Ca) CSCI)-2elo DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO T.B.C. : N-DTQ-K-BQN Test Booklet Series Serial No. _, 29477 oEsp BOOKLET ae ZOOLOGY Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 300 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. * 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item is printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet, In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks, * 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the ‘Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Shect as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : ‘THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS + (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0-33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (i) Ifa candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer cven if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (ii) 1f a question is left blank, no penalty for that question, DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO ware: aga ea San wa GT | od RT no answer is given by the candidate, there will beWhich cell component among 4, Match List with List-Il and select the following is _ responsible the correct answer using the code for the process of detoxification given below the Lists : of foreign substances using cytochrome P450 in mammalian List-I List liver? (Substances) (Reactions/Tests) hs A. Proteins 1. Periodic acid- Mitr i (a) Mitochondria Schiff reaction () Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B. DNA 2. Sudan black B {o) Lysosomes ©. Lipids 3. Methyl green {d) Peroxisomes D. Polysaccharides 4. Bromophenol” blue . Which one of the following ' combinations ‘constitutes the Code : ganglioside of the plasma membrane? A BC D 13°24 (a) Galactose + Ceramide (b} Oligosaccharide + Sialic acid A BOC > 12 3 4 + Ceramide fo) Sialic acid + Ceramide (A+B Cc D 4°23 1 (4) Phosphatidyl glycerol + Proline @a Bc D 3. With reference to peroxisomes, consider the following statements : 1. They are surrounded by a 5. Colchicine treatment causes: single membrane. polyploidy by 2. Théy contain ribosomes. (a) preventing polymerization of Which of the statements given tubulin above is/are correct? (0) preventing nuclear membrane (a) 1 only digestion (b) 2 only (c) preventing DNA duplication () Both 1 and 2 (a) promoting continuous syn- (d) Neither 1 nor 2 thesis of DNA N-DTQ-K-BOQN/5A, 21, Prafefaa aifieta ual 48 aha oe 4. A ai a wita Ae ar ert & aga 4 arm paso a ee ‘afr & 8 Ree ae gz at wei ax ae frontage & Profitarcr & fae aR gy: saat 8? : wha ain (a) aetei gan (werel) (after jatar) (o) Pref sagen sate A. taa 1. Torna orrat- Raw sft (o) reget B. DNA 2. Ger wa B (a) Tete Cc. fare 3. After aa D. vite 4, atta =, 2, frafafira dase 3 8 ata-ar Ge IEA ‘fag ® fifesttargs a dues are 2? we: (a) *etadta + Sons @ A B C D 1 2 4 @) stferidogs + eae on + dts ® A BoC D 102 3 4 fo) Brecher sire + Vorgs : (A Bc D (a) sitsagfca femeta + ste 4 @aA Bc D 3 2 3. Woiifaeal & aeal a Rater aur 4 1 rare fi : 1. 8 ae Ragt are AR EL 8, aiPafa saan 8 apyPrat wi ages 2 me fa) zag aetna & Prarer ze sag sedi Ha ahead wel 8/87 BAT (a) ¥aa 1 (b) Rexbha Rah waa & Fraver gre ahs (b) Fa 2 (co) DNA feqert & Frareo ar ate () 132 at (d) DNA ® Pran decor & daha gra (@) atismead2 eae N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A. 3 [P.7.0.6. Mitosis promoting factor (MPF) has two key subunits—one is catalytic and the other is regulatory. Which one of the following is the regulatory subunit? (a) cdke (6) cyclin {o} dynein (a) dynactin 7. Synaptonemal complex helps in (a) gamete formation (6) recombination during cell a () production of enzymes during cell division (a) chromosomal movement towards poles 8. Consider the following statements related to mitosis of an animal cell 1, Cells have least amount of DNA in Gy period. 2. The amount of DNA throughout interphase is not constant. 3. A Gq nucleus has maximum amount of DNA. N-DTQ-K-BON/5A Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only fe) 2. and 3 only (d) 1,2 and3 9. Which one of the _ following descriptions best defines hetero- chromatin? (a) Gene-rich regions of chromo- somes enriched in unique sequence of DNA (®) Chromatin that —_ contains junk-DNA’ and considered as ‘evolutionary debris’ (©) Transcriptionally. inactive and highly condensed regions of chromosome (4) DNA rich in tandem repeats of intermediate sequence 10. A deletion in the short arm of chromosome 5 produces in humans a genetic disorder called (a) cri du chat syndrome (b) Down's syndrome () Edwards’ syndrome (4) Patau’s syndrome Po6. aif dais see (MPR) & a AE we tou sdeh i wr fram Pafeftia #8 aa cH Pramas sacs 2? (a) cdk (ore to) area (a) siete 7. qoregh athe Rail aera ae BP (a) wre Pai fo) #iftren Pra & dh Geis () Aran Purse & eet Garett aT eae (@) HA ak pret eet 8.54 Fe & af a wae Prefeftrr saerii a fara fire : 1G) ween Ho aent F ape ara # DNA dar Bi 2. DNA # Hom yf orca & de fr =e cet 3. G) te 4 pa ft aT aftr a 31 N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A ‘ade sort Ha ahaa at 87 (ea 1 oh 2 fo) Fat 1 sie 3 () Fa 2 3K 3 ‘ (dj 1,233 9, rafter 4H 8 wa uA aa, Raw a wale Frew wee 87 (a) yal % as aye a A DNA antic agar ae 8 (o) Bia, Rrai ‘Sis-pNa’ dar & att fa feet wera’ ar sat & () sata: sir ok ym aft data Ba (@) DNA *t nei sa & aya wuatal Fae a 10. yg Ss A ag yet} facies 8 at aa orgie faafa ath 2? (a) Fe Ae dee (ob) Bisa Fae (6) aaa Het (a) Vers eee [P.T.0.11. Consider the following statements 13. Match List-1 with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : Carrier proteins are required for the transport across plasma membrane of Lister List 1. amino acids (Organisms) (Characteristics of 2. glucose Genomes} 3. nucleotides A. Phage X174 1. Linear double- Which of the statements given stranded DNA, above is/are correct? which may form ring (a) 1 and 2 only ) 2 ony B. T Bacteriophage 2. Linear double- stranded DNA, fo) 2 and 3 only but does not form ring (d) 1,2 ana3 c. sv40 3. Circular single- 12, Match List-I with List-Il and select stranded DNA the correct answer using the code given below the Lists D. Phage A 4. Circular, double- stranded DNA List List-IT : (Sex Chromosomes) (Animals) A. XY female, XX male 1. Grasshopper Code : B. XO female, XX male 2. Honeybee C. XX female, XO male 3. Fumea D. 2n female, n male 4. Silkworm @ A Boo D 1 2 4 3 Code : @a BC D oA BOC OD 3 2 1 4 304 2 1 ® A Bc D 3 1 2 4 @ aA BCD A BC D 3 2 4 1 4 3 2 1 mA B Cc D @a Bc D 4 3 1 2 1 4 2 3 N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A 611, Pefefaa eer x fran Fife : ares AA, cera Regt & sea 1, (i ome cia} faq sree & 2. Tate ofaer & fre savas & 3. afters vee S fem AEB andes aerit a ata-m/a wet 8/87 (a) FM 1 she (ob) Br 2 (Baas (@) 1,233 12, H ah @ Ger Fhe a afl SAS fe me ae a eT a A ar are: wit (fer ores) XY AI, XX XO FT, XX A XX FRI, XO R 2n Are, nt We: fa) (b) +o No fo) (a) BP AD OD OD ew oo N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A. Ho Ho wo KO wha (ra) 1 Ra 2. ae Aaah 3. ayfrar 4. whe ro eo fo vo 13. Gi a gia 8 ger Fe wT A D. afet & Ha ume az a san ee a amt gi, ha an (afta) (frit A faster) fist xi74 1. tre fia DNA, fava aa weet & T, Mampiei «2. Yaw fata DNA, A ae ad ara sv40 3. garen waaay DNA ‘faite A 4. qara figgiia DNA ey A 3 io) o> aa » +o vo * c oD 4 3 c D 201 ec oD 4 1 c Dp 2 314, Consider the following statements DNA libraries are prepared from isolated 1. tRNAs 2. TRNAS 3. mRNAs Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 {b) 2 only (} 2and3 (a) 3 only 15. Which of the following statements about DNA is not correct? fa) The double helix is right- handed () The nitrogenous bases are stacked on the inside of the helix () The two strands of the double helix are anti-parallel (d) The bases of the two poly- nucleotides interact. by covalent bonding 16. Acridine dyes such as ICR-170 and ICR-191 are very powerful mutagens that induce (a) point mutations (b) frameshift mutations () thiamine dimer formation (4) suppressor mutations N-DTQ-K-BQN/SA fo 17. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List A. pBR322 1. Vector B. EcoRI 2, Transgenic monkey c. Andy 3. Restriction endonuclease Code : @A BC 102 03 oA BL 2 3 1 oA BC 1 3 2 A B C 3 1 2 . 18. Lesch-Nyhan disorder in humans is (a) sex-linked recessive fb) sex-linked dominant (6) autosomal recessive (a) autosomal dominant 19. Which one of the following terms perfectly defines “genes located on the same chromosome without reference to their —_finkage relationship"? (a) Syntenic (b) Linkage () Linker DNA (a) Inheritance14, Peaferd seit 1 fran Fife : 17. qi a gia & Gita ARe wn

$ . (a) Faw 3 A BOC 2 3 1 15. DNA & fawa A fieafefiaa # a steer par wel TEER? ° ? 2 2 fa) Figgoach aftrorett art 8 @a Bc oy ah A grate Bae A Sh? ak arteta afl 3 18. aal 4 aa-aaer ate (oy Regret 2 cape teen AE (a) Ferrer spare te (@) % vietafercitergt A a (bo) fermr-ereera wore Ste SEMA ore a es Gn Ce) aeoregh amet te 8 «(dy afeoreght woe Bar 8 36 Mia em, BBA eR I7O A pat nel AA, “OS TR 191, pr, Peat ore eMaT HEH | sete 8, Pfs 8 te wat, afte aty” ah gfe ata aa 8? (a) Fey seated (a) Seda (Re) (o) sana Grae) eaters ween fo) mea face Prefer (ce) Hee DNA (d) Prien seated (a) aan N-DTQ-K-BQN/5SA, 920. The crossover percentage between linked genes J and M is 20%, J and L 35%, J and N 70%, L and K 15%, M and N 50%, and M and L 15%. Thus the sequence of genes on the chromosome is (a) J, N,M,L, K fb) J,M,L,N,K (o) J, M,L, K,N (a) M, J, L, K,N 21, If a cell is subjected to ionizing radiations, which one of the following mutations is likely to occur? {a) Transition (b) Transversion () Insertion (d) Deletion 22. Consider the following statements with respect to translation : 1, During elongation process, {RNA with amino acid enters through the P-site of a ribosome. 2. Peptidyl-transferase helps in peptide bond —_ formation between two amino acids. 3. Inside the ribqsome, codon of tRNA fits with the anti- codon of mRNA. 4. A ribosome can accommodate only one tRNA at a time N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A 10 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) land 2 (6) 2,3 and 4 () 2 only (1,3 and4 23. In which of the following groups has the mesogloea reached its highest degree of differentiation? (2) Anthozoa (}) Scyphozoa fe) Hydrozoa, (4) Metazoa 24, Amongst Hydrozoa, colonial forms exhibiting extreme polymorphism of both polyps and medusa are found in (a) Hydroida () Milleporina . (©) Siphonophora (a) Trachylina20. fatima after, weem sy ok M & a 20%, JL ate 35%, J sit N aa 70%, L tk K & ate 15%, M afk N& de 50% wr M at LS de 18% 81 ata: TURE Se ar AGRA AT am? + @ JINMLK (6) J, M,L,N,K () J,M,L,K,N @ MJ, KN 21. aft um afer 8 rarer fafseit & sonfta fen arm @, a) freferftrr saad 48 faa ws & eR A wera ” (a) SeH (bo) Precieateads ( Fawr (a) Petes 22. agar (givde) & wat fi efoto aan fran Fifi : 1, Seffaren samt 3 eer eRNA Bef ora afta ugatetn & pee 8” ean wae He 1 2, déera-gasts a tir ane a dm ters andy fino A aera we 8h 3. uptd & sted am 4 tra a aisit mRNA % sftateia & are wae ti 4. we ugha ww ann dar tRNA & aaritara ae TAT Bi N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A 1 aden wordt #8 at-a/A wel 8/8? (a) 132 () 2,334 (o) War 2 @ 1,334 23. fefafar agi 4 a fa ce a aed, fier A arm A oe Wee ra 8? (a) Raison (b) Sess fo) Begin (a) Raster 24, weginton 48, sii ote gen ahh A eR agawan sefife wa are Praga ‘ee ore ad 8? fa) wrEgiest (bo) Fett fo) aaa (a) Shree [P.7.0.25. Both Hydra and Planaria are metazoans. Though they belong to different phyla, they possess one ‘common interesting feature. What is that common feature? (a) Presence of flame cells (2) Phenomenon of regeneration (c) Polymorphism (d) Bilateral symmetry 26. The body cavity of Ascaris cannot be called coelom, because (a) the cavity is perivisceral (b) the gut and gonads lie within the cavity (o} the cavity contains pseudo- coelomocytes (d) the cavity lacks epithelial Hning 27. Which one of the following is the only member of the class Merostomata of phylum Arthropoda to survive in - the modern times with practically no evolutionary change since this first appeared and is known as living fossil? (a) Acorn worm fo) Barnacle () Limulus (d) Peripatus N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A 12 28. The genus ysis canbe distinguished from mysis larva by the presence of (a) optic stall (b) well-developed telson (co) statocyst (d) biramous thoracic appendages 29. Peritrophic membrane is associated with a part of the digestive system in (a) Ascaris () Nereis (©) Antedon (a) Periplaneta 30, The schizocoelous _coelomates, looking like giant worms but devoid of gut and mouth, belong to (a) Turbellaria (b} Pogonophora (co) Bryozoa (d) Ectoprocta2s. emg att Safer Sai sacrg 81 aaft 2 Radel % 8, weg a we ora afar fatter 2 ae €1 ae awake faea a v (a) sare ARR aA RreATTAT (0) FRET vieeT () 3Rera + (a) acral wate 26. tearte Ae ye TEE (AeA) TA ae waa, wiih (a) er veer 8 (b) aia sit wre, Ter % view safer Bae Co) yea oem aqery et (dd) Te UReiferenA aren Beer 27. frafefaa 4 a wa anit: A Ah Rete ar tee Gara ue 2, at args ana Hoof sffaa &@ ott frat eee adver yee 88% are @ orate wr a aif of Panta chads ai gor att ae sifta citer weer BF (a) Serge (o) Gert (co) feragrer (a) ter N-DTQ-K-BON/SA 28. stra misfire i weft fern @ fest frawrren era fe at aT eT 8? oO) Ae (by erates Ferars fo) waRR-gA (@) feet ata soit 29. Frafetten #8 Peas wea da & oH uM Bates sen weaK BP (a) teahe be) Fe () bisa (4) Weer 30. évige sgt, ot gaa Bhat A wie Read % veg win te ga a eit 8, Preafertrr Ha Read race cad &7 (a) efefear ) sive fo) wea (a) webster31. Torsion and —detorsion are 94, Echinoderms are considered to be phenomena in many molluscs the most evolved invertebrates, leading to the formation of because they asymmetrical body. Spirally twisted shell in these forms may be dextral or sinistral. But such phenomenon is absent in {a} are enterocoelic (b) show resemblance with (a) Helix nemoralis chordates in their embryonic development (b) Anodonta cygnea . (}) have a great power of (6) Pila globosa regeneration (4) Achatina fulica (a) are schizocoelic 32. Gastropods with one gill and one auricle belong to 35. Consider the following : (a) Pulmonata 1. Maxilla 2, Jugal (b) Pectinibranchia 3. Squamosal (6) Pelecypoda 4. Quadrate (4) Scaphopoda Which two bones of the above join to form, the zygomatic arch in the 33. A primitive mollusc represents a sort siull of rabbit? of connecting link between Annelida and Mollusca, Which one of the following is correct? (a) 1 and 2 (a) Limnaea () Neomeni (o) 2 and 3 feomenia fe} Neopitina fe) 2 and 4 (a) Nucuta (a 1and4 N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A, 1431, fiten aft arenas aga 8 stead aA caret wRereand & Sh stant ra 8 eT 3 ofa ait #1 wert A afte Ba waa cftonad sia arad a aaa fi eq teh use Aafia 4 a fa gutta 8? ieee tere Citeter feftar ‘argent reitater ea vara @ co) co (a) 32. Aegis fired we acim sik eH aftr aT 4, Profits 4 @ frat warn vad 8? (a) yeitrer (b) Yetta () Yafertar (a) erste 33, wm snftn areas eer sit ries & fa ww van A dash set Prafta ae 81 Peifettaa 4 8 ata-ar wH ae 8? (a) fear (0) Priitfear fe) Praitereferr (@) aR N-DTQ-K-BQN/SA 34, Gaeted watts fasta crate an am &, wife a lay sizafees te % @) set pha fre waft & aoa weftia a fo) yrearar A seq aera waa & @ eiga | 35. Praftttra « Prax afc : ade 4 a aha vient ae, ‘aoia & at? 4, tisaa A wen wef # fa) 13th 2 ) 233 fo 234 (@ ise 1s [P.T.0.36. The classification of reptiles is based on (a) the presence or absence of epidermal scales on the body (b) the presence or absence of temporal fossae in the skull () the presence or absence of cleidoic eggs (d) the presence or absence of movable eyelids 87. Exposed external gill slits, jaws and lack of bony endoskeleton are the characteristics of (a) Agnatha fb) Osteichthyes (c) Chondrichthyes (d) Choanichthyes 38. Presence of foramen of Panizzae is an important characteristic of (a) Chetonia (®) Ophidia (6) Crocodilia (@) Cotylosauria N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A 16 Chimaera monstrosa (ratfish) is an example of an aberrant group of cartilaginous fish which belongs to (a) Actinopterygii (b) Chondrostei () Holostei (a) Holocephali 40, The ampulla of Lorenzini is the organ which is fa} present on dorsal and ventral surfaces of the head of sharks, embedded in the skin and acts as thermoreceptor organ (®) present on the ventral surface of the body of sharks, embedded in the skin and acts as lubricating organ () present in the membranous labyrinth of sharks and acts as balancing organ (d) present in the water vascular system of starfishes and acts as locomotory organ36. atigit ar afar Fieatatian 48 Pra a arent 8? fq) wie H afta ea A Rema carer RETA ®) aie 4 tae act A Perr arr afer () war ows A Rem seat ‘safererrta (@) Fa vert A faery reat afer 87. saga ae wie fox, sad afk ofa wafer oraarrra Pirafafian 42 feat ‘fatten 2? (a) rar (b) siifeadiia fo) igs (a) Bret 38, Uff iy frefafar #8 Rah went ‘faftrem 8? (a) reife () aéifen fo) wratfeferen (ay, afecirehean N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A. a7 a 39. aiefta aigtar (een) safer ate 3 we fame wag eT sere RI ae Rrafafiaa 4 8 Read are Tare 8? (a) BRaTaRRIOTE (b) ister fo) etree (a) Betas 40. chit dian em sin t, (a) wed & vid & sate atte ae eae Hate &, erat A opaeentta ane ait WH mend ain & wy tard wat (y) wed & uth % ann wee & Re Bean 8, wea H oraeatia di 8 ik tes Fem 3i7 & oy Fal aT & fo) wrel & Hen Afafew F fees ar Bat w ayer on} wr a ad ame (a) wane & wa dae da # Re ta? sh we wee an & ard acer & ‘ {P.7.0.41, Which one of the following is absent 43. Which one of the _ following in Bugula? statements on Sycon is correct? (a) Avicularium (a) It is profusely found in rivers, lakes and ponds (b) U-shaped alimentary canal () In it, asexual reproduction is totally absent (©) Lophophore () No larval form has been (d) Definitive excretory organs reported (@) During sexual reproduction, the choanocytes act as carrier cells 42. If the activity of the contractile vacuole in Amoeba is experi- mentally inhibited, the protozoon 44. ‘Apolysis’ process in Taenia signifies certain changes in which (a) instantly undergoes binary fission, and develops new (a) mature —proglottids get contractile vacuoles, one each detached from the body in the two daughter cells () immature proglottids become (®) forms a cyst around itself, and sexually mature waits for a favourable time and condition () gravid proglottids are detached from the body (6) contracts, and finally appears as a mini-animalcule (4) mature proglottids form male and female reproductive (d) swells, and may finally burst organs N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A 1841. frfits 4 8 aaa w ge A gate 8? fa) Rhegethaa (b) U-SteRR Ft ATR ATA (co) ae (a) oa area 3 42. aR afer A eget ant A ete A vino ws 2 afta fat sre, a stator (a) aeera frafiea Barat %, ak aE genta uf, at dah Aisi 7 Gus, fata a ane 0) we a st we gS A oe aT 8, ae orgie ara ott GRAB AL setter are fo Hehe Oana 8, sk ora: oH ag weqe A wife vee wars (a) RH See &, sit sea: weve a want N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A. 19 43, fefafad sad 2 a aaa UH aTgair & fava i aa 2? fa) me AR, sed gen eA A EET Fora ame fo) eR ores sam pia: sIgafeed & (co) ag Reeve wy sel ae Here (a Se var} ter Festa ree Sita A axe ard ah 8 Bitar F ‘oritee’ sann Pifara oid Reara % ft (a) situs teens, ara a fem a ad & &) antes teas, Shs er 8 atom aaa t () swap teave, wa a fae a aT g (a) Tiere Brave, a sit Ae SA sit A cen eae {P.7.0,46. Inw! 45. The infective juvenile of Ascaris moults for the third time to form the fourth larva, Where does it take place among the following? (a) In the soil outside the host body (6) In the intestine of the host () In the alveoli of tungs of the host (d) In the right side of heart of the host +h segments of the earthworm, blood from the supracesophageal blood vessel is directed into the ventral blood vessel? (a) 7th and 9th (6) 10th and 11th () 12th and 13th (a) 9th and Lith 47. Which of the following sets of parts/constituents of the body of Pheretima is associated with excretion? fa) Chlorogogen cells. and nucleated cells (b) Mucocytes and Chlorogogen cells (c) Phagocytes and Chlorogogen cells (4) Phagocytes and Mucocytes N-DTQ-K-BQN/SA, 20 In Palaemon, the numbers . of cephalic, thoracie and .abdominal appendages are fa} 05, 08 and 06 respectively (b) 06, 07 and 06 respectively () 06, 06 and 07 respectively (d) 07, 07 and 05 respectively 49. With reference to scorpion, consider the following statements : 1, Its respiratory pigment includes copper-containing protein. 2. Its coxal glands help in reproduction. Its book lungs are the respiratory organs. 4. Its heart consists of seven chambers, Which of the statements given above are correct? *” (a) 1,2, 3 and 4 (&) 1,2 and 3 only () 1,3 and 4 only (d) 2,3 and 4 only48. teatia a1 tame are atatt an Praifea ae a fer A ow aa t FProiferftad # 8 ae wet vt ter 8? (a) UA we ae TT (b) weath H tia FH fo) eae Soest A aeaH F (dy Wah % ea A ari sik 46. Fqe Ba wrt toe, after saftear 8 ore ce area aa sen Bat BF (a) Tat ak oat (o) oat aft iat () l2at sit 13at (@ sais ai 47, Rn A wa F sisifnest farafan ager Fa seals 8 aH wafata 8? fa) Wittiss aAftrend ott Fafa after (bo) RagiaeTE sik aero Fifer fo) vererg oft aetvise aAfrane, (ay seg otk FasETETE N-DTQ-K-BOQN/SA. a 48, defi 4 frees, aaa sh seta ait sien fit 87 (a) () ( (a) wT: 05, 08 06 HAM: 06, 07 sft 06 wAT: 06, 06 3K 07 BAM: 07, 07 aft 05 49, frog & oev a frafefes eect x fren fee: 1. we am tae Fangs tae wate 81 et tt oat wre A err ah f wee Ye Papa er 3 31 wah wee 8 ara he A EI wade wait 4a ara ad & (a) (bo) c} (a) 1,2, 39R4 Fam 1, 293. faa 1, 3 att 4 faa 2, 33k 450. Epimeron in the appendages of prawn is a structure which (a) connects the appendages to its pleuron by a plate (®) forms the base of maxillary appendages fc) cushions the chelate leg base {d) cushions the non-chelate appendages $1. The common garden snail, Pila globosa, lays its eggs fa) in singles in water (6) in a mass that floats in water (ein a mass attached to aquatic plants {a} in a mass on moist soil 52. What is the correct sequence of the course of blood circulation in Pila? (a) Heart -» cephalic aorta — perivisceral sinus — branchio- renal sinus — ctenidium (b) Heart - perivisceral sinus cephalic aorta —» branchiorenal sinus — ctenidium (e) Heart > cephalic aorta > branchiorenal sinus — perivis- ceral sinus — ctenidium (a) Heart > branchiorenal sinus > perivisceral sinus + cephalic aorta ~ ctenidium. N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A, 22 53. Which of the following functions performed by Tiedemann’s bodies in starfishes is correct? (a) They are digestive glands (b) They are excretory glands (0) They are reproductive bodies (d) They are lymphatic glands to manufacture the amoebocytes 54. Which of the following statements is not correct for Balanoglossus? (a) Notochord runs from end to end of the body and extends to the head region (2) Paired and median fins. are present () Notochord persists throughout the life (d) The larva of Balanoglossus is known as tornaria larva50, at & sail A cemrdas ow deer 8, ot fq) sit aA we weds Bow oar aa sted & (0) eA et ar sree aaa 8 (wef ae eran @ sour eR Be (a) wat sail A sou vert He B Si. ara sam then, wee aaa (a) Gat Hae F avs Az (b) WBA wd Far B, St set A free (c) Bae 4, sete cent S cen, ses tat (a) Bag A am BT aM’ aE (82. Tee Hee acer at om Eh ame? (a) wea Pare ere > aa aa + wigs aa 5 apa ) wt > win a 5 fier wun o wihgle ax aa fe) Ba Ree ae — aah alas wlan ater + Facet (@) 4 — wiegdte Ba — waco wa + fire were = aaa N-DTQ-K-BQN/SA. Fe 23 83, Prafetan 4 8 aren Het & aa Reot ‘are Pare Si are aaa aT we BP (a) ae ae g fb) 3 seats aeat ( Asnant fa) -& softens & fret & feng crete aifeeat & 84, frefafter 4 a ata wea acheter & fare art aR? fa) Jorg arr TH ARS QR AR aH teeth ahd da aes Peg 8 () ata she nena wa Rea Wee fe) Yoreg Staats a4 wet & (a) aeeincitae a fora tetera weer & {P.7.0.85. Which one of the following reptiles has a complete secondary palate? {a} Crocodile fo) Lizard (©) Snake (d) Tortoise 56. In Scoliodon, the base of the placoid scale is tied with the stratum compactum by (a) vitro-dentine (} Sharpey’s fibre (©) prototrochs | (@)_ stratum germinativum 87, Filter feeding is basically found in a number of invertebrates and protochordates. However, this phenomenon is seen in one mammal. Which is the animal in question? () Dolphin (6) Sperm whale fc) Walrus (a) Baleen whale N-DTQ-K-BQN/5SA, $8. The additional salivary gland present in canine species is (a) molar gland () retrolirigual gland (c) orbital gland (a) Harder’s gland 59. In which of the following, the pneumatic duct arises from the ventral side of oesophagus? (a) Acipenser (b) Sturgeon (6) Ceratodus (a) Lepidosiren 60. In Columba, name the aortic arch which lost its connection with the dorsal aorta (a) Left third arch () Fourth arch (o) Fifth arch (a) Right sixth arch 248s. frefrfea ated #8 fre we HF wept rim arg dian 8? fa) Hr fo) Rreech () wt a) war 86. maifeoitst 4 vem wew a TER ea aeitteen & ara fraferfisd 1 a faa am aan tia 2? (a) fag (&) aR ore (om) (o) wR (a) Ben aR Ra 87, Pera aa apm: afte spite oft shat A gen oer 1 werk ae uiven daa ww art Hot tah ari & weaetts seq ar-a 8? (a) seta (o) eH er () are (a) Feta N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A, 25 88. Tam on Fata fein am-2he froma eth 2? (a) =i of &) sere oF (c) Arata of (a) wecnte 89. frafafian 4 8 fa wa A arate ane afta & sre aM a sera Belt 87 (a) Reiter (oy efter () ater (a) ashen 60. sicrar 4 ae wera am a aT aaTER fret sre datos ye Heron @ OE aT ferme fay ari ated ara (oy ear () wala (a) wi waa [P.T.0.61. Which one of the _ following vertebrates retains the left systemic arch? (a) Frog (o} Lizard (o) Pigeon (a) Ret 62. Urinary bladder is absent in all « birds, except (a) duck @) gull (owt (a) ostrich 63. Thermoregulatory _ centre in mammals is located in | (a) pons Varolii (b) floccular lobes | (c) hypothalamus (2) corpus callosum 64, Which of the following is not a function of sympathetic nervous system? (a) Increase in blood sugar (b) Rise in blood pressure (c) Decrease in clotting time of blood (d)_ Constriction of bronchi N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A, 26 65. Consider the following statements : Coenzyme 1. is necessary for the active state of an enzyme 2. remains unchanged at the end of reaction 3. is non-protein in nature Which of the statements given above are correct? (@ 1,2 and3 (&) 2 and 3 only (1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only 66. Which one of the following is a common feature of faciliteted transport and active transport? (2) Both involve expenditure of energy . (®) Both” involve membrane transport proteins () In both, transport takes place necessarily from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration (4) Both can take place in either direction irrespective of concen- tration gradient61. 62. 63. 64. ‘Prafeian aaefeal 2 8 aaa we 9 ‘aral Sf ara ay arare a 87 (a) tem (bo) erent fo) aR a Prfaftrr ta fa oe at olgat ail ‘afeeat A agers argafera eat 8? (aq) We (o) abr () 3m (4) wet et Ba os wee (a) Sa Seng fo) sofia ae fe) wetter (a) rita deter Prafeftaa 4 8 ata-m we gard afer aaa ard et 8? fa) we ada ge (o) wea a fe fe) TRS oa a are a fra (a) -waPrat # afte N-DTQ-K-BON/SA. 65, frafeftan seri 1 fran Afr : Rea 1, tare A aia fea & fae srs & 2. attire A wait a sattafta teat z 3. FaeT a ante 8 wade ser § 8 a-8 ad #7 (@) 1,233 (6) FAI 2 IS () Fa 1 3K Ss (@) FIA SRD 66. frafafad 48 aha um cam orig stare otk aitra oftaer & ovate 87 (a) Ba wal an ant afer 8 (o) SAF Ra oR aaa afRaea & fo) Wi A, chow sree a 2 Te wine are @a 8 fel Bixm ara Ba Aah dae (@) ai, wiza vam we ge A A, ‘Farah oft fen F at wat F s[P.T.0.67. Which one of the following compounds is an inhibitor of Na*-K* pump? (@) Arsenol (6) Dicumarol (c) Ouabain (d) Phlorizin 68. Consider the following statements : 1, Black leopard can be found in ‘Western Ghats. 2. Snow leopard. is found only in Arunachal Pradesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only () 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d} Neither 1 nor 2 69. Most of the energy is liberated in the cells by oxidation of carbohydrates when (2) pyruvic acid is converted into acetyl CoA () pyruvic acid is converted into CO, and H,0 {) glucose is converted into pyruvic acid (d) glucose is converted into alcohol and CO2 N-DTQ-K-BQN/SA 28 70. Oxidation of nutrients in catabolism releases energy which drives the synthesis of (a) cyclic AMP (b) AMP (o) ADP (a) ATP ‘71. The protoplasm essentially contains various types of proteins, which differ structurally as well as on the basis of their water solubility, like fibrillar, conjugated, globular, ete. Which one of the following groups belongs to conjugated globular protein? (a) Pscudoglobulin, histone protamine, (6) Chromoprotein, glycoprotein, nucleoprotein () Euglobulit , protamine, ghutelin (4) Albumin, elastin, collagen 72. Among the following types of proteins, which one is the simple water-soluble globular protein molecule? (a) Collagen () Albumin () Elastin (@) Keratin67. Preafefia #8 a-a zife Nat-K* ny ar tien 2? fa) siti (b) BreggRIA () stoma (a) seta 68. Prefettnd seri x fran fe: 1 eer agen vet ae Fa a waa BI 2. few gon Sact sree we A sre ‘rat 1 sade ert 4 8 ata-a/a adi 8/8? (a) Fa 1 (o) aa 2 ( 132 et @) amis a2 69. ariel & aterm ga arena F after sal ae ae 8, 7a (a) TBR a, Uh CoA ‘warata git (@) RR sr, CO, ak HO F ‘wort ea (© aga, wets ana A wate ame (@) Taga, Water sk co, @ waratea eter & N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A. | 70, wT A teal & viaert A gH eA arch sai Prafafisa #2 feat dear ah ctenfera ae 87 (a) =a ame (o) AMP () ADP (a) ATP 71. Sager 4 Pifra war A std arog wa ad % aera a a wa freer %& ature a fr def %, 38 f Tarde, dafta, Teer eae Frrafefion 3.8 staan we aR tights vifferamma sida @ weary act 8? (a) Bereta, ste, fee () *risitéa, rereahhs, vafrerit- we fo) wchafen, stir, eefer (@ %aPr, eafea, Fee 72, Prafeferd wan A std Aa ta ow ace we FRAT Ho Se ory BP (a) #er ) Rafer (o) wean (ay) Rea a (RTO,73. Which one of the _ following compounds cannot give rise to the net synthesis of glucose? (a) Acetyl coenzyme A * (b) Glycerot (6) Lactate (d) Oxaloacetate 74. In which one of the following groups of chemicals, all are neurotransmitters? (a) Somatostatin, serotonin, acetyl- choline (®) Noradrenaline, somatostatin, threonine (c) Glycine, dopamine, melatonin (d) Acetyicholine, noradrenaline, dopamine 75. Consider the following statements : 1, Saxitoxin is produced by certain species of marine dinoflagellates. 2. Saxitoxin is neurotoxin that acts , as selective sodium channel blocker. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only () 2 only () Both 1 and 2 (@) Neither 1 nor 2 N-DTQ-K-BQN/SA 76. GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid), which is released from the brain, is (a) excitatory (b) inhibitory (o) mixed type (d) sensory 77. In addition to heme of cytochromes a and ag, cytochrome oxidase also contains two atoms of (a) copper () magnesium (sulphur (@ nitrogen 78. Consider the following events in muscle contraction : 1. Action potential depolarizes the T-tubules, 2. Calcium binds to troponin- tropomyosin complex. ‘Actin combines with myosin ATP. leading to cross-bridge activation. 4, Depolarization of T-tubules releases calcium from sarco- plasmic reticulum. ‘What is the correct sequence of the above? (a) 2-1-3-4 fo) 143-2 fe) 1-42-38 (d) 21-4-373. Prafarn ated a ahaa Um ate wr tz dea Sia ae a THT? (a) eee wear A (oy Fever (ce) tae (ay sitatrctetiz 74, Reafitaa wart & wei § 2 fea ww eh diferent 87 (a) WRAORa, RAPA, Blast ) REAR, ARAVA, Resists fo) vere, eharta, Aerial (a) tiResttea, ater, daria 75, frafefad set 1 fran Af : 1 daha, wh aented & Bo seit % are seankea ae 81 2, tala we afisnts t,t aera aifeam after sates sffe ard een 1 argos art 8a atrmrya we 8/87 (a) Fra 1 (b) Fa 2 fe) 132 ai @ rissa N-DTQ-K-BQN/SA. 31 76. GABA (am-teittieyfeits ara), ot wifes @ fides gar’, (a) sire (bo) Frere (o) Fafa rea ® (a) Fae 77. ate a at a, % Om % sfties ardain ofeida | fafatar # a Faea St very sf ea €? (a) 7H fo) Beira fo) Wm (a) TR 78. eh dg 4 EA arch Fafa sensi 1 free aif: 1. fear fava T-afterst a frye. waa) 2, Stem, aia ge 2 og & ara 81 3. Offer, ar ATP & are data ax sie-fia afm A oh a ‘rar 21 4. Tafel a faystem aeitzer ‘soften @ &ffeem Fifes acer 81 ‘ag ar eet aoa aT? (a) 2-1-3-4 ) 143-2 ) 142-3 () 21-43 [P.7.0.79. Which one of the following glycolytic 82. Consider the following physiological enzymes is inhibited by fluoride? processes : 1, Substrate level phosphoryla- + (@ Lactate dehydrogenase tion i 2. Citric acid cycle (®) Pyruvate kinase 3. Oxidative phosphorylation | Pl 4. Boxidation ! (¢) Brolase Which of the above are common | to carbohydrate and fatty acid (@) Hexokinase cataboliom? fa) 1 and 2 80, An enzyme, hexokinase, which catalyzes glucose to glucose-6- @) Land 3 phosphate in glycolysis, is inhibited () 2and3 by ghucose-6-phosphate. This is an example for (@) land 4 (a) feedback allosteric inhibition 83. Mammals have several classes of hormones distinguishable by their mode of action, Which one of the following groups of hormones acts through nuclear receptor? {b). positive feedback inhibition (¢) competitive inhibition (a) Peptide, amine and eicosanoid (d) non-competitive inhibition (b) Peptide, steroid and retinoid (c) Steroid, retinoid and thyroid 81. When necessary, pyruvate can be {d) Steroid, retinoid | and converted to oxaloacetate in a eicosanoid reaction catalyzed by. pyruvate carboxylase. Pyruvate carboxylase 84, lowing hh is activity is enhanced by Which of the following hormones is proteinaceous in nature and is secreted by steroid-producing organ. fa) ATP under special physiological state? 0) cAMP (a) Epinephrin () Noradrenaline () citrate js (c} Thyroxin (d) acetyl CoA (dy Relaxin N-DTQ-K-BON/5A 32 bo79, Prafattas 4 8 alae wa tenget-staet Ursngs Fysitegs are wefra een 8? (a) date Steregheita (b) wigeae IgE () Site (a) Pedra 80. wH Taner Radiargta, of renget-sevae Agate a aqaie-6-siehe 1 sate areat &, Tapta-6-wiee an Heft een Bi ag Perera sere 8? (a) yoke sch er fb) Saree pater a (o) fecaifren Prete (a) caste Pate 81. sTarERATA, TRete aiaiefte aT ‘wali afte H areeae artatettteidz unaa ot weer &1 rete wider A aera H ferares wre gf aie 8? (a) ATP (6) cAMP Ree (a) Bifea Coa N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A 33 82, Rafafia akira ae on fen Afra: 1, fraren en siesta 2, Fates sree a 3, ortatrch cesta 4, ate-atfaetrer oe 2 8 aha aioe an za Sees HTH A ae? (a) 132 ) 133 () 23mR3 (iain 83, cand wie & re at > eile oe are & ft seh Perf & smn a fate $1 Prater wa wagh 8 a ow mapetta oft 3h eae & fer a 8? (a) Page, tir stk omeateas () Rares, Raia sik taaias () Pras, thiae stk aria (a) Rts, arias sit arpAeatas 94, frafefa 4 8 shea aM ve a ‘eri 3 wen ag Rtas fet at aT oi 8 fate recor feat A aria ear ig fa) UROBR 0) FRA fo) eae (a) Raf [P. 7.0.85. Which one of the following groups 88. The process that sperm undergoes in is of nutritionally essential amino female genital, tract of mammals acids? before fertilization is called (a) Tyrosine, valine, tryptophan (a) decapacitation (&) Glycine, cystine, valine (b) capacitation (c) Histidine, isoleucine, threonine . - () activation (d) Tryptophan, leucine, glycine (d) deactivation 86. Which of the following isomeric forms are biologically active in 89. The type of enzymes released by - mammals? sperm acrosome at the time of acrosome reaction during {a} D-amino acids and D-sugars fertilization is (®) D-amino acids and L-sugars (a) ligase (6) L-amino acids and L-sugars (b) peptidase (@) L-amino acids and D-sugars fo) hydrolase 87. The middle piece of a mammalian (a) dehydrogenase sperm includes which one of the following sets of structures? 90. In cutherian mammals, the extra- (a) Golgi apparatus, mitochondria ‘embryonic membrane(s) taking part and centriole in the formation of placenta is/are (®) Golgi apparatus, mitochondria (a) yolk sac and axial filament (b) allantois () Golgi apparatus, centriole and axial filament () yolk sac and chorion (@) Mitochondria, centriole and axial filament (d) chorion and allantois N-DTQ-K-BQN/SA 34 ee| 85, Rrafafd 48 Aa-m UH aay Hoos: sraere tet seit ar 2? (a) aettter, afta, Frat (b) rare, Rede, Seta (o) Reeds, anetephs, fuerte (@) Rats, agin, wee 86, Rrafafan 4 a ata-3 caren “oO 20 NO {P.7.0.111, Webbed neck and sexual infantilism 114. In a shallow lentic habitat, which are the characteristic features of (a) Mongolism (b) Klinefetter's syndrome () Turner's syndrome (a) Trisomy 13-15 112, Which of the following is the genetic disorder of humans which occurs due to criss-cross inheritance of recessive genes? (a) Huntington's chorea (0) Haemophilia (6) Pernicious anaemia (@) Thalassemia 113. Consider the following statements : 1. Annual changes in tem- perature in aquatic environ- ments are more marked in temperate freshwater climates than in other climates. 2. ‘Temperature is the major factor in the creation of ocean currents and air currents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Neither 1 nor 2 N-DTQ-K-BQN/5A. 42 zone is most productive? (a) Littoral (b) Profundal (6) Pelagic (a) Limnetic 115. In which of the following secondarily aquatic animals is blubber present? (a) Carcharodon carcharias (b) Balaenoptera musculus () Chimaera (d) Hydrophis 116. Consider the following statements : 1, Marine fishes drink water to solve the problem of dehydration. 2. The glomeruli of marine fishes are well-vascularized. 3. In marine fishes, the loss of salt is kept at minimum level by active re-absorption in the proximal segment of the renal tubule, Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (®) 1 and 2 only () 2 and 3 only (a) 1,2 and3Lia, sree set ate after Argan Frees fe ‘aero Bt 8? fa) itera (bo) Rergrteeet Hee fo) Gh Hicter ‘ - (a) Vaaferggat 13-15 112. Pefafee 4 a aa-m wa sngafire fran spree Sia & fasta darmfa & ‘are tat 8? : (a) een sien (&) erie (c) Woehh Tere (a een 113, Praftftrs seri oe fran fire : 1, wete setae fare 4 afta: rar, atten arcane seg wr sea serge oftrs siftea dat 81 2. wed wast ot ay-vare A BE A ares Yor are ear 8 sages aert 4 8 aha-a1/a wet 2/8? (a) Fa 1 ) Raa 2 ©) 13k 2 et (@ rami shah N-DTQ-K-BQN/SA Fi 114, 30a wil soara 3 ata-a aa waa saftres Serres Siar 7 (a) Raise ) Steer to) Fareed (a) ate 118. Prafefta fidtaaa: wefa wrt a a ‘reel fata feerara ef 8? (a) Bnemntels arastios (&) acticin meager (o) argh (a) Brg ie, Prafertirs wert a fran fifa : 1, wah ta Aeetier A weN ware & fog te oH eB 2. RBA a & yoo yee BA 9. aA af A, gar afr weed ‘ave afta greaeter gre rat 3 ea Pe BTR WaT aT aI ard ert 8 aaa /8 wet 8/8? (a) aa 1 b) Fra 1 a2 () Fra 2 33 @ 1,233 a IR.T.O.117. Match List-I with il and select 119. Consider the following statements : the correct answer using the code given below the Liste + 1. The slothbear is mainly nocturnal. List-t List-I 2. The V-shaped patch of white A. Desert 1. Gibbon on the chest is distinguishing ‘adaptation feature of slothbear. B, Fossorial 2. Naked mole rat Which of the statements given ‘adaptation above is/are correct? - C. Scansorial 3. Opossum adaptation fa) 1 only h D. Arboreal 4. Horned toad adaptation (b) 2 only . 1 Code : (o) Both 1 and 2 . @A B Cc D 1 2 3 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 o) A Bo C D 1 32 4 120, With reference to environmental lution, consider the following A Bc D Statements | 4 3 2 1 ‘ 1. Organic phosphates are degrad- . @ ‘ , S ° able chemical insecticides 2, Chlorinated hydrocarbons 118. Consider the following pairs depress photosynthesis of marine phytoplankton but have no adverse effect on aquatic animals. 1. Secondary aquatic animal: Exocoetus 2. Desert fauna of India * + Uromastyx Which of the statements given 3. Seawater animal : Daphnia above is/are correct? I Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only fa) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1 () Both 1 and 2 () 2 only (a) 1,2 and 3 (a) Neither 1 nor 2 fb) 2 only N-DTQ-K-BON/5A, 44 po‘afaal & 9 Re me ge wT eI a ae at Big: wa war AL We SRST 1, Fre Ce Cc. ati aggen 3. sinter D. aata agg 4. Pe ei @ A B Cc D 12 3 4 oA BoC OD 19302 4 @ aA Bc D 4 3°21 @a Bc D 4 2 3 1 aie, Prafaftra got o Pian Aig: 1. Reetaor ata wet: ewatefcer 2, ama an me mfr: qhiiaw 3, wauicte ah Sor wage gt 4a aaa at Ge 8/8 Gq) Fra sk 2 ) Fat 2 3 (o) FAI (1,233 N-DTQ-K-BQN/5SA. 117, Gu a qu 2 gta AR en 4 119. feats seri a fear Af: 1, te gers after aa ti 2. Fa TR V-aAT a Ae ear Te aT faite cara aa 21 sede wert 4 & at-an/2 wh 4/87 (a) Fa 1 (bo) a2 fo) 132 at @) TH aire 2 120, watawie yew & wel # Reafeittad seri & fran Fifi : 1, adits witke fetewia cere Feat BE 2. mittig¢ omer ag yeweaat & ware-aete aT reer ca acy sete sre ae ‘ren ag saftey aura El Ste sage aerit 4 2 ata-ai/a whl 8/8? (a) ¥aa1 () Wa 2 @ 132 at @ amismae2 [P.7. 0.SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK N-DTQ-K-BQN/5SA 46Fe SPACE FOR.ROUGH,WORK a ‘ nae N-DTQ-K-BQN/SA a7 BS—29*500Wa we sro ae uta yfeter Ute st eet oe we aH Ti aisha. : N-DTQ-K-BQN Uttar gfe aaa wR ae 29477 afterot yfeteat , siftr-feart wma: due, quits ; 300 Hayate r ‘etter sree ge we, a ge er yea oA apr ora aA Fe aH fear our, wet + or ET BT BB stan ei oe AL aA ef, a RAL AU eT fete @ meer ste sero Hah cere ey Utero Gre STEM A, B, C ar D wenftaft ew we a Een AARC este gan ara Re me tex Fone) oar agai fren 81 vam yRVaT TK atk Bw 7 AE 4. Sa ater yee 4 120 varie (sea) faq EL wes main Fees ote ait A om BL uke ee A ar seat (Set) FR Te BL A Aw Mega al BS, Ra one seer oe air wT wT Bae aTTED fer a PR GeO aatew mae wel & at oe se a sift SE ST soe Taam THY aril evi fare Sas we at eg gen ty S. ae al mt wegMe are @ Re me ae-Tae Tt sia we 8 sas Fe me Hee Am 6. wh weit Fi sis wa 2) 7. et eA PH og Ter year & faa wei S eR Tas we sir seT YS Si, anal way wana & ara ta set 3 oer ge fran sacra HE 8. ay aie} woh seg a seas a Bs are ae wee Bs Mae we Sere se sitar A aa By | sa) on} arm tiem efit & anh oA 1 9. a8 am & fore wre wtlam YS } ora Faw £1 : 10. wera sett & fore aE: wghte srr-wat # saftcan are fq ae mera awh & fore eve eqn wTeT (5) sede re 3 fry ae Aer see BL eee weer wet wer & fe fle ne aw eet ae fore wer Be, Fran fam my sil a um-ferg (0-33) wwe % AH aT TTT (Gi) WR AE Sehean eH a safe oe 2a &, ah ee eC ATT SET, TUR Re Te oH AA UH ER we aiar 8, Ref ge yea rq aedengen wet ae a we fear STEM (ii) AR Sezer are SAE eA Ger aE fen aren 8 see Hea aT Tae el Pe are 8, a get eH | FR aig eve wal fea aTET! wa aa orca ae ute ofan Gest at a wet we ae wa FT Titel Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the front cover of this Booklet. bo gs