INDEX

1. HEALTH
2. NATURAL RESOURCES
3. HAZARDS
4. FRONTIER OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
5. ENVIRONMENT
6. EXPERIENTAL LEARNING
 PISA 2021
Ms. Ravinder Kaur Principal, Govt. Model Sr. Sec. School, Sector 35 D, Chandigarh

Ms. Anuja Sharma Principal, D.A.V. Model School, Sector- 15 A, Chandigarh

COMPLIED AND EDITED BY D.A.V. MODEL SCHOOL SECTOR- 15 A, CHANDIGARH
HEALTH
 H1. CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions which follows:

The circulatory system consists of three independent systems that work together: the heart
(cardiovascular), lungs (pulmonary), and arteries, veins, coronary and portal vessels (systemic).
The system is responsible for the flow of blood, nutrients, oxygen and other gases, and as well as
hormones to and from cells.

Q.1 Which type of blood vessels carries blood away from the heart?
Veins
Arteries
Capillaries
Arteries, veins and capillaries

Q.2 When oxygen-rich blood leaves the lungs for the heart, it enters the heart through the pulmonary vein
into the __________________
left ventricle
right atrium
right ventricle
left atrium
None of these

Q.3 Use the diagram of the heart given below to answer the given questions:
 Which part of the heart has the thickest walls?
A. Right ventricle
B. Left atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Right atrium

Q.4 The blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the right side of the heart is called
the__________________.

Pulmonary vein
aorta
pulmonary artery
vena cava(e)
Q.5 Which one of the following describes a vein?
It has thin walls and carries oxygenated blood away from the heart.
It has thick walls with valves and carries blood under pressure.
It has a very thin wall with valves and carries blood under pressure.
It has thin walls with valves, and carries blood to the heart.

Q.6 Complete the table below by listing a part of the circulatory system and the pathway the
blood takes. One item has been completed to help you.

Part of circulatory system Pathway

1. Pulmonary artery Takes deoxygenated blood out of the heart.

2.Aorta

3. Right ventricle

Answer Key
1. Full credit
Score 1: B. Arteries
Score 0: Other responses
2. Full credit
Score 1: D. Left Atrium
Score 0: Other responses_______
3.Full credit
Score 1: C. Left ventricle
Score 0: Other responses
Q 4 Full credit
Score 1: D. vena cava(e)
Score 0: Other responses

Q 5 Full credit
Score 1: D. It has thin walls with valves, and carries blood to the heart
Score 0: Other responses

Q 6 Full credit
Score 1: Takes oxygenated blood away from the heart to the body.
Score 1: Pumps blood out of the heart to the pulmonary artery.
Score 2: for writing both the statements correctly.
Score 0: Other responses
 H2. THE AGE OF ADOLESCENCE
Age %age of full height
In years Boys Girls
8 72% 77%
9 75% 81%
10 78% 84%
11 81% 88%
12 84% 91%
13 88% 95%
14 92% 98%
15 95% 99%
16 98% 99.5%
17 99% 100%
18 100% 100%

Calculation for full height (in cm) = Present height (cm) x 100
%age of full height at this age

Q1. The maximum growth in girls shown above data

(a) 8-9 years (b)10-11 years (c)12-13 years (d) All of these
Q2. A boy is 10 years old and 125 cm tall. At the end of the growth period he is likely to be
Q3. In which age girls & boys attained full height?

Q4. By using data calculate the full height of a boy & a girl (both are 12 years old and having
the height 130cm).
Q5. How much do you agree the following statement pick only one box in each row?
 Strongly agree disagree Strongly
agree disagree
a. Height depends on the genes
inherited from parents
b. Height depends only on balance diet

c. We can enhance our height by doing

physical exercise

Answer Key
1. Full credit for option (d).
2. 160.2cm
3. Full height at the age of - 18 years.
4. (1) Full height of a boyis-154.7cm.
(2) Full height of a girl is -142.8cm.
 H3. Computer Vision Syndrome (CVS)
Source:https://www.rebuildyourvision.com

CVS (sometimes referred to as digital eye strain) describes vision problems that are caused by
too much time spent on a computer, tablet, smart phone, or any other digital device.
Don‟t think that office workers (or desk jockeys) are the only people affected by CVS. If you
have a digital device, you‟re also prone to CVS. If you‟re living in the 21 st century, chances are
you have at the very least one digital device (younger people tend to have multiple). There‟s no
doubt that digital devices are the main cause, but CVS can actually be caused by a number of
screen-related issues.

The first is blue light. Most screens emit blue light, which is a light that is quite disagreeable.
Our eyes filter out most natural blue light, but when it comes to screens where the light is much
more concentrated, our eyes have a harder time filtering.

Another cause is the worsening of an existing vision problem. Sometimes screens can worsen
undiagnosed vision problems.

CVS can also be caused by the size of the writing on screens. Unlike the letters on a physical
page, the letters on a screen are not well defined (though it may look like they are) and cause our
eye to have to focus more in order to read the letters. Aside from that, font sizes are often too
small causing even more strain.

1. Out of Myopia and Hypermetropia, which is more common in children?

2. Can reading an e-book be more taxing for your eye as compared to a regular physical book?
Give reason for your answer.

3. Keeping in view the advantages of the internet, it is not possible for anyone to keep away from
digital devices. Suggest any three ways in which CVS can be avoided or minimized.

4. Give your response on the basis of your observation given below

S.No. Observation Strongly Strongly Partially Partially

agree (a) disagree(b) agree( c) Disagree(d)
1. Reading books in poor light
conditions can cause CVS
2. Mobile phones are more
responsible for CVS than movie
screens.
3. Computer operators must
undertake short breaks at regular
intervals.
4. A person wearing spectacles is
protected. He/she has no risk of
CVS.
Answer Key:

1. Myopia (2 marks)

2. Yes. Prolonged exposure to screen will put stress on eyes due to blue light.
Many Font sizes are either too small or poorly formed putting more strain on the eyes.
(both points – 2; any one point-1 mark)

3. a) Limit screen time.

b) take breaks to exercise/ Avoid prolonged use.
c) Use good quality screen guards.
d) Go for regular checkups.
(any 2 methods -including any other valid point- 2 marks, 1 valid suggestion- 1 mark,)
4. 1 b, 2a, 3a, 4b ( any 3 correct – 2marks, 2 or 1 correct- 1 mark, none correct- 0)
 H4. Defects of Vision
(Source: http://www.opticalmasters.com)

1. Name the part of the eye that functions as the screen.

2. Sarah has been diagnosed with a defect of vision. Do you think there may be a change in the
size of her eyeballs? What are the possibilities?
3. Considering that Rohan is advised to wear concave lens, how has the converging power of his
eyelens changed?
4. Tina is not able to read the text written on the blackboard from the last seat of her classroom.
Assuming that the board is around 6m from her, find the power of the lens she must wear to
restore proper vision.

Answer Key:
1. Retina
2. In myopia, eyeball elongates. In hyperopia, eyeball shortens.
3. Converging power of lens as increased.
4. -0.16 D
 H5. Evolution of Vertebrate Heart

Q1 Name the organism which is having single circulation?

a) Fishes b) Frogs c) Crow and d) Dogs
Q2 What is systemic and pulmonary circulation?
Q3 Arteries normally carry oxygenated blood. Name an artery which carries de-oxygenated
blood.
Q4 Veins and arteries connected through:
a) Joints
b) Nerves
c) Muscles
d) Capillaries
Q5 Find the correct/incorrect answer for the following
a) Fishes have venous hearts
b) Amphibians and reptiles have oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood separate from each
other.
c) Mammals have two auricles and one ventricle.
d) Birds and mammals have double circulation and complete separation of oxy and de-
oxygenated blood.

Answer Key
1. a
3. Pulmonary Artery
4. d
5. Correct, Incorrect, Correct, Correct
 H6. Inheritance (Mandel's Law)

Q1. Name the contrasting characters used for the height of the stem.
a) Tall
b) Dwarf/Tall
c) Intermediate
d) Short
Q2. A red colored flower is crossed with white flower. Mention the color which would appear in
F1 generation and why?
Q3.Can we compare Mendel's factor with the present day genes or not?
Q4. Name the various contrasting characters depicted above in the picture
Q5. Answer the following in either Yes or No.
a) A dominant character will appear in homozygous and heterozygous condition.
b) A recessive character will always appear in heterozygous condition.
c) Phenotypic ratio of monohybrid crosses is 3:1.

Answer Key
1. b
2. Red will appear in F1 as it is dominant.
3. Yes
4. Height, colour, etc.
5. Yes, No, Yes
 H7. Malaria

Malaria is world‟s major infectious disease. There are about a hundred million cases of malaria
each year & more than two million die of the disease. It is caused by a parasite known as
plasmodium which is carried by the female anopheles mosquito. When the infected mosquito
bites a person , the parasite enters, the blood stream and quickly invades the liver. It goes to
RBCs and multiply quickly. Symptoms include repeated attacks of shaking, high fever,
headache and profuse perspiration. Mosquitoes also cause Dengue fever, another dangerous
disease that have claimed many lives in the past few years. Mosquitoes need stagnant water to
lay and develop eggs. Water left standing in roof gutters, flower vase, drains, water coolers serve
as ideal breeding grounds for them.

1.Name the causative parasite and carrier of Malaria.

2.Which is the first site of attack of parasite in human body?

3. As an individual, what preventive measures you can take to decrease the incidence of Malaria
in your locality?

4.Study the graph and answer. In which month should a child be administered Malaria vaccine?

5. What are the Conditions for max growth of mosquitoes?

6. Why the number of Malaria cases steeply increase in Aug – Nov months?

Answer Key

1. Plasmodium, female anopheles mosquito – (score 2) Plasmodium, mosquito –

(score 1)

Any other answer -- (score 0)

2. Liver – ( score 2)

Bloodstream – (score (1)

Any other answer – (score 0)

3.

1. Eradicate breeding ground of mosquito

2. Use mosquito repellants

3. Use of mesh nets

Any 2 correct points – (Score 2)

4.August/September – (Score 2)

July-October - (Score 1)

Any Other answer – (Score 0)

5.Optimum Temperature & high humidity –– (score 2)

One factor – (Score 1)

Any other Answer (Score 0)

6. Breeding ground of mosquitoes, ____ conditions – (Score 2)

Any other answer – (Score 0)

 H8. Nutrition in Plants
To test whether chlorophyll is important for photosynthesis, a variegated leaf is tested for the
presence of starch. Only the part having chlorophyll shows positive starch test. For testing the
presence of sunlight for photosynthesis, a destarched potted plant's, part of a leaf is covered with
black paper , exposed to sunlight and is then tested for the presence of starch. Only the part that
is exposed to sunlight tests positive for starch test. The diagram shows a destarched, variegated
leaf, partly covered by black paper. The plant is placed in bright light for several hours. Four
discs are then cut from the leaf in the positions shown and are tested for starch.

Q1. Which reagent is used for starch test?

i. benedict's solution

ii. iodine solution

iii. copper sulphate solution

iv sodium hydroxide solution

Q2. Which disc will show the presence of starch?

Q3. Name the discs which will not show positive starch test. Give reasons for each case.

Q4. How would your result vary if the black strip is removed?

Answer Key

1. Score:

 1 mark if the answer is ii

 zero if the answer is either i, iii or iv
2. Score:
 1 mark if the answer is 2

Zero if the answer is 1, 3 or 4

3. Score:
  3 marks if the answer is 1, 3 and 4 (part 1-sunlight present and chlorophyll absent; part 3-
Sunlight and chlorophyll both are present; Part 4- chlorophyll present and sunlight
absent)
 2 marks if the answer is 1 and 3 or 3 and 4 or 1 and 4
 1 mark if the answer is 1 or 3 or 4
 zero if the answer is 2
4. Score:
 2 marks for writing 2 and 4 will test positive for iodine test as they are green and possess
chlorophyll while 1 and 3 don't possess chlorophyll, so they will test negative for starch
test.
 1 mark for writing 2 and 4 will show positive iodine test.
 1 mark for writing 1 and 3 show negative starch test.
 zero if the answer is 1 and 2 or 3 and 4.
 H9. Concentration of carbon dioxide in a solution
Refer to the given experimental set-ups I, II, III and IV. Bicarbonate indicator was added to all of
these set ups and change in colour was observed after a duration of 3 hours.

Bicarbonate indicator (red in colour) is used to estimate the concentration of carbon dioxide in a
solution. The indicator

remains red, if there is no change in carbon dioxide concentration.

turns purple, If there is decrease in carbon dioxide concentration.

turns yellow, if there is an increase in carbon dioxide concentration.

Set up I Set up II
Fish and water plant in dark room Water plant in sunlight

Set up III Set up IV

Fish and water plant in sunlight Water plant in dark

Q1. Write your observations regarding concentration of carbon dioxide and colour of bicarbonate
indicator in all the four set ups.

Q2. Arrange the four set ups in decreasing order of carbon dioxide concentration.
Answer Key

1.

Score:

 4 marks if the answer is dark yellow in set up I and light yellow in set up IV
red in set up III and purple in set up II.
 3 marks if the answer is yellow in set up I and yellow in set up IV
red in set up III and purple in set up II. (exact colour not mentioned)
 2 marks if the answer is is correctly attempted for any 2 set ups.
 1 mark if the answer is correctly attempted for any 1 set up.
 Zero if none of the answers is correct.
2.

Score:

 2 marks if the answer is Set up: I > IV > II > III

 1 mark if the answer is Set up: I > IV < II > III or I < IV > II > III or I > IV > II < III
 Zero if the order is I < IV < II < III or any other jumbled form.
 H10. White Button Mushroom
Mushrooms are packed with nutritional value. They're low in calories, are great sources of fibre
and protein (good for plant-based diets). They also provide many important nutrients, including
B vitamins, selenium, potassium, copper, and (particularly when exposed to the sun) vitamin D.

Characteristics: The most common and mildest-tasting mushroom around. Ninety percent of the
mushrooms we eat are this variety. Less intensely flavoured than many of its more exotic kin, it
can be eaten either raw or cooked, and works well in soups and salads, and on pizzas.

Q1. Are mushrooms good in cleaning our intestines? Give reason.

Q2. How is the flavour of white button mushrooms?

i. strong flavor ii. moderate flavour iii. light flavor iv. Tasteless

Q3. How much calories do you think the white button mushrooms provide?
i. 54 cal per 100 gm ii. 34 cal per 100 gm iii. 22 cal per 100 gm iv. 80 cal per 100 gm

Q4. How do mushrooms reproduce?

Q5. Which type of heterotroph is it?

i. A parasite ii. A saprotroph iii. A symbiont iv. An insectivore

Answer key

1.
Yes, they are great source of fibre.

2.
iii. Light flavor

3.
iii. 22 cal per 100 gm

4.
They reproduce through spores.

5.
ii. A saprotroph.
 H11. Lichens
Lichens are a complex life form that is a symbiotic partnership of two separate organisms, a
fungus and an alga. The dominant partner is the fungus, which gives the lichen the majority of its
characteristics, from its thallus shape to its fruiting bodies. The alga can be either a green alga or
a blue-green alga, otherwise known as cyanobacteria. Many lichens will have both types of
algae.

Q1.Which of the following is true for lichens?

i. Because lichens do not have a waxy cuticle like plants, they cannot conserve water during
drought periods. (Agree/Disagree)
ii. Lichens need not require clean, fresh air to survive. (Agree/Disagree)
iii. Similar to plants, all lichens photosynthesize. (Agree/Disagree)
iv. Lichen grow on many kinds of surfaces including trees, soil and rocks.(Agree/Disagree)
v. Lichens can have association with more than two alga. (Agree/Disagree)

Q2. Are lichens parasitic on the trees they are found on? (Yes/No)

Q3. Can you think of any other symbiotic relationship in nature, besides lichens.

Q4. Why aren't lichens found in crowded places?

Answer Key
Q2. No
Q3. Rhizobia with roots of leguminous plants/ Mycorrhiza with roots of higher plants.
Q4. Because of pollution
 H12. Nitrogen Fixation
Nitrogen is an essential nutrient for plant growth. But farmers who cultivate pulse crops
like green gram, bengal gram, black gram, etc. do not apply nitrogenous fertilizers during
cultivation. Infact swollen structures can be seen in their roots. The legume looks healthy in
presence of these structures and shows no symptoms of any disease. The soil too gets
enriched after legume cultivation.

Q1. What must be these swollen structures?

Q2. There is no need to apply urea on legumes.(Agree/Disagree)
Q3. Comment on how these structures/organisms might be helpful to the legumes.
i . Colonies of Rhizobia fix nitrogen into nitrates. (YES/NO)
ii. Colonies of Rhizobia fix nitrates into ammonia.(YES/NO)
iii. Colonies of Rhizobia make food for the legumes.(YES/NO)
iv.Colonies of Rhizobia make water available for legumes to photosynthesise.(YES/NO)
Q4. Do you think such relationships are successful? (YES/NO)

Answer Key
1. Nodules
2. Agree
4. Yes, such symbiotic relationships mutually benefit to both the organisms.
 H13. Indigestion
Rohan's grandmother was facing problems of indigestion. After diagnosis, it was detected that
her stomach was not secreting HCl and her liver was also not secreting proper digestive juices.
Doctor advised her to avoid certain types of food. Whenever she had lemonade, her digestion
improved. She started avoiding foodstuffs that would make her lazy.

Q1. Which type of foods do you think Rohan's grandmother should avoid?

Q2. Suggest some food items that Rohan's grandmother must take to treat her indigestion.

i. Yogurt, papaya, whole grains(AGREE/DISAGREE)

ii. bread, rice, banana(AGREE/DISAGREE)

iii. butter, cheese, milk(AGREE/DISAGREE)

iv. milk, sea food, fried foods

Q3. Which food will take longer time to get digested- carbohydrate rich or fat rich? Why?

The following graph shows undigested molecules of food:

Q4. Identify the parts of alimentary canal B,C,D and E.

Q5. What gets digested in the mouth?

Q6. Which food item takes longest time to get digested?

Q7. What would happen if part C is removed from the alimentary canal?

i. Carbohydrate digestion will be affected. (AGREE/DISAGREE)

ii. Fats digestion will be affected. (AGREE/DISAGREE)

iii. Protein digestion will be affected. (AGREE/DISAGREE)

 iv. carbohydrates and fats digestion will be affected.(AGREE/DISAGREE)

Answer Key
1. Protein and Fat rich food

2. 1 mark for option i; zero for any other.

3. Carbohydrates digestion begins in mouth; fats are complex and get digested in small intestine.

4. B- Oesophagus C- Stomach D- Small intestine E. Large intestine

4. 1 mark for writing Carbohydrates or starch

5. 1 mark for writing Fats

 H14. Ruminants

Ruminants are mammals that are able to acquire nutrients from plant-based food
by fermenting it in a specialized stomach prior to digestion, principally through microbial
actions. The process, which takes place in the front part of the digestive system and therefore is
called foregut fermentation, typically requires the fermented ingesta (known as cud) to be
regurgitated and chewed again. The process of rechewing the cud to further break down plant
matter and stimulate digestion is called rumination. The word "ruminant" comes from the
Latin ruminare, which means "to chew over again".
Q1. Identify the four stomachs.
Q2. Observe the above ruminant and write down the journey the food takes, in sequential order,
starting from the oesophagus.

Q3. Cellulase enzyme is absent in ruminants so how do you think they digest cellulose?

Q4. Where does actual digestion of fermented products take place?

Q5. When does fermentation in ruminants take place:

i. after digestion.( agree/disagree)

ii. before digestion( agree/disagree)

iii. does not take place (agree/disagree)

iv. occurs in the foregut(agree/disagree)

Answer Key
1. Ans. Rumen, reticulum, omasum and abomasums
2. Rumen, reticulum, omasum and abomasum, small intestine.

3. They chew their cud and digest cellulose by cellulose digesting bacteria present in their
intestines.

4. Abomasum

5. 2 marks for writing: ii. Before digestion and iv. Occurs in the foregut

1 mark for writing ii or iv.

0 for any other option besides ii or iv

 H15. Nutrition in plants

Q1. Name and define the process depicted here?

Q2. What is the principal source of energy input to biological systems?
a) Carbohydrates from plants.
b) Light from the sun.
c) Nutrients from the soil.
d) Oxygen from the air.
Q3. Which of the following statement is/are true about photosynthesis?
P - Carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis to take place.
Q - The products of photosynthesis are simple sugars.
R - Photosynthesis occurs in the green leaves of plants.
S - Sunlight is not used as an energy source by plants to make food during
photosynthesis.
a) P and Q only
b) Q, R and S only
c) P, Q and R only
d) P, Q, R and S
Q4. How does photosynthesis help to maintain the percentage of oxygen and carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere?
a) By giving off carbon dioxide and absorbing oxygen.
b) By giving off oxygen and absorbing carbon dioxide.
c) By releasing oxygen and carbon dioxide.
d) By absorbing oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Q5. Observe the diagram carefully.
a) Is there any process other than photosynthesis shown here?
b) Name and define it.
c) Write its importance.
Q6. After observing the diagram, make a correctly balanced equation for photosynthesis.
Q7. Schematically represent steps of photosynthesis.
Q8. For photosynthesis to occur green leaves are required. But photosynthesis occurs in plants
with non green leaves (croton plant) also. Do you agree or disagree? Justify.
Answer key
1. Photosynthesis, Definition
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. a) Translocation
b) Definition
c) Distribution of food

6.
7. Light energy trapped by chlorophyll
Chlorophyll gets activated
Water dissociates.
Light energy converted into chemical energy
Reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates
8. Yes, we agree.
Chlorophyll is present along with carotenoids and anthocyanin but is hidden under these
coloured pigments.
 H16. Health requires healthy food

Q1. Digestion starts as soon as you take the first bite of a meal. In fact the mouth is the beginning
of the digestive tract. Chewing breaks the food into pieces that are more easily digested,
while saliva mixes with food to begin the process of breaking it down into a form your body
can absorb and use.

Give one reason why chapatti tastes sweet on chewing but not eggs.

a) Because pepsin secreted in the mouth helps to convert starch into a sugar.
b) Because amylase secreted in the mouth helps to convert starch into maltose.
c) Because trypsin in the mouth does not act on eggs.
d) Because the palate in the buccal cavity has pores which secretes enzymes to convert
starch into sugar.
Q2. Being a teenager can be fun, but it can also be difficult as your body shape changes.
These physical changes can be hard to deal with if they aren‟t what you are
expecting. There can be pressure from friends to be or look a certain way, and this
might affect the foods you eat. It‟s not a good time to crash diet, as you won‟t get
enough nutrients, and you may not reach your full potential. Following a sensible,
well-balanced diet is a much better option, both for now and in the long term.

It is important to eat small but frequent meals for adolescents. Why?

Because metabolism rate is very high in adolescents. Yes/No

Rate of catabolism is low. Yes/No

Rate of anabolism is high. Yes/No

Q3. Refer to the diagram of the human digestive system below. What would be the likely
consequence of swapping S and T i.e. from the stomach food will pass through T to S?

a) The digestive enzymes would be denatured

b) The intestinal contents would be highly alkaline and would damage the wall of T.
c) The intestinal contents would be too dry and unable to pass through S properly.
d) Water absorption would be highly reduced.
 P
Q

Answer Key
1. B

2. Yes, No, Yes

3. C
 H17. Respiration
1. Which of the following correctly represents the passage of air through our body?
a) Nostrils -nasal passage - trachea - bronchi - bronchiole --alveoli
b) Nostrils - bronchiole - trachea - bronchi - nasal passage --alveoli
c) Bronchiole- Nostrils -nasal passage - trachea - bronchi - alveoli
d) Alveoli -nasal passage - trachea - bronchi - bronchiole -- nostrils

2. Represent the given data of composition of inhaled air and exhaled air as two pie charts:

3. Name the two organ systems from which the two reactants of the given equation are obtained:

i) Respiratory system, nervous system

ii) Digestive system , respiratory system
iii) Respiratory system, muscular system
iv) Digestive system , circulatory system

4. Study the graph of two students running a race carefully and answer the following questions:

i) Which student is most likely to be running faster?

ii) At what time did the race start?

iii) Who won the race?

iv) Why does the heart rate and breathing rate increase
on running?
v) At what time did student A and student B finish their
races?

5. Analyse the data given in the two pie charts:

 i) Compare the percentage of carbon dioxide in inhaled air with the percentage of carbon
dioxide in exhaled air.

ii) How can you account for the difference?

Answer Key:

1. a
3. ii)
4. i) Student A ii) 2 minutes iii) student B iv) Body‟s demand for oxygen increases during
running. v) Student A: 14 minutes Student B: 10 minutes
5. i) 0.03% : 4% ii) During oxidation of food carbon dioxide is released.
 H18. Respiration in insects
An insect body is covered with air holes called spiracles.

Air enters through these air holes on the body and finally reaches the trachea.

Trachea are a network of fine air tubes extending through out the body.

Trachea help in circulating the oxygen throughout the body.

The oxygen in the air diffuses into the tissues and is ultimately absorbed by the cells.

The carbon dioxide released by the cells is carried by the trachea and given out through the
spiracles.

Q.1 How does air enter the body of an insect?

Q. 2 What are trachea?

Q.3 Name the process by which air reaches the tissues.

Q.4 State two advantages of the tracheal system of respiration as seen in insects.

Answer Key
1. Through spiracles
2. Air tubes
3. By diffusion
4. 1.Simple gaseous exchange
2.During certain activities helps in maintaining high metabolic rate.
 H19. Circulatory system in Human
A) Blood flows continuously in the blood vessels in our body. Arteries carry oxygenated blood from
heart to the body part whereas veins carry deoxygenated blood from body parts to heart. Veins
have valve to prevent the backflow of blood.
Veins have valve that allow blood to flow in one direction only. Arteries do not have any valve
but blood still flows in one direction. Comment.
100
B) A person's blood oxygen level is an indicator of how well the body
distributes oxygen from the lungs to the cells, and it can be important for 75
people's health. A normal blood oxygen level varies between 75 and 100 50
millimeters of mercury (mm Hg). Different blood samples are collected 25
from different strata and the results are shown in the graph. As you can
see W and Z have low oxygen level in their blood. Explain with suitable reason.

C) In the given graph pulse rate is shown. Observe it

carefully and answer the questions.
1) What does it indicate? Give reason.
2) What difference will be observed if you measure
the heart rate of a smoker?
3) Is breathing good for heart?

D) 1) Name the only artery that carries CO2 rich blood.

2) Why is it called artery if it does not carry O2 rich blood?

3) Do this artery has valve?

E) (i) Blood pressure is higher in

a) Artery b) veins c) Same in both d) capillaries

(ii) The absorption of nutrients and exchange of respiratory gases between blood and tissues take
place in

a) Veins b) arteries c) heart d) capillaries

Activity 1:

Fill in the blanks by using just two words: Arteries and Veins.

______________ carry O2 rich blood from heart to all parts of our body and _____________ carry
CO2 rich blood from all body parts to heart. _________ have thin walls and _________ have
thick walls. Blood flows at high pressure in __________ . Valves are present in _______ which
allow blood to flow only towards heart. ___________ divide into small vessels. These vessels
 further divide into extremely thin tubes called capillaries. The capillaries join up to form
______________.

Activity 2: Fill the blanks in the picture below to show the circulation of the blood.

Answer Key
A) Arteries donot have valve because pressure from
heart is so strong that the blood is only able to flow in one direction and also if flows with
the force of gravity.

B) The oxygen level is less in the blood sample of W and Z probably due to less RBCs.

C) 1) It indicates that fit person has less pulse rate as compare to unfit person. It is because the
heart of an unfit person has to work harder during this process.

2) Smoker will have high heart rate.

3) Breathing is important for heart as oxygen is required for the functioning of cardiac
muscles as it has constant rhythmic motion.

D) 1) Pulmonary artery

2) Arteries carry blood away from heart. Pulmonary artery carries blood from heart to lungs
for purification.

3) Yes it has valve to prevent back flow of blood.

E) i) a) artery ii) d) capillaries

 H20. Excretory System
Every living organism generates waste in its body and has a mechanism to expel it. In humans,
waste generation and disposal are taken care of by the human excretory system. The human
excretory system comprises of a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder and urethra.
Along with this skin, lungs and liver also help to remove various wastes from the body.

Q.1 The muscular tube through which stored urine is passed out of the body is called –
a) kidney
b) ureter
c) urethra
d) urinary bladder
Q.2 In which of the following parts of human body are sweat glands absent?
a) Scalp
b) Armpits
c) Lips
d) Palms
Q.3 Aquatic animals like fish excrete their wastes in gaseous form as
a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Ammonia
d) Nitrogen
Q.4 Arrange the following statements in the correct order in which they occur during the formation
and removal of urine in human beings.

a) Ureters carry urine to the urinary bladder.

b) Wastes dissolved in water is filtered out as urine in the kidneys.
c) Urine stored in urinary bladder is passed out through the urinary opening at the end of the
urethra.
d) Blood containing useful and harmful substances reaches the kidneys for filtration.
e) Useful substances are absorbed back into the blood.

i) e,b,d,c,a ii) d,b,a,c,e iii) d,e,b,a,c iv) b,c,e,a,c.d

Q.5 a) Label part A, B, C and D in the given diagram.

A
b) John is undergoing dialysis. Which part of the system is not

working properly? B

C
D

Q.6 A doctor asks the patient to get his urine examination. What can be the reason for that?
 Q.7 Name the processes and organ which help in removing the following wastes from the body.

Waste Process Organ

a) carbon di-oxide
b) undigested food
c) urine
d) sweat

Answer Key

1) b 2) c 3) c 4) c

5. a) A: Kidney, B: ureter, C: urinary bladder D: urethra

b) Kidney.

6. Urine examination gives an indication of the functioning of other organs in the body and helps to
diagnose certain diseases related to kidneys.

7.

Waste Process organ

a) carbon di-oxide Respiration lungs
b) undigested food Egestion anus
c) urine Excretion urethra
d) sweat Excretion skin
 H21. Transportation in Plants
To circulate water, essential nutrients, excretory products and gases within the plants for various
purposes, transportation in plants is necessary. In vascular tissues, this transportation in plant takes
place. By a suction force, water and minerals are transported to various parts of the plant. Vascular
tissues are normally conducting tissues. These tissues are of two types: Xylem for conducting
water and phloem for conducting food.

Q.1 In a tall tree, which force is responsible for pulling water and minerals from the soil?
a) Gravitational force b) Transportation force
c) Suction force d) Conduction force

Q.2 They are pipe-like, consisting of a group of specialised cells. They transport substances and
form a two-way traffic in plants. Which of the following terms qualify for the features mentioned
above?
a) Xylem tissue b) Vascular tissue c) Root hairs d) Phloem tissue

Q.3 Simar uprooted a rose plant from the soil but most of its root tips with root hairs left behind in
the soil. She planted it in a pot with new soil and waters it regularly. Will the plant grow or die?
Give reason to support your answer.

Q.4 Two experiments A and B (based on the process of osmosis) are demonstrated to students.
In A: sugar solution is filled in potato cup and kept in water.
In B: Water is filled in potato cup and kept in sugar solution.
Level inside the cup will rise in A but lowers in B.
a) What do these experiments show?
b) Can we relate these experiments with transportation in plants?

Q.5 Diksha noticed water being pulled up by a motor pump to an overhead tank of a five storeyed
building. She wondered how water moves up to a great height in the tall trees standing next to the
building. Can you tell how it is possible?

Q 6 Transpiration plays an important role in transporting water from roots to the upper parts of the
plants. It occurs through small openings present on the leaves called stomata. These openings are
surrounded by guard cells that help in opening and closing of stomata.

Statement Agree/Disagree
a) Xylem transport water from root to the leaves.
b) Transpiration is more on hot and humid day.
c) Closed stomata shows the loss of water by guard cells.
d) Minerals from soil enter through root hairs by osmosis.
e) Energy is required for movement of water and minerals from
soil.
f) Chlorophyll is used up in the process of photosynthesis.
Answer Key
1. c 2. d

3. The plant will die as it does not have root tips or root hairs that help to absorb water from the soil.

4. a) It shows movement of water from higher concentration to lower concentration or to dilute

solution.

b) Roots absorb water from the soil by the same process as the concentration of water is high
in soil particles as compare to root cells.

5 Water moves up in the plants due to transpiration that creates a suction pull that helps to move
water upwards in the xylem.

Statement Agree/Disagree
a) Xylem transport water from root to the leaves. Agree
b) Transpiration is more on hot and humid day. Disagree
c) Closed stomata shows the loss of water by guard cells. Agree
d) Minerals from soil enter through root hairs by osmosis. Agree
e) Energy is required for movement of water and minerals from Disagree
soil.
f) Chlorophyll is used up in the process of photosynthesis. disagree
 H22. Tooth Decay
Oral health is an essential component of health throughout life. The data of oral health of 12 year
old children from government and private schools was collected for three consecutive years that
is from 2015 to 2019.

Dental caries was recorded in both government and private schools. The difference was found to
be statistically significant with high percentage of dental caries in private schools than
government schools.

To find out the actual reason behind it a questionnaire was designed to evaluate oral health
knowledge such as regular dental visit, brushing frequency, consumption of sweet and starch
food along with fluoride usage on dentition.

It was found that private school children diet included lot of sweets, potato chips and carbonated
drinks whereas government school children consumption of such food items was very less.

The cause of dental caries is bacteria that live in the mouth and transform sugar into acid that
damage teeth surface.

Q.1 What is the role of bacteria in dental caries?

a) Synthesise enamel. b) Synthesise sugar.

c) Produce mineral d) Produce acid

Q.2 Which of the following statement is supported by the data given in the following graph?

a) Government school children brush their teeth more frequently than private school.

b) The more sugar the children eat the more dental caries.

c)In recent years the dental caries have increased.

d) In recent years the consumption of sugar and starch food has increased among the children.

Answer Key
1. d

2. b
 NR-1 ALLOYING
Besides being used in their pure form, metals are also used in the form of their alloys. Generally
other elements are added to produce greater strength, hardness and to improve corrosion
resistance. An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a non metal. If one of
the components of the alloy is mercury, it is called an amalgam.

Pure gold (also called 24-carat gold) is 100%gold. It is very soft and therefore, cannot be used for
making jewellery. In order to improve its hardness, malleability and ductility, it is alloyed with
small quantities of silver or copper. In India normally, 22-carat gold is used for making
ornaments.

Q1. In India which of the following purity gold is normally used for making ornaments?

a) 24-carat b) 16 carat c) 22-carat d) 8-carat

Q2. Alloying improves the followingqualities-

i) Strength ii) Hardness

iii) Malleability and ductility iv) Corrosion resistance

a) i and iii b) iii and iv c) i and ii d) i, ii, iii and iv

Q3. Gold and platinum are used to make jewellery due to

i)Shining lustre ii) resistance to corrosion iii) highly reactive iv) Malleability

a) i b) i and ii c) iii d)i, ii and iv

Q4. a) Find out percentage of gold in each of the following.

.
PERCENTAGE
OF GOLD ________ _______ _______ _______

A B C D

b) From A to D, what is the correct order of price of gold?

i) least to highest
ii) highest to least
Q4. Choose the right option:-

Agree Disagree Strongly Strongly

agree disagree
(a) Alloys are preferred due to
their corrosion free nature.
(b) Alloys are homogenous mix
of only two or more metals

Q6. K stands for carat. It is a unit used to measure the purity of gold. What is the meaning of
22 K and 18k gold?

Q7. Does German silver contain any silver in it?

Answer key.

Q1. Score-2 if response is (c)

Score -0 if response is a or b or d

Q2. Score – 2 if response is d

Score – 1 if response is a or b or c or d.
Q3. Score -2 if response is d
Score -1 if response is a or b
Score- 0 if response is c
Q4 (a) A) 100%, B) 75%, C) 58.33%, D) 41.67%

(b) 10K,14K,18K,24K

Q5.(a) Agree

(b) Disagree.

Q6 24 Carat gold is considered as purest gold. 22 carats gold contains 91.67% gold alloyed
with 8.33% other metals like silver, copper and Zinc.
18 carat gold contains 75% gold alloyed with 25% other metals like silver and copper.

Q7. German silver does not contain any silver in it. It is an alloy of Cu-50% ,Zn-30% and Ni-
20%.
 NR-2 Acid & Bases
Acids are sour in taste and bases are bitter but it is not advisable to use taste as way of testing to
know if a substance is an acid or a base.

Q1How can we identify the chemical nature of a substance?

a) by touching b) by using antacids.

c) by tasting d) by using litmus.

For thousands of years people have known that vinegar and lemon taste sour and baking soda
tastes bitter, but the term ‟Acid‟ and „Base‟ was discovered a few hundred years ago. Some
substance like water taste neither bitter nor sour. These substances are neutral.

Q2How does blue litmus behave in water?

a) Turns red b) remains blue

c) Turns colourless d) can show any colour.

A few drops of phenolphthalein were added to an unknown solution „A‟. It acquires pink colour.
Another solution „B‟ was added to it drop wise and the solution became colourless.

Q3Predict the nature of „A‟ and „B‟. Give evidence to support your answer.

Q4Water is added to solutions.

i) What does curve „A‟ and „B‟ represent?

ii) How does increase in amount of water

affect the pH of solutions?

14

pH 7
Amount of H2O

0
Answer Key

Ans 1 d) by using litmus.

Ans 2 b) remains blue.

Ans 3 A is basic , B is acidic solution.

Ans 4 i) Curve A represent basic solution and curve B represent an acidic solution.

ii) On addition of water to an acidic solution, the pH value will increase. On adding
water to basic solution the pH value will decrease.
 NR-3 Corrosion

Corrosion is the process of slow conversion of metals into their undesirable compound by the
action of the ingredients of air that are oxygen, moisture and other gases like SO2, NO2, CO2 and
H2S and the acids formed.
When iron objects are left exposed to moist air over a considerable interval of time, the surface
of iron gets covered with non-sticky reddish brown substance. This reddish brown substance is
called rust and the phenomenon is called rusting. Thus the term „rusting‟ is used for corrosion of
iron.Rust is soft and non-sticky substance and it crumbles down exposing fresh surface for
rusting and ultimately the whole of iron is lost as a brown powder. Rust is chemically hydrated
ferric oxide.
Rusting occurs only when things like good quality of iron comes in contact with water in the
presence of air and remain stationary.
Q1. Rust is chemically-
a) Ferric oxide b) ferrous oxide
c) hydrated ferric oxide d) hydrated ferrous oxide
Q2. Rusting is very fast under following condition (s)-
i) Dry air ii) Moist air iii) CO2 iv) Salt
a) i b) ii and iii c)ii, iii and iv d) ii
Q3. Blood has water, oxygen and iron. It does not rust because
a) The quantity of iron is not enough. b) Blood always remain in circulation.
c) Iron is not in free state. d) All of the above.
Q4. Choose the correct option:-

Strongly agree Disagree Strongly

agree disagree
(a) Rusting is
advantageous process
(b) Rust sticks on the
surface of iron article

Q5. Sometimes corrosion is useful. Justify

Answer Key

Q1 Score 2 if response is c
Score 0 if response is a or b or d
Q2Score -2 if response is c
Score –1 if response is d or b
Score-0 if response is a

Q3 Score-2 if response is d
Score -1 if response is a or b or c
 NR-4 Prevention of Rusting
Rusting of iron can be prevented by applying oil, painting, electro plating and by galvanisation.
During galvanisation a layer of zinc which is more reactive than iron is applied over iron.
Therefore zinc undergoes oxidation in preference to iron and prevents iron from rusting.
Galvanised iron sheets are used for making buckets, drums and sheds

Q1. Name the metal used for making galvanised articles-

a) Silver b) copper c) zinc d) gold

Q2. Galvanised iron does not rust because –

i) Iron is more reactive than zinc.

ii) Zinc is more reactive than iron.

iii) Iron undergoes oxidation in preference to zinc.

iv) Zinc undergoes oxidation in preference to iron.

a) i and iii b) ii and iv c) ii d) iv

Q3. Metal „A‟ and „B‟ are coated separately on iron pieces. Metal „A‟ is more reactive than
iron but metal „B‟ is less reactive than iron. In which case the rusting is faster?

Q4. Choose the correct option:-

Strongly agree agree disagree Strongly

disagree
Galvanised iron pipes
are used for water supply
Give reason to your
response

Answer Key

Q1 Score -2 if response is c
Score -0 if response is a,b or d

Q2 Score -2 if response is b
Score -1 if response is c or d
Score -0 if response is a

Q3 Rusting is faster when metal B is coated on iron

 NR-5 CROP PRODUCTION & MANAGEMENT
India has two type of crops rabi and kharif.In early April, rabi crop like wheat are harvested and
paddy a kharif crop is sown after June20.After paddy harvest nearly 22 tons of straw is generated
in Punjab. It has high silica content. The wheat straw produces chaff which is used as fodder.
Only 1/3 of wheat residue is burnt. As compared to paddy crop yet skyline is expected to be
polluted when harvesting is done with.

Q1 Which process is being investigated in above information?

Q2 Straw ofwhich crop will be burnt more by farmers.Give one or two pieces of
information to support your answer.

Q3 Choose the answer and the explanation that is supported by the text given above.

Rabi Crops Sown at end of monsoon at beginning of winter

Kharif Crops Not affected by rain fall
Rabi Crops May be called as summer crop
Kharif Crops Wheat and Rice

Q4 Suppose you have a younger brother who tries to understand the meaning of above text
but he does not understand the crop system, fodder, chaff, silicaetc. Assume that he knows, name
of months, seasons and crops like wheat and rice. Write an explanation to explain him about
burning of stubble in Punjab.

Q5 A farmer does not burn the paddy stubble and spend extra cost for pulling it to side of
field by tractor and keeping it under tree. What could be possible reason for this?

Q6 How much do you agree/disagree with following situations?

Situations Strongly Disagree Agree Strongly

Disagree agree
Government should impose fine on burning stubble.
Government should pay the farmer for not burning.
Government should provide a seed sowing machine
which is not jammed by straw.
Stubble management is related to investment cost of
fertilizer.

Answer key

Q1 Partial score for agriculture / Environmental pollution

Full score Environmental pollution due to burning of stubble.

 NR-6 DIVERSITY IN PLANTS

BASIS FOR
BRYOPHYTES PTERIDOPHYTES
COMPARISON

Body definition Bryophytes have leafy or thalloid In pteridophytes plant body in

plant body. differentiated into roots, stems, and
leaves.

Vasculature system No vasculature system, which Proper vasculature is present which

means xylem and phloem absent. means xylem and phloem is present.

Vascular tissue Absent Present

Presence of roots No roots, instead rhizoids are Roots are present.

present helps in anchoring

Presence of stems or No true stems or leaves are True stem and leaves are present.
leaves present.

Archegonium and its Common exposure of Partially embedded archegoninum

formation archegonium, whose neck is and its neck have only four rows of
formed of six rows of cells. cells.

Antheridium Stalked. Sessile.

Dominating part Gametophyte is dominating. Sporophyte is dominating.

Cell type It has haploid cells. It has diploid cells.

Examples Mosses, liverworts, hornworts. Spikemosses, clubmosses, ferns,

quillworts.

Sporophytic phase Depends completely on Saprophytic phase is an independent

gametophytic. autotrophic.

Q1. Which of the above is having the presence of vascular bundles?

a) Moses b) Liverworts

c) Ferns d) Clubmosses
 Q2. Which are known as true land plants?
a) Algae b) Bryophytes

c) Pteridophytes d) gymnosperms

Q3. Name the plant which is having the presence of capsule/seta?

a) Marchantia b) Funaria

c) Selaginella d) Riccia

Q4. Name the reproductive organs present in pteridophyta.

____________________________________________________________________

Q5. State the following in Yes/No

a) Both the bryophyte and pteridophyta have alternation generation
b) Prominent phase in the bryophyte is sporophytic
c) Pteridophyte show heart shaped prothallus in their lifecycle
d) True root and stem system is present in bryophytes.
e) Rizodes are present in bryophytes

Answer Key

Q1. C

Q2. C

Q3. B

Q4. Anthridium and Archegonium

Q5. Yes, No, Yes, No, Yes

 NR-7 Forms of Water
Water can be found in the forms, i.e, solid, liquid and gas. The solid form, snow and ice is present as ice
caps at the poles of the earth, snow-covered mountains and glacies. Liquid water is present in oceans,
lakes, rivers and even underground. The gaseous form is the water vapour present in the air. The
continuous cycling of water among to three forms keeps the total amount of water on the earth content.

Q1 In how many forms water can be found?

Q2 Which state of water is water vapour?

Q3 Moltens lava pores a volcano. After a few hours, the liquid lava harders into a shiny gray
rock. Which phase change has taken place?
Q4 An unopened bottle of water is taken out of the refrigerator and placed on a table. After a
while, the bottle is covered with droplets of water. What phase change has occurred?
Q5 What phases are shown in the three images below?

A B C

a) Image 1 is gas, image 2 is liquid & image 3 is solid

b) Image 1 is liquid, image 2 is solid & image 3 is gas
c) Image 1 is liquid , image 2 is gas & image 3 is solid

Q6 What is the phase of water when its temperature 1500C?

Answer Key
Q1 Score 2 if the response is 3
Score 1 if the response is 2
Score 0 if the response is 1

Q2 Score 2 if the response is gas

Score 0 for any other response

Q3Score 2 if the response is Freezing

Score 1 if the response is Solid
Score 0 for any other response

Q4 Score 2 if the response is condensation

Score 1 if the response is liquid
Score 0 for any other response
Q5 Score 2 if the response is 2
Score 1 if the response is 3
Score 0 if the response is 1

Q6 Score 2 if the response is gas

Score 1 if the response is water vapour
Score 0 for any other response
 NR-8 Harnessing Solar Power
Annual sunshine hours map of the world is given above. Sunshine duration follows a general

geographic pattern: subtropical latitudes (about 25° to 40° north/south) have the highest sunshine
values.

Question 1.
Name a few countries which can trap solar power by making solar farms?

Question 2.
Find out the annual sunshine hours range that is received by India?

Question 3.
Can the following conclusions be drawn from the Information given in the information
provided? Circle “Yes‟‟ or “No‟‟ or each conclusion

Can this conclusion be drawn from the Database 1 Yes or No

Subtropical region suits best for windmill installation. Yes/ No

June and July are the months having highest average sunny hours Yes/ No

India is suitable for installation of solar plants and solar farms Yes/No
Question 4.
Do you think India is suitable for harnessing solar power? Give argument in favour or against it?

Question 5.
How much do you agree with the following statement?

Tick only one box in each row.

Strongly Agree Disagree Strongly

Agree Disagree
Govt. should provide subsidy at a
higher rate for installation of solar
plants.

Govt. should enforce strictly the

installation of solar plant on roofs of
the houses and buildings having
areas more than 600 sq. yards.

Subsidies on fossil fuels like diesel,

LPG should continue.

Answer Key

Scoring Q1
Full credit: Countries in the subtropical region. Mainly desert countries such
as Egypt, Sudan, Libya, Chad, and Niger, India etc.

No Credit: Countries in other regions.

Scoring Q2
Full credit: 2400 to 3600 hrs

No Credit: Any other response

Scoring Q3
Full credit: No, No, Yes

No Credit: Any other response

Scoring Q4
Full credit: Argument in favour
Partial credit: Argument against it

Scoring Q4
Full credit: Strongly Agree, Strongly Agree, Strongly Agree, Strongly Disagree

Partial credit: Any Deviation From Answer

 NR-9 Heat
Q1 . Suppose that a number of children are standing in a corner of a hall. They are moving
around a little to talk to each other. Suddenly music is switched on. The children start dancing
and moving around more. Naturally, they will spread out more and occupy a larger part of the
hall.
Similarly, when we heat a substance the movement of its molecules increases. This increases the
average distance between the molecules. Therefore, the space occupied by the molecules, that is,
the volume of the substance, increases. We say that heat causes expansion.
i) An example from daily life where you observe expansion.
ii) Among the three states of matter, which state shows the maximum expansion? Give
reason for the same.
Q2 . Arjun is trying to explain the concept of conductors and insulators to his younger sister
Anya. He put a plastic scale, copper wire, wooden stick, pencil, iron rod in a beaker half filled
with water. He heats this beaker with the help of burner for 2-3 minutes and tell his younger
sister to touch them one by one.
i) Which substances will become hot?
ii) Which substances will remain as such?
iii) What Anya will conclude from her observations?
Q 3. A marble tile would feel cold as compared to a wooden tile on a winter morning, because
the marble tile
i) is a better conductor of heat than wooden tile.
ii) Is polished while wooden tile is not polished.
iii) reflects more heat than wooden tile.
iv) is a poor conductor of heat than wooden tile.
Q4. If we heat one end of spoon, its other end also becomes hot. Now bring this hot spoon in
contact with the cold spoon by touching them.
i) From which spoon heat will travel?
ii) What will be the end result of two spoons placed in contact with each other?
Q5. In the following arrangements A and B, pins P and Q are fixed to a metal loop and an iron
rod with the help of wax. In which case are both the pins likely to fall at different times? Explain.
Q 6. Light a candle. Keep one hand above the flame and one hand on the side of the flame.
i) Do your hand feel equally hot?
ii) If not , which hand will feel hotter and why?

Q 7. Four arrangements to measure temperature of ice in beaker with laboratory thermometer

are shown. Which one of them shows the correct arrangement for accurate measurement of
temperature?

Q8. A beggar wrapped himself with a few layers of newspaper on a cold winter night. This
helped him to keep himself warm because
i) friction between the layers of newspaper produces heat.
ii) Newspapers are generally warm.
iii) air trapped between the layers of newspaper is bad conductor of heat.
iv) newspapers are poor conductors of heat.
Q9. To keep her soup warm Nisha wrapped the container in which it was kept with a woollen
cloth. Can she apply the same method to keep a glass of cold drink cool? Give reason for your
answer.
Q10. At a camp site there are tents of two shades- one made with black fabric and other with
white fabric.
i) Which one will you prefer for resting in a hot summer afternoon and why?
ii) Would you like to prefer the same tent during winters?
Q11. For setting a curd, a small amount of curd is added to warm milk. The microbes present in
the curd help in setting if the temperature of the mixture remains approximately between 350C to
400C . At places, where room temperature remains much below the range, setting of curd
becomes difficult.
i) Suggest a way to set curd in such a situation.
Q12. Neev and Aryan both are asked to prepare a tea for the guests by their mother. Neev
chooses a pan made of steel with wooden handle whereas Aryan chooses a pan with wooden
base and metallic handle.
Circle yes or no for their observations:

Observations Neev Aryan

i) Handle will become hot Yes/No Yes/No
ii) Tea will be prepared earlier Yes/No Yes/No
iii) Clear with the concept of conductors and insulators Yes/No Yes/No
Q13. Janvi is not feeling well. She pick up the clinical thermometer to note her body
temperature. Circle yes for her correct handling of thermometer and no for the wrong handling:

Handling of thermometer Yes/No

i) Did not hold thermometer from bulb Yes/NO
ii) Kept the level of mercury along the line of sight Yes/No
iii) Did not washed the thermometer with antiseptic solution before and after use Yes/No
iv) Mercury inside it is good for health Yes/No

Q 14. During the day, land heats up more than water. The air over land becomes hotter and
lighter and rises up. The air from the sea which is cooler and heavier, rushes to take the place
created by hot rising air.
i) Which mode of heat transfer is talked about in the above paragraph?
ii) Name the type of breeze.
iii) What will happen during the night?
Q 15. The following graph represents how Celsius and Fahrenheit scale of thermometers are
related . Observing the graph carefully answer the following questions:
i) Temperature at which ice freezes in Fahrenheit.
ii) Boiling point of water in both scales.
iii) Normal human body temperature in Celsius and Fahrenheit.
Answer key

1. i) Railway tracks expand in summers.

ii) Gases expand the most as they have more intermolecular spaces between them.
2. i) Copper wire
ii) wooden stick,pencil,glass rod,scale.
iii) She will come to the conclusion that substances which becomes hot on heating are
known as
conductors and which do not become hot on heating are known as insulators.
3. a) Marble tile is better conductor of heat than wooden tile.
4. i) Heat will travel from hotter spoon to colder one.
ii) At end, both spoons will acquire the same temperature.
5. In fig B , pins will fall at different time as pin Q is farther from pin P and heat will take
time to
reach there.
6. i) No
ii)Hand which is above the flame will feel more hot because of convection.
7. (a)
8. iii)
9. Yes cold drink will remain cooler for sometime with woollen cloth as wool is a poor
conductor
of heat and thus will not allow the heat of surroundings to attack cold drink.
10. i) Tent made of white fabric as white colour is reflector of heat and thus heat will not be
absorbed in tent.
ii) No, during winters I will prefer black one.
11. Bring milk to boil and then let it cool to the temperature between 110-1150F
12.
Observations Neev Aryan
i) Handle will NO Yes
become hot
 ii) Tea will be Yes NO
prepared earlier
iii) Clear with Yes NO
concept of
conductors and
insulators
13.
i) Yes ii) Yes iii) No iv) No
14. i) Convection ii) Sea breeze iii) Land breeze will take place.
15. i) 320F
ii)1000C, 2120F
iii)370C, 98.60F
 NR-10 INVERTEBRATES

Invertebrate, any animal that lacks a vertebral column, or backbone, in contrast to the
cartilaginous or bony vertebrates. More than 90 percent of all living animal species are
invertebrates. Worldwide in distribution, they include animals as diverse as sea stars, sea urchins,
earthworms, sponges, jellyfish, lobsters, crabs, insects, spiders, snails, clams, and squid.
Invertebrates are especially important as agricultural pests, parasites, or agents for the
transmission of parasitic infections to humans and other vertebrates. Invertebrates serve as food
for humans and are key elements in food chains that support birds, fish, and many
other vertebrate species.

Q1. What percentage of living organisms are invertebrates?

a) 20% b) 40% c) 60% d) 90%
Q2. Which phylum has the largest member present in it?
a) Platyhelminthes b) Insecta

c) Annelida d) Mollusica

Q3. Which animal has a feature to secrete a protective shell around it?
a) Nematodes b) Insect

c) Mollusica d) Echinodermeta

Q4. Most of the animals of this group are present in the sea and have water canal system
a) Echinodermeta b) Coelentrata

c) Insect d) Annelida
 Q5. Do you agree/disagree to the following?
a) Sponges show cell aggregate body plan
b) Centipede and millipede belong to Insecta
c) Pinworms and roundworms are endoparasites
d) Skeleton of the earthworm is made of water
e) Silverfish is a fish

Answer Key

Q1. D

Q2. B

Q3. C

Q4.A

Q5. Agree, Agree, Agree, Agree, Disagree.

 NR-11 विषयिस्तु – ऩमयावयण,सॊश्लरष्टऩदयथा (Environment, artificialmatter)

आऩनेअक्सयकचये केढे यदे खेहोंगे।इसकचये कोखयतेहुएऩशुओॊखयसकयगयमकोदे खयहोगयजोकचययखयय

हीहोगी।खयद्मअऩशशष्टखयतेसभममेऩशुऩॉशरथीनकीथैशरमोंऔयखयद्मऩदयथोंकेयै ऩयबीननगररेतेहैं।श्जस
कयदष्ु ऩरयणयभहभसोचबीनहीॊसकते।प्रयश्टटकऩदयथाइनऩशुओॊकेलवसनतॊत्रभें कॊठयोधउत्ऩन्नकयतेहैंअथवय
आभयशमभें एकअटतयफनयतेहैंऔयअॊतत: महउनकीभत्ृ मक
ु यकययणफनसकतेहैं।रयऩयवयहीसेइधय-
उधयपेंकीगमीऩॉशरथीनकीथैशरमयॊनयशरमोंकोयोकदे तीहै ।मेकईफययफयढ़कयकययणबीफनतीहैं।

(Process 1 - Recognizing scientifically investigative question)

प्र 1 महयॉभुख्मतौयऩयककसवटतुसेहोनेवयरेनुकसयनकयवणानककमयगमयहै ?

(Process 2- Identifying evidence needed in a scientific investigation.)

प्र. 2 ऩॉशरथीनकीथैरीखयनेसेगयमकोककसप्रकययनक
ु सयनहोतयहै ?

(Process 3- Drawing or evaluating conclusions.)

प्र. 3 इससययणीकोध्मयनसेदेखो :

ऩॉशरथीन(प्रयश्टटक) कीथैरीइतनयनुकसयनकैसेकयरेतीहै ?

Process 4-Communicating valid conclusions.

प्र. 4
दीगमीअवटथयओॊकेशरएआऩसहभतहैं,बफरकुरसहभतहैं,असहभतहैंमयबफरकुरअसहभतहैं?,सहीकेनीचे√
कयननशयनरगयएॉ

क्रभ अवटथय सहभ बफरकुरस असह बफरकुरअस

स॰ तहैं हभतहैं भतहैं हभतहैं
1 हभें ऩॉशरथीनकीथैरीकयइटतेभयरकयनयचयहहए
2 उऩमोगकयनेकेऩलचयतऩॉशरथीनकीथैरीकोइधयउध
यपैंकदे नयचयहहए
3 हभें ऩॉशरथीनकीथैरीकयइटतेभयरनकयकेकऩड़ेकेथै
रोंकयउऩमोगकयनयचयहहए

(Process 5- Demonstrating understanding of scientific conceptor Scientific attitude)

प्र. 5 हयॉमयनहीॊभेंउत्तयदीश्जमे :

क) हभें प्रयश्टटकहटकपनकेटथयनऩयटटीरकयहटकिनइटतेभयरकयनयचयहहए - हयॉ/नहीॊ

ख) क्मयॊककहभयये देशभें टवच्छबययतअशबमयनचरयहयहै इसशरएऩॉशरथीनकीथैरीउऩमोगके

ऩलचयतइधयउधयनहीॊपेंकनीचयहहए - हयॉ/नहीॊ

ग) कयगज़केशरपयपेकयउऩमोगकयनयचयहहए - हयॉ/नहीॊ

उत्तयभयरय

प्र 1 महयॉभुख्मतौयऩयककसवटतुसेहोनेवयरेनुकसयनकयवणानककमयगमयहै ?

उ. ऩॉशरथीनकीथैरी

प्र. 2 ऩॉशरथीनकीथैरीखयनेसेगयमकोककसप्रकययनक
ु सयनहोतयहै ?

उप्रयश्टटकऩदयथाइनऩशुओॊकेलवसनतॊत्रभें कॊठयोधउत्ऩन्नकयतेहैंअथवयआभयशमभें एकअटतयफनयतेहैंऔयअॊ

तत: महउनकीभत्ृ मुकयकययणफनसकतेहैं।

प्र. 3 ऩॉशरथीनकीथैरीइतनयनुकसयनकैसेकयरेतीहै ?

उ. क्मयॊककमहआसयनीसेगरतीनहीॊअथवयजैवअननम्नीकयणीमहैं।

प्र. 4
दीगमीअवटथयओॊकेशरएआऩसहभतहैं,बफरकुरसहभतहैं,असहभतहैंमयबफरकुरअसहभतहैं?,सहीकेनीचे√
कयननशयनरगयएॉ

क्रभ अवटथय सहभ बफरकुरस असह बफरकुरअस

स॰ तहैं हभतहैं भतहैं हभतहैं
1 हभें ऩॉशरथीनकीथैरीकयइटतेभयरकयनयचयहहए √
2 उऩमोगकयनेकेऩलचयतऩॉशरथीनकीथैरीकोइधयउध √
यपैंकदे नयचयहहए
3 हभें ऩॉशरथीनकीथैरीकयइटतेभयरनकयकेकऩड़ेकेथै
रोंकयउऩमोगकयनयचयहहए √
प्र. 5 हयॉमयनहीॊभेंउत्तयदीश्जमे :

क) हभें प्रयश्टटकहटकपनकेटथयनऩयटटीरकयहटकिनइटतेभयरकयनयचयहहए - हयॉ

ख) क्मयॊककहभयये देशभें टवच्छबययतअशबमयनचरयहयहै इसशरएऩॉशरथीनकीथैरीउऩमोगनहीॊकयनीचयहहए -

नहीॊ
ग) कयगज़केशरपयपेकयउऩमोगकयनयचयहहए – हयॉ

Reference: Pls. Refer NCERT Vigyan class 8 pg. 39

 NR-12 MONOCOTS

Monocots are a flowering plant group whose members usually contain only one cotyledon or
embryonic leaf. Monocots are divided into several taxonomic ranks and include approximately
60,000 species. The beautiful orchids belong to the monocotyledons‟ group, and so do grains,
bananas, bamboos and various delicious spices used in Asian cuisine, such as turmeric, ginger
and cardamom.

DICOT

Dicots have two cotyledons – or embryonic leaves – in their seeds. The group contains
somewhere around 200,000 species. They usually have a taproot system, their stems typically
spread to the outside, and their flowers have four or five petals. Examples of dicot include mint,
lettuce, legumes, daisies, tomatoes and even oaks.

Q1. Trimarous flowers are present in the following

a) Lilly

b) Petunia
 c) Sunflower

d) Rose

Q2. Parallel venation is present in:

a) Wheat

b) Maze

c) Banana

d) All the above

Q3. What are cotyledons?

a) Seeds

b) Grams

c) Food laden leaves

d) None of the above

Q4. Most of the pulses belong to the:

a) Monocots

b) Dicots

c) Pteridophytes

d) Algae

Q5.Do you agree/disagree to the following?

a) Dicots have tap root system and reticulate venation.

b) Grass is a monocot plant

c) Parallel venation is present in petunia

d) Two coteladens are present in wheat

e) Most advanced types of plants are monocots

Answer Key

Q1.A
Q2.D

Q3.C

Q4. B

Q5. Agree,agree,disagree,agree.
 NR-13 VERTEBRATE

Vertebrate, also called Craniata, any animal of the subphylum Vertebrata, the predominant
subphylum of the phylum Chordata. They have backbones, from which they derive their name.
The vertebrates are also characterized by a muscular system consisting primarily of bilaterally
paired masses and a central nervous system partly enclosed within the backbone.

Q1.What are the two identifying features of vertebrates?

Q2. Name the non-aquatic animals from the above picture
a) Frog
b) Birds
c) Mammals
d) Lizards
Q3. Which of the above have pneumatic bones?
a) Snake
b) Pigeon
c) Frog
d) Fish
Q4. Mammary glands and hair are present on the body of
a) Crocodiles
b) Salamander
c) Crow
d) Dogs
 Q5.Answer the following in yes/no
a) Fishes have two-chambered heart
b) Frog lives in water and also on land
c) Fore limbs of birds are modified into wings
d) Bat is a flying mammal

Answer Key

Q1. Vertebral column, Muscular system

Q2. B

Q3. B

Q4.D

Q5. Yes, No, Yes,Yes

 NR-14 Water –A Precious Resource
22nd March is celebrated as the World Water Day. We celebrate water day every year to attract the
attention of everybody towards the importance of conserving water. The amount of water recommended
by UN for drinking, washing, cooking and maintaining proper hygiene is a minimum of 50 l per person
per day. It amounts to 2.5 buckets of water per person per day. In some places there is an acute shortage
of water. Taps run dry, long queues of water, fights, marches and protest of demand of water has become
a common sight especially during summers.

Q1. Which day is celebrated as World Water Day?

Q2. In which season water shortage is mostly observed?

Q3. Why do we celebrate World Water Day?

Q4. According to UN what is the minimum amount of water required per person per day for maintaining
proper hygiene? What is the full of UN?

Q5. What could be the possible effects of water shortage.

Answer Key:

Ans1. 22nd March

Score 2 for correct ans

Score 0 for incorrect ans

Ans2. Summers

Score 2 for correct ans

Score 0 for incorrect ans

Ans3. To attract the attention of everybody towards the importance of conserving water.

Score 2 for correct ans

Score 1 for any other relevant ans

Score 0 for incorrect ans

Ans4. a) 2.5 buckets (50 l)

b) United Nations

Score 2 for correct ans

Score 0 for incorrect ans

Ans5. Drinking, washing, cooking, bathing, agriculture and transportation.

Score 2 for four correct uses

Score 0.5 per use

Ans6. Taps run dry, long queues of water, fights, marches and protest of demand of water.

Score 0.5 for every correct point

 NR-15 Water – A Precious Resource
22nd March is celebrated as the World Water Day. We celebrate water day every year to attract
the attention of everybody towards the importance of conserving water. The amount of water
recommended by UN for drinking, washing, cooking and maintaining proper hygiene is a
minimum of 50 l per person per day. It amounts to 2.5 buckets of water per person per day. In
some places there is an acute shortage of water. Taps run dry, long queues of water, fights,
marches and protest of demand of water has become a common sight especially during summers.

Q1. Which day is celebrated as World Water Day?

Q2. In which season water shortage is mostly observed?

Q3. Why do we celebrate World Water Day?

Q4. According to UN what is the minimum amount of water required per person per day for
maintaining proper hygiene? What is the full of UN?

Q5. What could be the possible effects of water shortage.

Answer Key:

Ans1. 22nd March

Score 2 for correct ans

Score 0 for incorrect ans

Ans2. Summers

Score 2 for correct ans

Score 0 for incorrect ans

Ans3. To attract the attention of everybody towards the importance of conserving water.

Score 2 for correct ans

Score 1 for any other relevant ans

Score 0 for incorrect ans

Ans4. a) 2.5 buckets (50 l)

b) United Nations

Score 2 for correct ans

Score 0 for incorrect ans

Ans5. Drinking, washing, cooking, bathing, agriculture and transportation.

Score 2 for four correct uses

Score 0.5 per use

Ans6. Taps run dry, long queues of water, fights, marches and protest of demand of water.

Score 0.5 for every correct point

 NR-16 Water cycle
The whole process in which water evaporates and falls on the land as rain and later
flows back into the sea via rivers is known as the water-cycle.

Source: https://www.jagranjosh.com/

Main steps involved in a water cycle are:

a. Evaporation: Water on earth changes to vapour due to sun’s heat and rises above.

b. Transpiration: Plants absorb water through the roots and then give off excess water
in the form of vapour through pores in their leaves.

c. Respiration: It is a process in living organisms involving the production of energy, with

the intake of oxygen and the release of carbon dioxide along with water vapour.

d. Precipitation: It is the process of condensation of water vapour in atmosphere into

liquid which fall down in the form of rain, snow, sleet or hail.

e. Percolation and Absorption: Some of the precipitation soaks into the ground to reach
the underground water, some on land gets absorbed by the plants, crops and trees to
grow and the rest downhill as runoff to reach the seas to complete the whole water
cycle.

Question1: How do plants give off water?

a) Condensation c) Transpiration

b) Precipitation d) Evaporation
 Question2: What are the major processes of Water Cycle?

a) Evaporation, Condensation, and Precipitation.

b) Evaporation and condensation

c) Respiration and transpiration

d) None of these

Question3. What is the difference between evaporation and condensation?

Question4: Tick any one option (Agree/ disagree) in the following statements and justify.

a) Evaporation changes water into solid state.

b) Transpiration helps in removing excess of water.

Question5. Rainwater is the purest form of water. Comment.

Answers Key:

Answer 1.

 Score 2 if response is c
 Score 0 for any other response
Answer 2.
 Score 2 if response is a
 Score 1 if response is b
 Score 0 if response is any other
 HZ-1 Effect of pollution on the Respiratory system

30 percent rise in respiratory diseases:

Published 11th November 2018 10:05 am in TIMES OF INDIA

Q1. What is the meaning of dose- response relationship?

Q2. a) Medical experts have advised early risers to stop going out for jogging and physical
exercise, why?
b) Name the agency that has issued severe alerts.
Q3. PM refers to-
a) Picometre
b) Particulate matter
c) Prime Minister
d) Post Meridiem
Q4.
Situations Agree Disagree
During Diwali busy intersections are more
polluted than green areas.
It is better to exercise in the late afternoons or
early evenings during winter months due to lower
levels of pollution.

Answer key:
The more the pollution, more is the no. of people falling sick.
A).Early morning sky is saturated with pollutants, there is less wind movement .
B) SAFAR
A) Picometre
Disagree
Agree
 HZ-2 E-waste

The advancement in technology and changing lifestyle, status or perception of consumers has
driven the demand of electronic items. Consumers‟ dependency on information and
communication technology has been increasing very rapidly. The new innovations in information
technology because of the rising demand for higher efficiency and productivity in the businesses
and work have become a matter of day to day life. Technologies which were new yesterday have
become obsolete for today.

The increase in demand for “White Goods segment” i.e. on consumer durables such as
television sets, microwave ovens, calculators, air-conditioners, servers, printers, scanners,
cellular phones, computers etc. is for obvious. Thus, there can be broad range of waste electric
and electronic goods which have outlived their use, ready for disposal.

These contain chemical materials considered hazardous for human well beings and natural
environment. The increasing rate of waste electronic products and additionally the illegal import of junk
electronics from abroad create a complex scenario for solid waste management in India.

Q1: What according to you is e-waste? (Tick the correct answer/s)

Waste generated by emails in the trash box
Waste collected in the school , home or at community level
Waste generated by electronic goods we use and throw
Waste caused due to all the electrical gadgets we use at home
Waste caused because of both electrical and electronic gadgets
1 only
2 only
3, 4 and 5
None of the above
Q2:

Can you identify some of the e-waste which are generated at school level and at your home
level or at both levels and place it in the appropriate column? For one which does not
cause any waste put a circle.

HAIR DYER LCD CHIMNEY E-BOOKS SOAPS

WASHING MACHINES CFL WOODEN BENCHES MOBILE
CALCULATOR SOLAR PANNEL TUBELIGHTS CARS
AIRCOOLERS STABILIZERS FRIDGE ELECTRONIC BELLS
E-MAIL ELECTRONIC IRON LAPTOP SPEAKERS

AT SCHOOL LEVEL AT HOME LEVEL BOTH LEVELS

Q3: By looking at the picture shown above can you fill in the table given below

PERCENTAGE METRIC/TONS
TOTAL E-WASTE
GENERATED
GLOBALLY
E-WASTE
PROPERLY
RECYCLED
E-WASTE NOT
PROPERLY
DOCUMENTED
E-WASTE WHICH
IS DUMBED

Q4: What according to you are the possible reasons of the increased usage of white goods
segment, which has contributed to e-waste globally?

Q5: Let’s imagine that the total waste generated in 2020 at global level increases to 50
metric tonne. If percentage remains same of the documented and undocumented waste
then find out the following

Waste generated In percentage In metric tonne

1. That can be recycled
2. That cannot be
recycled
Q6: Give your suggestions which you think is appropriate related to the above given
scenario:

Statement Agree Strongly Agree Disagree Don’t know

We should
change our life
style to solve
this global issue
Every single
person‟s
Contribution
will not affect
Its a global
concern which
should be dealt
very seriously
We should stop
using
technology with
immediate affect
Recycling
changes the
quality of the
substance

Answer key:

Ans 1. Option C

Ans. 2. Home level: lcd, washing machines, mobile, calculator, solar pannel, cars, aircoolers,
stabilizers, fridge, electronic bells, steam iron, laptop, speakers.

School level: lcd, mobile, calculator, solar pannel, aircoolers, stabilizers, fridge, electronic
bells, laptop, speakers

Not an e-waste: email, wooden bench, soaps, e-books, tubelight, cfl,

Ans 3.

PERCENTAGE METRIC/TONS
TOTAL E-WASTE 100 44.7
GENERATED
GLOBALLY
E-WASTE 20 8.9
PROPERLY
RECYCLED
E-WASTE NOT 80 35.8
PROPERLY
DOCUMENTED
E-WASTE WHICH 76 34.1
IS DUMPED

Ans: 4 The advancement in technology, changing lifestyle and technology getting obsolete at a
very fast rate.

Ans 5.

Waste generated In percentage In metric tonne

1. That can be recycled 20 10
2. That cannot be 80 40
recycled
Air pollution is a mix of particles and gases that can reach harmful concentrations both outside
and indoors. Its effects can range from higher disease risks to rising temperatures. Soot, smoke,
mold, pollen, methane, and carbon dioxide are a just few examples of common pollutants

Sulphur Dioxide and nitrogen dioxide are the major source of pollutants from industries and
causes respiratory and cardiovascular illness. It has degradable effect to the environment. Carbon
monoxide , lead , particulate matter are major source of pollutant as an emission from vehicles
.carbon monoxide causes headaches and weakens the cardiovascular health. Lead damages the
nervous system and also kills fishes and animals

Q1. Circle from the list below the major air pollutants:

Carbon dioxide nitrogen ozone sulphur dioxide Chlorine

mercury Sulphur monoxide lead fluorine urea pollen

nitrogendioxide Helium Mercury soot

Q2. From the data given in the picture

a) list 2 countries which have

1. Maximum air pollution __________
2. Minimum air pollution ___________
3. Around 1 million air pollution________
b) List 2 continents which have
1. Pollution less than 50000 million_______
2. Pollution about 50000 million___________
3. Pollution over 2 million_______________

Q3. How do you think Indoor pollution is caused? What are the preventive measures we can take
to reduce the pollution?

Q4. From the data given above can you analyze and draw the conclusion which of the cities
mentioned below is under high threat of diseases like stroke etc. Also write in the increasing
order of threat.

New Delhi, NewYork, Sydney, Peru, Beijing, Tokyo ,Cairo

Answer Key:

A1. Carbon dioxide, nitrogen, ozone , sulphur dioxide, mercury, Sulphur monoxide, lead, pollen
grains, nitrogen dioxide, Helium, soot

A 2:

a) 1.Maximum air pollution :India_, bangladesh

2, Minimum air pollution : America, Argentina

3Around 1 million air pollution: Uganda, Tanzania

b) List 2 continents which has

4. Pollution less than 500000 million:USSR
5. Pollution about 500000 million:Part of africa
6. Pollution over 2 million : Asia ,Europe

A3. Reasons of Indoor pollution: carpets , Paints , Perfumes , Furniture,

Preventive measure: Indoor plants, Less use of aerosols,

Newyork, Peru, Cairo, Beijing ,Sydney Tokyo , New Delhi,

Topic:- Air Exerts Pressure

Activity:- Water Fountain

Introduction:-You must have seen fountains in the parks. Water forms spectacular shapes that
look wonderful. All of us must have wondered how it happens. This activity will help us to
understand the principle behind the working of a fountain.

Material Required Empty water bottle, Straws, Water, Cutter, Candle

Procedure

 Take an empty bottle. Fill the bottle about half with water.
 Make a hole in the bottle. Pass a straw through this hole and seal it with wax.

 Similarly make a hole in the bottle lid and pass the straw through this hole and seal with
wax.

 Now blow into the straw which is fixed in the lid of the bottle. Water shoots out of the
other straw like a fountain.

Explanation

By blowing into the straw the air above the water is compressed. This compressed air exerts
pressure on the surface of the water and due to this pressure water comes out through the other
straw.

Precaution

The holes in the bottle should be properly sealed after straws are being inserted.

Relevance to daily life

The same principle is employed in Perfume Bottle, Liquid Soap Dispenser and Hand Pump.
 Chemical Effects of Current

Electroplating

Figure 1

Figure 2 Figure 3

1. Referring to Figure 2 and 3, define these key words:

a) Electrolyte and electrolysis
 b) Identify the process taking place in these figures
respectively.

2. In the electrolysis of an aqueous solution, which of the following statements is/are true?
a) Electrons are lost by one of the species at the anode.

b) Oxidation takes place at the positive electrode.

c) Reduction takes place at the cathode.

d) Electrons flow around the circuit from the cathode to the negative end of the
battery.

3. For an object being plated with silver using silver anode and silver nitrate solution, which of
the following reactions is/are true?

a) The cathode half reaction is :Ag(s) + e- …> Ag+( aq)

b) The anode half reaction is : Ag+(aq) + e- …> Ag(s)
c) The anode half reaction is: Ag (s) …….> Ag+(aq) + e-
d) The cathode half reaction is:Ag(s)………> Ag+(aq) + e-
e) The cathode half reaction is :Ag+(aq) +e- ….>Ag (s)

4. Tick any one option ( agree / disagree) for the following statements:

a) Refining of copper is based on phenomenon of electrolysis

b) Galvanisation involves coating of copper on iron.
c) At cathode oxidation takes place in electrolytic cells.
d) During electrolysis of water , oxygen gas bubbles out at cathode.
5. The prominent effects of Electrolysis are:

a)Metals may get deposited at the electrode surface.

b)Gaseous bubbles may get formed near electrodes.
c)Change of colour of solution may occur due to dissolution of different ions.
d) Refining of metal.
Answer key:
2.
Score 2 if response is a,b and c
Score 0 for any other answer
3.
Score 2 if response is c and e
Score 0 for any other answer
5.
Score 2 if response is a,b and c
Score 1 if response is a,b or b,c
Score 0 if response is d
FRONTIERS OF
SCIENCE &
TECHNOLOGY
 FST-1 Cell: Structure and Functions

Q. 1 “Cells are basic structural units of living organisms.” It is called so because-

(1) Cells exhibit a variety of shapes and sizes.

(2) Number of cells present, varies from organism to organism.

(3) The smallest living part of an organism ids cell.

(4) Cells were first observed in cork by Robert Hooke in 1665.

Q. 2 What is the scientific name used for cytoplasm and nucleus together?

....................................................................................................................................................
Q. 3 Look at the picture and recognize the organelles from their functions-

(1) Brain of the cell ..................................................................

(2) Dustbin of the cell ..................................................................

(3) Energy generator of the cell ..................................................................

(4) Post office of the cell. ..................................................................

(5) Manufacturing plant of the cell. ..................................................................

Q. 4 In the picture given above, the cell is allowing the ions to walk in happily. What is the
function of ions that are walking into the cell?

............................................................................................................................................................

Q. 5 Observe the picture of the earth and write the parts of

the earth that are equivalent to cell membrane, nucleus
and cytoplasm.

.......................................................................................

......................................................................................

Answer Key

Ans. 1 Option 3

Ans. 2 protoplasm

Ans. 3 (1) nucleus

(2) lysosomes

(3) mitochondria

(4)Golgi Apparatus

(5) Ribosomes

Ans. 4 they act as catalysts

 FST- 2 Reproduction in animals – CLONING
Cloning is an assisted reproductive technology that allows livestock breeders to create identical
twins of their best animal. This breeding technique does not change the genetic makeup of the
animal. The most common procedure used today is known as Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer
(SCNT), which makes it possible to produce many animals from a single donor. In SCNT,
researchers isolate a somatic cell from an organism. Next, they remove its nucleus and place it
into an egg cell, effectively replacing the egg cell's nucleus with that of the somatic cell. The egg
cell, with its new nucleus, starts behaving like a freshly fertilized egg. It develops into an
embryo, which is then implanted into a surrogate mother who later gives birth to the new
organism. This technique was used in 1997 to create Dolly the sheep, known as the first clone to
be born.

Q. 1 How does cloning affect the DNA of animal?

Q. 2 How will cloned animal benefit consumers ?

Q. 3 Can the following questions be answered by scientific investigation ? Say " Yes" or " No"
for each question.

A) Does cloning cause animal suffering? Yes/ No

B) Are animal clones healthy? Yes/ No

C) Is it safe to use clones in the food supply? Yes/ No

Answer key--
Ans. 1
Cloning does not change DNA, and clones are not genetically engineered animals. It is simply
assisted reproduction, similar to embryo transfer, artificial insemination, or in vitro fertilization.

Ans. 2
Cloning can be used to breed livestock with leaner or higher grade meats. This means more
nutritious and tasty food for consumers. Also, by breeding the healthiest and strongest animals,
the overall health of the whole heard is healthier and stronger. Healthier animals means better
food.

Ans. 3

No, Yes, Yes

 FST-3 Reproduction in Animals

Female reproductive system

in Plants and Animals

Female reproductive system inhuman

Female reproductive system in
beings
Plants

Q.1 Where is the egg cell produced in a plant and an animal?

Q.2 Name the following

a) In plants the part that Nourish the embryo.

b) In human being the part that Nourish the embryo.

Q.3 Name the site where is fertilization occurre in plants and animals?

Q.4 complete the flow chart showing formation of seed in plants and young one in human being.
a)egg cell_____>______>embryo______>.

b)egg cell_____>____>____>______>young one.

Q.5 How to obtain identical large number of plantlets in a small period and exact biological
copy in animals

Q.6 label 1-5 parts in each system.

Answer Key:
Ans.1 Ovary..

Ans.2 a)ovary. b)uterus.

Ans.3_in plants,ovary and in animals fallopian tube

Ans. 4 a)eggcell____>zygote__embryo___seed.

b)egg cell__zygote__embryo___foetus___young one

Ans. 5 large number of plantlets can be obtained through tissue culture.and exact biological copy
in animals can be obtained through cloning.

Ans. 6 In plant 1.sapel,2.ovary3.ovule,4.style,5.stigma,,

In animals 1, vagina,2.uterus,3.embryo,4.fallopian tube,5.ovary

 FST-4 How are traits passed from parents to offspring
A trait is a characteristic such as colour of size i.e. inherited by an offspring from its parents. The
genes that control a trait come in pairs, one gene from each parent. We represent these gene pairs
by writing a combination of two capital or lower case letter e.g. if one parent contributes a gene
for blue eye (C) and the other parent contributes a gene for brown eyes(c), then we write the
offspring eye colour as Cc. This combination of the two genes that determines the trait is called a
genotype. Each letter in a gene pair stands for one form of the trait. The forms of the trait are
called alleles. In the above example the alleles are blue eyes colour and brown eye colour. The
blue eye colour and brown eye colour. The two types of allele are dominant and recessive. The
dominant allele is written as capital letter and recessive is written as a lower case letter. Now if
the genotype of the parent are known the genotype of offspring can be easily predicted with the
help of chart called Punnett Square by combining the alleles of male and female gametes.

H h

H Hh Hh

H Hh Hh

H= Curly Hair h= No hair

Q.1Which statement is true about the Punnet square?

A. All offspring will have no hair

B. All offspring will have curly hair
C. 50% of offspring will have no hair
D. 50% of offspring will have curly hair

Q.2 Which statement is true about the Punnet square?

R r

R Rr Rr

r Rr rr

R= roll tonguer= can’t roll tongue

A. Both parents carry at least one recessive allele
B. All offspring can’t roll tongue
C. 50% of offspring can roll their tongue
 D. 50% of offspring can’t roll their tongue

Q.3 Create two Punnet square for two different traits by using the following alleles

T= Tall H= Straight hair

t = Short h= Curly hair

Choose your own genotype for each parent (e.g. AA homozygous Dominant, Aa- Heterozygous
Dominant, aa- Homozygous Recessive) Label them

Below each Punnet square list the percentage chance of the offspring having each of the trait e.g.
75% Black Hairs and 25% Brown Hair

Q.4 Given figure shows a pea plant with red flower (a Hybrid) crossed with a pea plant with
white flowers. The gene that controls the red flower is dominant against the gene that controls
the white flower.

A Complete figure showing the genetic material in the gamete and the final filial generation.

B. What is meant by dominant and recessive gene?

C. What is the ratio of pea plant having red flowers to white flowers in the first filial generation ?
Answer Key
1. B

2. B

3.

T t

T TT Tt

t Tt tt

H h

H HH Hh

h Hh hh

4. A

B. Dominant gene: Dominant gene is the one which expresses itself in the presence of its
contrasting gene which is considered to be a suppressed gene.

Recessive Gene: Recessive gene is the gene whose expression is suppressed by a dominant gene.

C. 50 % red flower and 50% white flower

 FST-5 Incomplete Dominance
Incomplete dominance is when a dominant allele, or form of a gene, does not completely mask
the effects of a recessive allele, and the organism’s resulting physical appearance shows a
blending of both alleles. It is also called semi-dominance or partial dominance. One example is
shown in roses. The allele for red color is dominant over the allele for white color, but
heterozygous roses, which have both alleles, are pink. Incomplete dominance occur because
neither of the two alleles is fully dominant over the other.

Q 1--which is not an example of incomplete dominance?

a. A pink flower produced from red and white flower.
b. A flower that is both red and white produced from red and white flower.
c. A curly haired and straight haired individuals producing wavy haired offspring.
d. A highly spotted dog and a non spotted dog producing puppies with a few spots.

Q 2-- A rose shows incomplete dominance, when a red flowered plant is crossbred with a white
flowered plant, the offsprings are pink with phenotype Rr. If these pink flowers are crossbred,
what will be the ratio of their offspring?

a. 1:2:1 red, spotted, white

b. 1:2:1. red, pink , white
c. 3:1. red, white
d. 2:1. Pink ,red

Q 3. From the above question create a Punnet square crossing a red flower with white one .
Now cross the two of the F1 offspring from the previous cross and show what the out come is?

Answer key

1. b

2. b

3. Do yourself
 FST- 6 Natural Selection

The process in nature by which according to Darwin's theory of evolution, only the organisms
best adapted to their environment tend to survive and transmit their genetic characters in
increasing numbers to succeeding generations while those less adapted tend to be eliminated

Consider the following two situations..

1 )- Bird 1 hatches and grows up to become adult --- mates twice in life time --- lays five eggs ---
three of them survive.

2)- Bird 2 hatches and grows up to become an adult --- mates four times in life time --- lays six
eggs --- one of them survives -- bird 2 lives twice as long as bird 1.

Q. 1 Make the correct interpretation

a) Natural selection is acting on bird 1 but not on bird 2.

b) Bird 1 is evolutionary more fit than bird 2.

c). Natural selection is acting on bird 2 but not on bird 1

d). Bird 2 is evolutionary more fit than bird 1

Q. 2 A primary school has an outbreak of head lice in the children. Parents are advised to treat their
children with a new insecticide lotion instead of using one from last year. Explain how the head
lice have become resistant to old one and advised to use new one?

Answer key

1a

2 The principle of natural selection shows that the chemical, insecticides and antibiotics can
remain effective only for a limited period. When the use of lice insecticide started, only the
insecticide resistant lice were able to survive and reproduce.
 FST-7 Human blood group
There are four blood groups in human population A,B,AB and O. These letters refer to a
glycoprotein substance, called an antigen, present on the surface of red blood corpuscles .t The
four phenotypes A, B,AB and O are produced by three different alleles IA, IB, and io The allele IA
produce glycoprotein A and allele IB forms the glycoprotein B. The allele i o does not produce
any glycoprotein and is recessive to the other two alleles. The alleles I A and IB are equally
dominant and do not interfere with the expression of each other. Any person carries only two of
these three alleles,one of each parent. Three alleles of a gene produces six genotype a and four
phenotypes as shown below

Genotypes. Phenotypes
IA IA, IAio A
IBIB, IBio B
IAIB. AB
ioio O
Q.1 On what basis is the blood type classified?
a. Antigen
b. Antibody
c. Rhesusfactor
d. Oxygen factor

Q.2 On what basis is the blood group classified?

a. Antigen and Antibody
b. Haemoglobin content
c Thesis factor
d. Oxygen content

Q.3 The first child in a family has blood group AB. Second has blood group O. What are the
genotype of parents?
a. IAIA, IBIB
b. IAio, IAIB
c. IAio, IBio
d. IBio, IAIB

Q.4 Genotypes of husband and wife are IAIB and IAio .Among the blood types of their children,
how many different Genotypes and Phenotypes are possible and show their percentage also.

Answer key
1. A 2. a 3. c
4. Genotype 4, Phenotype 3 and Ratio is 2:1:1. A, B, AB
 FST-8 Heredity and evolution

Q.1 Name the particular technique in biochemistry whose steps are shown in the figure

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

Answer the following questions from the above figure

Q.2 Plasmid is..

a. a cellular organelle
b. a broken piece of nucleus
c. an extra nuclear DNA present in bacterial cell
d. is a waste material

Q.3 Role of plasmid is..

a. to carry genes vital for the life of Bacteria
 b. to carry genes responsible for harmful effect of Bacteria
c. to carry genes responsible for nutrition of bacteria
d. to carry genes which make bacteria antibiotic resistant.

Q.4 Recombinant Bacteria is..

a. Bacteria with more genes than normal
b. Bacteria with genes of desired character taken from other
Bacteria added to original DNA
c. Bacteria from which desired gene is removed
d. Bacteria which is harmful for human

Q.5 Which part of Bacteria is is used to carry desired gene into the other Bacteria
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondrion
c. Vacuole
d. Plasmid

Q.6 Eco R I is
a. an enzyme which cut the DNA at a particular site
b. is the name of DNA removed from Bacteria
c. is a chemical used to join two DNA fragments
d. name of bacteria used for the recombination

Q.7 What are the major requirements for genetic modification of any organism?
Answer Key
1 Genetic engineering
2 -3
3 -1
4 -2
5 -4
6-1
7-Four major requirements are
1- Identification of DNA with required gene
2- Introduction of desired identified gene into the host
3- Maintenance of induced DNA
4- Transfer of this DNA to its progeny.
 FST-9 SOLAR ENERGY

Q.1 Which type of energy do not require media for propagation?

Q.2 Who plays the role of string in this necklace?

Q.3 How much energy is produced by sun in per square meter area?

Q.4 Name the form of energy used by us in mutual conversation.

Q.5 How much do you agree with the following statements?

 Tick only one box in each row
Strongly Agree Disagree Strongly
agree disagree
The differences in energy derives wind
and ocean currents across the entire planet
The solar energy is absorbed by air, water
rocks, building, pavement& living beings
The earth radiate heat back into space
preventing the planet from heating

Q.6 Explain the laws of flow of energy.

Answer Key
1 Solar Energy
2 Energy
3. 63 million watts
4. Sound Energy
6. 1) Einstien Energy equation
E=mc2
2) 10% energy flow
 FST-10 Synthetic fibres and plastics
ENVIGREEN’S EDIBLE BAGS

Plastic bags despite being banned in several states continue to dominate the sale purchase
domain. India generates more than 5,6 billion toxic plastic waste everyday life take 450 years or
more. Plastic bags and bottles do not readily break down in the environment.

Q.1.What is the problem with plastic?

.......................................................................................

Q.2, Which kind of substance is plastic?

..........................................................................................

Q.3. Leena visited her uncle’s place. Her uncle was in Jodhpur and was serving in Indian Air
Force station. He showed her different air crafts. She took a round and saw aircrafts from inside
and was surprised to see that most of the parts are made of plastic. While going back she saw an
electrician doing some repair work. He was removing the outer plastic coverings of the electric
wires. She had few queries can you help her out by your awareness.

a) Why so many parts of air craft are made of plastic?

Tick the appropriate reason(s)
1) Non corrosive in nature 2) enhances the Beauty
3) Light in weight 4) not so expensive

Q.4. Why electric wires were coated with plastic?

............................................................................

Q.5. Despite being so popular why government has decided to ban or minimise the use of plastic
bags?

Ashwath Hegde , a Mangalore based entrepreneur thought of an alternative to replace plastic

with a SUSTAINABLE ECOFRIENDLY material. He came up with a company Evigreen
Biotech India Pvt Ltd. Which produces 100% organic, biodegradable and edible bags, which are
made by starch (potato and Tapioca), vegetable oil derivatives and vegetable waste, which they
acquire from the farmers. These bags degrade in 180 days and dissolves in water in one day,
carries wt. Of 8 to 10 kg. Bags are even edible and cause no harm to animals if ingested.

Q.6). Statement: Agree/Disagree

i) Selling vegetable waste Is a source of income for the farmers

ii) Being soluble in water, it reduces clogging of drains

iii) Polybags cause health hazard for humans as well as animals.

iv) Envigreen plastics solve the problem of plastic disposal.

Q.7). How will you dispose the given waste?

Kitchen waste, broken cup, shoe box, broken pen, waste paper

BLUE DUSTBIN GREEN DUSTBIN

Answer key
1. score 2 donot break down easily

Score 1 causes pollution

Score 0 any other response

2. Non-biodegradable

3. score 1, 3, 4

No score if any other

4. poor conductor of electricity

 FST-11 Average Speed Camera

(Picture 1) Image Source:-Time of India

Average Speed cameras are used to determine if a vehicle is moving faster than the prescribed
speed limit for the road. They work by using an automatic number plate recognition (ANPR)
system to record a vehicle's front number plate at each fixed camera site. As the distance is
known between these sites, the average speed can be calculated by dividing this by the time
taken to travel between two points.

Q1. Write down the formula to calculate speed?

Q. 2 The speed limit for a car driven on national highways is 25m/s (90 Km/hr). Calculate the
distance travelled by car in 15 s at the given speed?
Q. 3 If the car covers 600m (Distance between two fixed average speed camera points) in 20
seconds. Find out whether the car is speeding or not. Shall there be challan for this?

Q. 4 Can the following conclusions be drawn from the Information given in the Picture 1?
Circle “Yes “or “No “or each conclusion

Can this conclusion be drawn from the Picture 1 Yes or No

All kinds of vehicles can be tracked by this system. Yes/ No

Speed violators can also tracked at night time. Yes/ No

All the roads will have to be remetaled or resurfaced. Yes/No

Q. 5Do you think this will help in preventing road accidents? Give argument in favour or
against it?

Q. 6 (Attitude) How much do you agree with the following statement?

Tick only one box in each row.

Strongly Agree Disagree Strongly

Agree Disagree
Average speed cameras should be installed on
all the roads of India.

Installation of these cameras would end the rash

driving by regular offenders.
It is not possible to administer the no. of cases
through e-challan as most of people are not
tech-savy.
Answer Key
Scoring Q1
Full credit
Speed= Distance/Time
No Credit
Any other answer.
Scoring Q2
Full credit
375m or o.375 Km
No Credit
Any other response
Scoring Q3
Full credit
Speed:- = 30m/s, Yes Speeding, Yes Challan should be issued
No Credit
Any other response
Scoring Q4
Full credit
Yes, Yes, No
No Credit
Any other response
Scoring Q5
Full credit
Argument in Favour
Partial Credit
Argument against it
Scoring Q6
Full credit
Disagree, Agree, Disagree
Partial Credit
Any Deviation from Answer.
 FST-12 Force and Pressure

(Process 1 - Recognizing scientifically investigative question)

Q.1 Name the scientist who invented vacuum pump.

(Process 2- Identifying evidence needed in a scientific investigation.)

Q.2 for what purpose the above experiment was done?

(Process 3 - Drawing or evaluating conclusions.)

Q.3 (i) what was the diameter of each hemisphere?

_______________________________________________

(ii) What was total no. of horses used in above experiment?

_________________________________________________
Process 4 - Communicating valid conclusions.

Q.4 Give reason: Why were horses unable to separate both hemispheres?

_________________________________________________

(Process 5- Demonstrating understanding of scientific concept or Scientific attitude)

Q.5 Answer is Yes/No

(i) Was it possible to separate both hemispheres by increasing two horses on both sides?
Yes/No

(ii) Do you think there was a spiritual power which was helping hemispheres?
Yes/No

Answer key
Marking Scheme:

1 Score 1 for Otto von Guericke

Score 0 if no ans. Or wrong ans.

2 Score 1 to demonstrate atmospheric pressure

Score 0 for other ans.

3 (i) Score 1 for 51cm otherwise score 0

(ii) Score 1 for 16 otherwise score 0.

4 Score 1 for ans. Due to no air pressure inside and only pressure from outside

Which is atmospheric pressure. Or similar explanation.

5 (i) Score 1 for No

(ii) Score 1 for No

 FST-13 Friction

(Process 1 - Recognizing scientifically investigative question)

Q.1 Fill in the following blanks with two different words as shown above

I __________ the motion, I ___________ the motion.

(Process 2- Identifying evidence needed in a scientific investigation.)

Q.2 The above riddle is about:

a) Force b) velocity c) work d) friction

(Process 3 - Drawing or evaluating conclusions.)

Q.3 What according to you are benefits and losses of friction?

Process 4 - Communicating valid conclusions.

Q.4 (i) where can you always find the friction?

(ii) How can friction be minimized and maximized?

(Process 5- Demonstrating understanding of scientific concept or Scientific attitude)

Q.5 Answer Yes/No

(i) We can walk on road because we know how to walk. Yes/No

(ii) On rubbing hands in winters they get warmed due to friction between two hands. Yes/No

Answer key
1 Score 2 for oppose and facilitate

Score 1 if only one correct.

Score 0 if no ans. Or both wrong

2 Score 1 for d) Friction

Score 0 for a,b or c

3 Possible ans. Benefits: Causes motion helps in walking

Losses: wear and tear, heating up of parts of machines or bodies in Contact.

Score 2 for both right benefits and losses

Score 1 if one is correct

Score 0 for both wrong answers.

4 (i) Score 1 between two bodies or surfaces in contact or similar ans.

Score 0 for others

(ii) To minimize lubrication is applied and to maximize the surfaces are made more and more

rough. Score 2 for both correct same or similar ans.

Score 1 for one correct same or similar ans.

Score 0 for both incorrect and irrelevant ans.

5 (i) Score 1 for No

(ii) Score 1 for Yes

 घर्षण

(Process 1 - Recognizing scientifically investigative question)

प्र1 ऊपर दिये अनुसार िो विभिन्न शब्िों की सहायता से ररक्त स्थान िरो :

मैं गतत का _________ करता हूँ,मैं ही गतत को ________ बनाता हूँ।

(Process 2- Identifying evidence needed in a scientific investigation.)

प्र.2 ऊपर िी पहे ली ककसके बारे में है ?

क) बल ख) गतत ग) कायष घ) घर्षण

(Process 3 - Drawing or evaluating conclusions.)

प्र.3 आपके अनुसार घर्षण के क्या लाि तथा हातनयाूँ हैं?

Process 4 - Communicating valid conclusions.

प्र.4 (i) आपको सिा घर्षण कहाूँ भमलेगा?

(ii) घर्षण को कैसे कम या ज्यािा कर सकते हैं?

(Process 5- Demonstrating understanding of scientific concept or Scientific attitude)

प्र.5 हाूँ या नहीीं में उत्तर िीजिये:

(i) हम सड़क पर चल सकते हैं क्योंकक हमें चलना आता है । हाूँ / नहीीं
(ii) सदिष यों में िब हम अपने िोनों हाथों को आपस में रगड़ते हैं तो िोनों के ब च की
घर्षण के कारण ये गरम हो िाते हैं । हाूँ / नहीीं
 FST-14 Fascinating world of sound

We can recognize many familiar sounds

without seeing the objects producing them.
These sounds must be different to enable you to
recognize them. Fire alarms / sirens are loud,
whispers are soft and every one of your friends
has a different voice. The difference between
sounds are caused by mainly due to difference
in amplitude and frequency. Frequency is expressed in hertz and its symbol is Hz. A frequency
of 1 Hz is one oscillation/vibration per second. Loudness is measured by amplitude, when
amplitude of vibration is large the loud sound is produced, loudness cannot be assigned a specific
number but intensity of sound is measured in decibels. A whisper is about 10 decibels intensity
sound and sounds with intensities above 84 decibels may damage your ears. If a sound is loud
enough over 120 decibels intensity then it can be painful to listen to, this is the threshold of pain.
The frequency determines the pitch of sound. Drum produces a sound of low pitch on the other
hand a whistle produce a sound of high pitch. A bird makes a high pitched sound whereas a lion
makes a low pitched roar. The roar of a lion is very loud while sound of the bird is quite feeble.
This science of sound (acoustics) is very interesting and is useful in understanding the types of
sound and also helpful in making various musical instruments also. This science is an integral
part of our life and creates fascinating world of sound around us.

Q1 Sound of siren and whistle are different as we perceive and can be easily differentiated, this
difference is mainly due to

a) Sounds of different amplitude and frequency

b) Sounds of different amplitude only

c) Sounds different frequency only

d) Difference if ear structure of humans

Q2 the symbol of frequency is

a) Hz b) Hz c) HZ d) Hertz

Q 3 What is the reason of loud sound? Explain in brief

Q 4 High amplitude sounds definitely have

a) High energy Yes/No

b) High pitch Yes/No

c) Large loudness Yes/No

d) High frequency Yes/No

Q 5 Acoustics is a

a) Science of studying the sound and its causes agree/disagree

b) Science of studying cause hearing impairment agree/disagree

c) Science of understanding the types of sound agree/disagree

d) Science helpful in making various musical instruments agree/disagree

Q 6 Check following figure and choose correct / incorrect responses

a) Gunshot sound can be painful to ears to listen correct/incorrect

b) Threshold of human hearing is 10 decibel correct/incorrect

c) Threshold of human hearing is < 10 decibel correct/incorrect

d) Whispering and breathing sounds are equal in decibels correct/incorrect

Answer Key
1). a

2). b

3). answer should be strictly in accordance with the passage

4). a) yes b) no c) yes d) no

5). a) agree b) disagree b) agree c) agree

6). a) correct b) incorrect c) correct d) correct

FST-15 Gravity v/s Height

Q 1 What is the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of earth?

a) 32 f/s2
b) 9.75 m/s2
c) 8 f/s2
d) 0 cm/s2

Q 2 If a person weighs 80 kg on the surface of the earth how much will be the weight at a height
of 4000 miles from the surface of the earth

a) 100 kg
b) 20 kg
c) 10 kg
d) 100 pound

Q 3 At which height from a surface of earth a person weighing 160 kg on earth will weigh 10 kg

a) 1200 miles
b) 19312 miles
c) 1600 miles
d) Both a and b

Q 4 “This is possible that an object can be sent out of gravitational field of earth and never falls
back towards earth i.e. escapes from earth’s gravitational field “Justify the statement by giving
data in support of your answer.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q 5 “This is possible that an object can be sent out of gravitational field of earth and never falls
back towards earth i.e. escapes from earth’s gravitational field (Tick the answer).

Agree Strongly Agree Disagree Strongly Disagree

Answer Key
Q1a

Q2b

Q3a

Q 4 Student must give data from given figure in support of answer as there is a decline in value
of acceleration due to gravity with height

Q 5 Strongly Agree
FST-16 Gravitation:- Historical Research by Sir Isaac Newton

The motion of the Moon and the motion of a body falling freely on Earth. Newton assumed the
existence of an attractive forcebetween all massive bodies, one that does not require bodily
contact and that acts at a distance. By invoking his law of inertia (bodies not acted upon by a
force move at constant speed in a straight line), Newton
concluded that a force exerted by Earth on the Moon is
needed to keep it in a circular motion about Earth rather
than moving in a straight line this force is called
centripetal force and this force is provided by
gravitational force between earth and moon. He realized
that this force could be, at long range, the same as the
force with which Earth pulls objects on its surface
downward. When Newton discovered that
the acceleration of the Moon is 1/3,600 smaller than the
acceleration at the surface of Earth, he related the
number 3,600 to the square of the radius of Earth. He
calculated that the circular orbital motion of
radius R and period T requires a constant inward
acceleration A (centripetal acceleration) equal to the
product of 4π and the ratio of the radius to the square of the time
2

In our solar system all the planets go around the Sun and there exists a force of attraction
between the Sun and the planets. Newton concluded that not only does the earth attract apple and
the moon , but all objects attract each other.This force of attraction between objects is called the
gravitational force. This force is given by

M1,M2 are the masses of objects

R distance between objects
G universal gravitational constant

Q1 Moon revolves around the earth because

a) There is a centripetal force between earth and moon
b) There is a gravitational force of attraction between earth and moon
c) Gravitational force acts as a centripetal force between earth and moon
d) There is a magnetic force of attraction between earth and moon which provide required
centripetal acceleration
Q 2 If we take a piece of thread and tie a small stone at one end. By holding the other end of the
thread we whirl it round, as shown in figure. Note the motion of the stone. If we release the
thread again, what will be the direction of motion of the stone

a) Towards the center of circular

b) Outwards to the center of circular path
c) Tangential to the circular path
d) Stone will fall downwards

Q 3 Select true or false statements from the following.

a) Newton assumed the existence of an attractive forcebetween all massive bodies
b) Newton concluded that a force exerted by Earth on the Moon is needed to keep it in a
circular motion about Earth rather than moving in a straight line
c) In our solar system all the planets go around the Sun and there exists a force of attraction
between the Sun and the planets
d) Newton discovered the relationship between the motion of the Moon and the motion of a
body falling freely on Earth

Q 4 “Apple falls towards earth, does moon also fall towards earth? “ Justify your answer.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer key
1). a,b and c are correct only d is incorrect

2). c

3). All are true

4). yes moon also falls towards earth but tangentially under the effect of gravitational force.
 FST- 17 LIGHT (MOON ILLUSION)
One of the most interesting of all natural illusions is the large size of full moon when we see
it low on horizon. Six hours later, when the moon is high on the sky, we think that it has become
much smaller. But photograph show that the diameter of the moon when it is high in the sky is
the same as when it

is low on the horizon. We shall see the same illusion if we go to a planetarium.

Scientists do not agree on why this happens. Some of them think that the moon on the
horizon looks larger because we can see it together with some trees or houses (which are on the
horizon too). But this does not explain why the illusion is same at sea, where there is nothing on
the horizon.
Now some scientists think that this illusion takes place because things look smaller when we
must raise our eyes to see them.

Questions:

1. Would this illusion also be there for half moon?

________________________________________________.

2. Why in a planetarium dome shaped screen/ceiling is made?

a) To have similar appearance as sky in real has

b) To have larger field of view

c) To give a feeling that viewer is in the sky

 d) None of the above

3. If a picture of moon is taken with a X (zoom) camera. Can you estimate the diameter of

moon? (given distance of moon from earth = D )

Answer Key:

1. Yes

2. a) & b)

3.
FST-18 Light (Reflection/lateral inversion)

When we look at our self in a plane mirror, we see

our image in the mirror. Now, when we wave our
right hand, we see that our image appears to be
waving its left hand. Seen through a
rear viewmirror
It means our right hand appears to be left hand of the image. Similarly, our
right foot appears to be the left foot of the image. This is called lateral
inversion. Therefore, lateral inversion is a phenomenon due to which right side of an object
appears to be left in its image in a reflecting medium and vice versa.
Characteristics Of The Image Formed By A plane Mirror

1. The image is of the same size and shape as the object.

2. It is formed at the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of it.

Questions:

1. How do people sitting in cinema hall see the film focused on the screen?

2. Draw the image of the word PHYSICS formed in still water.

3. How can one see the whole big image in a small rear view mirror.

4. Is the image formed in the rear view mirror real or virtual

Answer Key:

1. Due to reflected light reaching their eyes.

2.

3. Because of little curvature of the reflecting surface: That increases the field of view

4. virtual
FST-19
LIGHT
Body Trackers

The basis band is the first continuous health tracker that measures
heart rate at the wrist, rather than the chest or arm. An LED on the
underside of the watch shines green light (which blood absorbs
particularly well) onto the wearer’s wrist, and a sensor detects how
much light bounces back. Because blood volume in the wrist is
greatest immediately after a heartbeat, the reflected light can be used
to determine pulse. The watch also includes a three- axis
accelerometer to detect motion, electrodes to measure galvanic skin
response, and heat sensors to track skin and environmental
temperature. Real-time data—steps, calories burned and heart rate—
appears on the watch display.

Questions
1. Which phenomenon of light is used in determining the pulse?
a) Refraction b) reflection c) scattering d) absorption
Credits : 1 mark for b) or d)
2 marks for b) and d)

2. Why green light is made to shine on wearer’s wrist?

3. Write full form of LED.

4. After the heartbeat more light is detected. True or false?

Justify your answer as well.

Answer Key:
1. b) and d)
2. Blood absorbs green light well.
3. Light Emitting Diode
4. False : more light is absorbed after heart beat so less is reflected.
 FST-20
LIGHT- Pinhole Camera

A pinhole camera is a simple camera without lens in shape of a

box, one of the sides has a small hole and produces an inverted
image of outside world at other side.
The box should be painted black from outside for better
clarity.
The object, whose image to be seen should in bright light. Smaller the hole, sharper the image.
Temporary black and white image is formed in the screen if tracing paper is used.
Permanent colored and black and white images can be obtained using photographic film instead
of tracing paper.

Questions:
1. Which property of light does it show?
a) Reflection b) refraction c) rectilinear propagation
2. What happens if hole is made bigger?
____________________________________________-
3. Why the box should be painted black from outside than inside?
___________________________________________-
4. How can you differentiate between an image and shadow?

Answer Key:
1. c)
2. no image will be visible thereafter.
3. To avoid extra light which can reduce contrast/clarity
4. There may different views pertaining to the image is formed when rays meeting and
shadow when rays are blocked/not reaching on surface
FST – 21 LIGHT-SPECTRUM (ON THE CEILING)

One of Newton’s most famous experiments was to pass a beam of sunlight through a prism to
form rainbow colors on the wall.
You can carry out experiment of this sort with an electric torch, a mirror and a bowl of water.
Put the mirror in the bowl so that it is at an angle of 30 to the level of the water. When it is dark
in the room, you shine your torch on the mirror. A small spectrum of colours will appear on the
ceiling.
The experiment proves that there are many lights of different colours in white light. The water
acts as a prism which reflects each colour at a different angle and forms different colours on the
ceiling.
Questions:
1. How many prominent colours do you think appear on the ceiling?
a) 3 primary colours b) seven colours c) as many as can come over the ceiling
2. One expects the bands of different colours in the shape of
a) Straight strips b) curved c) circular d) as the shape of beam from torch
3. What are different phenomena one can find happening in this experiment?
a) Reflection b) refraction c) reflection from mirror and refraction through water d)
reflection from water and refraction from mirror
4. The different colors are due to different __________.
Answer key:
1. b) 2. a) 3. c) 4. wave length.
FST 22 Physical and Chemical Changes
Changes occurring around us can be physical or chemical. A physical change is one in
which physical properties of a substance change without a change in its chemical composition.
As a result, a substance changes its form, but not its chemical composition.
Physical changes are usually reversible and temporary. Everyday examples of
physical changes are drying of wet clothes, tearing paper into pieces, melting of wax, chopping
of wood, and freezing water to get ice.
A chemical change is one in which new and different substances are formed. The
substance or substances formed have properties different from those of the materials that
combined during the change. The change is usually irreversible and permanent.
Some examples of chemical changes are digestion of food, rusting of Iron, respiration, cooking
of food, photosynthesis in plants.
Q.1 Choose the correct option:
1. Which of the following change can not be reversed?
a) Hardening of cement b) Freezing of ice- cream
c) Opening of a door d) Melting of chocolate
2. Pick the change that can be reversed ?
a) Cutting of tree b) Melting of Ghee
c) Burning of candle d) Blooming of flower
3. While lighting a candle,Paheli observed the following changes-
i) Wax was melting ii) Candle was burning
iii) Size of the candle reducing iv) Melted wax was getting solidified
Of the above ,The changes that can be reversed are
a) I &ii b) ii & iii
b) Iii & iv d) I & iv
4. Salt can be separated from its solution as
a) Mixing of salt in water is a change that can be reversed by heating and melting of salt
b) Mixing of salt in water is a change that can’t be reversed.
c) It is a permanent change.
d) It can be reversed by evaporation.

Ans 1. 1-a , 2-b, 3-d , 4-d

Q.2 Complete the given analogy:
2.1 Reversible: Irreversible :: ____________: Ripening of fruits.
a) Photosynthesis b) Cutting of paper
c) Chopping of wood d) Increase in heart beat
2.2 Burning of candle: Melting of wax :: ___________ : _____________
a) Reversible : Irreversible b) Irreversible : Reversible
c) Fast : slow d) Slow : Fast
Ans. 2.1- d 2.2 --b
FST-23 Solids, Liquids and Gases

Ice, water and water vapours are three states of the same substance water. The three states differ
not in molecules but in the way the molecules are arranged and move. On the average the
distances between molecules of gases are dozens of times as great as the molecules themselves.

The molecules in liquids are packed so close that the distance between every two
molecules is smaller than the molecule itself. Molecule of liquids do not spread to large distances
and in ordinary conditions retain their volume.

In solids the attraction between molecules is still greater than in liquids. Some of the solid
bodies for instance, snow flakes have natural regular and fair shape. The atoms of majority of
solids for e.g. naphthalene, salt etc are in motion, however each of them moves about a certain
point just as the pendulum of a clock, that is, it oscillates.

Q.1 Difference between the molecules of ice, water and water vapor is because of ;

a) Difference in size
b) Difference in arrangement and movement of molecules
c) Difference in movement of molecules

Q.2 Gases spread in all directions because;

a) They move in all directions

b) They get repelled from each other because of weak bonds
c) They knock against each other and due to the impacts they get repelled and spread in all
directions.

Q.3 Crystalline solids retain their shape and volume because;

a) They oscillate in their own position but cannot move away

b) They are static and show no motion
c) Their attraction is greater than their repulsion

Q.4 When you heat a sample of solid the sample gets a little bigger because;

a) Heat helps the particle to grow

 b) Heating the sample makes it lighter
c) The particles move faster and get a little further apart.

Q.5 An increase in temperature;

a) Increases molecular motion in liquids

b) Increases the distance between atoms and liquids
c) Increases molecular motion and the distance between atoms in all three states of matter.

Answer key
Answer 1:
Full credit
Code 1: b) Difference in arrangement and movement of molecules

No Credit

Code 0 : Other responses

Code 9 : Missing

Answer 2.

Full credit

Code 1: c)They knock against each other and due to the impacts they get repelled and spread in
all directions.

No Credit

Code 0 : Other responses

Code 9 : Missing

Answer 3.
Full credit
Code 1: a) They oscillate in their own position but cannot move away

No Credit
Code 0 : Other responses
Code 9 : Missing

When energy is provided the distance between molecules increases and solids change into
liquids and vapor.

Answer 4.

Full credit

Code 1: c) The particles move faster and get a little further apart.

No Credit

Code 0: Other responses

Code 9: Missing

Answer 5.

Full credit

Code 1: c) Increases molecular motion and the distance between atoms in all

three states of matter.

No Credit

Code 0 : Other responses

Code 9 : Missing
FST 24 Sound in Space

[This is an observation that astronaut when travel in

space encounters difficulty in talking with another
astronaut when both are outside the space ship, but they
easily talk with each other when inside a space ship. As
you can see in figure that waves are travelling from one
place to another inside the space ship but not to an
1
astronaut outside the space ship.] [NASA is an agency which is known for research and
exploration in space science and world’s largest research agency of USA. According to NASA
there is a sound in the space and we need special arrangements to hear or record these sounds i.e.
haunting the sound.]2 [This is amazing that NASA has recorded various sounds in space,
recording instruments should be such that they provide material medium to trap or haunt the
sound. These instruments are developed on the principle of integrated approach where all the
important parameters are taken in to consideration.] 3
Q.1:- Why two astronaut are able to talk inside space ship but not outside the space ship.
a) There is some gaseous medium inside the space ship but not outside the space ship
b) There is some air or oxygen inside the space ship but not outside the space ship
c) Sound waves travel inside the space ship but not outside the space ship
d) There exists a sound in the space but we don’t hear because of absence of medium in space.
 Score 2 if response is all a,b,c and d
 Score 1 if a,b and d are correct
 Score 0 for any other response
Q. 2: What is the basic requirement of a device used to record a sound in space?
a) Integrated approach involving material medium to record a sound in space.
b) All the parameters necessary for recording a sound in space must be incorporated in a device.
c) There should be availability of medium between source and receiver.
d) There should be an amplifier circuit to trap or haunt the sound in space.
 Score 2 if answer is a or b
 Score 1 if answer is a,b,c and d or any other responses having either a or b
 Score 0 if answer is c and d
Q. 3: Which part of passage indicate that recording of sound in space is not a simple task but
this needs a special devices and arrangements.
a) 1,2 b) 2 only c) 2, 3 d) 3 only
 Score 2 if response is either c or both b and d only
 Score 1 if response is either b or d
 Score 0 if any other response

Answer key
1). all a,b,c and d 2). a and b 3). c or b and d
 FST-25 How Do Organisms Reproduce
(Stimulus :- I)

1. The growth of plant tissues in artificial media is called___________

a) Gene expression
b) Transgenesis
c) Plant tissue culture
d) Cell hybridization
2. Name and define the process shown above.

3. Out of the following, which one is not the basic component of culture media used for plant
cultivation?
a) Complex mixture of salts
b) Amino acids
c) Serum albumin
d) Sugar/ sucrose

4. Give reason: tissue culture is also called micro propagation.

5. Compare micro propagation and vegetative propagation.

Answer Key
Ans 1. © Ans 3. ©
 FST-26 How Do Organisms Reproduce
(Stimulus :- II)

1. What does the above picture depict?

2. Give reason: why are the above said devices used by males and females?
3. There is only one reason to use contraceptive devices i.e. to control pregnancy. Justify your
answer.
Do you? Reason
Agree
Disagree
Partially agree
Partially disagree

4. Which of these methods of sterilization is permanent?

a) Tubal sterilization c) both( a and b)
b) vasectomy d) none of the above
5. “Rise in use of contraception offers hope for better reproductive health”. Justify.

Answer Key
Ans 4.
Score 2 for option ©
Score 1 for option (a) or (b)
Score 0 for option (d)
FST-27
Evaporation
Tamanna and her mother went to a shop to buy some cooling equipment for her house to beat the
summer heat. The shop keeper showed them two types of cooling equipments: a desert cooler
and an all weather air conditioner. The desert cooler was much cheaper than the air conditioner.
Tamanna’s mother wanted the desert cooler as it was much cheaper. At that point of time
Tamanna remembered that they were told about the process of evaporation and that evaporation
causes cooling in their school. She also recalled that the rate of evaporation depends on factors
like surface area, temperature, wind speed and humidity. Then she discussed with her mother
whether they should buy a desert cooler or an all weather air conditioner.

Now answer the following questions:

1. Can you guess which scientific process would be responsible for the cooling caused by a
desert cooler?
a) Sublimation
b) Condensation
c) Evaporation
d) Melting
2. Rate of evaporation depends on:
a) Surface area
b) Temperature
c) Humidity
d) Wind speed
e) All of the above
3. Can you explain why a desert cooler is not effective in cooling during a rainy season?
4. As a student of science, why would you suggest to Tamanna’s mother to buy the
expensive air conditioner? Give reasons.
5. Does the use of air conditioners lead to environmental pollution in any way?
 Give reasons.

Answer key:

1. Evaporation
2. All of the above.
3. A desert cooler cools by increasing the moisture in the air. Then cooling is caused by
the evaporation of water. But in the rainy season the humidity is high which decreases
the rate of evaporation. So a desert cooler is not effective in cooling during the rainy
season.
4. I would suggest Tamanna’s mother to buy the expensive air conditioner instead of a
desert cooler because the air conditioner provides cooling during the rainy season as
well whereas the desert cooler is not effective in rainy season.
5. Yes. The cooling in an air conditioner is caused by the evaporation and cooling of a
CFC like Freon. If there is a leakage of CFCs, it may lead to the depletion of the
ozone layer.
FST-28
Law of conservation of mass.

According to law of conservation of mass, mass destroyed in one form is converted into other
form/s and there is no net loss. The products formed may be useful or harmful. For example,
coke is burnt as a source of heat and CO2 produced is needed for photosynthesis but can also be
one of the pollutants. CO2 also enters into the atmosphere through respiration or production of
quick lime from limestone.

Now answer the following questions:

1. Which law of chemical combination is being discussed above?

a) Law of conservation of energy.
b) Law of constant proportions.
c) Law of conservation of mass.
d) None of the above.
2. How is law of conservation of mass related to a chemical reaction?
a) Mass of reactants is always greater than the mass of the products.
b) Mass of reactants is always equal to the mass of the products.
c) Mass of reactants is always less than the mass of the products.
d) None of the above.
3. What should be done with respect to vehicles causing a lot of air pollution due to
burning of fuels like petrol, diesel etc.?
4. Should the burning of fossil fuels be completely banned? Give reasons
5. Do you think CO2 is useful for any other purpose besides photosynthesis? Explain with
example.

Answers:

1 Law of conservation of mass.

2 In a chemical reaction the mass of the reactants is always equal to the mass of the
products.
3 The exhaust pipes of the vehicles can be fitted with catalytic convertors which may
convert poisonous gases into harmless products, e.g., oxides of nitrogen to free nitrogen
to free nitrogen.
4 Use of fossils should not be banned completely but its use should be reduced to
minimum. Fossil fuels are cheaper and in the reach of the common man. But if the
amount of CO2 generated exceeds a particular limit, it results in global warming.
5 Yes, CO2 is used in the synthesis of a large no. of useful compounds, e.g., washing soda,
urea etc. Also, it helps to maintain the temperature of the earth required for the existence
of living organisms
FST-29
Saturated Solutions
Sameer wanted to prepare a strong solution of sodium chloride in water. He took 100g of water
in a beaker and started adding sodium chloride. To his surprise after adding about 46g of sodium
chloride, no more sodium chloride dissolved. He tried his best by vigorously shaking but sodium
chloride remained undissolved. He heated the beaker and observed that some more sodium
chloride dissolved but when the beaker was again placed at room temperature, the extra sodium
chloride separated out.

1. What other word could be used in place of strong solution in the paragraph above?
a) Suspension.
b) Saturated solution.
c) Unsaturated solution.
d) Colloidal solution.
2. Explain why no more solute could be added even on vigorously shaking the contents of
the beaker?
3. Why could more solute be added on heating the beaker?
4. When the beaker was again placed at room temperature, the extra sodium chloride
separated out. How will you justify this observation as a student of science?
5. While making lemonade, should we add ice after adding sugar or before adding sugar?
Justify.

Answer key:

1. Saturated solution.
2. Solubility is constant at a particular temperature for a saturated solution.
3. Solubility increases with the increase in temperature in case of endothermic reactions.
4. Solubility decreases with the decrease in temperature in case of an endothermic reaction.
5. We should add ice to lemonade only after adding and mixing sugar in it because
solubility decreases with the decrease in temperature.
FST-30
Charged particles in an atom
Rajat and Somil are the students of class IX. They have recently studied the chapter on structure
of atom in the class. Both Rajat and Somil were performing some activities in the science
laboratory. Rajat took a plastic comb and rubbed it in his dry hair. When he brought this plastic
comb (rubbed in dry hair) near tiny pieces of paper, the comb attracted the pieces of paper
towards it. Meanwhile, Somil took a glass rod and rubbed it with a piece of silk cloth. When he
brought this glass rod (rubbed with silk cloth) near the tiny pieces of paper, the glass rod also
attracted the pieces of paper towards it (just like the plastic comb).

Rajat and Somil had studied an instrument called electroscope in class VIII. So they decided to
make use of a positively charged electroscope having diverged leaves (or opened up leaves) in
their activity. Rajat took the plastic comb (rubbed in dry hair) and touched the metal top of
positively charged electroscope with it. This made the diverged leaves of electroscope to fold up.
Somil then took the glass rod (rubbed with silk cloth) and touched the metal top of another
positively charged electroscope with it. This made the diverged leaves of the electroscope
diverge (or open up) even more. Rajat did not understand the various conclusions which could be
drawn from all these observations. Somil explained him everything very clearly.

Now answer the following questions:

a) What conclusion can be drawn from the observation that a plastic comb rubbed in dry
hair and a glass rod rubbed with silk cloth, both attract tiny pieces of paper?
b) What do the above observations tell us about the atoms present in plastic comb and glass
rod?
c) i) When a plastic comb rubbed in dry hair is touched with the metal top of a positively
charged electroscope, its diverged leaves fold up. What conclusion can you draw from
this observation?
 ii) When a glass rod rubbed with silk cloth is touched with the metal top of a positively
charged electroscope, then its leaves diverge even more? What conclusion can you draw
from this observation?

d) What are the two types of electric charges present in atoms as shown by the above
observations? Name the subatomic particles which carry these charges.

e) i) Which electric charges are gained by a plastic comb on rubbing in dry hair?
ii) Which electric charges are lost by a glass rod on rubbing with silk cloth?

Answer Key

a) It is a known fact that an electrically charged object can attract an uncharged object. So,
both a plastic comb rubbed in dry hair and a glass rod rubbed with silk cloth are
electrically charged (having electric charges on them) due to which they attract the
uncharged pieces of paper.
b) These observations tell us that some charged particles are present in the atoms of plastic
comb as well as glass rod.
c) i) This observation shows that the charge on plastic comb is opposite to that of positively
charged electroscope. In other words, the plastic comb rubbed in dry hair carries negative
electric charge.
ii) This observation shows that the charge on glass rod is of the same type as that of
positively charged electroscope. In other words, the glass rod rubbed with silk cloth
carries positive electric charge.
d) The atoms contain negative electric charges as well as positive electric charges. The
subatomic particles having negative charge are electrons whereas the subatomic particles
having positive charge are protons. (A neutral atom contains an equal number of
electrons and protons).
e) i) The plastic comb gains negative charges (electrons) from dry hair on rubbing.
ii) The glass rod loses negative charges (electrons) to silk cloth on rubbing.
FST-31
Tyndall Effect
A group of students took an old shoe box and covered it with a black paper from all sides. They
fixed a source of light (a torch) at one end of the box by making a hole in it and made another
hole on the other side to view the light. They placed a milk sample contained in a beaker/tumbler
in the box as shown in the figure. They were amazed to see that milk taken in the tumbler was
illuminated. They tried the same activity by taking a salt solution but found that light simply
passed through it.

Q.1 Name the phenomenon being discussed above.

i. Sublimation
ii. Evaporation
iii. Diffusion
iv. Tyndall effect

Q.2 Explain why the milk sample was illuminated.

Q.3 Same results were not observed with a salt solution. Explain.

Q.4 Can you suggest two more instances which would show the same effect as shown by the
milk solution?
Q.5 The sky appears dark to an astronaut. Discuss in the light of the information given in the
paragraph.
Q.6 How much do you agree with the following? Tick only one box in each row

Strongly Agree Disagree Strongly

agree disagree
1. Knowing why the colour of the sun is
red at sunrise and at sunset.
2. Understanding why the colour of the
clear sky is blue.
3. Understanding the difference between
tyndall effect and refraction of light.

Answer Key

1. Tyndall effect.
2. Milk is a colloidal solution. The size of the solute particles is big enough to scatter a
beam of light. Therefore the milk sample was illuminated.
3. A salt solution is a homogeneous mixture. The size of the solute particles is not big
enough to scatter a beam of light. So a salt solution does not get illuminated.
4. Scattering of sunlight by dust particles present in air makes the sky look blue. The dust
particles also illuminate the path of light thrown from a projector on the screen in the
cinema hall.
5. The sky appears dark to an astronaut because there is no atmosphere in the space and
hence no particles to scatter light. Hence the space appears dark to an astronaut.
ENVIRONMENT
 E1.Carbon Footprint

Scientists measured the impact that people have on the environment using a “yardstick” that they
call a carbon “footprint.” That footprint reflects the amount of carbon dioxide — a greenhouse
gas — that is released into the atmosphere as a result of someone’s daily activities. Carbon
footprints tend to be low for people living in rural areas. Living in a city, however, can turn that
footprint into a bootprint.
People living in rural areas had small footprints, the researchers found. According to them, “It is
much easier to have a low carbon impact if your home is close to where you work, shop and
play” .
Major reasons for carbon footprints are electricity we use, gas heating, trash production, usage of
vehicles. Usage of non bio-degradable materials cause larger carbon footprint as compare to bio-
degradable materials.
All of these factors can bump up carbon footprints so that they exceed those of villagers, Jones
and Kammen report. The difference is substantial. The average household in a village releases
about 25 tons of carbon dioxide per year. The average city household, however, releases closer to
50 tons of carbon dioxide per year. That’s a 50 percent increase over villagers.
Children born today, will have to live their lives with drastically smaller carbon footprints than
their grandparents, if climate change is to be controlled.
Carbon neutrality, or climate neutrality or having a net zero carbon footprint, refers to
achieving net zero carbon dioxide emissions by balancing carbon emissions with carbon removal
or simply eliminating carbon emissions altogether . It is used in the context of carbon dioxide-
releasing processes associated with transportation, energy production, and industrial processes.
Q1. Read the context above and tick the correct response.
i). Reusing or recycling old items instead of buying new ones helps shrink your carbon footprint
by…

a) Eliminating the need for new packaging to be created

b) Cutting out the CO2 released when transporting new products to the store

c) Making sure you don’t buy more than you need

d) All of the above

 ii) Rubber or plastic shoes usually have a higher carbon footprint than canvas ones because…

a) They have bigger soles

b) They’re made of petroleum (oil-based) products, which are often processed in big factories.
c) Plastic comes from the Plasticus plantae plant, which needs to be watered every hour to
survive
d) They can be decomposed.

iii). Which of these fabrics usually has a lower carbon footprint?

a) Nylon b) Polyester c) Cotton d) Fleece

iv). Where’s the best place to shop to keep your carbon footprint small?

a) A farmer’s market you can walk to, just around the corner.
b) The outlet store an hour’s drive away
c) The grocery store by your best friend’s house in the next town over – you guys like to do
everything together!
d) Can order online.
v). Old-school incandescent light bulbs have a higher carbon footprint than new fluorescent ones
because…
a) They use less energy
b) They have to be replaced more often
c) They’re the only type of light bulb used in factories
d) They are made up of glass.
vi) What’s the best way to shrink your carbon footprint?

a) Buy eco-friendly products b) Wear smaller shoes

c) Use less – and buy less too. d) Bike less, drive more.
Q. 2 “Living in a city, however, can turn that footprint into a bootprint”.

What do you understand by this statement? Give reason for turning of footprint into a bootprint.

Q3 Children will have to live their lives with smaller footprints. Suggest ways to have smaller
footprints.

Q4 Is it possible to eliminate carbon emission altogether? Suggest some ways for the same.

Q5. Read the following statements and write whether you agree with them or disagree.

S.no Statement Agree/Disagree

1 Eating seasonal fruits and vegetables help to reduce
carbon footprint.
2 Economically poor people have same carbon footprint as
 compare to rich ones.
3 Carbon neutrality or climate neutrality are same
4 How much we pollute is influenced not just by where we
live, but also how we live.
5 The type of food we eat does not influence the carbon
footprint.

Answers key:
1. i) d ii) b iii) c iv) a v) b vi) c

2. People living in a city have larger footprint as they use more electricity, emission from the
vehicles, usage of ACs, etc. all these factors adds to the pollution.

3. For the smaller footprint one should:

a) Drive less and walk more.

b) Use car pooling or public transport.
c) Use seasonal fruits and vegetables as processed food leads to carbon footprint.
d) Lesser the use of electricity.

4. To eliminate carbon footprint completely is a difficult task but we can reduce it to a larger
extent by:

a) Using solar and wind energy instead of electricity.

b) Burning of fuel should be minimized.
c) Grow more of green plants.
d) Heating and cooling of homes by artificial means should stop.

5. 1. Agree 2. Disagree 3. Disagree 4. Disagree 5. Agree

 E2. Carbon cycle

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Carbon cycle involves the following processes:

a. Photosynthesis: In this process plants form their food by absorbing theatmospheric carbon in
the form of carbondioxide gas and release oxygen gas.
b. Respiration: In this process plants and animals use oxygen for the breakdown of glucose
stored in the cells to release CO2, water and energy.
c. Decomposition: In this process dead plants and animals get decomposed to release carbon into
the environment.
d. Combustion: Burning of fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide gas into the environment as a by
product.
e. Movement of carbon from the atmosphere to the oceans: The oceans, and other water bodies,
soak up about a quarter of the carbon dioxide to form carbonates. Thus, the amount of carbon
dioxide, so formed, is almost equal to the amount of carbon dioxide consumed & hence, its
concentration in air remains same.
 Questions

Q.1 Carbon is removed from the atmosphere by :

a) Respiration of human beings.

b) Leguminous plants.

c) Photosynthesis in plants.

d) All the above.

Q.2 What two things can we do to control the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

Q.3 Carbon is released back into atmosphere by :

a) Respiration of all living organisms.

b) Decomposition of plants and animals by microbes.

c) Burning of fossil fuels.

d) All the above.

Q.4 Tick any one option (agree / disagree) for the following statements and justify:
a) Carbon cycle is the process by which carbon compounds in producers are taken by the
consumers.
b) It is the process by which living plants and animals can’t return carbon dioxide to the
atmosphere.

Q.5 Explain why scientists think that the combustion of fossil fuels has put the carbon cycle out of
balance.

Answer key:
1.
 Score 2 if response is c
 Score 0 for any other response
3.
 Score 2 if response is d
 Score 1 for any other response
 E3.Greenhouse Effect
Heat is trapped by glass and hence the temperature inside a glass enclosure becomes much
higher than the surroundings. This phenomenon was used to create an enclosure where tropical
plants could be kept warm during the winters in colder climates. Such enclosures are called green
houses. Green houses have also lent their name to an atmospheric phenomenon.
Most of the radiated energy coming from the sun passes through the earth's atmosphere. The
earth absorbs some of this energy and some is reflected back from the earth's surface. Part of this
reflected energy is absorbed by the atmosphere.
As a result of this the average temperature above the earth's surface is higher than it would be if
there were no atmospheres. Some gases prevent the escape of heat from the earth. An increase in
the percentage of such gases would cause the average temperatures to increase worldwide and
this is called greenhouse effect.
The following graphs bring out the relation between the average temperature of the earth's
atmosphere and the carbon dioxide emission on the earth.

Answer the following

Q.1 What conclusion do you draw about the possible relationship between the earth's atmosphere
and carbon dioxide emission on the earth?
Q.2 List two consequences of the increase in the average temperature.
Q.3 Why is greenhouse effect more pronounced during the twentieth century?
Q.4 In this atmospheric phenomenon, the role of glass in green houses is the same as that of
greenhouse gases. Justify your answer.
Q.5 The key component to any greenhouse is.... (PICK ONE OPTION)
a. that it is in the mountains
b. that it is made of glass or clear material
c. that it is made of bricks
d. that it has plenty of water.

Q.6. Taking the example of a car parked in the sun for a few hours, which of the following action
takes place? (PICK ONE OPTION)
a. Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into heat
b. Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into electricity
c. Sunlight once entered the car through windows is completely absorbed by the car
d. Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into wind energy

Answer key:
1. The average temperature is rising with an increase in carbon dioxide emission.

2. a. global warming

b. melting of ice caps

3. More pronounced because the carbon dioxide emission has increased. This increase could be
due to less number of plants, increase in number of vehicles, setting up of new factories etc.

4. A. Same as role of greenhouse gases that prevent the escape of heat by forming an envelope or
a blanket.

5. Option b.

6. Option c.
 E4. Enhanced Greenhouse Effect
The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth’s surface. When the Sun’s
energy reaches the Earth’s atmosphere, some of it is reflected back to space and the rest is
absorbed and re-radiated by greenhouse gases.

Greenhouse gases include water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, ozone and some
artificial chemicals such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

The absorbed energy warms the atmosphere and the surface of the Earth. This process maintains
the Earth’s temperature at around 33 degrees Celsius warmer than it would otherwise be,
allowing life on Earth to exist.

Figure 1 The greenhouse effect

Enhanced greenhouse effect

Carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere by the combustion of fossil fuels. Methane is
released into the atmosphere from rice paddy fields, cattle, landfill waste sites, and the use of
natural gas. The release of additional greenhouse gases by human (anthropogenic) activities has
the potential to cause an enhanced greenhouse effect. This increases the temperature of the
Earth's atmosphere and causes global warming. This global warming leads to melting ice caps
and rising sea levels, and to climate change. Climate change brings altered weather patterns,
causing flooding, and problems with farming and disease control.

How can greenhouse gas emissions be reduced?

Emissions of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere can be reduced by steps such as:

• reducing the consumption of fossil fuels, for example by using biofuels.

• using renewable energy resources such as wind and solar energy to generate electricity.

• stopping carbon dioxide escaping when fuels are used by using carbon capture.

Such steps are expensive, but so are steps to protect against the effects of global warming. These
include flood barriers, planting different crops, and designing buildings to withstand high winds.

Figure 2 Data comparing the change in global temperatures with the change in carbon dioxide
levels.

Answer the following:

Q.1. What is Enhanced Greenhouse effect?

Q.2. Explain why deforestation contributes to the enhanced greenhouse effect.

Q.3. Enhanced greenhouse effect can be reduced by:

a) Using biofuels
b) Using Solar energy
c) Using wind energy
d) Reducing consumption of fossil fuel
Q.4. Greenhouse gases are:
a) Methane and carbon dioxide
b) Water vapours and nitrous oxide
c) Ozone and CFCs
d) Oxygen and nitrogen
Q.5. The problems caused by Greenhouse effect:
a) global warming
b) melting ice caps and rising sea levels
c) altered weather
d) flooding
Q.6. Tick any one option (agree / disagree) for the following statements:
a) The human activities are responsible for increasing the enhanced Greenhouse effect.
b) The three main greenhouse gases are methane, water vapours and carbon dioxide.
c) Natural greenhouse effect is not responsible for keeping earth and its atmosphere
warm.
d) Methane is released into the atmosphere from rice paddy fields, cattle, landfill waste
sites, and the use of natural gas.

Q.7. Using the two graphs (given in Figure 2), describe the link between global
temperature change and atmospheric carbon dioxide levels over the last 100 years.

Answer key:
3.

 Score 2 if response is a,b,c and d

 Score 1 if response is d
 Score 0 for any other answer
4.

 Score 2 if response is a,b and c

 Score 1 if response is a and b
 Score 0 for any other answer

5.

 Score 2 if response is a, b, c and d.

 Score 1 if response is a
 Score 0 for any other answer