavlon + Chlorheximide J
J
B
B c. Hibitane + Chlorhexenol
I
I
d. Cetavlon + Chlorohexenol G
G
D
D
120. Most common adverse effect of Ziduvudine is E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I a. Myopathy I
G
G
D
b. Bone marrow toxicity
D
E
c. Hemolytic anemia E
A
A
L d. Hepatitis L
J 121. All of the following are advantages of using INH in antiTB treatment except J
B B
I
a. It reduces load of TB bacilli
I
G G
b. It kills intracellular TB bacilli
D D
E c. It acts on dormant bacilli E
A A
d. It has preventable side effects like peripheral neuropathy
L L
J
122. The only drug available for treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is J
B B
a. Chlorpropamide
I I
G b. Thiazide G
D D
c. Desmopressin
E E
A A
d. Frusemide
L L
123. All of the following are physiological cysts in the ovary except one which is a tumor J
J
B
B
a. Theca cysts
I
I
G b. Dermoid G
D
D
c. Luteal cysts E
E
A
A d. Corpus luteum cysts
L
L
J
J
B
B 124. Development of testes is dependant upon which of the following
I
I
a. X chromosome G
G
D
D
b. Y chromosome E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I c. XY chromosomes I
G
G
D
d. XX chromosomes
D
E
125. Turners syndrome karyotype is E
A
A
L a. 45, XXY L
J b. 45  0 J
B B
I c. 45,XX
I
G G
d. 45, XY
D D
E 126. All of the following are indications of enucleation except E
A A
L
a. Malignant myopia
L
J
b. Pthysis bulbi J
B B
c. Panopthalmitis
I I
G d. Total anterior staphyloma G
D D
127. Purely ketogenic aminoacid E
E
A A
a. Proline
L L
b. Tyrosine J
J
B
B
c. Leucine
I
I
d. Phenylanine G
G
D
D
128. Ponderal index is E
E
A
A a. Wt/Ht2
L
L
b. 100-ht in cms J
J
B
B c. Wt/cube root of Ht
I
I
d. Observed weight/Expected weight G
G
D
D
129. WHO’s definition of blindness is E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I a. <6/60 I
G
G
D
b. <3/60
D
E
c. <20/60 E
A
A
L d. <1/60 L
J 130. All of the following are seen in abruptio placentae except J
B B
I
a. Tenderness over the abdomen
I
G G
b. Renal failure
D D
E c. Uterine inversion E
A A
d. DIC
L L
J
131. PQLI includes J
B B
a. IMR, life expectancy at 1 year, economic growth product
I I
G b. IMR, life expectancy at 1 year, literacy G
D D
c. MMR, literacy, economic growth product
E E
A A
d. IMR, life expectancy at birth and knowledge
L L
J
J
B
B
132. Freshly prepared bleaching powder yields what % of chlorine
I
I
G a. 66% G
D
D
b. 33% E
E
A
A c. 50%
L
L
d. 20% J
J
B
B 133. Iodized salt at production level and at consumer level should be
I
I
a. 45 ppm and 15 ppm G
G
D
D
b. 30 ppm and 15 ppm E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I c. 40 ppm and 20 ppm I
G
G
D
d. 20 ppm and 10 ppm
D
E
134. The toxin implicated in lathyrism is E
A
A
L a. Pyrralizidone L
J b. BOAA J
B B
I
c. Sanguinarine
I
G G
d. Aflatoxin
D D
E 135. Chronic noise exposure above what level causes deafness E
A A
a. 100 Db
L L
J
b. 85 Db J
B B
c. 70 Db
I I
G d. 140 Db G
D D
136. All of the following are seen in horners syndrome except
E E
A A
a. Ptosis
L L
b. Miosis J
J
B
B
c. Proptosis
I
I
G d. Anhydrosis G
D
D
137. Antigen drift involving infleunza indicates E
E
A
A a. Major shift in the structure of the antigens
L
L
b. Minor variations in the viral nucleocapsid J
J
B
B c. Minor antigenic variations in the heamagluttinin and neuroaminidase
I
I
antigens
G
G
d. Recombination with host DNA D
D
E
E 138. Skin contains which type of glands largely
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I a. Apocrine and sweat glands I
G
G
D
b. Ecocrine and sweat glands
D
E
c. Holocrine and sweat glands E
A
A
L d. Sebacious and sweat glands L
J 139. Acute flaccid paralysis is suddenly caused by J
B B
I
a. Hypercalcemia
I
G G
b. Hypocalcemia
D D
E c. Hyperkalemia E
A A
d. Hypokalemia
L L
J
140. In a patient with polyuria and polydipsia with passage of dilutes urine is suffering J
from abnormality involving
B B
I I
a. Aldosterone
G G
D
b. ADH D
E E
c. Insulin
A A
L d. Growth hormone L
J
J
141. Chlamydia is best treated by
B
B
I
I a. Tetracycline
G
G
b. Ampicillin D
D
E
E
c. Gentamycin
A
A
d. Cephalexin L
L
J
J 142. True about competitive inhibitor is
B
B
I
I
a. Decrease in Km and Vmax
G
G
b. Decrease in Vmax and Km is same D
D
E
E c. Increase in Km and Vmax is same
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. Decrease in Km and Vmax is same I
G
G
D
143. Best drug to potentiate DOPA is
D
E
a. Pyridoxine E
A
A
L b. Carbidopa L
J c. Pergolide J
B B
I
d. Amantadine
I
G G
144. Current modes of investigation for infertility to check functioning of tubes are all of
D the following except D
E E
A
a. Air insufflation
A
L L
b. Sonosalpingogography
J J
c. Hysterosalpingography
B B
I I
d. Laproscopic chromotubation
G G
D
145. Kernicterus is caused by D
E E
a. Bilirubin monoglucoronide
A A
L b. Albumin bound bilirubin L
J
J
c. Unbound bilirubin
B
B
I
I d. Bilirubin diglucoronide
G
G
146. Mechanism of action of cluvalinic acid is D
D
E
E
a. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
A
A
b. Inhibits beta lactamase L

L
J
J c. Acts on protein synthesis
B
B
I
I
d. Causes miss reading of DNA
G
G
147. Prolactin secretion is inhibited by D
D
E
E a. Growth hormone
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I b. Stomatostatin I
G
G
D
c. Dopamine
D
E
d. TSH E
A
A
L 148. In increased stage of endometrial carcinoma treatment given is L
J a. Tamoxifen J
B B
I
b. Medroxyprogesterone
I
G G
c. Danazol
D D
E d. Methotrexate E
A A
L L
J
149. Normal fluoride level for drinking purposes is in mgs/lt J
B B
a. 0.08-0.5
I I
G b. 0.8-1.2 G
D D
c. 1-1.75
E E
A A
d. 1.5-3.5
L L
150. Epinephrine can be used in all of the following except J

J
B
B
a. Anaphylactic shock
I
I
G b. Chronic bronchial asthma G
D
D
c. Cardiac resuscitation E
E
A
A d. To prevent local bleed
L
L
151. The most common nerve involved in leprosy is J
J
B
B a. Ulnar nerve
I
I
b. Lateral popliteal nerve G
G
D
D
c. Sciatic nerve E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. Radial nerve I
G
G
D
152. Dangerous area of face is
D
E
a. Olfactory bulb E
A
A
L b. Woodruffs area L
J c. Littles area J
B B
I
d. Inferior turbinate
I
G G
153. During surgery involving abdomen ligation of a small vein can cause death of the
D patient D
E E
A
a. Coronary vein
A
L L
b. Superior mesenteric vein
J J
c. Splenic vein
B B
I I
d. IVC
G G
D
154. The main blood supply of the small gut is D
E E
a. Celiac axis
A A
L b. Superior mesenteric vein L
J
J
c. Inferior mesenteric vein
B
B
I
I d. Middle colic vein
G
G
155. The external ear develops from which of the following D
D
E
E
a. 1st branchial arch
A
A
b. 2nd branchial arch L

L
J
J c. 1st branchia cleft
B
B
I
I
d. 2nd branchial cleft
G
G
156. Division of nuclear material occurs in which of the following stages D
D
E
E a. Metaphase I
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I b. Prophase I I
G
G
D
c. Anaphase
D
E
d. Prophase II E
A
A
L 157. Rotation of radius occurring without extension and flexion at the elbow joint is L
caused by
J J
B a. Anconeus and supinator B
I I
b. Brachioradialis and Brachialis
G G
D c. Pronator quadratus and pronator teres D
E E
A
d. Triceps and Biceps brachii
A
L L
158. Depression of mandible is caused by
J J
a. Temporalis
B B
I I
b. Lateral pterygoid
G G
D
c. Medial pterygoid D
E E
d. Masseter
A A
L 159. Which of the following amino acids undergoes hydroxylation and is involved in the L
formation of collagen J
J
B
B a. Proline
I
I
G b. Tryptophan G
D
D
c. Phenylalanine
E
E
A
A d. Cystiene
L
L
160. Which of the following are true about nerve action conduction J
J
B
B a. On activation there is influx of potassium and efflux of sodium
I
I
b. It is decremental in nature G
G
D
D
c. It does not follow all or none law E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. It requires a threshold stimulus to be activated I
G
G
D
161. The most physiological operation for chronic duodenal ulcer is
D
E
a. Highly selective Vagotomy E
A
A
L b. Truncal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy L
J c. Antrectomy and truncal vagotomy J
B B
I
d. Selective vagotomy
I
G G
162. The least recurrence rate is seen in which of the following procedures for peptic
D ulcer D
E E
A
a. Trancal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
A
L L
b. Highly selective vagotomy
J J
c. Trancal vagotomy and antectomy
B B
I I
d. Selective vagotomy
G G
D
163. Most of the long bones in the body have which of the following type of joints D
E E
a. Synarthrosis
A A
L b. Dyarthrosis L
J
J
c. Amphiarthrosis
B
B
I
I d. Synostosis
G
G
164. The fungi present in the reticuloendothelial system is D
D
E
E
a. Candida
A
A
b. Histoplasma capsulatum L
L
J
J c. Sporothrix
B
B
I
I
d. Aspergillus
G
G
165. Alpha waves are of which of the following frequencies D
D
E
E a. 7-13 Hz
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I b. 10-20 Hz I
G
G
D
c. 15-25 Hz
D
E
d. 4-5 Hz E
A
A
L 166. In a patient who is resting but is awake and has his closed will show which of the L
following readings on EEG
J J
B a. Alpha waves B
I I
b. Beta waves
G G
D c. Theta waves D
E E
A
d. Delta waves
A
L L
167. Which of the following are true about neutrophils
J J
a. Constitute 5-10% of leucocytes
B B
I I
b. Are phagocytic cells
G G
D
c. Are increased in chronic inflammation D
E E
d. Are present mainly in extravascular regions
A A
L 168. In a patient suffering through trauma involving regions that are extra abdominal can L
still cause death due to which of the following reasons J

J
B
B a. Splenic rupture
I
I
G b. Acute dilatation of stomach G
D
D
c. Fat embolism
E
E
A
A d. Intestinal infarction
L
L
169. All of the following are true regarding Angle closure glaucoma except J
J
B
B a. Vertically dilated pupil
I
I
b. Deep AC G
G
D
D
c. Ciliary congestion E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. Haloes may appear I
G
G
D
170. All of the following are true about angle closure glaucoma except
D
E
a. Prodormal phase initially E
A
A
L b. Atrpoine is used in treatment L
J c. Gonioscopy is used to visualize angle J
B B
I
d. Iridotomy is required
I
G G
171. Which of the following drugs cause photoxicity
D D
E a. Phenytoin E
A A
b. Amiodarone
L L
J
c. Digoxin J
B B
d. Verapamil
I I
G 172. Erythema Nodosum is caused by G
D D
a. Sulphonamides
E E
A A
b. Phenytoin
L L
c. Phenylbutazone J
J
B
B
d. Penecillin
I
I
G
G
D
D
E
E
A
A 173. Which of the following cytokines synthesized by the LOX enzyme is involved in
chemotaxis L
L
J
J a. B4
B
B
I
I
b. C4
G
G
c. D4 D
D
E
E d. E4
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I 174. True about TxA2 synthesized by endothelium is I
G
G
D
a. Inhibits platelet aggregation
D
E
b. Causes vasoconstriction E
A
A
L c. All of the above L
J d. None of the above J
B B
I
175. Benzathine penicillin is used in treatment of
I
G G
a. Endocarditis
D D
E b. Septicemia E
A A
c. Primary syphilis
L L
J
d. UTI J
B B
176. Most common cause of infection in surgical wounds is
I I
G a. Staph epidermidis G
D D
b. Staph aureus
E E
A A
c. Pseudomonas
L L
d. Streptococci J
J
B
B
177. Chronic exposure with which of the following particle size causes chronic lung
I
I disease
G
G
a. 0.5-3 microns D
D
E
E
b. 5-10 microns
A
A
c. 3-5 microns L
L
J
J d. 0.01-0-5 microns
B
B
I
I
178. Which of the following is a common child affective viruses
G
G
a. Adenovirus D
D
E
E b. CMV
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I c. Parainfleunza I
G
G
D
d. Herpes simplex
D
E
179. Narcolepsy is E
A
A
L a. Narcotic induced epilepsy L
J b. Narcotic induced depression J
B B
I
c. Attacks of sleep and paralysis
I
G G
d. Narcotic withdrawal reaction
D D
E 180. The best way to gauge the IQ of a child is by looking at E
A A
a. Gross motor development
L L
J
b. Fine motor development J
B B
c. Psychosocial
I I
G d. Language G
D D
E E
A A
L L
181. Cherry red spot is seen in J

J
B
B
a. CRVO
I
I
G b. CRAO G
D
D
c. Branch retinal vien occlusion E
E
A
A d. Papillodema
L
L
182. Cherry red spot is commonly seen in J
J
B
B a. Gauchers disease
I
I
b. Taysachs disease G
G
D
D
c. Hurlers syndrome E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. Von gierkes disease I
G
G
D
183. Cubitus varus deformity occurs most commonly due to
D
E
a. Malunited lateral condyle # E
A
A
L b. Malunited supracondylar # L
J c. Medial epicondyle # J
B B
I
d. Elbow dislocation
I
G G
184. Vibices is another term for
D D
E a. Subcutaneous hypostasis E
A A
b. Arboresent markings
L L
J
c. Lichtenburgs markings J
B B
d. Joule burns
I I
G 185. When permanent canine appears it correlates with the appearance of which of the G
D
following ossification centers D
E E
a. Olecranon
A A
L b. Pissiform L
J
J
c. Patella
B
B
I
I d. Head of femur
G
G
186. In comparison of famotidine to cimetidine. They differ in all of the following except D
D
E
E
a. Antiandrogenic effect
A
A
b. Oral bioavailability when given along with food L

L
J
J c. Duration of action
B
B
I
I
d. Side effects
G
G
187. Posterior pituitary stores and releases which of the following hormones D
D
E
E a. TSH and GH
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I b. TSH and LH I
G
G
D
c. ADH and Prolactin
D
E
d. Oxytocin and vassopressin E
A
A
L 188. Invitro fertilization is mainly used when the cause of infertility is due to L
J a. Oligospermia J
B B
I
b. Tubal abnormaities
I
G G
c. Anovulation
D D
E d. Cord factor E
A A
189. Regarding water absorption in PCT all of the following are seen in except
L L
J
a. 60% reabsorbed J
B B
b. Depends on ADH
I I
G c. Passive G
D D
d. Active absorption of solutes
E E
A A
L L
190. IV bicarbonate is given in J

J
B
B
a. Metabolic alkalosis
I
I
G b. Metabolic acidosis G
D
D
c. Head injury E
E
A
A d. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
L
L
191. Normal anion gap acidosis is seen in J
J
B
B a. Chronic renal failure
I
I
b. Diarrhea G
G
D
D
c. Diabetic ketoacidosis E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I d. Methanol poisoning I
G
G
D
192. The endothelial cells have specialized receptors for which of following
D
E
a. HDL E
A
A
L b. LDL L
J c. Oxidized LDL J
B B
I
d. Oxidized VLDL
I
G G
193. Most common parotid tumor is
D D
E a. Pleomorphic adenoma E
A A
b. Adenocarcinoma
L L
J
c. Warthins tumor J
B B
d. SCC
I I
G 194. The toxin implicated in lathyrism is G
D D
a. Sanguinarine
E E
A A
b. Beta oxalyl amino acid
L L
c. Pyrrazolidine J
J
B
B
d. Aflatoxin
I
I
G 195. The enzyme required for the generation of the ammonium ion in the kidney is G
D
D
a. Glutamate dehydrogenase E
E
A
A b. Glutamate aspartate transaminase
L
L
c. Glutaminase J
J
B
B d. Glutamate carboxylase
I
I
G
G
D
D
E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I AIPPG.com Manipal 2002 recollected questions I
G
G
D
©2002 aippg.com Inc
D
Read our disclaimed /terms of use
E
E
A
A
L
L
J J
B B
I I
G G
D D
E E
A A
L L
J J
B B
I I
G G
D D
E E
A A
L L
J
J
B
B
I
I
G
G
D
D
E
E
A
A
L
L
J
J
B
B
I
I
G
G
D
D
E
E
A
A
L
L

J
J
B
B
I
I
G
G
D
D
E
E
A
A
L
L
J J
B B
I I
G G
D D
E E
A A
L L
J J
B B
I I
G G
D D
E E
A A
L L
J
J
B
B
I
I
G
G
D
D
E
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A
A
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B
B
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A
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JbigDeaL JbigDeaL JbigDeaL JbigDeaL

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A d. Oat cell carcinoma A

B a. Median lethal dose B

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G 7. Which of the following is content of littre’s hernia G

G 8. Amino Acid Score (AAS) refers to G

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D b. Glutamate pyruvate transaminase D

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E a. Acute cervical lymphadenitis E

G 16. Post cricoid malignancy is commonly in G

c. Plummer vinsons syndrome J

G 17. The Henderson Hassalbach equation is used for measuring G

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J a. The right optic nerve J

E d. The Optic radiations in the left cortex E

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D a. Less reflux tachycardia D

b. Provisional end bearing L

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G d. It increases refractory period in A-V node G

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J b. Prevents binding of IF and B12 J

E 36. Most common site of urethral rupture is E

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J 40. Bisphosphonates act by J

G c. The risk factors and outcome G

a. The superior mesenteric vein J

G c. The ligament of trietz G

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E b. Gonadotropin releasing hormone E

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J 49. The fibrous layer is missing in J

51. X-linked dominant inheritance pattern is seen in J

G b. Vitamin D resistant rickets G

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J c. Acute infection of glands of Zei’s J

G 55. Dysphagia lusoria is due to G

c. Compression by aortic arch J

G 56. Sensitivity is written in the formula as G

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J 58. As per WHO TB is said to be under control when J

E c. <1% infection in children less then 14 years E

G b. Better hearing in noisy surrounding G

60. Thornwalds disease is infection of J

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J c. Non dominant parietal lobe disease J

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J 67. In CML the translocation occurring is J

E c. Bcr of chromosome 9 to abl of chromosome 21 E

69. The M4 stage in AML is associated with the presence of J

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G 73. Feacal fistula at the umbilicus is due to G

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a. Discontinuity in spinal cord L

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d. Left ventricular hypertrophy J

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J b. Angle closure glaucoma J

E 90. Wickhams striae is characteristically is seen in E