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AIR LAW
1.Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?

A) Annex 16
B) Annex 15
C) Annex 17
D) Annex 18

2. What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide?

A) Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace


B) Details of Aerodrome Operating Minima to each operator using its airspace
C) Modern radio navigation facilities for aeroplanes transiting its airspace
D) Oceanic control facilities in oceanic areas adjacent to territorial airspace

3. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?

A) The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft


B) The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation
C) The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas over flown
D) The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft

4. Where was the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed in 1944?

A) Montreal
B) Chicago
C) Geneva
D) Rome

5. The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the:

A) Chicago convention 1944


B) Montreal convention 1948
C) Warsaw convention 1929
D) Geneva convention 1936

6. Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for:

A) none of the above


B) Security
C) Facilitation
D) Aerodromes

7. Where there is an amendment to an International Standard a State must give notice to:

A) The ICAO Assembly within 30 days of the adoption of the amendment


B) The ICAO Council within 60 days of the adoption of the amendment
C) The ICAO Assembly within 60 days of the adoption of the amendment
D) The ICAO Council within 30 days of the adoption of the amendment
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8. According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make
flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for
non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following
flights:

A) To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only


B) To aircraft on non-commercial flights only
C) To aircraft of scheduled air services only
D) To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services

9. The Paris Convention of 1919 defined the status of international airspace and gave the authority to
the Commander of the aeroplane to act in accordance with what law?

A) The law of the state of registration


B) The law of the state of the aerodrome bf departure
C) International Law
D) The law of the state of the operator

10. The Air Navigation Commission consists of:

A) 15 members appointed by the ICAO Council


B) 15 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly
C) 33 members appointed by the ICAO Council
D) 33 members appointed by the ICAO Assembly

11. One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:

A) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies


B) develop principles and techniques for international aviation
C) approve new international airlines with jet aircraft
D) approve new international airlines

12. Which of the following concerning aviation, applies in areas where international law is applicable?

A) ICAO Law applies


B) The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane applies
C) ICAO rules apply
D) Law as agreed by the Geneva Convention on Territorial Waters and Contiguous Zones applies

13. For which flights is the article about cabotage in the Convention of Chicago applicable?

A) For national carriers


B) For cargo flights
C) For domestic flights
D) For international flights

14. The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:

A) binding for all member states


B) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
C) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
D) binding for all air line companies with international traffic
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15. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:

A) Facilitations
B) Aerodromes
C) Operation of aircraft
D) Security

16. Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:

A) Only 52 nations were permitted to attend


B) Each state was required to recognise the other states attending
C) Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory
D) All states in the world attended

17. What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard?

A) The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP
B) The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only
C) The State has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP
D) Modifications to International Standards shall be published in the national AIP only; differences to
Recommended Practices have to be notified to ICAO

18. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?

A) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the
convention
B) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
C) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
D) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses

19. If a state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard:

A) It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
B) It shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
C) It shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
D) It shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard

20. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

A) aeronautical standards adopted by all states


B) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states
C) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the
Chicago convention
D) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes

21. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Rules of the Air over the high seas?

A) There are no rules over the high seas


B) Rules are only applied where Oceanic Control is applied (i.e. Shanwick OCA etc.)
C) The rules as defined by ICAO (Annex 2 to the Chicago Convention) apply
D) The rules applicable are the rules as defined by the state of registration
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22. What is the definition of HIGH SEAS?

A) Sea state 6 or above


B) Sea areas outside of territorial waters of any state
C) Sea areas where there is more than one state bordering the sea
D) Sea areas more than 12 nm from the closest shore

23. Where is the headquarters of ICAO?

A) Montreal
B) New York
C) Paris
D) London

24. Non-scheduled aircraft of one contracting state have the right:

A) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for non-
traffic purposes without the necessity to obtain prior permission
B) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for traffic
purposes without the necessity to obtain prior permission
C) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for traffic
purposes, prior permission must be obtained prior to the flight
D) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for non-
traffic purposes, however, prior permission must be obtained prior to the flight

25. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the
depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect:

A) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
B) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
C) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
D) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed

26. Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly?

A) The Council
B) The Secretary General of ICAO
C) The Air Navigation Commission
D) The President of the Assembly

27. Article 36 of the Chicago Convention is concerned with photographic apparatus in aircraft. What
rights does a state have with regard to article 36?

A) All of the above


B) The police can arrest persons using cameras in aircraft
C) The use of cameras is espionage and is therefore prohibited
D) The state may prohibit or regulate the use of photographic equipment in aircraft over its territory

28. What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision of flights for the purpose
of public transport of passengers or cargo?

A) A scheduled air service


B) An air transport undertaking
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C) A commercial air operation


D) An airline

29. An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must:

A) Follow the rules of the Air of the State that has issued the aircraft Certificate of airworthiness
B) Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator
C) Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is over flying
D) Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration

30. Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission
for adoption?

A) the Air Navigation Commission


B) the Regional Air Navigation meeting
C) the Assembly
D) the Council

31. Who is responsible for the development and modifications of the SARPS:

A) the Contracting States


B) the ICAO Assembly
C) the ICAO Council
D) the ICAO Air Navigation Commission

32. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international
convention of:

A) The Hague
B) Montreal
C) Warsaw
D) Chicago

33. Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended
Practices (SARPS)?

A) Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS)


B) ICAO Technical Manuals
C) Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS)
D) Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation

34. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention deals with Licensing of Aircrew?

A) Annex 1
B) Annex 9
C) Annex 6
D) Annex 2

35. The president of the ICAO Council is elected for:

A) 10 years
B) 5 years
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C) 1 year
D) 3 years

36. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to...

A) International Civil Aviation Organization


B) all States Members of United Nations
C) United Nations
D) the other Contracting States

37. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air
carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:

A) Hague Convention
B) Tokyo Convention
C) Warsaw Convention
D) Montreal Convention

38. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within 2 years, this time starts from:

A) The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the carriage ceased
B) The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the aircraft ought to have arrived,
or from the date on which the carriage ceased
C) The date of arrival at the destination, or from the time at which the aircraft ought to have arrived,
or from the date on which the carriage ceased
D) The date of arrival at the destination

39. The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, to take on
passengers, mail and cargo in a second state and put them down in a third state is called:

A) 1st freedom rights


B) 4th freedom rights
C) 3rd freedom rights
D) 5th freedom rights

40. The convention of Tokyo applies to damage:

A) caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in , by an


aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state
B) the above convention does not deal with this item
C) only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of
another contracting state
D) caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft regardless the registration

41. An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state. Which
freedom of the Air will be exercised?

A) 4th freedom
B) 1st freedom
C) 3rd freedom
D) 2nd freedom
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42. The privilege to land in another ICAO participating State for technical reasons is called:

A) the Second Freedom


B) the Fourth Freedom
C) the First Freedom
D) the Third Freedom

43. The problems of hijacking were discussed at:

A) the Chicago convention


B) the Montreal convention
C) the Tokyo convention
D) the Geneva convention

44. Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passengers?

A) Yes but only to internal, not international flights


B) Yes, but only to scheduled flights (3rd, 4th and 5th freedom flights)
C) Yes, but only mail and international cargo
D) No

45. The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:

A) limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-à -vis passenger and goods transported
B) operator's license for international scheduled aviation
C) the security system at airports
D) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

46. Under the terms of the Tokyo convention of 1963, what is a contracting state required to do in the
event of an act of unlawful seizure occurring within the territory of that state?

A) Nothing
B) The responsibility of the state is limited to the safety of the passengers only
C) The responsibility rests with the Commander not the contracting state
D) The state shall take all appropriate measures to restore control of the aircraft to its lawful
Commander, or to preserve his control of the aircraft

47. The first freedom of the air is:

A) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states
B) The right to land for a technical stop
C) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other
state
D) The right to overfly without landing

48. Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting
state:

A) the 3rd freedom


B) the 4th freedom
C) the 2nd freedom
D) the 1st freedom
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49. 5th Freedom of the Air is:

A) The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of
another nation (A)
B) Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B)
C) The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty
partner nations (B to C to D)
D) The right to carry revenue traffic from treaty partner’ s territory (B) to carrier’ s base nation (A)

50. What is the status of IATA?

A) It is the international legislative arm of ICAO


B) It is an associate body of ICAO
C) It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation
D) It represents the air transport operators at ICAO

51. The Warsaw Convention of 1929 dealt with the liabilities of carriers and their agents. Specifically
what was agreed with regard to passengers?

A) That a limit of liability be applied in all cases where a claim was made against the carrier
B) That a passenger was carried at his/her own risk
C) That claims for compensation, except claims involving gross negligence, be limited to an agreed
sum
D) That compensation would be payable only in the event of death in a crash

52. The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refueling, maintenance is to following freedom
of the air:

A) 3rd freedom
B) 1st freedom
C) 2nd freedom
D) 4th freedom

53. An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than the
State of Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be restored to
an airworthy condition if:

A) It receives permission from the Contracting State where the damage occurred
B) The repair works may be done at an airport that is not more than 250 nm away
C) It receives permission of the State of Registry
D) It receives permission from the manufacturer of the aircraft

54. The second freedom of the air is the:

A) right to land for a technical stop


B) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states
C) right to " cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic)
D) right to overfly without landing

55. The convention which deals with offences against penal law is:

A) the convention of Warsaw


B) the convention of Rome
C) the convention of Madrid
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D) the convention of Tokyo

56. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying
or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?

A) The Tokyo convention


B) The Montreal convention
C) The Chicago convention
D) The Warsaw convention

57. If a state applied CABOTAGE, what would be prevented?

A) Non-scheduled operations in state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state A


B) International operations from state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state A
C) Internal scheduled operations in state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state
A
D) Privately operated air taxi services

58. What does the second Freedom of the Air permit?

A) To put down passengers mail and cargo in a state have taken them on in another state
B) To land for technical purposes (non commercial) in the territory of another state
C) To transport passengers, mail and cargo for valuable consideration from one aerodrome in a state
to another in the same state
D) To fly across the territory of another state without landing

59. According to the Tokyo Convention of 1963, who is considered to be competent to exercise
jurisdiction over acts committed on board an aeroplane?

A) The State over which the aeroplane was flying when the act took place
B) The State of the Operator
C) The Commander
D) The State of Registration

60. How will a member State withdraw from the Tokyo Convention?

A) By informing Japanese Civil Aviation Administration


B) By informing all ICAO member states and ICAO
C) By informing all ICAO member states
D) By informing ICAO

61. According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person
committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?

A) The Convention of Chicago


B) The Convention of Warsaw
C) The Convention of Rome
D) The Convention of Tokyo

62. A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger if the
accident that caused the damage:

A) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking or after the booking in of the passenger
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B) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking including time spent after the passenger has checked in for flight
C) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking
D) Took place on board the aircraft

63. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within:

A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 5 years

64. 6th Freedom of the Air is:

A) Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B)
B) The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of
another nation (A)
C) The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more
treaty partner nations (B to C to D)
D) A combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C
to A) through carrier’ s base nation (B)

65. " Cabotage" refers to:

A) domestic air services


B) crop spraying
C) a national air carrier
D) a flight above territorial waters

66. Which convention deals with the liability of a carrier to passengers and freight consignees where
the limit of compensation is limited to US$10 000 except in cases of gross negligence?

A) Tokyo
B) Warsaw
C) Paris
D) Rome

67. What are the measures by which free movement of aeroplanes, crew, passengers and goods not
destined for the state in which the aeroplane has landed in, known as?

A) Open skies policy


B) Green Channel operations
C) Facilitation
D) Duty free zoning

68. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most
expedious means of the State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing
and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the:

A) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State
whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the
aircraft and the ICAO
B) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board the
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aircraft and the ICAO


C) two aforementioned States and the ICAO
D) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State
whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO

69. What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act?

A) Military flights only


B) Private flights only
C) All flights
D) Public transport flights only

70. What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?

A) The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the purpose of
refueling
B) The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territory of any other State without landing
C) Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas
D) The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating
state

71. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third
parties on the surface?

A) The Montreal convention


B) The Rome convention
C) The Guatemala Convention
D) The Tokyo Convention

72. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed
or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law...

A) may deliver such person to the competent authorities


B) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
C) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
D) may request such person to disembark

73. Where are the duties and responsibilities of the Commander defined?

A) In the Ops Manual


B) In Annex 1 with additional responsibilities detailed in Annex 6
C) In Annex 6 with additional JAR-OPS 1 requirements taking precedence
D) In the Air Navigation Order

74. What can the Commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or is
about to commit an offence in the aeroplane that is against penal law?

A) Deliver the person to the competent authority


B) Land in any country and off-load the offender
C) Answers a, b and c are all correct
D) Use force to place the person in custody
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75. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for
persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:

A) the Warsaw Convention


B) the Paris Convention
C) the Rome Convention
D) the Tokyo Convention

76. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:

A) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods


B) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
C) Offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
D) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface

77. Where was the 1952 convention that deals with damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties
on the ground, held?

A) Paris
B) Tokyo
C) Rome
D) Warsaw

78. If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered in
another state, which convention covers this?

A) Paris
B) Chicago
C) Rome
D) Tokyo

79. Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by
an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as
provided by:

A) the Warsaw Convention


B) the Montreal Convention
C) the Rome Convention
D) the Chicago Convention

80. Who is responsible when damage is caused by an aeroplane to persons or property on the ground?

A) The Operator
B) The aerodrome manager authority, if the incident happened inside the boundary of the aerodrome
C) The pilot actually flying or at the controls when the incident happened
D) The Commander is responsible providing that no other person can be held responsible

81. The state of design shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity program to
ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion
prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:

A) up to 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass


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B) over 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass


C) over 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
D) up to 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass

82. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if:

A) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature
such that the aircraft is still airworthy
B) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still
airworthy
C) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still
airworthy
D) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is
still airworthy

83. Who is competent to issue a Certificate of Airworthiness?

A) None of the listed here


B) Always the Contracting State in which the power plants have been designed, manufactured and
approved
C) Only such qualified Contracting States specifically listed in Annex 7
D) The Contracting State which approves the aircraft on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the
aircraft complies with appropriated airworthiness requirements

84. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Airworthiness:

A) The aircraft serial number


B) The nationality or common mark and registration mark
C) The category of aircraft
D) The name and address of the owner

85. The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to:

A) aeroplanes of over 25,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
B) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of cargo or
mail in international air navigation
C) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
D) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
passengers only

86. Who is responsible for determining the continuing airworthiness of an aeroplane?

A) The Owner/Operator
B) The Commander
C) The certifying manager for the JAR 145 approved maintenance operation
D) The State of Registry

87. The standards of Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) relate to:

A) Large turbojet powered aeroplanes


B) Large airplanes
C) Passenger carrying aeroplanes
D) Aircraft with MTOM greater than 5700kgs
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88. Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the
Certificates of Airworthiness?

A) The authority of the state of manufacture


B) The authority of the state of registration
C) The Operator
D) The authority of the state of the Operator

89. According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid
subject to the:

A) Laws of the State of registry and operation


B) Laws of the State in which is operated
C) Laws of the State of registry
D) Requirements laid down by ICAO

90. The cotinuation of validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness is dependant upon what?

A) The establishment of a schedule for servicing and repair of the aeroplane in accordance with JAR
145
B) The continued registration of the aeroplane
C) The continued use of the aeroplane for the purpose stated on the certificate of registration
D) The continued airworthiness of the aeroplane as determined by periodic inspections

91. The loading limitations shall include:

A) all limiting mass and centers of gravity


B) all limiting mass, centers of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
C) all limiting mass, centers of gravity position and floor loading
D) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centers of gravity

92. Which of the following statements are correct concerning the flight crew compartment door?

A) It must be bomb-proof
B) It must be capable of being locked
C) It shall be inaccessible to passengers
D) It shall be made of fireproof material

93. A gyroplane is classified as a:

A) Rotorcraft
B) Airship
C) Non-power driven
D) Lighter-than-air aircraft

94. Which annexes to the Chicago Convention deals with registration and marking of aircraft?

A) Annex 7
B) Annex 6
C) Annex 14
D) Annex 11
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95. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces
of heavier than air aircraft shall be

A) at least 20 centimetres
B) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
C) at least 30 centimetres
D) at least 40 centimetres

96. Which of the following is a prohibited combination in aircraft registration letters?

A) TTT
B) RTB
C) LLL
D) YYY

97. When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with the

A) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals


B) letters used for an ICAO identification documents
C) four letter combinations beginning with Q
D) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals

98. When the first character of the registration mark is a letter:

A) It may not be followed by a number


B) The registration mark must be completed by the national emblem
C) It shall be followed by a number
D) It shall be preceded by a hyphen

99. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example:

A) PAN
B) DDD
C) RCC
D) LLL

100. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters
and numbers and shall be that assigned by:

A) the International Telecommunication Union


B) the International Civil Aviation Organization
C) the state of registry only
D) the state of registry or common mark registering authority

101. Regarding an aircraft Certificate of Registration:

A) Aircraft may only have one owner


B) Aircraft can be registered in more than one state
C) Aircraft registration cannot be changed from one state to another
D) Aircraft can only be registered in one country
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102. How high are the markings on the horizontal surfaces of an aeroplane?

A) 25 cm
B) 50 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 40 cm

103. Certain registration marks are prohibited by Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration
Markings). These include:

A) EEE LLL NHQ


B) XXX PAN TTT
C) LLL ZZZ YYY
D) OOO MAY DAY

104. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent or distress signals for example

A) DDD
B) RCC
C) LLL
D) XXX

105. When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example

A) RCC
B) LLL
C) TTT
D) FFF

106. The certificate of registration shall:

A) Both a) and c) are correct


B) Be visible to the passengers at all times
C) Be reproduced on the portion of the airline ticket that stays with the passenger
D) Be carried on board the aircraft at all times

107. Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains:

A) Recommendations only
B) Standards only
C) SARPS
D) PANS

108. What self medication is permitted by aircrew?

A) Only drugs which enhance, not degrade, performance


B) None
C) Only drugs which do not have side effects incompatible with aircrew duty
D) Only proprietary certain brands for colds and flu
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109. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity
of the authorization

A) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence
B) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights
C) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
D) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own
discretion

110. " Demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such oral examination as the
examiner may require" is the definition for a:

A) revalidation.
B) conversion.
C) proficiency check.
D) skill test.

111. The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:

A) the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union


B) the International Telecommunication Union
C) the state of registry
D) the International Civil Aviation Organisation

112. The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in _____ aeroplanes shall
prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by
instrumental rules and an engine _____.

A) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive


B) Single-engine/inactive
C) Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative
D) Land/inactive

113. AIRAC is:

A) Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control


B) Aeronautical Information Rules and Control
C) Aviation Information Rules and Control
D) Aviation Information Regulation and Control

114. What is Special VFR?

A) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance
with IFR
B) A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC
C) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to
remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
D) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements
of IFR

115. With regard to civil and state aircraft (Article 3). Which of the following is not a state aircraft:

A) Search and rescue aircraft


B) Police aircraft
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C) Customs aircraft
D) Military aircraft

116. How is Flight Visibility defined?

A) The measured visibility assessed by a certified meteorological observer


B) The forecast visibility at 3000 ft above the aerodrome
C) The visibility reported by a pilot currently flying in the vicinity
D) The visibility forward from the flight deck of an aeroplane in flight
117. When does FLIGHT TIME end?

A) When the aeroplane first stops after landing to disembark passengers


B) At engine shut down when the aeroplane has stopped in the parking bay
C) When all the passengers have disembarked
D) At touchdown

118. Flight visibility is:

A) the visibility along the runway which may be expected when approaching to land
B) the minimum horizontal visibility in any direction from the flight deck of an aircraft in flight
C) the visibility forward from the flight deck of an aircraft in flight
D) the visibility along the runway which may be expected on take-off.

119. Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility?

A) The visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer


B) the visibility in the direction of take-off or landing over which the runway lights or surface markings
may be seen from the touchdown zone
C) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aeroplane in flight
D) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, corrected for slant range error

120. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

A) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to
remain clear of clouds and in sight of the surface
B) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance
with IFR
C) A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
D) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements of
IFR

121. What is a danger area?

A) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may
exist at specified times
B) A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded
C) An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which
flight of aircraft is prohibited
D) An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights
and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification

122. An aircraft is deemed to be in flight:

A) from the time the aircraft first moves under its own power until it comes to rest after landing
B) from the time the main wheels lose contact with the runway until they regain contact on landing
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C) from the time the aircraft moves into the manoeuvring area to the time it comes to rest after
landing
D) from the time the engines are started until they are shut down after landing

123. What is aerodrome traffic?

A) All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome
B) All traffic flying through the aerodrome traffic zone.
C) All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome
D) Local flying aeroplanes in or adjacent to the visual circuit

124. PANS are:

A) Procedures for Air Navigation Services


B) Practices for Air Navigation Services
C) Practices for Air Navigation Standards
D) Procedures for Air Navigation Standards

125. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a
line forming an angle of less than:

A) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter


B) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
C) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
D) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

126. What is the meaning of AGL?

A) Above ground level or aerodrome ground level


B) Aerodrome ground level
C) Altitude of ground level
D) Above ground level

127. In the case of a piloted flying machine, it shall be deemed to be in flight:

A) from the time the aircraft first moves under its own power until the moment it comes to rest after
landing
B) from the time the main wheels lose contact with earth until they gain contact again on landing
C) from the time the engines are started until they are shut down after landing
D) from the time the aircraft moves into the manoeuvring area until it leaves the manoeuvring area
after landing

128. Which of the following defines flight visibility?

A) The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to atmospheric
conditions
B) The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight
C) Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation
D) The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlighted objects by day and lighted
objects by night

129. How is night defined?

A) The hours of darkness


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B) From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise


C) The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight
D) The hours when the sun is below the horizon

130. Who shall have the final authority over the disposition of the aircraft?

A) The Owner
B) The Commander
C) The Authority
D) The Operator

131. When operating under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obstacles
on the ground rests with:

A) the handling pilot


B) the aircraft commander
C) air traffic control
D) all of the above

132. PANS-OPS means:

A) Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures


B) Procedures for Air Navigation Systems - Airfield operations
C) Primary and Alternate Navigation Systems and Operations
D) Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft operations

133. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called...

A) the Convention of Chicago


B) PANS OPS Doc 8168
C) the Air Pilot
D) the Air Navigation bulletin

134. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to
bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in
approach, is:

A) Visual approach
B) Visual manoeuvring (circling)
C) Aerodrome traffic pattern
D) Contact approach

135. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the
relevant DH or MDH?

A) Glide path
B) Go around / Missed Approach
C) Approach to landing
D) Final approach

136. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the
opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated
track is called a:
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A) Procedure turn
B) Reversal track
C) Base turn
D) Race track

137. The Transition Level:

A) is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command


B) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
C) shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude
D) is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP

138. NOZ is:

A) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS final
approach track centre line
B) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS
final approach track centre line
C) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS
initial approach track centre line
D) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localizer course and/or MLS initial
approach track centre line

139. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration
or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:

A) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)


B) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
C) NOTAM
D) AIRAC

140. A " precision approach" is a direct instrument approach...

A) using bearing, elevation and distance information


B) using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an
autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft
C) carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method
D) using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance
information

141. VORTAC is:

A) A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the TACAN and the range from
the VOR.
B) Range and bearing are supplied from the TACAN element and the VOR is a switch on device.
C) A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the VOR element and the
range from the TACAN element.
D) TACAN refined for missed approach positioning.

142. Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision
approach. The result is then called:

A) DA
B) MDH
C) DH
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D) MDA

143. The " estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:

A) of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day
B) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing
C) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the
flight (block time)
D) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport

144. A radial is:

A) a magnetic bearing extending from a VOR station


B) a magnetic bearing to or from a VOR station, depending on whether the aircraft is inbound or
outbound to or from the VOR
C) a magnetic bearing to a VOR station
D) a QDM

145. A circling approach is:

A) A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring


B) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC
C) A contact flight manoeuvre
D) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight

146. What is the meaning of MEHT?

A) Maximum eye height


B) Mean height over threshold
C) Minimum eye height
D) Minimum elevation height

147. What is the meaning of OCA?

A) Oceanic control area


B) Occasional
C) Oceanic control area or obstacle clearance altitude
D) Obstacle clearance altitude

148. What does the abbreviation DER mean?

A) Dead reckoning
B) Distance error rectification
C) Departure end routing
D) Departure end of runway

149. OCH for a precision approach is defined as:

A) The lowest altitude at which an aircraft can perform a safe flight


B) The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing compliance
with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements
C) The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance with
appropriate obstacle clearance requirements
D) The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold , at which a missed
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approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria

150. What is DER?

A) Descent rate
B) Departure end of runway
C) Dead end of runway
D) Direct entry routing
151. What is a STAR?

A) Standard arrival
B) Special terminal arrival
C) Supplementary terminal arrival
D) Standard instrument arrival

152. When does night exist?

A) During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon
B) From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight
C) During the hours of darkness
D) From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise

153. What is the meaning of DER:

A) displaced end of runway


B) dead reckoning
C) dead end of runway
D) departure end of runway

154. What does AAL mean?

A) Above aerodrome level


B) Aerodrome altitude level
C) Angle of attack limitation
D) Acknowledge

155. The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without visual
reference is known as the:

A) decision height
B) minimum descent altitude
C) decision altitude
D) minimum break-off altitude

156. A visual approach is:

A) Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC


B) The circling part of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the landing is
to be made
C) An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually, providing
that he has the necessary visual criteria
D) An approach made under VFR using height and track guidance

157. What does the abbreviation OIS mean?


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A) Obstacle identification surface


B) Obstruction in surface
C) Obstacle in surface
D) Obstacle identification slope

158. Having filed a flight plan to a particular destination and having landed at another destination, you
should notify ATC:

A) within 30 minutes after landing at the alternate destination


B) you may only land at your flight planned destination
C) within 30 minutes of your intended ETA at your original destination
D) within 60 minutes after landing at the alternate destination

159. A flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan cancelled in
the event of a delay. For controlled flights, this should be done in the event of a delay in excess of:

A) 60 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) None of the above is correct
D) 20 minutes

160. A landing aircraft is not normally permitted to cross the beginning of the runway on its final
approach until the preceding departing aircraft has:

A) None of the above


B) Until all preceding landing aircraft are at the end of the runway in use
C) Crossed the end of the runway threshold
D) Started a turn

161. What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under
radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?

A) ± 20KT
B) ± 25 KT
C) ± 15 KT
D) ± 10KT

162. Deviation from the TAS in the flight plan is to be reported to ATC. By how much would the TAS
have to deviate before it is reported?

A) 3%
B) 5%
C) 10 kts
D) 20 kts

163. When flying in advisory airspace and using an advisory service, separation is provided from:

A) all other traffic


B) other known traffic
C) other IFR traffic
D) other traffic using the advisory service

164. In class D airspace the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight above FL 100 is:
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A) 8 km
B) 1500 ft
C) 1500 m
D) 5 km

165. FIS:

A) Provides advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight
B) Provides control useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight
C) Provides an aerodrome and approach control service for the efficient conduct of flight
D) Provides flight plan services for the safe and efficient conduct of flight

166. What should you reply when told " squawk 0412"

A) Code 0412
B) Wilco
C) Squawk 0412
D) Roger

167. A TMA is:

A) a CTR
B) an area in which submission of a flight plan is not required
C) available at all times to VFR traffic
D) a CTA established to cover several major air traffic routes around one or more major aerodromes

168. To put " L" in the wake turbulence category box of an ATC flight plan what maximum weight
must the aircraft have?

A) 7 000 Kg
B) 20 000 Kg
C) 7 000 Lbs
D) 5 700 Kg

169. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where
navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:

A) 5 minutes
B) 6 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 3 minutes

170. Two aircraft are reporting over the same VOR, they should be separated by:

A) at least 15° and a distance of 15 nm


B) at least 20° and a distance of 15 nm
C) at least 45° and a distance of l5 nm
D) at least 30° and a distance of 15 nm

171. The Alerting Service is provided by:

A) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz
B) Only by ATC units
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C) The Area Control Centres


D) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment

172. The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre):

A) depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international flights, 5 minutes for domestic flights)
B) is 10 minutes
C) is 15 minutes
D) is 5 minutes

173. Whenever practicable, NOTAM’ s are distributed by:

A) Fax
B) AFTN
C) Printed brochure
D) E-Mail

174. Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts:

A) Visibility minima
B) DME-frequencies
C) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
D) OCH or OCA

175. The ICAO document concerning the provision of the AIS is Annex... to the Convention on Civil
Aviation.

A) 7
B) 9
C) 15
D) 16

176. Geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude are expressed in terms of:

A) GPS-84
B) WGS-94
C) GPS-94
D) WGS-84

177. A runway would not be reported as - flooded - unless:

A) extensive standing water is visible


B) 60% of the runway surface is covered by at least 3mm of water
C) 30% of the runway surface is covered to a depth between 3mm and 15mm with water
D) significant patches of standing water are visible

178. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its
activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the
volcano level of colour code.
When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is
reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is

A) GREEN
B) ORANGE
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C) YELLOW
D) RED

179. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements

A) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
B) AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries
C) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
D) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin
(PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries

180. The SIGMET service in the AIP is in the following part:

A) MET
B) ENR
C) AGA
D) GEN

181. Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima?

A) Adequacy and provision of ground aids.


B) Dimensions and characteristics of runways.
C) The frequency of meteorological reports.
D) The competence and experience of flight crews.

182. " Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using
instrument approach procedures.

A) Precision approach runways in general


B) Precision approach runways category I, II and III
C) Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
D) Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III

183. What is a PAPI?

A) Precision Approach Power Indicator


B) Precision Approach Power Index
C) Precision Approach Path Indicator
D) Precision Approach Path Index

184. The aerodrome elevation is the height of:

A) the highest point in the landing area


B) the airfield reference datum
C) the apron
D) the threshold of the main precision runway

185. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This consists
of two elements: A number, and a letter. What does the number relate to?

A) Single wheel loading classification


B) Load classification number
C) Take-off distance required for an aeroplane
D) Crash/Rescue category
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186. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow
aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exits thereby minimising runway
occupancy time?

A) Rapid exit taxiway


B) High speed exit lane
C) Rapid turn off lane
D) Acute angle exit

187. The part of an aerodrome used for embarking and disembarking passengers, loading of cargo and
mail as well as the servicing of aircraft is called?

A) Stand
B) Ramp
C) Parking Bay
D) Apron

188. A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids
intended for operations down to:

A) a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft


B) a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft
C) a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
D) a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft

189. " An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip
primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the
runway" is the definition for:

A) Clearway
B) Stopway
C) None of the above
D) Runway end safety area

190. A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen
water reported by ATC?

A) Clear ice, rime ice and snow


B) Thin ice, occasional ice, heavy ice
C) Snow, ice and slush
D) Light snow, heavy snow, blizzard

191. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This code is
composed of two elements: a number and a letter. What does the number relate to?

A) Aerodrome reference field length


B) Single wheel loading classification
C) Crash/Rescue category
D) Load classification number

192. An aerodrome reference point is defined as the...


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A) pre-flight altimeter check location


B) location of the landing threshold
C) the designated geographical location of the aerodrome
D) elevation of the highest point of the landing area

193. Objects located beyond 15 km radius of the aerodrome are normally considered to be obstacles
in flight (enroute obstacles) if they exceed... in height.

A) 250 meters
B) 150 meters
C) 200 meters
D) 100 meters

194. " A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a
suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the
definition for:

A) Runway end safety area


B) Runway strip
C) Stopway
D) Clearway

195. According with the " Aerodrome Reference Code" the " Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft
reference field length of:

A) 1 500 m
B) 1 600 m
C) 1 800 m and over.
D) 1 200 m

196. What does code element 2 of the aerodrome reference code refer to?

A) Inner main gear wheel span


B) Wing span and outer main gear wheel span
C) Fuselage width
D) Aircraft length

197. For an inbound aircraft, the PIC can be asked to provide which of the following:

A) 3 copies of the general declaration, 3 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list
B) 3 copies of the general declaration, 2 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list
C) 2 copies of the general declaration, 2 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list
D) 2 copies of the general declaration, 3 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list

198. An aircraft flying to another contracting state:

A) Is liable to pay customs duty on all unused fuel and oil carried
B) Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty in regard to oil and fuel remaining only
C) Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty in regard to oil, fuel and hydraulic fluid
remaining only
D) Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty

199. An aircraft arriving in the United Kingdom from the USA must land at:
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A) A designated customs airport


B) Any airport it wishes to
C) Major international airports only
D) Any of the above

200. Which is the correct order of priority:

A) Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons
B) All aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing other aircraft
C) Gliders shall give way to airships and balloons
D) Gliders do not give way to balloons

201. What is the minimum flight altitude permitted over towns and settlements and populated areas?

A) The altitude which permits the aircraft to land safely in the event of an engine failure
B) 1000 ft within a radius of 8 km
C) 500 ft
D) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position

202. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air
Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or
minus:

A) 5%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 10 %

203. An aircraft being towed by night must display:

A) the same lights that are required in flight


B) an anti-collision beacon
C) flashing navigation lights
D) steady navigation lights

204. Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be switched on:

A) All aircraft moving on the manoeuvring area


B) As soon as engines are running
C) Between SS and SR or any other period specified by the appropriate authority
D) All aircraft operating on the movement area

205. If the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in
a control zone?

A) Yes
B) Yes, provided the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground
C) No
D) Yes, provided the cloud ceiling is higher than 500 ft

206. Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight over congested areas of cities, towns
or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than

A) 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft. from the aircraft
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B) 600 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft
C) 300 m above the highest obstacle
D) 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft

207. You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3,000ft. Your distance from the cloud
should be:

A) clear of cloud and in sight of the surface


B) 1,000 ft horizontally and 1,000 ft vertically
C) 2,000 ft and 3 NM horizontally
D) 1,000 ft vertically and 1.5 km horizontally

208. When flying under IFR, you experience total communications failure in conditions of no cloud and
unlimited visibility. What should you do?

A) Descend to en-route minimum sector altitude and land at the nearest suitable IFR aerodrome
B) Proceed to destination under VFR
C) Continue under IFR and follow the filed flight plan
D) If able to maintain VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and then inform ATC

209. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft
flying IFR outside controlled airspace?

A) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course


B) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
C) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft
D) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

210. If the intention is to change from IFR to VFR at some point during flight, the letter... is to be
inserted in item... of the flight plan.

A) V, 8
B) I, 8
C) X, 6
D) Y, 8

211. Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an
aircraft on the ground, a red flashing light means:

A) Permission to cross landing area or to move onto taxiway


B) Move off the landing area or taxiway and watch out for aircraft
C) Vacate manoeuvring area in accordance with local instructions
D) Stop

212. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:

A) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only


B) this aerodrome is using parallel runways
C) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways
D) glider flying is performed outside the landing area

213. A steady green light from aerodrome control to an aircraft on the ground means:

A) cleared to land
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B) wait for further clearance


C) taxi approved
D) cleared for take-off

214. Which signal from a Marshaller indicated 'engage brakes'?

A) Arms raised above the head with palms facing the pilot
B) Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body, then clench fist
C) Arms pointing down with palms pointing inwards , moving arms inwards from extended. position
D) Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended

215. What is the meaning of the following visual ground signal?

A) Only for light aircraft


B) Takeoffs and landings are to be on a runway, but movement on the ground is not confined to
pavements
C) Aircraft movement is confined to paved, metalled or similar hardened surfaces
D) Light aircraft are permitted to take-off and land either on a runway or on the area designated

216. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with
ATC instructions.
You should:

A) request ATC for other instructions


B) select code A7500 on your transponder
C) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft
D) follow ATC instructions

217. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to
bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in
approach, is:

A) Aerodrome traffic pattern


B) Contact approach
C) Visual manoeuvring (circling)
D) Visual approach
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218. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplane has a
climb gradient of:

A) 5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1% with
two, three and four engines, taking in account one engine inoperative
B) 3.3% with all engines operating
C) 2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines
D) 2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative
219. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning
onto the desired track?

A) 120 m (394 ft)


B) Transition altitude
C) 150 m
D) 1000 ft

220. The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is:

A) ATC availability and requirements


B) airspace restrictions applicable and in force
C) the terrain surrounding the aerodrome
D) availability of navigation aids

221. Two aeroplanes are approaching to land on parallel runways on independent parallel approaches
and one drifts into the NTZ. What would the approach controller be required to do?

A) Advise the transgressing aircraft to break-off the approach and go around


B) Issue appropriate control instructions to manoeuvre the threatened aircraft on the adjacent ILS
approach
C) Order the transgressing aircraft to climb immediately
D) Give instructions to the transgressing aircraft to turn away from the other traffic

222. Where does the intermediate missed approach segment end?

A) At 394ft AGL
B) Where the turn towards the IAF is made
C) At the point where the climb is established
D) Where 50m obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained

223. What is the minimum lateral limit of the approach area into a control zone from the centre of the
aerodrome in the direction from which approaches may be made?

A) +/- 5nm
B) +/- 10nm
C) +/- 20nm
D) +/- 15nm

224. A so called " Visual Approach" can be performed:


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A) as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more


B) during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying around
C) during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that
procedure
D) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC

225. For precision approaches, the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance from the
threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum this distance can be?

A) 9 km (5 nm)
B) 28 km (15 nm)
C) 38 km (20 nm)
D) 19 km (10 nm)

226. In a procedure turn (45° /180° ), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from
the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:

A) 1 minute 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 1 minute 15 seconds
D) 2 minutes

227. What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach?

A) 350 ft
B) 250 ft
C) 200 ft
D) 125 ft

228. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the
assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:

A) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3° /s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach
instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures
B) The bank angle giving a 3° /s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to
aeroplane categories
C) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3° /s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach
instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed
approach procedures
D) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3° /s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or
missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed
flight tracks)

229. Which of the following correctly defines the NOZ for parallel runway operations?

A) The NOZ is the aerodrome ground area where movement of aircraft does not interfere with landing
operations
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B) The NOZ extends from runway threshold to the point where aircraft are normally established on
the localiser
C) Both A and B are correct
D) The NOZ is the airspace in the vicinity of the control tower where ILS operations are conducted

230. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an
instrument approach procedure?

A) At least 300m (984 ft)


B) 300m (984 ft)
C) At least 150m (492 ft)
D) 150m (492 ft)

231. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a
sector of:

A) 10 NM
B) 25 NM
C) 30 NM
D) 15 NM

232. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below
the OCA?

A) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
B) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
C) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
D) When it seems possible to land

233. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:

A) a defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle
clearance is provided
B) the first part of the segment
C) the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully
D) the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate
minimum

234. You are flying inbound on radial 232 towards VOR EDI. When you are required to hold overhead
the VOR on radial 052, what type of entry will you perform?

A) A parallel or offset entry


B) A reciprocal entry
C) A direct entry
D) An offset entry
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235. You are required to carry out an offset joining procedure to enter a holding pattern. What is the
required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound track from on top the fix towards the outbound
leg?

A) 20°
B) 30°
C) 60°
D) 45°
236. In a holding pattern all turns should be made:

A) to the right except otherwise described by the appropriate authority


B) to the right
C) to the left
D) left or right depending on the entry procedure

237. Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?

A) Yes even where DME is used the maximum length is always a time
B) No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance
C) No, where groundspeed is less than 65kts the outbound leg must be at least 2 NM long
D) Yes

238. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed
as:

A) altitude above mean sea level during climb


B) altitude above mean sea level during descent
C) flight level during descent
D) either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb

239. The transition level:

A) Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome


B) Is calculated by ATS
C) Will be distributed via NOTAM
D) Is calculated by the commander

240. Flight below the transition level is referenced to:

A) Altitude with standard atmospheric pressure set


B) Flight levels
C) Flight levels referenced to local QNH
D) Altitude with local QNH set, or height with local QFE set

241. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the
situation by setting the transponder to:

A) 7000
B) 7500
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C) 7700
D) 7600

242. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?

A) Distress 7700; Hijacking 7600; Communication failure 7500


B) Distress 7500; Hijacking 7700; Communication failure 7600
C) Distress 7700; Hijacking 7500; Communication failure 7600
D) Distress 7600; Hijacking 7500; Communication failure 7700

243. Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima?

A) The competence and experience of flight crews.


B) Dimensions and characteristics of runways.
C) The frequency of meteorological reports.
D) Adequacy and provision of ground aids.

244. Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precision approach path indicator:

A) Twenty light units symmetrically disposed about the runway centre line in the form of two wing
bars of four light units each, with bisecting longitudinal lines of six lights
B) Ten light units arranged on one side of the runway in the form of a single wing bar of four light
units, with a bisecting longitudinal line of six lights
C) A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway
unless it is physically impracticable to do so
D) A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp units equally spaced and normally located on the left
side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so

245. Fixed distance markings on certain precision approach runways are:

A) 650 m from the threshold


B) 1,500 ft from the threshold
C) 300 m from the threshold
D) 150 m from the threshold

246. Alternate yellow/green centreline lights of a taxiway indicate:

A) a rapid exit taxiway


B) the proximity of a runway
C) a stopway
D) an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area

247. If runway centre line lights are installed on a runway with a length of 1800 m or more, they shall
have the following colours on the last 900 m:

A) White from 900 m to 300 m and red from 300 m to the runway end
B) Alternate red and white from 900 m to 300 m and white from 300 m to the runway end
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C) Alternate red and white from 900 m to 300 m and red from 300 m to the runway end
D) White from 900 m to 300 m and alternate red and white from 300 m to the runway end

248. How is a taxiway holding position marked?

A) A red light stop bar


B) A red marker board either side of the taxiway
C) Occulting yellow " guard" lights
D) One or three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway

249. Runway end lights shall be:

A) fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway


B) fixed lights showing variable red
C) fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway
D) fixed lights showing variable white

250. Fixed distance markings are placed:

A) 300m from the runway threshold


B) 900m from the upwind end of the runway
C) 150m from the runway threshold
D) 450m from the runway threshold

251. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

A) The threshold
B) A temporary displaced threshold
C) 1000 ft from the end zone
D) A displaced threshold

252. High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate the presence of an object if its length
above the level of the surrounding ground exceeds... and an aeronautical study indicates such lights
to be essential for the recognition of the object by... The lights shall be...

A) 150m, day, flashing white lights


B) 45m, night, steady red lights
C) 100m, day, flashing white lights
D) 200m, night, steady green lights

253. High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate the presence of an object if its length
above the level of the surrounding ground exceeds... and an aeronautical study indicates such lights
to be essential for the recognition of the object by... The lights shall be...

A) 150m, day, flashing white lights


B) 45m, night, steady red lights
C) 100m, day, flashing white lights
D) 200m, night, steady green lights
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254. Rescue and fire fighting (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical
characteristics of the type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. This classification is based upon...

A) maximum landing mass and maximum number of passengers


B) aeroplane length and maximum take-off mass
C) maximum number of passengers and crew
D) aeroplane overall length and fuselage width

255. Take-off distance available is defined as:

A) take-off run available plus stopway and clearway


B) the take-off run available
C) take-off run available plus the stopway
D) the take-off run available plus the clearway

256. For a precision cat II/III approach lighting system, what colour are the side row barrettes of the
supplemental approach lighting in the inner segment?

A) Red
B) White
C) Green
D) Yellow

257. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:

A) cargo and is covered by a traffic document


B) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally
applicable to other cargo
C) cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to
shipment
D) cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms

258. The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State
shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State
of destination.

A) The operator has no obligation


B) The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.
C) The stated above is correct.
D) The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.

259. COSPAS-SARSAT is:

A) A space system for the search of vessels in distress


B) A and C
C) A communication system linking major airports
D) A SAR satellite-aided tracking system
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260. The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are:

A) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre


B) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre
C) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre
D) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres
261. An accident is an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which:

A) Takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such
time as it stops engines where a person is fatally or seriously injured
B) Takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such
time as all such persons have disembarked where a person is fatally or seriously injured
C) Takes place between the time any passenger boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until
such time as all such passengers have disembarked where a person is fatally or seriously injured
D) Takes place between the time aircraft is in flight until such time as it lands where a person is fatally
or seriously injured

262. A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergency
phase does this situation correspond?

A) INCERFA
B) ALERFA
C) RESERFA
D) DETRESSFA

263. Which of the following statements describes the Uncertainty Phase (INCERFA)?

A) An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and
communication has not been re-established.
B) An aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference.
C) An aircraft declares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety.
D) An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA passed to ATC.

264. Which of the following statements describes the Distress Phase (DETRESFA)?

A) An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA passed to ATC.


B) An aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference.
C) An aircraft declares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety.
D) An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and
communication has not been re-established.

265. Which of the following are emergency/SAR frequencies?

1. 121.500 MHz
2. 243.000 MHz
3. 2182 KHz
4. 406 MHz
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A) all of them
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1 and 3 only

266. The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are:

A) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres


B) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre
C) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre
D) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre

267.A turboprop aeroplane is performing an over water flight, which takes it further than 340 NM
away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is
180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt.

A) The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular case.
B) Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
C) Life rafts must be available for all occupants.
D) Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants.

268. Whenever a distress signal and/or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the PIC
of an aircraft, he shall:

A) If possible take a bearing on the transmission


B) Enter into a holding pattern and wait for an SAR aircraft to arrive
C) Record the position of the craft in distress if given and if possible take a bearing on the
transmission
D) Record the position of the craft in distress if given

269. The ground - air visual code for: " REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is:

A) N
B) V
C) X
D) Y
270. What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal?

A) We have found some personnel


B) We are not able to continue and we will return to base
C) Operation completed
D) We have found nothing, but we will continue to search
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271. The Ground-Air signal " NN" means:

A) Nothing found will continue the search


B) We have found all personnel
C) Operation completed
D) We are not able to continue returning to base

272. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the flight crew compartment door?

A) The door must be capable of being unlocked from the cabin side because it is an emergency exit
from the aircraft
B) The door must be marked as an emergency access and be kept clear of obstructions at all times
C) The door must be made of a fire proof material
D) The door shall be lockable from the flight deck side only

273. Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed
when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative
proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken.

A) The above statement is incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be
informed.
B) The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the
subject of judicial proceedings.
C) Correct.
D) These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state.

274. If unidentified baggage is found at an airport:

A) The baggage is to be subject to additional security measures


B) The baggage must be searched before loading on to an aeroplane
C) The baggage must be placed in a secure and isolated area in case it contains explosive devices
D) It is not to be transported by air

275. Where are aircraft that have been subjected to unlawful interference to be parked on an
aerodrome?

A) In the middle so as to limit the effects of explosions


B) On a parking bay specially allocated that is not less than 100 m from an adjacent bay
C) Out of sight of the media so as to deny the terrorists publicity
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D) At a convenient position to allow special forces to storm the aircraft without alerting the terrorists

276. Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?

A) The aircraft manufacturer


B) The Authority of the State in which the accident took place
C) The State of design and manufacturer
D) The Operators of the same aircraft type

277. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole,
which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.

A) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are related
only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the runway and
taxiways
B) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next
48 hours.
C) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case
D) This is an irregularity in the operation; the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused by
necessary repair.

HUMAN PERFORMANCE
278. Having consumed a small amount of alcohol, the prudent pilot will not fly for a minimum of ...
hours

A) 24
B) 36
C) 12
D) 8

279. Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of the biological
rhythm, thus leading to reduced human performance?

A) Liveware - Software.
B) Liveware - Liveware.
C) Liveware - Hardware.
D) Liveware - Environment.

280. Oxygen is transported through the walls of the alveoli according to:

A) Henrys law.
B) Daltons law.
C) Boyles law.
D) the Diffusion law.
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281. Between which components is an interface mismatch causing an error of interpretation by using
an old three- point altimeter?

A) Liveware - Software
B) Liveware - Hardware
C) Liveware - Environment
D) Liveware - Liveware

282. A pilot is skilled when he:

1. trains or practises regularly


2. knows how to manage himself/herself
3. possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft
4. knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected

A) 1,2,4
B) 1,2
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 2, 3,4

283. The measurements used by Anthropometry are:

A) stationary, dynamic and curvature


B) static, dynamic and contour
C) static, dynamic and curvature
D) stoic, dynamic and contour

284. Up to what altitude will generally healthy people be able to stay without showing any signs of
suffering from hypoxia?

A) Up to 10-12.000 feet
B) Up to 18.000 feet
C) Up to 3.000 feet
D) Up to 21.000 feet

285Anthropometry is the study of:

A) human working conditions.


B) human measurement.
C) human limitations.
D) human workspace.

286. The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21% which:

A) decreases with increasing altitude.


B) is constant for all altitudes conventional airplanes can reach.
C) is dependent on the present air pressure.
D) increases with increasing altitude.
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287. The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34.000 ft is:

A) 21%
B) 42%
C) 5%
D) 10,5%

289. Thinking on human reliability is changing.

A) Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend ones knowledge
B) Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive function of human and are
generally inescapable
C) It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future
D) The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safety

290. The phase of flight most prone to accidents is:

A) take-off.
B) landing.
C) descent.
D) intermediate and final approach.

291. The most common specific cause of pilot-induced accidents is:

A) not maintaining ground clearance.


B) poor pre-flight planning.
C) loss of directional control.
D) airspeed not maintained.

292. As a cause of accidents, the human factor:

A) which is cited in current statistics, applies to the flight crew and ATC only.
B) is cited in approximately 70 - 80 % of aviation accidents.
C) plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more important in general
aviation.
D) has increased considerably since 1980 - the percentage of accident in which this factor has been
involved has more than tripled since this date.

292. The term pilot error constitute a certain relative amount of main causes in air accidents. Which of
the following is correct?

A) Around 50 %
B) Around 70%
C) Around 95%
D) Around 20 %

293. The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations manual are related to an
interface mismatch between:
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A) Liveware - Software.
B) Liveware - Liveware.
C) Liveware - Hardware.
D) Liveware - Environment.

294. The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding sabotage and acts of terrorism):

A) has improved considerably over the last fifteen years.


B) is a long way short of the safety level of road transport.
C) is approximately 1 accident per million airport movements.
D) represents about fifty accidents around the world every year.

294. Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that:

A) failure of the human factor is always connected with technical breakdowns


B) there is hardly ever a single cause responsible
C) only front-line operators are involved
D) only pilot training will make it possible to improve the situation

295. Vibrations can cause blurred vision. This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of the:

A) photosensitive cells.
B) crystalline lens.
C) eyeballs.
D) optic nerve.

296. All cockpit lights should:

A) be covered with non-reflective plastic


B) avoid harsh shadows and reflected glare
C) contain 2 bulbs
D) have a minimum of 3 power sources

297. The main preoccupation in modern airline operations should be:

A) efficient utilisation of resources.


B) profit.
C) safety.
D) maximum utilisation of resources.

298. As a result of automation in cockpits:

A) the need for communication between crew members has been decreased.
B) communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of the crew members.
C) communication and coordination have clearly improved in man-man and man-machine relations.
D) it is easier for the captain to monitor the work of the first officer and vice versa.
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299. Among the advantages of automation is:

A) crew become less important and therefore crew numbers can be decreased
B) decrease in the size of cockpits
C) increase of situational awareness
D) computers are quicker to read

300. What does the H in the SHELL model mean?

A) Hardware.
B) Human.
C) Harley-Davidson.
D) Health.

301. Normally the design of aircraft uses measurements taken from:

A) the entire population.


B) the entire population disregarding both the 5% lowest and the 5% highest.
C) the entire population disregarding the 5% lowest.
D) the entire population disregarding the 5% highest.

302. The most important requirement in the design of both displays and controls is:

A) ease of utilisation
B) positioning
C) accessibility
D) standardisation

303. In the initial phase of flight training the relationship between confidence and expertise can be
described as:

A) the pilot is sufficiently competent to fly and knows at this stage what he can and cannot do
B) during this learning stage, the pilot is very near to achieving full potential knowledge of the
machine
C) the pilot has a sphere of expertise which is reduced to daily use of his skills
D) the pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, but does neither have a great deal of
confidence in his/her abilities nor in the whole system

304. Between which components is an interface mismatch responsible for deficiencies in conceptual
aspects of warning systems?

A) Liveware - Environment.
B) Liveware - Hardware.
C) Liveware - Liveware.
D) Liveware - Software.
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305. The elements of the SHEL model are:

A) Software, hardware, environment and liveware.


B) Shareware, hardware, environment and limitations.
C) Shareware, hardware, education and limitations.
D) Software, hardware, electronics and liveware.

306. The twin objectives of Human Performance are:

A) physical fitness and good decision-making.


B) the safety and efficiency of the operation and the well-being of the individual.
C) knowledge of the limitations of the body and their significance in aviation.
D) flight Safety and self-awareness.

307.Which is true regarding the interaction between various elements of the SHEL model?

A) The liveware is the hub of the SHEL model; therefore the non-human components should be
adapted and matched to this central component.
B) Proficiency testing should be done on an individual basis to avoid SHEL element mismatch.
C) Temperature, pressure, humidity, noise and time of day can all be reflected in performance and
also in well being.
D) Information processing can be stimulated by mind sets and vigilance.

308. CRM and LOFT training are designed to improve:

A) the quality of crew performance.


B) the quality and a number of individuals performance.
C) individual performance in adverse conditions.
D) individual achievement.

309. What is the meaning of the S in the SHELL model?

A) Symbols
B) Safety
C) Software
D) Signals and indications

310. With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in the attention mechanism, we know that:

A) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the less it frees resources.
B) the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it
frees mental resources.
C) the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires attention and the more it frees resources.
D) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the more it frees resources.

311. The ozone layer:

A) Absorbs UVB better than UVA.


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B) absorbs UVA better than UVB.


C) absorbs UV radiation up to a wavelength of 400 nm completely.
D) absorbs high energy UV radiation less than low energy UV radiation.

312. The effect of hypoxia to vision:

A) is usual stronger with the cones.


B) does not depend on the level of illumination.
C) can only be detected when smoking tobacco.
D) is stronger with the rods.

313. TUC following loss of pressurisation at 35.000 ft is:

A) 5 minutes upwards.
B) 30 - 60 seconds.
C) 10 - 15 seconds.
D) 3 - 4 minutes.

314. How much of our knowledge is acquired through sight?

A) 90%.
B) 85%.
C) 65%.
D) 75%.

315. The pressure at 18 000 ft is lower than at sea level. How much lower is it approximately?

A) 1/2.
B) 1/3.
C) 1/4.
D) 75% of the pressure at sea level.

316. With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal or overstress:

A) finger nails and lips will turn blue (cyanosis).


B) an increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular spasms and even
unconsciousness.
C) peripheral and scotopic vision will be improved.
D) more oxygen will reach the brain.

317. Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?

A) Plasma.
B) White blood cells.
C) Haemoglobin in the red blood cells.
D) Blood fat.
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318. 100% oxygen without pressure can be used up to:

A) 50.000 ft
B) 70.000 ft
C) 40.000 ft
D) 60.000 ft

319. The normal rate of breathing is:

A) 32 to 40 cycles a minute.
B) 12 to 16 cycles a minute.
C) 60 ti 100 cycles a minute
D) 20 to 30 cycles a minute

320. The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful
Consciousness).
It

A) is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure.


B) is the same amount of time for every person.
C) varies individually and does not depend on altitude.{{Const143}}
D) varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude.

321. Linear acceleration can give a false impression of a:

A) climb.
B) turn.
C) spin.
D) descent.

322. The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere remains the same up to an approximate height of:

A) 70,000 ft
B) 20,000 ft
C) 10,000 ft
D) 40,000 ft

323. A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation is:

A) symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given.
B) there are great differences between the two.
C) altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10.000 ft.
D) cyanosis (blue colour of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia.
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324. After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30 000 ft the first action of the pilot shall be:

A) maintaining aircraft control and preventing hypoxia (use of oxygen mask).


B) informing ATC.
C) informing the cabin crew.
D) preventing panic of the passengers.

325. The following statement is true:

A) decreased oxygen causes shortness of breath.


B) increased carbon dioxide causes shortness of breath.
C) increased carbon dioxide remains unnoticed.
D) increased oxygen causes shortness of breath.

326. What is the major factor in the general population which predisposes an individual to heart
attack?

A) High blood pressure.


B) Smoking.
C) The amount of saturated fats in the diet.
D) Family history.

327. Galactic Radiation is:

A) unsteady and unpredictable.


B) steady and reasonably predictable.
C) unsteady and reasonably predictable.
D) steady but unpredictable.

328. The following statements are true except:

A) reduced oxygen carrying capacity is called hypemic hypoxia.


B) inability of the tissue to use oxygen is called histotoxic hypoxia.
C) reduced alveolar oxygen exchange is called hypoxic hypoxia.
D) poor circulation is called hypoxic hypoxia.

329. When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon
dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in:

A) a delay in the onset of hypoxia when flying at high altitudes.


B) the activation of the respiratory centre, which in turn causes hypoxia.
C) less oxygen to be diffused into the cells.
D) a poor saturation of oxygen in the blood.

330. Decompression symptoms are caused by:

A) low oxygen pressure of inhaled air.


B) release of locked gases from joints.
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C) dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the body.


D) low carbon dioxide pressure of inhaled air.

331. Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight?

A) Dizziness.
B) Lack of adaptation.
C) Lack of adaptation.
D) The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions.

332. The partial pressure of the respiratory gases within the pulmonary alveoli is

A) 47 mmHg pH2O, 150 mmHg O2, 0.03 mmHg pCO2


B) 40 mmHg pCO2, 47 mmHg pH2O, 100 mmHg O2
C) 46 mmHg pCO2, 47 mmHg pH2O, 40 mmHg O2
D) 5 mmHg pCO2, 10 mmHg pH2O, 150 mmHg O2

333. Hypoxia is the result of:

A) Excessive nitrogen in the bloodstream.


B) High barometric pressure at higher altitudes.
C) Decreasing amount of oxygen as your altitude increases.
D) Both A and B are correct.

334. A balloon is often used to illustrate the effects of which gas law?

A) Henrys law.
B) Daltons law.
C) Charles law.
D) Boyles law.

335. Daltons law explains the occurrence of:

A) altitude hypoxia.
B) creeps.
C) decompression sickness.
D) bends.

336. A smoker of 20 cigarettes a day at height will suffer from Anaemic Hypoxia and will have a raised
carboxy- haemoglobin level of about 7%. He/she will start to suffer from Hypoxia approximately 4 -
5,000 ft below that of a non-smoker.

A) Smoking has no effect on Hypoxia.


B) True.
C) Partly true.
D) False.
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337. Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?

1. Decrease in heart rate


2. Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body
3. Drop in blood pressure above heart-level
4. Downward displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs

A) 2,3,4
B) 1,2,3
C) 1,3,4
D) 1

338. The natural free run of the circadian rhythm of the human body is:

A) 26 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 25hours
D) 24 hours

339. A healthy young subject should have the following lung volumes

A) an inspiratory reserve volume of ~0.5 litre


B) a residual volume of 1.2 litre
C) an expiratory reserve volume of ~0.5 litre
D) a vital capacity of ~7.0 litre

340. Having given blood a pilot should see a doctor because of the increased susceptibility to:

A) glaucoma.
B) low blood pressure.
C) hypoxia.
D) hyperventilation.

341. Hypoxia can also be caused by:

A) a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the hemoglobin to transport oxygen.
B) too much carbon dioxide in the blood.
C) increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of gases.
D) a lack of nitrogen in ambient air.

342. Haemoglobin is:

A) dissolved in the plasma.


B) in the platelets.
C) in the red blood cells.
D) in the white blood cells.
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343. What is the Time of Useful Consciousness for a rapid decompression at 25.000 ft?

A) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot.
B) About 30 seconds.
C) About 18 seconds.
D) Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds

344. Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:

A) 19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases.


B) 21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases.
C) 18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases.
D) 25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases.

345. What is heart infarct?

A) A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary artery; it will seldom lead to a heart attack.
B) A heart infarct is the same as a heart attack.
C) A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary vein.
D) A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary artery; it will almost always lead to a heart attack.

346. The approximate percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 30.000 ft is:

A) 10%
B) 28%
C) 5%
D) 20%

347. The following statement about ozone is false:

A) ozone can cause lung irritation at a concentration of 1.0 ppm.


B) during a sunny day ozone is enriched more over industrial zones and urban areas.
C) ozone impairs night vision.
D) during a sunny day ozone is enriched more over rural areas.

348. Hypoxia effects visual performance. A pilot may:

A) get blurred and/or tunnel vision.


B) have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL.
C) get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache.
D) be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL.

349. Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct?

A) Complete adaptation to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight.


B) asodilation is the only regulate which is capable of reducing body temperature.
C) Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high.
D) Performance is not impaired by an increase in body temperature to 40° C or more.
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350. What is angina?

A) Angina is a symptom of too high oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by enlarge
coronary arteries.
B) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the brain, usually caused by narrowing or
obstruction of the coronary artery.
C) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by narrowing
or obstruction of the coronary artery.
D) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by narrowing
or obstruction of lung alveoli.

351. Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints. Which of
following answers is correct?

A) You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this is a symptom of decompression
sickness.
B) This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100% nitrogen.
C) This symptom indicates decompression sickness and will disappear when you take some exercise.
D) This phenomenon is treated by physiotherapy.

352. How much of the air is occupied by oxygen?

A) 78.0%.
B) 20.94%.
C) 17%.
D) 78.08%.

353. The normal visual approach angle is:

A) 4 degrees.
B) 2 degrees.
C) 10 degrees.
D) 3 degrees.

354. What is TUC?

A) Both A and C are correct.


B) Total Useful Consciousness.
C) The same as (EPT) expected performance time.
D) Time of Useful Consciousness.

355. How much of the air is occupied by nitrogen?

A) 78.08%.
B) 20.94%.
C) 76%.
D) 21%.
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356. An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:

A) shortness of breath.
B) a reduction of red blood cells.
C) a decrease of acidity in the blood.
D) an improving resistance to hypoxia.

357. The most dangerous sign of hypoxic hypoxia is:

A) bluish skin.
B) increased respiration rate.
C) decreased heart rate.
D) impaired judgment and self criticism.

358. Oxygen, combined with haemoglobin in blood is transported by:

A) platelets.
B) blood plasma.
C) white blood cells.
D) red blood cells.

259. With reference to humidity:

1. 40 - 60% is optimal,
2. Cabin humidity is normally approx 30%,
3. Dehydration will affect crew performance,
4. Humidity has no effect on crew performance,

A) 2 & 4 are correct


B) Only 3 is correct
C) 1 & 4 are correct
D) 1,2 and 3 are correct

260. In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.

A) Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.


B) Nausea and barotitis.
C) Dull headache and bends.
D) Dizziness, hypothermia.

261. The purpose of the red blood cells is to:

A) Transport oxygen.
B) Fight infection.
C) Transport CO2, nutrients and hormones.
D) Clot blood.
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262. With a pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml, what is the cardiac output?

A) 5 litres a minute.
B) 7 litres a minute.
C) 6 litres a minute.
D) 8 litres a minute.

263. Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?

1. Blue lips and finger nails.


2. Euphoria.
3. Flatulence.
4. Unconsciousness.

A) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.


B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

264. The ozone-layer is situated in the:

A) stratosphere.
B) troposphere.
C) mesosphere
D) mesosphere and troposphere.

265. The purpose of cabin pressurisation system is:

A) All of the above (A,B and C are all correct).


B) To allow the crew and passengers to move about freely in a comfortable environment,
unencumbered by oxygen masks or other life support equipment.
C) To prevent hypoxia.
D) Reduce gastrointestinal-, trapped gas-, middle ear- and sinus- problems.

266. Short-term acceleration is 1 second or less whereas long-term acceleration is over 1 seconds:

A) True.
B) False - the time is 20 seconds.
C) False - the time is 5 minutes.
D) False - the time is 1 minute.

267. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct?

1. Euphoria is a possible result of hypoxia


2. Euphoria can lead to degraded decisions in flight

A) 2 only.
B) 1 only.
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C) Neither.
D) 1 & 2.

268. Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when:

A) you breath through the mouth.


B) the nose is pinched.
C) barotrauma exists in the sinuses.
D) the eustachian tube is blocked.

269. The primary function of the Pressoreceptors is:

A) Combating DCS.
B) Combating NIHL.
C) Thinning the blood.
D) Homeostasis.

270. What is decompression sickness?

A) An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a
cabin pressure loss at high altitude.
B) A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern aircraft.
C) The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for peoples capabilities.
D) A disorder which is solely encountered below 18.000 ft.

271. Cardiac output is:

A) stroke volume minus the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
B) stroke volume divided by the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
C) stroke volume times the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
D) stroke volume plus the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.

272. Which of the following symptoms marks the beginning of hyperventilation?

A) Slow rate of breath


B) Feeling dizzy.
C) Cyanosis.
D) Slow heart beat.

273. What is the remedy for decompression sickness, or bends?

A) increase the amount of oxygen


B) increase the pressure on the body
C) decrease the rate and depth of breathing
D) decrease the pressure on the body
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274. With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardiac output is
about:

A) 8 liters/min.
B) 5 liters/min.
C) 6 liters/min.
D) 7 liters/min.

275. The chemical composition of the earths atmosphere (ICAO standard atmosphere) is:

A) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon.


B) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide.
C) 78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon.
D) 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide.

276. Stages of performance decrements due to hypoxic hypoxia are:

A) indifferent stage up to 6.000 ft, disturbance threshold at 12.000 ft.


B) critical threshold at 12.000 ft, disturbance stage above 22.000 ft.
C) disturbance threshold at 6.000 ft, critical threshold at 22.000 ft.
D) reaction threshold at 6.000 ft, disturbance threshold at 22.000 ft.

277. A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:

A) depending on instruments.
B) the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure.
C) controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or speaking with a loud voice.
D) increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide.

278. Henrys Law explains the occurrence of:

A) diffusion.
B) hyperventilation.
C) hypoxia.
D) decompression sickness.

279. Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following
symptoms:

A) dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision.
B) blue finger-nails and lips.
C) reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity.
D) a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate.

280. Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:

A) hypoxia.
B) stress.
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C) decompression sickness without having a decompression.


D) hyperventilation.

281. The following statement about respiration is true:

A) transport of carbon dioxide in the blood is made by combination with haemoglobin.


B) external respiration serves for the gas exchange between blood and tissue cells.
C) internal respiration serves for the gas exchange between environment and blood.
D) transport of oxygen in the blood is made by combination with haemoglobin.

282. Aerodontalgia is associated with the:

A) nose.
B) eyes.
C) ears.
D) teeth.

283. The temperature lapse rate:

A) within the troposphere is ~2° F per 1.000 ft.


B) Within the troposphere is ~2° C per 1.000 ft.
C) within the mesosphere is ~2° F per 1.000 ft.
D) within the stratosphere is ~2° C per 1.000 ft.

284. The pressoreceptors are located in:

A) the heart.
B) the carotid and aortic arterial vessels.
C) the intestines.
D) the lungs.

285. Where is the critical threshold at which a pilot not using oxygen reaches the critical or lethal
zone? It starts at:

A) 38.000 ft
B) 25.000 ft.
C) 21.000 ft.
D) 18.000 ft.

286.Gases of physiological importance to man are:

A) nitrogen and carbon dioxide.


B) oxygen and carbon monoxide.
C) oxygen, nitrogen and water vapour.
D) oxygen and carbon dioxide.
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287. What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive decompression:

A) Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10.000 ft.


B) First inform ATC.
C) Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain level flight.
D) Descend to below 10.000 ft and signal an emergency.

288. When suffering from Hypoxic Hypoxia, short-term memory impairment starts at approximately:

A) 14,000 ft
B) 10,000 ft
C) 16,000 ft
D) 12,000 ft

289. Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo:

A) Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect (hypoxia of the brain), the solo pilot
may not be able to react in time (i.e. activate his emergency oxygen system).
B) Hypoxia does not cause a loss of control in steering the plane.
C) The pilot may loose control when he is using the oxygen mask.
D) Hypoxia improves vision at night, so the pilot will have no indication of danger.

290. The ozone layer:

A) absorbs UVA better than UVB.


B) absorbs high energy UV radiation less than low energy UV radiation.
C) Absorbs UVB better than UVA.
D) absorbs UV radiation up to a wavelength of 400 nm completely.

291. How much of our knowledge is acquired through sight?

A) 90%.
B) 85%.
C) 75%.
D) 65%.

292. The pressure at 18 000 ft is lower than at sea level. How much lower is it approximately?

A) 75% of the pressure at sea level.


B) 1/4.
C) 1/2.
D) 1/3.

293. With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal or overstress:

A) more oxygen will reach the brain.


B) an increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular spasms and even
unconsciousness.
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C) peripheral and scotopic vision will be improved.


D) finger nails and lips will turn blue (cyanosis).

294. 100% oxygen without pressure can be used up to:

A) 40.000 ft
B) 50.000 ft
C) 60.000 ft
D) 70.000 ft

295. Linear acceleration can give a false impression of a:

A) spin.
B) descent.
C) climb.
D) turn.

296. After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30 000 ft the first action of the pilot shall be:

A) maintaining aircraft control and preventing hypoxia (use of oxygen mask).


B) preventing panic of the passengers.
C) informing the cabin crew.
D) informing ATC.

297. The following statement is true:

A) increased oxygen causes shortness of breath.


B) increased carbon dioxide remains unnoticed.
C) increased carbon dioxide causes shortness of breath.
D) decreased oxygen causes shortness of breath.

298. What is the major factor in the general population which predisposes an individual to heart
attack?

A) The amount of saturated fats in the diet.


B) High blood pressure.
C) Smoking.
D) Family history.

299. Galactic Radiation is:

A) steady but unpredictable.


B) steady and reasonably predictable.
C) unsteady and reasonably predictable.
D) unsteady and unpredictable.
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300. The following statements are true except:

A) reduced alveolar oxygen exchange is called hypoxic hypoxia.


B) poor circulation is called hypoxic hypoxia.
C) inability of the tissue to use oxygen is called histotoxic hypoxia.
D) reduced oxygen carrying capacity is called hypemic hypoxia.

301. When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon
dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in:

A) a poor saturation of oxygen in the blood.


B) the activation of the respiratory centre, which in turn causes hypoxia.
C) less oxygen to be diffused into the cells.
D) a delay in the onset of hypoxia when flying at high altitudes.

302. Decompression symptoms are caused by:

A) release of locked gases from joints.


B) low oxygen pressure of inhaled air.
C) dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the body.
D) low carbon dioxide pressure of inhaled air.

303. Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight?

A) Lack of adaptation.
B) Lack of adaptation.
C) The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions.
D) Dizziness.

304. The partial pressure of the respiratory gases within the pulmonary alveoli is

A) 40 mmHg pCO2, 47 mmHg pH2O, 100 mmHg O2


B) 47 mmHg pH2O, 150 mmHg O2, 0.03 mmHg pCO2
C) 46 mmHg pCO2, 47 mmHg pH2O, 40 mmHg O2
D) 5 mmHg pCO2, 10 mmHg pH2O, 150 mmHg O2

305. Hypoxia is the result of:

A) Decreasing amount of oxygen as your altitude increases.


B) Excessive nitrogen in the bloodstream.
C) High barometric pressure at higher altitudes.
D) Both A and B are correct.

306. A balloon is often used to illustrate the effects of which gas law?

A) Daltons law.
B) Charles law.
C) Boyles law.
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D) Henrys law.

307. Daltons law explains the occurrence of:

A) decompression sickness.
B) creeps.
C) altitude hypoxia.
D) bends.

308. A smoker of 20 cigarettes a day at height will suffer from Anaemic Hypoxia and will have a raised
carboxy- haemoglobin level of about 7%. He/she will start to suffer from Hypoxia approximately 4 -
5,000 ft below that of a non-smoker.

A) False.
B) True.
C) Partly true.
D) Smoking has no effect on Hypoxia.

309. The natural free run of the circadian rhythm of the human body is:

A) 26 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 25hours

310. A healthy young subject should have the following lung volumes

A) a vital capacity of ~7.0 litre


B) a residual volume of 1.2 litre
C) an expiratory reserve volume of ~0.5 litre
D) an inspiratory reserve volume of ~0.5 litre

311. Having given blood a pilot should see a doctor because of the increased susceptibility to:

A) low blood pressure.


B) hyperventilation.
C) hypoxia.
D) glaucoma.

312. What is the Time of Useful Consciousness for a rapid decompression at 25.000 ft?

A) About 30 seconds.
B) Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds.
C) About 18 seconds.
D) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot.
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313. Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:

A) 18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases.


B) 21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases.
C) 25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases.
D) 19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases.

314. What is heart infarct?

A) A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary vein.


B) A heart infarct is the same as a heart attack.
C) A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary artery; it will almost always lead to a heart attack.
D) A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary artery; it will seldom lead to a heart attack.

315. The approximate percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 30.000 ft is:

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 28%

316. The following statement about ozone is false:

A) during a sunny day ozone is enriched more over rural areas.


B) ozone can cause lung irritation at a concentration of 1.0 ppm.
C) during a sunny day ozone is enriched more over industrial zones and urban areas.
D) ozone impairs night vision.

317. Hypoxia effects visual performance. A pilot may:

A) get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache.


B) be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL.
C) get blurred and/or tunnel vision.
D) have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL.

318. Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct?

A) Performance is not impaired by an increase in body temperature to 40° C or more.


B) Complete adaptation to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight.
C) Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high.
D) asodilation is the only regulate which is capable of reducing body temperature.

319. What is angina?

A) Angina is a symptom of too high oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by enlarge
coronary arteries.
B) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the brain, usually caused by narrowing or
obstruction of the coronary artery.
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C) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by narrowing
or obstruction of the coronary artery.
D) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by narrowing
or obstruction of lung alveoli.

320. Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints. Which of
following answers is correct?

A) This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100% nitrogen.


B) You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this is a symptom of decompression
sickness.
C) This phenomenon is treated by physiotherapy.
D) This symptom indicates decompression sickness and will disappear when you take some exercise.

321. How much of the air is occupied by oxygen?

A) 17%.
B) 78.0%.
C) 78.08%.
D) 20.94%.

322. The normal visual approach angle is:

A) 4 degrees.
B) 10 degrees.
C) 2 degrees.
D) 3 degrees.

323. How much of the air is occupied by nitrogen?

A) 21%.
B) 76%.
C) 20.94%.
D) 78.08%.

324. An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:

A) shortness of breath.
B) an improving resistance to hypoxia.
C) a decrease of acidity in the blood.
D) a reduction of red blood cells.

325. The most dangerous sign of hypoxic hypoxia is:

A) bluish skin.
B) decreased heart rate.
C) increased respiration rate.
D) impaired judgment and self criticism.
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326. Oxygen, combined with haemoglobin in blood is transported by:

A) red blood cells.


B) white blood cells.
C) blood plasma.
D) platelets.

327. In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.

A) Dizziness, hypothermia.
B) Dull headache and bends.
C) Nausea and barotitis.
D) Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.

328. The purpose of the red blood cells is to:

A) Transport CO2, nutrients and hormones.


B) Fight infection.
C) Clot blood.
D) Transport oxygen.

329. With a pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml, what is the cardiac output?

A) 6 litres a minute.
B) 7 litres a minute.
C) 8 litres a minute.
D) 5 litres a minute.

330. The ozone-layer is situated in the:

A) stratosphere.
B) mesosphere and troposphere.
C) mesosphere
D) troposphere.

331. The purpose of cabin pressurisation system is:

A) All of the above (A,B and C are all correct).


B) To allow the crew and passengers to move about freely in a comfortable environment,
unencumbered by oxygen masks or other life support equipment.
C) To prevent hypoxia.
D) Reduce gastrointestinal-, trapped gas-, middle ear- and sinus- problems.

332. Short-term acceleration is 1 second or less whereas long-term acceleration is over 1 seconds:

A) False - the time is 5 minutes.


B) False - the time is 20 seconds.
C) True.
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D) False - the time is 1 minute.

333. Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when:

A) the nose is pinched.


B) the eustachian tube is blocked.
C) barotrauma exists in the sinuses.
D) you breath through the mouth.

334. The primary function of the Pressoreceptors is:

A) Combating DCS.
B) Combating NIHL.
C) Thinning the blood.
D) Homeostasis.

335. What is decompression sickness?

A) A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern aircraft.
B) An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a
cabin pressure loss at high altitude.
C) A disorder which is solely encountered below 18.000 ft.
D) The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for peoples capabilities.

336. Cardiac output is:

A) stroke volume minus the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
B) stroke volume times the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
C) stroke volume plus the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
D) stroke volume divided by the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.

337. Which of the following symptoms marks the beginning of hyperventilation?

A) Slow heart beat.


B) Cyanosis.
C) Slow rate of breath
D) Feeling dizzy.

338. What is the remedy for decompression sickness, or bends?

A) decrease the rate and depth of breathing


B) decrease the pressure on the body
C) increase the amount of oxygen
D) increase the pressure on the body
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339. The chemical composition of the earths atmosphere (ICAO standard atmosphere) is:

A) 78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon.


B) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon.
C) 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide.
D) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide.

340. Stages of performance decrements due to hypoxic hypoxia are:

A) critical threshold at 12.000 ft, disturbance stage above 22.000 ft.


B) indifferent stage up to 6.000 ft, disturbance threshold at 12.000 ft.
C) disturbance threshold at 6.000 ft, critical threshold at 22.000 ft.
D) reaction threshold at 6.000 ft, disturbance threshold at 22.000 ft.

341. A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:

A) depending on instruments.
B) controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or speaking with a loud voice.
C) the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure.
D) increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide.

342. Henrys Law explains the occurrence of:

A) hypoxia.
B) diffusion.
C) hyperventilation.
D) decompression sickness.

343. Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following
symptoms:

A) blue finger-nails and lips.


B) a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate.
C) dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision.
D) reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity.

344. Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:

A) hypoxia.
B) hyperventilation.
C) decompression sickness without having a decompression.
D) stress.

345. The following statement about respiration is true:

A) internal respiration serves for the gas exchange between environment and blood.
B) transport of oxygen in the blood is made by combination with haemoglobin.
C) transport of carbon dioxide in the blood is made by combination with haemoglobin.
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D) external respiration serves for the gas exchange between blood and tissue cells.

346. The pressoreceptors are located in:

A) the intestines.
B) the heart.
C) the carotid and aortic arterial vessels.
D) the lungs.

347. Gases of physiological importance to man are:

A) oxygen and carbon monoxide.


B) nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
C) oxygen and carbon dioxide.
D) oxygen, nitrogen and water vapour.

348. To maintain sea level conditions at 25.000 ft, the percentage of oxygen breathing is:

A) 100%
B) 40%
C) 62%
D) 21%

349. What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive decompression:

A) First inform ATC.


B) Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain level flight.
C) Descend to below 10.000 ft and signal an emergency.
D) Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10.000 ft.

350. Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear acceleration?

A) The sacculus and utriculus.


B) The Eustachian tube.
C) The cochlea.
D) The semicircular canals.

351. During a night flight at 10.000 feet you notice that your acuity of vision has decreased. In this
case you can increase your acuity by:

A) dim the instrument lights.


B) closing one eye.
C) scanning sectors of the field of vision.
D) breathing extra oxygen through the oxygen mask.
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352. Empty field myopia is caused by:

A) flying over mountainous terrain.


B) lack of distant focal points.
C) atmospheric perspective.
D) ozone at altitude.

353. Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ means:

A) a greater sensitivity.
B) a lesser sensitivity.
C) a greater selectivity.
D) a lesser selectivity.

354. How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By:

A) maintaining a good instrument cross check.


B) believing your body senses only.
C) looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude indicator.
D) moving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical.

355. The optic nerve has a covering of:

A) does not consist of either rods or cones.


B) a mixture of rods and cones.
C) cones.
D) rods.

356. The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor:

A) relative speed and linear accelerations.


B) angular accelerations.
C) movements with constant speeds.
D) gravity.

357. The auditory nerve leads directly to the:

A) Otoliths.
B) Cochlea.
C) Semi-circular canals.
D) Cortex.

358. If you are disorientated during night flying you must:

A) relay on instruments.
B) descend.
C) check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast.
D) look outside.

359. Excessive exposure to noise damages:

A) the semi circular canals.


B) the sensitive membrane in the cochlea.
C) the ossicles.
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D) the eardrum.

360. The PNS passes information from:

A) sensory inputs to the CNS through sensory and motor nerves.


B) the brain to all parts of the body through sensory nerves.
C) the brain to all parts of the body through sensory and motor nerves.
D) the brain to the sensory stores through sensory nerves.

361. The best way to cope with Motion Sickness is to:

A) moving the jaw from side to side


B) keep the head still if possible.
C) blow hard while holding the nose.
D) swallowing.

363. The proprioceptive senses (Seat of-the-Pants-Sense):

A) can neither be used for motor coordination in IMC and VMC


B) is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct attitude
C) can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMC
D) give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost

364. Hypoxia will effect night vision:

A) less than day vision.


B) and causes the autokinetic phenomena.
C) and causes hyperventilation.
D) at 5000 ft.

365. Sound waves are transferred from the outer ear to the inner ear by:

A) the static organ.


B) the cochlea.
C) the otolith organ.
D) the ossicles.

366. A pilot approaching an upslope runway:

A) establishes a higher than normal approach speed.


B) is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long.
C) establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out.
D) may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short.

367. Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the individual , can be caused by:

A) angular velocity.
B) vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz.
C) acceleration along the longitudinal body axis.
D) vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz

368. Messages are sent through the nervous system by...

A) Chemical and hormonal.


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B) Chemical only.
C) Electrical and hormonal.
D) Electrical and chemical.

369. Optic Barotrauma is normally worse

A) During the ascent.


B) During the descent.
C) In all the above.
D) In level flight.

370. The vestibular organ:

A) gives the impression of hearing


B) reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear
C) reacts to vibrations of the cochlea
D) reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity

371. The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, when:

A) the pilot is buckled too tight to his seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the aircraft by his
Seat-of- the-Pants-Sense.
B) the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring illusions.
C) there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs.
D) information from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored.

372. The ability of the lens to change its shape is called:

A) adaptation.
B) depth perception.
C) binocular vision.
D) accommodation.

373. Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against a Barotrauma of the middle ear
(aerotitis):

A) increase the rate of descent.


B) use drugs against a cold.
C) stop chewing and swallowing movements (Valsalva)
D) stop descending, climb again and then descend with reduced sink rate.

374. The effects of alcohol are ... with increased altitude:

A) unaffected.
B) increased.
C) neutralised.
D) decreased.

375. Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by

A) the duration and intensity of a noise


B) the suddenness of onset of a noise
C) the duration of a noise but not its intensity
D) the intensity of the noise but not its duration
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376. The EEG trace during REM sleep is similar to that of an individual who is:

A) Unconscious.
B) Awake.
C) At rest.
D) In slow wave sleep.

377. A pilot has caught a cold. What may happen to his susceptibility to hypoxia:

A) it will decrease due to the reduced level of bodily functions.


B) it will decrease because colder air is denser and has higher partial pressure.
C) it will increase due to the need to generate more oxygen which leads to a greater demand for
oxygen.
D) it will increase due to the reduction in lung capacity due to the cold.

378. Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the human body:

A) When drinking coffee, the human body metabolizes alcohol at a faster rate than normal.
B) An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.
C) A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.
D) Judgement and decision making can be affected even by a small amount of alcohol.

379. A pilot should consult an Aviation Medicine specialist before donating blood because:

A) donation may lead to a reduced tolerance of altitude.


B) donation may lead to a rise in blood pressure (Hypertension).
C) donation may lead to a lowering of the body temperature causing unpredictable sleepiness.
D) donation may lead to a lowering of blood pressure (Hypotension).

380. The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is:

A) the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide.


B) carbon monoxide.
C) tar.
D) nicotine.

381. Approximately how many chunks of information can an average person process at one time:

A) ten.
B) three.
C) seven
D) one.

382. Motor programmes are:

A) rules that enable us to deal with preconceived situations.


B) rules that enable us to deal with novel situations.
C) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed without continuous conscious
control.
D) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed only under continuous conscious
control.
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383. Which of the following statements concerning hypovigilance is correct? Hypovigilance:

A) may occur at any moment of the flight.


B) essentially occurs several minutes after the intense take-off phase.
C) tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a relaxation in the operators attention.
D) only affects certain personality types.

384. The cocktail party effect is:

A) the tendency not to perceive relevant information.


B) the ability to drink too much at social gathering.
C) the tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of the world.
D) the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally.

385. The common illusion created by linear acceleration or deceleration is:

A) a feeling that the aircraft has started to pitch up when the aircraft decelerates, causing an
automatic attempt to push the nose down
B) a combined pitch up and banking sensations
C) a banking sensation due to disturbances in the fluid circulation in the inner ear
D) a pitch up feeling when the aircraft accelerates

386. The first stage in the information process is:

A) sensory stimulation.
B) the recognition of information.
C) perception.
D) selective attention.

387. Give an example of vigilance:

A) A vigilant crewmember notifies the entire crew of a problem.


B) An example of vigilance would be to continuously scan for other aircraft during a long flight.
C) Dividing your attention between technical and non-technical duties.
D) An example of vigilance would be when a crewmember plans ahead and is anticipating what will or
could happen.

388. According to Jens Rasmussen, riding a bicycle is:

A) skill based behaviour.


B) rule based behaviour requiring conscious thought.
C) knowledge based behaviour.
D) rule based behaviour not requiring conscious thought.

389. How can optimum arousal and vigilance be obtained?

A) Experts believe that arousal and performance are related by an inverted V-shaped curve. Deep
sleep is at one end, extreme panic the other. Both result in poor performance. Optimum arousal
and vigilance are obtained at the mid-point between the two.
B) Experts believe that arousal and performance are related by an inverted V-shaped curve. Both
result in poor performance. Optimum arousal and vigilance are obtained during low workload.
C) Optimum vigilance, in its most acute forms, is an extremely agitated condition. It is normally only
obtained in a state of panic or near panic.
D) Optimum arousal and vigilance are best obtained among two assertive crewmembers.
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390. What are the best visual cues for height during the round out?

A) apparent speed and texture of ground objects


B) the horizon with respect to objects on the windscreen
C) horizon relative to the aircraft nose
D) velocity and the colour of passing objects

391. If the pilot of an aircraft approaches a runway that is wider than normal, one of the possible
consequences could be that:

A) he would choose a visual touch down point too far into the runway.
B) the aircraft would touch down after he expects to.
C) he would flare at a too low altitude.
D) he would touch down with excess speed.

392. The quality of learning:

A) is independent of the level of motivation.


B) is independent of age.
C) depends on long-term memory capacity.
D) is promoted by feedback on the value of ones own performance.

393. Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due to:

A) drug influence.
B) practice and experience.
C) innate mechanisms.
D) maturation.

394. A selective attention mechanism is required:

A) because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory.
B) because of limitations in our store of motor programmes.
C) because the capacity of the long term memory is limited.
D) because of the limitations of the sense organs.

395. What is hypovigilance?

A) A rapid breathing pattern caused by fear.


B) A rapid breathing pattern caused by stress.
C) Both B and C are correct.
D) Hypovigilance (hypervigilance) is, in its most acute forms, an extremely agitated state of panic or
near panic. It is characterised by indiscriminate attention to all sports of minor and major threat
cues, as the person frantically searches for means of e

396. Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pertaining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation
of actions.

A) It is most important for self control.


B) It is most effective, if it is practiced on an abstract level if imagination.
C) It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills.
D) It is more effective than training by doing.
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397. To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long-term memory, it is helpful
to:

A) mentally rehearse information before it is needed


B) avoid to rehearse information which we know we will need soon.
C) learn and store data in a logical and structured way.
D) structure irrelevant information as much as possible before committing it to memory.

398. Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are:

A) solely induced in the absence of external reference points.


B) due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems.
C) associated with the task of mental construction of the environment.
D) due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data.

399. In the short-term-memory, information is stored for approximately

A) 20 seconds
B) 1 hour
C) 5 minutes
D) a couple of days

400. The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is:

A) about 30 items.
B) unlimited.
C) about 7 items.
D) very limited - only 3 items.

401. You are flying from London to Oslo as commander. One of your passengers suffers a heart attach
during flight, and the situation is life threatening for him. You evaluate the situation, and decide to
divert to Amsterdam. What type of behaviour is this, according to Jens Rasmussen?

A) Skill based behaviour.


B) System based behaviour.
C) Knowledge based behaviour.
D) Rule based behaviour.

402. Working memory enables us, for example:

A) to remember a clearance long enough to write it down.


B) to remember our own name.
C) to ignore messages for other aircraft.
D) to store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5 seconds.

403. Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is:

A) coping behaviour.
B) rule based behaviour.
C) skill based behaviour.
D) knowledge based behaviour.
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404. You are carrying out a visual approach to a runway which slopes upwards away from the
touchdown end. What is the main risk in this case?

A) Landing long due to over-correcting for an apparent height decrease.


B) Landing heavy due to an apparent decrease in runway width.
C) Landing heavy due to an apparent increase in runway width.
D) Landing short due to over-correcting for an apparent height increase.

405. The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are):

A) Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored information


B) the quantity of data which may be stored
C) the data storage time
D) the instantaneous inputting in memory of all information collected during the day, which comes to
saturate it

406. What is meant by divided attention?

A) None of the above is correct.


B) Focusing on non-essential information.
C) Switching of attention from one set of stimuli to another.
D) Sampling of stimuli, and selection of one of them for further processing.

407. To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at least be able to:

A) report its malfunction


B) tolerate the deviation
C) correct the deviation
D) report the deviation

408. Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they do not have to think up every time what
they have to do:

A) this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be solved by
improvisation.
B) this has to be positively appreciated for it increases consistency in action.
C) this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to comply
with.
D) this is dangerous for every situation is different.

409. Once detected, an error will result in cognitive consequences which:

A) have virtually no interaction with behaviour.


B) are prompted by inductive factors.
C) make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation.
D) destabilize cognitive progress and maintain the error.

410. Synergy is a commonly used term. What does it mean?

A) It is another word for group work.


B) It is another word for CRM.
C) Synergy is the same as groupthink.
D) The output from the group is better than the sum of the output from each individual in the group.
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411. What is meant by feedback in communication?

A) Storing of messages in short time memory is available for later playback


B) The flight crew do not need to talk all the time because the feedback is automatic
C) The effect of a message is measured and corrected against the original meaning
D) Readback of a message is rarely necessary

412. What does the End Deterioration Effect (Home-itis) mean?

A) The result of a poor pre-flight planning


B) The tendency to sudden, imperceptible errors shortly before the end of a flight
C) The breakdown of crew coordination due to interpersonal tensions between captain and co-pilot
D) The potential risk of loosing orientation after flying in clouds

413. With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say that:

A) communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit their
number.
B) all the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc. are stable
and are not much affected by changes in workload.
C) communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload element
to be carried out at the same time.
D) communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work in progress.

414. How effective communication is, depends heavily on ... (Select the most important factor.)

A) the workload.
B) the sender.
C) the influencing factors.
D) the receiver.

415. The purpose of action plans which are implemented during briefings is to:

A) activate a collective mental schema with respect to nonprocedural actions to be carried out.
B) allow everyone to prepare their own reactions in a difficult situation.
C) initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most likely, risky or difficult during the
flight.
D) define general planning of the flight plan.

416. Which is an example of an error caused by livewire-hardware interface problems?

A) Mental pressure.
B) Noise interference.
C) A procedures that is not user friendly.
D) Switches, controls or displays with poor design.

417. It will not happen to me, can be used as an example to illustrate which attitude?

A) Anti-authority.
B) Macho.
C) Resignation.
D) Invulnerability.
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418. An ideal professional pilot is in his behaviour:

A) neither person nor goal oriented


B) both person and goal oriented.
C) rather person than goal oriented
D) rather goal than person oriented

419. If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, exactly following the approach procedure,
and you encounter no unexpected or new problems you show:

A) skill based behaviour


B) knowledge based behaviour
C) rule based behaviour
D) rule and skill based behaviour

420. Workload essentially depends on:

A) the pilots experience and the ergonomics of the system


B) the current situation, the pilots expertise and the ergonomics of the system
C) the pilots knowledge
D) the task and the days parameters (weather report, aircraft load, type of flight, etc)

421. What are easily observable indications of stress?

A) Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.
B) Lowering of the blood pressure.
C) Perspiration, flushed skin, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
D) Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.

422. Which of the following statements concerning tiredness is correct?

A) Tiredness is the consequence of a diminution of performance.


B) Tiredness is always the result of an intellectual overload.
C) Tiredness is an objective psycho physiological symptom of a reduction in attention capabilities.
D) Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in hypovigilance or in poor management of
intellectual capabilities.

423.The amount of sleep that will give maximum sleep credits without "wasted time" is:

A) 12 hours.
B) 8 hours.
C) 14 hours.
D) 10 hours.

424. In order to completely resynchronise with local time after zone crossing, circadian rhythms
require:

A) about one week per 2.5 hours of time shift


B) about one day per 2.5 hours of time shift.
C) more time when flying from east to west.
D) less time when flying from east to west.
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425. Stress management programmes usually involve:

A) the prevention and/or the removal of stress


B) the use of psychoactive drugs
C) only the removal of stress
D) only the prevention of stress

426. The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily by:

A) the duration of your previous sleep.


B) the number of points you have in your credit/deficit system.
C) the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep.
D) the amount of time you have been awake.

427. What are the three phases of General Adaptation Syndrome?

A) Alert, resistance, exhaustion.


B) Alert, resistance, performance.
C) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
D) Alarm, resistance, performance.

EXTRA QUESTION
428. The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to:

A) Respond in numerical order.


B) Respond in alphabetical order.
C) Give no response.
D) Request a repeat of the message.

429. A Notice to Airmen NOTAM is issued when:

A) A passenger shortfall is evident at the booking in stage.


B) Information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service,
procedure or hazard needs to be promulgated.
C) A TAF is not available.
D) An actual weather report is unavailable within the next period of 6 hours.

430. The words TAKE OFF are only to be used when:

A) When clearance delivery authorises its use.


B) An aircraft is cleared to start.
C) An aircraft is cleared for take-off or, when cancelling a take-off clearance. At all times the words
DEPARTURE or AIRBORNE is used. Readback is mandatory.
D) An aircraft is cleared to line-up only.

431. If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall
transmit messages preceded by the phrase:

A) Read you one, read you one.


B) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.
C) How do you read?
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D) Transmitting blind.

432. The transponder code for unlawful interference is:

A) 7600
B) 7500
C) 7700
D) 7200

433. An urgency call content is to be as follows:

A) PAN PAN PAN, aircraft identification, the intention of the person in command, heading, height,
position.
B) MAY DAY MAY DAY MAY DAY, heading, position, level, aircraft identification, the intention of the
person in command.
C) PAN PAN PAN (on 121,5 MHz). present position, heading aircraft, identification, the intention of the
person in command, the identification of the station being called.
D) PAN PAN PAN (on the frequency in use), name of station addressed, the nature of the urgency
condition, the intention of the person in command.

434. The minimum frequency separation between VHF channels is:

A) 8.33 MHz
B) 8.33 kHz
C) 25 MHz
D) 25 kHz

435. The Squawk code for radio failure is:

A) 700
B) 7500
C) 7600
D) 7700

436. The call PAN PAN MEDICAL indicates that:

A) One of the flight crew has taken ill.


B) The crew require medical aid.
C) There is concern about the safety of the aircraft or a person on board but does not require
immediate assistance.
D) The flight is concerning a protected medical transport pursuant to 1949 Geneva Convention.

437. What do the spoken words PAN PAN MEDICAL mean?

A) The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airport.
B) The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony.
C) The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned
exclusively to medical transportation.
D) The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to land.

438. The frequency to transmit on first for an Urgency call is the:

A) international distress frequency.


B) frequency of the nearest radar station.
CHANDAN KUMAR 83
WhatsApp +91 9939063185

C) frequency in use.
D) frequency of the area control centre.

439. The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is:

A) Distress.
B) Mayday.
C) Pan Pan.
D) Urgency.

440. When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress
condition. Which words shall this message include?

A) ...cancel distress.
B) ...MAYDAY, resuming normal operations.
C) ...distress condition terminated.
D) ...MAYDAY cancelled.

GOOD LUCK

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