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Potassium Potassium
Chlorate chloride
(iii) To indicate the conditions under which the reaction takes place. If the reaction takes place
in presence of a catalyst then the symbol or the formula of the catalyst is also written above or
below the arrow sign in the equation e.g.
3000C, 300 atm
CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH
Carbon Hydrogen ZnO+CrO3 methanol
Monoxide (catalyst)
Q.7): When you mix the solutions of lead nitrate and potassium iodide.
Textual Questions
SECTION - A
Q.1): Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?
Ans: Magnesium ribbon when exposed to humid air forms a white layer of magnesium oxide
over it.
2Mg + O2 2MgO (Magnesium oxide)
This oxide layer prevents it from burning. Therefore, to burn magnesium ribbon, the oxide
layer is first peeled off by rubbing it with sand paper.
SECTION - B
Q.1): A solution of a substance “X” is used for white washing.
(i) Name the substance “X” and write its formula.
Ans) The substance ―X‖ used for white washing is quick lime (calcium oxide). The formula of ‗
Q.2) Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test tubes, double of the amount
collected in the other on electrolysis of water? Name this gas
Ans) On electrolysis water decomposes into hydrogen gas and oxygen gas as follows:-
Electric
2H2O(l) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)
current
From the above equation, it is clear that Hydrogen and oxygen gas are produced in the
ratio of 2:1 by volume. Therefore the volume of hydrogen gas produced is double to that
of oxygen. Because of the reason the amount of gas collected in one of the test tube is
double than the other and the name of the gas is hydrogen.
SECTION - C
Q.1) Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution changes when an iron nail is
dipped in it?
Ans: The colour of the solution is below due to the presence of copper sulphate, when iron nail
is dipped into the copper sulphate solution, iron being more reactive than copper, displaces
Cu from copper sulphate resulting in the formation of iron sulphate.
Fe(S) + CuSO4 (aq) FeSO4(aq) + Cu(S)
Therefore, the blue in colour of copper sulphate fades due to formation of iron sulphate.
Q.2) Give an example of a double displacement reaction other than the one between barium
chloride and sodium sulphate solutions.
Ans) The reaction between silver nitrate and sodium chloride is an example of double
displacement reaction.
AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) AgCl(S) + NaNO3(aq)
Silver Nitrate Sodium Chloride Silver chloride Sodium Nitrate
Q.3) Identify the substances oxidized and the substances reduced in the following
reactions.
(i) 4Na(S) + O2(g) 2Na2O(S)
(ii) CuO(S) + H2(S) Cu(S) + H2O(l)
Ans)
(i) 4Na(S) + O2(g) 2Na2O(S)
In this reaction, oxygen gets added to Na. Therefore, sodium gets oxidized into Na2O and
oxygen itself gets reduced. Therefore in this reaction the substance which gets oxidised is
sodium and the substance which gets reduced is oxygen. Therefore in this reaction the
substance which gets oxidixed is hydrogen and the substance which gets reduced is CuO.
(ii) CuO(S) + H2(S) Cu(S) + H2O(l)
CuO loses oxygen and gets reduced to Cu and the released oxygen gets added to
hydrogen, therefore, hydrogen gets oxidised.
SECTION - D
Q.1) Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect ?
2 PbO (s) + C(s) 2 Pb (s) + CO2 (g)
(a) lead is getting reduced (b) carbon dioxide is getting oxdidized.
(c ) carbon is getting oxidized (d) lead oxide is getting reduced.
(i) (a) and (b) (ii) (a) and (c )
(iii) (a) (b) and (c ) (iv) All
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
The word equation is as follows:
Potassium + water Potassium hydroxide + Hydrogen gas
Q.13) What is difference between displacement and double displacement reactions? Write
equations for the reactions.
Ans) Displacement reactions: Displacement reactions are also called as substitution reactions.
The reactions in which an atom or group of atoms in a molecule is displaced by another
atom or group of atoms are called as displacement reactions. During displacement reaction
a less active element is displaced by a more reactive element from its compound.
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
2Cu + 2AgNO3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag(s)
Cl2(g) + 2NaBr(aq) 2NaCl + Br2(l)
Double displacement reaction: A chemical reaction in which there is an exchange of
atoms or group of atoms between the reactants to form new substances is called a double
displacement reaction. The reactions generally occurs in aqueous medium and such double
displacement reactions take place with the: (a) Formation of precipitate (b) Evolution of
a gas (c) Change in colour, e.g.
BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) BaSO4 ↓ + 2NaCl(aq)
Barium chloride sodium sulphate (Barium Suplhate)
(white ppt) sodium chloride
Lesson No. 2
Periodic Classification of Elements
Conceptual Questions
Q.1) Why is there need for classifications of Elements?
Ans. There are 115 elements (natural and synthetic) known till now. It is very difficult to study
the properties of all these elements separately. To ease out this problem, there is necessity
of classifying these elements into groups having some what similar properties. Based upon
similarities in physical and chemical properties, various elements have been arranged in
several groups or families in order to simplify and systematize the study of these elements.
The arrangement of putting the elements with similar properties together and separating
the elements with dissimilar properties from one another is known as classification of
elements and the table which classifies the elements into such families is called the
periodic table.
Dobereiner‟s law of triads. :-
In 1817, Johann wolfgang Dobereiner a great German chemist identified certain groups
of three elements having similar properties. These groups of three elements were called
Dobereiner‘s triads after his name. This classification is based upon the law known as
Dobereiner‘s law of triads. The law states that the element having similar chemical
properties when arranged in order of their increasing atomic masses in the groups of three
elements, constitute a triad and the atomic mass of the middle elements is approximately
the arithmetic mean of the other two elements.
Some examples of triads are as follows:
i. The three elements Lithium (Li), sodium (Na) and potassium (K) have similar properties,
these elements constitute a Dobereiner Triad, because the atomic mass of middle element
i.e. sodium is 23 which is very nearly the average (22.95) of atomic masses of lithium and
potassium as shown below:-
i. Elements of Triad At. mass Arithmetic Mean
of Li & K= 7 + 39 = 23
Lithium (Li) 7 2
Sodium (Na) 23
Potassium (K) 39.
Element H Li Be B C N O
At. mass 1 7 9 11 12 14 16
F Na Mg Al Si P S
19 23 24 27 28 31 32
Cl K Ca
35.5 39 40
Q. 3) State Mendeleev‟s Periodic Law.
Ans. Mendeleev‘s Periodic Law states that, ―the physical and chemical properties of elements
are a periodic function of their atomic masses. It may also be stated as:
When elements are arranged in order of their increasing atomic masses, elements with
similar properties are repeated after certain regular intervals.
Q.4) What is Mendeleev‟s Periodic table? Describe the essential features of Mendeleev‟s
periodic table.
Ans. Mendeleev‟s Periodic Table:-
It is a table or chart in which the various elements have been arranged in order of their increasing
atomic masses, such that the elements having similar properties occur in the same vertical column
(or group). It is based upon the Mendeleev‘s periodic law.
Essential or main features of Mendeleev‟s periodic table:-
The essential or main features of Mendeleev‘s Periodic table are as under:-
(i) It is based upon Mendeleev‘s periodic law.
(ii) The table is divided vertically into columns called groups. These are numbered I, II, III,
IV, V, VI, VII and VIII.
(iii) Except group VIII each group is further divided into two sub- families called sub-groups
A and B.
(iv) The elements placed to the left in the column form sub-group A. These are called normal
or representative elements.
(v) The elements placed to the right in the column form the sub-group B. These are called
transition elements.
(vi) Group VIII contains transition elements in three sets. Each set contains three elements.
These three sets lie in the 4th, 5th and 6th period.
(vii) The horizontal rows are called periods. There are seven periods which are numbered as 1,
2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7.
Q.5) What are the merits of Mendeleev‟s Periodic table?
Ans. 1. It made the study of elements simple and systematic.
2. It is based upon fundamental property of an element i.e. atomic weight or mass.
3.In Mendeleev‘s periodic table some gaps were left for the undiscovered elements like
gallium (Ga) and Germanium (Ge). When these elements were discovered later on, they were
placed in the gaps/spaces left by Mendeleev for these elements without disturbing the existing
elements.
Q.11) What is meant by the term periodicity? What is the cause of periodicity?
Ans. Periodicity:- The repetition of elements with similar properties after certain fixed intervals
when arranged in order of their increasing atomic numbers is called periodicity
Cause of Periodicity:- After intervals of 2,8,8,18,18 and 32 the elements with similar
valence shell electronic configuration get repeated. Hence the cause of periodicity in the
properties of elements is the repetition of elements with similar outer electronic configuration
after certain, fixed intervals of atomic numbers.
In any group, the elements have similar outer electronic configuration and hence they have similar
properties.
Q.12) State the trends in the physical and chemical properties of elements in the modern
periodic table.
Ans. The physical and chemical properties of elements show regular gradation along a period
and down a group. In the periodic table, some of these properties are described below:-
(A) Valency:- It is defined as the combining capacity of an atom or element. It is equal to the
numbers of electrons present in outer most shell for the elements in groups 1, 2, 13 and 14.
For elements in groups 15, 16, 17 and 18 it is equal to eighteen minus group no (18-group
No.)
Variation of valency (for the elements of groups 1,2,13, 14, 15, 16, 17, & 18 )
a. Down Group:- In a group all the elements have same no. of electrons in their valence
shells hence in a group all the elements have same valency. e.g. consider Group 1
elements, all the elements of group 1 show valency one because they have one electron in
their valence shells.
(B) Along a Period:- As we move from left to right along a period, valency changes from 1 to
4 and 4 to zero . e.g. consider the elements of 2nd period
Group No. 1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18
Elements Li Be B C N O F Ne
No of Valence 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Electrons.
Valency 1 2 3 4 3 2 1 0
(18-15) (18-16) (18-17) (18-18)
2. Atomic Radius (Atomic Size):-
Ans. Atomic radius (or atomic size) may be defined as,
the distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outer most shell which contains
electrons. Atomic size is expressed in Angstrom unit or Ao (1Ao = 10-10m)
Variation of atomic radius:-
a. Down a Group:- As we move from top to bottom in a group, the number of
electronic shells increases which tends to increase atomic radius. Also the
magnitude of nuclear charge increases which tends to decrease atomic radius.
Since the first factor predominates the second factor, therefore, atomic size
increases along a group.
b. Along a period:- As we move from left to right along a period, the no. of
electronic shells remain the same but the magnitude of nuclear charge increases.
Due to increase in nuclear charge, the electrons in the outermost orbit are attracted
with a greater force. Thus the outermost shell is drawn closer and closer towards
the nucleus. Hence the atomic radius decreases.
It may be noted, that in any period, the noble gas has the biggest size.
(C) Metallic Character:- The elements which have a tendency to loose electrons and
form positive ions ( cations) are called metals. These elements are said to have metallic (or electro
+ve) character.
e.g. Na - e Na+
K - e K+
The metallic character of an element also depends up on, atomic size and nuclear charge.
Variation of Metallic Character:-
a. Along a Period:- On moving from left to right along a period, the magnitude of nuclear
charge increases and atomic size decreases which decreases the tendency to loose
electrons. Therefore metallic character goes on decreasing e.g.
Consider the second period,
Li Be B C N O F Ne
Metallic character goes on decreasing
b. Down a group:-
As we move from top to bottom in a group, the increase in atomic size
predominates the increase in nuclear charge which increases the tendency to loose
electrons. Therefore metallic character goes on increasing e.g.
Consider group -1 elements
Li
Na Metallic character
K goes on increasing
Rb
Cs
Fr
(D) Non -Metallic character:- The elements that have tendency to gain electrons to form
negative ions (anion) are called non –metals. They do so in order to complete their
Octet . e.g.
Cl +e Cl + energy
O +2e O2-+ energy
Textual Questions
SECTION - A
Q.1) Did Dobereiner‟s triads also exist in the columns of Newland‟s octave‟s? Compare and
find out.
Ans. Yes, Dobereiner‘s triads do exist in the columns of Newland‘s Octave‘s.
Dobereiner‘s traid consists of three elements in which the atomic weight of the middle
element is the arithmetic mean of the other two, for example
Element Li Na K
Atomic weight 7 23 39
Mean atomic weight of Ist & 3rd = Li + K = 7 + 39 = 46 = 23, which is equal to the
2 2 2
atomic weight of sodium. Thus Li , Na & K constitute a Dobereiner‘s traid.
According to Newland‘s law of octave‘s when the elements are arranged in the increasing
order of their atomic weights the properties of eighth element were similar to starting Ist
one jut like musical octave. For example: starting from Li eighth element from it is Na,
thus elements from Li to Na constitute one Newland‘s octave and similarly starting from
Na the eighth element is K, therefore elements from Na to K constitute another Newland‘s
octave.
First element eighth element first element eighth element
Li Na Na K
Newland‘s Octave Newland‘s Octave
This shows that Dobereiner‘s Triads also exist in the columns of Newland‘s Octaves.
Q.2) What were the limitations of Dobereiner‟s classification of elements? Or what were the
reasons of rejection of D – Classification?
Ans. The limitations of Dobereiner‘s classification are:-
(i) He failed to arrange all the known elements of that time into triads.
(ii) Some of the known elements in spite of having similar chemical properties do not
constitute a triad. e.g. nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P) and arsenic (As) in spite of
having similar chemical properties do not constitute a triad.
Thus this system of classification by Dobereiner was rejected.
SECTION - B
Q.1) Use Mendleev‟s periodic table to predict the formula for the oxides of the following
elements; K, C, Al, Si, Ba
Ans. We know valency of oxygen is 2. By knowing to which group an element belong in the
Mendeleev‘s periodic table we can know its valency and therefore can predict the
formula of its oxide.
(i) Potassium (K) is an element of group 1A (alkali metals). Its valency is 1.
Q.3) What were the criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his periodic table?
Ans. Two criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his periodic table were.
(i) Atomic masses of the elements (ii) The similarity in the formula of hydrides and
oxides of various elements. When he did so, most of the elements with similar properties
fell in the same vertical column or group Mendeleev had to place an element with a
slightly higher atomic mas before an element with a slightly lower atomic mass. For
example, tellurium with higher atomic mass (127.6u) was placed before iodine with lower
atomic mass (126.9u) since the properties of tellurium were similar to those of oxygen,
sulphur and selenium of group VIA while the properties of iodine were similar to those of
halogens (F,Cl and Br) of group VIIA.
Q.4) Why do you think the noble gases are placed in separate group?
Ans. Out of all the elements known, noble gases such as helium He, neon Ne, argon (Ar),
Krypton (Kr) and Xenon (Xe) are the most inert (unreactive) and are present in extremely
low concentrations in our atmosphere. Therefore, they are grouped together in a separate
group called zero group in the modern periodic periodic table.
SECTION - C
Q.1) How could the Modern periodic table remove various anomalies of Mendeleev‟s
Periodic Table ?
Ans) Modern periodic table removes various anomalies of Mendeleev‘s periodic table as under:
(i) Position of Isotopes:- Isotopes are the atoms of same elements having different
atomic mass therefore according to Mendeleev‘s Periodic Table they should be placed at
different places in Periodic Table but have been placed in the same group in Mendeleev‘s
Periodic Table which could not be explained by Mendeleev‘s periodic law. As all the
isotopes of an element have the same atomic number. Therefore according to modern
periodic table they can be placed at one place in the same group of the periodic table.
2
For example all three Isotopes of hydrogen ( 1H ), ( H ) and (3 H ) are placed at the same
1 1 1
place of hydrogen (group 1) in the periodic table.
(ii) Anomalous Position of some pairs of elements :- In Mendeleev‘s Periodic Table,
cobalt with slightly higher atomic mass (58.93 u) was placed before Nickel with slightly
lower atomic mass (58.71 u). This limitation has been removed in the modern periodic
tables as follows.
The atomic number of cobalt is 27 while that of nickel is 28. Since in the Modern periodic
Q.5) In the Modern periodic table, which are the metals among first ten element ?
Ans) In the Modern periodic table Lithium and Berylium are the metals among first ten
elements.
Q.6) By considering their position in the periodic table, which one of the following elements
would you expect to have the maximum metallic character?
Ga, Ge, As, Se, Be.
Ans. Arranging the above elements in different groups and periods in order of their increasing
atomic numbers we have
Periods Group1 G2 G13 G14 G15 G16
- - - - - - -
2 - Be - - - -
3 - - - - - -
4 - - Ga Ge As Se
We know that metallic character decreases from left to right in a period and increases
down a group. Therefore, out of these elements listed above, Be and Ga are expected to be
most metallic. Out of Be and Ga, Ga is bigger is size and hence has greater tendency to
loose electrons than Be therefore, Ga is more metallic than Be.
SECTION - D
Q.1) Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when
going from left to right across the periods of the periodic table.
(a)The elements become less metallic in nature
(b) The number of valence electrons increase
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily
(d) The oxides become more acidic.
Ans) (c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily
Q.2) Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with high melting
point. X would most likely to be in the same group of periodic table as (a) Na (b) Mg
(c ) Al (d) Sc
Ans) (b) Mg
Chlorine has valency 1 that means in the chlorine XCl2, X should be the element which has
valency equal to 2. If we compare the valency of Na, Mg, Al and Si.
Na belongs to group 1 therefore its valency is 1.
Mg belongs to group 2 therefore its valency is 2.
Al belongs to group 13 therefore its valency is 3.
Si belongs to group 14 therefore its valency is 4.
We find that it is the Mg which has valency of 2 and can form chloride with formula MgCl2 so X
is Mg.
Q.3) Which element has
(a) two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons?
(b) the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2
(c ) a total of three shells, with four electrons in valence shell ?
(d) a total of two shells, with three electrons in valence shell ?
(d) Twice as many electrons in the second shell as in its first shell?
Q.6) The position of three elements A, B and C in the periodic table are shown below:
Period Group 16 Group 17
2
3 A
4
5 B C
(a) State whether C is a metal or a non metal
(b) State whether C is more reactive or less reactive than A
(c ) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B ?
(d) Which type of ion, cation or anion, will be formed by element C ?
Ans) (a) Elements of group 17 have 7 electrons in their respective valence shells and thus have
a strong tendency to gain one more electron to complete their respective octets, Thus, C
which is an element of group 17 is a non metal.
Ans) The electronic configurations of nitrogen and phosphorous are given below:
12
Horizontal 19 20 21
Period Ca
38
The three elements of the horizontal row have consecutive atomic numbers and hence lie in the
same period. On the other hand, the three elements of the vertical column do not have consecutive
atomic numbers and lie in the same group. Calcium with atomic number 20 is surrounded by four
elements with atomic number 12, 19, 21 and 38. Thus, the atomic numbers of three elements
which lie in the same group are 12, 20 and 38. As the elements of same group have similar
chemical & physical properties. Therefore, the physical and chemical properties of calcium
resemble with those of the elements having atomic numbers 12 and 38.
Q.10) Compare and contrast the arrangements of elements in Mendeleev‟s periodic table and
modern periodic table.
Ans. Following are some of the main points of difference between Mendeleev‘s periodic table
and Modern periodic table.
Mendeleev‟s Periodic Table Modern Periodic Table
(i)The elements are arranged in increasing (i)The elements are arranged in increasing
order of their atomic masses. order of their atomic numbers or proton
numbers.
(ii) It has eight vertical columns called (ii) It has eighteen vertical columns called
groups. groups.
(iii) Each group is further divided into (iii) There is no further division of the
two groups.
sub-groups. (iv)It accommodates almost 115 elements
(iv) It accommodates only 63 elements (v) It includes noble gases.
(v) It does not contain noble gases (vi) Separate positions for isotopes of an
(vi) Separate position was assigned to element are not required because they
isotopes. have the same atomic number.
(vii) In this table many metals and non- (vii)In this table metals are on the left side
metals were grouped together . and non metals are on the right side.
i. Carbon has the self linking property to form chains of varying lengths and shapes
H C H H C C H H C C C H
H H H H H H
H C C C C H , H C C C C C H
H H H H H H H H H
Butane Pentane
Any successive members of alkane differ by CH2 unit. CH2 unit is called methylene group.
(B) Unsaturated Hydrocarbons:-
The hydrocarbons which contains double (=) or triple () bonds between carbon atoms are
called unsaturated hydrocarbons. Unsaturated hydrocarbons are of two types.
(i) Alkenes:- Unsaturated hydrocarbons containing double bond between carbon atoms are called
as alkenes. Alkenes are also called as olefins. The general formula of alkenes is Cn H2n, where
n = 2,3, 4……. e.g.
If n = 2 , C 2 H2x2 = C2 H 4 Ethene
If n = 3 , C3 H 2 x 3 = C3 H 6 Propene
If n = 4 , C 4 H 2 x 4 = C 4 H 8 Butene
H H H H
(c) H C C C C H
H H
Butene
H H H H H
(d) H C C C C C H
H H H
Pentene
(ii) Alkynes: Unsaturated hydrocarbons containing triple bonds between carbon atoms are called
as alkynes. The general formula of alkynes is CnH2n – 2 . Where n = 2, 3, 4, 5…….
If n = 2, C2H2x2 – 2 = C2H2 ethyne
If n = 3, C3H2x3 – 2 = C3H4 propyne
If n = 4, C4H2x4 – 2 = C4H6 butyne
If n = 5, C5H2x5 – 2 = C5H8 Pentyne
There structure formulae are as follows :
H
(a) H C C H (b) H C C C H
Ethyne
H
Propyne
H H
(c) H C C C C H
H H
Butyne
H H H
(d) H C C C C C H
H H H
Pentyne
Cyclic Hydrocarbons:-
The hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are arranged in a ring are called as cyclic
hydrocarbons. The cyclic hydrocarbons can be saturated or unsaturated.
a) Saturated cyclic hydrocarbons :- Cyclohexane with molecular formula C6 H12 is a
saturated cyclic hydrocarbon.
Its structural formula is
H H
H C H
C C
(i) H H
OR
H H
C C
H C H Cyclohexane
H H
Similarly other cyclic hydrocarbons are,
H H H H
H H
(ii) H C H (iii) C C
C C or H or
H H C C
Cyclo Propane
H H H
Cyclo butane
b) Unsaturated cyclic hydrocarbons:-Benzene is a well known unsaturated cyclic
hydrocarbon its molecular formula is C6H6. Its structural formula is:-
H
H C C H
Or
C C
H H
C
•
+ • + • + H • H
Hydrogen molecule
H• + •H H :H Or H H
ii) Double covalent bond:- Double covalent bond is formed by sharing of two electron pairs
between two atoms in which each atom contributes two electrons. It is represented by putting two
short (=) lines between two atoms Example.
Formation of oxygen (O2) molecule:
Oxygen atom has six electrons in its outer most shell. It needs two electrons to complete its octet
and attain configuration of nearest noble gas Neon. Hence, two oxygen atoms combine by
sharing two pairs of electrons between them.
•• •• •• •• •• ••
:+: :: or : =:
•• •• •• •• •• ••
2,6 2,6 2,8 2,8
iii) Triple covalent bond:- Triple covalent bond is formed by sharing of three electron pairs
between two atoms in which each atom contributes three electrons. It is represented by three short
lines between two atoms, e.g.
Formation of nitrogen (N2) molecule:
Nitrogen atom has five electrons in its outer most shell. It needs three electrons to complete its
octet and attain the configuration of nearest noble gas Neon. Hence, two nitrogen atoms combine
by sharing of three pairs of electrons between them and form N2 having triple covalent bond
between two nitrogen atoms.
N N N
N +
or N ≡N
Electron Dot structure of Nitrogen (N2) molecule
Functional Group: an atom or group of Atoms which largely determines the properties of a
compound is known functional group e.g Alcohols contain hydroxyl (OH) group is functional
group.
Q.12 Discuss the nomenclature of various classes of organic compounds.
Ans:- IUPAC system of Nomenclature:- According to IUPAC system, the name of an organic compound
consists of three parts.
(i) Word root (ii) Suffix (iii) Prefix.
(i) Word root denotes the number of carbon atoms present in the principal chain, which is the
longest chain of carbon atoms.
Chain Length C1 C2 C3 C4 C5 C6 C7
Word Root Meth Eth Prop But (a) Pent (a) hex (a) Hept (a)
F
v) Alcohols:-
General formula : R – OH (Where R= CnH2n+1 & n = 1,2,3………)
Functional group : OH ( Hydroxyl) Suffix : ol
Name : Replace last ‗e‘ of parent alkane by ‗ol‘
Formula No. Pry. Function Sec. Position of Name
of C- Suffix -al group Suffix functional Position of functional
atoms ane group group + Root word + Pry
Suffix ane + Sec. suffix
ol = Alkanol
CH3 –OH 1 ane -OH ol no significance Methnol
CH3-CH2- OH 2 ane -OH ol no significance ethanol
CH3 – CH2 – CH2- OH 3 ane -OH ol Carbon No. 1 1-propanol
OH
vi) Aldehydes:-
General formula : RCHO
(where R : CnH2n+1and n = 0,1,2,3,4……………)
O
Functional group : – C – H (aldehyde)Suffix : al
Name : Replace last ‗e‘ of ‗parent alkane‘ by ‗al‘
Formula No. Pry. Functi Sec. Alkane Name
Position of functional
of C- Suffix onal Suffix Position of
group + Root word +
atoms group functional Pry Suffix ane + Sec.
group suffix al = Alkanal
O
0 -CHO al no Methanal
H–C–H (HCHO) ane significance
7. Ketones:- O
Or
0 H – C – OH Methanoic acid
O
B) Oxidation Reaction:- Addition of oxygen to any substance is called as oxidation and the
substance which is capable of adding oxygen to other substances is called as oxidizing agent.
Thus, the reaction in which oxygen is added to any substance is known as oxidation reaction.
e.g.
When alcohol is treated with acidified potassium dichromate or alkaline potassium
permanganate, it gets oxidized to carboxylic acids.
C. Addition Reactions:-
Reactions which involve addition of two reactants to form a single product are called addition
reactions.
Due to presence of double and triple bonds , unsaturated hydrocarbons are more reactive and
hence add hydrogen in presence of a catalyst such as nickel, platinum or palladium to form
saturated hydrocarbons. This process is called as catalytic hydrogenation.
R R
Unsaturated hydrocarbon Saturated Hydrocarbon
Where R = CH3, C2H5, C3 H7 etc.
D) Substitution reaction:-
Reactions which involve the direct replacement (displacement) of an atom or a group of
atoms in an organic molecule by another atom or group of atoms without any change in the
rest of the molecule are called as substitution reactions. Substitution reaction is an important
property of saturated hydrocarbons ( alkanes) e.g. saturated Hydrocarbons in presence of heat
and light react with chlorine to form substitution products. e.g.
Sun light
CH4 + Cl2 CH3 Cl + HCl
520 – 670k
K2 cr2 O7
Ethanol nascent
oxygen
iv) Dehydration reaction:-
Ethanol when heated with concentrated sulphuric acid at 170oC, it gets dehydrated to form
ethane.
Conc. H2 SO4
CH3 – CH2 – OH CH2 = CH2 + H2O
170 oC
Ethanol (Dehydration) Ethene Water
(iv) Ethanoic acids is used in the preparation of dyes, plastics and pharmaceuticals.
Preparation
Soaps are made from animal fats or vegetable oils. Fats and oils are esters of higher fatty acids
and glycerol. When fats and oils are heated with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution they split to
form sodium salt of higher fatty acid called as soap and glycerol as byproduct.
heat
Fats or oil + sodium hydroxide soaps + glycerol
(an ester) (alkali) sodium salt alcohol
of fatty acids
The process of making soap by the hydrolysis of fats and oils with alkalies is called
saponification.e.g.
CH2COOC15H31 CH2OH
| |
CHCOOC15H31 + 3NaOH saponification CH2OH + 3 C15H31 COONa
| sodium hydroxide | sodium palmatate
CH2COOC15H31 CH2OH (soap)
Oil and fats Glycerol
(tripalmitin)
Q.21) What are the limitations (disadvantages) of soaps?
Ans) (1) Soaps are not suitable for washing clothes with hard water. Soaps are sodium or
potassium salts of higher fatty acids. Hard water contains bicarbonates, chlorides and
sulphates of calcium and magnesium. When soap is added to hard water, it forms
insoluble calcium and magnesium salts of fatty acids which sticks to the cloth and makes
it dull. Thus a lot of soap- is wasted in precipitating out calcium and magnesium salts from
hard water. This makes cleansing of clothes difficult.
(2) Soap is not suitable in acidic medium solutions. Since in acidic solutions free fatty
acids are obtained which are not effective as cleansing agents. So washing has to be done
in alkaline medium.
Q)22 What are Synthetic detergents?
Ans) A synthetic detergent is the sodium salt of long chain benzene sulphonic acid which has
cleansing properties in water. Synthetic detergents are called as soapless soaps because though
they act like a soap in having the cleansing properties but they do not contain the usual soap
molecule like sodium stearate etc. e.g. sodium n-dodecyle benzene sulphonate. Synthetic
detergents are better cleansing agents than soaps because they do not form insoluble calcium and
magnesium salts with hard water and therefore it can be used for washing even in hard water synthetic
detergent have structures similar to that of soaps. e.g.
C12H25 SO3-Na+
Textual questions
SECTION - A
Q.1) What would be the electron dot structure of carbon dioxide which has the
formula CO2?
Ans) The distribution of electrons in carbon and oxygen is represented as:
Carbon Oxygen
K = 2 L = 4 K = 2 L = 6
Valency of carbon is 4 and that of oxygen is 2, therefore carbon atom shares its four valence
electrons with two oxygen atoms. Thus the electron dot structure of CO2 is as:
.. x x ..
c
..
..
.. x x ..
Q.2) What would be the electron dot structure of a molecule of sulphur, which is
made up of eight atoms of sulphur? (Hint – The eight atoms of sulphur are joined together in
the form of a ring.)
Ans) Sulphur has atomic no. 16. Its electronic configuration is
K L M
2 8 6
Since sulphur atom is short of two electrons so as to complete its octet. Therefore, each sulphur
atom shares two valance electrons with two neighboring sulphur atoms and an eight membered
ring is formed.
s
s s
s s
s s s
SECTION - B
Q.1) How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane?
Ans) we can draw three structural isomers for pentane
(i) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 n- pentane
H
(ii) CH3 – CH2 – C – CH3 iso-pentane
CH3
CH3
(iii) CH3 – C – CH3 neo-pentane
CH3
Q.2) What are the two properties of carbon that lead to the huge number of carbon compounds
we see around us?
Ans) The two properties of carbon responsible for existence of huge number of carbon compounds are
(i) Catenation (ii) Small size and tetra valency of carbon.
(i) Catenation: The property of forming bonds with atoms of the same element is called
catenation (self linking property). Carbon shows maximum tendency for catenation in the periodic
table. This is because of formation of strong bonds between two adjacent carbon atoms as
compared to other atoms. It is due to this strong self linking property of carbon that organic
compounds have long chain, branched chains and ring structure of carbon atoms, which is one of
the reasons for existence of large number of organic compounds.
(ii) Tetra valency and Small size :- Due to its tetra valency, carbon atoms can form covalent
bonds with four other carbon atoms or with a large number of other atoms such as hydrogen,
oxygen, nitrogen, sulphur, chlorine and others.
Carbon forms multiple (double and triple) bonds with other carbon atoms as well as with oxygen
and Nitrogen. These multiple bond are very strong as compared to single bond and the reason for
formation of these multiple bonds is the small size of carbon atom. Thus tetra valency together
with small size of carbon is the another reason for existence of large number of organic
compounds.
Q.3) What will be the formula and electron dot structure of Cyclopentane?
Ans) In cyclopentane each carbon atom shares its two valence electrons with two neighbouring
carbon atoms and two valence electrons with two hydrogen atoms.
H H
x
Cx
H x x x x
x x H
xC Cx
H x x H
x x
H xC x x Cx H
x x
H H
i. ii.
1– Bromo ethane Methanal
Or
Methan-1-al or 1-Methanal
iii.
1 – Hexyne
SECTION - C
Q.1) Why is the conversion of Ethanol to Ethanoic acid an oxidation reaction?
Ans) The conversion of ethanol into ethanoic acid is an oxidation reaction because oxygen is added to it
during this conversion.
alkaline KMno4
(From KMnO4)
(Oxidation of ethanol takes place in presence of Potassium Permanganate KMnO4 which
acts as oxidizing agent in this reaction).
Q.2) A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Can you tell why a mixture of
ethyne and air is not used?
Q.1) How would you distinguish experimentally between an alcohol & a carboxylic acid?
Ans) A carboxylic acid can be distinguished from an alcohol by the following tests.
i. Sodium bicarbonate test:- Take a small amount of each compound in a test tube and
add to it an aqueous solution of NaHCO3 . The compound which produce brisk
effervescence due to evolution of CO2 must be a carboxylic acid.
ii. Alkaline Potassium Permanganate test:- Take a small amount of each compound in
a test-tube and add to it few drops of alkaline potassium permanganate solution and warm
it. The alkaline Potassium permanganate solution is pink in colour. The compound which
discharges the pink colour of alkaline potassium permanganate must be an alcohol.
Q.2) What are oxidizing agents?
Ans) Adding of oxygen is called oxidation and the substances which are capable of
adding oxygen to other substances are called as oxidizing agents, e.g. alcohols are
converted to carboxylic acids in presence of alkaline potassium permagnate or acidified
potassium dichromate. In this reaction potassium permagnate and potassium dichromate
act as oxidizing agents.
CH3 CH2 – OH+ 2[O] alkaline KMnO4 + heat CH3 COOH+ H2O
(from KMnO4)
Losing of electron is called oxidation and the substances that gains electrons in a redox
reaction are called oxidizing agent. Also oxidizing agents are the substances that gain
electrons in a redox reaction and whose oxidation number is reduced.
Q.2) Butanone is a four carbon compound with functional group (a) carboxylic acid
(b) aldehyde (c ) Ketone (d) alcohol
Ans) (c ) Ketone
Q.3) While cooking, if the bottom of vessel is getting blackened on the outside, it means
that (a) The fuel is not burning completely. (b) The food is not cooked completely
(c ) The fuel is wet (d) The fuel is burning completely.
Ans) (a ) The fuel is not burning completely.
Q.4) Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond formation of CH 3Cl.
Ans) The atomic numbers and the electronic configuration of C,H and Cl are given below.
Element Symbol At. No. Electronic Configuration
K L M
Carbon C 6 2 4
Hydrogen H 1 1
Chlorine Cl 17 2 8 7
CH3Cl(methyl chloride) is made up of one carbon atom, three hydrogen atoms and one chlorine atom.
Carbon atom has 4 valence electrons, each hydrogen atom has one valence electron, and chlorine atom has
7 valence electrons. Carbon atom shares its four valence electrons with three hydrogen and one chlorine
atoms to form methyl chloride as follows:
Hx
x
3H + x C x + Cl Hx Cx x Cl
x
H
From the above, in the dot structure of methyl chloride (CH3Cl) there are four pairs of shared electrons
between carbon and other atoms. Each pair of shared electrons constitutes one single covalent bond. So,
methyl chloride has four single covalent bonds.
H
H – C – Cl
H
Q.5) Draw the electron dot structures for
i. Ethanoic acid ii. H2S iii. Propanone iv. F2
Ans)
H O
x xx xx
H x C x x C x O xH
x
Hx S x H
xx
H
H O H
x F
xx x
F
H. xxCx x x C x xCx x H
H H
Q.6) Define Homologous series. Explain with an example. Give its characteristics.
Ans. A Homologous series may be defined as a family of organic compounds having similar
functional group and same chemical properties. Homologous series of alkanes is given
below:
hydrocarbons C2H2 is an alkyne, whereas C3H6 is an alkene. So, C3H6 and C2H2 will undergo
addition reactions.
Q.14) Give a test that can be used to differentiate chemically between butter and cooking oil.
Ans) Butter contains saturated compounds while as cooking oil contains unsaturated compounds.
Since bromine water is decolourized by the addition of unsaturated compounds. Thus bromine
water test can be used to differentiate chemically between butter and cooking oil. Add bromine
water to a little of cooking oil and butter taken in separate test tubes.
(a) Decolourising of bromine water by cooking oil shows it is a unsaturated compound.
(b) Butter does not decolourise bromine water shows it is saturated compounds.
Q.15) Explain the mechanism of the cleaning action of soaps.
Ans) We all know that soap is used to remove dirt and grime from substances. Generally dirt and
grime get stuck because they have an oily component, which is difficult to remove by plain
brushing or washing by water. Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of higher fatty acids. e.g.
sodium palmitate, C15 H31 COO Na+ .
A soap molecule consist of two parts:-
i) Hydrophobic Part, which consist of a non-polar long chain of hydrocarbons (C15H31),
which is soluble in oil or grease and insoluble in water.
ii) Hydrophilic Part (water loving) which is ionic or polar part (-COO Na+), which is
soluble in water.
A soap molecule has a tadpole like structure shown below.
When soap is added to water in which dirty clothes are soaked, the two parts of the soap molecule
dissolve in two different media. The non-polar tail dissolves in the dirt, grime or grease and the
polar head dissolves in water.
The soap molecules actually form a closed structure because of mutual repulsion of the positively
charged heads. This structure is called a micelle. The micelle pulls out the dirt and grime more
efficiently. Thus, soap helps in removing greasy dirt by producing a stable oil in water type
emulsion.
- -
Na+ Na+
- -
Na+ Na+
Soap
molecule - Na+
-
Na+ Water
-
Na+ -
Na+
Dirt -
Particle Na+ Na+ -
- Na+ Na+
-
Q.4 What is the cause of chemical combination? “OR” Why do metals and non-metals react?
Ans. Two theories or concepts are used to explain the cause of chemical combination these are:-
i. Electronic theory or octet rule :- Tendency of the atoms to acquire the stable nearest noble
gas electronic configuration. This theory was given by Kossel and Lewis. The noble gases
have eight electrons (octet) in their valence shells except helium which has two electrons
(duplet) and are chemically less reactive. This configuration was regarded as extra stable
electronic configuration. The atoms of all other elements have less than eight electrons in their
valence shells and are reactive in nature. The atoms of these elements combine with each other
with the redistribution of electrons in the valence shells so that they acquire the stable nearest
noble gas configuration (duplet or octet).
ii. Tendency to acquire a state of minimum energy (modern concept):-According to modern
concept, the atoms of various elements combine with each other only if the chemical combination
leads to the decrease in the energy of the system. If on chemical combination the energy of the system
increases, no bond is said to be formed between them.
Q.5 What are the different modes of chemical combination? OR How do atoms combine?
Ans. To acquire stability, all atoms tend to complete their octets (i.e. outer most shell with eight
electrons) or duplet (i.e. outer most shell with two electrons, if K-shell is the outer most shell)
in order to acquire the nearest noble gas configuration.
To acquire the nearest noble gas configuration. the atoms combine, by any one of the
following methods.
(i) By transfer of electrons:- By transfer of one or more electrons from valance shell of one
atom to the other forming an electrovalent (or ionic) bond.
(ii) By mutual sharing of electron :- By mutual sharing of one, two or three pairs of electrons
between two atoms forming covalent bond.
(iii) By one sideds sharing of electron:- By sharing one electron pair in which the shared
electron pair is contributed by only one of the combining atoms resulting in the formation of a
co-ordinate or dative bond.
Q.6 What is electron dot structure? Give electron dot structure of some elements.
Ans. In the formation of a chemical bond between two atoms, only the electrons of outer most shell
are involved. The electrons present in the outer most shell are called valence electrons.
G.N. Lewis introduced a simple method of representing the valence electrons by dots or small
crosses around the symbol of the atom. These symbols are known as electron dot symbols or
Lewis symbols. A few examples of given below:
Element symbol At. No. Valence electrons Lewis symbol
Hydrogen H 1 1 H or H
Helium He 2 2 He or He
Lithium Li 3 1 Li or Li
Beryllium Be 4 2 Be or Be
Boron B 5 3 B or B
Carbon C 6 4 C or C
Nitrogen N 7 5 N or N
Oxygen O 8 6 O or O
Flourine F 9 7 F or F
Neon Ne 10 8 Ne or Ne
Na + Cl Na Cl
Sodium Atom (Na) Chlorine Atom (Cl) Sodium Chloride (NaCl) (Molecule)
K + Cl K+ Cl- or KCl
Potassium atom chlorine atom Potassium Chloride
(iii) Formation of magnesium chloride (MgCl2).
Atomic number of magnesium (Mg) =12 its electronic configuration = 2,8,2. it loses two
electrons from the valence shell to acquire the nearest noble gas configuration. of neon
(2,8) and form Mg2+ ion. Atomic no of Chlorine (Cl) = 17. it needs only one electron in
the valence shell to acquire the nearest noble gas configuration of argon (2,8,8) and form
chloride ion (Cl-) therefore, the transference of two electrons from one magnesium to two
chlorine atoms takes place this can be represented as follows:-
Cl [ Cl- ]
Mg + Mg2+ or MgCl2
(ii) Solubility:- They are soluble in water but insoluble in organic solvents such as alcohol,
petrol, kerosene oil etc.
(iii) Melting points and boiling points:- They have high melting and boiling points.
(iv) Ionic compounds impart characteristic colours to the flame:- Most of the ionic salts
when brought into the flame, impart characteristic colours to the flame. e.g. sodium
chloride imparts golden yellow colour, potassium salts impart violet colour and barium
salts impart green colour to the flame.
(v) Electrical conductivity:- Upon dissolving in water ionic compounds dissociate into free
ions. As these ions can conduct electricity Therefore ionic compounds conduct electricity
in the aqueous solution.
(i) Free or Native State:- The metals at the bottom of the activity series are least reactive
therefore, these are not attacked by moisture, oxygen and carbon dioxide in the air. Thus
they occur in the native state. e.g. Gold and Platinum.
(ii) Combined state:- The metals at the top of the activity series (K, Na, Ca, Mg etc.) are
highly reactive. Therefore, these are easily attacked by moisture, oxygen and carbon
dioxide of the air. They occur in the combined state in the form of their compounds called
minerals.
The metals in the middle of the activity series (Al, Zn, Fe, Pb, etc.) are found in the earth‘s
crust mainly as oxides, sulphides or carbonates.
Q.10 Where from the metals are obtained in nature? Give their relative abundance in
nature?
Ans. The major source of metals (whether in free state or combined state) is the earth‘s crust.
Some metals (Na, K etc) which form soluble salts (like NaCl, MgCl2) are also found to
occur in the sea water in the form of their soluble salts.
The most abundant metal on the earth‘s crust is aluminum (about 7%) followed by iron
(about 4%)calcium (3%) sodium (2.7%) potassium (2.5%) magnesium (2%) and titanium
(about 0.6%). The remaining metals are present on the earth‘s crust in very small amounts.
K Most
Decreasing order Na reactive metals
of reactivity Ca
Mg
Al
Zn
Fe Moderate reactive
Pb Metals
[H]
Cu
Hg
Ag Least reactive
Au metals
Pt
Q.12 What are the objectives/ advantages/ merits of alloy making?
Ans. Alloys are prepared to develop certain specific properties which are not possessed by
constituent elements. The main objectives of alloy making are:-
(i) To increase hardness. when carbon is added to iron, its hardness increases. This
hardened iron is called steel.
(ii) To increase tensile strength. Chrome steel prepared by mixing iron and chromium has
high tensile strength.
(iii) To increase resistance to corrosion. Stain less steel which is an alloy of iron, chromium
and nickel resist corrosion.
(iv) To lower melting point Solder an alloy of tin and lead has a lower melting point than
either of its constituents. It is therefore, used for joining electrical wires together.
(v) To modify chemical reactivity. Sodium is highly reactive metal. Its reactivity can be
reduced by making its alloy with mercury i.e. amalgam.
(vi) To reduce electrical conductivity. Conductivity of copper decreases when it is alloyed
with other metals.
(vii) To modify colour. Aluminium is silvery white while copper is brown but aluminium
bronze, an alloy of aluminium and copper has beautiful yellow colour and is used for
making coins, picture frames and cheap jewelry.
Q.13 Difference between metals and non-metals on the basis of their physical properties.
Ans. The main features that distinguish metals from non-metals are given below:
Textual Questions
SECTION - A
Q.1) Give an example of a metal which
a. is a liquid at room temp?
b. can be easily cut with a knife.
c. is the best conductor of heat.
d. is the poorest conductor of heat.
Ans. a. Metal which is liquid at room temp. is mercury .
b. Metals such as Lithium, Sodium, Potassium etc can be cut with a knife.
c. Silver is the best conductor of heat.
d. Lead is the poorest conductor of heat.
Q.2) Explain the meaning of malleable and ductile.
Ans. Malleability: The property which allows the metals to be hammered into thin sheets is
called malleability. Malleability is an important characteristic property of metals. Most of
the metals are malleable. Gold and silver are the most malleable metals
Ductility:- The property which allows the metals to be drawn into thin wires is called
ductility. Ductility is another characteristic property of metals. Most of the metals are
ductile. Gold and silver are the most ductile metals. Gold is so ductile that 1 gram of gold
can be drawn in to a wire of about 2 kilo meter length.
SECTION - B
Q.1) Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?
Ans. Sodium is a very reactive metal. It reacts with oxygen of the air to form sodium oxide.
Sodium reacts with moisture present in air to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen. The
hydrogen thus produced catches fire & results in explosive type of reaction.
4 Na + O2 2Na2O
2Na + 2H2O 2Na OH + H2
Therefore, to protect the metal and also to prevent accidental fires sodium is kept
immersed in kerosene oil.
Q.2) Write equations for the reactions of:-
a. Iron with steam.
b. Calcium and potassium with water.
Ans. (a) Iron reacts with steam to form Iron oxide and hydrogen gas
3Fe(S) + 4 H2O(g) Fe3O4 (S) + 4H2(g)
(iron) (steam) ( iron oxide)
(b) (i) Potassium reacts violently with cold water producing potassium hydroxide and
Na xx Na+ xx + 2- xx
+ xO
x xxxx
[ O
xxx ] Or [Na+]2 [ xO
x x ] 2- or Na2O
xx x xx x
Na x Na+
x xx xx xx xx xx
2Na 2 Na+ + 2e-
O2 2(O)
O + 2e- O2-
2Na+ + O2- Na2O
SECTION - D
Q.1) Write note on :-
i. Mineral:- The elementary state or the compounds in the form of which the metals occur
in nature are called minerals. Minerals are the compounds of metals which occur in nature.
ii. Ore:- The mineral from which the metal can be extracted conveniently and economically
is called ore. All minerals are not ores but all ores are minerals.
iii. Gangue:- When the minerals are mined from the earth‘s crust, they are always
contaminated with earthy, sandy and rocky impurities. These earthy, sandy and rocky
impurities associated with the mineral are called gangue or matrix.
Q.2) Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state.
Ans. The two metals which are found in nature in the free state are (i) Gold (ii) Platinum.
Q.3) What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?
Ans. Metal are obtained from its oxides by reduction . The reduction of metal oxide is carried
by ,Smelting or by heating with highly reactive metals such as sodium, calcium,
aluminium
(i) Smelting: In this method metal is obtained from its oxide by reduction using carbon
(coke) as reducing agent. This reduction is done by heating metal oxides with carbon
(coke)
Fe2 O3(s) + 3C(s) 2 Fe(s) + 3CO(g)
ZnO(s) + C(s) Zn(s) + CO(g)
(ii) By heating with highly reactive metals such as sodium, calcium, aluminium : In
this method metal is obtained from its oxide by reduction using highly reactive metals
such as sodium, calcium, aluminium as as reducing agent. This reduction is done by
strongly heating metal oxides with highly reactive metals such as sodium, calcium,
aluminium. The reduction of metals oxides to metal using aluminium as reducing agent is
called as aluminothermy.
3 MnO2 + 4 Al 2Al2O3 +3 Mn + heat
SECTION - E
Q.1) Metallic oxides of Zinc, Magnesium and copper were heated with the following
metals. (i) Zinc (ii) Magnesium and (iii) Copper
Ans. The position of the above given metals in the activity series is as follows:-
K> Na > Mg > Ca> Al> Zn > Fe > Cu > Ag > Au > Pt.
It is evident from the activity series that magnesium is more reactive than zinc followed by
copper. Therefore, magnesium can displace both zinc and copper from their respective
oxides as follows
Mg(s) + ZnO(s) MgO(s) + Zn(s)
Mg(s) + CuO(s) MgO(s) +Cu(s)
Zinc is more reactive than copper therefore can displace copper from copper oxide but
is less reactive than magnesium therefore can not displace magnesium from magnesium
oxide
Zn(s) + CuO(s) ZnO(s) + Cu(s)
Zn(s) + MgO(s) No reaction
Copper being least reactive among the given series of metals can neither displace
magnesium nor zinc from their respective oxides.
Cu(s) + MgO(s) No reaction
Cu(s) + ZnO(s) No reaction
SECTION - F
Q.2) Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from
rusting? (a) applying grease (b) applying paint (c) applying a coating of zinc
(d) all of the above
Ans) (c) applying a coating of zinc.
Q.3) An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with high melting point. The
compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be
(a) Calcium (b) Carbon (c) Silicon (d) Iron
Ans) (a) Calcium. Calcium forms calcium oxide with oxygen, which has very high melting
point as compared to the oxides of Carbon, Silicon and Iron. Calcium oxide is also soluble
in water.
Q.4) Food cans are coated with tin and not zinc because
(a) Zinc is costlier than tin (b) Zinc has a higher melting point than tin
(c) Zinc is more reactive than tin (d) Zinc is less reactive than tin.
An) (c) Zinc is more reactive than tin
Q.5) You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and a switch. (a) How would you
use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non-metals.
(b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in distinguishing between metals and non-
metals.
Ans) (a) (i) Using a hammer :- If by hammering the sample breaks, this means that it is brittle
and hence it is non-metal on the other hand, if the sample flattens to form a sheet, this
means that the sample is malleable and hence is a metal.
(ii) Set up the battery, bulb, wire and the switch as shown below. Place the sample in
between clips A and B and put the switch ‗on‘. If the bulb glows, the sample is a good
conductor of electricity and hence, it is a metal. If on the other hand, the bulb does not
Wire
Chip
Switch
Battery
B Clip
A
Clip
(b) Because of malleability of iron and many other metals, we can cast them into sheet
which can be used for various purposes. For example, Iron sheets are used for roofing, and
for making trunks, boxes etc for storing articles of daily use.
Metals are good conductors of electricity. It is because of this property that metal wires
made up of copper and alumininum are used for carrying electricity.
Q.6) What are amphoteric oxides? Give examples of two amphoferic oxides.
Ans. Oxides which react with both acids and bases to form salts and water are called
amphoteric oxides. The well known examples of amphoteric oxides are Zinc oxide (ZnO)
and aluminium oxide (Al2 O3). They react with acids and bases as shown below:-
ZnO(s) + 2HCl (aq) Zn Cl2(aq) + H2O(l)
(Acid)
Q.12) Give reasons (a) platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil (c) Aluminium is a highly
reactive metal, still it is used to make utensils for cooking.
(d) carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process
of extraction.
Ans) (a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make Jewellery because of properties like
resistance to corrosion, high malleability and their ductility.
(b) Lithium Sodium and Potassium are readily attacked by oxygen present in air to form
their respective oxides. They also react with moisture present in air producing H2 gas
which some time catches fire and cause accident. So in order to protect these metals from
reacting with O2 and moisture and to prevent accidental fires, lithium, sodium and
potassium are stored under oil.
(c) Aluminium is a strong and cheap metal. It is also a good conductor of heat. But it is
highly reactive. When it is exposed to moist air, its surface is covered with a thin
impervious (non-penetrable) layer of aluminium oxide (Al2 O3). This layer does not allow
moist air to come in contact with fresh metal and hence protects the metal underneath
from further damage or corrosion. Thus, after the formation of this protective layer of
Aluminium oxide (Al2O3), aluminium becomes resistant to corrosion. It is because of this
reason that although aluminium is a highly reactive metal, it is still used to make utensils
for cooking.
(d) Direct reduction of carbonates and sulphides to obtain metals is not possible. However,
It is much easier to obtain metals by reduction of their oxides. Therefore, prior to
reduction, carbonates and sulphides are converted into their oxides by the process of
calcinations and roasting respectively.
Metals Non-metals
i) Metals form basic oxide eg i) Non-metals form acidic oxide or neutral
Na2O, MgO oxides.
ii) Metals have a strong tendency ii)Non-Metals have a strong tendency to gain
to lose electrons and hence they electrons and hence they behave as oxidizing
behave as reducing agents Na Na + e agents. Cl + e-
+ -
Cl-
iii) Metals are electro positive elements iii) Non-metals are electronegative elements
and hence lose one or more electrons and hence gain one or more electrons to form
to form positive ions. Negative ions
iv) Metals which lie above hydrogen iv) Non metals do not react with dilute acid
in the activity series displace hydrogen and hence do not displace hydrogen from
from the dilute acids, for example dilute acids.
Zn + dil. H2SO4 ZnSO4 + H2
Q.15) A man went door to door posing to be a goldsmith . He promised to bring back the
glitter of old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a et of gold bangles
to him which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangle sparkled like new but
their weight was reduced drastically. The lady was upset but after a futile argument,
the man beat a hasty retreat you play the detective to find out the nature of the
solution he had used?
Ans) The solution used by man who claimed to be goldsmith was aqua regia or royal water.
Aqua regia is a freshly prepared solution of concentrated hydrochloric acid and nitric acid
in the ration of 3:1 by volume. Gold dissolves in aqua regia. So when the man dipped the
bangles in aqua regia it dissolves its upper layer and bangles sparked like new but at the
same time as some of the gold was dissolved in solution so its weight was reduced.
Q.16 Give reasons why copper is used to make hot water tanks but steel (alloy of iron), is
not.
An) Copper is much better conductor of heat than steel so in order to save heat losses, hot
water tanks are made up of copper rather than steel.
BOSE Questions
Q.1) What are metals? Give physical and chemical properties of metals.
Metals:- Metals are defined as those elements which form positive ions (cations) by
losing one or more electrons i.e. they are electropositive elements. They have 1,2, or 3
electrons in their valence shell.
Physical Properties of metals:-
i) Metals in the pure state possess lustre i.e. shining surface.
ii) Metals are generally hard. The hardness varies from metal to metal e.g. Iron, Copper,
Aluminium, Lead are hard metals. They can‘t be cut with a knife. However, Lithium,
Sodium and Potassium are soft metals. They can be cut even with a knife.
iii) Metals are malleable i.e. they can be beaten into thin sheets .e.g. Iron, Copper, Aluminium
etc.
iv) Metals are ductile in nature i.e. they can be drawn into wires. e.g. 1gram of gold can be
drawn into a wire of about 2km length.
v) Metals are good conductors of heat and possess high melting point. Silver is the best
conductor of heat and copper is the second best followed by aluminium. Whereas, lead is
the poorest conductor of heat.
vi) Metals are good conductors of electricity. Silver is the best conductor of electricity where
as mercury is very poor conductor of electricity.
vii) Metals are sonorous i.e. they produce sound on striking hard surfaces.
viii) Metals generally have high density. Exception is Lithium, Sodium, and Potassium which
have low densities.
ix) Metals have high tensile strength i.e. they possess load bearing capacity.
x) All metals are solids except mercury which is a liquid.
Chemical properties of Metals:-
Some of the chemical properties of metals are summarized as follows:-
(i). Reaction of metals with oxygen:-
Metals react with oxygen to form their respective oxides. However, the vigour of
reactivity varies from metal to metal, e.g.
a. Sodium reacts with oxygen at room temp.
4Na + O2 2Na2O
b. Magnesium reacts with oxygen on heating.
Heat
2Mg + O2 2MgO
c. Zn reacts with oxygen on strong heating.
Strong
2Zn + O2 2ZnO
Heating
S + O2 SO2
(Acidic oxide)
2C + O2 2CO
(Neutral oxide)
N2 + O2 2NO
(Neutral oxide)
(ii) Reaction with water:- Non-metals generally do not react with water. This is because non-
metals can‘t reduce the hydrogen (H+) ions of water to H2 gas.
(iii) Reaction with dilute acids:- Non-metals do not react with dilute acids. It is because non-
metals them selves are acceptors of electrons and therefore do not give electrons to reduce the
hydrogen (H+) ions of an acid to hydrogen gas.
(iv) Reaction with chlorine:- Non-metals react with chlorine to form chlorides. These non-metal
chlorides are covalent chlorides and non-electrolytes. e.g.
H2 + Cl2 2HCl(g)
(Covalent Chloride)
P4 + 6Cl2 4PCl3
(Covalent Chloride)
(iii) Magnetic separation:- This method is based upon the principle that the magnetic
particles are attracted by a magnet where as non-magnetic particles are not attracted by a
magnet and get separated. In this method Bauxite (Al2O3. 2H2O)- an ore of aluminum,
contains the impurities of iron (iii) oxide (Fe2O3) and sand ie silica SiO2
the powdered ore is placed on a leather belt which passes over two rollers, one of which is
magnetic and other is non magnetic. When the magnetic particles come over the roller
they are attracted to the magnetic roller and fall apart from the non-magnetic particles.
(iv).Chemical separation or by leaching:- It is based upon the principle that gangue and
ore have different properties and behave differently towards a chemical reagent. In this
case, the powdered ore is treated with a suitable reagent (like acid, base etc.) which
dissolves the ore particles where as gangue is left behind and are removed by filtration.
This process is called leaching. For example, bauxite ore (Al2 O3 2H2O) can be
concentrated by this method. The powdered bauxite ore is heated with concentrated (45%)
sodium hydroxide. As a result of heating, aluminium oxide present in the ore reacts with
NaOH solution to form water soluble sodium aluminate.
Al2 O3 + 2Na OH 2Na AlO2 + H2O
Silica present in the ore also reacts with NaOH to form water soluble sodium silicate.
SiO2 + 2Na OH Na2 SiO3 + H2O
Iron oxide present in the ore does not dissolve in NaOH and thus remains as insoluble. It
is separated out by filtration.The filtrate containing sodium aluminate and sodium silicate
is diluted with water and stirred. Sodium aluminate reacts with water to form a precipitate
of aluminium hydroxide where as sodium silicate does not react and remains in the
solution.
Na AlO2 + 2H2O Al (OH)3 + NaOH
The precipitate is washed, dried and then heated strongly. It decomposes to give
pure alumina.
Strong
2Al (OH)3 Al2O3 + 3 H2O
Heating
(B) Extraction of the metal from the concentrated ore:- The method used for the
extraction of the metal from the concentrated ore depends upon the nature of the metal.
Based on their reactivity, the metals have been grouped into the following three
categories.
(a) Metals of low reactivity (low in the activity series)
(b) Metals of medium reactivity (in the middle of the activity series)
(c) Metals of high reactivity ( At top of the activity series)
(a). Extraction of metals low in the activity series (Cu, Hg, Ag, Au, Pt)
Among these metals gold and platinum are found in their native states. For other metals
like Cu and Hg, the basic principles of their extraction from the concentrated ore are
explained below:-
Roasting:- As most common ores of above mentioned metals are sulphides therefore, the
method required for extraction is roasting. In roasting metal sulphides are converted into
metal oxides, the oxides formed on further heating are reduced to metals. For example:-
Heating
2HgS + 3O2 2HgO(s) + 2SO2(g)
(Cinnabar ore of Hg)
Heat
2HgO 2Hg(s) + O2(g)
Similarly,
2 Cu2S + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2
2 Cu2O + Cu2 S 6Cu + SO2
(b) Extraction of metals in the middle of the activity series (Fe, Zn, Pb etc.)
These metals are found in nature in the form of their oxides, sulphides and carbonate ores.
Further, as it is easier to reduce oxides than sulphides and carbonates, therefore, the
sulphide and carbonate ores are first converted into the corresponding metal oxides, which
in turn are converted into metals. The different steps involved are as follows:-
(i) Calcination ( For carbonate ores):- It is the process of heating the carbonate ore
strongly in the absence of air, so as to form metal oxide e.g.
Heating
Zn CO3 ZnO + CO2
(Calamine ore of Zinc)
(ii).Roasting (for sulphide ores): It is the process of heating the sulphide ore strongly in
presence of air.
Heating
2 Zn S + 3 O2 2 ZnO + 2 SO2
Presence of air
(iii).Smelting:- The metal oxides obtained above can not be reduced directly into their
corresponding metals. Therefore, a suitable reducing agent such as carbon (Coke) is used.
The reduction of metal oxides by heating with coke is called smelting. e.g.
Fe2O3 + 3 C ∆ 2 Fe + 3 CO
Zn O + C Zn + CO
The active metals such as copper and manganese can‘t be obtained by reduction of their
oxides with coke because these metal oxides are very stable. Therefore, such metal oxides
are reduced by strongly heating the mixture with aluminium e.g.
Cu2 O3 + 2Al 2Cu + Al2 O3
3 MnO2 + 4 Al 3 Mn + 2Al2O3
Aluminothermy the reduction of metals oxides to metal using aluminium as reducing
agent is called as aluminothermy.
( c).Extraction of metals High up in the activity series (K, Ca, Mg, and Al)
(Electrometallurgy):- The process of extraction of the metal from the concentrated ore
using electric current or by electrolysis is called electro metallurgy. The highly electro
positive metals such as Li, Na, K, Ca, Mg etc are extracted by this method. These metals
are extracted by the electrolysis of their molten halide or oxides. The metal is produced at
cathode. e.g. sodium is obtained by the electrolysis of molten Na Cl.
2NaCl 2Na+ + 2Cl-
At Anode:
2Cl- 2Cl + 2e-
2Cl Cl2
At cathode:
2Na+ + 2e- 2Na
Similarly electrolysis of Al2O3 can be represented as follows:
Al2O3 2 Al3+ + 3O2-
At anode
3O2- 3O + 6e-
O + O O2
At Cathode.
2Al3+ + 6e- 2Al
(C) Refining of impure metals:- The process of purifying the impure (crude) metal is called
refining of the metal.
The most commonly employed method for the purification of metals is electrolytic
refining. A large number of metals such as copper, silver, gold, nickel, chromium, zinc,
aluminium, tin, lead etc are purified by this method.
let us take the example of electrolytic refining of copper. In this method a container
called electrolytic tank is taken. In this tank a solution of copper sulphate is taken as an
electrolyte. The impure copper is taken as anode. A thin plate of pure copper acts as
cathode. On passing electric current, pure copper from the anode passes into the solution
as Cu2+ ions. An equivalent amount of Cu2+ ions from the solution are deposited on the
cathode as pure copper. The reactions that take place at cathode and anode are shown as
follows:-
At Anode
Cu Cu2+ + 2e-
Copper atom Copper ions
At Cathode
Cu2+ + 2e- Cu
Copper ions Copper atom
Q.4) What is corrosion? Explain by suitable examples.
Ans. The process of slow eating up (decay) of metals is called corrosion. During corrosion
metals are converted into their oxides, carbonates, sulphides, sulphates etc. by the action
of atmospheric gases such as O2, SO2, CO2 ,H2S and moisture .A few examples of
corrosion are given below:
(i) Rusting of Iron: When iron is exposed to moist air for a long time, its surface gets
covered with a coating of a brown, flaky substance called rust. This is due to the reaction
of oxygen and moisture (present in the air) on the surface of iron. Rust is mainly hydrated
ferric oxide.
2Fe + 3/2 O2 + X H2O Fe2 O3 X H2O
Iron (air) moisture (Rust)
Or 4Fe + 3O2 + X H2O 2Fe2 O3 X H2O
(ii) Similarly copper objects when remain exposed to air, their surface reacts with CO2 and
moisture present in the air forming a green coating of basic copper carbonate.
2Cu + CO2 + O2 + H2O CuCO3 .Cu (OH)2
Copper From moist air ( Basic copper carbonate green)
(iii). The surface of silver metal gets tarnished on exposure to air. This is due to the formation
of a coating of black silver sulphide (Ag2S) on its surface by the action H2S gas present in
air.
2Ag + H2S Ag2S + H2(g)
Silver Silver Sulphide
(Black)
Q.5) What is Rusting? State the conditions necessary for rusting.
Ans. Corrosion of iron is called rusting . when iron is exposed to moist air for a long time, its
surface acquires a coating of a red brown flaky substance called rust. Rust is mainly
hydrated iron oxide. (Fe2 O3 X H2O)
During rusting of iron, iron metal combines with oxygen of air in presence of moisture to
form hydrated iron oxide. The number of molecules of water ( water of hydration) varies
in it, and is not fixed.
2Fe + 3/2 O2 + X H2O Fe2 O3 X H2O
Iron (air) moisture (Rust)
Rust can be commonly observed in the form of red brown flaky substance on screws,
nails, pipes and railings. It is not only the iron which rusts, even the steel rusts on being
exposed to damp air or on being kept in water but steel rusts less readily than iron. The
conditions necessary for rusting are:-
(1) Presence of air.
(2) Presence of moisture.
Ans. According to Arrhenius theory of acids and bases, Bases may be defined as the substances
containing Hydroxyl group which upon dissolving in water give hydroxide ions (OH-).
Some important bases are sodium hydroxide (Na OH), potassium hydroxide (KOH)
Calcium hydroxide [Ca (OH)2] etc. Their dissociation can be represented as follows:
Water
Na OH Na+ + OH
Water
KOH K+ + OH
Ca (OH)2 Water Ca2+ + 2 OH
General characteristics of bases:-
(i) Bases are bitter in taste and soapy in touch.
(ii) Bases contain ionisable hydroxide ion.
(iii) Bases turn red litmus into blue, methyl orange into yellow and phenolphthalein into pink.
(iv) Some bases like caustic sods ( NaOH) are corrosive in nature.
(v) Bases react with metals to produce salts and hydrogen gas. e.g.
∆
2Na OH + 2Al + 2H2O 2Na AlO2 + 3H2
Sodium aluminate
∆
2 Na OH + Zn Na2 Zn O2 + H2
Sodiumzincate
(vi) Bases when heated with ammonium salt, ammonia gas is produced e.g.
∆
NH4 Cl + Na OH Na Cl + H2O + NH3
(vii) Bases When treated with acids, result in the formation of salts and water e.g.
NaOH + HCl Na Cl + H2O
KOH + HNO3 KNO3 + H2O
(viii) Bases react with non-metal oxides to form salt and water. e.g.
Ca (OH)2 + CO2 CaCO3 + H2O
(ix) They act as electrolytes .i.e. They produce ions in solutions and hence their aqueous
solutions conduct electric current.
Q.6 What are alkalies? Give examples.
Ans. The bases which are soluble in water and give hydroxide ions (OH) in their aqueous
solution are called alkalies. e.g.
NaOH, KOH, NH4 OH etc. They are soapy to touch, bitter in taste and corrosive
in nature. All the bases do not dissolve in water but have basic characteristics. Thus, all
alkalies are bases but all bases are not alkalies.
Q.7 What do all bases have in common?
Ans. When a base is dissolved in water, it always produces hydroxide ions ( OH ions). Thus a
base is substance which upon dissolving in water produces hydroxide ions e.g. sodium
hydroxide is a base because it dissolves in water to produce hydroxide ions.
NaOH + H2O Na+ (aq)+ OH (aq)
Similarly,
KOH + H2O K+ (aq) + OH (aq)
Mg (OH)2 + H2O Mg2+ (aq-) + 2OH (aq)
From the above examples it is evident that a common property of all the bases is that they
all produce hydroxide(OH) ion when dissolved in water. Thus, Na OH, KOH, Mg(OH)2,
Ca (OH)2, NH4 OH etc are all bases because upon dissolving in water they produce
hydroxide (OH) ions.
a. Strong Base:- A base which completely ionizes in water and thus produces a large
amount of hydroxide ions (OH) is known as a strong base. e.g. NaOH, KOH, Ba (OH)2 are
strong bases because they completely ionise in aqueous soln.
b. Weak Base:- A base which partially ionizes in water and thus produces a small amount
of hydroxide ions (OH) is known as a weak base. e.g. NH 4OH, Ca (OH)2, Mg (OH)2 are
weak bases because they ionize partially in their aqueous solns.
Q.9 Write a note on pH scale and pH value.
Ans. In 1909, Sorenson devised a scale known as pH scale on which the strength of acid
solutions as well as basic solutions could be represented by making use of hydrogen ion
concentration. Sorenson linked the hydrogen ion concentrations of acid and base solutions
to the simple numbers 0 to 14 on the pH scale. The term pH is derived from the Danish
word Potenz de hydrogen (power of H+ ion).
pH of a solution is defined as the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration in
moles per litre.
Mathematically; pH = -log [H+] = or H+ = 1/ log[H+]
Thus pH of a solution may be also be defined as the logarithm of the reciprocal of
hydrogen ion concentration.
pH of Neutral solution.
In pure water [H+] = 1.0 x 10-7
pH of pure (neutral) water = - log (10-7) = -7 x -log 10 = -7 x -1 = 7
Thus, the pH value of pure water is equal to 7.
pH of Acid Solutions
We know that all acidic solutions have H+ ion concentration greater than 1.0 x 10-7. The
H+ ion concentration in an acidic solution may be 10-5 , 10-6, 10-4, etc.
Consider an acidic solution whose H+ ion concentration = 10-6
Its pH = - log (H+) = - log(10-6) = –6 x –log10 = –6 x – 1 = 6 [ log10=1]
Thus. pH values of all acidic solutions will be less than 7.
pH of Basic Solutions
All basic solutions have H+ ion concentration less than 10-7. Consider a basic solution
whose H+ ion concentration is 10–8
Its PH= - log [H+] = - log [10-8] = -8 x –log 10 = -8 x -1 = 8
Thus, pH valves of all basic solutions will be more than 7.
It may be noted that
(1) Solutions having pH between 0 to 2 are strongly acidic.
(ii) Solutions having pH between 2 to 4 are moderately acidic.
(iii) Solutions having pH between 4 to 7 are weakly acidic.
(iv)Solutions having pH equal to 7 are neutral
(v) Solutions having pH between 7 and 10 are weakly basic;
(vi) Solutions having pH between 10 and 12 are moderately basic.
(vii) Solutions having pH between 12 and 14 are strongly basic.
Q.10 Describe the importance of pH in every day life.
Ans. pH plays a very important role in our every day life as described below:
(i) Biological Importance:- Biochemical reactions take place at definite pH values. Our
body works within a pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. If there occurs any change in this pH, there
occurs disturbance in the normal functioning of our body.
(ii) pH in our digestive system:- Our stomach produces hydrochloric acid which helps in the
digestion of food. But during indigestion, the stomach produces too much acid, which
causes pain and irritation. To relieve this pain, antacids such as magnesium hydroxide
(milk of magnesia) which is a mild base is used to bring the pH in stomach in the normal
range.
(iii)Sulphates:- The salts which are formed by the reaction of sulphuric acid (H2SO4) with
any base are called sulphates e.g. Sodium sulphate (Na2SO4), Potassium sulphate (K2SO4)
magnesium sulphate (Mg SO4), Copper sulphate (CuSO4) etc.
(iv) Carbonates:- The salts which are formed by the reaction of carbonic acid (H2CO3) with
any base are known as carbonates e.g.
Sodium carbonate (Na2 CO3), Potassium carbonate (K2 CO3), Calcium carbonate
(CaCO3) etc.
Some other families are phosphates, oxalates, acetates etc. These families are derived from
phosphoric acid, oxalic acid, acetic acid respectively.
Q.13 pH Values of Salt Solutions:-
The interaction of salts with water to give acidic, basic or neutral solutions is called as salt
hydrolysis. The pH of the solution obtained after the salt hydrolysis depends upon the type
of salt dissolved. On the basis of nature of the acid or base from which salts are derived,
salts are of following four types:
a. Salts of a strong acid and a strong base:- The solution of salts, derived from strong acid
and strong base have neutral pH i.e. ‗7‘ this is because the acid and base produced,
neutralize each other completely. e.g.
NaCl, Na NO3, Na2 SO4, KCl, KNO3, K2SO4.
NaCl + H2O NaOH + HCl
Sodium Sodium Hydrochloric
Chloride Hydroxide acid
(Strong Base) (Strong acid)
b. Salts of strong acid and weak base:- The solution of salts, derived from strong acid and
weak base have acidic pH i.e. less than 7. this is because the strong acid produced is not
completely neutralized by weak base produced.
e.g. NH4 Cl, Cu SO4, Al Cl3, Zn SO4 etc.
NH4 Cl + H2O NH4 OH + HCl
Ammonium (W.B) (S.A)
Chloride Salt
c. Salts of weak acid and strong base:- The solution of salts, which are obtained from
weak acid and strong base have basic pH i.e. greater than 7. This is because the strong
base produced is not completely neutralized by weak acid. e.g.
Na2 CO3 , Na HCO3, CH3 COONa etc.
Na2 CO3 + 2H2 O H2CO3 + 2Na OH
Sodium Carbonate (W.A) (S.B)
d. Salts of weak acid and weak base:- The soln. of the salts derived from weak acid and
weak base is almost neutral i.e. pH nearly equal to 7,. e.g. CH3 COO NH4
CH3 COONH4 + H2O CH3 COOH + NH4 OH
Ammonium (W.A) (W.B)
Acetate.
Q.14 Give a detailed account of common salt (sodium chloride).
Ans. Chemical Nature of common salt:- Common salt is chemically called as sodium
chloride. Its chemical formula is NaCl. It is used as an essential constituent of food
materials. Hence is also called as table salt.
Occurrence:- Common salt occurs naturally in sea- water and as rock salt.
(i) Common salt from sea water:- Common salt is obtained from sea water by the process
of evaporation. In this process, water is trapped in large shallow pools called as lagoons
for evaporation. The sun‘s heat evaporates the water slowly and common salt is left
behind. How ever, the common salt so obtained is still impure as it contains many other
salts mixed with it.
(ii) Common salt from underground deposits:- Common salt is also found in the form of
solid deposits in several parts of the world under the earth‘s crust. These underground
deposits are called rock salt. Rock salt is usually brown due to presence of impurities in it.
Rock Salt is mined from the underground deposits just like coal.
Use of common salt:-
(i) It is an essential constituent of our food materials.
(ii) it is used as preservative for a number of food materials e.g. in packed meat and fish.
(iii)It is used to prepare freezing mixtures (like ice-creams)
(iv) It is used in the preparation of soaps, pottery glaze etc.
(v) It is used as a raw material for the preparation of other chemicals.
Q.15 What is caustic soda?
How is it manufactured? Give its uses.
Ans. Caustic soda is chemically called as sodium hydroxide. Its chemical formula is NaOH. It
is basic in nature and acts as a strong base. Sodium hydroxide is prepared by chloro alkali
process. The process involves the passage of electric current through an aqueous solution
of sodium chloride called brine. It produces hydrogen gas at cathode and chlorine gas at
anode. The solution obtained in the cathodic compartment contains sodium hydroxide.
This solution is taken out and is concentrated to get solid sodium hydroxide. The reactions
taking place are:-
Water
2NaCl (S) 2Na+ (aq.) + 2 Cl (aq).
(ii) It gradually loses its chlorine when left exposed to the air. This is because CO2
present in the air reacts with bleaching powder liberating chlorine.
CaOCl2 + CO2 Ca CO3 + Cl2
bleaching Calcium
Powder Carbonate
(iii) It is soluble in cold water.
(iv) It reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute sulphuric acid liberating
chlorine gas.
Ca OCl2 + 2HCl CaCl 2 + H2O + Cl2
CaOCl2 + H2SO4 Ca SO4 + H2O + Cl2
Uses:-
(i) It is used for bleaching textiles in textile industries.
(ii) It is used for bleaching wood pulp in paper industries.
(iii) It is used for disinfecting water to make it free from germs.
(iv) It is used as an oxidizing agent in many chemical industries.
Q.17) Give preparation properties and uses of plaster of paris.
Ans . The chemical name of plaster of paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate. Its chemical
formula is Ca SO4 ½ H2O.
Preparation:- It is prepared from gypsum which is calcium sulphate dihydrate (CaSO4.2H2O).
Gypsum is heated in a kiln to a temperature of 100OC. At this temperature, it loses three –fourth
of its water of crystallization resulting in the formation of plaster of paris.
100OC
Ca SO4 2H2O Ca SO4 . ½ H2O + 11/2 H2O
Gypsum Plaster of Paris
Properties:-
1. It is a white powder.
2. When mixed with water, it forms a paste which sets into a hard mass. This is called setting
of plaster of paris.
CaSO4 1/2 H2O + 11/2 H2O CaSO4 2H2O
Plaster of Paris (P.O.P) Gypsum
Uses:-
1. It is used for producing moulds for toys, pottery, ceramics etc.
2. It is used for making statues, models and other decorative materials.
3. It is used in medical applications for setting broken and fractured bones in right position
and in dentistry.
4. It is used for making smooth surfaces, decoratives designs on ceilings, walls, pillars etc.
5. It is used as a fire proof material.
6. It is used in laboratories for sealing the air gaps in apparatus to make them air tight
Textual Questions
SECTION - A
Q. 1) You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled
water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution respectively.
If you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test
tube?
Ans) Step-I: Dip the given red litmus paper in each of the three test-tubes. The tube in which
red litmus turn blue contains basic solution.
Step-II: Dip this blue litmus paper now in the remaining two test tubes. The tube in
which blue litmus again changes back into red contains acidic solution.
Step-III: The tube in which neither red litmus turns blue nor blue litmus turns red
contains distilled water.
SECTION - B
Q.1) Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
Ans) Curd and other sour foodstuffs contain acids, which can react with the metal of the vessel
to form poisonous metal compounds which can cause food poisoning and hence damage
our health. Therefore it is advised not to store food stuffs which contain acidic substances
in brass or copper containers.
Q.2) Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an
example. How will you test for the presence of this gas ?
Ans) When acids reacts with metals, salts are produced with the libration of hydrogen gas
Metal + Acid Salt + Hydrogen gas.
e.g. Zn + 2HCl Zn Cl2 + H2
When gas is made to pass through soap solution, the soap bubbles are formed with H 2 gas
in them. Taking a burning candle near bubbles, the gas burns with a pop sound proving
that gas inside is H2 which is highly inflammable. .
SECTION - C
Q.1) Why do HCl, HNO3, etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while
solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Ans. An acid is a substance, which dissociates on dissolving in water to produce hydrogen ions
[H+(aq) ions]. The substance like HCl, H2SO4, show acidic character because they
dissociate in aqueous solutions to produce hydrogen ions, (H+(aq) ions).
On the other hand, substances like alcohol (C2H5OH) and glucose (C6H12O6) do not ionize
to liberate H+ ions in their aqueous solutions, hence are not acidic in nature.
Q.3) Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
Ans. HCl gas shows its acidic character only in aqueous solution. This is because in aqueous
solution it completely ionizes to liberate H+ ions. Hence changes the colour of litmus
paper.
However, when HCl gas is in dry form, it does not show acidic behaviour because it
does not ionize to liberate H+ ions. Since dry HCl gas does not contain any hydrogen ions in it
and it does not show acidic behaviour. That is why there is no change observed on litmus paper.
Q. 4) While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to
water and not water to the acid?
Ans. Dilution of concentrated acid with water is a highly exothermic process. Thus diluting an
acid should be done by adding concentrated acid to water gradually with stirring.
Because the heat is evolved gradually and is easily absorbed by the large amount of water,
If however, water is added to concentrated acid to dilute it, a large amount of heat is
evolved at once. The heat generated may cause the mixture to splash the acid on our face
or clothes and cause acid burns.
Q.5) How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of an
acid is diluted?
Ans) When the concentrated solution of an acid is diluted by mixing water, the concentration of
H+ ions (or H3O+ ions) in solution increases due to increase in the extent of ionization.
However the concentration of hydronium (H3O+ ions) per unit volume decreases.
Q.6) How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH ) affected when excess base is
dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
Ans) concentration of OH- ions increases per unit volume on dissolving excess base in the
solution of sodium hydroxide.
SECTION - D
Q.1) You have two solutions A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B
is 8. (i) Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration?
(ii) Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?
Ans) (i) The pH of a solution is inversely proportional to its hydrogen ion concentration. This
means that the solution having lower pH will have more hydrogen ion concentration. In
this case, solution A(having a lower pH of 6) will have more hydrogen ion concentration
than solution B.
(ii) We know solution with pH < 7 is acidic and the solution with pH > 7 is basic.
Therefore solution A with pH = 6 is acidic and solution B with pH = 8 is basic in nature.
Q. 2) What effect does the concentration of H+(aq) ions have on the nature of the
solution?
Ans. Acids produce hydrogen ions in water. So, when an acid is added to an aqueous solution,
the concentration of hydrogen ions in aqueous solution increases. The solution thus
formed will have more of hydrogen ions and therefore its acidic character increases.
Q.3) Do basic solution also have H+(aq) ions ? If yes, then why are these basic ?
Ans) Basic solutions also have H+ ions in addition to OH- ions. They are basic because in these
solutions, OH- ion concentration is more than H+ ion concentration.
Q.4) Under what soil condition do you think that a farmer would spread or treat the soil
of his fields with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or
chalk (calcium carbonate).
Ans) For healthy growth of plants, the soil should be neither alkaline nor highly acidic. A quick
lime or slaked lime or chalk are all alkaline substances, these would be added to the soil
by the farmer when the soil is highly acidic, in order to decrease its acidic nature.
SECTION - E
Q.1) What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?
Ans. The common name of the compound CaOCl2 is bleaching powder.
Q.2) Name the substance that on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.
Ans) Dry slaked lime (Calcium hydroxide) Ca (OH)2 is the substance that on treatment with
chlorine yields bleaching powder.
Ca (OH)2 + Cl2 CaOCl2 + H2O
Q.3) Name the sodium compound, which is used, for softening hard water.
Ans. Sodium carbonate (washing soda) is used for softening hard water.
Q.4) What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated? Give the
equation of the reaction involved.
Ans. Sodium hydrogen carbonate upon heating decomposes into sodium carbonate, carbon
dioxide and water. The equation for the reaction involved is as follows.
∆
2Na HCO3 Na2 CO3 + CO2 + H2O
Sodium bicarbonate sodium carbonate carbon dioxide water
Q.5) What happens when water is added to plaster of Paris?
Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water?
Ans. Plaster of Paris has a very remarkable property of setting into a hard mass on wetting with
water. So, when water is added to plaster of Paris, it sets into a hard mass in about half an
hour. The setting of plaster of Paris is due to the hydration of plaster of paris. The
hydrated crystals of plaster of Paris is called gypsum, which sets to form a hard, solid
mass.
CaSO4. ½ H2O + ½ H2O CaSO4 .2H2O
Plaster of Paris Gypsum
SECTION - F
Q.1) A solution turns red litmus blue, it pH is likely to be (a) 1 (b) 4 (c ) 5 (d) 10.
Ans) (d) 10
Q.2) A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime water milky.
The solution contains (a) NaCl (b) HCl (c) LiCl (d) KCl
Ans) (b) HCl
Q.3) 10 ml of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralized by 8 ml of a given
solution of HCl. If we take 20ml of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl
solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralize it will be
(a) 4 ml (b) 8 ml (c) 12 ml (d) 16 ml.
Ans) (d) 16 ml.
Q.4) Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion ?
(a) Antibiotic (b) Analgesic (c ) Antacid (d) Antiseptic.
Ans) (c ) Antacid
Q.5) Write word equations and then balanced equations for the reactions taking place
when (a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granule
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon
(c ) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
Therefore the solutions with pH = 4,1 are acidic and solutions the with pH = 9,11 are
basic and the solution with pH = 7 is neutral in nature. The pH of a solution is inversely
proportional to its hydrogen ion concentration. This means that with the increase of pH
acidic character decreases and basic character increases ,therefore the solution with pH = 1
will be Strongly acidic and the solution with pH = 4 will be Weakly acidic, while as
solution with pH = 11 will be Strongly basic and the solution with pH = 9 will be Weakly
basic in nature.
. S.No. Solution pH Nature
1. D 7 Neutral
2. C 11 Strongly alkaline
3. B 1 Strongly acidic
4. A 4 Weakly acidic
5. E 9 Weakly alkaline
Q.10) Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B.
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test-tube A while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is
added to test-tube B. In which test-tube will fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
Ans) Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is a weak acid whereas hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid.
Fizzing occurs in the test tube due to the evolution of hydrogen gas by the action of acid
on magnesium ribbon. Since hydrochloric acid is a strong acid a large amount of hydrogen
gas is liberated in the test tube A. So fizzing occurs more vigorously in test tube A than
test tube B.
Q.11) Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into
curd? Explain.
Ans. When milk turns into curd, lactic acid is formed, which increases the acidic character of
the milk. We know more acidic is a substance, lesser is its pH. Thus when milk
changes into curd, its pH will decrease. Therefore the pH of the milk will change to below
6, when milk turns into curd.
Q.12) A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
Ans. Fresh milk is acidic and becomes more acidic easily and turns sour in taste. In presence of
baking soda, milk becomes alkaline and does not turn sour easily because the alkali does
not allow the milk to become more acidic easily.
(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Ans. When the milk sets to curd, lactic acid is formed and its pH decreases i.e. it becomes
more acidic. The presence of alkali does not allow it to become more acidic easily. Hence
it will take a long time to set as curd.
Q.13) Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Why?
Ans:- Plaster of paris is CaSO4 ½ H2O. It absorbs moisture to become gypsum with formula
CaSO4 2H2O, and sets to a hard mass.
CaSO4 ½ H2O + 1½ H2O CaSO4 2H2O
Plaster of paris gypsum
Thus if Plaster of Paris is not stored in a moisture-proof container, it will absorb
moisture and become gypsum, which sets to a hard mass. This will make the plaster of
paris useless after some time. Hence it should be stored in a moisture proof container.
Q.14) What is a neutralization reaction? Give two examples.
Ans. A neutralization reaction is a reaction in which an acid reacts with a base, to form salt
and water.
Examples:(i) Sodium hydroxide (base) reacts with hydrochloric acid(acid) and forms
Sodium Chloride (Salt) and water.
(iii) Washing soda loses nine molecules of water of crystallization when kept open in
air. This process is called efflorescence. Thus washing soda is efflorescent in
nature.
(iv) It is readily soluble in water. It dissolves in water to form an alkaline solution.
(v) On heating washing soda does not decompose, but loses all the molecules of water
and becomes dry.
(vi) It reacts with acids to give out carbon dioxide.
Na2CO3 + 2 HCl 2NaCl + CO2 + H2O
Uses:-
(i) It is used in laundry.
(ii) It is used for softening hard water.
(iii) It is used in the manufacture of glass, soaps, paper etc.
(iv) It is used as cleansing agent for domestic purposes.
(v) It is used as laboratory reagent.
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Physics
Lesson No. 1 Light
Conceptual Questions
Light: Light is a form of energy which causes sensation of sight.
Ray of light: Straight line drawn in the direction of propagation of light is termed as ray of light.
The types of sources of light: The natural source of light is sun. Other manmade (artificial
sources) of light are electric bulb, oil lamp, fluorescent tube, sodium lamp, mercury lamp etc. The
sources emitting light of their own are called self-luminous. For example the sun, glow worm
(i.e., Jugnu) etc. The sources which do not possess their own light but give light called reflected
light of other luminous sources are called non-luminous sources, e.g. moon, earth, paper etc.
Speed of light:
Light travels in different speeds in different media.
a) Speed of light in vacuum = 3 x 108m/s
b) Speed of light in air is almost same as in vacuum, (3x108m/s)
c) Speed of light in water = 2.25 x 108m/s
d) Speed of light in glass = 1.80 x 108m/s.
Incident ray: It is defined as light traveling in first medium.
Point of incidence: It is a point at which incident ray strikes reflecting surface.
Angle of incidence: The angle which the incident ray makes with the normal at the point of
incidence is called angle of incidence. It is represented by i.
Angle of reflection: The angle which the reflected ray makes with the normal at the point of
incidence is called angle of reflection. It is represented by r.
Medium of propagation: It may be defined as the path or way through which light passes.
E) Focal length: It is the distance between the pole of the spherical mirror and principal
focus. It is represented by ―f‖.
F) Aperture: It is the effective diameter of reflecting area (surface) of the mirror. The
aperture
represents the size of the mirror.
G) Radius of curvature: Radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is the radius of the sphere
of which mirror is a part. It is represented by the letter ―R‖.
H) Principal section: A section of a spherical mirror cut by a plane passing through the pole
and centre of curvature of the mirror is called principal section of the mirror.
Relation between radius of curvature and focal length:
The focal length of a spherical mirror is equal to half the radius of curvature of the mirror.
i.e. f = ½ R or R = 2f
where R= radius of curvature and f= focal length.
This formula is valid for both concave and convex mirrors.
Q.2) What are spherical mirrors? Give sign conventions for spherical mirrors.
Ans) Spherical mirror Spherical mirror is a part of hallow sphere with one side highly polished
to reflect almost all the light falling on it. Spherical mirrors are of two types:
(A) Concave spherical mirror (B) Convex spherical mirror
i. Concave spherical mirror: A concave mirror is that spherical mirror whose outer bulged
surface is polished and reflection of light takes place at the concave surface (bent-in
surface). The inner shining surface of a spoon is an example of concave mirror.
ii. Convex spherical mirror: A convex mirror is that spherical mirror whose inner surface is
polished and the reflection of light takes place at convex surface (bulged out surface).
Sign convention used in spherical mirrors:
The new Cartesian sign conventions used for measuring various distances in the ray
diagrams of the spherical mirrors (convex or concave) are summarized as follows:
i. All distances are measured from the pole of the spherical mirror pole is taken as origin.
ii. The distances measured in the direction of incident ray are taken as positive while those
measured in the direction opposite to the incident light are taken as negative.
iii. Height of object or image measured in upward direction and perpendicular to the principal
axis is taken as positive.
iv. Heights of object/image measured in downward direction and perpendicular to the
principal axis are taken as negative.
v. Distance in real image is negative while in virtual image it is positive.
vi. The principal axis of the mirror is taken along x-axis.
vii. The object is taken on the left hand side of the mirror.
m= v = h2
u h1
linear magnification has no units.
1) When size of the image is greater than the size of object i.e. then h2 > h1
as m = h2/h1, then m>1
The linear magnification is greater than 1 (magnification is very high).
C F P
b) Case 2 When the object is placed beyond the centre of curvature: A ray of light AD
coming parallel to the principal axis gets reflected along DF. Another ray of light AE
passing through centre of curvature is reflected along EC. (this ray retraces its path) The
image is formed between centre of curvature (C) and focus (F). The image is real, inverted
and diminished.
c)
Case 3 When the object is placed at centre of curvature: A ray of light AD parallel to
the principal axis is reflected along DA1. Another ray of light AE passing through the
focus is reflected along EA1 parallel to the principal axis. The image is formed at centre of
curvature (C) and is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object.
d) Case 4 Object between focus and centre of curvature: When the object AB is placed
between (F) and (C). A ray of light AD parallel to principal axis passes through focus (F)
after reflection at D. Another ray of light AE passes through centre of curvature (C) after
reflection at E (it retraces its path ). The two rays actually meet at A1. Thus forming the
image A1B1. It is real, inverted and magnified image and is formed beyond the centre of
curvature.
e) Case 5 Object placed at focus (F): If the object is placed at F focus, all the rays starting
from the object become (||) parallel to the principal axis after reflection from mirror and
therefore meet at infinity. Thus image formed is at infinity. The image formed is real,
inverted and magnified, this image can‘t be obtained on screen.
f) Case 6 Object between pole and focus: A ray of light AD parallel to principal axis passes
through focus (F), after reflection at D. Another ray of light AE passes through centre of
curvature C after reflection at E (this ray retraces its path). The two reflected rays DF and
EAC diverge and cannot meet actually. However, when these two reflected rays are
produced back, they appear to come from a common point A1 behind the mirror. Thus
A1B1 is the image of the object, which is virtual, erect, magnified and lies behind the
mirror. As the image is virtual, it cannot be obtained on screen.
Q)6. Describe the rules for tracing the path of reflected light rays: (convex mirror)?
Ans) Following are the rules for tracing the path of reflected rays
Rule1) A ray of light falling on the mirror in a direction parallel to the principal axis of a
convex mirror appears to be coming from its focus on reflection from the mirror as shown in
figure.
Principal axis
F C
Rule2) A ray of light directed towards centre of curvatureFocus
of a convex mirror is reflected
back along the same path i.e. such a ray of light retraces its path on reflection as shown in
figure.
Incident
Reflected
Principal axis
P C
Rule3) A ray of light directed towards focus of a convex mirror becomes parallel to the
principal axis of mirror after reflection. This rule is just the reverse of Rule1.
Reflected rays M1
Principal axis
P F
M2 Focus
Convex mirror
Rule4) A ray of light incident obliquely towards the pole P of a convex mirror is reflected
obliquely. Such that the incident ray and the reflected ray make equal angles with the
principal axis.
Incident rays convex mirror
i
Principal axis r P F C
F C
Reflected ray Focus
Q)7. Discuss the image formation by a convex mirror with the help of a ray diagram?
Ans) The image formed by a convex mirror is always behind the mirror. The image formed is
virtual, erect and smaller in size, whenever the distance of the object is changed from convex
mirror, then only the position and the size of the image changes. There are two main positions
of object in case of a convex mirror from the point of view of position and size of image:
(i) At infinity
(ii) Anywhere between pole (P) and infinity.
(i) When the object is placed at infinity: A ray of light AP inclined to the principal
axis is reflected at P along PG. Another ray of light AD is reflected at D, along
DE. The two reflected rays PG and DE, when produced back intersects at point A`.
Thus A` B` image is formed at focus (f) behind the mirror, the image formed is
virtual, erect and highly diminished in size.
Fig. A
(ii) When the object is placed between infinity and the pole of the mirror: A ray of light
AD parallel to principal axis is reflected at D, along DE. Another ray of light AG retraces its pass
on reflection at G. the two reflected rays DE and GA when produced back intersect at A. Thus
A1B1 is the image formed, which is virtual, erect, and diminished in size and lies behind the
mirror between P and F.
Fig B
Q)10. What are the rules used for obtaining image formed by convex lenses?
Ans:-When an object is placed in front of a convex lens, an image is formed, at that point
where at least two refracted rays meet (or appear to meet).
Rule 1:- A ray of light which is parallel to the principal axis of a convex lens, passes through
its (second) principal focus after refraction through the lens as shown in fig (a)
Rule 2:- A ray of light passing through the optical centre of a convex lens passes straight after
refraction through the lens as shown in figure (b).
Rule 3 :- A ray of light passing through the (first) principal focus of a convex lens becomes
parallel to its principal axis after refraction through the lens as shown in figure (c).
Q)11. Discuss the image formation by convex lens with the help of ray diagram?
Ans:- The type of image formed by a convex lens depends on the positions of the object in front
of lens. Following six cases arise..
Case 1:- When the object is placed at infinity.
Two parallel rays of light AC and AD are inclined to the principal axis of the lens. The ray AC
passes undeviated through optical centre and ray AD converges on refraction through the convex
lens. The two refracted rays actually meet at A~.
The image is formed at the second principal focus (F2) of the convex lens. The image is real,
inverted & highly diminished as shown in figure.
Case III:- When the object is placed at 2F1 (F1 is first principal focus):
A ray of light starting from A and incident on the lens along AD in a direction parallel to
principal axis of the lens, on refraction, passes through second principal focus F2 of the lens.
Another ray of light starting from A and incident on the lens along AC, passes undeviated
through the optical centre. The two refracted rays meet actually at A`.
The image is formed at 2F2. The image is real, inverted & same in size as shown in figure.
through optical centre C of the lens. The two refracted rays emerge from the lens in a direction
paralleled to each other, as shown in figure. Those rays would meet at very large distance from
the lens, say at infinity.
The image is formed at infinity. The image is real, inverted & highly magnified as shown in
figure.
The image formed is beyond f1 on the same side of the lens the image formed is virtual, erect &
enlarged as shown in figure.
Q12. What are the rules used for obtaining image formed by concave lens?
Ans) When an object is placed infront of a concave lens, an image is formed. The image is
formed at that point where at least two refracted rays meet (or appear to meet).
Rule 1) A ray of light which is parallel to the principal axis of a concave lens, appears to be
coming from its focus after refraction through the lens. as shown in fig (a)
Rule 2) A ray of light passing through the optical centre of a concave lens goes straight after
passing through the lens. as shown in fig (b)
Rule3) A ray of light appearing to meet at the principal focus of a concave lens after refraction,
will emerge parallel to the principal axis of the lens. This is shown in figure (C).
The image is formed at a point, where the two refracted rays appear to meet. For all positions of the
object, the image formed by a concave lens is virtual, erect and diminished in size. The exact position
and size of the image would depend upon the position of the object.
Two cases arise:
Case 1) When the object lies between optical centre and infinity:
A ray of light AD starting from the top point A of the object is falling on the concave lens in a
direction parallel to principal axis of the lens. This ray diverges after refraction along DE and
on producing back; it appears to come from second principal focus F2 of the lens. Another ray
of light AC starting from the same point A on the object, passes undeviated through the
optical centre C, along ACG. The two refracted rays intersect at A`. Therefore, A` is virtual
image of the point A on the object.
When an object is held anywhere between optical centre C of concave lens and infinity, the image
formed is:
(i) Between optical centre C and second principal focus F2; on the same side of the lens and the image
is,
(ii) Virtual and erect and
(iii) Smaller in size than the object.
Fig. (a)
Case 2) When the object is at infinity:
When the object is at infinity point, image is formed at the second principal focus on the same side of
the lens. This is shown in figure (b). The image is virtual, erect and highly diminished to almost point
size.
fig (b)
Q.13) Refraction: The phenomenon of change in the direction of propagation of light when it
goes from one medium to another is called refraction. In other words refraction is the
phenomenon in which bending of light takes place when it passes from one medium to
another medium. The refraction takes place at the boundary of two media. The basic cause
of refraction is change in the velocity of light in going from one medium to another
medium.
In given figure the incident ray traveling in air medium along ―AO‖ and when it enters
glass medium at point ―O‖, it bends and goes along ―OB‖.
In the given figure ―AO‖ is incident ray, ―OB‖ is refracted ray, BON is angle of
refraction and OAN is angle of incidence. ON is the normal.
It has been found that when a ray of light goes from an optically denser medium to an
optically rearer medium it bends away from the normal at the point of incidence.
and when it goes from a optically rearer medium to an optically denser medium it bends
towards normal at the point of incidence.
Q.14) Laws of refraction:
Ist Law :-It states that the incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of
incidence, all lie in the same plane. In given figure, the incident ray ―AO‖ the refracted ray
―OB‖ and the normal ―ON‖ all lie in the same plane. i.e. plane of paper
2nd Law :- This law gives the relationship between the angle of incidence and angle of
refraction. The law was given by Snell in 1621, so the 2nd law is also called as Snell’s law
of refraction. It states that the ratio of sin of angle of incidence to the sin of angle of
refraction is constant for a given medium.
i.e. sin i = constant
sin r
This constant is called as refractive index and is denoted by mew (µ).
Thus refractive index µ = sin i
sin r
3rd Law :- It states that whenever light goes from one medium to another, the frequency
of light and phase of light do not change. However, the velocity of light and the wave
length of light changes.
Q.15) Refractive index: The refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of speed of light
in vacuum to the speed of light in the given medium. It is represented by ―µ‖.
Refractive index of a medium = speed of light in vacuum
speed of light in given medium
As the speed of light in air is almost equal to speed of light in vacuum.
Therefore, µ= speed of light in air (C)
Speed of light in given medium (V)
µ = C/ V
Refractive index has no unit (as it is ratio of two velocities).
e.g, refractive index of glass
µg = speed of light in air = 3x108m/s = 1.5
speed of light in glass 2x108m/s
refractive index of water
8
µw = speed of light in air ≈ 3x10 m/s = 4/3 = 1.33
speed of light in water 2.25x108m/s
Relative Refractive Index: When light passes from medium1 to another medium 2 the
refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1 is written as 1n2 and is called
relative refractive index.
If n1 is the refractive index of medium 1 and n2 that of medium 2
Then, 1n2 = n2 --------- 1
n1
If v1 is the speed of light in medium 1 and v2 in medium 2
Then n1 = C/V1 and n2 = C/V2 ----------- 2
Substitute n1 by C/V1 and n2 by C/V2 in equation 1; we hav
1
n2 = C/V2 X V1/C = V1/V2 ----------- 3
1
n2 = speed of light in medium 1
speed of light in medium 2
similarly refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 is
2
n1 = n1/n2 = C/V1 x V2/C = V2/V1 ---------- 4
Q.17) Define the principal focus & focal length of a convex lens?
Ans) A convex lens has two surfaces & hence it has two focal point or principal foci.
First principal focus of a convex lens is the position of point object on the principal axis
of the lens, for which the image formed by the lens is at infinity. It is represented by F1.
First focal length: The distance of first principal focus of the lens from optical centre ‗C‘
of the lens is called first focal length of convex lens. In above figure, f 1 = CF1 It is
represented by f1.
Second Principal Focus of a convex lens is the position of an image point on the
principal axis of the lens, when the point object is situated at infinity. It is denoted by F2 .
It is a real point.
Second focal length The distance of 2nd principal focus of the lens from the optical centre
―C‖ of the lens is called second focal length of convex lens. It is represented by f2. Thus in
given figure f2 = CF2.
if ―h1‖ is the size of the object and ―h2‖ size of the image then, m = h2 (1)
h1
The linear magnification produced by a lens in terms of the image distance and object
distance is equal to the ratio of image distance to the object distance.
Thus magnification = image distance
object distance.
If ―I‖ is the image distance and ―O‖ is the object distance.
Then m = I (2 )
O
From equation (1) and (2) we have
m = I = h2
O h1
A concave lens forms an image which is always smaller than the object . Therefore linear
magnification of a concave lens is always less than one (1).
In case of a convex lens:
(i) When the size of an image is equal to the size of the object i.e. h2=h1. Therefore
m = h2 = 1 = 1. thus the magnification is equal to one (1)
h1 1
(ii) When the size of the image is greater than the size of the object i.e. h2 is greater than
h1 as m = h2 > 1
h1
then m is greater than one (1).Thus linear magnification is greater than one
(iii) when the image is smaller than object i.e. h2 is less than h1,
as m= h2 , then ―m‖ is less than one. Thus linear magnification is less than one
h1
Q.20 Define Power of a lens?
Ans) The power of a lens is defined as the ability of lens to converge the rays of light falling on
it . A convex lens converges the rays of light falling on it, power of convex lens is said to
be positive.
A concave lens diverges the rays of light falling on it . Therefore power of a concave lens
is said to be negative.
The power of a lens depends on its focal length . Mathematically, the power of lens is
given by reciprocal of focal length of the lens i.e.,
Power of lens P = 1 i.e. 1P =
Focal Length of the lens(f) f
Where ‗f‘ is in metres. However if f is in cm then power of a lens is expressed
as P = 100
f
Clearly, smaller the focal length of a lens, greater is its power & Vice-versa.
For a convex lens, ‗f‘ is positive, therefore, ‗P‘ is positive i.e., power of convex lens is
positive.
For concave lens f is negative. So P is negative i.e. power of concave lens is negative.
The S.I unit of power of lens is dioptre, represented by ‗D‖
When f= 1m, P = 1 = 1 =1 dioptre.
f 1
Thus one dioptre is the power of a lens of focal length one metre.
The power of lens in diopters is called the number of lens e.g., a convex lens of focal
length
50cm (f = 0.5m) has power = 1 = 2D
0.5m
Now m = h - v
=
h u
ϰ v
u = -1
u = -v
u = -501cm
Negative sign shows that object is to the left side of the convex lens.
1
Also 1 = 1 − 1
f v u
or 1 = 1 − −1
f 50 50
or 1 = 1 + 1 2 1
= =
f 50cm 50cm 50 25
or 1 = 1
f 25 cm
or f = 25 cm
1 p = power of the lens
we know when 1 1
Now P = 100
f
or P = 100 4
25
P = 4
ϰ P = + 4 Dioptre.
Textual Questions
SECTION - A
Reflection
Q1. What do you understand by principle focus of a concave and convex mirror?
Ans. Principal focus of a concave mirror. The principal focus of a concave mirror is a point
on principal axis of the mirror, at which rays of light incident on the mirror in a direction
parallel to the principal axis, actually meet (converge) after reflection from the mirror. It
is represented by the letter ―F‖. In given figure parallel rays after falling on concave
mirror get reflected and meet in front of concave mirror at point F. Thus in case of
concave mirror Principal focus is real point lying always in front of the mirror.
Principal focus of a convex mirror:- The principal focus of a convex mirror is a point on the
principal axis of the convex mirror, from which rays of light incident on the mirror in a direction
parallel to the principal axis, appears to diverge, after reflection from the mirror: It is represented
by the letter F. In given figure parallel rays after falling on convex mirror get reflected and
diverge out. When the diverging reflected rays are produced back, they meet at F and appear to
diverge from F. Thus F is the principal focus. Thus in case of convex mirror principal focus is a
virtual point, which is always behind the mirror.
Q.2) The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. What is its focal length?
Ans) Radius of curvature = r = 20 cm-------- (given)
We know; r = 2f where f is focal length of mirror
or f = r --------------- (1)
2
substituting value of r in equation (1) we get
f = 20 cm = 10 cm
2
Therefore focal length of given mirror is 10 cm
Q. 3) Name mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object?
Ans. A concave mirror gives an erect and enlarged image of an object, when an object is held
between the pole and principal focus of a mirror.
Q.4) Why do you prefer a convex mirror as a rear view mirror in vehicles?
Ans. A convex mirror is preferred as a rear view mirror in vehicles to see the traffic behind the
rear side because;
i. A convex mirror produces an erect image of the objects.
ii. A convex mirror produces the image of an object much smaller than the size of the
object.
iii. Convex mirrors have a wider field of view as they are curved outwards. Therefore,
convex mirrors enables the driver to view much larger area of the traffic behind him
than would be possible in using plane mirror as a rear view mirror in vehicles.
SECTION - B
Q.1) Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm.
Ans) Radius of curvature = r = 32 cm
We know; r = 2f where f is focal length of concave mirror
or f = r --------------- (1)
2
substituting value of r in equation (1) we get
f = 32 cm = 16 cm
2
Therefore focal length of given mirror is 16 cm
Q.2) A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an object
placed at 10cm imfront of it. Where is the image located?
Ans) We know that
SECTION - C
Q.1) A ray of light traveling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend
towards the normal or away from the normal. why?
Ans. When a ray of light travels from air into water obliquely it bends towards the normal. This
is because water is optically denser than air, therefore on entering the water speed of light
decreases and the ray of light bends towards normal.
Q.2) Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50. What is the speed of light
in the glass? The speed of light in vacuum is 3 x 108 ms-1.
Ans) Given that
Refraction index of glass, aµg = 1.50 speed of light in vacuum(air) = 3 x 108 ms-1.
we know that; 1µ2 = velocity of light in medium 1
velocity of light in medium 2
where µ2 is reflective index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1.
Therefore, refractive index of glass, aµg = velocity of light in air
velocity of light in glass.
or velocity of light in glass = velocity of light in air
refractive index of glass
or velocity of light in glass = 3 x 108 ms-1
1.5
Velocity of light in glass = 2x 108 ms-1
Q.3) Find out the medium having highest optical density. Also find the medium with lowest
optical density?
Ans) (i) Medium with highest optical density :- As we know that a medium is said to
optically denser, whose refractive index is larger and a medium is said to be optically rarer,
whose refractive index is smaller . From the data available, it is clear that the medium with
highest value of refractive index is diamond (2.42), thus diamond is the medium with highest
optical density.
(ii) Medium with lowest optical density Similarly the medium with lowest value refractive
index is air (1.003) thus air is the medium with lowest optical density.
Q.4) Your are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In which of these does the light travel
fastest? Use the information given in the table?
Transparent media Refractive Index Transparent media Refractive
Index
Air 1.0003 Turpentine 1.47
Ice 1.31 Diamond 2.42
Water 1.33 Rock salt 1.54
Alcohol 1.36 Benzene 1.50
Kerosene Oil 1.44
c
We know µ = /v
or v = c/µ where µ is refractive index of given medium, c velocity of light in vacuum and
v velocity of light in the given medium.
From above equation it is clear that larger the value of refractive index of a medium smaller
the speed of light in that medium and vice versa. thus light travels fastest in a medium whose
refractive index is smallest. Of the above mentioned three liquids, water is having lowest
refractive index, thus light travels fastest in it.
Q.5) Refractive index of diamond is 2.42 what does it mean?
Ans. Refractive index of diamond is (2.42). Therefore optical density of diamond is the largest. As
we know µ = C/V
Therefore v = C/µ where v is the velocity of light in the given medium, µ s the
refractive index of diamond which is the largest, and c is the velocity of light in vacuum
(air) which is constant , therefore v is smallest i.e velocity of light in diamond is minimum.
SECTION - D
Q.1) Define one dioptre of power of a lens.?
Ans. One dioptre is the power of a lens of focal length one metre.
A dioptre is a unit of measurement of the optical power of a lens .
Q.2) A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a needle at a distance of 50 cm from
it. Where is the needle placed infront of the convex lens so that the size of the image
is equal to the size of the object? Also, find the power of the lens.
or - v = h2 ---------(1)
u h1
where m = magnification, h2 = height of image,
h1 = height of object, u = distance of object from lens
-v = distance of image from lens,
or h2 1h −v
h1 = h = u
or − v =- h
= 1
u h
or v
u = − 1
1
By Cross1multiplication
1
v = 1- u
Substitutely value of v in above equation we get
u = − 50 cm 1
Negative sign shows that object is to the left side of the convex lens.
We know 1 = 1 − 1
f v u
Where f is focal length of the lens, u = − 50 cm, v = 50 cm
Or 1 1 − 1
= −
f 50 50
or 1 = 1 + 1 = 2 = 1
f 50cm 50cm 50 cm 25 cm
1 1
or 1 = 1
f 25 cm
f = 25 cm
1
we know where p = power of the lens
P = 100 where p is the power of the lens
f (cm)
substituting the value of f in above equation we have
P = 100 4
25
or P = 4
P = + 4 Dioptre.
Therefore power of lens is 4 D
Q.3) Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2m.
Ans) Focal length, f = − 2m (sign convention), Power of lens P = ?
We know that
P = 1 (1)
f(m)
Substitutely value of f in equation (1) we get
P =− 1
2(m)
1
or P = - 0.5 Dioptre. Therefore Power of lens is - 0.5D
SECTION - E
Q.1) Which one of the following materials can not be used to make a lens? Water, Glass, Plastic,
Clay?
Ans. Clay can not be used to make a lens, as it is not transparent.
Q.2) The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the
object, where should be the position of an object?
Ans. For virtual, erect and larger image, the object must lie between the pole of the mirror and its
focus.
Q.3) Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the size of
the object?
Ans. Let the size of the image which is equal to the size of the objec be equal to h
Therefore height/size of object h1 = h
and height/size of image h2 = - h
Negative sign indicates the inverted image.
m = h2 = - v
h1 u
or − v = h2 ---------(1)
u h1
where m = magnification,1 h2 = height of image,
h1 = height of object, u = distance of object from lens
-v = distance of image from lens,
or h2 1h −v
h1 = h = u
or − v =- h = 1
u h
or v
u = − 1
1
By Cross1multiplication
1
v = 1- u
Negative sign shows that object is to the left side of the convex lens.
We know 1 1 1 1
= −
f v u
Where f is focal length of the lens and v = - u
Ans.To obtain an erect image of an object in a concave mirror, the object is to be held between pole
and principal focus of the mirror. Therefore, range of distance of the object from the mirror
must be less than 15cm. The image will be erect and virtual . The size of image would be
larger than the size of the object.
a. For Head light of a car we use a concave mirror to get a powerful beam of light.
This is because when a lighted bulb is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, it
produces a powerful beam of parallel light rays. This helps us to see things upto a
considerable distance in the darkness of night.
b. For side rear view of a vehicle, we use a convex lens because its field of view is
larger, and it forms virtual, erect and diminished images of objects behind.
c. For solar furnace concave mirror is used because light rays from sun after
reflection from the mirror is concentrated at the focus of the mirror, producing heat
in the solar furnace which is placed at the focus.
Q.5) One half a convex lens is covered with a black paper, will this lens produce a complete
image of the object? Verify your answer experimentally? Explain your observations?
Ans. Yes, it will produce a complete image of the object, as shown in fig. this can be verified
experimentally by observing the image of a distant object like tree on a screen, when half
of the lens is covered with a black paper. However the intensity or brightness of image
will reduce.
Q.6) An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal length 10
cm. Draw the ray diagram and find the position, size and nature of the image
formed.
Ans) Case I :- Here Distance of object from converging lens, u = - 25 cm
Focal length of lens f = + 10 cm
Height of object, v = + 5 cm
According to lens formula,
1 1 = 1
−
v u f
or 1 = 1 + 1
v f u
substituting values of u and f in above equation we have
1 = 1 1
1 −
v 10cm 25 cm
or 1 = 5−2 3
v 50cm = 50cm
1
D:\Radiant Files\Notes given 2009\Higher block\Class 10th\Science\Session 2008-09\Physics\Light
1
248 Science 10th /2016-17 Sir Ishfaq
or 1 = 3
v 50cm
Therefore v = 50 cm = 16.66cm Therefore position of image formed = 16.66cm
1
3
The positive value of V shows that the image is formed on the other side of the lens.
Case II :- We know m = v , where m is magnification, v = 16.66cm, u = −25
1
u
substituting the value of v and u in above equation we have
m = 16.66
−25
Therefore m = − 0.66 The negative value of m shows that the image is real.
Case - III :-
We know m = h2 where h2 is height of image = ? and h1 is height of object = 5cm
h1
or h2 = m x h1
Substituting the value of m and h1 in above equation we get,
h2 = 0.66 x 5 cm
h2 = -3.3 cm
Size of image formed = - 3.3 cm Nature of image formed = real
The negative value of height of the image formed indicates that the image formed is
inverted.
The position, size and nature of image are shown in the ray diagram below;
B
5 cm
A1
A 2F1 F1 o F2 2F2
3.3 cm
25 cm 16.66 cm
Q.7) A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. How far is
the object placed from the lens? Draw the ray diagram.
Ans) Here Focal length f = -15 cm
Distance of image V = -10 cm
Distance of the object u = ?
According to lens formula
1 1 1
−
f = v u
or − 1 1
= − 1
u v f
or 1 −1 1
=1 +1
u v f
or 1 −1 1
= +
u −10 − 15
1 1
1 1
or 1 1 1
u = 10 − 15 (Plz correct here, if any error)
or 1 3−2 1
u = 30 = 30
or −1 = 1
u 30
− u 1= 30 1
Or u = − 30 cm
The negative value 1of u indicates that
1 the object is placed 30 cm in front of the lens.
This is shown in the following ray diagram;
2F2 F2 A1 o F1 F2
10cm
30 cm
Q.8) An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm.
Find the position and nature of the image.
Q.9) The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. What does this mean.
Ans) It means that the size of the image is equal to the size of the object and the position, sign
indicates that the image is virtual and erect.
1 = 1 + 1
f v u
or 1 = 1 1
−
v f u
Substituting the value of f & u in above equation we get
1 = 1 1 1 1
v 15cm − − 2 -20cm = 15 + 20
or 1 4+3 7
= 1 =
v 60 60
v = 8.57 cm
1 the image is formed behind the mirror.
The position value of v indicates that
Case – II :- We know, m = − v 1 1
u
1 1
Where m is magnification, v is the position of the image = 8.57 cm
Substitution the value of v & u in above equation we get
m = − 8.57
− 20
or m = + 0.428
The positive value of magnification indicates that the image formed is virtual. Since,
value of magnification is lesser than 1, therefore, image formed is diminished.
Q.11) As object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27 cm infront of a concave mirror of focal length
18 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed so that a sharp
focused image can be obtained ? Find the size and the nature of the image.
Ans) Case – I :- Here object distance u = - 27 cm
Focal length f = - 18 cm
object height h1= + 7.0 cm
According to mirror formula
1 = 1 + 1
f v u
or 1 = 1 − 1
v f u
or 1 − 1 - 1
v = 18 −
− 27−
or 1 − 1 1
v = 18 + 27
or 1 = 1 1
v = 27 − 18
or 1 1 2 −13 −1
= =1
v 54 54
1 1
v = − 54 cm
Therefore, the screen should be placed at a distance of 54 cm infront of a mirror.
1 1
Case II: We know m = -v Where m is magnification = ?,
1 u object distance u = –27cm
1
image distance v = – 54cm
Substituting the value of v and u in above equation we get
m = − (− 54)
(− 27)
= − 54
27 = −2
m = - 2.
The negative value of magnification indicates that the image formed is real.
1
Case III We know , m = h2 Where h1 is image height = ?
h1 h2 is object height = 7.0
or h2 = m x h1
substitution the value of m and h2 in above equation we get.
h2 = − 2 x 7.0 cm
h2 = − 14.0 cm
The negative value of image height indicates that the image is inverted.
Q.12) Find the focal length of a lens of power -2.0 D. What type of lens is this ?
Ans)
We know that
P = 1 Where f is the focal length of lense=? P is the Power of lens = – 2.0D
f
or f = 1
P
or f = –1
2.0
f = − 1
2.0
f = − 0.5 cm
Since focal length is negative, therefore, the lens is diverging or concave lens.
Q.13) A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power + 1.5 D. Find the focal length of
the lens. Is the prescribed lens diverging or converging?
Ans)
We know that
Lesson No. 2.
Human Eye and the Colourful World
Conceptual Questions
Working of human eye:- Light rays coming from an object to be seen enter the eye through
Cornea and fall on the eye lens through the pupil of the
eye. The eye-lens, being convex, converges the rays of
light, forming a real and virtual Image of the object on the
retina. The large number of rod and cone shaped cells of
the retina get activated by the light falling on them, they
generate electric signals which are sent to the brain via
optic nerve. The brain processes this message and it gives
rise to the sensation of vision. Although the image formed
on the retina is inverted, our mind interprets the image as that of an erect object.
Persistence of vision:- One of the important characteristics of human eye is that the image formed
on the retina of an object is neither permanent nor it fades away instantly . But actually the image
of any object seen persists on the retina for 1/16th of a second even after the removal of object. This
ability of an eye to continue to see the image of an object for a very short duration, even after the
removal of the object, is called persistence of vision. This property of persistence is used in
cinematography i.e. in projection of motion pictures.
It is interesting to note that a chicken wakes up in the morning with the rising sun and goes to
sleep by sunset because the retina of chicken‘s eye contains very few rod shaped cells which
respond to the intensity of light. Due to the lack of the rod shaped cells in its retina, a chicken
needs bright light to see. Similarly a bee has some cone shaped cells in its retina which are
sensitive to ultraviolet light while as human eye can not see ultraviolet so humans are said to
be ultraviolet blind.
Q.3 Colour Blindness:- Colour blindness is said to be occurring when a person can not
distinguish between different colours , though his vision may otherwise be normal. This is
because the retina of the eye of such a person does not posses some cone cells. e.g. a person who
is blind to red-green colour may be deficient in cone shaped cells having red and green pigment in
the retina of his eyes. It is genetic disorder which occurs by inheritance. It has not been cured so
far.
Q. 4 Defects of vision:
The inability of an eye to
see the objects cleary is
known as defect of
vision.
There are five defects of
vision or defects of eye
which can be corrected
by using suitable
spectacles. These are:
(i) Myopia or short
sightedness
(ii) Hypermetropia or
long sightedness.
(iii)Presbyopia
(iv) Astigmation.
(v) Cataract
Out of these five defects
the first two are most
common.
(i) Myopia:- It is that defect due to which an eye can see nearby objects clearly but can not see
the distant objects clearly. This defect is caused either (i) Due to the high converging power of
the eye lens or (ii) due to the eyeball being too long. The far point of an eye suffering from
this defect is less than infinity. In some cases, in an eye suffering from myopia, the ciliary
muscles attached to the eye lens do not relax completely to make the eye lens thinner, in order
to reduce its converging power. So due to the greater converging power of the eye lens; the
image of the distant object is formed in front of the retina and hence the eye can not see it
clearly. In some other cases, in an eye suffering from this defect, the eyeball is too long due to
which the retina is at longer distance from the eye lens. This also leads to the formation of
image of distant object in front of retina. This is shown in the following fig. (b). This defect
can be corrected by using spectacles containing concave lenses of suitable focal lengths as
shown in fig . (c).
Parallel rays of light from infinity first diverge on passing through concave lens and
appear to come from F, then the
rays are converged by the eye lens
and the image is formed on the
retina and hence the eye can see it
clearly.
low converging power of the eye lens or (ii) due to the eye-ball being too short. Thus the
image of a nearby object in a hypermetropic eye is formed behind the retina instead on retina
as shown in the following fig.(b) . This defect can be corrected by using spectacles containing
convex lens. Due to the combined converging action, of this lense and eye lens the image is
formed on the retina and the eye can see the nearby object clearly.
Presbyopia:- It is that defect of eye due to which an old man can not read comfortably and clearly
without spectacles. Presbyopia is a sort of hypermetropia where near point of eye recedes to a
distance more than 25cm from the eye. It is corrected in the same way as hypermetropia by using
spectacles of convex lenses of suitable focal lengths. When a person suffers from both myopia and
hypermetropia his spectacles for correction have bifocal lenses. The upper half is a concave lens
for distant vision and lower half is a convex lens for reading.
(i) Astigmatism:- It is that defect of eye due to which a person can not focus on both
horizontal and virtual lines simultaneously. This defect arises due to the irregularities in
the surface of the cornea. The cornea surface of a normal eye is a part of the surface of a
perfect sphere. A person suffering from this defect has its cornea having different
curvatures in different directions in horizontal and vertical planes. Due to this eye can
focus the object well in one direction while those in the perpendicular direction to it are
not well focused. That is, if the eye can focus well on horizontal lines, it can not focus
well on vertical lines at the same time and vice-versa. This defect can be corrected by
super imposing cylindrical lenses upon the spherical shape of spectacle lenses.
(ii) Cataract:- Another defect of eye that comes usually in old age is cataract. Cataract develops
when the eye lens of a person becomes cloudy (or even opaque) due to the formation of a
membrane over it. It decreases the vision gradually leading some times to total loss of vision.
This problem is solved by cataract surgery i.e. removal of the eye lens and its replacement by
a lens of suitable focal length.
Q 5 Glass Prism:-
A Prism is a transparent glass medium bounded by two triangular and three rectangular faces as shown in
the figure. One of three
rectangular faces is called A
the base and the other two
are called as refracting T
faces. The line joining the N1
two triangular faces is
called the edge of the prism N3
and the angle made by two D
opposite faces is called Q
i1 e
angle of the prism. The r1 r2
refraction through a prism
is different from that N2
through a glass slab in the P
sense that the emergent ray in case of prism is notSparallel to the incident ray so we called it as
B C
deviated ray. Thus light after passing through a prism is deviated from its original path.
Refraction through a glass prism: Consider ABC as the prism with its base BC, and AB and AC
being its refracting faces. Let a ray of light PQ incident on face AB after refraction at Q it is
refracted through QR and it emerges out as RS. Draw N1O and N2O normal at point Q and R.
Producing PQ forwards and RS backwards, the two lines meet at D giving rise to an angle
called as the angle of deviation:
It is defined as the deviation occurred to the incident light due to a prism placed in the path
of incident light and the prism formula is given by
I + e = A +
Dispersion of light:- When a beam of white light is passed through a prism it is splitted into its
constituent colours. The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its constituent seven colours
is called dispersion of light. The seven colours are violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and
red. If the patches of these seven colours are obtained on a screen it is called spectrum of white
light. The spectrum of white light shows the white light is made up of seven colours. It can be
remembered by the word ‗VIBGYOR‘( where V stands for violet,I for indigo, B for blue, G for
green, Y for yellow, O for orange and R for red).
Cause of dispersion:- We know that white light has range of wave length from 38000A to
78000A. Thus when white light passes through the prism, different colours are refracted through
different angles, with the result the seven
colours are spread out to form a spectrum.
The red colour having maximum
wavelength gets deviated least and the
violet having minimum wavelength gets
deviated most.
Thus in this case dispersion of white light
occurs due to the refraction of different
colours through different angles through a
glass prism.
Gift of Vision:-
There are millions of blind people in the world. Their eyesight can be restored if they are
given the eyes donated by others after their death. Thus our eyes can live even after our death. These
are some important points to be noted about the donation of eyes.
1. Any person male or female can donate eyes but he or she must not have any communicable
disease. The person having diabetes, hypertension, asthma, can donate their eyes but those having
Aids, Hepatitis, Leukaemia, Tetanus, Cholera, meningitis can not donate eyes.
Textual Questions
SECTION-A
Q.1) What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye?
Ans. A normal eye can see near by objects clearly as well as the distant objects. The ability of
an eye to focus the distant objects as well as the near by objects on the retina by changing
the focal length of its lens is called accommodation or power of accommodation of eye.
Accommodation acts like a reflex, but can also be consciously controlled, vary the
optical power by changing the form of the elastic lens using the ciliary muscles up to
15 dioptres. When the object is at infinity, the ciliary muscles are relaxed and the eye lens
becomes very thin. And the lens acquires maximum focal length and minimum
converging power. The image of the distant object is formed on the retina. Thus in this
case the eye is relaxed and is called to be unaccommodated. For observing nearby objects
the ciliary muscles, which increase the thickness of the eye lens. And the focal length of
lens decreases and its converging power increases. Thus the image of the nearby objects
is formed on the retina. In this case the eye is in a state of tension and is said to be
accommodated. The maximum accommodation is reached when the object is at a distance
of 25cm from the eye.
Far point of eye:- The most distant point at which an object is seen clearly by an eye is
called far point (F) of the eye. It lies at infinity.
Near point of eye:- The closest point, at which an object is seen clearly by an eye is called
Near point (N) of the eye. The distance between the Near point and the eye is called least
distance of distinct vision. It is denoted by ―d‖ For normal eye its value is 25cm. The
distance between the Near point and the Far point of the eye is called range of vision.
Q.2) A person with myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 m distinctly. What should be
the type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision ?
Ans) A person with a myopic eye should use a concave lens of focal length 1.2m so as to
restore proper vision.
Q.3) What is the far point and near point of the human eye with normal vision?
Ans) For a normal human eye, the far point is at infinity and near point is at 25cm from the eye.
Q.4) A student has difficulty reading the black board while sitting in the last row. What could
be the defect the child is suffering from? How can it be corrected?
Ans) The child is suffering from myopia or short sightedness. The defect can be corrected by
using spectacles with concave lens of suitable focal length.
SECTION–B
Q.1) The human eye can focus object at different distances by adjusting the focal length of
the eye lens. This is due to,
Ans) Power of accommodation of eye.
Q.3) The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about;
Ans) 25 cm
Q.4) The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the
Ans) Ciliary muscles.
Q.5) A person needs a lens of power -5.5 dioptres for correcting his distant vision. For
correcting his near vision be needs a power +1.5 dioptre. What is the focal length of
the lens required for correcting (i) distant vision and (ii) near vision ?
Ans) (i) Power of the lens needed for correcting distant vision of the person P = -5.5
dioptres. Focal length of the lens required for correcting vision is given by; F = 1/p
or F = -1 = 0.18 metres
5.5
or F = 0.18 x 100 cm = 18 cms.
Therefore focal length of the lens will be F = 18 cms.
(ii) Power of the lens required for correcting near vision = + 1.5 D
Focal length of the lens required for correcting vision is given by ; F = 1/p
or F = + 1 = +0.67 metres
1.5
or F = +0.67 x 100 cms = 67 cms
Therefore focal length of the lens will be F = 67 cms.
Q.6) The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm infront of the eye. What is the nature and
power of the lens required to correct the problem?
Ans) To correct myopia, a person concerned should use concave lens (diverging lens) of focal
length f = -80 cm, so that for an object at infinity (u=α), the virtual image is formed at the
far point of myopic person, i,e,
v = -80 cm.
> > I
. >
>
25 cm
or 1 = - 1 + 1
f 100 25
or 1 = - 1+4 = 3
f 100 100
or f = + 100 cm = 100 x 1 m = 1
3 3 100 3
So the sun light contains almost all component colours in the right proportion, therefore the sun in
the sky overhead appears white to us.
Q. 13 .Why danger signals are red?
Ans. Out of all colours of visible light, red has the largest wavelength. When light travels
through atmosphere, the shorter wavelengths are scattered most and the longer wavelengths are
scattered least, that means the light with longer wavelengths can be seen from longer distance.
Thus red colour having the largest wavelength are scattered least and therefore can be seen from
a maximum distance. Hence danger signals are red in colour so as to detect them from a larger
distance.
Q.14 Experiment to study the scattering of light:-
S is a strong source of white light held at the focus
of a convex lens L1. The convex lens renders the
rays of light parallel. The beam of parallel rays is
made to pass through a transparent glass tank
containing clear water. The beam emerging out of
the tank is allowed to pass through a hole made in
a cardboard. The sharp image of this hole is obtained on a screen using another convex lens L2 as
shown in fig.
Switch on the source of light. The beam of light passes through the water in the tank and a white
circular patch is formed on the screen. Now dissolve about 200gm of sodium thiosulphate called
as ―hypo‖ in the water of the tank and add 2ml of conc. Sulphuric acid to the water. it will be seen
that fine microscopic particles of sulphur begin to dissolve in water and a colloidal solution of
sulphur is obtained. Now it will be observed that blue light will be coming from the sides of the
tank due to scattering of short wavelength blue light by the small sulphur particles. This is how
sky looks blue ( the blue part of the sunlight is scattered by small dust particles present in
atmosphere) . If we look at the screen on the front side of the tank containing colloidal solution, a
red patch will be observed on the screen. This is how the sun looks reddish at the time of sunrise
and sunset.
Q.15) Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut?
Ans) This is because at such huge heights of the astronaut, there is nothing to scatter the
sunlight. Therefore, the sky appears dark.
Q. 16 Why does sky appear blue?
Ans. When sunlight enters the atmosphere, the atoms or molecules of gases present in the
atmosphere scatter it. The size of scatter is much less than the wavelength of sunlight.
Hence, scattering of light obeys Rayleigh condition. Since the wavelength of red colour is
maximum and that of violet or blue colour is minimum. Hence red colour is scattered least and
violet or blue colour is scattered the most. Since our eyes are less sensitive to violet colour hence,
the next most scattered colour is blue. This scattered blue colour enters our eyes and hence the
sky appears blue.
Q.17 Why does Sun appear to rise earlier than actually when it rises and sets later than
when it actually sets?
Ans. During the sunrise, the sun is below the horizon but due to atmospheric refraction it
appears to rise just above the horizon. The difference in time involved is two minutes i.e the sun
appears to rise two minutes earlier.
Similary at the sunset which has just gone below the horizon, appears to be just above the horizon
on account of atmospheric refraction. The difference in time involved is two minutes i.e the sun
appears to set two minutes later.
A P A R B
I –
mA
O V B
+ Cell –Key Rh
Q.3) Resistance: Resistance means the obstruction or opposition offered by a conductor to the
flow of electric current. It is symbolically denoted as
Mathematically, the resistance is defined as R = V/I when V is in volts and I in ampere.
Unit of resistance: The S.I unit of resistance is Ohm which is denoted by the symbol ―‖.
Q.4) Combination of resistances: Resistances are used in almost all electrical circuits for
practical purposes. we know that the resistances are available in a wide range, i.e. (10–8 to
1017). Resistances are combined to give a required value which is used in a proper place either
to increase the current or to decrease it. For this purpose resistances are combined in two ways. (i)
Series (ii) Parallel
(i) Resistances in series: Resistances are said to be connected in series if they are connected end
to end and same current flows through all of them when a potential difference is applied across
the combination. Let R1, R2 and R3 are three resistances connected in series to a source which
gives a potential difference V and let I be the current flowing through the combination. Let V1
and V2 and V3 be the potential differences across R1, R2 and R3 respectively as shown in figure so
that total potential difference across three resistances is equal to the applied potential difference
by the battery, i.e.
V = V1 + V2 + V3 __________ (i)
R1 R2 R3
V1 V2 V3
I I
V
+ – K
Applying Ohm‘s law to each resistance separately we have,
V1 = IR1, V2 = IR2 and V3 = IR3
Putting these values of V1, V2 and V3 in (i) we have,
V= IR1 + IR2 + IR3
=> V = I (R1 + R2 + R3) _______ (ii)
Let RS be the equivalent or combined resistance of the combination such that current ―I‖ flows
through it when potential difference ―V‖ is applied across it, then
V = IRS ___________ (iii)
Comparing (ii) and (iii) we have,
IRS = I (R1 + R2 + R3)
=> RS = R1 + R2 + R3 ________ (iv)
Thus in series combination the equivalent resistance is sum of the individual resistances
and becomes greater than the greatest. For n resistances in series, the equivalent resistance is
given by;
RS = R1 + R2 + R3 + ________ + Rn
I3
I I
V
+ – Key
I = I1 + I2 + I3 ___________________ (i)
Applying Ohm‘s law to each resistance respectively, we have;
V = I1R1 => I1 = V
R1
V = I2R2 => I2 = V __________ (ii)
R2
V = I3R3 => I3 = V
R3
Q.5) Electric power: The rate at which work is done by an electric current is called electric
power. It is also defined as the rate at which electric energy is consumed or dissipated. The
electric power is mathematically expressed as;
work done W
Power = Time or P = t
We know electric work is done when charge q is moved against a potential difference,
i.e. W = qv but q = It
W = VIt thus P = VIt = VI [ V = W/Q & I = q/t]
t
Thus electric power is numerically equal to the product of voltage and the current.
From Ohm‘s law; V = IR => Thus , P = IR X I => P= I2R
Also I = V/R => P = V2
R
Units:- The S-I unit of electric power is JS-1 called as watt (W). Power of an electric device is said to
be I watt if a current of 1A flows through it when a potential difference of 1V is applied. Watt is a
small unit of power so we use bigger units of power as K W and M W where 1KW = 10 3w and 1MW
= 106w.
The commercial or trade unit of electric power is horse power (H.P) where 1H.P. = 746w.
Power rating:- Every electrical appliance has a label plate on it. Which tells about the maximum
voltage up to which the device can be operated and the power consumption e.g. an electric bulb rated
100W, 220V means that it will give a power of 100w when operated at 220V.
Prob:- An electric bulb is rated 100w, 220v. Calculate the power consumed by it when operated
on 110v.
Sol.: when P = 100W, V = 220V, Thus R = V2 [ P = V2 ]
P R
or R = (220) = 484
2
100
Now when V = 110V, P = ?
As P = V2 => P = (110)2 = 25 W
R 484
Q.6) Electric energy:- The total work done by a current in an electric circuit is called electric
energy. From the definition of power,
Power = work done => work done = power x time
Time
i.e. W = Pt but P = VI
=> W = VIt
According to Ohm‘s Law; V = IR => W = I2Rt
Also I = V/R V2
=> W = R .t
Thus; W = VIt = I2Rt = V2 .t
R
When V is measured in volt, I in ampere, t in second then w is in joule. This work done by the current
measures the electric energy which is supplied by a source. From above equation it is clear that
electric energy depends on I, R and t.
The S-I unit of electric energy is also called as watt-hour. One watt-hour is amount of electric
energy consumed when an electric appliance of power 1 watt is used for 1 hour.
The watt-hour (wh) is small unit of energy. So the practical unit of electric energy is taken as killo
watt-hour (Kwh). It is also the trade or commercial unit of electric energy. Where 1KWh = 10 3
6
W x 60 x 60s = 3.6 x 10 J
One killo watt hour is the amount of electric energy when an electric appliance of power 1kw is used
for 1 hour.
1kwh is also called as board of trade unit (BOTU) or simply one unit of electricity.
Heating effect of current: Whenever current flows through a conductor, it becomes hot after some
time. This means that electric energy is converted into heat energy. The heat produced due to the flow
of electric current is called as heating effect of current. It was first observed by Thomas joule so it is
also called joule‘s heating effect. Electric bulb, electric iron, heater, gyser etc are the appliances based
on this effect.
Practical applications of Heating effect of current:- The heating effect of current has many useful
practical applications such as:
(i) An electric iron, electric geyser, electric toaster, electric oven, electric kettle etc. are some
of the familiar devices based on joule heating or heating effect of current.
(ii) An electric bulb is used to provide light by heating its filament.
(iii) An electric fuse used as a safety device in electric circuits is another important application
of joule heating (heating effect of current).
Cause of heating:- When a potential difference is applied across a conductor, the free electrons begin
to drift from lower potential to higher potential (–Ve terminal to +Ve terminal). During their motion
they experience a resistance on account of their collisions with other electrons as well as with kernels
(Nucleolus and inner electrons of atoms). As a result of this, some work is done to overcome this
resistance. This work done is converted into heat.
Consider a conductor AB of resistance R, let V be the potential difference applied across its
ends such that a current I flows through it for a time t.
.: Total charge flowing from A to B in time t is q = It________ (1)
By definition of potential difference workdone in carrying unit +ve charge from A to B = V, therefore
total work done in carrying charge q from A to B = qv
W = qv ___________(2)
Substituting (1) in (2) we have,
W = VIt = I2Rt
This work done is called electric work done. If this appears as heat, then amount of heat produced
(H) is given by
A R B
H = W = I2 Rt Joules
= I2 RT V
Cal (3)
1 0cal = 4.18 Joules
4.18 I I
+ –
This equation (3) is a statement of Joule‘s law of heating. It states the amount of heat produced in
a conductor when a current flows through it is directly proportional to (i) the square of the current
flowing through the conductor (ii) Resistance of the conductor and (iii) time for which the current
is passed through the conductor.
Textual Questions
SECTION-A
Q.1) Name a device that helps to maintain potential difference across conductor.
Ans. A battery consisting of one or more electric cells with rheostat.
Q.2) What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is 1V?
Ans) potential difference between two points is said to be one volt if one joule of work is done in
moving a charge of 1Columb from one point to the another. The potential difference is
measured by a device called the voltmeter. It is always connected in parallels to a conductor.
Q.3) How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V battery?
Ans. q = 1C, v = 6
We know v= w
q
W = vq
or w = 1c × 6V = 6j
1 coulomb volt = 1 joule)
SECTION-B
Q.1) On what factor does the resistance of a conductor depend?
Ans) Resistance of a conductor depends upon the following factors :
i) Nature of material: Resistance of a conductor depends upon the nature of material
of the conductor. That is why, conductors of different materials have different resistances.
ii) Temperature : Resistance of metallic conductors increases with the increase in
temperature and decreases with the decrease in the temperature.
iii) Length of the conductor: Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to the
length of the conductor, more is the length greater is the resistance i,e,
Resistance α length
or R α l 1
(iv) Area of cross section: Resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to the area
of cross – section of the conductor.
i, e Resistance α 1/Area of cross section 2
R α 1/A
More is the area of cross-section of a conductor, less is the resistance of the conductor.
Combining (1) and (2), we get
R α l
A
or R = l/A
Where is the resistivity
R is the length of the conductor and A is the area of cross section of the conductor.
Q.2) Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same
material connected to the same source. Why?
Ans. The current will flow more easily through a thick wire than through a thin wire. It is
because that the resistance of thick wire is small as its cross sectional area is less than that
of thin wire. As resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to the area of cross
section, therefore more is the area of cross section, lesser is the resistance and more will
be current flowing through it.
Q.3) Let the resistance of an electrical component remain constant while potential
difference across its ends decreases to half of its former value. What change will
occur in the current through it?
Ans. When potential difference becomes half of its former value, the current will become also
half as resistance remains constant. This is because of obeying ohms law (V=IR).
Q.4) Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy than a pure metal?
Ans) Coils of electric toasters and irons are made of an alloy called Nichrome because;
(i) The resistivity of Nichrome is higher than the metals.
(ii) It has a high melting point and
(iii) It does not oxidize when it is red hot at (8000C).
Q.5) Which among iron and mercury is a better conductor and which material is the best
conductor.
Ans. Iron is a better conductor than mercury because resistively of iron (10.0x10-8 Ω m) is less
than that of mercury (94x10-8 Ω). Silver is the best conductor as its resistivity (1.6x10-8 Ω
m) is least.
SECTION-C
Q.1) Draw a circuit diagram of a circuit containing a battery of three cells of 2V each, a
5Ω resister, an 8Ω resistor and a 12Ω resister and a plug key, all connected in series.
K
Ans. Circuit diagram is shown in fig.
2v 2v 2v
5Ω 8Ω 12 Ω
Q.2) Re-Draw the circuit of above question putting in an ammeter to measure current and
a voltmeter to measure voltage across 12Ω resistance what would be the readings in
the ammeter and voltmeter. 2V 2V 2V K
Ans. Circuit diagram is shown as below A
Since all resistances are in series 5Ω 8Ω
-
12Ω
+
Total resistance of the circuit,
V
+ -
R= 5+8+12=25Ω
Current in the circuit, I= Pot. diff. applied
= 6V
= 0.24A (Reading in Ammeter)
Total Resistance 25Ω
SECTION-D
Q.1) Judge the equilent resistance when the following are connected in parallels
(a) 1Ω and 106Ω b) 1Ω, 106Ω and 108Ω.
Ans. For both (a) and (b) approximately 1Ω (but less than 1Ω) because in parallels the
resistance becomes less than the least.
Q.2) An electric lamp of resistance 100Ω, a toaster of 50 Ω resistance and a water filter of
resistance 500Ω are connected in parallel to 220V source, what is the resistance of an
electric iron connected to the same source that takes as much current as all the three
appliances and what is the current through if?
Ans. Resistance of lamp r1 = 100 Ω, resistance of toaster r2 = 50Ω. Resistance of water filter
r3= 500Ω. Since r1, r2 and r3 are connected in parallel.
Their equilent resistance Rp is given by
1 1 1 1 1 + 1 +1 = 5+10+1 = 16
= + + =
RP r1 r2 r3 100 50 500 500 500
RP = 500 = 31.25Ω.
16
We know I = V (1) Where I is current, V is potential difference and
R R is resistance
Substituting value of V & R in equation (1) we have
Therefore current through the three appliances is 1 = V = 220 = 7.04A.
R 31.25
Since electric iron is connected to the same source, takes as much current as all the three.
Resistance of electric iron is equal to RP = 31.25Ω. and current through it = 7.04A
Q.3) What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery
instead of connecting them in series?
Ans) The main advantage of conducting electric device in parallel with a battery is that in this
arrangement each device gets same potential difference as provided by the battery and it
keeps on working even if other devices fail to work – while when connected in series, all
the devices get different potential difference and if any of the device stops working, all the
devices stops working.
Q.4) How can three resistances 2Ω, 3Ω and 6Ω be connected to give a total resistance of
(a) 4Ω and (b) 1Ω.
Ans. To get a resistance of 4Ω from 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω, the resistances 3 Ω and 6Ωshould be
connected in parallel then connected in series with 2 Ω
Step – I : When resistance 3 Ω and 6 Ω connected in parallel
We get = 1/R = 1/3Ω + 1/6R = 6+3 = 9/18 = 18/9 = 2
18
Step – II : The resistance are is connected with 2Ω series.
R = 2Ω + 2Ω = 4Ω
In order to get 1 Ω from 2,3 and 6 Ω connect then in parallels.
1/RP = 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/6 = 3 + 2 + 1 = 6/6 = 1 RP =1Ω
6
Q.5) What is the (a) highest and the (b) lowest total resistance that can be secured by
combinations of four coils of resistance 4Ω, 8Ω, 12Ω and 24Ω
Ans. The highest resistance is secured when all the four coils are connected in series
Rs = 4 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 48 Ω
The lowest resistance can be secured when all the four coils are connected in parallel
1
/RP = 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/12 + 1/24 = 6 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 12/24
24
=> RP = 2 Ω.
SECTION-E
Q.1) Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the heating element does?
Ans. Since the cord of an electric heater is made of thick copper wire and has much lower
resistance than its element. For the same current (I) flowing through cord and the element
heat produced (I2 Rt) in the element is much more than that produced in the cord.
Consequently, the element becomes very hot and glows whereas the cord does not become
hot and as such does not glow.
Q.2) Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000C of charge in one hour
through a potential difference of 50V.
Ans. Here Q = 96000 C, t = 1h = 60 x 60 = 3600S, V= 50 V.
Heat produced W = QV = 96000 x 50 = 48 x 105 J.
Q.3) An electric iron of resistance 20 Ω takes a current of 5A. Calculate heat developed in
30S.
Ans. Here R = 20 Ω, I = 5A, t = 30S. Heat developed = I2 Rt = 52 x 20 x 30= 15000J.
SECTION-F
Q.1) What determines the rate at which energy is delivered by a current ?
The rate of consumption of electric energy in an electric appliance is called electric
power. Hence, the rate at which energy is delivered by a current is the power of the
appliance. Since power = voltage x current, therefore, voltage affects the rate of energy
that is delivered by current.
Also, power = (Current)2 x Resistance, thus, resistance also determines the rate at
which energy is delivered by current.
Q.2) An electric motor takes 5A from 220V line. Determine the power and energy
consumed in 2h.
Ans. Here I = 5A, V = 220V, t = 2h = 2 x 60 x 60 = 7200S.
P = V I = 220 x 5 = 1100W.
Also P = E/T
N=E=P×t
E = 1100 × 7200
E = 7920000J = 7.92 ×106 Joules
SECTION–G
Q.1) A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These part are then
connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R /, then the
ratio R/R/ is;
Initial resistance, Ri = R (1).
After dividing wire into 5 equal parts;
Resistance of each part = R/5
1 = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1
Rf R/5 R/5 R/5 R/5 R/5
ϰ 1 = 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 + 5
Rf R R R R R
1 = 5+5+5+5+5
Rf R
1 = 25
Rf R
When R is the equivalent
R = Rf = R 2 resistance of the combination
25
Dividing 1 by 2
R Ri = R
R1 = Rf R/25
R = Ri = 25 R
1 = 25
R Rf R
Q.2) Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in a circuit ?
(a) I2 R (b) IR2 (c ) VI (d) V2/R
Ans) IR2
Q.3) An electric bulb is rated 220v and 100w. When it is operated on 110 v, the power
consumed will be;
We know that
P = V2
R
R = V2
P
Rated Power, P = 100 w
and Rated voltage, Vr = 220 v
thus R = 220 x 220
100
=> R = 22 x 22 = 484
Resistance of the material does not change with the change in voltage, thus, the power
consumed on the 110 operating voltage will be;
P = 110 x 110
484
=> P = 12100 = 25 w.
484
Q.4) Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters
are first connected in series and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential
difference. The ratio of heat produced in series and parallel combinations would be :
H =V2t
R
Therefore, Heat produced in series connection will be
Hs = V2 t
Rs
Hs = V2 t
2R
Hs = 2V2t 2
2R
2
X HP = 2V t
R 32
Heat produced in parallel connections will be ;
Hp = V2t
Rp
Hp = V2t 3
R/2
Dividing 2 by 3
Hs = V2t x R
Hp 2R 2V2t
Hs = 1
Hp 4
or Hs : Hp = 1:4
Q.6) A copper wire has a diameter of 0.5mm and resistivity 1.6 x 10-6. (i) How much of this
wire would be required to make a 10 coil. (ii) How much the resistance changes if the
diameter is doubled?
Ans) (i) Diameter, D = 0.5mm = 0.5 x 10-3m
Resistivity ρ = 1.6 x 10-6m
Required resistance R = 10
We know R = ρl or L = RA = R(D2/4) ( A = r2 = D2/4)
A ρ ρ
-3 2
L = 10 x 22 x (0.5x10 ) when L of the wire
-6
4x7x1.6x10
or L = 220 x 0.25 x 10-6
7 x 6.4 10-6
or L = 1.2276 mtrs
R2 = sl or R2 = pl
D/ 2 D2
2 2×2 Because (D/ = 2D)
N = R2 sl
D2
16
16 sl
D2
4
Thus R2 = 6 sl × D2
R1 D2 4sl
R2 = 4
R1
Q.7) The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of
potential difference V across the resistor are given below:
I (amperes) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
V (volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of that resistor
The plot between voltage and current is called IV characteristic. The voltage is plotted on
x – axis and current is plotted on y-axis. The values of the current for different valves of
the voltage are shown in the table below:
B
5
4-2=2 Amperes
4
3
A 13.2 – 6.7 = C
2
I
6.5
1
2 4 6 8 10 12 14
V
The slope of the line gives the value of resistance as;
Slop-e = 1/R
We know that
Slope = tan .
1/R = tan = BC
AC.
Or R = AC
BC
R = 6.5
2
R = 3.25
Q.8) When a 12v battery is connected across an unknown resistor, there is a current of 2.5
mA in the circuit. Find the value of the resistance of the resistor.
Here V = 12
I = 2.5 mA `= 2.5 x 10-3 A
R = ?
Now V = IR
R = V
I
ϰ R = 12
2.5 x10-3
ϰ R = 4.8 × 103 ohm.
ϰ R = 4.8 kilo ohm.
Q.9) A battery of 9v is connected in series with resistor of 0.2 , 0.3 , 0.4 , 0.5
and 12 respectively. How much current would flow through the 12 resistor ?
Since the resistances are connected in series, therefore, the sum of the individual
resistances will give the equivalent resistance of the circuit.
R = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4 + R5
R = (0.2 + 0.3 + 0.4 + 0.5 + 12)
R = 13.4
Also V = 9V
As we know that there is no current division in a series circuit, thus, current flowing through each
component/resistance will be same given by Ohm‘s law
I = V
R
ϰ I = 9 = 0.671 A.
13.4
Thus, the current that would flow through the 12 resistor is 0.671 Ampere.
Q.10) How many 176 resistors (in parallel) are required to carry 5A on a 220V line.
Here V = 220 V
I = 5A.
The equivalent resistance can be calculated using Ohm‘s law
R = V
I
R = 220
5
R = 44
Let the number of 176 resistance connected in parallels be = n
Then
1 = 1 + 1 + 1 + ------- + 1
R = R1 R2 R3 Rn
But R1 = R2 = R3 = ------- = Rn = 176
1 = 1 + 1 + ------- + 1
R 176 176 176
1 = n
R 176
or n = 176
R
But R = 44
n = 176 = 4
44
Thus, the number of 176 resistors (in parallels) required to carry 5A on a 220 V line is 4
Q.11) Show how you would connect three resistors, each of resistance 6 , so that the
combination has a resistance of (i) 9 (ii) 4
An.s If we connect all the three resistors in series, then the equivalent resistance will be the sum of
individual resistances, i,e ( 6 + 6 + 6 ) = 18 , which is not desired. If we connect them in parallels,
then the equivalent resistance will be 6/3 = 2 which is also not desired. Hence, we should either
connect two resistors in series or parallels and their equivalent in parallels or series with the third resistor
respectively.
(i) Two resistors in series and their equivalent in parallels with the third resistor.
6 6
6
+ -
6
6
6
+ -
Two 6 resistors are in parallels. Their equivalent resistance will be:
1 = 1 + 1
Rp 6 6
1 = 21 =1/3 => Rp = 3
Rp 6
The third 6 resistor is in series with 3 .
Therefore, the total equivalent resistance will be,
R = 3 + 6
R = 9
Q.12) Several electric bulbs are rated 10W, 220V. How many of them be connected in parallel
with each other across two wires of 220V line if maximum allowable current is 5A?
Ans) Resistance of each bulb, R = V2 = 220 x 220 = 4840
P 10
Total resistance in the circuit R = 220V = 44 [ֶR = V ]
5A I
let n bulbs be connected in parallels to obtain a resistance R
1 = 1 + 1 + --------1 = n => n = r = 4840 = 110
R r r r r R 44
110 bulbs can be connected
Q.13) A hot plate of electric oven connected to a 220 v line has two resistance coils A and B, each of
24 resistance, which may be used separately, in series, or in parallel. What are the currents
in the three cases ?
Supply voltage, V = 220 V
Resistance of each coil = 24
Case I : Coils are used separately:
According to Ohm‘s law
V = IR
I = V = 220
R 24
I = 9.166 A
Therefore, 9.16 A current will flow through the coil when used separately.
Case II: Coils are connected in series,
Total resistance, R = (24 + 243) = 48
Now I = V
R
I = 220 = 4.58 A
48
Therefore, 4.58 A current will flow through the circuit when the coils are connected in
series.
Case III: Coils connected in parallels;
Total resistance, 1 = 1 + 1 = 2
R 24 24 24
R = 24 = 12
2
Now I = V
R
I = 220 = 18.33 A
12
Therefore, 18.33 A current will flow through the circuit when the coils are connected in
parallels.
Q.14) Compare the power used in the 2 resistor in each of the following circuits :
(i) a 6V battery in series with 1 and 2 resistors.
V = 6v
Since 1 and 2 resistors are in series, therefore, equivalent resistance of the circuits is
R = ( 1 + 2 ) = 3
Now I = V/R
I = 6/3 = 2A
This current will flow through each component of the circuit because there is no division
of current in series circuits. Hence, current flowing through the 2 resistor is 2A.
Thus, power consumed by 2 resistor will be given by;
P = I2 R
P = 22 x 2
P = 4x2 = 8W
(ii) a 4V battery in parallel with 12 and 2 resistors.
The voltage across each component of a parallel circuit remains the same. Hence, the
voltage across 2 resistor will be 4V
Thus, power consumed by 2 resistor will be given by:
P = V2
R
ϰ P = 42
2
P = 16 = 8W
2
Q.15) Two lamps one rated 100 w at 220 V and the other 60 W at 220 V are connected in
parallel to electric mains supply. What current is drawn from the line if the supply
voltage is 220 V ?
Since the two bulbs are connected in parallel, therefore, potential difference across
each of the two bulbs will be 220 V as no division of voltage occurs in a parallel circuit.
Now, current drawn by the bulb of rating 100 W will be given by:
Power = voltage x current
I = P
V
I = 100 A
220
Similarly, current drawn by the bulb of rating 60 W will given by;
I/ = 60 A
220
Therefore, total current drawn from line will be
IT = 100 + 60
220 220
ϰ IT = 160 = 0.727 A
220
Q.17) An electric heater of resistance 8 draws 15A from the service mains 2 hours.
Calculate the rate at which heat is developed in the heater.
The melting point and resistivity of tungsten are very high. It does not burn readily at a
high temperature. The electric lamps glow at very high temperature. Hence, tungsten is
mainly used as heating element of electric lamps.
(b) Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread toasters and
electric irons, made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Alloys have higher resistivity than their constituent metals. Alloys do not oxidize or burn
at higher temperatures.
Thus, they are used to make coils of electric toasters and electric irons rather than metals.
(c )Why series arrangement is not used for domestic circuits? Series arrangement is not used
for domestic circuits because of following reasons:
(i) The total potential difference available (i.e, 220v) is divided between various appliances in
the circuit according to their resistances since the current flowing through all the
appliances is same. Thus each appliance will not get the required potential difference for it
to operate properly.
(ii) If one of the appliance is switched off or gets fused, all the appliances in the circuit will
stop working as the circuit is broken.
(iii) All the appliances will work simultaneously whether we want them to work or not, thus
involving a lot of power wastage.
(d) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section?
Resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to the area of cross – section of
the conductor.
i, e Resistance α 1/A
More is the area of cross-section of a conductor, less is the resistance of the conductor.
(e)Why are copper and aluminum wires usually employed for electricity
transmission?
Copper and aluminum wires have low resistivity. They are good conductors of electricity.
Hence, they are usually employed for electricity transmission.
Lesson No. 4
Magnetic Effects of Current
Textual questions
SECTION - A
Q.1) Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
Ans) The needle gets deflected due to the force acting on its poles due to the magnetic field of the
bar magnet.
SECTION - B
Q.1) Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
Q.3) Why don‟t two magnetic lines of force intersect each other ?
Ans) No two magnetic field lines can cross (or intersect) each other because if they do so, there
would be two directions of the magnetic field at that point, which is not possible.
SECTION - C
Q.1) Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of paper/table. Let the current pass
through the loop clockwise. Apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the
magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
Ans) At every point of a current carrying loop, the concentric circles representing the magnetic
field around it would become larger and larger as we move away from the wire. By the
time we reach at the centre of the circular loop, the arc of these big circles would appear as
straight lines.
Q.2) The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a diagram to represent it.
Ans) Magnetic field is said to be uniform if its magnitude is equal and direction is same at every
point.
SECTION - E
Q.1) State Fleming‟s left hand rule ?
Ans) Fleming‟s left hand rule: Fleming‘s left hand rule is used to determine the
direction of force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in the magnetic field.
According to this rule, stretch the thumb, the forefinger and central/middle finger of the left
hand mutually perpendicular to one another. Now adjust the hand in such a way that the
forefinger points in the direction of magnetic field, the central finger in the direction of
current, then the thumb will point in the direction of the force experienced by the conductor.
SECTION - F
Q.1) Explain different ways to induce current in a coil ?
Ans) Three different ways can be adopted to induce current in the coil as;
i) Electromagnetic induction is produced when a flat coil is forced to rotate between the
opposite poles of a fixed magnet.
ii) Electromagnetic induction is produced when a bar magnet is forced to rotate between a
fixed flat coil.
iii) electromagnetic induction can be produced in absence of relative motion by using two
stationary coils. Take two coils of insulated copper on a single soft iron core. If current is
continuously changed in one coil by means of a battery, the current is induced in the
second coil kept near it.
SECTION - G
Q.1) State the principal of an electric generator ?
Electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction. When a flat coil is
rotated between magnetic fields, current is induced in response to the change in magnetic
flux in the coil.
Q.4) A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of the
induced current changes once in each.
Ans) half revolution.
SECTION - H
Q.1) Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuits?
(i) Fuse and (ii) Earth wire.
Fuse is used for protecting circuits due to short circuiting and overloading.
Earth wire is used to ensure that leakage of current to the metallic body of an electric
appliance does not give a severe shock to the user.
Q.2) An electric oven of 2kw power rating is operated in a domestic circuit (220V) that has a
current rating of 5A. What result do you expect?
Ans:- Here P = 2kw = 2000W. V = 220V, I=5A (current rating)
We know P=VI
100
Therefore I = P = 2000 W = 9A
V 220 V
11
Since the current rating of the circuit is 5A and the current flowing through it is 9A. As the
current flowing through the circuit is more than the current rating of the circuit , the fuse in
the circuit melts, consequently the circuit is broken and the oven is saved from damaging.
Q.3) What precaution should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits.
Ans) Fuse is the most important safety device to avoid the overloading of domestic electric
circuits. Besides this, too many appliances should not be connected to a single socket.
SECTION - I
Q.1) Which of the following correctly describe the magnetic field near a long straight wire?
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire
(b) The field consist of straight lines parallel to the wire.
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
(d) The field consist of concentric circles centered on the wire.
Ans) (d) The field consist of concentric circles centered on the wire.
Q.8) How does a solenoid behave like a magnet. Can you determine the north and
south poles of a current carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain.
Ans) A solenoid begins behaving like a magnet when electric current flows through it. We
know that any current carrying conductor creates a magnetic field around it and that is
what happens in case of solenoid.
For determining the different poles of a solenoid, we can use a bar magnet and look for
interaction between different poles of two magnets. If the north pole of the bar magnet
gets repelled by a particular pole of the solenoid, then it gets confirmed that the bar
magnet was brought near the north pole of the electromagnet (solenoid) and the other pole
is the south pole of the electromagnet (solenoid) .
Q.9) When the force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
is maximum.
Ans:- The force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is
maximum when the direction of current is at right angles to the direction of magnetic
field.
Q.10) Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back to one wall. An electron
beam moving horizontally from back wall towards the front wall is deflected by a
strong magnetic field to your right side. What is the direction of magnetic field.
Ans) Here, the electron beam is moving towards the viewer, i.e, out of the plane of the wall.
This means that the direction of current is towards the wall.
Q.11) Draw a labeled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its principle and working. What is the
function of an split ring in an electric motor ?
Ans) Electric motor: It is a device used to convert electric energy into mechanical energy. These
are of two types. (i) AC motor and (ii) DC motor. We will describe DC motor only.
Principle: It works on the principle that whenever a coil carrying current is placed in a
magnetic field, it experiences a torque. As a result of torque , the coil begins to rotate.
Construction: An electric motor consists of following parts.
(i) Armature: An armature is a rectangular coil ABCD, in which a large number of turns of
insulated copper wire
are wound on a soft
iron core.
(ii) Field magnet: The
coil is placed in a
strong magnetic field
supplied by two pole
pieces of a
permanent magnet
NS.
(iii) Split ring or
commutator: The
two ends of the armature coil are connected to two halves (R1 and R2) of a same metallic ring
which rotate along with the coil.
(iv) Carbon brushes: Two flexible carbon rods B1 and B2 which are fixed in such a way that they
constantly touch the split rings.
(v) Battery: A battery consisting of few cells is connected across the brushes. The brushes pass
the current to the rings from where it is carried to the armature.
Working: The working of a DC motor is in two parts.
(i) When the battery sends the current to the armature in the direction ABCD, arms CB & DA
experience force. Applying Fleming‘s left hand rule, the arm AB experiences a force which is acting
outwards and perpendicular to it and the arm CD experiences a force which is acting inwards and
perpendicular to it. These two forces being parallel and their lines of action being different constitute
a couple. The movement of the couple or torque makes the armature to rotate in the anti clockwise
direction as shown in figure.
(ii) After half rotation, the direction of the current in the arms AB and CD are reversed. Now
arm CD experiences outward force and AB experiences an inward force. With the result the torque
rotates the armature in the same direction, i.e. anti clockwise direction as shown in figure.
The split ring in the electric motor acts as a commutator. The commutator reverses the
direction of current flowing through the coil after each half rotation of the coil. Due to this reversal of
the current, the coil continues to rotate in the same direction.
Uses of DC motor:
(i) These are used in electric fans for cooling and ventilation.
(ii) These are used for pumping water.
(iii) Small DC motors are used in various toys.
Q.13) A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to galvanometer. What will happen if bar
magnet is (i) pushed into the coil, (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil,
(iii) held stationary inside the coil.
Ans) Electromagnetic induction occurs with the relative motion between a magnet and
solenoid. If a bar magnet is pushed into the coil, withdrawn from inside the coil or held
stationary inside the coil, electromagnetic induction is affected accordingly:
(1) When bar magnet is pushed inside the solenoid, there occurs a change in magnetic flux
and consequently current is induced in the coil.
(2) When bar magnet is withdrawn from the solenoid, current is again induced but in
opposite direction.
(3) when bar magnet is held stationary in the solenoid, there occurs no change in the
magnetic flux and with the result no current is induced in the coil.
Q.14) Two circular coils are placed close to each other. If the current in first coil is changed,
will some current be induced in other coil?
Ans:- Yes by changing current in one coil, current will be induced in the other coil placed close
to the first coil. This is because of mutual induction.
Q, 15) State the rule to determine the direction of (a) magnetic field produced around a
straight conductor – carrying current (b) Force experienced by a current – carrying
Straight conductor placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it. (c)
Current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field.
An) (a) Maxwell‘s right hand thumb rule is used to determine the direction of magnetic field
produced by a straight current carrying conductor. Imagine that the conductor is held in
the right hand with thumb pointing in the direction of current. Then according to
Maxwell‘s right hand thumb rule the fingertips encircling the conductor will point in the
direction of magnetic field associated with it.
>
Magnetic Field
Current > d
H an
g ht
Ri
Right Hand Thumb Rule
(b) Fleming‘s left hand rule is used to determine the direction of force experienced by a
current carrying conductor placed in the magnetic field. According to this rule, stretch the
thumb, and the forefinger and central/middle finger of the left hand mutually perpendicular to
one another. Now adjust the hand in such a way that the forefinger point in the direction of
magnetic field, and central finger in the direction of current, then the thumb will point in the
direction of the force experienced by the conductor.
Q.16) Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric generator by drawing a labeled
diagram. What is the function of brushes ?
(ii) Field magnet: N and S are two pole pieces of a strong electromagnet in which the armature
coil is rotated.
(iii) Slip rings: R1 and R2 are two hallow metallic rings held at different heights to which the two
ends of the coil are connected. These rings rotate with the rotation of the coil.
(iv) Brushes: B1 and B2 are two flexible metal plates or carbon rods. They are fixed and are kept
in tight contact with R1 and R2 respectively. These brushes pass the electric current from the
armature coil to the external resistance R.
Working: Its working is clear from figure (a) and figure (b)
(a) Let the armature ABCD is rotating clockwise so that the arm AD moves inwards and BC
moves outwards. According to Fleming‘s right hand rule, the induced current will be in the direction
CBDA as shown in figure (a) due to which current flows from B1 and B2 in the outer circuit.
(b) After half rotation of the coil, it occupies the position as shown in figure (b) with the armature
rotating in the same direction; BC moves inwards and AD outwards. Now the current will be induced
in the opposite direction due to which current flows from B 2 to B1 in the outer circuit. Thus the current
will change its direction after every half rotation and hence AC is obtained. The magnitude of induced
emf and hence current can be increased by (i) increasing the number of turns of its armature (ii)
increasing the area of the armature (iii) increasing the speed of rotation of the armature and (iv)
increasing the strength of the magnetic
field. N S N S
DC generator: The principle,
construction and working of a DC
generator is same as that of AC
generator except that in place of slip rings
there are split rings or a commutator.
6) Distribution board: The live, neutral and earth wires then enter the distribution board wherever
different wires come out and go to the different parts of the house through fuses in the board.
7) House wiring: Now the three wires enter in a room where we have to use an electric bulb, a fan,
three pin sockets etc. All these appliances are connected in parallels across the live wire and the
neutral wire. The main advantage of parallel connection is that if one of the appliances is switched off
, there is no effect on the other appliances and they keep on operating. Another main advantage is that
same voltage of the mains line is available for all the electric appliances.
Electric fuse: . An electric fuse is a safety device ( wire) made of a material having very low melting
point. Electric fuse is used in series to limit the current in an electric circuit so that when excessive
current passes through it, it easily melts due to overheating.
The electric wires used in domestic wiring are made of copper because of being good conductor and
economically cheap. The thickness of these wires is chosen in such a way so as to allow a certain
maximum current to pass through them. If the current exceeds this limit, the copper wires get
overheated and may even cause ‗fire‘. This happens due to two reasons; (a) short circuiting (ii)
overloading To avoid these hazards due to overloading, an electric fuse is the most important device.
Some important points regarding the fuse are:
1) Fuse is always connected in live wire and not in the neutral wire under all circumstances.
2) A fuse is always connected in series and in the beginning of the circuit.
3)Thicker the fuse wire, greater is its current capacity.
4)A fuse must be of a current capacity or current rating, less than the maximum current which a
circuit or an appliance can withstand
Q.19) What is the function of an earth wire? Why it is necessary to earth metallic appliances?
Ans:. Many electric appliances have a metallic body. If the insulation of any of these appliances
melts and makes contact with the metallic casing, the person touching it is likely to receive a
severe electric shock. Obviously the electric current will flow through the body of the person
touching the appliance. To avoid such hazards, the metal casing of the
appliance is earthed. Since earth does not offer any resistance, so the current flows to the
earth through the earth wire and not through the body of the person touching it.
Thus it is necessary to earth metallic appliances in order to save the user from getting sever
shock.
Q.20 Write a short note on overloading?
Ans) The current flowing through domestic wires depends upon the power ratings of the appliances
being used at a particular time. If too many appliances of high power ratings are switched on
simultaneously, they draw an extremely large current from the circuit. This is called
overloading. Due to overloading copper wires may get overheated and may cause a fire.
To avoid these hazards due to overloading, an electric fuse is the most important device. An
electric fuse is a safety device (wire) made of a material having very low melting point and
high resistivity. Electric fuse is used in series to limit the current in an electric circuit so that
when excessive current passes through it, it easily melts due to overheating.
Lesson No 5
Source of Energy
Conceputal Questions
Q.1) Biomass and Bio Energy.
Biomass : Biomass is a plant materials and animal waste used especially as a source of
fuel It includes (i) Woody source of biomass' including Forest residues, such as dead
trees, branches and tree stumps, yard clippings, wood chips, Landscaping residues, wood
plantations, , Industrial wood residue, Waste wood residues (ii) Non Woody biomass (Oil,
sugar, starch) such as:, Straw and other harvesting residues from agriculture, residues from
food industry and animal droppings etc (iii) Animal and human waste, farm slurry
/excrements, Slaughter waste, Organic waste from households and industry(sewage,
garbage etc)
Bio energy : Bioenergy is the energy derived from the conversion of biomass where
biomass may be used directly as fuel, or processed into liquid and gases fuels (biofuels).
Biomass is a renewable source of energy, because it is obtained from plants or animals
which can be produced again and again.
Bioenergy is the single largest renewable energy source today, providing 10% of world
primary energy supply
It plays a crucial role in many developing countries, where use of wood, charcoal,
agricultural resides and animal dung are used for cooking and heating in the residential
sector thus acts as a basic energy source for them.
Some of the technologies for generating bioenergy heat and power are:
1) Solid wood heating installations for buildings
2)Biogas digesters for power generation,
3) Large-scale biomass gasification plants for heat and power.
4)Co-firing biomass with coal in existing coal-fired power plants
Bio-energy can also be used to generate electricity. Therefore Bioenergy will also play an
important role in contributing to heat and electricity demand in the longer term.
n1 + U235 fission
Ba139 + Kr94 + 3n1 + Q
0 92 56 36 0
Textbook questions
SECTION - A
Q.1) What is a good source of energy?
Ans) A good source of energy is one which:
(a) Performs a large amount of work per unit volume or mass.
(b) Is easily accessible.
(c) Is easy to store and transport and
(d) Is economical
Q.3) If you could see any source of energy for heating your food, which one would you use?
Ans) We would use that source which provides uniform heating and heats cleanly without loss
in the nutritional value of food.
SECTION - B
Q.1) What are disadvantages of fossil fuels?
Ans) The main disadvantages of fossil fuels are:
(a) These are non-renewable sources of energy.
(b) They cause air pollution as they produce smoke on burning.
(c) They produce Carbon dioxide gas on burning which contribute to green house effect
and consequently global warming.
(d) They produce gases like CO2 ,SO2 etc on burning which mixes with rain water and
leads to acid rain, which affects our water and soil resources.
Q.3) How has traditional use of wind and water energy been modified for our convenience?
Ans) Traditionally wind and water energy has been used directly by converting kinetic energy
of water and wind into mechanical energy. Now wind and water energy has been modified
by converting their kinetic energy into electric energy by constructing hydroelectric power
plants and by using wind mills.
SECTION - C
Q.1) What kind of mirror be best suited for use in a solar cooker?
Ans) A concave mirror is best suited for use in a solar cooker because it reflects and
concentrates solar energy from a large area into small area.
Q.2) What are the limitations of ocean energy?
Ans) The forms of energy that can be obtained from the ocean are tidal energy, wave energy
and ocean thermal energy. There are several limitations in order to harness these energies.
(i) Tidal energy depends on the relative positioning of the earth, moon and the sun.
(ii) High dams are required to be built to convert tidal energy into electricity.
(iii) Very strong waves are required to obtain electricity from wave energy.
(iv) To harness ocean thermal energy efficiently, the difference in the temperature of
surface water (hot) and the water at depth (cold) must be 20oC or more.
(c) There is risk of accidents in nuclear reactors, such accidents lead to the leakage of
radioactive materials which are a threat to plant and animal life.
(d) The high cost of installation of nuclear power plant and limited availability of uranium
makes the generation of electricity from nuclear reactors limited.
SECTION -D
Q.1) Can a source of energy be pollution free? Explain?
Ans) No source of energy is totally pollution free. Only the degree and manner of pollution
varies. A source of energy like a solar cell is pollution free but its assembly causes damage
to environment.
Q.2) Is hydrogen a cleaner fuel than CNG. Explain?
Ans) Hydrogen is cleaner fuel than CNG because it produces water on burning while as CNG
produces CO2 on burning.
SECTION -E
Q.1) Name two energy sources that you would consider to be renewable. Give reasons for
your choice.
Ans) The two renewable sources of energy are as follows:
i) Sun : The energy derived from sun is known as solar energy, solar energy is produced
by the fusion of hydrogen into helium, fusion of helium into other heavy elements and so
on. A large amount of hydrogen and helium is present in the sun.
Therefore, solar energy can replenish on its own. The sun has 5 billion years more to burn.
Hence, solar energy is a renewable source of energy and has capacity to provide energy
for ever.
ii) Wind: Wind energy is derived from air blowing with high speed. Wind energy is
harnessed by windmills in order to generate electricity. As air blows because of uneven
heating of the earth and since heating of the earth will continue forever, therefore wind
energy will be available forever.
Q.2) Give names of two energy sources that you would consider to be exhaustible. Give
reasons for your choice.
Ans) Two exhaustible energy sources are as follows:
(i) Coal: It is produced from dead remains of plants and animals that remain buried under
the earth‘s crust for millions of years. Industrialization has increased the demand of coal.
However, coal can not replenish within a short period of time. Hence, it is a non-
renewable or exhaustible source of energy.
(ii) Wood: It is obtained from forests. Deforestation at a faster rate has caused a reduction
in the number of forests on the earth. It takes hundreds of years to grow a forest. If
deforestation is continued at this rate, all the existing forests will be consumed and there
would be no wood left on the earth. Hence, wood is an exhaustible source of energy.
SECTION -F
Q.1) A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on.
Ans) Cloudy day.
Q.2) Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source.
Ans) Nuclear energy.
Q.3) Mot of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the
following is not ultimately derived from the solar energy.
Ans) Nuclear energy.
Q.4) Compare and contrast fossil fuels and the sun as direct sources of energy.
Fossil fuels Solar energy.
(i) Fossil fuels such as coal and petroleum are energy (i) Solar energy is received from sun.
sources which are obtained from underneath the Earth‘s
crust.
(ii) They are directly available to human beings for use. (ii) Renewable and direct source of
Hence, fossil fuels are the direct source of energy. energy.
(iii) These are limited in amount and are non-renewable (iii) The sun has been shining for
sources of energy as they cannot be replenished in thousands of years and will do so for
nature. the next five billion years.
(iv) Fossil fuels take millions of years for their (iv) Solar energy is available free of
formation. cost to all in unlimited amounts and it
(v) If the present fossil fuels of the earth get exhausted, replenishes in the sun itself.
their formation will take several million years. (v) Solar energy will not get
exhaysted.
Q.9) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a solar cooker ? Are there places
where solar cookers would have limited utility ?
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Bio Science
L. No. 1 Life Processes
Conceptual Questions
Nutrition
Nutrition:- The word ―nutrition‖ has been derived from the Greek word ―Nutrito‖ which means
to nourish. The sum total of all the processes starting from taking the food and its utilization by an
organism in various metabolic activities is called nutrition. In the other words nutrition is the
process of acquiring energy and materials for growth development, repairment, reproduction and
maintenance.
Modes of Nutrition
Organisms differ from each other in their modes of nutrition. The methods of obtaining food by
the organisms are called modes of nutrition. Based on the modes of obtaining nutrients by an
organism, nutrition is broadly classified into two types.
1) Autotrophic mode of nutrition.
2) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
1) Autotrophic nutrition: - The term has been derived from two Greek words ―Auto‖ means
―Self‖ and ―trophe‖ means ―Nutrition‖. Thus autotrophic means self nutrition. Autotrophic
nutrition is a kind of nutrition in which the organisms prepare their own organic food from
inorganic substances such as carbon-dioxide and water. This mode of nutrition is found in green
plants, some bacteria (Green sulphur bacterium - chlorobium) and some protozoans (euglena).
Autotrophic organisms or autotrophs are self-nourishing and are also called producers.
Depending upon the source of energy autotrophs are further categorized into two types.
a. Photo- autotrophs
b. Chemo-autotrophs
(a)Photo-autotrophs:- All green plants and some bacteria which synthesise their food from
inorganic materials in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll by the process of photosynthesis are
called photoautotrophs
6Co2+6H2o Sunlight C6H12o6+6o2.↑
Chlorophyll
b)Chemo-autotrophs:- Some autotrophs like hydrogen bacteria, Iron bacteria, nitrifying bacteria
etc. synthesise their food by utilizing energy released by oxidation of certain inorganic
substances. This process is called chemosynthesis and the organisms which shows this type of
nutrition are called Chemoautotrophs.
2. Heterotrophic Nutrition: - The word heterotrophic is derived from Greek Words ―Hetero‖
means ―different‖ and ―Trophe‖ means ―nutrition‖. Heterotrophic nutrition is a kind of nutrition
in which an organism is directly or indirectly dependent on autotrophs for their food. Thus non-
green plants, all animals including human beings, some bacteria, fungi etc. are heterotophs as they
are not able to prepare their own food. Heterotrophs are also known as consumers as they are
dependent on the producers directly or indirectly.
Heterotrophic mode of nutrition is of three types:-
I) Holotrophic
II) Saprotrophic
III) Parasitic.
I) Holotrophic: -The word holotrophic is derived from two Greek words ―Holo‖ means ―whole‖
and ―trophe‖ means ―nutrition‖. Holotropic nutrition is a kind of nutrition in which an organism
generally takes complex food by the process of ingestion. The complex food under goes proper
digestion before it is assimilated into the cells and utilized. Since it is characteristic of animals it
is also called Holozoic nutrition (―Holo‖ means ―whole‖ & ―zoic‖ means ―animal‖).
Bile which is alkaline in nature contains only one enzyme called alkaline phosphatase, which has
no digestive function. Bile neutralizes the action of HCl and helps in digestion of fats by
emulsifying them. Bile also helps in the digestion of fat soluble vitamins.
The pancreatic juice contains the following enzymes:-
ii. Pancreatic amylase:-Pancreatic amylase converts starch into sugar and sugar into
glucose.
iii. Pancreatic lipase:- Pancreatic lipase changes fats (lipids) in to fatty acids and
glycerol.
iv. Trypsin:- Trypsin converts proteins into peptones and peptones into amino acids.
The inner lining of small intestine is glandular in nature and it secretes intestinal juice. The
intestinal juice contains following enzymes:-
i) Erepsin:- (Mixture of di-peptidase and amino peptidase enzymes) which changes peptones
(lower peptides) into amino acids.
ii) Sucrase changes sucrose into glucose + fructose
ii) Maltase changes maltose into glucose + glucose
iv) Lactase changes lactose into glucose + galactose
v) Nucleolitic enzymes(Nucleases) which change nucleic acids into nucleotides.
vi) Lipase which converts lipids into fatty acids & glycerol.
In the small intestine the semi-liquid food changes into liquid food due as ―chyle‖, which is
diffusible and is absorbed by intestinal wall. Thus the digestion started in mouth and is completed
in the small intestine.
Mechanism of photosynthesis
Photosynthesis occurs in two steps. The first step is called light reaction and the 2 nd step is called
dark reaction.
(I)Light Reaction:- It occurs in the thylakoids of the chloroplasts. Light reaction involves
following steps.
Light energy is absorbed by PS I & PS II (pigment system I and Pigment system II)
The absorbed light splits the water into molecular oxygen, electron and proton. This process is
called as photolysis of water.
2H2O → 2H+ + 2OH
2oH → H2O + ½ O2 + 2e
In light reaction the excited electrons lost by the pigment system II pass through various
intermediate carriers and finally reduce NADP+ into NADP. During their travel through these
intermediate carriers they release energy, which is used to produce ATP from ADP and
inorganic phosphate (P). The pigment system II in turn receives the electrons released by
photolysis of water. The formation of ATP and inorganic phosphate (P) is called
photophosphorylation. The further two electrons and two protons reduce NADP into NADPH2
Both ATP and NADPH2 are called assimilatory powers which are used in dark reaction.
ii) Dark reaction : - The reactions of dark phase are pure thermo-chemical reactions and does
not require light energy but it does not mean that it occurs during night.
The dark reaction takes place in the stroma part of chloroplast.
In dark phase, the high energy NADPH2 and ATP molecules are utilized to reduce CO2 to
carbohydrate. This fixation involves a biochemical pathway called calvin & benson Cycle. The
overall reaction can be represented as.
6CO2 + 12NADPH2 + 18ATP C6H12O6 + 12NADP + 18 ATP +6H2O.
Digestion
(Q. 4. Describe digestive system in human beings?
All the organs in the body of man that help in nutrition collectively constitute the digestive
system. It can be divided into two parts.
a) Alimentary Canal.
b) Digestive glands.
a) Alimentary canal:- Alimentary canal in man is a long tube about 22 feet in length and is
highly coiled, muscular structure starts from mouth and terminates as anus. It is differentiated into
8 parts:
(I) Pre-oral cavity (II) Buccal cavity (III) Pharynx
(IV) Oesophagus (V) Stomach (VI) Small intestine
(VII) Large intestine. (VIII) Anus
I. Pre-oral cavity:- The slit between two lips is called mouth. The lips prevent the loss of food
from the buccal cavity during mastication of food.
II. Buccal Cavity or Oral Cavity:- It is the large cavity bounded above by palate, lower side by
tongue & the laterial sides by cheeks & the front part by
teeth. The teeth are 32 in number in an adult human
being.
Tongue:- (lingua)
In man the anterior end of tongue feels sweet taste, posterior part feel bitter taste, sides feel
sour taste and a small part behind the anterior end feel salty taste.
III. Pharynx : - The pharynx is about 12cm-14cm long funnel shaped vertical canal. It serves as
passage for food from the cavity to osophagus. (It is commonly called the throat).
IV. Oesophagus: - The oesphagus is also called food pipe. It is about 25cm long muscular narrow
track which lies behind the trachea and heart. The oesophagus opens into the stomach. The
junction of oesophagus & stomach is called cardiac orifice or gastrooesophaged junction. It is
guarded by cardiac sphincter. The oesophagus passes food from pharynx to stomach.
panereatic juice which is poured into the doedonum through a hepatopancreatic duct. The
exocrine region of Pancreeas secreates sodium bi-carbonate and many digestive enzymes. The
bicarbonate ions make the medium alkaline favourable for the action of Pancreatic enzymes.
The some important enzymes present in Panereatic Juice are:-
Trypsin:- It converts proteins into proteoses, peptones and peptides.
i. Chymotrypsin :- It acts on proteins and converts them into polypeptides and free amino acids.
ii.Amylase: - It converts starch into maltose and small amounts of glucose.
iii.Steapsin or lipase:- It converts fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
iv. Sucrase:- It converts sucrose into glucose and fructose.
v. Maltase :- It converts maltose into glucose.
vi. Nucleases ;- These acts on polynucleotide chains of RNA and DNA and convert them into
nucleotides.
(E)Intestinal Glands:- There are two types of numerous, microscopic glands present in the
mucosa of small intestines. They are
a) Crypts of lieberkuhun. (Present through out small intestine)
b) Brunner`s glands. (Present only in duodenum)
These glands secrets intestinal juice. Intestinal juice is alkaline in nature (PH=8.3). Man secrets
about 2-3 lit. of intestinal juice. Intestinal juice contains following enzymes:
(i) Erepsin:- It converts peptones into amino acids.
(ii) Carbohydrases:- They convert carbohydrates into glucose.
(iii)Nucleases:- Which changes nucleic acids into nucleotides.
(iv) Lipase: - which converts lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.
(3)Absorption:- Diffusion of digested food through the walls of alimentary canal into the blood
is called absorption. Simple substances like water, glucoses which do not require digestion is
absorbed in stomach.
The digested food is absorbed mainly in small intestines. The inner surface of small intestine is
provided with millions of finger like projection called villi. The villi increases the surface area of
small intestines which helps in rapid absorption of digested food .
Each villus has lymph vessel in the centre called Lacteal, which is surrounded by a network of
capillaries, which in turn is surrounded by a layer of epithelial cells. Digested lipids are absorbed
into lacteal while as sugar and amino acids are absorbed by blood capillaries.
(4) Assimilation: - Convertion of digested food in to living protoplasm is called assimilation
The blood carries digested food to all parts of the body where it becomes assimilated in to the
cells.
In the cells, most of the glucose is oxidized to release energy required for various metabolic
activities. The remaining glucose is converted in to glycogen which is stored in liver and muscle
cells. The glycogen can be used as source of energy by the body when required.
The amino acids are converted into proteins while as fatty acids and glycerol is converted into
fats.
The excess Amino acids gets converted into urea by liver which later on gets excreted by kidney.
(5) Egestion :- The elimination of faces from alimentary canal through anus is called egestion or
defaecation.
Textual Questions
SECTION - A
Q.1) Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the O2 requirements of multicellular organisms
like human ?
An) Diffusion is insufficient to meet the oxygen requirements of large multicellular organisms
like humans because;
(i) In case of multi cellular organisms, only the cells present in the surface layer are in
direct contact with the surrounding environment.
(ii) Also the volume of multicellular organism‘s body is so big that oxygen can not diffuse
into all the cells of the body of an organism quickly, because diffusion being a very slow
process will take a lot of time to make oxygen available to all body cells.
Thus, the multi cellular organisms require specialized organs for breathing and exchange
of gases, to meet the oxygen requirements.
Q.2) What criteria do we use to decide whether something is alive ?
Ans) Following are some prominent characteristics by which we can decide whether something
is alive;
(i) In living things growth and development takes place with the passage of time.
(ii) Living thing respond to stimuli in their environment.
(iii) Living things interact i.e exchange matter and energy with their environment.
(iv) Living things reproduce to continue their existence.
(v) Living thing obtain food from their environment.
(vi) Living things perform metabolic activities.
(vii)Living things have definite life span.
Q.3) What are the outside raw materials required by an organism ?
Ans) The raw materials required by an organisms depend upon the mode of nutrition. As in
autotrophs, which make their own food, require water, carbon-dioxide from the
environment. While in heterotrophs, the raw material required are the products formed by
autotrophs i,e carbohydrates and oxygen.
Q.4) What processes would you consider essential for maintaining life ?
Ans) The important life processes essential for maintaining life are :-
(i) Nutrition :- It is a process by which living organisms obtain and utilize the nutrients.
(ii) Respiration :- It involves oxidation of respiratory substances and release of energy.
(iii) Transport :- It involves the transport of substances from one part to other parts of
body.
(iv) Excretion :- It involves removal of excess or toxic wastes from the body.
(v) Reproduction :- To produce young ones of their own kind for the continuity and
multiplication of their race.
(vi) Control and co-ordination:- It includes nervous system and endocrine system. Both
these systems control and co-ordinate all the activities of multi cellular organisms.
SECTION - B
Q.1) Distinguish Between Autotrophic & Heterotrophic nutrition.
Autotrophic Heterotrophic
1. In this type of nutrition an organism 1. In this type of nutrition an organism
prepares its own food. can not prepare its own food so depends
upon other organisms for its food.
2. In this nutrition the raw materials 2. In this nutrition the raw materials are
are inorganic in nature (CO2&H2O) organic in nature (carbohydrates) as well
3. In this type of nutrition radiant as inorganic e.g. salt condiments etc.
Energy is converted into chemical 3. In this type of nutrition no such process
energy. takes place.
4. Autotrophic organisms are 4. Heterotrophic organisms are
producers. consumers.
Q.2) Where do plants get each of the raw materials required for photosynthesis ?
Ans) The various raw materials needed for photosynthesis are
(i) CO2 (ii) H2O
(iii) Sunlight (iv) Chlorophyll.
CO2 is taken from the atmosphere. H2O is absorbed through roots from the soil
Photonic energy i.e hv is obtained from the direct sun light.
And chlorophyll is present in chloroplast of the cell which are main photosynthetic
pigment involved in it.
Q.3) What is the role of acid in stomach?
An) The Acid present in stomach is HCl, which has following role:-
(i) In Activation : HCl acid stops activity of salivary amylase by changing pH of food
from neutral to
acidic one.
(ii) Conversion:- HCl changes pro-enzymes i.e pepsinogen and prorennin into active
enzymes pepsin and rennin.
(iii) Creation of Acidic medium :- HCl makes the food acidic, which is essential for the
activity of pepsin and rennin.
(iv) Denaturation of proteins :- HCl destroys the three dimensional configuration of
food
proteins.
(v) Softening of food :- By its action on middle lamella and cell cements, HCl softens the
food.
P Proteins
T C
E R H
Peptones A
P Y Y M
S M I
P N
I O
S T O
D
N Polypeptides I P
P E I
N P P
S
T E
Dipeptides & I I P
(Some amino acids) N D T
A I
S
D
E
E
A/A
S
(c) The enzymes and their function that are involved in fat digestion are :-
i) Gastric lipase (ii) Phospholipase (iii) Phospho di esterase.
The general function of above three enzymes is that they convert fats into fatly acids and
glycerol.
Q.5) How are the small intestines designed to absorb food ?
Ans) The mucus membrane of intestines is raised into numerous finger like projection called
villi. There are about 50 lac villi present in human intestines. The number of villi is about
20-40 per sq. mm. These villi increase the surface area of the small intestines for
absorption of digested food. These villi are richly supplied with blood vessels which take
the absorbed food to each and every cell of the body, where it is used for obtaining energy,
building up new tissues and repairing of old tissues.
Respiration
Conceptual Questions
Q.1 Discuss respiration and its types?
Respiration:-Respiration is a metabolic process in which breaking down of glucose takes place
inside the living cells by the process of oxidation resulting in the release of CO2 + H2O and
energy.
The compound which is oxidized during respiration is called respiratory substrate
e.g. Glucose. Depending weather oxygen is used or not. The respiration is of two types:
A) Aerobic Respiration:- In this type of respiration complete oxidation of substrate
(Glucose) takes place in presence of atmospheric oxygen to release H2O & CO2 with the release
of energy. It occurs in most of the plants and animals.
enzymes
C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O + 38ATPs
Glucose Carbon Water Energy
dioxide
B) Anaerobic respiration :- In this type of respiration, incomplete break down of Glucose takes
place in absence of oxygen into CO2 and lactic acid or ethanol with the release of small amount of
energy. It occurs in muscles and in certain micro-organisms such as bacteria and yeast.
Mechanism
The process of respiration (Aerobic & Anaerobic) is a long and complex process which is
completed in two main steps.
(a) Glycolysis:- It is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration . It takes place in
cytoplasm without the use of atmospheric oxygen. During this process glucose a six
carbon molecule undergoes a series of changes to form a three carbon molecule pyruvate
or pyruvic acid.
(b) Breaking Down of Pyruvate :- When oxygen not available (Anaerobic condition) the
pyruvate undergoes incomplete oxidation and is converted into different molecules in
different organisms. e.g.
i) In yeast glucose is converted into pyruvates and pyruvates are further converted
into ethyl alcohol.
C6 H12 O6 Glycolysis CH3COCOOH C2H5OH
Glucose Pyruvic acid Ethyl alcohol
In the cells of higher plants under anaerobic condition glucose is converted into ethyl alcohol or
organic acids like malic acid, oxalic acids etc.
ii) In muscle cells, during active metabolism, glucose is oxidized anaerobically and is
converted into pyruvates. The pyruvates are further converted into 3 compound
molecule called Lactic acid.
Glucose pyruic acid lactic acid + Energy
iii) In some bacteria glucose is partially converted into lactic acid or butyric acid.
Bacteria
Glucose Lactic acid + Energy
streptococcus lactis
Bacteria
Glucose Lactic acid + Butyric acid
Clostridium butyricum
Textual Questions
SECTION - C
(I) Nose:- The respiratory tract begins with a pair of external nostrils situated at lower end of
nose. Each nostril leads into a vertical tube like structure called nasal chamber. The two nasal
chambers are separated by a cartilaginous nasal septum. Each nasal chamber on the other side
opens into the pharynx by a aperture called internal naris. In the beginning of the nasal chamber
the inner surface is lined with ciliated epithelial lining with mucous membrane to filter the inspired air
(warmed, moistened and becomes dust free).
(II)Pharynx :-The nose opens into the pharynx by a pair of apertures called internal nares. The
pharynx is differentiated into upper nasopharynx (where open into the internal nares ) and
lower oropharynx. The oropharynx leads into two tubes i.e. larynx and oesophagus, through
glottis and gullet respectively. The glottis is guarded by a flap called epiglottis (that does not
allow anything other than air to enter into the larynx).
(III)Larynx (voice box):- It is the upper slightly swollen part of trachea or wind pipe. It is more
prominent in men as compared to women and is called ―Adam‘s apple‖. In the larynx there is
present a pair of vocal cards which help in the production of sound, hence, it is also called
voice box. During swallowing of food or liquid, the larynx moves upwards, so that its opening
glottis is close by epiglottis and food does not enter into larynx.
(IV)Trachea :- The trachea or wind pipe is a long, narrow, whitish tube that extends through the
neck, enters the thorax where it divides into a pair of branches called primary bronchi. The
walls of trachea are supported by ―C‖ shaped cartilaginous rings.
These rings prevent collapsing of trachea. The trachea at its lower end divide or splits into
two branches called primary bronchi.
(V)Primary bronchi:- These are pair of tubular structures formed as a result of bifurcation of the
trachea. Theses are right and left primary bronchi that enters into corresponding lungs. These
are also supported by cartilaginous rings
(2) Respiratory organs: The respiratory organs in man are a pair of lungs.
Lungs :- Lungs are a pair of highly elastic, thin walled, spongy, pinkish and hollow bag like
structures situated in the thoracic cavity on the sides of the heart and are well protected by bony
thoracic cage
contraction results in the expansion of the thoracic cavity which in turn results in the
expansion of lungs due to increase in the volume of lungs pressure of the air inside the
lungs decreases as compared to the atmospheric pressure There fore fresh atmospheric air
rushes into the lungs through respiratory tract .
2. Exhalation or expiration :- The movement of foul air from the lungs to out side is called
expiration or exhalation . Expiration is a passive process and involves relaxation of the
external intercostal & diaphragm muscles .The ribs return to their position and the
diaphragm becomes dome shaped .Both these movements reduce the thoracic cavity
volume and lungs return to their original size. The air rushes out of the lungs due to the
increase in pressure in side the lungs above that of the atmosphere.
Testual Questions
Q.1) What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with
regard to obtaining oxygen for respiration.
Ans) Terrestrial organisms have advantages over aquatic organisms with regard to obtaining
oxygen for respiration because.
i) Aquatic animals such as fish, prawn, mussels and tadpoles etc breath water, i.e they
draw oxygen dissolved in water for respiration. On the other hand, the terrestrial
organisms take oxygen directly from air.
ii) The amount of oxygen in water is fairly low as compared to the amount of oxygen in
the air. Due to low concentration of o2 in water, the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms
is much faster than terrestrial organisms.
Q.2) What are the different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in various
organisms?
Ans) Different organisms obtain energy by oxidizing glucose through different pathways:-
a) Under aerobic conditions:- Breaking down of glucose takes place in presence of
oxygen, and occurs in cytoplasm and mitochondria. In multi-cellular organisms like
human beings and most plant, the glucose is converted into pyruvates in cytoplasm called
glycolysis, Then Pyrurate enter into the mitochondria, undergoes Kreb‘s cycle where it is
converted into carbon dioxide and water with the release of energy.
Aerobic
Mitochondria
b) Under anaerobic Condition i,e ; Breaking down of glucose in absence of oxygen takes
place in cytoplasm and in different ways in different animals e.g; In yeat glucose is
converted in converted into pyruvates and pyruvates are further converted into ethyl
alcohol.
Glycolysis
C6 H12o6 CH3 CO COOH C2 H5OH
Glucose Pyruvic acid Ethyl-Alcohol
In the cells of higher plants under anaerobic condition glucose is converted into ethyl
alcohol or organic aids like malic acid, oxalic acids etc.
In muscle cells, during active metabolism, glucose is oxidized an-aerobically and is
converted into pyruvates. The pyruvates are further converted into compound molecule
called Lactic acid
Glucose - - - - - - - - - - - - - pyruvic acid - - - - - - - - - - - - lactic aid + energy
In some bacteria glucose is partially converted into lactic acid or butyric acid
Bacteria
Glucose Lactic acid + energy.
Streptococcus lactic
Bacteria
Glucose Lactic acid + Butyric acid.
Clostridium butyricum
Glucose A
N
C6H12O6 A
E
R
Glycolysis O
B
I
Acid
Pyruvate C
Fermentation
Alcohol
X Cytoplasm
Mitochondria
Q.4) How the lungs are designed in human beings to maximize the area for exchange of
gases?
Ans) Lungs are the pair of highly elastic, hollow, bag like structure respiratory organs in human
being. Within the lungs, the major bronchi divides into the secondary bronchi which sub
divides into the smaller tertiary bronchi and finally into still smaller bronchioles. Each
bronchiole divides into alveolar ducts which enter the alveolar sacs (alveoli). The alveoli
are the tiny air sacs where gas exchange takes place.
In one set of human lungs there are about 300 million alveoli. These alveoli increase the
surface area of the lungs for exchange gases. It has been estimated that if we flatly spread
out all the alveoli in both the lungs, they would cover an area of about 70-75m2, which is
almost equal to single tennis court. The outer surface of each alveolus is densely covered
by a network of blood capillaries.
******************************
(a) Auricles: The auricles have thin walls and are separated from each other by an inter-
auricular septum. The septum has an oval thin area called fossa ovalis.
(b) Ventricles: These are thick walled chambers and are separated from each other by a thick,
curved partition called inter-ventricular septum. The left ventricle has thicker walls as
compared to right ventricle because it has to pump blood to all parts of the body.
(c)Great blood vessels: The blood vessels that enter or leave the heart are called great
blood vessels. Blood from all the parts of the body except lungs goes to right auricle
via three vessels, they are: (i) Superior vena cava (ii) Inferior vena cava (iii) Coronary
sinus
(i) Superior vena cava: It brings deoxygenated blood from upper part of the body.
(ii) Inferior vena cava: It brings deoxygenated blood from lower parts of the body.
(iii) Coronary sinus: brings deoxygenated blood from the heart walls.
Blood vessels leave from the heart are (i) pulmonary aorta (ii) systemic aorta.
(i) Pulmonary aorta arise from right ventricle and carries deoxygenated blood to the
lungs for purification.
(ii) Systemic aorta arises from left ventricle and supplies oxygenated blood to all parts of
body except lungs.
d) Aperture and valves: There are four valves in the heart which control the flow of
blood within the heart. They are;
i. Bicuspid valve or Mitral valve: It consists of two cusps, it guards the opening of the left
auricle into left ventricle.
ii. Tricuspid valve: It consists of three cusps, it guards the right auriclo-ventricular aperture.
iii. Semilunar and pulmonary valves: It has three cusps and are present at the base of aortic
and pulmonary arches.
iv. Aortic semilunar valve: It is present at the point of origin of aorta from the left ventricle.
(b) The veins: Veins are the blood vessels that collects deoxygenated blood (except pulmonary
veins) from all parts of the body to the heart.
Veins are thin walled, less elastic blood vessels having wide lumen and semilunar valves. Each
vein is composed of three layers i.e. inner layer called tunica interna, middle layer called tunica
media and outer layer called tunica externa.
(c) Capillaries: Capillaries were discovered by Malpighi in 1661. The capillaries are formed of
single layer of endothelial cells. The capillaries are microscopic, narrow vessels present at the
junction of artries (arterioles) and veins (venules), where exchange of food materials, gases, waste
materials etc takes place. Capillaries are found abundantly in those tissues where metabolism is
very fast.
(4) Haemoglobin is composed of two components namely a protein component called globin and
non-protein component called haem.
(5) Haemoglobin transports O2 from lungs to cells by combining with oxygen and forms
oxyhaemoglobin.
Hb + O2 HbO2 (oxyhaemoglobin)
(6) Haemoglobin also transports CO2 from cells to lungs.
(7) The red colour of blood in vertebrates is due to the presence of haemoglobin.
Causes of Hypertension.
(a) In older age arteries become less elastic so that heart has to pump blood with great force.
Thus more force is exerted on the walls of arteries and caused high blood pressure.
(b) Intake of excessive saturated fats, smoking and adulterated food causes hypertension.
(2)Hypotension: Fall in the arterial blood pressure is called hypotension or low blood pressure. It
may result expansion of arteries, loss of blood in hemorrhage or failure of the pumping action of
heart.
Q.5:-What is clotting of blood ? Write down mechanism and flow chart of blood clotting?
Blood coagulation: The conversion of liquid blood into semi-solid blood at the bleeding site is
called coagulation. It is also called as blood clotting and the semi-solid blood is called clot.
Coagulation is of great biological value for the survival of animals e.g. if someone
receives a cut in the skin, the blood flows for a shorter while and then clots, which prevents
further flow of blood. Thus clot acts as plug, thereby sealing the ruptured blood vessels.
insoluble fibrin which forms the mesh. The red Blood corpuscles get entangled in the mesh and
form a blood clot.
Damaged tissue
+ _______ Release Thromboplatin
ON EXPOSURE TO AIR
Blood Platelets
Q.9:- What are the components of transport system in highly organised plants?
Ans:- The components of transport system in higher plants(Gymnosperms & Angiosperms) are :-
1) Xylem:- Xylem (Greek word Xylos=wood).It is a complex tissue which forms the bulk of the
roots and stem of vascular plants. It is primarily concerned with the conduction of water and
minerals and also provides mechanical support. It consists of four different types of cells. These
are tracheids, vessels, xylem fibers and xylem parenchyma.
2)Phloem:- It is also called bast or leptome. Phloem is complex tissue and forms vascular system
of plants. Phloem is mainly concerned with the conduction of the organic food. Phloem is also
composed of four types of cells. These are Sieve elements, companion cells, and phloem
parenchyma and phloem fibres.
Textual Questions
SECTION - D
Q.1) What are the components of the transport system in human beings? What are the
functions of these components?
Ans) There are two components of transport system in human beings. These are Blood and
lymph.
(A) Blood and its composition?
Blood:- Blood is red-coloured, viscous & complex connective tissue fluid. It is salty in
taste. It is slightly alkaline in nature with a PH range of 7.3-7.5. It is also known as ―river
of life‖ An average human being has about 5.5 liters of blood in his body. About 55% of
blood is fluid called plasma and the remaining 45% is made of solid particles called
corpuscles. Blood always moves from the heart through the arteries & back to the heart
through veins.
Composition of blood:- Blood is made up of two main components plasma (liquid part)
& blood corpuscles (solid part)
a) Red blood Corpuscles (RBC‟s) or Erythrocytes:- Red blood corpuscles are biconcave
& anucleated disc-like structures, flat in the centre and thick & rounded at the periphery.
They are about 7-8 µ m in diameter and 2µ m thick RBC‘s are produced in the bone
marrow of bones such as ribs, vertebrae column & skull bones. Their number ranges from
5-5.5 millions in an average human male & 4.5 -5 million in an average human female.
RBC‘s have a coloured spongy body which contains haemoglobin. The haemoglobin is the
respiratory pigment which is formed of an iron containing part known as haem and a
protein part known as globin
b)White blood corpuscles: (WBC‟s) or leucocytes: White blood corpuscles are rounded to
irregular shaped cells and are capable of amoeboid movement. WBC‘s are produced in
lymphnodes, spleen, thymus and red bone marrow. Their number varies from 5000 to
10000 per cubic millimeter or micro litre. WBC‘s are nucleated and are colourless.
WBC‘s are of two types; Granulocytes (contain granules in their cytoplasm) and
Agranulocytes (Lack granules in their cytoplasm)
(c) Blood platelets: The platelets are the smallest formed elements of the blood. They are
rounded or oval, disc like bodies. They are non-nucleated. Their number varies from
20,0000–30,0000 per mm3 of blood and its size is about 3 – 4 µm in diameter. They are
produced from red bone marrow. Their life span is about 3 – 5 days and is mainly
destroyed in spleen. They are colourless and play a major role in blood clotting. They
release a chemical called thromboplastin which initiates the process of blood clotting.
(B) Functions of blood?
Ans) Blood is important component of transport system in human beings and performs
following functions:
(i) Transport of nutrients:- The digested food substances are absorbed by blood at the site
of absorption (intestine) and transported to different organs of the body.
(ii) Transport of respiratory gases:-Blood transports oxygen (respiratory gas) from the
lungs (respiratory organ) to the tissues and carbon dioxide (respiratory gas) from the
tissues to the respiratory surface.
(iii) Transport of respiratory waste products:-The metabolic waste substances produced
in the body are transported by blood to the organs meant for their removal from the body.
(iv) Transport of body secretions:- Blood transports chemical secretions like hormones,
from the site of their secretion to the target organ.
(v) Regulation of body temperature:-Blood helps to control the body temperature by
evenly distributing the blood to different parts of the body.
(vi) Defense against infection:-Blood contains white blood corpuscles that are phagocytic
in nature. WBC‘s also produce antibodies which combat the bacteria, after neutralizing
their toxins and thus, play a protective role.
(vii) Maintenance of PH:- The plasma proteins are amphoteric in nature i.e. they act as
buffer and thus prevent any shift in PH of blood.
(viii) Water balance:-Blood maintains water balance to a constant level by bringing about
constant exchange of water between the circulating blood and the tissue fluid.
(C) Lymphatic system in human beings?
Lymph and its associated parts constitute lymphatic system. It consists of :
(a) Lymph: Lymph is a colourless fluid connective tissue. Lymph is formed from blood by the
passage of substances through the wall of the capillaries in the intercellular tissue spaces.
Composition: Lymph is resembling with plasma and contains large number of
lymphocytes, water and solid components like sugar, urea, nitrogen substances,
phosphorus, calcium, enzymes and antibodies etc.
(b) Lymph capillaries: These are blind at one end and are interwoven with blood capillaries but
are not connected with them. They have very thin walls.
(c) Lymph vessels: Lymph capillaries join to form lymph vessels. Lymph vessels resemble
veins in structure but have thinner walls and more valves. The smaller lymph vessels join
together to form large vessels, which in then join to form two main larger lymphatic vessels
or trunks (1) Thoracic duct (2) Right lymphatic duct.
(d) Lymph nodes:- The bead like swelling which occurs at intervals in the course of lymphatic
vessels are called lymphatic nodes. Lymph nodes are masses of reticular connective tissue
and contains lymphocytes plasma cells and fixed macrophages. Lymph is filtered through
lymph nodes. Lymph nodes are abundant in the regions of neck, arm-pits and groins.
Functions of lymph:
(i) It helps in the exchange of various materials between blood and body tissues.
(ii) It carries lymphocytes and antibodies from lymph nodes to the blood.
(iii) It transports fatty acids and glycerol from intestines to blood.
(iv) It destroys micro-organisms.
(v) It carries plasma proteins synthesized in liver and hormones from endocrine glands.
(vi) Spleen is a lymphatic organ, acts as blood bank and graveyard of RBC‘s.
Q.2) Why it is necessary to separate oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood in
mammals and birds.
Ans) It is necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in and birds because.
i) Birds and mammals need comparatively more energy (with respect to other animals
like amphibians) for maintaining their body temperature, this can be maintained by
separating oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
ii) Such separation allow highly efficient supply of oxygen to body, especially to those
organs that need oxygen the most, (heart and brain) can definitely get the right amount
of oxygen.
Q.3) What are the components of transport system in highly organised plants?
Ans:- The components of transport system in higher plants(Gymnosperms & Angiosperms) are:-
i) Xylem:- Xylem (Greek word Xylos=wood).It is a complex tissue which forms the bulk
of the roots and stem of vascular plants. It is primarily concerned with the conduction of
water and minerals and also provides mechanical support. It consists of four different
types of cells. These are tracheids, vessels, xylem fibers and xylem parenchyma.
ii)Phloem:- It is also called bast or leptome. Phloem is complex tissue and forms vascular
system of plants. Phloem is mainly concerned with the conduction of the organic food.
Phloem is also composed of four types of cells. These are Sieve elements, companion
cells, and phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres.
(C) Cohesion and Adhesion of water:- The walls of xylem vessels made of lingo-cellulose
has strong affinity for water molecules. Water in vessels forms continuous unbroken
column due to the forces of cohesion (among water molecules) and adhesion (between
water molecules and xylem vessels).
Thus according to above theory, water ascends in the plants because of transpiration pull
and the coloumn of water remains continuous because of cohesive force of water
molecules.
Mechanism of translocation
Munch in 1930 explained ‗theory of mass flow‘ to demonstrate the translocation of food.
Munch‘s hypothesis postulates that the mass flow of organic solutes takes place from the site of
higher concentration (source) to the site of lower
concentration (sink).
The Principal of mass flow hypothesis can be
illustrated in figure. Two chambers ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ with semi
permeable membranes are connected with a tube ‗T‘. These
chambers are immersed in two interconnected reservoir
containing water. Sugar solution in chamber ‗A‘ is
concentrated whereas chamber ‗B‘ contains dilute sugar
solution. Water from the reservoir enters in chamber A due to
endosmosis and its turgor pressure increases. This causes
mass flow of sugar
solution from
chamber ‗A‘ to
chamber ‗B‘ through
tube ‗T‘ under the
influence of turgor
pressure gradient.
The movement will
continue. Till the solutions in both the chambers attain similar concentration.
In young seedlings, the cotyledons (containing reserve food) act as source and the
roots act as sink. Therefore, the translocation of organic solutes occurs from, the cotyledons to the
roots.
In grown up plants, carbohydrates are synthesized in the mesophyll cells of the leaves (source)
consequently it causes increases in the osmotic pressure of these cells. The increase in osmotic
pressure causes these cells to absorb water from the surrounding cells. The turger pressure (the
pressure due to increased turgidity) of the mesophyll cells causes some of the solutes to pass in to
the sieve tubes of the phloem where from it is transported to sink (The non synthesizing regions)
stem and roots.
******************************
Excretion
Conceptual Questions
Q.No.1. What is excretion?
Ans) The elimination of metabolic wastes, excess of salts and excess of H2O from the body is
called excretion
Various metabolic waste products are formed due to the complex chemical reactions
taking place within the body. These waste products if accumulated in the body will tend to alter
normal internal environment of the body, and cell functioning will deteriorate, causing eventual
death of the cells which may result in the death of the individual. Therefore, the metabolic wastes
must be removed from the body.
(1) Kidney
The kidneys are reddish brown, bean shaped slightly
flattened organs about 10cm long, 5cm wide and 4cm
thick. Each weighing about 150 grams in an adult male
and 135 grams in an adult female.
The kidneys are placed against the back wall of
abdominal cavity just below the diaphragm, one on the
either side of vertebral column. They are protected by
the last two pairs of ribs. The kidneys are asymmetrical
in position i.e. present in different levels.
The right kidney is about 1 – 1.5cms lower than left
kidney. The outer surface of the kidney is convex and
inner surface is concave and has deep notch called
hilus, through which the ureters, renal artery, renal
vein and nerves enter into the kidneys.
In a section of kidney the peripheral portion
appears dark reddish brown called cortex and central portion called medulla. The medulla is
subdivided into 15 or 16 conical masses called renal pyramids. Each pyramid has thousands of
tubules called uriniferous tubules or nephrons and blood vessels.
(2) Ureters
From the hilum or hilus of each kidney emerges a cylinder tube called the ureter. Each ureter is
about 10 – 12 inches in length and about 3mm in diameter. The upper end of each ureter enters
the kidney of its side and expands forming a funnel shaped structure, the renal pelvis. The lower
end of the ureter opens into the sac like structure called urinary bladder.
(3) Urinary bladder
Urinary bladder is a medium pear shaped sac situated in the lower of pelvic region. The lower part
or neck of the bladder leads into the uretrhra is guarded by a sphincter muscle, which remains
closed until the time of micturition (urination). The size of urinary bladder depends upon the urine
present in it. It can hold 0.5 – 1 litre of urine.
(4) Urethra
The urethra is small tube leading from the floor of the urinary bladder and leads to the exterior. In
a female it is quite short about 3 – 5cm long and carries only urine. It opens by urinary aperture in
the valve infront of vaginal aperture. In a male urethra is much longer about 20cms and carries
urine as well as spermatic fluid. It opens out at the tip of the penis by urinogenital aperture.
Q.No.2:- Write a short note on artificial kidney (haemodialysis)?
Ans) Artificial kidney is used to filter the blood of a patient whose kidneys are damaged. The
patient is said to be put on dialysis and the process of purifying blood by an artificial kidney is
called haemodialysis.
Process of haemodialysis:
Blood of the patient is taken out from main artery and cooled to 00C and an anticoagulant
(heparin) is mixed with it.
The blood is then pumped into the apparatus (artificial kidney), wherein, the blood flows
in cellophane tubes, which are kept in a salt solution that is isotonic with the blood
plasma.
As the blood flows through these tubes, molecules of compounds like urea, uric acid,
creatinine, etc. diffuse out in the dialysis fluid.
Blood coming out from the apparatus is pure blood; it is warmed to the body temperature
and mixed with anti heparin to restore its normal coagulatibility.
This purified blood is then pumped into the body through a vein.
Textual Questions
SECTION - E
Q.1) Describe the structure and functioning of Nephron?
Ans) Nephron or uriniferous tubule is the structural and functional unit of kidney. Each kidney
of man is formed of about 1 million nephrons. Each nephron is a coiled tubule having a
length of 3cms..
(ii) Tubular Re-absorption:- From Bowman‘s capsule the glomerular filtrate passes
into the tubule and flows through it to the collecting duct. and while passage of filtrate,
some selected materials reabsorbed from the ultra-filtrate into the blood throughout the
urinary tubule. Which results in reduction in volume of ultra filtrate. The Reabsorbed
materials include glucose, amino-acids, ions (Na+, KT, cl-, Hco-3), water, some urea.
(iii) Tubular secretion:- It refers to the addition of selected materials from blood to the
ultra filtrate, which leads to increase the volume of ultra filtrate. It takes place in the
proximal and distal convoluted tubules. Secreted materials include creatinine, hipuric
acid, K+, NH3 and foreign.
Q.3) What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
Ans:- The methods used by plants to get rid of their various wastes in the plants takes place in
the following ways:
(i) The major waste substances, produced are CO2, oxygen and water. Carbon dioxide and
water are used by plants for photosynthesis while as oxygen escapes from plants into the
environment by diffusion.
(ii) Excess salts are removed through hydathodes by the process of guttation.
(iii) Most of the toxic waste products are stored within dead permanent tissues such as heart
wood, leaves or bark.
(iv) Some excess organic acids combine with excess cations and precipitate out as insoluble
crystals such as calcium oxalates which can be safely stored in plant cells.
(v) Some waste products are eliminated through petals, fruits and seeds.
(vi) Aquatic plants lose their waste products by diffusion directly into the water.
(vii) Some excretory products such as latex, gums, essential oils etc are stored in special
type of tissues and glands e.g. resin ducts store resin, oil glands store essential oil etc.
(viii) Many waste products are recycled in the synthesis of new metabolic products.
SECTION - F
Q.1) The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for.
Ans) (c) Excretion
Q.4) The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in.
Ans) (b) Mitochondria.
Q.5) How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?
Ans) Fats are digested inside the intestine where partly digested and acidic food comes from
stomach. This part receive bile juice from the liver and the enzyme lipase from pancreatic
juice. Bile contains certain salts which bring about the emulsification of fat molecules into
small globules. The pancreatic juice contains an enzyme-lipase which brings about the
digestion of fat.
Q.9) How are the alveoli designed to maximize the exchange of gases?
Ans) Refer Q. No. 4 from Section C
Q.10) What would be the consequence of a deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies?
Ans) Deficiency of hemoglobin causes anaemia in our bodies. We will not be able to get
sufficient oxygen for respiration so that we get easily tired and lose weight.
Q.11) Describe double circulation in human beings. Why is it necessary?
Ans: Heart contracts and expands alternatively to send or receive the blood. It is called
circulation. The contraction of heart is called systole while as the expansion of heart is
called Diastole.
The circulation of blood in human heart is called double circulation and was first
discovered by William Harvey in 1628. Double circulation means that the blood passes
through the heart twice for each circuit of body.
Double circulation consists of:
Systemic circulation
Deoxygenated
……………………………………………………………….
Oxygenated
blood
blood
Pulmonary circulation
Deoxygenated
Oxygenated
blood
blood
R.A L. A
R. V L. V
Deoxygenated
Oxygenated
blood
blood
Body Parts
(a) .Pulmonary circulation: Circulation of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the left
auricle through lungs is called pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary arch arise from the right
ventricle, divides into the right and left pulmonary artries. These pulmonary artries supply
deoxygenated blood to respective lungs for purification. Oxygenated blood from the lungs is
returned to the left auricle through four pulmonary veins.
(b) Systemic circulation: Circulation of blood from the left ventricle to the right auricle through
various body parts or systems is called systemic circulation. Aortic arch arises from the left
ventricle gives off many branches and supplies oxygenated blood to all the body parts or organs
of the body except lungs. From these artries, oxygen is diffused into the tissues. Deoxygenated
blood from visceral organs is collected by various veins that unite to form two very large veins
called Superior and inferior vana cava. These veins pour deoxygenated blood into the right
auricle.
In man the oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood remains fully separated from each
other. Such a separation allows a highly efficient supply of oxygen to the body as they have
high energy demands.
Q.12) What are the differences between Transport of materials in xylem and Phloem?
Xylem Phloem
Xylem is responsible for transportation
1. Phloem is responsible for transportation of organic
of water and minerals. food and hormones.
Xylem helps in upward movement of2. Phloem is responsible for downward movement of
lateral water and mineral salts. organic food.
Xylem is composed of Tracheids,P Phloem is composed of sieve tubes, companion
vessels, Xylem fibers and xylem cells, Phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres.
parenchyma.
Q.13) Compare the functioning alveoli in the lungs and nephrons in the kidneys with respect
to their structure and functioning?
Ans)
Alveoli Nephrons
1. ALVEOLI are the structural and NEPHRONS are the structural and functional
functional units of lungs. units of kidneys.
2. ALVEOLI help in removal of CO2 NEPHRONS help in removal of excess water,
from blood. Salts and Urea in the form of Urine from blood
3. ALVEOLI have thin walls with rich NEPHRONS too have thin walls and rich blood
blood supply supply
4. ALVEOLI are excretory in function NEPHRONS too are excretory in function as
as they remove CO2 (a waste of the they remove urine (a waste) from the body out
body) out
************************
Lesson No.2
Control and Coordination
Terminology
1) Coordination:- The working of various organs of the body of an organism in a proper
manner to produce proper reaction to a stimulu7s is called coordination.
2) Stimulus :- The changes in the environment to which the organisms responds and react
are called stimuli ( Sing-stimulus)
3) Receptor :- It is a nerve cell or group of nerve cells which is sensitive to a specific
stimulus or to specific change in the environment.
4) Effecter :- An effector is some muscle or gland in specific part of the body which
produces suitable response.
5) Dormancy :- It refers to a resting, in active condition of the seed when it fails to
germinate even though the environmental conditions usually considered favorable for
active growth are present.
6) Partheno carpy :- Development of seedless fruits with the act of fertilization e.g in
Grapes
7) Homeostasis :- The mechanism of maintaining constancy of internal environment
in the living organisms.
8) Apical dominance :- The terminal bud at the apex of a shoot, suppresses the growth of
lateral buds into branches. This phenomenon is called apical dominance.
9) Synapse :- The loose connection between the axon endings of one nerve cell and Cyton
of next nerve cell is called synapse.
10) Synaptic cleft :- The space between adjacent neurons is called the synaptic left.
11) Synaptic bulb:- The synaptic cleft is about 20mm in width. The axon terminal of a
presynaptic neuron has a bulb-like appearance known as synaptic bulb.
Conceptual Frame
Q.No.1:-What do you mean by control and coordination?
Ans. The working together of various organs (parts) of the body of an organism in a proper
manner to produce response to a stimulus is called coordination. For proper control and
coordination, higher organisms have evolved two systems – nervous system and endocrine
system. The nervous system is composed of nerves which control and coordinate the body by
sending electrical signals called nerve impulses. The endocrine system, composed of endocrine
glands, control and coordinate the body by sending chemical messengers called hormones. Higher
multicellular animals have both nervous and chemical control and coordination, whereas plants
posses only chemical coordination and lack nervous coordination. It is to be noted that nervous
control is speedy and spontaneous but its effect is localized, where as chemical control (hormonal
control) is usually slow acting but its effect is specific.
Q.No.2:- Discuss nervous system of man?
Ans) The nervous system of man is divisible into three main parts.
(1) Central nervous system (2) Peripheral nervous system (3) Autonomic nervous system.
(1) Central nervous system: All the parts of the nervous system which are present along the main
longitudinal axis of the body constitute the central nervous system. It consists of brain and spinal
cord.
(A)Brain (Encephalon)
The human brain is soft, whitish highly developed organ situated in the cranium or cranial cavity
of the skull. It weighs about 1200 – 1400 gms.
Covering and protection: The brain is surrounded by three membranes called meninges. These
are Piamater membrane (inner layer), Arachnoid membrane (middle layer) and duramater (outer
layer). The space between these meninges is filled with a fluid called Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF)
which protects the brain from mechanical shocks.
Structure of brain: The adult human brain has three sub-divisions.
a) Fore – brain or prosencephalon
b) Mid-brain or mesencephalon
c) Hind brain or rhombencephalon
(a)Fore brain: It is the anterior region and the largest part of the brain. It has three parts.
(i) Olfactory lobes (ii) Cerebrum (iii) Diencephalon
(i) Olfactory lobes: The olfactory lobes of brain of human beings
are a pair of poorly developed, club shaped, widely separated bodies, which are visible from the
ventral surface only. The olfactory lobes are concerned with sense of smell.
(ii) Cerebrum: Cerebrum makes bulk of human brain. It constitutes 4/5th weight of the brain. It
consists of two lobes called cerebral hemispheres. The two cerebral hemispheres are separated
from each other by a very deep groove known as cerebral fissure. The two hemispheres are held
together by a transverse band of nerve fibres called corpus callosum. The outer layer of cerebrum
is the cerebral cortex which is made up of grey matter. The surface of cerebrum shows many folds
and grooves called gyri and sulci, which increases the surface area (2000 sq.cm) of
cerebrum to accommodate more nerve cells. There are three sulci present in on the surface
of each cerebral hemisphere which are very prominent as a result of which it is divided into four
lobes.
1) frontal lobe (2) parietal lobe (3) occipital lobe (4) temporal lobe.
1) Frontal lobe: It controls facial muscular activities as well as higher mental activities.
2) Parietal lobe: It has areas for touch, taste, smell, temperature and conscious association.
3) Occipital lobe: It is the region for sight.
4) Temporal lobe: It is the region for auditory reception (hearing).
Besides above the cerebrum governs reasoning, learning, memorizing and intelligence. It also
controls feelings of love, admiration and hatred. It also perceives the sensory impulse such as
pain, touch, taste, smell, hearing etc.
(iii) Diencephalon: It is a small rhomboidal lobe completely covered superiorly by large
cerebrum but visible from inferior surface. The roof of diencephalon is called epithalmus, floor
hypothalamus and lateral walls called thalmi.
Diencephalon contains reflex centres for muscular and glandular activities. It has also
centres of emotion, hunger and thirst. It also helps in maintaining body temperature and water salt
balance of the body.
(b) Mid brain (Mesencephalon: It is the thick walled structure and small part of the brain. The
mid brain or mesencephalon connects the anterior region of the brain to the posterior region of the
brain. The mid brain is differentiated into corpora quardrigemina on the upper side and the crura
cerebri on the lower side. Corpora quardrigemina consists of four lobes, i.e. upper lobes called
superior colliculi and the lower lobes called interior colliculi.
Functions:
(1) Crura cerebri connects the hind brain with the forebrain.
(2) Superior colliculli controls the sight.
(3) Inferior colluculli controls the auditory impulse.
(c) Hind brain (rhombonceplon): It is the posterior, small part of the brain. It is differentiated
into three parts. (i) Pons varolli (ii) Cerebellum (iii) Medulla oblongata
(i) Pons varolli: It is a thick, white rounded ridge that carries impulse from medulla
oblongata to forebrain.
(ii) Cerebellum: It is the largest part of the hind brain. It consists of two large lateral lobes
called cerebellar hemispheres in between which extends a narrow median strip called
vermis. Cerebellum controls and co-ordinates the movements of various groups of
muscles. Cerebellum also maintains the balance or equilibrium during movements.
(iii) Medulla oblongata: It is about 2.5cm thick and extends from pons varolli to spinal
cord. Medulla oblongata controls most of the involuntary activities of the body. It also
contains vital reflex centres. These centres are cardiac centre, respiratory centre, reflex
centre etc.
(B)Spinal cord
The spinal cord is unsegmental cylindrical structure and is about 45cm long in man and 43cm
in woman. It arises from medulla oblongata and runs through neural canal of vertebral column
or back bone. It is covered by three coverings called meninges. These are piamater (inner
layer), arachnoid (middle layer)and duramater (outer layer). The spaces between these
meninges are filled with cerbro spinal fluid (CSF), which protects the spinal cord.
Functions: The spinal cord conducts sensory and motor impulse to and from the brain. Its acts
as a centre for reflex actions.
(2) Peripheral nervous system: It consists of the whitish thread like nerves which connect the
various body parts with the CNS.
On the basis of their functions, nerves are of three types.
(a)Sensory or afferent nerves: These receive sensory impulses from sense organs to central
nervous system (CNS).
(b)Motor or efferent nerves: These carry sensory motor impulses from (central nervous
system (CNS) to effectors i.e. muscles and glands.
c) Mixed nerves: These carry sensory as well as motor impulses to and from the central
nervous system (CNS).
On the basis of their origin nerves are of three types, they are:-
(i) Cranial or cerebral nerves: Those nerves which arise from the brain are called cranial nerves.
They are 12 pairs in number. Cranial nerves I, II and VIII are sensory nerves; Cranial nerves III,
IV, VI, XI, XII are motor nerves and cranial nerves V, VII, IX and X are mixed nerves.
(ii) Spinal nerves: Those nerves which arise from the spinal cord are called spinal nerves. There
are thirty one pairs of spinal nerves. They are all mixed nerves.
(iii) Viseral nerves: These are special set of nerves which arise mainly from spinal cord but few
arises from brain also. These nerves control many activities of the internal organs such as heart,
lungs, kidneys, blood vessels, glands etc.
(3) Autonomic nervous system: It is the involuntary part of nervous system that controls the
involuntary activities of various body parts. It includes all those responses against the stimuli
which are not under the control of individual. E.g. breathing, heartbeat, blood pressure etc.
Autonomic nervous system is subdivided into two parts:-
(a) Sympathetic nervous system (b) Parasympathetic nervous system
(a) Sympathetic Nerves system:- It prepares the body for violent actions during emergency e.g. It
increases heart beat, increases breathing, dilates pupils of eyes etc.
(b) Parasympathetic nervous system:- It helps in re-establishing normal conditions after violent
act is over. E.g. it decreases heart beat , decreases breathing, constrict pupils of eyes etc.
Q.No.3:- Write down the types of Neurons?
The neurons are of three types:
(i) Sensory neurons (ii) Motor neurons, (iii) Inter neurons.
(i) Sensory neurons: The neurons which conduct impulses from the peripheral tissues to the
central nervous system are called sensory neurons. These are also called afferent neurons as they
carry impulses towards the CNS. Sensory neurons perceive sensations from receptors through
their dendrites and dendrons attached with receptors and conduct and transmit sensations in the
form of nerve impulses through successive sensory neurons towards CNS. As the nerve impulses
always travel from cell body to Axons, thus sensory neurons have cell body directed towards the
receptors and axons and synaptic knobs towards CNS (Brain and spinal card).
(ii) Motor neurons: The neurons which conduct impulses from the central Nerous system to
the peripheral tissues (effectors) are called motor neurons. These are also called efferent neurons
as they carry impulses away from the CNS. Motor neurons have their cell bodies and dendrites
directed towards the CNS and, axons and synaptic knobs directed towards the effectors i.e,
muscles and glands. The motor neurons at the terminal part of the motor nerve at effectors
possess motor end plate which is formed by the branching of the terminal part of axon.
(iii) Inter neurons: The neurons which conduct nerve impulses between sensory neurons and
motor neurons, are called inter-neurons. Thus inter-neurons connect sensory neurons with motor
neurons and are also called connectors or intermediate neurons or relay neurons. These neurons
are mostly present in the spinal cord and brain where they transmit impulses between sensory
neuron and
motor neurons. Inter Neurons play very important role in reflex actions. Inter neurons posses
some what different structure. They have cell body almost at middle between length of dendron
and axon.
Q.No.3:- What are synapses?
Ans. Synapses are the junctions between the two neurons, across which the nerve impulses
transmit from one neuron to another one. A synapse consists of synaptic knob of one neuron and
the dendrite of another neurons with a very minute gap between their two membranes called
synaptic cleft which is usually filled with synaptic fluid. The membrane of the synaptic knob
facing towards synaptic cleft is thickened and is called pre-synaptic membrane, and similarly the
membrane of dendrite facing the synaptic cleft is thickened and is called post synaptic membrane.
The function of synapses are to transmit the nerve impulses from synaptic knobs to
dendrites. When the nerve impulse reach the synaptic knob, the synaptic vesicles get stimulated to
release the neuron transmitter in the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across
the synaptic cleft to the post synaptic membrane of the dendrite and activates the other neuron.
Thus the nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through synapse and the time
taken by the neurotransmitter molecules to diffuse from pre-synaptic membrane to post-synaptic
membrane is about 0.5ms called as synaptic delay. The nerve impulses always travel from
synaptic knobs to dendrites in reverse direction.
The neurons releasing acetylcholine as neurotransmitter are termed as cholinergic
neurons. The neurons releasing noradrenaline as neurotransmitter at synaptic knobs are termed as
adrenergic neurons.
Textual Questions
SECTION - A
Intermediate neuron
(ii) Conditioned reflexes: These are learned automatic reflex actions carried out by the body.
These are acquired by an organism during his life time through experience and learning.
(a) Crying and jerking hands by a child on seeing a burning candle.
(b) Salivation of mouth on hearing the bell for lunch break are conditioned reflexes.
On the basis of involvement of brain, the reflex actions are of two types (a) Cerebral actions (b)
Spinal actions.
(a) Cerebral actions: The reflex actions in which brain is involved are called cerebral actions
e.g. contraction of pupil of human eye in presence of bright light.
(b) Spinal actions: The reflex actions in which only spinal cord is involved e.g. withdrawal of
hand on touching a hot object.
Q.No.6:- What are plant movements? Discuss different types of movements in plants?
Ans) Movements in plants are in the form of bending, twisting or elongation of certain parts. It is
characteristic of plants that do not show locomotion. However, movements of individual plant
organs are possible and are modified by the sensitivity of the plant to stimuli. Plants show two
main types of movements: (i) Autonomic or spontaneous movements. (ii) Paratonic or
induced movements.
(i) Autonomic or spontaneous movements: They are independent of any external stimulus;
i.e. they are self controlled and are not induced by external stimulus.
(ii) Paratonic or induced movement: They are caused by the result of application of
external stimulus.
Mechanism of folding up and droping of leaves:- The sensitive plant has pad like
swellings called pulvini at the base of each leaf. These pulvini contain lot of water in their cells.
Due to the internal water pressure in them, all the pulvini are very firm and hold the leaves above
them upright. The pulvini also contains large intercellular spaces between their cells. The folding
up of leaves of chui-mui plant on touching is due to the sudden loss of water from pulvini present
at the base of all the leaves of the sensitive plant which make the pulvini lose their firmness
causing the leaves drop to fall. This happens as follows.
When the leaves of sensitive plant are touched with a finger, then an electrical impulse is
generated which travels through ordinary cells. This electrical impulse acts on a plant hormone.
The plant hormone makes the water migrate from the cells of one half of a pulvinus to the
intercellular spaces in the other half of pulvinus. This loss of water from half of pulvinus causes
the pulvinus to lose its firmness and become limp due to which all the leaves above them collapse
and fold up.
(b) Tropic movements or Tropism: The movement of a plant in the direction of stimulus is
known as tropism. The stimulus may be light, force, gravity, chemicals, water etc. Tropic
movements are induced growth movements of curvature that occur due to differential growth.
Tropic movements are very slow and the movement of plant part can be either towards the
stimulus or away from the stimulus. Depending upon the stimulus, it is categorized as:
(i) Phototropism: It is the directional movement or orientation of the plant part in response to
light stimulus. If the plant part moves towards light; it is called positive phototropism and if the
plant part moves away from the light it is called negative phototropism, e.g. the stem or shoot of
plant moves towards light and thus shows positive phototropism.
(ii) Geotropism: It is the directional movement or orientation of the plant part in response to
gravity. If the plant part moves in the direction of gravity, it is called positive geotropism.
Alternatively, if the plant moves against the direction of gravity, it is termed as negative
geotropism eg. roots are positively geotropic.
(iii) Chemotropism: It is the directional movement or orientation of the plant part in response
to chemical stimulus. If the plant part moves towards the chemical stimulus, it is called positive
chemotropism and if the plant moves away from the chemical stimulus it is called negative
chemotropism, e.g. during fertilization, growth of pollen tube towards the ovule in the ovary is an
example of positive chemotropism.
(iv) Hydrotropism: If the plant part moves towards the water stimulus, it is called positive
hydrotropism and if the plant part moves away from water stimulus it is called negative
hydrotropism, e.g. the roots of the plants always grow towards the water are thus positively
hydrotropic.
Animal Hormones
Important terms in Endocrinology
Endocrinology: (Greek: endon = within, krienien = to separate) the study of endocrine glands and role
of their secretions is called endocrinology.
Gland: A cell, tissue or an organ which secretes useful chemical compound required for particular
function.
Endocrine gland: The glands which lack ducts and pass their secretion into the surrounding blood to
transport to the site of action are called endocrine glands. They are also called ductless glands and their
secretions are known as hormones.
Endocrine system: It is the system of endocrine glands which secretes hormones.
Hormone: (Greek: hormoein = excite). The term hormone for the first time was coined by Starling in
1905. Hormones are informational molecules secreted by the endocrine cells in one part of the body and
carried by blood to another part to stimulate or inhibit specific physiological process for the proper
functioning of the body as a whole.
Characteristics of hormone:
(i) Hormones are secreted by endocrine cells which act as chemical messengers.
(ii) They are carried by blood stream to target organs.
(iii) They are produced in trace amounts.
(iv) They act away from the site of production.
(v) They are soluble in water.
(vi) They are destroyed or inactivated as soon as their functions are over.
(vii) They are not species specific because hormones extracted from animals are found to be effective in
man.
(viii) The hormones are generally slow in action.
Q.No.7:- Names different endocrine glands?
Ans) i) Pituitary gland (ii)Thyroid gland (iii) Para thyroid gland (iv) Adrenal
gland
(v) Islets of langerhans (pancreas) (vi) Testes/ovary (glands) (vii) Thymus (viii) Pineal
(ix) Hypothalamus
Q.No.8:- Discuss the thyroid gland? What are hormones released by thyroid gland and write their
functions?
Ans: Location:- The thyroid gland surrounds the front part of the larynx and upper part of the
trachea in the neck.
Structure:- Thyroid gland consists of two lobes connected by narrow band called isthmus. Each
lobe is composed of numerous spherical masses called follicles. Each follicle is covered by basement
membrane. In the centre of each follicle contains a cavity filled with collidal material. Thyroid
gland is composed of two types of cells i.e. Follicular cells and Para follicular cells or C cells.
Functions of thyroid Hormones:- The thyroid gland releases three hormones
(a) Thyroxine (T4) (b) Tri-iodo thyronine (T3) (c) Calcitonin
(a) Functions of T4 & T3 :-
(i) Both T3 & T4 control general metabolism by regulating the rate of oxidation & production of
energy.
(ii) They maintain Basal metabolic rate of body.
(iii) They stimulate protein synthesis and hence improve growth.
(iv) Thyroxine also controls the working of kidneys.
(b) Functions of Calcitonin :- It is secreted by ―C‖ cells. It regulates the concentration of calcium and
phosphorus in the blood. Calcitonin decreases blood calcium ion concentration.
Improper Secretion of T3 & T4 Causes following disorder:
(I) Under secretion of Thyroid Hormone (Iodine deficiencies Goiter):- It is caused by the
deficiency of iodine in the diet. The disease is common in hilly areas. It causes enlargement of thyroid
gland. Swollen neck is one of its symptoms of the disorder. It may lead to Cretenism or myxodema (Gulls
disease)
(i) Cretinism :-It is caused by hyposecretion of thyroid hormones in infants. Affected child is called cretin.
The symptoms appear after 6 months of birth which are as follows:
(a) Cretins are short and fingers are club shaped.
(b) Bones and teeth are deformed.
(c) Tongue are protruding and saliva is dribbling.
(d) Cretins are idiots.
(e) Appetite is reduced.
(f) BMR and body temperature is also low.
(ii) Myxodema or Gulls diseases:- It is the disorder produced in adults as a result of hyposecretion
of thyroid. Some of the symptoms are:
(a) Face is swollen.
(b) Sex degenerates and appetite is reduced.
(c) BMR is lowered
(d) Respiratory rates are reduced.
(e) Heart rate and cardaic out put is also low.
(II) Oversecretion of Thyroid Hormone leads to Grave‟s disease or Exothalmic Goiter.
Grave‟s disease or Exothalmic Goiter:- It is caused by hyper secretion of the thyroid hormones due
to enlargement of thyroid gland. Some of the symptoms of Grave‘s diseases are:
(a) Eye balls are protruded with a staring look.
(b) Body temperature is raised.
(c) Patients are emotional and restless.
(d) The skin becomes soft, moist, flushed.
(e) Blood sugar level and iodine level are raised.
The disorder can be rectified by the removal of part of the gland.
Q.No.9:- Describe Pancreas?
Ans:- Location:- Pancreas lies below the stomach.The pancreas is an elongated, yellowish
gland. It consists of large lobules (acni, alveoli). In between the acni, there are some cells which
constitute the endocrine part of the gland. The endocrine part of the pancreas is called islets of
langerhans.
The islets of langerhans is composed of 3 types of cells.
(1) A Cells (b) B Cells (c) C Cells
Hormones: Islets of langerhan‘s secrets two hormones.
(1) Insulin (2) Glucogon
(1)Insulin:- Insulin is secreted by ‗B‘ cells of islets of langerhans.
Role of insulin :- The main role of insulin is to lower the blood sugar level. It acts in
following ways to bring down sugar level of blood.
(a) It makes cells more permeable to glucose.
(b) It enhances glucose oxidation in the cells.
(c) It increases rate of conversion of blood glucose into liver glycogen.
(d) It promotes the conversion of glucose into fat deposits.
Deficiencies of insulin:- Deficiency of insulin causes a disease called diabetes mellitus. The
symptoms of diabetes mellitus are as follow:
(a) Hyperglycaemia:- Pronounced increase in blood sugar level.
(b) Glycosuria:- Appearance of sugar in urine.
(c) Polyueria:- large volume of urine about 10 lit/day.
(d) Frequent urination
(e) Delayed healing of wounds
(f) The diabetic has blured vision and is weak, tired, irritable and under weight.
(2)Glucogon:- It is secreted by A Cells of islets of langerhans.
Role of glucogon: Its main role is to raise blood sugar level. It has opposite effect of insulin. It
promotes process of glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis.
Both insulin and glucogon act antagonistically and by virtue of it maintains proper blood
glucose concentration.
Textual Questions
Section A
Q.1 What is the difference between reflex action and walking?
Ans.
Reflex Action Walking
1. It is spontaneous action. 1. It is non spontaneous action.
2. It is an automatic action. 2. It is not an automatic action.
3. It occurs without a person‘s will and 3. It occurs with the person‘s will and is voluntary
is involuntary action. action.
4. Here brain is not involved immediately. i.e, it 4. Here cerebellum (part of brain) is controlled.
takes place without consultation of brain.
Q.2 What happens in synapse between two neurons?
Ans: The closeness between nerve end-plate of one neuron and the dendrite of another neuron is
called synapse. The nerve end-plate has bulb like structure called synaptic bulb, in which
secretary vesicles secrete a chemical substance called acetylcholine (neuro transmitter)
When a nerve impulse arises at the axon terminal, it causes synaptic bulbs to release neuro
transmitter. Neuro transmitter diffuses easily and carries impulse across the synapse and
passes it to the dendron of the neuron. Thus a nerve impulse passes from axon of one
neuron to dendron of other neuron through a synapse.
SECTION - B
Q.No.1) What are plant hormones or phytohormones or plant growth regulators. Discuss their
functions?
Ans) Phytohormones are defined as chemical substances which are produced naturally in plants
and are capable of translocation and bring about control and coordination of various
activities in plants. They are present in low concentration. There are five main types of
naturally occurring phytohormones or plant growth regulators: (a) Auxins (b) Gibberllins
(c) Cyto kinins (d) Ethylene (e) Abscisic acid (ABA)
(a) Auxins: Auxins (Greek-auxin means to increase) are a group of growth regulators
discovered by F.W Went in 1928. Auxins are synthesized in the shoot apex and young
leaves of the plant. These chemicals move from cell to cell by the process of diffusion.
Functions:
(i) The root of the plant is positively geotrophic i.e. grows downwards and the shoot is
negatively geotropic; i.e. grows upwards. Auxins help to control the geotropic behaviour
of the shoot and root of plant.
(ii) Auxins stimulate tissues at the tips of the root and shoot to undergo rapid cell division.
(iii) Auxins cause considerable cell enlargement and cell elongation during the growth of
plants.
(iv) Auxins have been found to increase the rate of formation of root initials.
(v) Auxins play an important role in the development of seedless fruits without pollination
and fertilization. This phenomenon is known as parthinocarpy.
(vi) Auxins promote apical dominance in plants.
(vii) Auxins play an important role in the prevention of fall of leaves and pre-harvest fruit
drop in plants.
(viii) Auxins promote various processes associated with reproduction like flowering,
pollen grain germination, fertilization and fruit development.
(c) Cytokinins: Cytokinins are the phytohormones which are synthesized in the
endosperm of the seeds and roots of the plants.
Functions:
(i) They promote cell division in plants.
(ii) They induce and control cell enlargement and cell differentiation.
(iii) They help in breaking the dormancy in buds and seeds.
(iv) They delay the ageing in leaves.
(v) They promote the opening of stomata and also promote fruit growth.
Functions:
(i) It has inhibitory effect on growth by inhibiting root growth and development of root
buds.
(ii) Ethylene accelerates the abscission of leaves, flowers and fruits.
(iii) It induces ripening of fruits.
(iv) It is involved in breaking of dormancy of several plant organs.
(v) Ethylene also accelerates in plant organs process of ageing in plant organs.
(e) Abscisic acid (ABA) or dokigin or stress hormones: Addicot and his colleagues
(1965) isolated a substance called abscisin from young cotton plant which accelerates the
process of abscission. This chemical was named as abscisic acid and has wide varieties of
physiological effects.
Functions:(i) It is major inhibitor of growth in plants and is antagonistic in action to
auxins and cytokinins. (ii) It causes ageing of leaves. (iii) It promotes dormancy of seeds
and buds. (iv) It causes abscission of leaves and fruits. (v) ABA (Absicic Acid) is also
called as stress hormone as it helps by helping the plants to cope with adverse
environmental conditions.
Q.2) How is the movement of leaves of sensitive plant different from the movement of shoot
towards light.
Movement of leaves in S. Plant Movement of shoot towards light
1. It is the seimonastic movement. 1. It is tropic movement
2. Here sensitive plant responds to 2. Here shoot of the plant moves toward light and
touch by folding and drooping. show positive phototropism.
3. It happens very quickly. 3. It happens very slowly.
4. Here growth is not involved instead 4. Here growth is involved i.e., Plant grows by cell
plant cells change shape by changing division, cell enlargement and cell elongation
the amount water in them. etc.
Q.4) How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a save support?
Ans. Axins are the hormones, synthesized at the shoot tip and helps the cell to grow
faster, thus acts as a growth promoter in plants. When tendril of a plant comes in contact
with a support, auxins diffuse towards the side which is not in contact with the support.
This stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the tendril which is away from the
support. Thus auxins promotes the growth of the tendril around the support.
SECTION - C
Q.3) How does our body respond when Adrenaline is secreted into the blood .
Ans. Adrenaline also called Epinephrine, an emergency hormone secreted by Adrenal medulla
of Adrenal gland. Adrenaline is widely spread throughout the body to prepare the animal
to face special conditions created by physical stress such as fall in blood pressure, pain,
cold, injury, anger, fear passion, shock or grief etc. All these conditions need more energy
which is provided by (done by adrenaline ) increasing heart beat, blood pressure,
respiratory rate, blood supply to heart and skeletal muscles and brain.
This hormone also stimulates the break down of liver and muscle glycogen to provide
energy for respiration.
Q.4) Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin?
Ans. Insulin has function to control glucose level in blood by lowering it. The disorder of
insulin deficiency or insufficient supply of insulin leads to high glucose level in blood
called as diabetes mellitus which causes other disorders in body. The patient excretes
sugar in urine and feels excessive thirst. In order to overcome this disorder, the patient is
administrated with injections of insulin so a to lower its sugar level in blood.
SECTION - D
Q.4) What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situation where receptors do not
work properly what problems are likely to arise?
Ans. The receptors in our body collect information about changes in the environment around us
in the form of stimuli. These receptors then convert and pass the information in the form
of nerve impulse to central nervous system where message is interpreted and appropriate
instruction is sent to effectors which reveals response. When receptors do not function
normally the environmental stimuli are not able to create nerve impulse and body does not
respond.
(i) Cell body: It is also called cyton and soma, which is broad, rounded or stellate part of the
neuron. It is filled with the dense cytoplasm called neuroplasm and the prominent nucleus. The
neuroplasm possess prominent small granules called Nissl‘s granules which are infact groups of
ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum and are associated with protein systhesis.
Neurotramsmitters are synthesied in the cell body by Nissl‘s granules. In addition, neuroplasm
possess most of the cell‘s organelles like mitochondria, Golgi-Apparatus, neurofibrils,
nerotubules but lack centrioles. Cell body is concerned with metabolic maintenance, growth and
to receive impulses from dendrites and transmit them to axon.
(ii) Dendrons & Dendrites: The wide nerve fibres extending from the cell body which conduct
impulses towards the cell-body are called dendrons. Dendrons break up into fine terminal
branches called dendrites. The function of dendrons and dendrites is to acquire information and
conduct it towards the cell body in the form of nerve impulses. Dendrons and dendrites also
contain Nissl‘s granules and neurofibrils.
(iii) Axon: It is a single, long, cylindrical protoplasmic nerve fibre of uniform diameter arising
from the cell body. The cytoplasm of the axon is called Axoplasm. The Axon terminates into
highly branched filaments called terminal arborization.
The axon is covered by three layers.
In a given neuron, the dendrites are the receptors, the cell body is the integrator and the ends of
the axons are the transmitters. This means that the stimulus from the receptor organ is received by
the dendrites, conducted to the cell body of the neuron and passed on through the axon to another
neuron and finally to the affecter organ. The axon endings of one nerve cell are loosely placed on
the cell body or cyton of another nerve cell called Synapse.
Q.7) Which signals will get disrupted in case of spinal cord injury?
Ans: Spinal cord performs two important functions:
1. Spinal cord serves as two way conduction path between peripheral nerves and the brain.
2. Nuclei in the spinal card function as reflex centers which control spinal reflexes.
So in case of spinal injury, reflex actions and involuntary actions will get disrupted mainly
but voluntary actions will also get disrupted because many nerves of the body are
connected to brain via spinal cord.
Q.9) What is the need for a system of control and co-ordination in organisms?
Ans In multicellular animals, body is very complex therefore, it is necessary that various
organs (parts) of the body of an organism work together in a proper manner to produce
proper reaction to a stimulus. For proper control and coordination, higher animals have
evolved nervous system and endocrine system.
Q.10) How are involuntary action and reflex different from each other?
Ans. Reflex actions are spontaneous automatic, mechanical responses to specific stimuli
without the will of animal. In reflex actions, spinal cord is generally involved. Involuntary
actions also occur without the will of the animal and animal has no choice in them
however, these are regulated by either mid-brain or hind brain.
Q.12) What is the difference between the manner in which movement in the sensitive plant
and movement
in our legs takes place?
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Lesson No: 3
How Do Organisms Reproduce
Conceptual Questions
Q.1)What is reproduction and what are its types?
Ans) Reproduction is the process by which living organisms produce young ones of their own
kind to continue their existence. Reproduction is one of the characteristic feature of living
organisms. Living organisms reproduce by many methods which have been broadly classified into
two types:
v) Vasa deferentia:- It is about 40 cm long narrow and tubular structure which starts from
epididymis and joins the seminal vesicles to form ejaculatory duct. Vas deferentia conducts the
sperms by peristalsis.
vi) Ejaculatory ducts:- These are about 2cm long thin walled tubes which open in to the
urethra.
vii) Urethra:-It is the urinary duct leading from the bladder. It carries urine as well as sperms.
It is about 20 cm long.
viii) Penis:- Penis is a male couplatory organ through which urethra pass. It is used for
depositing semen into the vagina of the female.
Accessory sex glands:- In man there are three types of sex glands namely:
(a). Seminal vesicles:- These are a pair of glands present between rectum and urinary bladder.
(b). Prostate glands:-It is a single large sized lobulated gland present just blow the urinary
bladder.
3. Cow pars glands:-These are a pair of white pea sized glands present at the base of penis.
Q.7 With the help of diagram describe the structure of female reproductive system.
Ans. The female reproductive system consists of a pair of ovaries, a pair of fallopian tubes
(oviducts) uterus and vagina.
i) Ovaries:- The ovaries are the primary sex organs of the female. They are about the
size and shape of an almond. Each ovary is connected by ovarian ligament to the uterus. The
ovaries remain attached to the body wall by ligament. The ovaries produce female gamete ova
and female sex hormones Estrogen and progesterone. The ovaries are externally lined by
germinal epithelium. Ovaries are two in number and each ovary produces eggs alternately.
ii) Fallopian tubes:- These are a pair of elongated, ciliated muscular and tubular structures
extending from just close to ovaries to uterus. The outer part of each fallopian tube laying close
to ovary has a wide aperture called ostium and a number of finger like processes called fimbriae
to receive the ovum released from ovary.
Functions of Fallopian Tube:-Fallopian tube is
the site of fertilization also called fertilization
canal. It conducts the Zygote towards uterus by
its cilliary action.
iii) Uterus:- It is a muscular pear shaped
structure present between urinary bladder and
rectum. Its internal linings is highly glandular
and vascular and is called endometrium. Its
lower and narrow part is called cervix which
opens into vagina.
Function:- It is the site of foetal development.
iv) Vagina:- It is about 7.5cm long and is
adopted for receiving penis, allowing
menstrual flow and serves as the birth
canal.
Q.8 Write short note on: (a) Gametogenesis (b) Spermatogenesis (c) Spermiogenesis
Ans:-
(a) Gametogenesis:- It is the formation of haploid gametes from diploid cells of germinal
epithelium ( the outer most covering of gonads) i.e. testes and ovaries. The gametes in males are
called sperms and in females are called eggs. The formation of sperms is called spermatogenesis
and the formation of eggs or (ova) is called Oogenesis.
(b) Spermatogenesis:- It is the formation of sperms from the germinal epithelium present in
the testes.
Q.11 What is pollination? Name its two types. How do they differ from each other?
Ans. The transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a carpel is called pollination.
Pollination is of two types namely self pollination and cross pollination
Self Pollination Cross Pollination
1. Transfer of pollen grains to the stigma 1. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to
of same flower or another flower on the the stigma of a flower of another similar or
same plant. different plant is called cross pollination.
2. External pollinating agency is not 2. Wind, Water birds and insects are
required. required as pollinating agency.
3. Slight variation occurs in young ones 3. Much more variations occurs in
individuals
Textual Questions
SECTION - A
(Daughter Cells)
DNA replication helps in maintaining the same number of chromosomes in the daughter
cells as that in mother cells.
(i) Some times DNA replication helps in the formation of useful mutations.
(ii) The variations caused due to DNA replication causes microevolution. i.e. formation of sub
species or varieties.
Q.2) Why is variation beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the individual?
Ans. Variation is beneficial to the species as it enables a species for its survival. A favourable
variation makes an organism to live better in a changed environment. e.g. A population of
heat resistant bacteria in temperature of the water survives, but if the temperature of water
increases by global warming most other bacteria would die. So, it is not necessarily true
that a variation is beneficial to the individual always.
SECTION - B
Q.1) How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Binary fission Multiple fission
1. The nucleus of the parent cell 1. The nucleus of the parent cell undergoes
divides into two daughter nuclei. repeated divisions to produce many daughter
nuclei
2. It may be irregular (amoeba), 2. Whole body divides into pieces.
Longitudinal (Euglena) or transverse
(paramecia)
3. Cytoplasmic division is followed by 3. Nuclear division is followed by cytoplasmic
nuclear division division.
4. It occurs in unicellular organisms 4. It takes place unicellular organisms under
under favourable conditions unfavourable conditions.
Q.3) Can you think of reasons why more complex organisms can not give rise to new
individuals through regeneration?
Ans. Complex organisms have highly differentiated tissues and organs. In this case
regeneration of complex individual organism is difficult from a small piece of living cells.
Q.4) Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some type of plant ?
An) Vegetative propagation is practiced for growing some types of plants because of following
advantages.
(i) It is used to grow a plant in which viable seeds are not formed or very few seeds are
produced e.g; orange, Banana, pine apple.
(ii) It helps to introduce plants in new areas where the seed germination fails to produce
nature plant due to change in environmental factors and the soil
(iii) It is more easier, rapid and cheaper method.
(iv) By this method a good quality of a role or variety can be preserved.
SECTION - D
Q.1) Asexual reproduction takes place through budding In.
Ans) (a) Amoeba
Q.2) Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human beings?
Ans) (c) Vas deferens.
Q.3) The anther contains.
Ans) (d) Pollen grains.
Q.4) What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
Ans) (i) Sexual reproduction leads to new combination of genes as it involve two parents and
meiosis. This produces variation in off spring. Variations are the basis for evolution.
(ii) Progeny of Sexual reproduction have more chance of survival because of the variation.
(iii) New combinations of characters thus plays important in the evolution of species.
Q.5) What are the functions performed by the testis in human beings?
Ans) Testis are the sites where male gamates i.e sperms are made. The testis also produce the
male sex harmone - testosterone
Q.6) Describe the human female menstrual cycle. OR Why does menstruation occur?
Ans. The menstrual cycle in humans lasts 28 days. The days are numbered from first day of
blood flow in the menstrual period. The menstrual cycle consists of 3 phases which are as
described below:
a. Follicular (Proliferating) phase:- This phase lasts for about 14 days. It comprises the
changes caused by following hormones.
i. F.S.H. The anterior pituitary lobe secretes follicle stimulating hormone (F.S.H) which
stimulates the growth of the selected primary ovarian follicle and maturation of the
primary Oocyte in this follicle. F.S.H also stimulates follicle cells to secrete estradiol
ii. Estradiol inhibits the secretion of F.S.H and stimulates the secretion of leuteinising
hormone.
iii L.H. From the anterior pituitary cause ovulation and it occurs after about 14 days.
iv.Estradial prepares uterus for implantation and thus formation of endometrium occurs
in uterus. Fallopian tube gets thickened and its ciliary movement increases. These changes
prepare the fallopian tube for convening the ovum into the uterus.
b. Luteal or secretary phase:- This phase lasts for 10 days. Progesterone and estradial
secretion takes place by the stimulation of L.H and prolaction to empty graffian follicle.
Progesterone maintains pregnancy. i.e. implantation of the foetus and stimulates
endometrial glands to secrete a nutrient fluid for the foetus,
c. Menstrual or Bleeding phase:- This phase lasts for about 4 days. If fertilization does not
occur, the secondary Oocyte undergoes autolysis and progesterone inhibits the release of
LH from pituitary and a consequent fall in the progesterone level in the blood. The uterine
lining dries due to progesterone deficiency and is sloughed off, blood vessels rupture and
this causes bleeding.
Q.7) Draw a labeled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower?
Filament
section
of a
flower
(iii) Oral contraceptives:- In this method, tablets or drug are taken orally. Thee contain
small doses of harmones that prevent the release of eggs and thus fertilization cannot
occur.
(iv) Implants and surgical methods contraceptive devices such as loop or copper-T are
placed in uterus to prevent pregnancy. Some surgical methods can also be used top block
the gamete transfer. It includes the blocking of vas deferens to prevent the transfer of
sperms known as vasectomy. Similarly, fallopian tubes of the female can be blocked so
that the egg will not reach the uterus known as tubectomy.
Q.9) How are the methods for reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular
organisms?
Ans) In unicellular organisms reproduction occurs by the division of the entire cell. The modes
of reproduction in unicellular organisms can be fission, budding etc. Where in
multicellular organisms, specialized reproductive organs are present. Therefore they can
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Lesson No 4.
Genetics, Heredity and Evolution
Terminology
Genetics:- It is that branch of biology which deals with the study of mechanism of inheritance
(heredity) by which characters are transferred from generation to generation. Genetics also deals
with the study of variations.
Heredity: - It is defined as the transmission of characters in living beings from generation to
generation.
Chromosomes:- Filamentous bodies present in the nucleus, composed of chromatin materials
(DNA-RNA protein complex).
Gene:- A unit of inheritance forming part of chromosomes. Genes are passed from parent to the
off spring via chromosomes in the nuclei of the parent‘s gametes.
Gametes: Male & female sex cells.
Dominant gene: The gene which expresses itself in a heterozygous organism is called dominant
gene.
Recessive Gene.:- The gene which cannot express itself in the presence of the dominant gene.
Genotype:- The genetic constitution of an organism.
Phenotype:- It refers to externally visible characters of an organism.
Homozygous:- An individual having two identical alleles of gene or factors of characters on its
homologous chromosomes. e.g., TT or tt.(T represents tall and dwarf character of the parent)
Heterozygous:- An individual having two different alleles of a gene on its homologous
chromosomes. It is not pure and is called hybrid for that character e.g. Tt.
Alleles:- Alleles are alternate form of the same gene for example, a pea plants has one gene that
determines height, but that appears in more than one form- the gene that produces a short plant is
an allele of the gene that produces a tall plant.
Gene Locus:- A particular portion or region of the chromosomes representing a single gene is
called gene locus.
F1 Generation:- F1 or first filial (Filus-son, Filia-daughter) generation is the generation of hybrids
produced from a cross between the genetically different individuals called parents. For example,
Tt individiuals are produced in F1 generation from a cross between TT and tt generation.
T T t t
T T t
Gametes Cross t
Tt Tt
F2 Generation: F2 or 2nd Filial generation is the generation of individuals which arises as a result
of interbreeding among individuals of F1 generation or we can say when progeny of F1
generation cross among themselves to produce second progeny, then this progeny is called F2
generation. An example will make it more clear. Mother and father is parental generation. Their
children‘s are F1 generation and the grand children‘s are F2 generation.
Parent dominant TT X t t Parent recessive
T T (Male/Female)
t t
(Male/Female) Gametes
Tt Tt Tt Tt F1 Generation.
Tt Tt
F1- Parents X
Gametes T t
T t
Tt tt
TT Tt
F2- Generation:
Dominant Recessive
Tall Dwarf
Ratio 3 = 1
Genetic drift:- Means elimination of genes of certain traits of a species, when a section of
population migrates or dies of natural calamity.
Mutation:- Which means rare, random, discontinuous, inheritable variations in the amount or the
structure of genetic material. Mutation is the major source of variations.
Natural selection:- is the process of evolution of a species whereby characteristics which help
individual organisms to survive & reproduce are passed on to their offspring & those
characteristics which do not help are not passed on.
Conceptual Questions
Q 1-Discuss variations:
Ans:-Variations means the differences among the individual of the same species. These
differences are morphological, physiological, cytological and behavioral. Therefore, no
individuals are similar. Variations do appear even in clones.
Variations are of two types; acquired and mutational. Acquired variations are usually due
to the affect of environment. They are not inherited. Differences appearing in monozygotic twins
are acquired variations.
Mutational variations are inheritable variations which are produced due to change in the
Genetic constitution. The rate of abnormal variations is very moderate in sexually reproducing
organisms. While as asexually reproducing organisms have lesser variations.
Accumulation of variations:-
The reproduction of organisms produces variations. The variations produced in organisms during
successive generations get accumulated in the organism. The significance of a variation shows up
only if it continues to be inherited by the offspring for several generations e.g., a bacterium
produces two bacteria by asexual reproduction. Suppose that one of the offspring bacterium has a
variation due to which it can tolerate a little higher temperature than other one. Now this variation
of little more heat resistance will go on accumulating in the offspring of successive generation of
this bacterium.
The great advantage of a variation to a species is that it increases the chance of its survival in a
changing environment.
Inherited Traits:-Parent organisms pass traits to their offspring so there are often similar characteristics
seen in both parent and offspring.
(i) Mendel first crossed pure tall pea plant with pure dwarf pea plant and found that only tall
plants were produced in the first generations or F1 generation. No dwarf pea plant (or
short pea plants) was obtained in the first generation of progeny. From this Mendel
concluded that the first generation (or F1 cross) showed the traits of only one of the parent
plant: tallness. The trait of other parent plant, dwarfness did not show up in the progeny of
first generation.
(ii) Mendel then crossed the tall plant of first generation (F1 generation) and found that tall
plants and dwarf plants were obtained in the second generation (or f2 generation) in the
ratio of 3:1. In other words in the f2 generation three- fourth plants were tall and one-
fourth were dwarf.
Parental cross (Monohybrid cross)
Parent‘s Phenotype (appearance) Tall Plant X Dwarf Plant
Factor‘s of inheritance T T t t
Crossing
F1 generation genotype Tt Tt Tt Tt
F1 generation phenotype Tall Tall Tall Tall
F1 cross
F1 generation Phenotype Tall Plant X Tall plant
Factors of inheritance Tt Tt
Gametes T T t
t
Cross of gametes
F2 generation genotype TT Tt Tt tt
F2 generation phenotype Tall Tall Tall dwarf
Phenotypic ratio 3:1 3….. tall ; 1 dwarf.
In F2 generation, the plants produced have genotype or inheritance factors, TT, Tt, Tt and tt. Now, the
plant having genotype TT, Tt and Tt all contain the factor ‗T‘ for dominant trait ‗tallness‘. So all the three
plant (TT, Tt and Tt) are tall. The plant having the genotype tt have both the factors t for the recessive trait
and are all dwarf.
In F2 generation we get 1 plant having genotype TT, 2 plants having genotype Tt and 1 having
genotype tt so the Genotypic ratio of Monohybrid cross is TT:Tt:tt=1:2:1
Again in F2 generation, we get 3 tall plants and 1 dwarf plant, so the phenotypic ration in
Monohybrid cross will be:
Tall plants: Dwarf plants= 3:1.
From the result of monohybrid cross Mendel formed following laws or principles of inheritance
(i) Law of paired factors
This law states that for ―Every character there is present a pair of factors (genes) i.e.,
Every character is controlled by a pair of factor and an individual receives one factor for
the trait from each parent. Mendel did not know the genes or chromosomes but his law of
paired factors remains a basic principle in the field of genetics.
(ii) Law of dominance:- This principle states that one factor in a pair may express itself and
prevent expression of another. The factor which expressed itself was described as dominant
factor and other factor which was unable to express was described as recessive factor by
Mendel e.g., in a cross between true breeding tall plant with a dwarf plant, F1 generation
produced tall plants only. However, in F2 generation the tallness & dwarfness traits appear in
the phenotype ratio of 3:1 ( 3 tall :1 dwarf). This explains that in F1 generation , the factor for
tallness in dominant does not allow factor for dwarfness to express itself.
Q.4 Discuss Mendel‟s di-hybrid cross??
Ans. Mendel‘s Di-hybrid Cross:- A breeding experiment dealing with the two characters at the same
time is called di-hybrid cross.
The principle of law of independent assortment can be studied by means of dihybrid cross, e.g,
between pure breeding pea plant having yellow round seeds (YYRR) and pure breeding pea plants
having green wrinkled seeds (y y r r ). The plants of the first filial of F 1 generation have all yellow
and round seeds (Y y R r) because yellow and round traits are respectively dominate over green
and wrinkled traits. On self-breeding the resultant second filial or f2 generation shows four types
of plants. The data obtained by Mendel as follows:
Yellow and Round = 315/556 = 9/16
Yellow and Wrinkled = 108/556 = 3/ 16.
Green and round = 108/556 = 3/16
Green wrinkled = 32/556 = 1/16
Thus, the phenotype ratio of a dihybrid cross is 9:3:3:1
The occurrence of four types of plants in the F2 generation of dihybrid cross shows that the factors
of each of the two characters assort independent of the others as if other pair of factor are not present.
Parental Cross
Parents Phenotype Plants Having yellow- Round seeds X plants having wrinkled-green seeds.
Factors R R YY r r y y
Gametes RY ry
RY RY ry ry
Crossing
F1 Generation
Self Plants having Yellow round Seeds X Plants having Yellow round
seeds
Factors R r Y y R r Y y
Gametes RY rY ry Ry RY rY ry Ry
(Hybrid-I) (Hybrid-II)
be unable to breed with the population from which they were initially separated. For animals that
reproduce without sex, species are defined by arbitrary decisions based on how genetically
distinct groups have become.
Speciation can occur if a geographic barrier prevents gene flow between two populations
of the same species.
Q.6 How Do Genes control the characteristics or Traits.
Ans. A gene is a section of DNA on a chromosome which codes for the formation of a protein
controlling a specific characteristic (Or trait) of the organism. Suppose a plant progeny has gene
for the characteristic (Or trait) called ―Tallness‖. Now the gene for ―Tallness‖ will give
instructions to the plant cell to make a lot of growth hormones and due to these hormones the
plants will grow too much and hence become tall.
Q.7 What are Acquired and inherited traits?
Ans. Acquired trits:- Those traits which do not pass or transmit from parent to offspring and
are caused due to the affect of environment. For example, low weight of beetles because of
starvation is not a trait that can be inherited by the progeny of a starving beetle.
Inherited traits:- Those traits which pass or transmit from parent to offspring and are caused due
to the transmission of genetic material from parent organisms to their offspring. For example, in
human beings; Dimples or freckles, Naturally curly or straight hair and attached or unattached
earlobes are common example of inherited traits.
Q.8 Explain Evolution and its types.
Ans. Evolution:- The term evolution was first used by Herbert Spencer. The term
―Evolution‖ has been derived from the Latin word ―evolvere‖ which means to unroll or unfold. It
refers to gradual change from one form to another. Such a change in elements with the time is
called inorganic evolution or chemical evolution, however, gradual change in living organisms
with time since the beginning of life is termed as organic or biological evolution.
Chemical Evolution:-
It explains the formation of the complex organic compounds from simple chemical elements or
compounds. This concept was put forward by Alexder.I. Oparin(1923) & J.B.S Haldance (1928)
independently.
J.B.S Haldane suggested that life must have arisen on the primitive earth from a collection of
chemical through a progressive series of chemical reactions in which atoms combined into
inorganic molecules and inorganic molecules into simple orgainc compounds, simple organic
compounds into complex organic compounds, complex organic compounds into polymers and
polymers into coaservates (Aggregates of large complex organic molecules), coaservates were
converted into eobionts and finally eobionts were converted into first primitive cell
Organic evolution:-
Organic evolution is concerned with the evolution of populations of living organisms. It is
continuous & irreversible process of change inheritable characters.
There are number of theories which explain the mode of evolution. Some of them are
discussed below:
1. Darwinism or Darwin‟s theory of Natural Selection:- The theory of natural selection
was announced by English naturalist Charles Robert Darwin and an English biologist, Alferd
Russel wallase. Darwin explained his theory in his book ―The origin of species by means of
Natural selection.‖
According to this theory every living organism produces more organisms that can be
supported in a particular environment & can survive. But food and space are limited. Hence
because of more number of individuals that can be supported by the food and space, a severe
competition starts between the members of one species as well as the members of different
species. This competition is for food and space and mate and there starts a struggle for
existence. So as to overcome other organisms in this struggle for existence, variations appear
in each living organism. Nature selects organisms with better suited variations, by natural
selection. Those variations which are selected by nature pass on to next generation. It was
called inheritance of useful variations. In this way in each generation new favourable
variations appear, and supplemented the favourable variations inherited from the parents .
After a number of generations, the variations became so prominent that the possessor turn into
new species.
Though Darwinism got wide acceptance but it was too criticized that it could not explain
how variations appear.
2. Devries theory of mutation:-
Devries explains the formation of new species by sudden appearance of new characters. These
sudden changes were named as mutations or saltations. He explained that evolution does not
occur by gradual changes but occurs by abrupt changes (mutations). i.e., evolution is Jerky
process.
3. Modern or synthetic theory of evolution:-
The present concept of evolution is a modification and elobration of the Darwin‘s theory
and often termed as neo- Darwinism. According to this theory Genetic variations appearing
among the individuals bring about evolution under the influence of natural selection &
isolation.
Q.9 Discuss various evidences of evolution
Ans. Evidences For Evolution:-
Chemical evolution produced life on primitive earth through interaction of molecules. This was
followed by organic evolution, which gave rise to numerous kinds of living organisms over the
ages. The following evidences not only prove the occurrence of organic evolution but also trace
the evolutionary relationship amongst living organic evolution.
(A) Morphological and anatomical evidences:- These evidences are based on the
comparative forms and structures of various parts or organs of the body. These include the
following:-
a) Homologous organs:- The organs which perform different functions in different species
but have similar basic structure and similar embryonic origin are called homologous
organs e.g., Forelimbs of vertebrates are adapted for different modes of locomotions. In
frog they are meant to bear the shock of leap, in reptiles for creeping, in horse for running,
in birds modified into wings for flight. But in all these vertebrates the forelimbs have same
internal structure because they have inherited from common ancestor
b) Analogous organs:- The organs which have different origin and internal structure but
perform same functions e.g., wings of birds & wings of insects are meant for flight but
have totally different structure & origin.
c) Vertebrate organs:- Some vertebrate organs exhibit gradual complexity in various
vertebrates e.g., Heart in fishes is two chambered, three chambered in amphibians,
incompletely four chambered in birds and completely four chambered in birds and
mammals. It is in conformity with gradual change in evolution.
d) Vestigial Organs:- Non-functional and rudimentary organs present in animals are called
vestigial organs. e.g., Tail vertebrae or coccyx bone, vermiform appendix, etc., in human
beings are vestigial organs. These organs were in the ancestors of human beings. But they
are disappearing gradually due to change in mode of life.
(B) Embryological Evidences:- The early embryos of all the vertebrates resemble in shape
and structure. The resemblance of early embryos of fish, salamander, tortoise, chick,
rabbit and man is so close that it is very difficult to distinguish them from each other,
which shows that all the vertebrates have evolved from a common ancestor. Based on this
fact Ernest Hackel proposed the law known as biogenetic law. This law states ―Ontogeny
Q.10 What are fossils? How they are formed and also discuss the types of fossils?
Ans:- The remains or impressions of dead animals or plants that lived in remote past are known as
fossils.
Fossilization. Fossilization of a dead organism usually begin when the dead organism is buried
before extensive decay sets in. The organism sinks into bog or marsh or to the bottom of a lake,
sea, or river. In some cases it is buried in sand. Even after the burial, decay occurs and the soft
parts of the body are generally destroyed. The hard parts, however, survive as fossils. Water, mud
or sand hardens to rock and the organic remains are safely preserved. Fossilization is a random
process, only those organisms which happen to die in a spot where they can be buried before
other organisms destroy them are fossilized.
Fossils are exposed by natural erosion or excavation. Fossil bearing rocks become exposed
by the actions of wind, rain or rivers, or through excavations by scientists. Once exposed, they are
studied in detail in terms of their antiquity and characteristics. Such study of fossils is called
paleontology.
Types of fossils
There are various kinds of fossils some of the important fossils are:-
(i) Ammonite:- These were the invertebrate animals (Molluscus) with a flat, coiled, spiral
shell, which lived in the sea. The ammonite fossils are about 180 million years old.
(ii) Trilobite:- These were marine arthropods which were common between 400 to 600
million years ago.
(iii)Dinosaurs:- These are extinct carnivorous or herbivorous reptiles. They were first
appeared on earth about 250 million years ago and become extinct about 65 Million years
ago.
Q.11 What are the two methods to determine the age of fossils?
Ans. Determination of age of fossil?
Ans:- There are two methods to known the age of fossils.
(i) By the relative method.
(ii) By carbon dating method.
Relative method:-
When we dig the earth, we find fossils at different depths. The fossils which we find closer to the
surface of the earth are more recent and the fossil found in deep layers of earth are oldest one.
By carbon-dating method:- Dating of rocks or fossils is done by working on concentration of
carbon-14 atoms in fossils. This can be explained as:
All the living objects contain some carbon-14 atoms which are radioactive. When a living
object dies and forms a fossil. Its carbon-14 content goes on decreasing gradually. In the carbon-
14 dating method, the age of fossils is found by comparing the carbon-14 radio-activity left in
fossil with carbon-14 radioactivity found in living object.
Q.12 Give the list of seven pairs of contrasting traits selected by Mendel for his experimental
work?
Ans:- Mendal selected 7 pairs of contrasting traits in pea plant. These pairs of contrasting traits
are under.
S.No Character Dominant Recessive
1 Plant Height Tall (T) Dwarf (t)
2 Flower position Axial (A) Terminal (a)
3 Pod colour Green (G) Yellow (g)
4 Pod shape Inflated (I) Constricted (i)
5 Seed coat/Flower Colored (C) White (c)
6 Seed Shape Round (R) Wrinkled (r)
7 Seed colour Yellow (Y) Green (y)
Textual Questions
SECTION - A
Q.1) If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species and a trait B exists
in 60% of the same population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier?
Ans. Trait B
Q.2) How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?
Ans:- Variations in a species arise either due to errors in DNA copying or during sexual
reproduction. It is the force of natural selection which selects individuals with useful
variations in the prevailing environment. So as to ensure survival, the individuals with
useful variations then increase in number through differential reproduction in the
population.
SECTION - B
Q.1) How do Mendel‟s Experiments show that traits may be dominated or recessive?
Ans:- Mendel Cross-Pollinated a pure tall pea plant and a pure dwarf pea plant and called
them parental generation. He collected the seeds produced by this cross and grew plants
from them. These plants were named as F1 or first filial generation. In F1 generation all the
plants were found to be tall and none was dwarf or intermediated in size.
The F1 Plants were pollinated among themselves or were allowed to undergo self-
pollination and the seeds produced by F1 plants were again collected and plants were
grown from them. These plants were named as F2 or second filial generation. The F2
plants were found to contain both tall and dwarf individuals in the ratio of 3 tall to 1
dwarf.
T T t t……… Gametes
Tt Tt …………. F1 Generation
T t T t …………Gametes
Q.2) How do Mendel‟s experiment show that traits are inherited independently? OR
Mendel‟s law of Independent Assortment OR Mendel‟s Dihybrid cross.
Ans) A breeding experiment dealing with two characters at the same time is called a dihybrid
cross.
In one such cross, Mendel considered shape as well as colour of the seeds simultaneously. He selected
pure breeding pea plant having yellow round seeds (YYRR) and then cross pollinated it with the pure
breeding pea plant having green wrinkled seeds (yyrr). The plants of the first filial of F1 generation
have all yellow and round seeds (YyRr) because yellow and round traits are respectively dominate
over green and wrinkled traits. On self-breeding the resultant second filial or F2 generation shows
four types of plants with phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1. The data obtained by Mendel as follows.
Yellow and Round = 9
Yellow and wrinkled = 3
Green and round = 3
Green wrinkled = 1
Basically in F2 generation, Mendel observed the appearance of four types of combinations. These
include two parental types (round shaped and yellow coloured seeds and wrinkled shaped and green
coloured seeds) and two new combinations (round shape and green coloured seeds and wrinkled and
yellow coloured seeds) The latter were produced in approximately same proportion.
The occurrence of few types of plant in the F2 generation of dihybrid cross shows that the factors of
such of the two characters assort independent of the others. Thus round /wrinkled yellow /green seed
traits are independently inherited.
Parental Cross
Parents Plants having X Plants having
Phenotype Yellow-Round seeds Wrinkled-green seeds
Factors RR YY rr yy
Gametes R Y RY r y ry
Rr Yy Rr Yy
F1 Generation All Pea plants
With round and
Yellow coloured
seeds
Rr Yy (Self X Pollination) Rr Yy
Gametes RY Ry rY ry RY Ry rY ry
RY Ry rY ry
Q.3) A man with blood group A marries with a woman with blood group O & their daughter
has blood group O. Is this important enough to tell you which of the traits blood groups
A or O is dominant why or Why not?
Ans) If a man with ‗A‘ blood group marries with a woman with ‗O‘ blood group then as per
following flow chart.
Parents AO X OO
Man Woman
Gametes A O O O
Progeny AO AO OO OO
We can‘t say that A is dominant over O because the daughter has blood group O as per
question which means the daughter receives one gene from father i.e., ‗O‘ and other gene
from mother ‗O‘ so we can‘t say A is dominated over O.
Q.4) How is the sex of the child determined in human beings?
Ans) Sex Determination:- The process by which the sex of a person is determined is called as
sex-determination. Different species use different strategies for sex determination. In some
animals, such as crocodiles, turtles & sand lizard, the temperature at which fertilized eggs
are kept determines whether the animals developing in the eggs will be male or female. In
other animals, such as snails, individuals can change Sex, indicating that sex is not
genetically determined. However, in human beings, the sex of the individual is largely
genetically determined by chromosomes. The chromosomes which determine the sex of a
person are called sex chromosomes. The sex chromosomes are of 2 types, one is called X-
chromosomes and another is called Y- chromosomes.
A male has one X- chromosome and one Y Chromosome. This means that in male, half of
the chromosomes come from Sperm and half from egg. In comparison to males, females
have both chromosomes from Egg and thus have only X- chromosomes. The child
depends on what happens at fertilization:
a) If the sperm carrying X- chromosomes fertilizes an egg, which carries X-chromosomes
then, child will be a girl (XX).
b) If the sperm carrying Y- chromosomes fertilizes an egg, which carries X- chromosomes
then the child will be a boy (XY).
Thus, it is the sperm which determines the sex of an organism.
XX XY
Zygote (Female baby) Zygote (Male baby)
Determination of sex in Human
SECTION - C
Q.1) What are the different ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in
a population?
Ans) The different ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in a
population are:- i. Natural selection ii. Genetic drift.
In Natural selection, nature selects traits favourable to the species in its environment and
in genetic drift, the genes of certain traits from the small population gets eliminated when
a section of the species population dies of natural calamity or migrates to other region. It
alters the gene frequency of the remaining population.
Q.2) Why are traits acquired during the life time of an individual not inherited?
Ans) Acquired traits are those traits which are acquired by the individual during its life time e-g
Experiences of individual during its life time is an acquired character.
The acquired characters are not inherited from parents to off springs because acquired
characters involves changes in the non-reproductive tissues only and change in non
reproductive tissue can‘t be passed on the DNA of germ cells. Any alteration in the DNA
of germ cells, infact is the only way by which the traits of an individual are inherited from
parents to off springs.
Q.3) Why are small numbers of survival tigers a cause of worry from the point of view of
genetics?
Ans) Tigers are surviving in limited numbers i.e., their total gene Content or gene pool is small.
If some natural calamity kills these small populations, they will be suddenly extinct or in
terms of genetics their gene pool will remain no more as per the phenomenon of genetic
drift.
SECTION - D
Q.1) What factors could lead to the rise of new species?
Ans) The factors responsible for rise of new species or speciation are:
(i) Genetic drift
(ii) Natural Selection
(iii)Reproductive isolation.
Q.2) Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of a self pollinating
plant species? Why or why not?
Ans) Geographical isolation will not be a major factor for the speciation of a self pollinating
plant species because the pollination is carrying on the same plant and a natural barrier can
occur between different organisms.
Q.3) Will geographic isolation be a major factor in the speciation of an organism that
reproduces asexually?
Ans:- Geographical isolation refers to the separation of groups of organism by Physical barriers,
such as sea, mountain, desert or a river.
Geographical isolation will not be a major factor for the speciation of an organism that
reproduces asexually because, asexual reproduction involves, single parents and natural
barrier can occur between different organisms.
SECTION - E
Q.1) Give an example of characteristics being used to determine how close two species are in
evolutionary terms?
Ans:- A flipper of seal used for swimming and an arm of man are homologous organs. Both
these organs perform different functions but have same structure and origin. Both of these
structure are modified forelimbs. During the course of evolution, these two species
evolved from common ancestor having fundamental structure design that developed
subsequently into flipper in seal for swimming and arm for grasping in man.
Q.2) Can the wings of butterfly and the wings of a bat be considered homologous organ?
Why or why not?
Ans:- The wings of butter fly & wings of bat are not homologous organs, because they are very
different in structure and embryonic origin. However they perform similar functions i.e,
they are used for flying. The organs which have same functions but are quit different in
fundamental structure and embryonic origin are called analogous organs. So the wings of
butterfly & wings of bat are not homologous organs but analogous organs.
Q.3) What are fossils? What they tell us about the process of evolution?
Ans:- Fossils are the remains, or traces of the organisms that existed in past ages died as a race.
They are direct evidences in support of organic evolution and help in determining
evolutionary relationships between organisms. The study of fossils show complete
evolutionary history of certain animals, such as horse, camel, elephant etc. Fossils also
shows relation-ships between different organisms e.g., Archaeopteryx, lived in Jurassic
period is a fossil bird. It had feathers, fused bones, beak etc, which are bird‘s characters.
But it has also number of features which are found in reptiles e.g., teeth in Jaws, Claws on
free fingers etc. Thus archaeopteryx represents a stage midway between reptiles and birds
and this example also gives clue that birds have evolved from reptiles.
SECTION - F
Q.1) Why are human beings who look so different from each other in terms of size, colour
and looks said to belong to same species?
Ans) Human beings look different from each other in terms of size & colour but belong to same
species because on the basis of time dating, study of fossils and molecular phylogeny all
the human beings are evolved from the same ancestors which have been traced in Africa.
The variation in colour, size and other features among the individuals of human beings is
because of migration and settlement in different geographical regions. Some of our
ancestors left Africa & spread slowly across the planet while others stayed on. Over a
period of time, due to variability in environmental conditions of different regions, our
ancestors adopted and developed genetic variations and became different in colour and
size.
Q.2) In Evolutionary terms can we say which among bacteria, spiders, fish and chimpanzee
have a better body design?
Ans:- Bacteria have a better body design because bacteria inhabit the most inhospitable habitats
like hot springs, deep sea thermal vents and the ice in Antarctica.
SECTION - G
Q.1) A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plants bearing violet flowers
with short pea plants bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but
almost half of them were short. This suggest that the genetic make-up of the tall parent
can be depicted as.
Ans) (c) TtWW
Q.2) An Example of homologous organs is.
Ans) (d) all of the above
Q.3) In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with.
Ans) (a) a Chinese school-body
Q.4) A child study found that children with light-coloured eyes are likely to have parents
with light coloured eyes. On this basis, can we say anything about whether the light
eye colour trait is dominant or recessive? Why or why not.
Ans) No from the given statement we cannot say with certainty whether light eye colour is
dominant or recessive. However, since both children and their parents have light eye
colour, the possibility is that light eye colour is a recessive trait. Had the light eye colour
been a dominant trait and the recessive dark eye colour might have appeared in some of
the children.
Q.5) How are the areas of study- evolution and classification- interlinked?
Ans. The cell is the fundamental unit of life in all organisms. The characteristics in the next
level of classification would be shared by most, but not all organisms. A basic
characteristic of a cell design that differs among different organisms is whether the cell
has a nucleus or not. Bacterial cells do not have the nucleus while the cells of most other
organisms have. Among organisms with nucleated cells, which ones are unicellular and
which ones are multi-cellular? That property marks a very basic difference in body design,
Ans:- In asexual reproduction, organisms raised are the exact copies of their parents and are
known as clones. Due to their identical set of chromosomes, they exhibit no or very little
variations. These variations may be either due to some environmental factors like, light,
scarcity of food, abundance of food, temperature etc. or mutations that are sudden changes
in genes. Out of these two factors, only mutations are heritable.
In sexual reproduction, two parents are involved and there is formation and fusion of
gametes. Due to crossing over and exchange of gene segments, offspring show variations
from their parents. They are not the carbon copies of their parents. Due to recombination
of parental genes, variations occur which are heritable.
Q.10) How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the
progeny?
Ans:- During gametogenesis meiotic division results in haploid set of chromosomes in the
gametes. These gametes (egg and sperm) when fuse or fertilization process occurs, half of
the chromosome of the zygote consists of paternal genes and half maternal genes.
Q.11) Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive in a
population. Do you agree with this statement? Why or why not?
Ans) No. It is so because certain variations may not give any advantage to an individual
organism in particular environmental conditions. These still persist and may confer an
advantage to the individual in changed environmental conditions. These still persist and
may confer an advantage to the individual in changed environmental conditions.
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Lesson No: 5
Our Environment
Conceptual Questions
Q.1 Environment:-
The biotic and abiotic factors which surrounds any living organism is considered as its
environment. The abiotic factors are the physical or climatic factors such as temperature, light,
wind, humidity, water, soil texture, substratum, rocks and minerals etc. The biotic factors include
all the living organisms with which an organism interacts.
Q.2 Impact of population, consumption and technology to the environment:-
The organisms and its environment together constitute an ecosystem. Both the
components of ecosystem maintain a balance. Smaller or to some extent larger changes in the
environment get adjusted by reciprocal changes in one or the other component. However very
large changes destroy the balance of environmental. The control of one component of
environment over the other gets test. Environmental resistance to these changes fails to work and
thus a state of disturbance is produced.
Disturbances in the environment are mostly the results of excessive use, misuse
and mismanagement of biosphere resources. The human activates such as rapid population
growth, industrialization modern technology aimed at development are responsible for
disturbances and thus are major causes of environmental degradation (deterioration)
Solid wastes:- The solid waste materials which get accumulated in the environment for a
shorter or longer period of time are known as solid wastes. The solid wastes are the main sources
of pollution and are often termed as environmental pollutants.
Classification of solid wastes:- The solid wastes are broadly classified into two main
types: (i) Biodegradable waste (ii) Non- Biodegradable wastes.
Biodegradable wastes: Those substances which can be decomposed or decayed or
degraded by decomposers like bacteria and fungi are known as biodegradable substances.
Domestic sewage; paper, wood, clothes etc. are common examples of biodegradable substances.
Non – Biodegradable wastes:- Those substances which can not be decomposed or
decayed or degraded by decomposers are known as non-biodegradable substances. Aluminium
cans, plastic, components of mercury, DDT, glass, etc, are non-biodegradable waste materials.
These are neither decomposed by micro-organisms nor do these materials breakdown by physical
and chemical agents present in the environment. There is no treatment in nature for their
recycling. Therefore, these continue to accumulate and occupy large useful space on the earth.
other biotic components (the heterotrophs). Thus producers are also known as the photosynthetic
organisms and serve as the hosts for all other living beings.
(b) Consumers: Consumers are the heterotrophic components of the ecosystem consumers can
not manufacture their own food material and therefore depend up on producers (green plants)
(c) Decomposers or Reducers:- These are mainly bacteria and fungi that convert dead matter
into gases such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen and other simple substances to be released back
into the air, soil or water. Bacteria and fungi which break down dead organic matter are known as
Saprotrophs. Without decomposers, the earth would be covered with trash. Decomposers,
therefore, are essential components of ecosystem.
(II) Abiotic components:- These are non-living components and include physio-
chemical factors of the environment such as temperature, rainfall, wind, soil and minerals.
The abiotic components are classified into three main categories:
(a) Inorganic substances.
(b) Organic compounds
(c) Climatic factors.
a. Inorganic substances:- These include elements like carbon, oxygen, nitrogen,
calcium, phosphorus etc. and their compounds (water, CO2, etc.) These inorganic substances are
present either in the form of compounds dissolved in water, in the soil or in free state in air.
b. Organic Substances:
The major organic substances which occur in the ecosystem include carbohydrates, proteins and
lipids. Inorganic substances are taken in by the plants and are converted into organic substances
during metabolism. These are added to environment on the death of the organisms. The organic
materials are now broken down or decomposed to inorganic substances and are made available to
the plants. The organic substances thus link biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystem.
c Climatic factors:- The entire ecosystem functions under the influence of many environmental
factors. These included light, rainfall, humidity, temperature etc.
Q.4 Concept of Food Chain?
Ans. Food chain is the representation of a single energy pathway where food is passed from the
producers to the successive orders of consumers and at each stage, it is released as heat (energy)
e.g., Food chain in a forest is schematically represented as:
Grass Dear Lion.
Producer consumer I consumer II
The number of steps in a food chain is usually limited to four or five. In an aquatic ecosystem, the
food chain operating in ponds are represented as:
(i) Algae small animals small fish Big fish
(ii) Phytoplankton zooplankton small fish large fish
Each step in the food chain represents a trophic level. At each step (trophic level) in the transfer
of energy from one organism to another (from herbivours to carnovores) a large portion of energy
is used for its own maintenance and lost as heat. As a result, organism in each tropic level passon
less and less energy than they receive.
Components of a food chain:- The various components of a food chain include:
1. Plants. (producers). 2. Herbivores (primary consumers.) 3. Primary carnivores (secondary
consumers), 4. Secondary carnivores (tertiary consumers) and 5. Tertiary carnivores (quaternary
consumers). Each of these is placed in different trophic levels. In ecosystems, different food
chains may have two, three, four or maximum five trophic levels.
Characteristics of food chain:-
1. It involves a nutritive interaction between the living organisms.
2. It is always straight and proceeds in a progressive straight-line.
3. There is unidirectional flow of energy in food chains i.e. from sun to producers and from
producers to different types of consumers.
4. There are 3 to 4 trophic levels in a food chain. However, in few chains, the number of
trophic levels extends up to 5
5. According to 2nd law of thermodynamics, 80-
90% of energy is lost during the transfer of food
energy from one trophic level to another.
Q.5 Trophic levels:- The various biotic levels of
consumption in a food chain are called trophic
levels. Fore example, in any food chain plants form
the first trophic level, herbivores form the second
trophic level and carnivores form the third trophic
level. The amount of available energy in a food
chain successively gets decreased at each trophic level as a result of waste of energy.
This phenomenon restricts the size of food chain in an ecosystem to maximum of 4 or 5
steps.
Q.6 Food web:- It is a network of food chains in
which each organism is generally eaten by two or
more kinds of organisms which, in turn, are eaten by
several other organisms. So the relation becomes
quite complex and instead of straight line food chain,
the relationship between organisms forms a sort of
interlocking pattern This interlocking pattern of
relationship of organisms is called the food wed.
Q.2) Give any two ways in which biodegradable substances would affect the environment?
Ans) Harmful effects of biodegradable wastes:- Following are the harmful effects of
biodegradable wastes:
(i) Biodegradable wastes attract flies and other disease carrying insects. They become the
ideal breeding grounds for the housefly, different bacteria and many other kinds of germs.
(ii) Biodegradable may also block the drains, creating pools of water which become the
breeding sites of mosquitoes and help to spread diseases like malaria and dengue.
(iii) Decomposition of biodegradable substances releases a very unpleasant or foul smell
which spreads to surrounding areas and creates difficulty in breathing.
Q.3) Give any two ways in which non-bio-degradable substances would affect the
environment?
Ans) Harmful effects of non-biodegradable wastes:-
(i) The various non-biodegradable substances like pesticides (DDT), industrial chemicals,
heavy metals, and radioactive substances are very harmful. The biomagnification or
accumulation of harmful non-biodegradable substances in the bodies of organisms through
the food chains and biogeochemical cycle cause various serious diseases like cancer,
tumor, kidney trouble, etc.
(ii) The over exploitation of non –biodegradable substances such as fertilizers, pesticides
and dumping of industrial wastes decreases the soil fertility and reduces the crop yield.
(iii) These greatly affect the environment and become the main source of air, water and
soil pollution.
SECTION - B
Q.1) What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain and state the different
trophic levels in it ?
Ans) The distinct sequential steps in the food chain where transfer of energy occurs are called
trophic levels. Let us consider the following food chain.
Plant Goat Tiger.
In this food chain, plants are producers which convert solar energy into chemical energy
of organic compounds by photosynthesis. Thus, producers belong to first trophic level
(producer level). Goat is a herbivore and eats plant parts. Here, transfer of energy occurs
from producers to herbivores. Thus goat belongs to second trophic level (primary
consumer level). Goat, in turn, is eaten by tiger (carnivore) involving transfer of energy
from goat to tiger. Thus, tiger belongs to third trophic level (secondary consumer level).
SECTION - C
Q.1) What is ozone and how does it affect any ecosystem ?
Ans) Ozone is a form of oxygen. A molecule of ozone contains three oxygen atoms (o3). In the
stratosphere, ozone layer comprises high concentration of ozone some 18-50 km above.
Here, it is being photo dissociated and generated by the absorption of harmful, short
wavelength UV radiations, this layer protects all forms of life on earth.
Certain harmful chemicals such as chlorofloro carbon(CFCs), methane (CH4), oxide of
nitrogen (NOx) etc produced by human activities, do thinning the ozone blanket. As a
result more UV radiations penetrate ozone blanket to strike the earth and producing skin
cancer, damage to eyes including increased incidence of contract, and damage to immune
system of human beings and other animals. These also result in decreased photosynthesis
in plants and contribute towards global warming.
Q.2) How can you help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Give any to methods?
Ans) Managing the Garbage we produce:- Healthy living requires a clean surrounding hence
it is very essential to dispose our garbage in a proper way. Proper managing of our
garbage can keep us free from many communicable diseases. The garbage we produce can
be managed by various scientific methods of waste disposal. The method of waste
disposal depends on the nature of the waste.
Methods of waste Disposal:- The various methods of waste disposal are:-
i. Land fills
ii. Recycling of wastes.
iii. Burning or Incineration.
iv. Compost preparation.
v. Production of biogas and manure.
i. Land fills:- In this method, the solid wastes are buried in low lying areas to level the
uneven surface of land. This method is commonly used in urban areas.
ii. Recycling of wastes:- The solid wastes like paper, plastics, metals, etc. can be recycled
by sending them to respective recycling units. For example, many waste metals and plastics are
sent to specific metal and plastic industries for recycling, where these are melted, remoulded and
then framed into desired shapes or equipments.
iii. Burning or Incineration:- In this process, substances are burned at very high temperature
(usually more than 1000oC) and are converted into ashes. This process is carried out in a
particular device called as incinerator. It is generally used to dispose the wastes of industries
(chemical wastes), hospital wastes and house hold wastes.
iv. Compost preparation:- The waste generated at home such as peeling of fruits and
vegetables, left-over food, etc. can be stored in a compost pit where it decays and converts into
compost. This compost is later used as manure in agricultural fields.
v. Production of biogas and manure:- The biodegradable wastes are also used in biogas
plants to generate biogas and manure. These biogas plants are very lowcost and can be made at
village level in rural areas.
SECTION - D
Q.1) The Term Ecosystem was introduced by.
Ans) (c) Tensely
Q.2) In a food chain, there is.
Ans) (d) Unidirectional flow of energy.
Q.3) Nature‟s cleaners are.
Ans) (c) Decomposers
Q.7) What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Ans. Energy flows from one trophic level to another. If all the organisms in one trophic level
are killed then the flow of energy will be arrested. The organisms in one trophic level predates on
the organisms, which is on the lower trophic level and becomes the prey for the organisms in the
higher trophic level. If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level then their prey will increase
in population and their predators will be deprived of food.
Q.8) Will the impact of removing all the organisms in a trophic level be different for
different trophic levels? Can the organisms of any trophic level be removed without causing
any damage to the ecosystem?
Ans. The impact of removing of all the organisms in a trophic level will be different for
different trophic levels. Removal of any organism in any trophic level will affect the ecosystem.
For example, if all producers are killed. There will be no food available for herbivores present in
the ecosystem. They will start to die or migrate and in the absence of herbivores, various
categories of carnivores will be affected.
Q.9) What is biological magnification? Will the levels of this magnification be different at
different levels of the ecosystem?
Ans. The phenomenon that involves progressive increase in concentration of harmful non-
biodegradable chemicals at different trophic levels in a food chain is called biological
magnification. Yes, the concentration of harmful chemicals such as pesticides and fertilizers will
be different at different trophic levels.
Q.11) If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, will this have no impact on the
environment?
Ans. Biodegradable substances provide energy in the form of organic substances and also
nutrients like carbonate, phosphate etc. The productivity of ecosystem continues to increase till
the amount of such substances is moderate. When the amount reaches a critical limit, the activities
in the ecosystem show severe fluctuations. If these substances are added to the ecosystem even
beyond the critical limit, the balance is completely lost and it becomes disturbed.
Q.12 Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for concern? What steps are being taken to
limit this damage?
Ans. Ozone layer forms a protection cover over the earth by preventing the ultra violet rays
entering the earth. If the UV rays strike the earth it will cause a great damage to all the living
organisms posing serious effects like skin cancer.
The CFC liberated from refrigerators, fire extinguisher, air conditioners, etc; is now destroying
the ozone layer.
Steps to limit the damage of ozone layer are:
1. Reduce the use CFC. 2. Usage of alternate form for CFC.
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Lesson No. 6
Management of Natural Resources
Conceptual Questions
Q.No.1:- Define Resources and what are its types : Resources can be defined as a source of
supply held in reserve, which is useful to man or can be transformed into more valuable and
useful items for mankind.
Resources are of two types: Natural resources and Man-made resources
i) Natural resources: Natural resources can be defined as those living or non-living
substances available in the normal environment which are being exploited for supporting life and
meeting human requirements. e.g water, soil, minerals.
ii) `Man-made resources: Those resources which are manufactured or synthesized by man,
e.g. plastic, fertilizers, pesticides etc.
(i) „In situ‟ conservation: When conservation of natural resources is done in their natural
habitats, it is called ‗in situ‘ conservation e.g. national parks, wild life, sanctuaries, biosphere etc.
(ii) „Ex situ‟ conservation: When conservation of natural resources is done outside their habitats,
it is called ‗ex situ‘ conservation e.g. botanical gardens, zoos, pollen storage, tissue culture etc.
Q.No.8:- Write a short note on the Chipko Andolan (Hug the trees movement)?
Ans) The „Chipko Andolan‟ (Hug the trees movement‟): It was the movement which originated
from an incident in a remote village called Reni in Garhwal, high-up in the Himalayas during the
early 1970s. There was a dispute between the local villagers and a logging contractor who had
been allowed to fell trees in a forest close to the village. The local villagers stood against the
ruthless cutting of the trees. At the initial stage of the movement (in 1972), the women of Advani
village in Tehri-Garhwal protested against indiscriminate felling of trees by clasping the tree
trunks. In March 1973, a sports goods factory was to cut ten Ash trees near the village Mandal in
Chamoli district. The local people prevented the same by hugging (Hindi Chipko) the marked
trees. In 1974, a group of women led by Gaurs Devi successfully prevented felling of trees near
village Reni. The movement became famous in 1978 when the women of Advani village in Tehri-
Garhwal faced police firing and later courted arrest. In this way, the ―Chipko Movement‖ spread
slowly to all nearby areas under the leadership of Shri Sunderlal Bahuguna of Silyara in Tehri
region and Shri Chandi Prasad Bhatt of Gopeshwar.
ii) Firewood collection: In rural and suburban areas, firewood is the main source of fuel. To
obtain firewood large numbers of trees are being felled every year resulting in the depletion
of forests.
iii) Timber harvesting: Felling or logging of forest trees for obtaining timber is an important
cause of deforestation.
iv) Urbanization and industrialization: Extension of urban areas and establishment of
industries are the important factors causing depletion of forest resources.
v) Cultivation on hill slopes: Forests existing on hill slopes are gradually being destroyed, in
order to use these slopes for cultivation.
vi) Cattle ranching: Large areas of tropical forests have been converted into grazing fields to
raise cattle.
vii) Fire: Fire in the forests cause devastating effect on trees and wild animals.
viii) Constructing of roads, railway tracks and mining: are other factors responsible for
deforestation:
ix) Shifting cultivation: In this method of cultivation (popularly known as jhoom kheti or slash
and burn cultivation), a patch of forests is cleared, vegetation is burnt and ash is mixed with
soil to increase fertility. Crop is grown there till the land is fertile, after that the cultivators
move to other patch of forest. In this way forests are being destroyed. In India this type of
cultivation is observed in North Eastern region.
Q.No.14:- What are endangered species? Give some examples of endangered plant and animal
species?
Ans) All those species of plants (flora) and animal (fauna) which are liable to become extinct are
called endangered species.
Examples of some endangered plant species:
Nepenthes Khasiana (pitcher plant)
Snow orchid
Drosera indica (insectivores plant)
Aldsovanda vesiculosa
Rhus hookeri
Examples of some endangered animal species:
Indian wild ass
Great Indian rhinoceros
Indian wolf
Lion tailed macaque
Tillyards dragonfly
Q.No.15:- What do you know about wildlife conservation?
Ans) Wildlife conservation is the management of wild flora and fauna in order to save them from
their extinction as well as to get sustainable benefit for both the present and the future
generations. Various governmental organizations and NGO‘s have been set up to protect the
wildlife. These organizations mainly focus at:
Q.No.17:- What are dams? Give some examples of few important dams in India?
Ans) Dams are the large water-storing bodies usually built by the government agencies across the
rivers to regulate the flow of water. They store enormous amount of water sufficient for irrigation
of fields throughout the year. Many dams have been constructed across the major rivers in India
which serve as big store houses of river water. The stored water is then allowed to flow
downstream in order to generate electricity and carry water to long distances for the purpose of
irrigation. Thus, dams not only help in the irrigation of agricultural fields, but also employed for
generation of electricity. Some example of famous dams and canals in India are:
(i) Bhakra dam: It is built across the river Satluj in the state of Punjab.
(ii) Sardar Sarovar dam: It is built on the river Narmada in 1940 in the state of Gujrat.
(iii)Tehri dam: It is situated on the river Ganga in Tehri. (Uttaranchal)
(iv) Tawa dam: It is a large reservoir on the Tawa river located in Hoshangabad (M.P)
(v) Mettur dam: It is situated on river Kaveri in Tamilnadu and is one of the oldest dams in
India.
(vi) Indira Gandhi canal: It is spread over a large area of Rajasthan. It has brought greenery
in deserts.
(i) Rooftop Harvesting: This involves collecting rainwater from rooftops of the house and
other buildings and storing the water in tanks, trenchers, percolation pits or
underground reservoirs. This water is then used for growing vegetation, cultivation of
crops, gardening etc.
(ii) Check dam and percolating pits: Water is stored in natural depression on the surface of
the earth. Inexpensive barriers are constructed to prevent run off. The water stored in
the check dams is used for irrigation during dry season. This scheme has been
undertaken with successful results in many parts of western U.P, Punjab and Haryana.
The objectives of rainwater harvesting are:
a) To meet the increasing demand of water.
b) To reduce the wastage of rainwater which drains of the ground into the rivers, oceans and seas.
c) To avoid flooding of roads and fields.
d) To raise the level of the water table.
e) To reduce ground water pollution.
f) To meet the water requirement during summer and long dry spells.
Q.21) Name National Parks of the state of Jammu & Kashmir?
Ans) The National Parks of the Jammu & Kashmir are:
i) Dachigam National Park
ii) Hemis High Altitude Park (Leh)
iii) High Altitude National Park (Kishtawar)
Q.22) What do you know about ADBN award for Wildlife Conservation?
Ans) ―Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award for wildlife conservation‖ is the award instituted by
government of India in the memory of Amrita Devi Bishnoi, who in 1931 sacrified her life along
with 363 others for the protection of ‗Khejri‘ trees in Khejrali village near Jodhpur in Rajisthan.
Q.23) What are the environmental laws of India?
Ans:- Environmental laws of India: The environment and conservation laws in India have been
framed and enforced in phases, according to the needs that arose from time to time.
Some of the environmental laws formed by government during pre and post independence
period are as below:-
Madras Wild Elephant Preservation Act, 1873 – it is supposed to be the earliest
preservation law of India.
Elephant Preservation Act, 1879.
Bengal Rhinoceros Preservation Act, 1932.
Assam Rhinoceros Protection Act, 1954.
The Bengal Smoke Nuisance Act, 1905 (amended in 1973)
The Mines and Minerals (regulation and development)Act, 1947
The Insecticides Act, 1968
The water (preservation and control of pollution) Act, 1974 (amended in 1988)
The Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1981 (amended in 1988)
Forest Conservation Act, 1980 amended in 1988).
Environment protection Act, 1986.
Wildlife (protection) Act, 1972 (amended in 1991).
Public Liability insurance Act, 1991.
Q.24) List five main reasons for the depletion of wildlife.
Ans:- The reasons for the depletion of wildlife are as follows:-
a) Deforestation for various reasons like urbanization, cultivation, dam building,
establishment of industries, etc.
b) Indiscriminate hunting by man for meat, skin and for sports.
c) Natural calamities like flood, drought, fire, epidemic, etc have played a major role in
depletion of wildlife.
d) Decrease in shelter or hiding places for animals.
e) Noise pollution by transport vehicles and nearby industries and also air pollution and
water pollution have played their role in depletion of wildlife.
Q.25) Write a note on renewable and non-renewable resources?
Renewable resources: Those resources that are or can be created regularly are called renewable
resources. Most of the biotic resources such as forest resources are renewable. The renewable
resources can be exhaustible if the rate of their exploitation is higher than the rate of natural
accrual. For example the forests and fish resources, though both renewable, are exhaustible if the
rate of exploitation is too high. However, some of the renewable resources are inexhaustible also
as their supply is very large, for example the solar energy and wind energy.
Non-renewable resources: Those resources that cannot be created once they are used, are called
the non-renewable resources. Most of the exhaustible resources such as minerals and fossil fuels
(coals, natural gas and petroleum) are non-renewable resources.
Textual Questions
SECTION - A
Q.1) What changes can you make in your habits to become more environment friendly?
Ans) We have come across the three R‘s i.e reduce, recycle and reuse, which must be followed
in each time to save the environment. We should follow them as detailed below:
(a) Reduce: Natural resources can be saved by their lesser use. It means, we must use
every thing in less quantity to conserve the resources. We should avoid unnecessary use of
electricity, wasting of food and water, cutting of trees, too much use of automobiles, etc.
(b) Recycle: There are certain resources which can be recycled to be used again. The
materials like plastic, clothes, paper and metal pieces which are not of any use at our home
are recycled to make required things instead of synthesizing or extraction of fresh plastic,
paper, glass or metal. It helps to reduce the production of fresh items. Thus, recycling
saves resources, decreases use of toxic chemicals, cuts the use of energy and helps the
environment in many ways.
(c) Reuse: It is better than recycling because in this process we use the already used article
again and again and no energy is required as compared to recycling. For example, a plastic
container in which we buy various food-items like tea leaves, sweets or pickle can be
reused for storing some other thing in the kitchen. Similarly, newspapers and magazines
can be used to make envelopes.
Q.2) What would be the advantages of exploiting resources with short-term aims?
Ans) Exploitation of resources for short-term aims will be more advantageous than long term
needs because only fewer amounts will be exploited while the remaining resource will be
retained for future generation. It is also beneficial to meet the immediate basic human
needs and should not be merely exploited for short term gains.
Q.3) How would these advantages differ from the advantages of using a long-term
perspective in managing our resources?
Ans) Short term exploitation of natural resources is to meet the current demand. It is beneficial
for the present generation only, whereas management of resources with long term
perspective is aimed to fulfill the needs of future generations. Long term use of resources
can be achieved through its sustainable use.
Q.4) Why do you think there should be equitable distribution of resources? What forces
would be working against an equitable distribution of our resources?
Ans) Equitable distribution of resources will ensure benefits to all the sections of people, rich as
well as poor, which is necessary for the growth and development of a country. Money
force is the main factor working against an equitable distribution of resources, as rich
people and rich nations try to encroach upon the resources share of the poor people or
poor nation.
SECTION - B
Q.1) Why should we conserve forests and wildlife?
Ans) (A) Conservation of forests:- The development, management and full protection of
existing forest cover to provide optimum sustainable yield is called as conservation of
forests. For the conservation of forests, some of the important measures are suggested as:
(i) Afforestation: The afforestation or plantation of indigenous or exotic species to
develop forests prevents denudation of natural forests. The plants developed in all the
available land of villages, fields, road sides and waste lands help the villagers, cattle and
small industries to meet their basic requirements. Several forest protection committees
involve villagers to follow many afforestation schemes.
(ii) Conservation of reserve forests: Many areas of natural forests are protected from fuel-
starved villagers, fodder starved cattles & commercial exploitations. These areas include
national parks, sanctuaries, sacred graves, biosphere reserves etc. Such forests are not
allowed to be disturbed.
(iii) Social forestry: It is described as ―forestry from the people, by the people and for the
people.‖ It includes rising of trees on government owned lands for obtaining food, fodder,
wood, fruits, etc.
Social forestry was started in India by National Commission of Agriculture (NCA) in
1976 to reduce pressure on real forests.
(iv) Agro forestry: It is a type of afforestation where multipurpose trees, shrubs,
horticultural plants and forage plants are grown in fields along with crops. It fulfils the
requirement of fodder, fruits, flowers, fuel wood and timber. Agro forestry also reduces
pressure on real forests.
(v) Urban forestry: It is a special type of afforestation of multipurpose trees, shrubs and
flower or fruit bearing plants in open lands of urban areas. It helps to check air pollution
and reduce noise pollution. It is also helpful in providing fuel, wood, timber, fruits and
many other products.
(B) Conservation of wild life: Conservation of wild life is the management of wild flora
and fauna in order to save them from their extinction as well a to get sustainable benefit
for both the present and the future. Several governmental organizations as well as non
government voluntary organizations have been set up to protect the wild life. These
organizations aim at: (i) Protection of natural habitats (ii) Maintenance of wild life in
protected areas (Reserves) (iii) Protection through legislation.
i) Protection of natural habits:- Natural habitats of wild animals must be protected by
identification and safeguard of feeding, vesting, breeding and nursing habitats of each
species.
ii) Maintenance of wild life in protected areas:- The wild animals are allowed to grow
in number in natural habitats in protected area through preventing poaching, maintaining
habitats and their requirements. This is done by conserving the wild life in (i) Biosphere
reserves (ii) National parks and (iii) Sanctuaries.
iii) Protection through legislation:- Wild life is also protected by a number of wild life
acts made by state as well as union Government same of these are listed below.
(a) Convention on international trade in Endangered species (CIES). It regulates
international trades of wild flora and fauna.
(b) Indian Board of wild life. It was established in 1952.
(c) Wild life (protection) act, 1972. This act ha been uniformly adopted by all states.
(d) The man and Biosphere (MAB) programme of UNESCO. It was started in 1971 for
studying Biosphere Reserve.
Q.2) Suggest some approaches towards the conservation of forests?
Ans) The following measures are suggested for the conservation of forests:
(i) Plantation of indigenous or exotic species to develop forests in all the available land.
(ii) The forest reserves must be protected from fuel-starved villagers, fodder starved
cattles and commercial exploitations.
(iii) Indiscriminate felling of trees for the purpose of timber must be reduced.
(iv) Participation of local people and villagers must be taken in conservation of forests and
they should be given proper employment.
(v) Multipurpose trees, shrubs, horticultural trees be grown in fields to reduce pressure on
real forests.
SECTION - C
Q.1) Find out about the traditional systems of water harvesting/management in your region.
Ans) The traditional system of water harvesting/management in our region are ponds, pits, lakes
and other water reservoirs where rain water is stored.
Q.2) Compare the above system with the probable system in hilly/mountainous areas or
plains or plateau regions.
Ans) Check dams are built across seasonally flooded gullies in hilly regions. They are different
from bonds and pits as they store the running water. They are more advantageous because
they do not provide breeding grounds for mosquitoes and do not get easily polluted by
human and animal wastes.
Q.3) Find out the source of water in your region/locality. Is water from this source
available to all people living in that area?
Ans) In our locality, the water is supplied by municipal board through taps. The water is mainly
obtained from river or from tube wells. The water supply is not sufficient to catter the
needs of general people. Some rich and resourceful people get more water supply as
compared to poor people. Some village people get their water supply from wells.
SECTION - D
Q.1) Deforestation generally decreases.
Ans) (a) Rainfall.
Q.5) What changes would you suggest in your home in order to be environment-friendly?
Ans) I will suggest the following changes in my home in order to be environment-friendly:
(a) to save energy turn off lights when not in use.
(b) use kitchen wastes as manure.
(c) use drip irrigation for watering the plants.
(d) use cloth bags in place of polythene and plastic bags.
Q.6) Can you suggest some changes in your school, which would make it environment
friendly?
Ans) I will suggest the school authority to adopt these environment-friendly measures:
(a) grow big trees along the boundary wall.
(b) grow shrubs and hedge on the sides of internal road and around playground.
(c) harvest water from rooftop to be utilized for watering the plants.
(d) arrange awareness programmes among students through poster exhibition and popular
lectures.
Q.8) How can you as an individual contribute or make a difference to the management of
(a) Forests and wildlife,
(b) Water resources and
(c) Coal and petroleum?
Ans) As an individual I can contribute to conserve these natural resources in the following
ways:
(a) Forests and Wildlife
i) Educating the people about the importance of forest.
ii) Using less forest products and avoid wasting forest resources.
iii) Changing our life style and adapting eco-friendly methods.
iv) Avoid hunting
(b) Water Resources
i) Usage of recycled water for gardens.
ii)Avoid using water directly from tap; instead collect water in containers and use for
various purposes.
iii)Create awareness about rainwater harvesting.
(c) Coal and Petroleum
i) Taking a bus, rather than using our personal vehicle.
ii) If the distance for traveling is short walking will be better option rather than taking a
vehicle.
iii) Be conservative while using LPG at homes.
Q.9) What can you as an individual do to reduce your consumption of the various natural
resources?
Ans):- (a) I will use public transport system to move instead of individual vehicle.
(b) I will use solar cooker to conserve fossil fuel.
(c) Instead of lift I will prefer to move through stairs.
(d) I will use fluorescent tubes in my home to conserve electrical energy.
(e) I will prefer to use renewable source of energy.
Q.11) On the basis of the issues raised in this chapter, what changes would you incorporate in
your life-style in a move towards a sustainable use of our resources?
Ans) (a) I will move in public transport system to conserve petrol.
(b) Instead of coal or natural gas I will prefer to use solar energy for cooking.
(c) I will obey rationalized husbanding of all renewable resources.
(d) I will adopt willingly sustainability as a way of life.
(e) I will advice controlled extraction of forest wealth.
Multiple choice questions
1. MAB stands for
a) man and biology programme. b) man and biosphere programme.
c) mammal and biology programme. d) mammal and biosphere programme.
6. Conservation is
a) proper use of natural resources b) protection of natural resources
c) management of natural resources d) all of these