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incorrect answer.
1
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TOPIC : Basic Mathematics used in Physics, Vectors, Units, Dimensions and Measurement, Electrostatics,
Kinematics (Motion along a straight line and Motion in a plane), Current electricity and Heating Effects
of Currents, Laws of Motion and Friction, Capacitors.
ax b dx
:- (
a b
n n
1. Value of ax b dx will be :- (where a and b 1.
are constants)
)
a a
(3) ax b C (3) ax b C
n 1 n 1
n 1 n 1
ax b C
ax b C
(4) (4)
n 1 a n 1 a
2. At what angle forces (P + Q) and (P – Q) acted 2. (P + Q)
(P – Q)
so that their resultant is 3P2 Q 2 :- 3P2 Q 2
:-
2 2
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
6 3 4 3 6 3 4 3
3. x and y component of A are 7 and 6 unit respectively. 3. A x
y
7
6
And x and y component of A B are 11 and 9 A B x
y
11 9
respectively then magnitude of B will be :-
B
:-
0999DM310316005 LATS-1/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/AIIMS/21-08-2016
7. In the adjacent figure the switch S is closed at 7.
t = 0 S
t = 0 and initially all capacitors are uncharged
QA, QB & QC are the charges on capacitors A,
A, B C
QA, QB QC
B & C respectively. (In steady state) choose the
:-
correct option :-
10 10
B B
10 10 10
10 10 2F
10 2F
C C
A 1F 2F
A 1F 2F
S 60V S
60V
(1) QA < QB < QC (2) QA < QC < QB (1) QA < QB < QC (2) QA < QC < QB
(3) QC < QB < QA (4) QB < QC = QA (3) QC < QB < QA (4) QB < QC = QA
8. The switch K is closed at t = 0, determine the 8. t = 0 K
K
current through the battery in the circuit shown,
just after closing the switch :-
:-
E K E K
C1 C1
C2 C2
R1 R2 R1 R2
R3 R3
E E E(R 2 R3 )
E(R 2 R3 ) (3) (4)
(3) RR (4) RR
R1 2 3 R 2 R3 R1 2 3 R 2 R3
R2 R3 R2 R3
1
9. The potential V is varying with (x,y) as 9.
V
(x,y)
V = (y2– 4x)
2
1 2
x = 1m, y = 1m
V=
2
(y – 4x) volt. The field at x = 1m, y = 1m is:-
:-
(1) 2iˆ ˆj V/m (2) 2iˆ ˆj V/m (1) 2iˆ ˆj V/m (2) 2iˆ ˆj V/m
(3) 2iˆ ˆj V/m (4) 2iˆ 2 ˆj V/m (3) 2iˆ ˆj V/m (4) 2iˆ 2 ˆj V/m
10. The effective resistance across A and B in the given 10.
A B
figure is:- M
:- M
(1) 15 (1) 15
15
15
15
15
LATS-2/31 0999DM310316005
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/AIIMS/21-08-2016
11. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a 100volt 11.
100
& then disconnected from the source. A slab of
dielectric is then inserted between its plates.
Which of the following quantities will change ?
?
(i) Potential difference (ii) Capacitance (i) (ii)
(iii) Change on plate (iii)
(1) Only (i) & (ii) (2) Only (i) & (iii) (1) (i) (ii) (2) (i) (iii)
(3) Only (ii) & (iii) (4) All (i), (ii), (iii) (3) (ii) (iii) (4)
(i), (ii), (iii)
12. In the circuit, the galvanometer G shows zero 12.
G
deflection. If batteries have negligible internal
R
resistance, the value of R is :-
:-
500 500
G G
12V R 2V 12V R 2V
P P
+q1 +q1
+q4 +q4
+q2 +q2
+q3 +q3
(1) Only q1 & q3 (2) Only q2 & q4 (1) q1 q3 (2) q2 q4
(3) Only q1 & q2 (4) All four changes (3) q1 q2 (4)
15. Electric field due to a conducting shell at a 15.
R
2R
distance 2R (radius of shell = R) from centre is
E
:-
E. Calculate potential at the centre :-
(1) 4ER (2) 2ER
(1) 4ER (2) 2ER
(3) ER (4) Zero (3) ER (4) Zero
0999DM310316005 LATS-3/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/AIIMS/21-08-2016
16. Three infinitely charged sheets are kept parallel 16.
xz
to xz plane having charge densities as shown. The
P
value of electric field at P is :-
:-
Z Z
Z=3a Z=3a
–2 P –2 P
Z=2a Z=2a
– Z=a – Z=a
x x
2 2 2 2
(1) k̂ (2) k̂ (1) k̂ (2) k̂
0 0 0 0
4 4 4 4
(3) k̂ (4) k̂ (3) k̂ (4) k̂
0 0 0 0
E E E E
E E E E
l
l
b b b b
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(2a b) a (2a b) a
LATS-4/31 0999DM310316005
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/AIIMS/21-08-2016
19. Three infinite charged wires of same charge 19.
(c/m)
density (c/m) are placed on x,y & z axis
x,y z
respectively. What is flux related to imagninary R
sphere of radius R centred at origin :-
:-
R 6R R 6R
(1) (2) (1) (2)
0 0 0 0
3R 3R
(3) (4) Zero (3) (4)
0 0
20. Two capacitors A & B are put in circuit as shown. 20.
A B
Initially A and B are charged at 100 V and 100 V 180 V
S1 S2
180 V respectively. Switch S1 & S2 are closed,
A B
charges on A and B after stabilisation are :-
:-
3F S1 S2 B 3F S1 S2 B
A ++++ ++++ 2F A ++++ ++++ 2F
180V 180V
100V 100V
0.5 4V 1 8V 0.5 4V 1 8V
3 3
4.5 4.5
6 6
(1) 1 A (2) 1.5 A (3) 0.25 A (4) 0.5 A (1) 1 A (2) 1.5 A (3) 0.25 A (4) 0.5 A
0999DM310316005 LATS-5/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/AIIMS/21-08-2016
24. An isolated metal sphere of radius R is charged upto 24.
R
V
potential V. Energy stored in the electric field
associated with the charged sphere can be given by:-
:-
5V 5V
10 20 5 10 20 5
(1) V (2) V (3) V (4) Zero (1) V (2) V (3) V (4)
3 3 3 3 3 3
q q 5q q q 5q
(1) Zero (2) (3) 4 (4) 6 (1) (2) (3) 4 (4) 6
0 0 0 0 0 0
27. A ball is thrown upwards from the top of a tower 27. 40 m
10 m/s
40 m high with a velocity of 10 m/s. Find the time
when it strikes the ground (g = 10 m/s2) :-
(g = 10 m/s2) :-
(1) 2s (2) 4s (3) 6s (4) 8s (1) 2s (2) 4s (3) 6s (4) 8s
28. A ball rolls off the top of stair way with a 28.
u
horizontal velocity u. if each step has height a and
a
b
n
width b, the ball will just hit the edge of nth step,
then value of n will be :- n
:-
y y
x x
u=(a ^i + b ^j)m/s u=(a ^i + b ^j)m/s
Hmax. Hmax.
R R
R R
If a = b then H ? a = b
H
max. max.
a a
31. In above question if R = Hmax then will be:- 31.
R = Hmax
:-
b b
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1/4 (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1/4
32. A boy can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal 32.
80m
distance of 80m. The maximum height to which
he can throw the ball will be :-
(1) 80 m (2) 40 m (3) 160 m (4) 120 m (1) 80 m (2) 40 m (3) 160 m (4) 120 m
33. A man is going east in a car with velocity of 33.
20 km/hr
20 km/hr, a train appears to move towards north
20 3 km / hr
to him with a velocity of 20 3 km / hr . What is
the actual velocity of train ?
(1) 20 km/hr (2) 30 km/hr
(1) 20 km/hr (2) 30 km/hr
(3) 40 km/hr (4) 50 km/hr (3) 40 km/hr (4) 50 km/hr
34. The coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.03 in the 34.
0.03
diagram. The acceleration of the block will be- 2
-(g = 10m/s ) :-
(g = 10m/s2) :-
K = 0.03
K = 0.03
20kg
20kg
4kg
4kg
(1) 1.8 m/s2 (2) 0.8 m/s2 (1) 1.8 m/s2 (2) 0.8 m/s2
(3) 1.4 m/s2 (4) 0.4 m/s2 (3) 1.4 m/s2 (4) 0.4 m/s2
35. A body of mass 10 kg is lying on a rough plane 35. 10 kg
30°
inclined at an angle of 30° to the horizontal and 0.5
the coefficient of friction is 0.5. The minimum
force required to pull up the body on the plane
(g = 9.8 m/s2) :-
is (g = 9.8 m/s2) :-
(1) 914 N (2) 91.4 N (1) 914 N (2) 91.4 N
(3) 9.14 N (4) 0.914 N (3) 9.14 N (4) 0.914 N
0999DM310316005 LATS-7/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/AIIMS/21-08-2016
36. A man of mass 'm' stand on a crate of mass 'M'. 36. 'm'
'M'
He pulls on a light rope passing over a smooth
light pulley. The other end of the rope is attached
to the crate. For the system to be in equilibirium,
the force exerted by the man on the rope will be:-
:-
M M
m m
1 1
(1) (M + m)g (2) (M+m)g (1) (M + m)g (2) (M+m)g
2 2
(3) Mg (4) mg (3) Mg (4) mg
37. A train is moving with velocity 20 m/s, sand is 37. 20 m/s
50
falling at the rate of 50 kg/minute on this train. The
extra force required to move this train with
:-
constant velocity will be:-
(1) 16.66 N (2) 1000 N (1) 16.66 N (2) 1000 N
(3) 166.6 N (4) 1200N (3) 166.6 N (4) 1200N
38. A body of mass 2 kg travels according to the law 38. 2 kg
x(t) = Pt + qt2 + rt3
x(t) = Pt + qt2 + rt3, where P = 3m/s, q = 4m/s2
P = 3m/s, q = 4m/s2
r = 5m/s3
and r = 5m/s3. The force acting on the body at
t = 2sec
:-
t = 2sec is :-
(1) 136 N (2) 134 N (3) 158 N (4) 68 N (1) 136 N (2) 134 N (3) 158 N (4) 68 N
39. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are 39.
smooth and of negligible mass. For the system to
''
:-
remain in equilibrium, the angle '' should be:-
m m
m m 2m
2m
(1) 0° (2) 30°
(1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60° (3) 45° (4) 60°
40. 12 N of force required to be applied on A to just 40. B A 12 N
slip on B. Find the maximum horizontal force F
B F
to be applied on B so that A and B moves A B
:-
together:-
A 2 kg
A 2 kg
B 6 kg F Smooth
B 6 kg F Smooth
TOPIC : Solid State : Classification of solids based on different binding forces; molecular, ionic covalent
and metallic solids, amorphous and crystalline solids (elementary idea), unit cell in two dimensional and three
dimensional lattices, calculation of density of unit cell, packing in solids, packing efficiency, voids, number
of atoms per unit cell in a cubic unit cell, point defects, electrical and magnetic properties, Band theory of metals,
conductors, semiconductors and insulators. Structure of Atom : Atomic number, isotopes and isobars. Concept
of shells and subshells, dual nature of matter and light, de Broglie’s relationship, Heisenberg uncertainty principle,
concept of orbital, quantum numbers, shapes of s,p and d orbitals, rules for filling electrons in orbitals- Aufbau
principle, Pauli exclusion principles and Hund’s rule, electronic configuration of atoms, stability of half filled
and completely filled orbitals. Solutions : Types of solutions, expression of concentration of solutions of solids
in liquids, solubility of gases in liquids, solid solutions, colligative properties- relative lowering of vapour pressure,
Raoult’s law, elevation of boiling point, depression of freezing point, osmotic pressure, determination of molecular
masses using colligative properties abnormal molecular mass. Van Hoff factor.
Classification of elements and periodicity in properties : Why do we need to classify elements, Genesis of
periodic classification. Modern periodic law and long form of periodic table, Nomenclature of elements with
atomic number > 100, Electronic configuration of elements and types of elements. periodic trends in properties of
elements- atomic radii, ionic radii, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy, electronegativity, valency.
Electrochemistry : Redox reactions, conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and molar conductivity variation
of conductivity with concentration, kohlrausch’s Law, electrolysis and Laws of electrolysis (elementary idea),
dry cell- electrolytic cells and Galvanic cells; lead accumulator, EMF of a cell, standard electrode potential,
Relation between Gibbs energy change and EMF of a cell, fuel cells; corrosion.
Chemical Bonding and Molecular structure : Kossel Lewis Approach to Chemical Bonding, Valence electrons,
ionic bond, covalent bond, bond parameters, Lewis structure, polar character of covalent bond, valence bond theory,
resonance, geometry of molecules, VSEPR theory, concept of hybridization involving s, p and d orbitals and shapes
of some simple molecules, molecular orbital theory of homonuclear diatomic molecules (qualitative idea only).
Hydrogen bond.
41. The correct order of edge lengths for fcc, bcc and 41. fcc, bcc
simple cubic in terms of radius of atom in different
types of unit cells is :-
4r 4r 4r 4r
(1) 2 2r, ,2r (2) , 2 2r, 2r (1) 2 2r, ,2r (2) , 2 2r, 2r
3 3 3 3
4r 4r 4r 4r
(3) 2r, 2 2r, (4) 2r, ,2 2r (3) 2r, 2 2r, (4) 2r, ,2 2r
3 3 3 3
42. Mark the incorrect pair from the following :- 42.
(1) Schottky defect - Equal number of cations and (1)
anions are missing
(2) Frenkel defect - Dislocation of cation from its (2)
normal site to an intertitial site
(3) Impurity defect - CdCl2 in AgCl crystal to (3)
create cationic vacancy AgCl
CdCl2
(4) Metal excess defect - Fe0.95O (4)
- Fe0.95O
43. Which of the following defect is also known 43.
dislocation defect ?
(1) Frenkel defect
(1)
(2) Schottky defect
(2)
(3) Non-stoichiometric defect
(3)
(4) Simple interstitial defect
(4)
0999DM310316005 LATS-9/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/AIIMS/21-08-2016
44. Crystalline CsCl has density 3.98 gcm–3. The 44.
CsCl
3.98 gcm–3
volume occupied by single CsCl ion pair in the CsCl
crystal will be :- (molar mass of CsCl = 164.5) (CsCl
= 164.5)
–3 3 –23 3
(1) 7.014 × 10 cm (2) 6.84 × 10 cm (1) 7.014 × 10–3 cm3 (2) 6.84 × 10–23 cm3
(3) 1.014 × 10–3 cm3 (4) 1.542 × 10–5 cm3 (3) 1.014 × 10–3 cm3 (4) 1.542 × 10–5 cm3
45. In the cubic close packing, the unit cell has :- 45.
(1) 4 tetrahedral voids each of which is shared (1)
by four adjacent unit cells
(2) 4 tetrahedral voids within the unit cell (2)
4
(3) 8 tetrahedral voids each of which is shared (3) 8
by four adjacent unit cells
(4) 8 tetrahedral voids with in the unit cells (4)
8
46. What is the coordination number in a square close 46.
packed structure in two dimensions ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 6 (3) 4 (4) 6
47. What is the energy of one photon of radiation 47.
14
whose frequency is 5 × 10 Hz ?
5 × 1014 Hz
(1) 199.51 kJ/mol (2) 6.626 × 10–31J/S (1) 199.51 kJ/mol (2) 6.626 × 10–31J/S
(3) 3.3 × 10–19 J (4) 2.31 × 105 J (3) 3.3 × 10–19 J (4) 2.31 × 105 J
48. Which of the following sets of quantum no 48.
describes the electron which is removed most
e–
easily from potassium atom in its ground state?
1 1
(1) n = 4, = 0, m = 1, ms = (1) n = 4, = 0, m = 1, ms =
2 2
1 1
(2) n = 4, = 0, m = 0, ms = (2) n = 4, = 0, m = 0, ms =
2 2
1 1
(3) n = 3, = 1, m = 1, m s (3) n = 3, = 1, m = 1, m s
2 2
1 1
(4) n = 2, = 1, m = 0, m s (4) n = 2, = 1, m = 0, m s
2 2
49. If the proton and an -particle are accelerated 49.
through the same potential difference, then the
ratio of their de-broglie wavelength's will be :-
LATS-10/31 0999DM310316005
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/AIIMS/21-08-2016
50. Energy required to ionise 2 mole of gaseous He+ 50. 2
He+
ion present in its ground state is :-
(1) 54.4 NAeV (2) 108.8 eV (1) 54.4 NAeV (2) 108.8 eV
(3) 59.4 eV (4) 108.8 NAeV (3) 59.4 eV (4) 108.8 NAeV
51. The momentum (in kg – m/s) of photon having 51. 6 MeV
(kg-m/sec)
6 MeV energy is :-
–21
(1) 2.0 (2) 3.2 × 10 (1) 2.0 (2) 3.2 × 10–21
(3) 1.6 × 10–21 (4) None of these (3) 1.6 × 10–21 (4) None of these
52. Element has 13 electron in M shell and 1 electron 52.
M
13
in N shell in its ground state. Identify the N
1
elements.
(1) Chromium (2) Iron (1) (2)
i 1 i 1
(2) In case of dissociation (2)
n 1 n 1
WB 1000 WB 1000
Tb K b Tb K b
M B WA M B WA
54. What amount of CaCl2(i = 2.47) is dissolved in 54. 2L CaCl2(i = 2.47)
2L of water so that its osmotic pressure is 0.5 atm 27ºC 0.5atm
at 27ºC.
(1) 3.42 g (2) 9.24 g
(1) 3.42 g (2) 9.24 g
(3) 2.83 g (4) 1.82 g (3) 2.83 g (4) 1.82 g
0999DM310316005 LATS-11/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/AIIMS/21-08-2016
56. KH in bar values for Ar(g), CO2(g), HCHO(g) and 56. Ar(g), CO 2(g), HCHO(g) CH 4(g)
CH4(g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 × 10–5 and 0.413 KH bar
40.39,1.67, 1.83 × 10–5
respectively. Arrange these gases in the order of
0.413
their increasing solubility.
(1) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar
(1) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar
(2) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar (2) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
(3) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO (3) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
(4) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO (4) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO
57. An unripe mango slice placed in a concentrated 57.
salt solution to prepare pickle, shrinks because :-
(1) It gains water due to osmosis (1)
LATS-12/31 0999DM310316005
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/AIIMS/21-08-2016
62. In the rusting of iron, which of the following cell 62.
reaction occurs at the cathode ?
(1) Fe2+|Fe (2) O2|H2O (1) Fe2+|Fe (2) O2|H2O
(3) Fe3+|Fe2+ (4) Fe|Fe3+ (3) Fe3+|Fe2+ (4) Fe|Fe3+
63. During electrolysis of fused calcium hydride the 63.
H2
hydrogen will be produced at :-
(1) Cathode (1)
(2) Anode (2)
(3) H2 will not be produced (3) H2
(4) (1) and (2) are correct (4) (1) (2)
64. The specific conductance of weak acid HA whose 64. 0.1 M
HA
conc. is 0.1 M is 0.001 ohm–1 cm–1. Its molar 0.001 ohm–1 cm–1
conductance is :-
(1) 0.001 (2) 0.01 (1) 0.001 (2) 0.01
(3) 1.0 (4) 10 (3) 1.0 (4) 10
65. In electrolysis of water four faraday of electric 65.
4
current would liberate :-
(1) 0.5 mol of oxygen (1) 0.5
(2) 8 gm of oxygen (2) 8
(3) 1.0 mol of oxygen (3) 1.0
(4) 11.2 litres of oxygen (4) 11.2
66. For the passage of x-faraday of electricity through 66. SnSO4 x
a SnSO4 solution deposits 2.0 moles of tin. The
AgNO3
x-
no. of moles of silver deposited from a solution
of AgNO 3 for the passage of x-faraday of Ag
electricity would be :-
(1) 1.0 (2) 2.0
(1) 1.0 (2) 2.0
(3) 4.0 (4) 0.5 (3) 4.0 (4) 0.5
67. Which of the following magnetic moment values 67. Mn
will corresponds to highest ionisation energy
:-
for Mn :-
(1) 2 2 (2) 15 (3) 35 (4) 24
(1) 2 2 (2)
15 (3) 35 (4) 2 4
68. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the 68.
:-
fact that :- (1) Zr
Y
(1) Zr and Y have same radius
(2) Zr
Nb
(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have almost the same radius (3) Zr
Hf
(4) Zr and Zn have same volume (4) Zr
Zn
69. Among chalcogens the correct order of amount 69.
of energy released during electron gain :- :-
(1) S > O > Se > Te (2) O < S < Se < Te (1) S > O > Se > Te (2) O < S < Se < Te
(3) Te < Se > S < O (4) O < Te < Se < S (3) Te < Se > S < O (4) O < Te < Se < S
70. The correct order of atomic size :- 70.
:-
(1) B > Al < Ga (2) B < Al Ga (1) B > Al < Ga (2) B < Al Ga
(3) Cu < Ag Au (4) Both (2) & (3) (3) Cu < Ag Au (4) (2)
(3)
0999DM310316005 LATS-13/31
Target : Pre-Medical 2017/AIIMS/21-08-2016
71. If A to E are element of a group from top to bottom 71. A E
then group can be :-
:-
A A
I.P. E I.P. E
C C
B D B D
LATS-14/31 0999DM310316005
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/AIIMS/21-08-2016
TOPIC : REPRODUCTION, Sexual reproduction in flowering plants, Structural Organisation in Plants,
Anatomy, Human Reproduction, Reproductive health, Diversity in living world, Plant Diveristy, Animal Kingdom,
Structural Organisation in Animals, Animal Tissue
81. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 81.
?
(1) Antipodals are present at the chalazal end of (1)
embryo sac.
(2) Polar nuclei are situated above the egg (2)
apparatus in the central cell.
(3) Largest cell of embryo sac is central cell. (3)
(4) Sequential mitotic nuclear divisions in the (4)
nucleus of functional megaspore result in the
8-
formation of 8-nucleate stage of embryo sac.
82. How many of the statements are true regarding 82.
the development of anther ? ?
(i) The development of anther is Eusporangiate (i)
type.
(ii) Anther is developed from single archesporial (ii)
cell only.
(iii) Primary parietal cells give rise to walls of (iii)
anther except endothecium.
(iv) Sporogenous cells differentiate into (iv)
microspore mother cells.
(1) Three (2) Two (3) One (4) Four (1) (2) (3) (4)
83. Which of the following plants donot have 83.
cleistogamous flowers ? (1) (2)
(1) Calotropis (2) Commelina
(3) Oxalis (4) Viola (3) (4)
84. An axis present between plumule and radicle is 84.
called :-
:-
(1) Hypocotyl (2) Tigellum (1) (2)
(3) Epicotyl (4) Scutellum (3) (4)
85. Diploid and haploid plants are formed during the 85.
tissue culture of anther of the plant. The haploid
:-
plants are developed from :-
(1) (2)
(1) Tapetum (2) Endothecium
(3) Pollen grains (4) Middle layer (3) (4)
86. Living mechanical tissue with localized 86.
deposition of pectin at corner is :-
:-
(1) Parenchyma (2) Chlorenchyma (1) (2)
(3) Collenchyma (4) Aerenchyma (3) (4)
87. Prosenchyma is found in :- 87.
:-
(1) Pericycle of stem (2) Epidermis of root (1) (2)
(3) Epidermis of stem (4) Pericycle of roots (3) (4)
88. Diadelphous condition of stamens is found in :- 88.
:-
(1) Citrus (2) Brinjal (1) (2)
(3) Pea (4) Bhindi (3) (4)
89. Cremocarp type fruit found in :- 89.
:-
(1) Tulsi (2) Peepal (1) (2)
(3) Pea (4) Coriander (3) (4)
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90. Algae in which sexual reproduction is oogamous 90.
type and complex post fertilisation development
is found ?
(1) (2)
(1) Red algae (2) Green algae
(3) Fungi (4) Brown algae (3) (4)
91. Which of the following are monoecious plants ? 91.
(a) Sphagnum (b) Marchantia (a) Sphagnum (b) Marchantia
(c) Funaria (d) Pinus (c) Funaria (d) Pinus
(1) Only a and b (2) Only b and c (1) a b (2) b c
(3) a, c and d (4) Only c & d (3) a, c d (4) c d
92. Which is not a fungal disease ? 92.
(1) Leaf blight of rice (1)
(2) Green ear of bajra (2)
(3) Late blight of potato (3)
(4) Red rot of sugarcane (4)
(
)
93. Which statement is not correct about Cycas ? 93.
(1) Cycas has small specialised roots called (1)
coralloid roots which are associated with N2
fixing cyanobacteria
(2) It is a heterosporous plant
(3) The male & female cones are born on same (2)
tree
(3)
(4) Male & female gametophytes are not free
living (4)
94. Choose the correct option for filling up the 94.
blanks:- :-
The A present on the innerside wall of A B
B multiply by C and increase in numbers. C
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
101. Clamp connection is found in :- 101.
:-
(1) Basidiomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (1) (2)
(3) Saccharomycetes (4) Haplomycetes (3) (4)
102. According to "Carlwoese" archaebacteria belong 102.
to domain :-
:-
(1) Monera (2) Protista (1) (2)
(3) Plantae (4) Archea (3) (4)
103. Plasmodium stage represented by :- 103.
(1) Chrysophyte (2) Dinoflagellates (1) (2)
(3) Euglenoids (4) Slime moulds (3) (4)
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104. Milestones in the evolution of plants are shown: 104.
III
III
IV
IV
II
II
Vascular system
Vascular system
Land invasion (
)
Land invasion
(
)
I
I
I, II, III and IV indicate respectively :-
(1) I = Green algae, II = Bryophytes, I, II, III
IV
III = Pteridophytes, IV = Gymnosperm (1) I =
, II = , III =
,
(2) I = Protozoa, II = Lichens, III = Mosses, IV =
IV = Gymnosperm (2) I =
, II = , III = ,
(3) I = Protist, II = Algae, III = Mosses, IV =
IV = Gymnosperm (3) I =
, II =
, III = , IV =
(4) I = Protist, II = Green algae, III = Pteridophytes, (4) I = , II = , III =
,
IV = Mosses IV =
105. Identify the given diagram and its class :- 105.
:-
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107. Amphibians shown _____ fertilisation and are 107.
_____
_____
:-
_____:- (1)
, (2) ,
(1) Internal, Viviparous (2)External, Oviparous
(3) Internal, Oviparous (4)External, Viviparous (3)
, (4) ,
108. Which of the following statements are true about 108.
amphibians ? (a)
(a) They are cold blooded (b)
(b) Respiration occur through gills, skin and lungs
(c)
(c) they are oviparous
(d) Respiration only through gills (d)
(1) a, d (2) c, d (3) a, b, c (4) a, c only (1) a, d (2) c, d (3) a, b, c (4) a, c
109. Which of the following is limbless amphibian ? 109.
(1) Hyla (2) Salamander (1) (2)
(3) Ichthyophis (4) Bufo (3) (4)
110. In which of the following fish the skin is tough 110.
containing minute placoid scales :-
(1) Exocoetus (2) Hippocampus (1) (2)
(3) Scoliodon (4) Labeo (3) (4)
111. Carapace is present in:- 111.
:-
(1) Toad (2) Birds (1) (2)
(3) Testudo (4) Alligator (3) (4)
112. Which of the following is a flightless bird ? 112.
(1) Neophron (2) Struthio (1) (2)
(3) Psittacula (4) Pavo (3) (4)
113. Besides annelida and arthropoda, the metamerism 113.
is exhibited by:-
:-
(1) Mollusca (2) Cestoda (1) (2)
(3) Chordata (4) Sponges (3) (4)
114. Match the following and choose the correct option. 114.
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
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115. Refer the given figure showing three types of 115.
glands.
P Q R
P Q R a-d
Read following statement from a-d.
(a)
(a) These are multicellular glands which secrete
their secretions directly through ducts at the
site of action (b) 'p'
(b) Sebaceous glands present in human skin are
'p' type of glands
(c)
(c) Brunner's glands of human intestine and
sweat glands of human skin are 'Q' type of 'Q'
glands (d) 'R'
(d) Sweat gland is represents by 'R' type.
Which of the above following statement are
(1) b c (3) a
b
incorrect ?
(1) b and c (3) a and b (3)only c (4) only b (3)
c (4)
b
116. Enzyme collagenase break the peptide bonds 116.
present in collagen protein. Excessive secretion
of this enzyme will lead to weakening of which
of the following body parts :-
(a) (b)
(a) Tendon (b) Bones
(c) (d)
(c) Hair shafts (d) Nails and claws
(e)
(e) Intervertebral disc
(1) a, b
e (2) a, b
c
(1) a, b and e (2) a, b and c
(3) c and d (4) b, c and e (3) c
d (4) b, c
e
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118. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged and 118.
for it's recovery which cartilage is prefered ?
(1) Elastic cartilage (2) Calcified cartilage (1) (2)
(3) Hyaline cartilage (4) Fibrous cartilage (3) (4)
119. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans 119.
occur in :- (1)
(1) Bile duct and oesophagus
(2)
(2) Fallopian tube and urethra
(3) Eustachian tube and stomach lining (3)
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124. Assertion :- Generally least count of the 124. :-
spherometer is less than that of vernier calliper.
Reason :- Least count of vernier calliper is :-
LC = 1 M.S.D. – 1 V.S.D. LC = 1 M.S.D. – 1 V.S.D.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
125. Assertion :- A capacitor can be given only a 125. :-
limited quantity of charge.
Reason :- Charge stored by a capacitor depends :-
upon shape & size of the plates of capacitor and
the surrounding medium.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. Assertion :- Capacitance of a parallel plate 126. :-
capacitor increases when distance between the
plates is decreased.
Reason :- Capacitance of a capacitor is directly
:-
proportional to distance between plates.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
127. Assertion :- The capacitance of a conductor, under 127. :-
given circumstances, remains constant
irrespective of the charge present on it.
Reason :- Capacitance depends on size & shape
:-
of conductor and also on the medium.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. Assertion :- When a wire is stretched so that its 128. :-
diameter is halved, then its resistance becomes 16
16
times.
Reason :- Resistance of wire decreases with :-
increase in length.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. Assertion :- If the radius of copper wire carrying 129. :-
a current is doubled, then the drift velocity of the
electrons will become one fourth.
Reason :- Drift velocity will change according to :- I = neAVd
the relation, I = neAVd.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. Assertion :- Two unequal resistances are 130. :-
connected in series across a cell, then potential
drop across the larger resistance is more.
Reason :- The current will be same in both the :-
unequal resistances.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
131. Assertion :- To increase the range of a voltmeter 131. :-
R
n
of resistance R to n times, its resistance should (n-1)
be increased by (n-1) time.
Reason :- The range of a voltmeter can be :-
increased by connecting a low resistance in series
with it.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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132. Assertion :- In the shown circuit, if lamp B or C 132. :-
B C
fuses, then brightness of lamp A decrease.
A
Reason :- It is due to decrement in voltage of bulb A. :- A
60W 60W
A A
60W 60W 60W 60W
V V
B C B C
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140. Assertion :- Mass is property of one object alone 140. :-
whereas weight result from the interaction of two
objects.
:-
Reason :- The weight of an object is proportional
to its mass.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
141. Assertion :- In CsCl crystal, the co-ordination number 141. :- CsCl
Cs
+
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148. Assertion :- Relative lowering of vapour pressure 148. :-
is equal to mole fraction of the solvent.
Reason :- Relative lowering of vapour pressure :-
is not a colligative property.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
149. Assertion :- A solution of table salt in a glass of 149. :- (table salt)
water is homogeneous.
Reason :- Solution having same composition :-
throughout is heterogeneous.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
150. Assertion :- NaCl in water and organic acids in 150. :- NaCl
benzene show abnormal molecular mass.
Reason :- Abnormal molecular mass is :-
obtained when the substance in the solution
undergoes dissociation or association.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. Assertion :- Conductivity of 0.1 M NH4OH 151. :- 0.1M NH 4 OH
solution is less than that of 0.001 M NH4OH 0.001 M NH4OH
solution.
:-
NH4OH
Reason :- Dilution increases the degree of
ionization of NH4OH.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
152. Assertion :- CuSO4 solution can not be stored in 152. :- CuSO4
iron vesel.
Reason :- Cu atoms are oxidised by iron :- Cu
ions.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. Assertion :- Electrolysis of molten KCl produces 153. :- KCl
Cl2
Cl2 at anode.
Reason :- Electrode where reduction occurs is reffered :
to as cathode.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. Assertion :- A molecule of buckminister fullerene 154. :-
exhibits aromatic character.
Reason :- All the carbon atom undergo sp2 :-
C
sp2
C
hybridisation. Each carbon atom forms three
C
3
sigma bonds with other three carbon atoms. The
remaining electron at each carbon is delocalised
in molecular orbitals.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D
155. Assertion :- In hydrazine each nitrogen atom is 155. :-
N,
tetrahedrally surrounded by one N, two H and a H
lone pair. The N-N bond length is 1.45 Å (normal N-N
(
N–N )
N–N bond length) 1.45 Å
Reason :- In hydrazine N-H bond is sp3 -2s :-
N-H
sp3 -2s
overlapping.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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156. Assertion : F atom has less electron affinity than 156. : F
Cl
Cl atom.
Reason : Additional electrons are repelled more :
Cl
3p
effectively by 3p electrons in Cl atom than by 2p
F
2p
electron in F atom.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
157. Assertion : The ionic radii follows the order: 157. : :
I– < I < I+. I– < I < I+.
Reason : Smaller the value of z/e, larger the size : z/e
of the species.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
158. Assertion : Covalent radius of an element is 158. :
always lesser than its van der Waals radius.
Reason : Covalent radius is one-half the distance :
between the nuclei of two covalently bonded atoms
of the same element in a molecule whereas van der
Waals radius is one half the disatance between the
nuclei of two non-bonded isolated atoms.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
159. Assertion :- In PCl5 molecule hybridisation as 159. :- PCl5
same in gaseous & solid.
Reason :- Total number 90° bond angle in PCl5
:- PCl5
90°
'12'
are 12.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
160. Assertion :- NO2 is a paramagnetic. 160. :- NO2
Reason :- NO2 is a odd electron species. :- NO2
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
161. Assertion :- Fossils of pollen grains are always 161. :-
found in good condition
Reason :- Exine of pollen grain is formed by :-
sporopollenin which is highly resistant organic
material.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
162. Assertion :- Monocliny means that flower are 162. :-
bisexual.
Reason :- Dicliny confirms cross pollination. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. Assertion :- No resting period of embryo is found 163. :-
in mangrove plants.
Reason :- In mangrove plants, germination occurs :-
inside the fruit which it is attached to the parent
plant.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
164. Assertion :- In dicot reticulate venation found in 164. :-
leaves.
Reason :- In dicot leaves veins & veinlets form :-
a kind of reticulation.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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165. Assertion :- In dicot stem cambium is absent. 165. :-
Reason :- In dicot stem vascular bundle is closed :-
type.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
166. Assertion :- Bryophytes are not a successful land 166. :-
plants.
Reason :- In bryophytes there is lack of vascular :-
system.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
167. Assertion :- In Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes 167. :-
a distinct dikaryophase present during sexual life.
Reason :- During sexual reproduction of :-
ascomycetes and basidiomycetes plasmogamy
immediately followed by karyogamy.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
168. Assertion :- In gymnosperms the seeds that 168. :-
develop post fertilisation are naked.
Reason :- In gymnosperms ovules are not :-
enclosed by an ovary wall.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
169. Assertion :- Estrogen level is maximum during 169. :-
the secretory phase of menstrual cycle.
Reason :- Progesteron is essential for the :-
formation of endometrium.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
170. Assertion :- Gemma cups are organs of perenniation 170. :-
in pteridophytes.
Reason :- Gemmule produce in gemma cup are :-
resistant against adverse condition.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
171. Assertion :- Members of rhodophyceae are called 171. :-
red algae.
Reason :- Red algae posses, predominance of :-
R-phycoerythrin
R-phycoerythrin in their body.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
172. Assertion :- Cryptogams do not reproduce sexually. 172. :-
Reason :- Flower are indistinct in cryptogams. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
173. Assertion :- Diatoms are the chief producer in the 173. :-
oceans.
Reason :- Diatoms possess both chlorophyll-a :-
-a
-c
and chlorophyll-c.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
174. Assertion :- Euglenoid can perform photosynthesis. 174. :-
Reason :- They have chloroplast in cytoplasm. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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175. Assertion :- Organisms of phylum platyhelminthes 175. :-
are called flat worms.
Reason :- Because they are dorsoventrally flat. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
176. Assertion :- Water vascular system is found in 176. :-
echinodermata. :-
Reason :- It helps in locomotion, respiration and
food capture.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
177. Assertion :- Snakes do not have capability to hear 177. :-
the sounds coming from atmosphere.
Reason :- They dono have external ear opening. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
178. Assertion :- Cell junctions are present in the 178. :-
epithelium.
Reason :- Among cell junctions adhering
:-
junctions help to stop substances from leaking
across a tissue.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
179. Assertion :- Excretion in cockroach occurs by 179. :-
malphigian tubules.
Reason :- In cockroach only superposition images :-
are formed.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
180. Assertion :- Glands originate from all germ 180. :-
layers. :-
Reason :- All glands contain epithelial tissue.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
181. The Prime Minister has launched the 'Give It Up' 181.
(Give it up)
campaign for voluntarily giving up :
(1) Use of plastic
(1)
(2) Use of tobacco product
(2)
(3) LPG subsidy (3) LPG
(4) Black money (4)
182. Who has won the 63rd National Film Awards as 182. 63
best actor ?
(1) Irfan Khan (2) Ajay Devgan (1) (2)
(3) Amitabh Bachchan (4) Anil Kapoor (3) (4)
183. Who is the current CEO of Microsoft ? 183.
CEO
(1) Sunder Pichai (2) Satya Nadella (1) (2)
(3) Binny Bansal (4) Bhavish Agarwal (3) (4)
184. Olympic 2020 will be held at : 184.
2020
(1) London (2) Beijing (1) (2)
(3) Tokyo (4) Madrid (3) (4)
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185. What is the full form of PMSSY ? 185. PMSSY
(1) Pradhan Mantri Samajik Suraksha Yojana (1)
(2) Pradhan Mantri Shiksha Sahayak Yojana (2)
(3) Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (3)
(4) Pradhan Mantri Sanskriti Suraksha Yojana (4)
186. In whose memory were the commemorative coins 186.
issued for the first time in Independent India ?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Indira Gandhi (1) (2)
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Vallabhbhai Patel (3) (4)
187. Who was the first film personality to be honoured 187.
with the Bharat Ratna ?
(1) Lata Mangeshkar (1)
(2) M.S. Subbulaxmi (2)
(3) Satyajit Ray (3)
(4) M.G. Ramachandran (4)
188. In Banking terminology, what does NEFT stand 188.
NEFT
for ? (1) National Electrical Fund Technology
(1) National Electrical Fund Technology (2) National Electronic Fund Technology
(2) National Electronic Fund Technology
(3) National Electronic Fund Transfer
(3) National Electronic Fund Transfer
(4) National Electrical Fund Transfer (4) National Electrical Fund Transfer
189. Which state of India became the first state to 189.
2016
100%
achieve 100% primary literacy as announced in
2016 ?
(1) (2)
(1) Goa (2) Kerala
(3) Gujarat (4) Mizoram (3) (4)
190. Which airport has become the world's first airport 190.
to completely operate on solar power ?
(1) Kochi Airport (1)
(2) Indira Gandhi International Airport (2)
(3) Chennai International Airport (3)
(4) Kempegowda International Airport (4)
191. Which planet is also known as 'Red Planet' ? 191.
(1) Mercury (2) Mars (1) (2)
(3) Venus (4) Jupiter (3) (4)
192. Which among the following city is located at most 192.
eastern longitudes in comparison to other
options ?
(1) (2)
(1) Lucknow (2) Bhopal
(3) Bangaluru (4) Nagpur (3) (4)
193. Patanjali is well known for the compilation of : 193.
(1) Ayurveda (2) Panchatantra (1) (2)
(3) Brahma Sutra (4) Yoga Sutra (3) (4)
194. Paint : Artist : : Wood : ? 194. : : :
:?
(1) Fire (2) Forest (1) (2)
(3) Carpenter (4) Furniture (3) (4)
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195. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 195.
(1) Polo (2) Chess (1) (2)
(3) Ludo (4) Carrom (3) (4)
196. Indra is 7 from the left and Jaya is 5th from the
th
196.
7
right. When they interchange their positions Jaya 5
becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra's
19
position from the left ?
(1) 19th (2) 21st (3) 23rd (4) 20th (1) 19 (2) 21 (3) 23 (4) 20
197. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful 197.
sequence : (A) (B)
(A) Grain (B) Plant (C) (D)
(C) Sandwich (D) Bread
(1) ABCD (2) ABDC
(1) ABCD (2) ABDC
(3) BADC (4) CADB (3) BADC (4) CADB
198. Ravi travelled 4 km straight towards south. He 198.
4
turned left and travelled 6 km straight, then turned 6
right and travelled 4 km straight. How far is he
4
from the starting point ?
(1) 8 km (2) 10 km (3) 12 km (4) 16 km (1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 16
199. With which art form would you associate 199.
Mrinalini Sarabhai ?
(1) Vocal music (2) Classical dance (1) (2)
(3) Painting (4) Sculpture (3) (4)
200. Which of the following districts has been recently 200.
renamed by the Haryana Government ?
(1) Rohtak (2) Hissar (1) (2)
(3) Faridabad (4) Gurgaon (3) (4)
LATS-30/31 0999DM310316005
Leader Test Series/Joint Package Course/AIIMS/21-08-2016
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /
0999DM310316005 LATS-31/31