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1 Read the following 8 passages and answer the 8 questions that follow
Passage 1
India has not gained much from being in the WTO and resisted opening up its agricultural sector
because of millions of small and marginal farmers who would not be able to withstand competition
from abroad. India has faced flak in the past about its agricultural subsidies which are far lower than
the subsidies the US, Canada and the EU give to their farmers. But their subsidies are supposed to be
direct cash subsidies and are allowed under the WTO’s ‘Green Box’. Most of the subsidies India gives
to farmers (MSP, fertiliser) come under ‘Amber Box’ and there is pressure to make them ‘Green Box’
compliable. India has had problems with the way the WTO calculates the MSP for Indian farmers.
Q. Which of the following is the most logical, accurate and critical inference that can be drawn from
the passage?

A. All members of WTO must have freedom in deciding the type and quantum of agricultural
subsidies
B. WTO norms are biased against developing countries
C. India doesn’t play by the global rules of trade designed by WTO
D. Agricultural subsidies can be brought down in India only upon the opening up
1 3of services
sector in developed countries 7 2
5
3 82
Your Answer : B 6
Correct Answer : B -8
o m
il.c
ma
Answer Justification :

@ g
05which are far lower than those given by the developed
Ans. B. Statement A is wrong as then the rule of trade would break down. Statement C is wrong as
6
12passage does not talk about the services sector. Hence B is
the passage states that India gives subsidies
countries. Statement D is wrong as5the
the most accurate answer. mr
7
y -
y Ro
2 Passage 2 j o
While the rushu ofntourists is good news, this is also an opportune moment to be cautious about the way
we expand r i t
M the
Fed up with
sector’s footprint. For example, look at what has happened to Barcelona and Venice.
constant streams of tourists, both places are now resisting them. In other places, the
situation has come to such a pass that Airbnb and the so-called sharing economy have been accused of
“hollowing out our [western] cities”. Amsterdam is restricting short-term renting out of properties by
residents after protests against the swamping of the city by tourists last year. Problems have beset
Shimla, Ladakh and Goa in India where the unregulated tourist rush has led to serious environmental
problems. Recently, the Uttarakhand High Court banned trekking after local people said irresponsible
trekkers are destroying the meadows in the state.
Q. Which of the following is the most logical, accurate and critical inference that can be drawn from
the passage?

A. Tourism is damaging for the ecosystem and local culture


B. Start ups such as Airbnb expand their businesses in unsustainable manner causing ill effects
on account of tourism
C. India needs tourists, but it’s also imperative that we plan for the long haul, and not focus on
just the quick, short-term gains.
D. Ecological footprint of mountainous regions has gone up causing damage to local ecosystem
on account of tourism

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Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Ans. C. The passage talks about the need for sustainably growing the footfalls on account of tourism
to prevent the damages caused by influx of people which is more than the carrying capacity of a
place. This is best captured by option C.

3 Passage 3
We know remarkably little about the oceans that cover most of the Earth, provide half of our oxygen
and help to regulate the climate. Maps of the ocean floor are less detailed than those of Mars or the
moon. Marine biologists have discovered deeply weird and genuinely wonderful species: boxer crabs
wielding anemones like weapons; the rope-like Praya dubia, up to 50 metres long; immortal jellyfish,
which unlike any other known creature can revert from maturity to an earlier stage of development,
akin to a butterfly becoming a caterpillar. But on one estimate we have identified less than a tenth of
13 of life in the
ocean-dwelling creatures. What we can be certain about is that the extraordinary diversity
7
oceans is under immense and growing threat. 2
5drawn
Q. Which of the following is the most logical and accurate inference that can8 2
be from the above
passage? 6 3
-8
o m
A. We are unable to protect our oceans because we il.c
a know so little about them
mknow
B. It is easier to explore outer space than it isgto about the depth of oceans
@
05 more fully, we may never realise quite how much we
C. Since we still need to explore the oceans
6
have lost
5 12
7 calm ocean surface which is much different from life on land
D. There is a life underneathrthe
- m
Your Answer : A
R oy
Correct Answer o y
:C
nj
i tu
AnswerrJustification :
M
Ans. C. The passage talks about the fact that we still have not explored much of the life that live in
the depth of the ocean and the ocean ecosystem is under huge threat due to climate change. This
means that option C is correct because since oceans are getting destroyed, we might not come to
know about the life forms we have ended up destroying since we know so little about them.

4 Passage 4
For a citizenry to retain its trust in government, it must have confidence that those in public service
are at all times acting in the best interest of the public. As stewards of the public trust, government
leaders and employees have a fiduciary responsibility to act in a manner that is fair and unbiased, that
is loyal to the public by putting public interest before personal gain, and that fulfills duties of
competency, integrity, accountability, and transparency. In fulfilling these duties, public officials will
encounter predictable ethical dilemmas which arise out of their role as public servants.
Q. Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the above
passage?

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A. Public service is an office of trust and it becomes difficult to govern once the trust is broken
B. Ethical dilemma is an inalienable part of public service
C. It is impossible for public servants to always act in public interest because of the dilemma that
confronts them
D. None of the above

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Ans. B. The focus of the passage is on explaining that authority of public service remains till the
time they enjoy the trust of the public. Ethical dilemmas if encountered, needs to be resolved
successfully to continue enjoying the trust of the public. Hence A is the most logical and critical
inference.

13
5 Passage 5
5 27
In the face of limited resources and competing priorities, health care service 2 providers, biomedical and
public health investigators, and policy-makers are often forced to make 6 38 choices about how
difficult
best to secure optimal health outcomes for individuals and populations.- 8 Demands for rapid action may
.c om a failure to give explicit
leave little time for adequate consideration of ethical issues. However,

ail
attention to ethics may result in various wrongs, such as harm and injustice, the consequences of
which are often borne disproportionately by the mostm vulnerable groups.
Q. Which of the following is the most logical and @ g inference that can be drawn from the above
critical
passage? 05 6
2
51
7 receiving end of unethical policies of the government
A. Vulnerable groups are at r the
B.
m
Giving importance to-ethics in healthcare may delay the achievement of health outcomes
o y
C. R
it is critical that ethics remains central to decision-making in health and health care.
D. joyto understand the role of ethics in healthcare
It is not easy
i t un
Your M r :C
Answer
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Ans. C. B and D are not in tune with what is being conveyed in the passage. A is extraneous to the
issue under discussion in the passage. C is the most accurate inference.

6 Passage 6
Weather disasters are being affected by climate change that is caused by humans. The devastation is
worsened by the collective failure of governments and businesses to invest in building resilience
despite the evidence on runaway climate change.
Q. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above
passage?

A. Climate change is caused due to anthropogenic factors


B. Responses to disasters must be proactive, not just reactive

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C. The economic damage from global warming has global ramifications.


D. Reconstruction efforts must involve communities in a better way

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Ans. B. Statement A is wrong as the passage as the focus of the passage is not on understanding the
reason why climate change occurs but the focus is on highlighting the issues in our response to
disasters caused by climate change. Statement C is extraneous to the passage. Involvement of
communities is the not the topic of discussion as per the passage. Hence B is the most logical and
rational inference.

7 Passage 7
The valour and sacrifices of Indian warrior kings, queens and soldiers against foreign 3domination is
legend. But most acclaimed by historians, is the heroism of our soldiers on World War 1
7 I fronts under
2
British commanders, especially in West Asia. Indian troops of the 15th Cavalry
8 25Brigade formed the
largest component of allied forces that fought and liberated Palestine from3
6thefour centuries of despotic
- 8
Turkish rule. Their final battle in the campaign was to gain control over strategic port city of Haifa,
an essential sea route for landing supplies, armaments and men.m
l .co that can be made from the above
Q. Which of the following is the most crucial and rational inference
i
passage? a
@ gm
5
60in Middle East during World War 1
A. Indian soldiers played a crucial role
2
51 unmatched during World War 1
B. The valour of Indian soldiers was
7
r reason why the Allied forces emerged victorious in World War
C. Indian soldiers were the major
m
1
y -
o
R played a crucial role in liberating Palestine from Turkish rule
D. Seizure of Haifa
j oy
n
Your Answer
ri tu : A
M Answer : A
Correct

Answer Justification :

Ans. A. Statement B is a statement which has not been referred to or implied in the passage.
Statement C is again not implied in the passage as there might have been several factors that
helped the Allies win World War 1, those factors are not being discussed here. Statement D is
rational but not the most crucial as the focus of the passage is on emphasizing the role played by
Indian soldiers in World War 1. Hence A is the most crucial and rational inference.

8 Passage 8
One of the neglected areas of reforms of India’s organised senior civil services relates to the rationalisation of its branching
structure and the related debate of generalist vs specialist services. The present structure is a confusing hotchpotch of
specialist and generalist branches, at different layers of government, and has largely resulted in inter-branch rivalries,
dissatisfaction, and a dysfunctional organisational structure, affecting the efficiency of the senior management and
governance. In light of this, a rationalised redesign, effected through a mix of mergers, abolitions, and reinvention and with
specialised–generalist branches responsible for broad domains of functions, appears to be the most suitable strategy for
reform.
Q. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?

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A. Bureaucracy in India has not kept pace with the modern requirements of governance
B. Generalist services can not flourish in the age of specialization
C. Civil services in India were poorly designed to serve the needs of the country
D. None of the above

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Ans. A. Statement A is correct as the passage talks about the reforms required in bureaucracy
because of the issues that have become apparent in governance. As a result, the passage talks about
the need of reforms to keep pace with the requirements of governance. Hence A

9 Read the following 8 passages and answer the 8 questions that follow

13little beyond
Passage 1
The tragedy of specialisation is that it leads members of the knowledge industry to7see
52 so distinct that
their bulwarks. And indeed, the world views of highly specialised domains are2often
38 becomes difficult or
they have created not only disparate paradigms but distinct worlds. It, therefore,
6
impossible for an economist to appreciate the importance and value-of8biodiversity or why its loss is a
m
major casualty (unless he or she tries to monetise it), or for an engineer
oamong to understand why
decentralised solar power that allows greater democratisationl .c
iparks local communities is an
a
opportunity to be grabbed instead of installing large solar by mega-corporations. It also makes it
gmthat more targeted and improved ways to cut
near impossible for a molecular biologist to understand
@
5 concerned about genetically modified organisms.
and paste DNA is not the point being made by0those
It is about ownership, biodiversity, science 6
2 soils — cross-cutting domains that super-specialists
and
5 1
will not be able to see.
Q. Which of the following is the m r7logical and critical inference of the passage?
most
y -
A. Polymaths are Ro
y rare in the age of specialization
j o
un
B. Super specialization is leading to the development of tunnel vision
C. It risitimpossible to be a super specialist as well as a visionary
D.MVisionaries are generalists because their knowledge might not have depth but has enormous
breadth

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Ans. B. A is also a logical inference, however it is not the most accurate as the focus of the passage
is on explaining that super specialists are unable to look beyond their immediate field of interest
which means that they end up developing tunnel vision. Hence B is the most accurate answer.

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10 Passage 2
Global population was around 1.6 billion in 1990—today it is around 7.2 billion and growing. Recent
estimates on population growth predict a global population of 9.6 billion in 2050 and 10.9 billion in
2100. Unlike Europe and North America, where only three to four per cent of population is engaged
in agriculture, around 47 per cent of India’s population is dependent upon agriculture. Even if India
continues to do well in the service sector and the manufacturing sector picks up, it is expected that
around 2030 when India overtakes China as the world’s most populous country, nearly 42 per cent of
India’s population will still be predominantly dependent on agriculture.
Q. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the
above passage?

A. Prosperity of agriculture sector is of critical importance to India.


B. Indian economy greatly depends on its agriculture
C. India should take strict measures to control its rapid population growth.
D. India’s farming communities should switch over to other occupations to improve their
economic conditions.

1 3
Your Answer :
5 27
Correct Answer : B 2
6 38
Answer Justification : -8
.c om
Ans. B. The focus of the passage is on explaining the a il dependency of Indian economy on
high
gm start doing well. Hence B
agriculture even when the other sectors of the economy
@
6 05
11 Passage 3 5 12
When water heats up, it takes up r 7 space. That means as oceans warm, sea levels rise. The study
more
- m
says this effect alone could make sea levels rise 30cm (12 inches) by the end of the century.
“That doesn’t sound like o y
R much, but there are many large cities around the world, much built on
reclaimed land, thatyare not more than 30cm above sea level,” says Stephen Simpson, associate
njo biology and global change at the University of Exeter, in the UK. “Millions and
professor in marine
u
it would be displaced.” But on top of that, warming oceans are causing polar ice
millions ofrpeople
M
sheets to melt faster, which will make sea levels rise even more.
Q. Which of the following is the most logical and critical corollary to the above passage?

A. All coastal cities will have to safeguard themselves against rising sea levels
B. Only some coastal cities will have to safeguard themselves against rising sea level
C. The impact of sea level rise on coastal cities is unclear
D. None of the above

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Ans. A. The passage states that coastal cities built on reclaimed land need to worry. However the
last line also says that sea levels could rise much more than 30cm. This means that the logical
corollary is for all coastal cities to safeguard themselves against rising sea level.

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12 Passage 4
The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 are clear that producers, importers and brand owners
must adopt a collect-back system for the plastic they introduce into the environment. Although the
rules were notified in the same year, amended later and given high visibility by the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change, not much has been done to take the process forward. At
the very least, local bodies should consult manufacturers or importers to assess the problem.
Delaying such a measure has created the anomalous situation of small producers of plastics facing
the ban, while more organised entities covered by the Extended Producer Responsibility clause
continue with business as usual. Such enforcement failure is not an argument in favour of relaxing
the prohibition on flimsy plastics that are typically used for under 15 minutes, but to recover
thousands of tonnes of waste that end up in dumping sites. Cities and towns need competent
municipal systems to achieve this.
Q. Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the above
passage?

A. There is a need to revisit the ban on plastics as it adversely impacting the small producers of
plastic
B. There needs to be greater alacrity shown by municipal authorities to implement
7 13 the Plastic
waste management rules, 2016
2 52
C. The concept of extended producer responsibility does not work in
6 38dealing with plastic waste
-8
D. There needs to be a relaxation in Extended Producer Responsibility norms
o m
Your Answer : B il.c
Correct Answer : B
gma
5 @
0
Answer Justification :
26
7 51
Ans. B. The focus of the passager is on explaining how the plastic waste management rules have not
- m can be done by municipal committees in this regard. Hence B is the
proven effective and what more
y
Ro inference.
most accurate and critical
y
u njo
13 Passage 5rit
M
Converting national climate plans into reality is a complex process that requires contribution from
everyone—it needs a public-private partnership. Governments and industries must work together to
ensure successful implementation of Paris Agreement commitments. Corporate India has been
steadily contributing towards sustainable growth, including through mandatory CSR. There are early
movers—companies that are proactive and wish to remain relevant in the longer term. Then there are
others whose actions are primarily reactive in nature to government policies, CSR, self-regulation by
industry bodies and evolving customer preferences.
Q. The key focus area of the passage is

A. The inability of national governments to fulfil targets under Paris Agreement by themselves
B. The scope and limitation of Corporate Social Responsibility
C. Highlighting the role that corporate India can play in tackling climate change
D. Highlighting that not every corporate body is committed towards tackling climate change

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C

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Answer Justification :

Ans. C. The passage talks about the need of public private partnership in tackling climate change in
which corporates are playing a crucial role. Hence C is the most accurate.

14 Passage 6
Experts seem unanimous that India is certainly a regional power. But is it? Recent events do not lend
support to that view and the government was right in not paying heed to that rhetoric. India is
without doubt the pre-eminent power in South Asia. However, given our firm commitment not to use
force and to non-interference in internal affairs in other states, our neighbours do not feel threatened
by us.
Q. Which of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage?

A. India being a regional behemoth needs to adopt a tough approach towards its immediate
neighbours
B. India’s policy of being a benevolent regional power has not served it well and should be
tinkered with 7 13
52 our neighbours
C. India needs to be wary of Chinese presence in its neighbourhood considering
2
do not feel threatened by us
6 38
- 8 role is expected of regional
D. The concept of hard power is outdated and a more constructive
and global powers om .c
a il
Your Answer : B m
Correct Answer : D 5 @g
0
126
Answer Justification : 5
m r7
-
Ans. D. A is wrong as theypassage never states that it is good for neighbours to feel threatened by
o
us. B is wrong as theRimplication is similar to a. C is wrong as Chinese threat is beyond the
j
discussion of the oy
passage. D is correct as the passage does suggest that despite neighbours not
u n by us, we
it
feeling threatened are still a regional power, which implies that hard power is not enough.
Mr
15 Passage 7
​Successive governments have created the impression that India’s coastline is a vast, empty space
that economic actors can take over. Industrialists and real estate developers share this view because
coastal lands are for the most part outside the regime of individual property rights. Land grabbing by
private and government actors has been the norm. These actors forget that this space is the common
property of coastal villages, towns and cities, and public beaches.
Q. The key focus area of the passage is

A. Poor management and regulation of coastal regions


B. Environmental degradation of coastal region
C. The unethical practices of a few nefarious operators
D. None of the above

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A

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Answer Justification :

Ans. A. The focus of the passage is on explaining the regulatory shortcomings which has allowed
unethical operators to indulge in the practice of land grabbing in coastal areas which is creating an
issue. Hence A.

16 Passage 8
This is an important intervention to have made, for we can see from the histories of different parts of
the world that the relationship between the movements in poverty and inequality is not unique. In
particular, we find from the Indian experience that there are instances in which a public policy
focussed on the reduction of inequality may not result in the elimination of poverty. Essentially,
inequality can be reduced by taxing the rich, a form of ‘levelling down’, but poverty can be
permanently eliminated only by raising the incomes of the poor, a form of ‘levelling up’.
Q. Which among the following is the most logical and critical corollary to the above passage?

A. Some of the measures introduced to tackle inequality has exacerbated poverty


13is a need to shift
B. Since policies to tackle inequality are not effective for tackling poverty, there
7
the focus of policymaking to tackle poverty
2 52
C. Poverty is an important indicator of a country’s development on 3 its8own
6
8 levelling up
D. It is easier to formulate policies for levelling down rather than
-
.c om
Your Answer : B
a il
Correct Answer : B m
5 @g
0
Answer Justification :
26
51
r7 the message being conveyed by the passage. It is not the
Ans. B. A is wrong as this goes against
m
measures per se which has-exacerbated poverty. Not focussing on poverty has led to this problem
R
being ignored. C is notoaycorollary and is not being implied by the passage. D is wrong as the
statement is notjoy implied by the passage. B is the most accurate option.
being
n
rit u
M
17 Read the following 2 passages and answer the 3 questions that follow
Passage 1
Empathy is the ability to share and understand the emotions of others. It is a construct of multiple
components, each of which is associated with its own brain network. There are three ways of looking
at empathy.
First there is affective empathy. This is the ability to share the emotions of others. People who score
high on affective empathy are those who, for example, show a strong visceral reaction when watching
a scary movie. They feel scared or feel others’ pain strongly within themselves when seeing others
scared or in pain.
Cognitive empathy, on the other hand, is the ability to understand the emotions of others. A good
example is the psychologist who understands the emotions of the client in a rational way, but does
not necessarily share the emotions of the client in a visceral sense.
Finally, there’s emotional regulation. This refers to the ability to regulate one’s emotions. For
example, surgeons need to control their emotions when operating on a patient. Another way to
understand empathy is to distinguish it from other related constructs. For example, empathy involves
self-awareness, as well as distinction between the self and the other. In that sense it is different from
mimicry, or imitation.
Q. Based on your understanding of the above passage, which of the following is/are true?

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1. Getting affected by the plight of beggars is an example of cognitive empathy


2. cognitive empathy is ‘empathy by thought’, rather than by feeling.
3. Affective empathy is inferior to cognitive empathy

A. 1
B. 1,2
C. 2,3
D. 1,2

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Ans. D. Statement III is wrong as the passage does not give any view on the comparison between
different kinds of empathy. Statement I and II are correct as per reading of the passage. Hence D.
1 3
527
82 empathy?
18 Based on your reading of the passage, which of the following is/are true about
3
1. 6
-8
Empathy can inhibit social actions, or even lead to amoral behaviour
2.
.c om
l form truer friendships
A person who scores high on cognitive empathy is likely ito
a
3. m
@g on a person’s emotional quotient
How a person reacts in a situation is also dependent
5
0
126
A. 1,2 5
B. 3 m r7
-
C. 2,3
oy
D. 2
j oyR
n
it u : C
Your Answer
r
M Answer : C
Correct

Answer Justification :

Ans. C. I is wrong as it is nowhere mentioned nor implied in the passage. II is correct as the passage
states that one who has cognitive empathy has the ability to understand the emotions of others
which can lead to better bonds being formed as opposed to those cases where the person is unable
to understand the emotions of others. Empathy is a part of emotional quotient and hence III is
correct. Hence C.

19 Passage 2
The Sentinelese people targeted by the slain evangelist John Allen Chau are probably the most isolated of the world’s
remaining remote tribes, and they are keen to stay that way. They shoot arrows to warn off anyone who approaches their
island, and attack those, like Chau, who ignore their warnings.
It was not always this way. When Europeans first made contact with the Sentinelese, the British naval commander Maurice
Vidal Portman described them in 1899 as “painfully timid.” But the profound shift is not hard to explain. Tribes like the
Sentinelese have learned to associate outsiders with the ghastly violence and deadly diseases brought by European
colonization.
Q. Which of the following, according to the passage, is the reason for the hostility shown by Sentinelese?

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A. Lack of empathy shown by people of mainland


B. Violence and deadly diseases brought by outsiders
C. Their inbuilt sense of antagonism against outsiders
D. Their lack of development

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Ans. B. The passage clearly states in the last line that Sentinelese have learned to associate
outsiders with the ghastly violence and deadly diseases brought by European colonization which
explains their hostility. Hence B.

20 Read the following 4 passages and answer the 7 questions that follow
13 Close to
Passage 1
At present, India, overall as a country, has a large proportion of population that is7young.
2 52 age group are still
30% of India’s population is in the age group 0-14 years. The elderly in the 60-plus
a small proportion (8%) of the country’s population. The working age group
6 38 15-59 years accounts for
62.5% of India’s population. The working-age population will reach- the 8 highest proportion of
approximately 65% in 2036. These population parameters indicate
.c om an availability of demographic
The story gets interesting when we look at the sub-nationala il picture. The demographic dividend is not
dividend in India, which started in 2005-06 and will last till 2055-56.

available in all the states at the same time. This is g


m
because different states have behaved differently
5 @
To start with, the fertility decline across2 60 andinregions
in the past and are projected to behave differently
states
terms of population parameters in future also.
has been different. Some states,
5 1
especially in southern India, started
r 7seeing the fertility decline earlier than other states, especially
-m
the states in the hinterland. This created
decline. A clear pattern of ydemographic
regional variations in the degrees and timings of fertility
divergence has emerged in India. When all the states in India
o
are mapped in terms ofRfertility levels, one sees a predominantly youthful north and a maturing south
and west. jo y
unfollowing is the key focus area of the passage?
Q. Which of tthe
i
Mr
A. Highlighting that demographic transition in India is staggered
B. Highlighting that southern states are at an inherent disadvantage because of their
demography
C. Highlighting that a country with large proportion of young people is at the brink of greatness
D. Highlight the varied development journey followed by the various states

Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Ans. A. The passage seeks to highlight the staggered demographic division across the country.
Hence A.

21 Which of the following is the most rational and critical corollary to the above passage?
The window of demographic dividend points to a differential approach to socio-economic policy planning

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A. The window of demographic dividend points to a differential approach to socio-economic


planning
B. states will have their demographic dividend opportunity at different times because of the
staggered nature of demographic transition
C. India will enjoy a longer span of demographic dividend
D. India is on the precipice of superpower status riding on the back of its demographic
advantage

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Answer. A. B and C are possible inference but not corollary. D is extraneous to the passage. A talks
about what needs to be done in light of the available facts and is thus the most accurate corollary.
Hence A.
1 3
27
22 Passage 2 8 25
Children’s use of social media and the internet is a problem. That doesn’t
8 63 mean it should be stopped.
The internet is at least as interesting and fun for children as it is for - adults, and social media is a fact
of life. While younger children should not be on platforms where o m 13 is the minimum age, it is neither
practical nor desirable to imagine a world in which teenagers i l .c are prevented from accessing the
platforms and messaging systems that the adults around m a them use to organise their lives.
But the pleasure and stimulation that people of @ g
all ages find on their screens and smartphones must
0 5this
not blind us to the harm that spending time
2 6girls is closely
in way can cause. The finding that the alarmingly
high rate of depression in British teenage
5 1 correlated to time spent on social media is
7
extremely concerning. Children’s rcharities and clinicians have long highlighted cyberbullying and
issues around self-esteem, often- m linked to anxieties around attractiveness and sexuality. While there
o y
is nothing new about teenagers being unkind to each other, there is a world of difference between
whispered rumours y R
and Photoshopped images. Feeling excluded or unpopular has always been
j o
n use to be possible for children to torment themselves – or others – with feeds
painful, but it didn’t
i t u
featuring pictures of their peers having a wonderful time.
Q. Which M r
of the following is the most logical and accurate corollary that can be drawn from the above
passage?

A. Social media is causing disruptions in the lives of adults as well as children


B. Privacy concern on social media is the main reason why children must be kept away from it
C. Cyberbullying is a major cause of depression and suicides among young children
D. Since stopping children from spending long hours on the net is impractical, we need to
regulate and monitor this use

Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Ans. D. The passage focusses on outlining the reasons why children’s use of social media is
problematic. The passage states that stopping this is impractical and thus the natural corollary is to
regulate and monitor this use. Hence D.

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23 Which of the following is/are valid assumptions that have been made in the passage?
1.
Girls are more susceptible to cyber bullying than boys
2.
Teenagers are impacted by peer pressure much more than adults

A. 1
B. 2
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

13 among
Ans. C. Statement I is wrong as the passage does state that the instances of depression
7
teenage girls on account of cyber bullying has reached alarming proportions.
2 52Statement II is correct
as the passage states that feeling excluded or unpopular has always been
3 8 painful, but it didn’t use
6
to be possible for children to torment themselves – or others – with8feeds featuring pictures of their
-on this and the general message
peers having a wonderful time. The assumption is correct based
o m
being conveyed by the passage. l.c i
gma
@
24 Passage 3
6 0is5 often focussed on issues related to governance and
The debate in the media on higher education 2
1important
autonomy — but these are not the only 5 issues. There needs to be a debate on the content of
higher education in HEIs. Just m r7Independence, a commission comprising educationists from
after
India, the U.K. and the U.S.,y -and chaired by Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, was formed “to report on
o
R and suggest improvements and extensions that may be desirable to suit
Indian University Education
present and future y
jocame to be known
requirements of the country”. Its report filed after its deliberations (December
u
1948-August 1949) n as the Radhakrishnan Commission Report (RCR). Philosophical
i t
r in the report that are related to the content of higher education are still relevant today.
deliberations
The RCR Mrecommended a well-balanced education with ‘general’, ‘liberal’ and ‘occupational’
components. Without all-round general (including liberal) education, one could not be expected to
play roles expected of a citizen outside one’s immediate professional sphere. The report advocated
that general education and specialised/professional education should proceed together. The study of
languages should be given equal importance as one communicated to the outside world only through
the medium of language. Therefore, a lack of communication skills could be a handicap. The RCR
drew inspiration from the emphasis on general education in universities in the U.S. It cited a lecture
by Einstein (1931) where he said: “The development of general ability for independent thinking and
judgement should always be placed foremost, not the acquisition of special knowledge. If a person
masters the fundamentals of his subject and has learned to think and work independently, he will
surely find his way….”
Q. Which of the following option most accurately captures the essence of the report?

A. Without communication skills, knowledge is futile


B. Technical education is not as important as liberal education
C. Education should focus on developing the all round capabilities of students
D. None of the above

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Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Ans. C. The answer becomes clear from the following line in the passage – “”Without all-round
general (including liberal) education, one could not be expected to play roles expected of a citizen
outside one’s immediate professional sphere.”

25 Which of the following is /are assumptions that have been made in the passage?
1.
Focussing solely on technical education limits personality development
2.
Generalists do much better in life as compared to specialists

A. 1
1 3
B. 2
5 27
C. 1&2 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 6 38
-8
Your Answer : D o m
il.c
ma
Correct Answer : A

@ g
Answer Justification :
0 5
26
7 51
Ans. A. I is correct as the passage emphasizes on the importance of all round education. Statement
r
m not assume so.
II is wrong as the passage does
y -
y Ro
26 Passage 4 j o
n most nauseating thing to do; for others, it’s the only way to make a living. From
For some, it isuthe
i t
drains andr sewers to septic tanks and railway tracks, more than half a million manual scavengers
across M
the country are cleaning, carrying and disposing of human excreta and everything else that we
flush down the toilet.
Q. Based on your reading of the passage, which of the following is a valid conclusion that can be
made from the passage?
1.
Economic inequality is stark in India
2.
Caste system has created several divisions in the society
3.
Manual scavengers have no rights and live a pitiable life

A. 1
B. 1,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 3

Your Answer : C

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Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Ans. A. I is correct as the passage contrasts the life style of two different classes of people. II is
wrong as the passage does not talk about caste system. III is wrong as the passage does not talk
about the rights of manual scavengers but highlights that such a practice still there in India. Hence
A.

27 Read the following passage and answer the 4 questions that follow
Passage 1
The world saw a huge wave of democratisation after World War II. The newly-liberated states in Latin
America, Africa and Asia adopted democratic forms of government after centuries of colonial
subjugation. Today more people live under various forms of democracy than ever before. More than
120 of the 192 countries in the world have some form of democracy — only 11 parliamentary
democracies existed in 1941. This indicates the appeal of democratic ideas and systems.
South Asia is home to 3 per cent of the world’s area and 21 per cent of the world’s 1 3
population. It’s
significant that 50 per cent of the world’s population living under some form of 2 7
democratic rule
5
2challenges
resides in this region. Despite the democratic upsurge, there are significant 8 like poverty,
3 authoritarian leaders are
inequality, gender injustice, nepotism and corruption. Elected despots6and
weakening democracies across the world. Political experts have argued - 8 that democratic values are on
the decline, especially in the West.
.c om
a l
The International Institute for Democracy and Electoral iAssistance (IDEA), an inter-country
organisation, tried to evaluate the state of democracy
claims. The Global State of Democracy Index (GSoD) @ gmlooks
in the world in the light of such worrying
at the trends in democratisation from
1975 to 2017. With the help of a set of 98 6 05
indicators, IDEA aims to study the factors which threaten
democracy throughout the world and those
5 12 that make it strong and resilient. The study covers a
variety of important indicators such
m r7as representative government, fundamental rights, checks on the
y -
government, impartial administration and participatory engagement. These have many sub indicators
Ro
for an in depth indices-based analysis.

j oy
When it comes to representative government, India and Sri Lanka have maintained relatively high
u n
scores. Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Pakistan have had periods of non-elected regimes. The
ri
general trend t in South Asia in this respect has, however, been positive.
Q. WhichMof the following is the key message being conveyed by the author?
A. Democracy is the worst form of government, expect for the rest of the forms
B. Democracy has become entrenched in the countries of South Asia
C. Democracy has survived despite the challenges it has encountered along the way
D. Democratic ideals and systems have huge appeal and need to be safeguarded in light of the
threat that faces them

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Ans. D. The passage does not give a qualitative assessment of democracy as such, it is more
focussed on highlighting that there are threats to it, which needs to be identified and addressed.
Statement B is a wrong message which has not been conveyed by the passage. Statement C is a
part of the message conveyed by the passage but statement D is more accurate.

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28 According to the passage which of the following would be sub-indicators for measuring the status of
democracy?
1.
Discretion in governmental decisions
2.
Status of local self government
3.
Freedom of speech
4.
Rule of Law

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 2,4

Your Answer : A
1 3
Correct Answer : D
5 27
2
Answer Justification : 6 38
-8
c om government, fundamental rights,
Ans. D. The passage mentions indicators such as representative
.
a
checks on the government, impartial administration and il participatory engagement. We have to see
which of the options fall under these categories.gmthe options do. Hence B.
All
5 @
2 60
1
29 According to the author, which of the5following is a valid conclusion that can be made from the
7
mr
passage?
1. -
State of democracy in any
R oycountry can not be measured objectively
2.
j oy
South Asia has n
i t u succeeded in successfully establishing democratic governments
Mr is under threat today and needs to be safeguarded
3.
Democracy

A. 1,3
B. 2,3
C. 1 only
D. 3 only

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Ans. D. I is wrong as the passage talks about developing a series of criteria based on which the
status of democracy can be measured objectively. The passage does not delve into questioning the
relevance of such a criteria. II is wrong because of the last paragraph which states that certain
countries in South Asia have had non elected regimes. Hence D

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30 Which of the following is/are assumption(s) that have been made in the passage?
i) Totalitarian states curb individual freedom
ii) Inequalities caused by capitalism is creating problems for democracy

A. i
B. ii
C. i & ii
D. Neither I nor ii

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Ans. A. 1 is correct as it mentions that democracy is threatened by totalitarianism which does


suppress individual freedom and thus is an antithesis to democracy. Statement 2 is wrong as it
specifically mentions that inequality caused by capitalism. Hence A 13 7
2
25
38
86 He, however, first added 12
31 A student was asked to divide a number by 6 and add 12 to the quotient.
to the number and then divided it by 6, getting 112 as the answer.-The correct answer should have
m
been : co il .
m a
A. 122
5 @g
B. 118 0
C. 114 126
5
D. 124
m r7
-
Your Answer : A
R oy
Correct Answer o y
:A
nj
i tu
AnswerrJustification :
M
Let the number be x. Then, as per the operation undertook by the student, we have (x+12)/6 = 112 .

Therefore x= 660.

Hence, correct answer should have been (660/6)+12 =122.

32 If A and B together can complete a job in 18 days, while it takes A 30 days to complete the same job
while working alone, then in how many days can B complete the job while working alone?

A. 25 days
B. 35 days
C. 45 days
D. 30 days

Your Answer : C

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Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

A and B together can complete a job in 18 days. So, in one day they will complete 1/18 th part of the
job.

Similarly, it takes A 30 days to complete the same job while working alone. Hence, in one day it will
complete 1/30th part of the job.

Hence, part of the job completed by B in one day = (1/18) – (1/30) = 1/45th
So B will take 45 days to complete the job while working alone.

33 A trader allows two successive discounts of 10% and 20%. If he sells the article for Rs. 144, then
what is the marked price of the article? 13 7
2
8 25
A. Rs. 180 3
B. Rs. 200 - 86
C. Rs. 240
.c om
D. Rs. 150
a il
m
Your Answer : B 5 @g
0
Correct Answer : B
126
5
Answer Justification : m r7
-
Always the discount R
oy
is provided on marked price. Here 2 successive discounts are given.
j
Let us assume that o y marked price is M.
u n
rit
So first discount is 10%. Thus the price becomes 9/10 th. Andsecond discount is 20 %. Thus, price
M
becomes 8/10.
After allowing these two discounts price comes out to be 144.
Now representing this mathematically:
M × 9/10 × 8/10 = 144
M × 72/100 =144
M= 144 ×100/72
M= 200

Hence, option (b) is correct.

34 A 3-digit number 4a3 is added to another 3 digit number 984 to give a four digit number 13b7 which
is divisible by 11. Then, (a + b) = ?

A. 11
B. 12
C. 10

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D. 15

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Solution: C

As per the given data , 4 a 3 + 9 8 4 = 13b7

Therefore, a+8= b or b-a=8

Since 13b7 is divisible by 11, (7+3) –(b+1)=0.

Therefore, b=9.

1 3
27
As the value b-a=8, the value of a=1.
2 5
Therefore, value of (a+b)=(1+9)=10.
6 38
-8
Hence , option (c) is correct.
om
a il.c
35 The age of the father 10 years ago was thrice the age
@ gmof his son. Ten years from now, father's age will
5 present ages?
be twice that of his son. What is the ratio of their
0
6
5 12
A. 7:5 7
B. 7:3
- mr
y
Ro
C. 8:5
D. 9:7
j oy
u n
rit : B
Your Answer
M Answer : B
Correct

Answer Justification :

Let the ages of father and son 10 years ago be 3x and x years respectively.
Now, it‘s given that ten years from now, father's age will be twice that of his son.
Thus, (3x + 10) + 10 = 2[(x + 10) + 10]
or 3x + 20 = 2x + 40
or x = 20.
Therefore, required ratio = (3x + 10) : (x + 10) = 70 : 30 = 7 : 3.

36 The least number, which when divided by 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, leaves in each case, a remainder 1, but
when divided by 7 leaves no remainder. The number is

A. 121
B. 181

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C. 241
D. 301

Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

LCM (2, 3, 4, 5, 6) = 60
Therefore, required number is of the form 60 k + 1.

Least value of k for which 60k + 1 is divisible by 7 is k=5


Therefore, required number = 60 × 5 + 1= 301.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

3
71 does the area
37 If the length and breadth of a rectangle decrease by 10% each, then by what percent
2
decrease? 5 2
8
63
A. 49% -8
B. 25% o m
il.c
ma
C. 19%
D. 15%
@ g
0 5
Your Answer : C
126
5
r7
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification : y
-m
y Ro
jo breadth of the rectangle be x and y units respectively
Let the lengthnand
u
it xy units^2
Original area=
New M
r
area= (0.9x) × (0.9y) =0.81xy units^2
∴ Percentage decrease in area= (0 .81xy- xy/xy) × 100= -19% (Negative sign indicates decrease in
area)

Hence, option(c) is correct.

38 Ajay decides to sell milk at cost price. In what ratio should he mix water and milk so that he can earn
20% profit?

A. 1:9
B. 1:11
C. 1:5
D. 1:10

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C

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Answer Justification :

Let cost price of pure milk = Rs 1 per litre.


Now he adds some water in this milk.
Then selling price of mixture of milk and water is also = Rs 1 per litre
Suppose he had only 1 litre milk costing Rs 1.
To earn profit of 20 % he has to earn Rs 1.2
As mixture also costs Rs 1 per litre means to earn Rs 1.2 he has sold total 1.2 litre of mixture .
That means he added 0.2 litre of milk in 1 litre.
Thus, ratio is 0.2: 1 = 1:5 .

Hence, option (c) is correct.

39 Three bells chime at an interval of 18, 24 and 32 minutes respectively. At a certain time they begin to
chime together. What length of time will elapse before they chime together again?

1 3
A. 2 hours 24 minutes
5 27
B. 4 hours 48 minutes 2
C. 1 hour 36 minutes 6 38
D. 5 hours -8
o m
il.c
ma
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B
@ g
0 5
Answer Justification :
126
5
L.C.M of 18, 24 and 32 = 288m r7
-
Hence, they would chimey after every 288 min. or 4 hrs 48 min.
y Ro
njo (b) is correct.
Therefore, option
u
r it
M
40 If every 2 out of 3 readymade shirts need alterations in the collar, every 3 out or 4 need alterations in
the sleeves, and every 4 out of 5 need it in the body, how many alterations will be required for 60
shirts?

A. 24
B. 123
C. 133
D. 143

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Number of alterations required in 1 shirt =(2/3 + ¾ + 4/5) =133/60.

Therefore, number of alteration required in 60 shirts =(133/60 x 60)= 133.


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Hence, option (c) is correct.

41 A clock gains 15 minutes per day. It is set right at 12 noon. What time will it show at 4.00 am, the
next day ?

A. 4 : 10 am
B. 4 : 45 am
C. 4 : 20 am
D. 5 : 00 am

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The clock gains 15 min in 24 hours. Therefore, in 16 hours, it will gain 10 minutes.3
7 1 Hence, the time
shown by the clock will be 4.10 am. 2 5
2
Hence, option (a) is correct. 6 38
-8
o m
.c
42 There are 30 different routes connecting two cities Delhiiland Meerut. In how many ways can a
person go from Delhi to Meerut and return by
g ma
5@
a different route?
0
1 26
75
A. 600
B. 900 r
C. 780 y -m
D. 870
y Ro
n jo
u
it : B
Your Answer
M
Correct
rAnswer :D

Answer Justification :

A person can go from Delhi to Meerut through any of the 30 routes connecting the two cities.
Hence, there are 30 ways to go from Delhi to Meerut.

Since he cannot come back through the same route as travelled by him earlier, he has to opt for one
of the remaining 29 routes. Therefore he can return to Delhi in 29 ways. Thus, the total number of
ways possible = 30 x 29 = 870 ways.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

43 Pointing towards a man in a photograph, Arun, who does not have any sibling, said “The man’s father
is my father’s son”. How is the man
related to Arun?

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A. Son
B. Uncle
C. Nephew
D. Cousin

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Since Arun does not have any brother or sister, it means Arun’s father’s son is Arunhimself.
Therefore, the man in the photograph is Arun’s son.

Hence, option is (a) is correct.

3 on the same
44 The simple interest on a sum of money for 3 years is Rs. 360, and the compound interest
1
sum at the same rate for 2 years is Rs. 270. What is the rate percent per annum? 7
5 2
3 82
A. 25% 6
B. 50% -8
o m
il.c
C. 60%

ma
D. 80%

@ g
Your Answer : 0 5
Correct Answer : A
126
5
m r7
Answer Justification : -
oy
j oy R 120=CI for 1st year.
SI for 1st year=360/3=Rs.
SI for 2 yearsn= Rs. 240.
itu2 years= 270
Now, CIrfor
M on SI for 1 year (i.e. Rs. 120)= 270 - 240 =Rs. 30
So, Interest
Hence, the required rate = (30/120) × 100= 25%

Hence, option (a) is correct.

45 A person has Rs. 3000. He invested 60 percent at 10 percent interest rate and rest amount at 15
percent. What is the total interest received at
the end of year?

A. Rs. 180
B. Rs. 360
C. Rs. 90
D. Rs. 270

Your Answer : B
Correct Answer : B

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Answer Justification :

Interest received from first investment = [(1800×10×1)/100]


Interest received from second investment = [(1200×15×1)/100]
Total interest = Rs. 360

Hence, option(b) is correct.

46 The average speed of a bus is 2/5th the speed of a train. If the train covers 320 km in 8 hours, then
how much distance will the bus cover in 10 hours?

A. 160 km
B. 400 km
C. 200 km
D. 500 km

1 3
Your Answer :
5 27
Correct Answer : A 2
6 38
Answer Justification : -8
o m
It is given that the train covers 320 km in 8 hours.
a il.c
As we know that, Speed = Distance/Time gm
0 5@
26 we get,
Putting the given values in the above formula
1
Speed of train = 320/8 = 40 kmph.5
Now, Speed of bus = 2/5th ofm r7speed of train = (2/5) × 40 = 16 kmph.
the
- bus = speed × time = 16 ×10 = 160 km.
y by
So, the distance travelled
o
o
Hence, option j(a)
yisRcorrect.
i t un
M r
47 Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5:4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio to
their ages will become 11:9 respectively. What is Anand’s present age in years ?

A. 24
B. 27
C. 40
D. cannot be determined

Your Answer : A
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Let the present ages of Sameer and Anand be 5x years and 4x years respectively.
Then (5x +3)/(4x+3)= 11/9

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By solving the equation, we get x=6.

Therefore, Anand’s present age= 4x= 24.

Hence, option(a) is correct.

48 The total age of A and B is 12 years more than the total age of B and C. C is how many years younger
than A ?

A. 12
B. 24
C. C is elder than A
D. Data inadequate

Your Answer : A
1 3
Correct Answer : A
5 27
2
Answer Justification : 6 38
-8
(A + B) – (B + C) = 12 ==> A – C = 12. o m
C is 12 year younger than A. il.c
gma
Hence, option (a) is correct.
5 @
0
26
51
r7 by 20%, its sale increased by 80%. What was the net effect on
49 When the price of a radio was reduced
m
the sale ? - y
y Ro
njo
A. 44% increase
u
B. 44%tdecrease
i
Mr increase
C. 66%
D. 75% increase

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Let the original price be x and sale be ofy units.


Then, the revenue collected initially = x × y
Now, new price = 0.8 x, new sale = 1.8 y
Then, new revenue collected = 1.44 xy
% increase in revenue = ([0.44xy/xy] x 100) = 44% increase

Hence, option(a) is correct.

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50 Lucknow bound Shatabdi Express has a capacity of 500 seats of which 10% are in the Executive class
and the rest chair cars. During one journey, the train was booked to 85% of its capacity. If Executive
class was booked to 96% of its capacity, then how many chair car seats were empty during that
journey?

A. 78
B. 73
C. 72
D. None of these

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Seats in executive class = 50


Seats for chair car = 450 1 3
Booked seats in total = 425 5 27
2
Booked in executive class = 48
6 38
Therefore, seats booked in chair class = (425 – 48) = 377
-8
Empty seats for chair class = 450 – 377 = 73
o m
il.c
Hence, option(b) is correct.
gma
@
05
26 of4 Kmph. The time taken to cover the first 70%of the
51 Mr. Bhatti walks to work at a uniform speed
1
5 taken to cover the remaining distance.How far is his office?
distance is 30 minutes more than thetime
7
r
y -m
Ro
A. 5 Km
B.
C.
10 Km
15 Km nj
oy
D. it u
20rKm
M
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Let total distance to office = x km, while the uniform Speed = 4 kmph.
Time to cover first 0.7x distance is 30 min or 1/2 hour more than time to cover the rest of the
distance,
i.e. 0.3x.
Time = distance / speed
Or 0.7x/4 = 0.3x/4 + ½
Or 0.4x/4= ½
Or x= 5 km

Hence, option(a) is correct.

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52 Mr. Punctual drives to his office situated 60 kmfrom his residence. Though he always reachesoffice
on time, one day his car developed aglitch which reduced its speed by 20%, whichmade him late by
10 minutes. What is the
normal speed of his car?

A. 60 Km/hr
B. 90 Km/hr
C. 120 Km/hr
D. 80 Km/hr

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

The speed gets reduced by 20%. Hence, the time taken to reach office will increase by 25%. As
13increase in the
thedistance is speed*time and is constant, if the speed is decreased the time should
7
sameproportion. (0.8 x 1.25 = 1)
2 52
Now, 25% increase in time is equivalent to 10 minutes. Hence, 100% is 38equivalent to 40 minutes.
- 86
Hence, his original speed = Total distance/Original time = 60/40
o m = 1.5 Km/minute = 90 Km/hr
Hence, option(b) is correct. a il.c
@ gm
5
60 its capacity. After that one of the taps isclosed. How
53 Two taps take 12 hours to fill a tank upto280%of
much more time will the other taptake
7 51to fill the tank completely?
- mr
A. 3 hours
B. 4 hours R oy
y
C. 8 hoursnjo
D. 6 r it u
hours
M
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

It takes 12 hours for a couple of taps to fill a tank upto 80% of its capacity.
Hence, time taken to fill the tank fully = (12/80) × 100 = 15 hours.

So it takes 3 more hours to fill in the tank. However, if one of the tap is closed, it must take double
thattime, i.e., 6 hours to fill up the tank upto the rim.

Hence, option(d) is correct.

54 If Milkha runs 1600 m in 10 minutes and PTUsha runs 600 m in 5 minutes at a uniformspeed, then
what is the ratio of the distances
that they travel in one minute?

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A. 4:3
B. 3:4
C. 3:2
D. 5:4

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Speed of Milkha = Distance/time = 1600/10 = 160 m/minute


Similarly, speed of PT Usha = 600/5 = 120 m/minute
Ratio of distances run by them in the same time will be the same as the ratio of their speeds.
So the required ratio = 160/120 = 4:3.

Hence, option(a) is correct.


1 3
27
5 he gains 6%. What
55 A shopkeepers sells an article at 12.5% loss. If he sells itfor Rs. 92.50 more,2then
8
is the cost price ofthe article ? 63
-8
o m
il.c
A. Rs. 510

ma
B. Rs. 500
C. Rs. 575
@ g
D. Rs. 600 0 5
126
5
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B m r7
-
oy
y R:
Answer Justification
u njo
r it (S.P.) = Rs100 – Rs12.5 = Rs. 87.5
Selling Price
M 6% gain = Rs106
S.P. after
Difference = Rs.18.5
Therefore, Cost Price (C.P.) = (92.5/18.5) x 100 = Rs.500

Hence, option(b) is correct.

56 If Rahul played 25 singles badminton matchesand won 17 out of these. If there were no tiedor drawn
matches, then what is the ratio ofthe number of matches won by Rahul to thenumber of matches he
lost?

A. 25:17
B. 17:25
C. 8:17
D. 17:8

Your Answer :

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Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Total matches played = 25

Matches won = 17

Therefore, Matches lost = 25 – 17 = 8


Required Ratio = Matches won : Matches lost = 17 : 8
Hence, option (d) is correct.

57 Ten days ago, price of gold was Rs 21,000 per10 gms. Due to a slump in the market lastweek, the
price of gold decreases by 10%.What shall be the cost of 50 gm gold now?

A. Rs. 2,100
1 3
27
B. Rs 18,900
C. Rs. 1,05,000 2 5
D. Rs. 94,500 6 38
-8
Your Answer : o m
Correct Answer : D il.c
gma
Answer Justification : 5 @
0
Original price of 10 gms of gold = 5 1 21,000.
Rs.
26
Reduction in price = 10% of m
7
r = (10/100) × 21000 = Rs 2,100.
21000
-
y = Rs. 21000 – Rs 2100 = Rs 18,900.
New price of 10 gms of gold
o
R = Rs 18900 × (50 /10) = Rs. 94,500
So, cost of 50 gm gold
oyis the correct answer.
Hence, option j(d)
n
rit u
M
58 Rs. 4,536 is divided among 4 men, 5 womenand 2 boys. The ratio of share of a man, awoman and a
boy is 7 : 4 : 3. What is the shareof one woman?

A. Rs. 336
B. Rs. 498
C. Rs. 166
D. Rs. 256

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Let the share of a man, a woman and a boy be 7x, 4x and 3x respectively.
Then the share of 4 men = 4 × 7x = 28x
The share of 5 women = 5 × 4x = 20x

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And, the share of 2 boys = 2 × 3x = 6x


Now, Total money = 28x + 20x + 6x = 4536
Or 54x = 4536
Or x = 4536/54 = 84
Hence, the share of one woman = 4x = 4 × 84 = Rs 336

Hence, option(a) is correct.

59 A group of 1200 persons consisting of danceteachers and dancers are travelling in a train.For every
15 dancers there is one danceteacher. Find the number of dance teachers inthe group.

A. 85
B. 80
C. 75
D. 70

1 3
Your Answer :
5 27
2
38
Correct Answer : C
6
Answer Justification : -8
.c om
a il
Clearly, out of every 16 persons, there is one dance teacher.
So, the number of dance teachers = 1200/16=75gm
0 5@
Thus, 75 is the required answer.
1 26
r 75
-m
Hence, option (c) is the correct.
y
y Ro
60 Today is Gandhi'sjobirthday. One year fromtoday he will be twice as old as he was 12years ago. How
old is Gandhi u n
today?
r it
M
A. 20 years
B. 22 years
C. 25 years
D. None of these

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Let Gandhi's age today = x years.


Then, Gandhi's age after 1 year = (x + 1) years.
According to the question,x + 1 = 2 (x - 12) x + 1 = 2x - 24 x = 25.
Hence, option (c) is the correct.

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61 A neutron is released into a uranium rod. Itdissipates after breaking a uranium nucleusand produces
two neutrons and the processcontinues. If any neutron takes exactly 1second to find and break a
nucleus, how many
nucleuses are broken in 6 seconds?

A. 63
B. 31
C. 30
D. 62

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The neutrons produced and the nucleus broken, both will be in geometric progression. In the
1stsecond
7 13
523 rd second, eight in
one nucleus is broken, two nucleus are broken in the 2 nd second, four in the
2
the 4th
6 38
second, sixteen in the 5th second and thirty two in the 6th second.8
Hence, total number of nucleuses broken in 6 seconds = 1 +m
-
2 + 4 + 8 + 16 + 32 = 63.
.c o
Hence, option(c) is correct. ail
@ gm
0 5
26aclock between 5:15 AM and 5:45 PM?
62 Find the angle traced by the hour hand of
1
5
A. 15° m r7
-
B. 375° oy
C. 195°
j oyR
n
it u
D. 60°

M r
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

It is known that the hour hand traces 360° in 12 hours.


So, Angle covered by hour hand in 1 hour = 360/12 = 30°.
Angle traced in half an hour = 15°
The time-period 5:15 AM to 5:45 PM is half hour more than 12 hours.

Hence, option(b) is correct.

63 A shopkeeper had 750 kg of rice. He sold aportion of it at a certain profit percentage. Theremaining
2/5th part of the whole lot wasinfested by pests and had to be sold at a loss of15%. If for the entire 750
kg rice, theshopkeeper had no profit no loss, then whatwas the profit percentage at which the first
part of rice was sold?

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A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 10%
D. Cannot be determined

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Let’s assume the cost price of rice be Rs. 100 per kg.

Therefore, total cost price = Quantity of Rice × Price per kg = 750 × 100 = Rs. 75,000.
It is given that, the remaining part is 2/5 th of the total and was sold at 15% loss. Thus, the first part
is3/5th of the total.

Let us assume that 3/5th part is sold at x% profit.


1 3
7
Therefore, Net profit on this part = 3/5 × 75000 × x/100 = Rs. 450x.
2 52
38 on 3/5th part must be
Net loss on 2/5th part = 2/5 × 75000 × 15/100 = Rs. 4,500.
6
-8
According to the question, there is no net profit or loss. So, the profit made
equalto the loss made on 2/5th part.
o m
il.c
Therefore, 450x = 4500. gma
5 @
Or x = 10%
0
126
5
r7
Hence, option(c) is correct.

y -m
Ro 2 (two) questions.
64 Directions for the following
y
Read the information
n o given below and answerfollowing two questions.
jred,
A bag contains
i t u 4 4 green and 4 blue balls.
Two balls rare drawn at random without replacement.
M
Q. What is the probability that none of the ballsdrawn is green?

A. 7/18
B. 14/33
C. 7/36
D. 2/3

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Total non-green balls = 8; hence chance of getting one in first draw = 8/12
After first successful draw, non-green balls = 7, also total balls is now 11
Hence, probability of getting non green = 7/11
Final probability = 8/12 × 7/11 = 14/33

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Hence, option(b) is correct.

65 What is the probability that one ball is blueand other green?

A. 1/9
B. 4/33
C. 14/33
D. 8/33

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Blue balls = 4, green balls = 4


Probability = 2 × 4/12 × 4/11 = 8/33 (multiplied by 2 as there are two possibilities3
7 1 – green ball 1st
andblue ball 1st) 2 5
2
Hence, option(d) is correct. 6 38
-8
.c om
ilhis marks in English. If he gets atotal of
66 One third of Ramesh’s marks in Arithmetic isequal to half
150 marks in both the subjects, howmany marks hasm heagot in English?
@ g
6 05
12
A. 60
B. 120 5
C. 30 m r7
D. 50
o y-
j oyR
Your Answer n :A
i t u
Correct Answer :A
M r
Answer Justification :

Let the marks obtained in Arithmetic and English be x and y respectively.


According to the given condition,

1/3 *x = y/2

==> 2x – 3y = 0 ….(i)

==>x+y= 150….(ii)

From (i) and (ii) we get,


y= 60.
Thus, the number of marks obtained in English = 60
Hence, option (a) is the correct.

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67 It is known that the HCF of two numbers, x andy is 1. Which of the following statement isdefinitely
false?

A. One of the numbers is even while theother is odd.


B. Both the numbers x and y are odd.
C. Both the numbers x and y are even.
D. At least one of the numbers, either x or y,is prime.

Your Answer : D
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Let’s analyse all the options:

Option (a): It is possible that HCF is 1 when one number is even and other is odd. E.g. Let 6 and 5
7 13
aretwo numbers which are even and odd respectively and the HCF of these two numbers is 1.
Hence, thisstatement may be true. 5 2
8 2
63
Option (b): It is possible that HCF is 1 when both numbers are odd.8E.g. Let 7 and 9 are the two
numberswhich are odd and the HCF of these two numbers ism
-
1. Hence, this statement may be true
o
too. l.c
ai
m
g one of two numbers, i.e. x and y, is prime. E.g.
Option (d): It is possible that HCF is 1 when at least
Let 5and 12 are two numbers and HCF of 0
@
5 two numbers is 1. Hence, this may also be true.
these
6
5 12
Option (c): When both the numbers
r 7 are even, 2 is definitely a common factor. Hence, this statement
isdefinitely false.
y -m
o
Hence, option (c)yisRthe correct.

u njo
rit
M weight of a class of 20 students is45 kgs. A new student, whose weight is 40
68 The average
kgs,replaces an old student of this class. Hence,the average weight of the whole classdecreases by 1
kg. The weight of the replaced
student is:

A. 55 kgs
B. 50 kgs
C. 60 kgs
D. None of these

Your Answer : C
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Initially the total weight of class = 20 x 45 = 900 kgs


Now, the total weight when a student has been replaced = 20 x 44 = 880 kgs.

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It means that the weight of the new student is 20 kgs less than the replaced student. Hence, the
weightof the replaced student = 40 + 20 = 60 kgs.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

69 A shopkeeper sells 100 pens and in the processgains the selling price of 40 pens. What is theprofit
percentage?

A. 40%
B. 66.67%
C. 33.33%
D. Cannot be determined

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

1 3
Answer Justification :
5 27
2
Let the selling price of one pen be = S 6 38
Thus, selling price of 100 pens is 100S -8
c
It is given that; profit is equal to selling price of 40 pens (40
. om
S)
Thus, cost price of 100 pens is (100 S- 40 S= 60 S) ai l
Thus, on cost price of 60 S profit is 40 S
@ gm
Thus, profit percent = (40S/60S) X 100= 66.67% 5 0
6
Hence, option (b) is correct. 5 12
7
- mr
70 Pointing to a man in a R o y
photograph a womansays, “He is the father of my only daughter-inlaw’s father-
j y
in-law”. How is theoman related tothe woman?
n
ri tu
A.MFather
B. Brother
C. Husband
D. Father- in -law

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Woman’s daughter-in-law’s father-in-law implies woman’s husband.

Again, the father of the woman’s husband implies woman’s father-in-law.

Hence, the man is woman’s father-in-law

Hence, option(d) is correct.

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71 The age of Abhay is twice that of Dolly. The ageof Shyam is 10 years more than that of Akash.Akash is
5 years older than Dolly. If thecombined age of all the four is 70 years, whatis the ratio of the age of
Abhay and Akash?

A. 3:4
B. 1:1
C. 2:3
D. 4:3

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Let the age of Dolly be x. Then age of Abhay is 2x. Age of Akash is x+5 and that of Shyam is x+15.
Therefore, x+ 2x+ x+5+ x+15 =70. Solving, we get x= 10.
7 13
52 of the age of Abhay
So, the age of Abhay is 20 years and that of Akash is 15 years. Hence, the ratio
2
tothat of Akash is 20 : 15 i.e. 4:3.
6 38
Hence, option(d) is correct. -8
.c om
a il
72 There are 256 girls and 192 boys in a school,having
@ gmseparate classes for girls and boys. Findthe

05
minimum possible total number of classes,if each class in the school has the samenumber of
students? 6
5 12
A. 9 m r7
B. 10
o y-
C. 7
j oyR
un
D. 6
i t
Mr
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

The number of classes will be minimum, if the number of students in each class is the highest
possible.
Now, 256 = 2^8 and 192 = 2^6 * 3
Hence, the HCF of the above two numbers is 2^6 = 64.
Hence, the minimum possible total number of classes = 256/64 + 192/64 = 4 + 3 = 7.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

73 In a competition, four ladies step off together.Their steps measure 36 cm, 48 cm, 21 cm and28 cm
respectively. What is the minimumdistance each should walk so that all can coverthe same distance
in complete steps?
#118921

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A. 1008 cm
B. 1080 cm
C. 1880 cm
D. 1800 cm

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The distance walked by each of them is same as well as minimum possible to ensure that everyone
hastaken complete steps. The ‘minimum’ word in the question indicates that we need to find the
leastcommon multiple (LCM).
The LCM of 36 cm, 48 cm, 21 cm and 28 cm = 1008 cm.
So, the required minimum distance = 1008 cm.

Hence, option(a) is correct. 1 3


27
8 25
74 In a group of 130 husbands, 70 can make tea and 50 can make both tea
8 63and coffee. If everyhusband
-
can make at least one drink out of teaand coffee, then how many husbands canmake only tea and only
m
.co
coffee respectively?
i l
A. 60 and 20 respectively gma
B. 20 and 60 respectively
0 5@
C. 20 and 40 respectively
1 26
D. 30 and 50 respectively
r 75
y -m
Ro
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B y
u njo
it
AnswerrJustification :
M
Let T and C be the number of husbands who can make tea and coffee respectively.
Now, T = 70, T Ո C= 50 and T U C= 130
T U C = T + C – (T Ո C)
130= 70+ C – 50
C= 110
Husbands who can make only tea= T – (T Ո C) = 70- 50= 20
Husbands who can make only coffee= C – (T Ո C) = 110- 50= 60

Hence, option(b) is correct.

75 Ms. Cigy was to earn Rs.300 and a mementofor seven weeks’ work. However, she workedfor only 4
weeks and ended up earning Rs.30and a memento. What is the value of thememento?

A. Rs. 420
B. Rs. 330

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C. Rs. 240
D. Rs. 470

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Let the value of the memento be Rs. x.


Then, pay for seven weeks’ work = Rs. 300 + x.
Pay for one week’s work = Rs. (300+x)/7

So, pay for four week’s work = Rs. [(300+x)/7] *4 ..(i)


Now, this is equivalent to Rs. 30 + x. ..(ii)
Equating (i) and (ii)
=>[(300+x)/7] *4 = (30+x)
=> 4x + 1200 = 7x + 210 1 3
=> 3x = 990 5 27
2
=> x = Rs. 330
6 38
Hence , option (b) is correct.
-8
.c om
a
76 If 6th day of August is Saturday, then what willbe the dayilon 4th day from 21 st of the nextmonth?
@ gm
A. Saturday
6 05
B. Tuesday
5 12
C. Sunday
m r7
y-
D. Monday
R o
Your Answer : oy
j
i t un : C
Correct Answer

Mr
Answer Justification :

August has 31 days.


4th day from 21st of next month means 25th September.
Number of days from 6th August to 25th September = (31-6) + 25 = 50 days
Number of odd days= 1 day (7 weeks + 1 day)
Means it will be Sunday on 25th September.

Hence, option(c) is correct.

77 A typewriter types 500 letters in a min. Aftertyping every page, he takes 30 seconds tochange the
page. If one page contains 300letters, then how many pages does he type in11 min?

A. 9
B. 10
C. 11

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D. 12

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

The typewriter can type 500 letters in 60 seconds.


∴ Speed of typing = 500/60 = 25/3 letters per sec
He takes 30 seconds to change the page.
∴Total time in typing one page plus changing the page = 300/(25/3) + 30 = 36 + 30 = 66 sec
∴In 11 min, i.e. 660 seconds, the number of pages he can type = 660/66 = 10 pages
It is important to note that after typing the 10thpage, when Amit changes the page, 11 min gets
over (i.e. just before he startstyping the 11th page).

Hence, option(b) is correct.


1 3
27
25 7th fromthe left
78 In a row of 16 boys, when Parvez was shiftedby two places towards left, he became
8
end. What was his earlier position fromthe right end of the row? 3 6
-8
A. 7th o m
il.c
ma
B. 8th
C. 9th
@ g
D. 10th
0 5
126
5
Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B m r7
-
oy
y R:
Answer Justification
u njo
rit of boys in a row = 16.
Total number
As weM know, when Parvez was shifted by two places towards left, he became 7th from the left end.
So, his original position from the left end = 9th
Position from the right end = 16 – 9 + 1= 8th
Hence, option (b) is the correct.

79 A started a business with a capital of 10,000rupees and four months later B joined himwith a capital
of Rs 5000. How much A getsmore than B in the profit, if the total profit atthe end of the year is Rs
2000.

A. Rs 1500
B. Rs 1000
C. Rs 500
D. Rs 666.67

Your Answer :
Correct Answer : B

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Answer Justification :

The ratio of the profits will be according to their investment X duration


Ratio of profits of A to B = 10000*12/5000*8
=> Ratio = 3:1
Total profit = 2000
Hence, profit of A = 1500
Profit of B = 500

Therefore, profit of A is Rs. 1000 more than profit of B.

Hence, option(b) is correct.

80 A zoo consists of only Tigers and Lions. The number of tigers in a zoo is three times thenumber of
lions. Which one of the followingnumbers cannot represent the total number ofanimals in the zoo?

1 3
27
A. 48
B. 42 2 5
C. 44 6 38
D. 40 -8
o m
Your Answer : B il.c
Correct Answer : B gma
5 @
0
Answer Justification :
126
5
Let the number of lions = x m r7
We know that the number - tigers in a zoo is three times the number of lions. Hence, the number
y of
o
oftigers = 3x.
Then, x + 3x = j4xoy= R
total number of animals.
u n
Here,M
r t number of animals is a number that must be divisible by 4.
Thus the itotal
42 is the only number which is not divisible by 4.
Hence, option (b) is the correct.

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