5 6075484956795076904 PDF

(1001CMD303119066) Test Pattern
)1//1CMD3/3119/66)
NEET(UG)
bl iqfLrdk esa 36 i`"B gAS This Booklet contains 36 pages. MAJOR
bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk dks tc rd uk [kks y s a tc rd dgk u tk,A
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds fiNys vkoj.k ij fn, funs Z ' kks a dks /;ku ls i<+s a A
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
egRoiw. kZ funs Z 'k : Important Instructions :
1. mÙkj i= ds i` " B-1 ,oa i` " B-2 ij /;kuiwoZd dsoy uhys @ dkys ckWy 1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1
ikWbaV isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?ka Vs gS ,oa ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa 180 iz'u gAS izR;sd 2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet
iz'u 4 vad dk gAS izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ dks 4 vad contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
fn, tk,axasA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy ;ksx esa ls ,d vad For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted
?kVk;k tk,xkA vf/kdre vad 720 gSA from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i= ij fu'kku yxkus ds 3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
fy, ds o y uhys @ dkys ckWy ikW ba V is u dk iz;ksx djsaA particulars on this page/marking responses.
4. jQ dk;Z bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij gh djsaA 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. ijh{kk lEiék gks u s ij] ijh{kkFkhZ d{k@gkW y Nks M +u s ls iw o Z 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must
hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
mÙkj i= fujh{kd dks vo'; lkSai nsaA ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates
ds o y ijh{kk iqf Lrdk dks ys tk ldrs g S a A are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
them.
6. ijh{kkFkhZ lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i= dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml 6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet
ij dksbZ vU; fu'kku u yxk,aA ijh{kkFkhZ viuk QkWeZ uEcj iz'u is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere
iqf Lrdk@mÙkj i = es a fu/kkZ f jr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/
fy[ksaA Answer Sheet.
7. mÙkj i= ij fdlh izdkj ds la'kks/ku gsrq OgkbV ¶+yqbM ds iz;ksx dh 7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on
vuqefr ugha gAS the Answer Sheet.
iz'uksa ds vuqokn esa fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr es]a vaxzs th laLdj.k dks gh vafre ekuk tk,s xkA
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)
QkWeZ uEcj : vadksa esa
Form Number : in figures
: 'kCnksa esa
: in words
ijh{kk dsUæ (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
ijh{kkFkhZ ds gLrk{kj : fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
Facsimile signature stamp of
Centre Superintendent :
05042020/Hindi Major/Page 1/36

ALLEN
1. A chain is lying on a rough table with a fraction 1. fdlh [kqjnjh est ij ,d psu bl izdkj ls j[kh gS fd bldh
1/n of its length hanging down from the edge of yEckbZ dk 1/n va'k est ds ,d fljs ls yVdk gqvk gAS ;fn ;g
the table. if it is just on the point of sliding down est ls Bhd uhps dh vksj fQlyus okyh fLFkfr esa gS rks est ,oa
from the table, then the coefficient of friction psu ds e/; ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad gksxk -
between the table and the chain is -
1 1 1 n -1
1 1 1 n -1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) n (n - 1) (n + 1) (n + 1)
n (n - 1) (n + 1) (n + 1)
2. A lift moves downwards with an acceleration a. A 2. ,d fy¶V a Roj.k ls uhps dh vksj xfr dj jgh gAS fy¶V esa ,d
passenger in the lift drops a book. The acceleration O;fDr ,d iqLrd fxjkrk gAS fy¶V ds Q'kZ ds lkis{k iqLrd dk
of the book with respect to the floor of lift is- Roj.k gksxk -
(assume acceleration due to gravity = g) (eku yhft;s xq:Roh; Roj.k = g)
(1) g (2) a (3) g – a (4) g + a (1) g (2) a (3) g – a (4) g + a
3. The average translational kinetic energy of 10 gram 3. 10 xz ke H2 dh 27ºC ij vkSlr LFkkukUrjh; xfrt ÅtkZ
H2 at 27 º C is - gksxh -
(1) 37250 J (2) 18750 J (3) 12450 J (4) 3737 J (1) 37250 J (2) 18750 J (3) 12450 J (4) 3737 J
4. What is the average velocity of a projectile between 4. ,d iz{ksI; dks {kSfrt ds lkFk q dks.k ij u pky ls iz{ksfir
the instants is crosses half the maximum height ? fd;k tkrk gAS ftu {k.kksa ij ;g vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ dh vk/kh
It is projected with a speed u at an angle q with the Å¡pkbZ dks ikj djrk gS mu {k.kksa ds e/; iz{ksI; dk vkl
S r osx
horizontal - D;k gksxk -
(1) u sin q (2) u cos q (3) u tan q (4) u (1) u sin q (2) u cos q (3) u tan q (4) u
5. A particle of mass m is rotating by means of a string 5. m nzO;eku dk ,d d.k ,d Mksjh dh lgk;rk ls m/okZ/kj o`Ùk
in a vertical circle. The difference in the tension esa ?kw.kZu dj jgk gAS fupys Hkkx rFkk Åijh Hkkx ds ruko esa vUrj
at the bottom and top would be- gksxk -
(1) 6 mg (2) 4 mg (3) 3 mg (4) 2 mg (1) 6 mg (2) 4 mg (3) 3 mg (4) 2 mg
6. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which 6. m nzO;eku dh ,d oLrq dks t1 le; esa fojkekoLFkk ls u pky
is accelerated from rest to a speed u in time t1 as rd Rofjr fd;k tkrk gAS bl oLrq ij] le; t ds Qyu ds
a function of time t is given by- :i esa t le; esa fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk -
1 u 2 u 2 1 u 2 u 2
(1) m t (2) m t (1) m t (2) m t
2 t t1 2 t1 t1
1
1 FG mu IJ 2
t2
1 u2
(4) m 2 t2
1 FG mu IJ 2
1 u2
t2 (4) m 2 t2
(3) m
2 Ht K 1 2 t1
(3) m
2 Ht K
1 2 t1
7. A disk and a ring of the same mass are rolling to 7. leku nzO;eku dh ,d pdrh ,oa oy; dks leku xfrt ÅtkZ
have the same kinetic energy. What is ratio of their ds lkFk ykSVuh xfr djkbZ tkrh gAS muds nzO;eku dsUnzks ds osxksa
velocities of centre of mass dk vuqikr gksxk -
(1) (4:3)1/2 (2) (3 : 4)1/2 (1) (4:3)1/2 (2) (3 : 4)1/2
(3) (2)1/2 : (3) 1/2 (4) (3)1/2 : (2)1/2 (3) (2) 1/2 : (3) 1/2 (4) (3)1/2 : (2)1/2
8. A ring takes time t1 in slipping down an inclined 8. ,d oy; dks L yEckbZ ds vkur ry ij fQylus esa t1 le;
plane of length L, whereas it takes time t 2 in rolling yxrk gS tcfd oy; dks mlh ry ij yq<+dus esa t2 le; yxrk
down the same plane. The ratio of t1 and t2 is - gAS t1 o t2 dk vuqikr gksxk -
(1) (2)1/2 : 1 (2) 1 : (2)1/2 (1) (2)1/2 : 1 (2) 1 : (2)1/2
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 21/4 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 21/4
All Enthusiast Leader & Achiever (All Phase)
Major/Page 2/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

ALLEN
9. The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is one- 9. pUnze k ij xq :Roh; Roj.k dk eku i`F oh ij blds eku dk
sixth that on earth. If the average density of moon 1/6 g SA ;fn pUnz ek dk vk Sl r ?kuRo i` F oh ds ?kuRo dk
is three-fifth that of earth, the moon's radius in 3/5 g S rks i` Foh dh f=T;k Re ds inksa es a pUnz ek dh f=T;k
terms of earth's radius Re is - gksx h -
(1) 0.16R e (2) 0.27R e (3) 0.32R e (4) 0.36R e (1) 0.16R e (2) 0.27R e (3) 0.32R e (4) 0.36R e
10. A satellite is projected with a velocity 1.5 times 10. ,d mixzg dks i`Foh dh lrg ds Bhd Åij] d{kh; osx ds 1.5
the orbital velocity just above the surface of earth. xquk osx ls iz{ksfir fd;k tkrk gAS mixzg dk izkjfEHkd osx i`Foh
Initial velocity of the satellite is perpendicular to dh lrg ds yEcor~ gAS i`Foh dh lrg ls mixzg dh vf/kdre
the surface of earth. The maximum distance of the nwjh gksxh -
satellite from surface of earth will be - (1) 2Re (2) 8Re
(1) 2Re (2) 8Re (3) 4Re (4) 3Re (3) 4Re (4) 3Re
11. A mass m is put atop of a mass M. The mass M 11. ,d nzO;eku m dks nwljs nzO;eku M ds Åij j[kk x;k gSA {kSfrt
vibrates horizontally without friction with the gqd dh fLizax ds ,d fljs ls tqM+k gqvk nzO;eku M, A = 4 cm
amplitude A = 4 cm at the end of a horizontal ds vk;ke ls fcuk ?k"kZ.k ds {kSfrt :i ls dEiUu djrk gAS og
Hookean spring. Find the minimal coefficient of U;wure ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad Kkr dhft;s ftlls fd M ds lkis{k m
friction such that m is not moving with respect to xfr u djsA
M. Take k = 1000 N/m and m=2 kg, M = 6 kg. k = 1000 N/m rFkk m=2 kg, M = 6 kg yhft;sA
m m
M M
//////////////////////////////////////////////// ////////////////////////////////////////////////
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.4 (1) 0.5 (2) 0.4

(3) 0.3 (4) information insufficient (3) 0.3 (4) lwpuk vi;kZIr gAS
12. The displacement of an oscillator is given by 12. ,d nksfy= dk foLFkkiu lehdj.k
x = a sin wt + b cos wt x = a sin wt + b cos wt
where a, b and w, are constant. Then - }kjk fn;k tkrk gS tgk¡ a, b o w fu;rakd gS rks -
(1) motion is simple harmonic but not periodic (1) xfr ljy vkorZ gS ijUrq vkorhZ ugha
(2) motion is periodic but not simple harmonic (2) xfr vkorhZ gS ijUrq ljy vkorZ ugha
(3) motion is simple harmonic as well as periodic (3) xfr ljy vkorZ ds lkFk gh vkorhZ Hkh gS
(4) motion is neither simple harmonic nor periodic (4) xfr u rks ljy vkorZ gS vkjS u gh vkorhZ
13. Which of the following shows greater increment 13. fuEu esa ls dkuS ls la;kstu dh yEckbZ esa vf/kd o`f¼ gksxh tc
in length when subjected to same load to wires leku inkFkZ ds cus gq, rkjksa dks leku :i ls Hkkfjr fd;k tkrk
made of same material : gS :
(1) L = 1 m and r = 1 mm (2) L = 1 m and r = 2 mm (1) L = 1 m o r = 1 mm (2) L = 1 m o r = 2 mm
(3) L = 2 m and r = 1 mm (4) L = 2 m and r = 2 mm (3) L = 2 m o r = 1 mm (4) L = 2 m o r = 2 mm
14. A tank is filled up to a height 2H with a liquid and 14. ,d Vadh dks fdlh nzo }kjk 2H Å¡pkbZ rd Hkjk tkrk gS rFkk
is placed on a platform of height H from the ground. /kjkry ls H Å¡ p kbZ ds Iys V QkeZ ij j[kk tkrk g SA
The distance x from the ground where a small hole /kjkry ls og nwjh x Kkr dhft;s tgk¡ vf/kdre ijkl R izkIr
is punched to get the maximum range R is – djus ds fy;s ,d NksVk fNnz fd;k tkrk gS –
(1) H (2) 1.25 H (3) 1.5 H (4) 2H (1) H (2) 1.25 H (3) 1.5 H (4) 2H
05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 3/36

ALLEN
15. Several spherical drops of a liquid each of radius r 15. ,d nzo dh vusd xksyh; cwans ftuesa izR;sd dh f=T;k R g]S
coalesce to form a single drop of radius R. If T is the ,d lkFk feydj R f=T;k dh ,d cM+h cwna cukrh gAS ;fn i`"B
surface tension, then the energy liberated will be - ruko T gS rks eqDr ÅtkZ gksxh -
æ1 1 ö æ1 1 ö æ1 1 ö æ1 1 ö
(1) 4pR3 T ç - ÷ (2) 2pR3 T ç - ÷ (1) 4pR3 T ç - ÷ (2) 2pR3 T ç - ÷
èr Rø èr Rø èr Rø èr Rø
4 2 æ1 1 ö æ 1 1ö 4 2 æ1 1 ö æ 1 1ö
(3) pr T ç - ÷ (4) 2pRT ç - ÷ (3) pr T ç - ÷ (4) 2pRT ç - ÷
3 èr Rø èR rø 3 èr Rø èR rø
16. The equation y = 0.15 sin 5x cos 300t represents 16. lehdj.k y = 0.15 sin 5x cos 300t ,d vizxkeh rjax dks
a stationary wave. The wavelength of this stationary iznf'kZr djrh gaS bl vizxkeh rjax dh rjaxn/S ;Z gksxh -
wave will be - (1) 'kw U; (2)1.256 bdkbZ
(1) zero (2)1.256 units
(3) 2.512 units (4) 0.628 units (3) 2.512 bdkbZ (4) 0.628 bdkbZ
17. In Melde's experiment, 8 loops are formed with a 17. esYMh ds iz;ksx esa] 0.75 N ds ruko ds lkFk 8 ywi curs gAS
tension of a 0.75 N. If the tension is increased to four ;fn ruko dks c<+kdj pkj xquk dj fn;k tk;s rks cuus okys ywiksa
times then the number of loops produced will be - dh la[;k gksxh -
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 12 (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 12
18. In a long cylindrical tube , the water level is 18. fdlh yEch csyukdkj uyh esa] ikuh ds Lrj dks leftr fd;k
adjusted and the air column above it is made to tkrk gS rFkk blds Åij ok;q&LrEHk dks] [kqys fljs ij j[ks
vibrate in unison with a vibrating tuning fork kept dfEir Lofj= ds lkFk leku Lo; esa dEiUu djk;k tkrk gSA
at the open end . Maximum sound is heard when vf/kdre /ofu lqukbZ nsxh tc ok;q LrEHk dh yEckbZ ;ksa dk
the air column lengths are equal to eku gksxk
l l 3l l 3l l l 3l l 3l
(1) , , (2) , l, (1) , , (2) , l,
4 2 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 2
l 3l 5l l 3l 5l l 3l 5l l 3l 5l
(3) , , (4) , , (3) , , (4) , ,
2 2 2 4 4 4 2 2 2 4 4 4
19. If a source of frequency n moving with velocity v 19. tc v osx ls xfr'khy n vko`fÙk dk L=ksr] ,d fLFkj izs{kd
crosses a stationary observer, then the change in the dks ikj djrk gS rks iz s{kd }kjk lq uh xbZ vko` fÙk esa ifjorZ u
frequency of sound heard by the observer will be gksxk
(velocity of sound = V) (/ofu dk osx = V)
2nVv 2nVv 2nVv 2nVv 2nVv 2nVv 2nVv 2nVv
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) (1) 2 (2) (3) (4)
V +v
2
(V - v )
2 2
(V + v) (V - v) V +v
2
(V - v )
2 2
(V + v) (V - v)
20. When placed in air at 30ºC, the temperature of a 20. tc ,d oLrq dks 30ºC ij ok;q esa j[kk tkrk gS rks mldk rki
body decreases from 60ºC to 50ºC in ten minutes. 10 feuV esa 60ºC ls ?kVdj 50ºC gks tkrk gAS vxys 10 feuV
After next ten minutes its temperature will be :- esa bldk rki gksxk :-
(1) Less than 40ºC (2) 40ºC (1) 40ºC ls de (2) 40ºC
(3) More than 40ºC (4) Not definite (3) 40ºC ls vf/kd (4) fuf'pr ugha gS
21. Two rods of same length and material transfer given 21. leku yEckbZ ,oa inkFkZ dh nks NM+ks dks tc fljs ls fljs rd tksMk+
amount of heat in 12 s, when they are joined end to tkrk gS rks os nh xbZ Å"ek dks 12 s esa LFkkukUrfjr djrh gAS tc
end. When they are joined parallelly then they will bu NM+ks dks lekUrj :i ls tksMk+ tkrk gS rks ;s leku ifjfLFkfr;ksa
transfer same amount of heat in same conditions in esa Å"ek dh leku ek=k dks LFkkukUrfjr djus esa fdruk le; ysxh
(1) 1.5 s (2) 3 s (3) 24 s (4) 48 s (1) 1.5 s (2) 3 s (3) 24 s (4) 48 s

ALLEN
22. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric 22. (r) f=T;k ,oa (R) > (r) f=T;k okys nks ladsUnzh; [kks[kys
hollow spheres of radii (r) and (R) > (r) such the xksyksa ij vkos'k Q dks bl izd kj forfjr fd;k x;k gS fd
surface densities are equal. Find the potential at muds i`"Bh; ?kuRo cjkcj gSA mHk;fu"B dsUnz ij foHko Kkr
the common centre. dhft,
Q (r + R) Q(R 2 + r)2 Q (r + R) Q(R 2 + r)2
(1) 4 pe ´ (R + r) 2 (2) (1) 4 pe ´ (R + r) 2 (2)
0 4 pe0 (r + R) 0 4 pe0 (r + R)
Q(r + R) Q(r + R)
(3) 4 pe (R 2 + r 2 ) (4) none of these (3) 4 pe (R 2 + r 2 ) (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
0 0
23. A1 is a spherical conductor of radius (r) placed 23. r f=T;k ds ,d xksyh; pkyd A1 dks] R f=T;k ds ,d irys
concentrically inside a thin spherical hollow xksyh; [kks[kys pkyd A2 ds vUnj ladUs nzh; :i ls j[kk x;k
conductor A2 of radius (R). A1 is earthed and A2 gAS A1 HkwlEifdZr gS rFkk A2 dks +Q vkos'k fn;k x;k gS rks
is given a charge +Q then the charge on A1 is - A1 ij vkos'k gksxk -
(1) –Q (2) Qr/R (1) –Q (2) Qr/R
(3) –rQ/R (4) –Q (R–r)/R (3) –rQ/R (4) –Q (R–r)/R
24. Condenser A has a capacity of 15mF when it is filled 24. la/kkfj= A dh /kkfjrk 15mF gS tc bls 15 ijko| S qrkad ds ekè;e
with a medium of dielectric constant 15. Another }kjk Hkjk x;k gAS ,d nwljk la/kkfj= B ftldh IysVks ds e/;
condenser B has a capacity of 1mF with air between ok;q g]S dh /kkfjrk 1mF gS nksuksa la/kkfj=ksa dks 100 V dh cVS jh
the plates. Both are charged separately by a battery }kjk vyx&vyx vkosf'kr fd;k tkrk gSA vkos'ku ds ckn] nksuksa
of 100 V. After charging, both are connected in la/kkfj=ksa dks fcuk cSVjh ds lekUrj :i ls tksM+k tkrk gS rFkk
parallel without the battery and the dielectric medium ijko| S qr ek/;e gVk fy;k tkrk gS rks vc mHk;fu"B foHko dk
being removed. The common potential now is eku gksxk
(1) 400 V (2) 800 V (3) 1200 V (4) 1600V (1) 400 V (2) 800 V (3) 1200 V (4) 1600V
25. A resistance R 2 is connected in parallel with a 25. izfrjks/k R1 ds lkFk lekUrj Øe esa izfrjks/k R2 dks tksM+k x;k
resistance R1 what resistance R3 must be connected gAS R1 o R2 izfrjks/kksa ds la;kstu ds lkFk Js.khØe esa fdruk
in series with the combination of R1 and R2 so that izfrjks/k R3 tksM+k tkuk pkfg;s rkfd rqY; izfrjks/k dk eku izfrjksèk
the equivalent resistance is equal to the resistance R1- R1 ds cjkcj gks tk;s -
R12 (R1 + R 2 )2 R12 (R1 + R 2 )2

(1) (2) (1) (2)
R1 + R 2 R1 R1 + R 2 R1
R22 R12 R22 R12

(3) (4) (3) (4)
R1 + R 2 R2 R1 + R 2 R2
26. The potential difference between points A and B is- 26. fcUnqvksa A o B ds e/; foHkokUrj gksxk -
(1) 2 V (2) 6 V (3) 4 V (4) 3 V (1) 2 V (2) 6 V (3) 4 V (4) 3 V

ALLEN
27. There is a current of 1.344 amp in a copper wire 27. ,d rk¡cs dk rkj ftldh yEckbZ ds yEcor~ vuqizLFk dkV
whose area of cross-section normal to the length of {ks=Qy 1mm2 g]S esa 1.344 amp /kkjk izokfgr gSA ;fn izfr
the wire is 1mm2. If the number of free electrons per lseh3 esa eqD r bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k 8.4 × 1022 gS rks viogu
cm3 is 8.4 × 1022, then the drift velocity would be- osx gksxk -
(1) 1.0 mm per sec (2) 1.0 metre per sec (1) 1.0 mm per sec (2) 1.0 metre per sec
(3) 0.1 mm per sec (4) 0.01 mm per sec (3) 0.1 mm per sec (4) 0.01 mm per sec
28. In a potentiometer of ten meter length, an 28. 10 ehVj yEckbZ ds foHkoekih esa ,d vKkr fo- ok- cy oksYVrk
unknown emf voltage source is balanced at 60cm L=ksr] foHkoekih rkj dh 60cm yEckbZ ij larfq yr gksrk gS tcfd
length of the potentiometer wire , while a 3volt 3 oksYV dh cSVjh 45cm yEckbZ ij larqfyr gksrh gS rks oksYVrk
battery is balanced at 45cm length, then the emf L=ksr dk fo- ok- cy gksxk
of the voltage source is (1) 3V (2) 2.25V
(1) 3V (2) 2.25V (3) 4V (4) 4.5V (3) 4V (4) 4.5V
29. The relation between magnetic susceptibility xm 29. pqEcdh; izo`fÙk xm vkjS vkisf{kd ikjxE;rk µr ds e/; lEcUèk
and relative permeability µr, is - gS -
(1) xm = µr (2) xm – 1 = µr (1) xm = µr (2) xm – 1 = µr
(3) µr = 1 + xm (4) µr = 1 – xm (3) µr = 1 + xm (4) µr = 1 – xm
30. A steel wire of length l has a magnetic moment 30. l yEckbZ ds LVhy ds rkj dk pqEcdh; vk?kw .kZ M gAS bls
M. It is bent into L-shape as shown in figure. The fp=kuqlkj L-vkd`fr ds :i esa eksM+ fn;k tkrk gS rks u;k pqEcdh;
new magnetic moment is- vk?kw.kZ gksxk -
(1) M (2) M/ 2 (3) M/2 (4) 2M (1) M (2) M/ 2 (3) M/2 (4) 2M
31. A solenoid has an inductance of 50 mH and a 31. ,d ifjukfydk dk izsjdRo 50 mH vkSj izfrjks/k 0.025 W
resistance of 0.025 W. If it is connected to a battery, gAS ;fn bls ,d cSVjh ds lkFk tksM+k tkrk gS rks /kkjk dks bldh
how long will it take for the current to reach one vfUre lkE;koLFkk eku ds vkxs eku rd igq¡pus esa fdruk le;
half of its final equilibrium value ? yxsxk\
(1) 1.39 s (2) 1.2 s (3) 6.32 s (4) 0.23 s (1) 1.39 s (2) 1.2 s (3) 6.32 s (4) 0.23 s
32. A conducting square loop edge length a and 32. ,d pkyd oxkZ dkj yw i ftldh Hkq tk dh yEckbZ a o
resistance R is in a uniform magnetic field B, izfrjks/k R g]S dks ,dleku pqEcdh; {ks= B esa yEcor~ :i ls
perpendicularly. Two opposite corners of the loop j[kk x;k gAS ywi ds nks foijhr dksuksa dks ,d nwljs ls nwj rc
are pulled apart as shown in fig., till it becomes rd [khapk tkrk gS tc rc fd ;g lh/kk u gks tk;sA ywi esa izokfgr
straight, the charge flown through the loop will be- vkos'k gksxk-
Ba 2 2Ba 2 Ba 2 Ba 2 2Ba 2 Ba 2
(1) R (2) R (3) 2R (4) Zero (1) R (2) R (3) 2R (4) Zero

ALLEN
33. The series combination of resistance R and 33. R izfrjks/k ,oa L izsjdRo ds Js.kh la;kstu dks e = 311 sin
inductance L is connected to an alternating source (100 pt) fo- ok- cy ds iz R;korhZ L=ksr ls tksM+ k x;k gSA ;fn
of e.m.f. e = 311 sin (100 pt). If the value of okVghu /kkjk dk eku 0.5A gS vkSj ifjiFk dh izf rck/kk
wattless current is 0.5A and the impedance of the 311 W gS rks 'kfDr xq.kkad gksxk –
circuit is 311W, the power factor will be –
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 2 3 5
2 2 3 5
34. Two parallel plane mirrors M 1 and M 2 have a 34. nks lekUrj lery niZ.k M1 o M2 ftuesa izR;sd dh yEckbZ
length of 2 m each and are 10 mm apart. A ray 2 m gS rFkk muds chp dh nwjh 10 mm gAS izdk'k dh ,d
of light is incident on one end of mirror M2 at an fdj.k] niZ.k M2 ds ,d fljs ij 30º dks.k ij vkifrr gksrh
angle of 30º. The number of reflections light gAS nwljs fljs rd izdk'k ds igq¡pus ls igys izdk'k ds gksus okys
undergoes before reaching the other end is – ijkorZuksa dh la[;k gksxh –
(1) 346 (2) 134 (3) 80 (4) 173 (1) 346 (2) 134 (3) 80 (4) 173
35. A spherical mirror forms a real image three times 35. ,d xksyh; niZ.k oLrq ds js[kh; vkdkj ds rhu xquk vkdkj dk
the linear size of the object. If the distance between okLrfod izfrfcEc cukrk gAS ;fn oLrq ,oa izfrfcEc ds chp
the object and the image is 80 cm, the focal length dh nwjh 80 cm gS rks niZ.k dh Qksdl nwjh gksxh -
of the mirror is (1) 15 cm (2) – 15 cm
(1) 15 cm (2) – 15 cm (3) – 30 cm (4) 40 cm (3) – 30 cm (4) 40 cm
36. A vessel is half filled with a liquid of refractive 36. ,d ik= dks µ viorZukad ds nzo }kjk vk/kk Hkjk x;k gAS ik=
index µ. The other half of the vessel is filled with ds nwljs vk/ks Hkkx dks 1.5 µ viorZukad ds vfeJ.kh; nzo }kjk
an immiscible liquid of refractive index 1.5 µ. The Hkjk x;k gSA ik= dh vkHkklh xgjkbZ okLrfod xgjkbZ dk
apparent depth of vessel is 50 % of the actual 50 % gAS µ dk eku gksxk &
depth. The value of µ is
(1) 1.6 (2) 1.67 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.4
(1) 1.6 (2) 1.67 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.4
37. There is a prism with refractive index equal to 2 and 37. ,d fiz Te dk viorZ ukad 2 gS rFkk viorZd dks.k 30º
the refracting angle equal to 30º. One of the refracting gAS fiz Te ds fdlh ,d viorZd i`"B dh iksfy'k dh tkrh
surfaces of the prism is polished. A beam of gSA ,do.khZ ; izdk'k dk ,d iqat mlds iFk ij iqu% ykSVsxk
monochromatic light will retrace its path if its angle of ;fn fiz Te ds viorZd i`"B ij blds vkiru dks. k dk eku
incidence over the refracting surface of the prism is : gks :
(1) 0º (2) 30º (3) 45º (4) 60º (1) 0º (2) 30º (3) 45º (4) 60º
38 A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is in contact with 38 10 cm Qksdl nwjh dk mÙky ysal ,d vory ysal ds lEidZ
a concave lens. The focal length of the combination esa gAS bl la; kstu dh Qksdl nwjh la[;kRed :i ls vory
is numerically equal to that of the concave lens. The ysal dh Qksdl nwjh ds cjkcj gSA vory ysal dh Qksdl nwjh
focal length of the concave lens is gksxh
(1) 10cm (2) 15cm (3) 5cm (4) 20cm (1) 10cm (2) 15cm (3) 5cm (4) 20cm
39. Four independent light waves are expressed as 39. pkj Lora= izdk'k rjaxksa dks y1 = a1 sin wt, y2 = a2 sin wt,
y 1 = a 1 sin wt, y 2 = a 2 sin wt, y 3 =a 3 cos wt y3=a3 cos wt rFkk y4 = a4 sin (wt + p/3) }kjk iznf'kZr
and y4 = a 4 sin (wt + p/3). The interference is fd;k x;k gaAS O;frdj.k lEHko gksxk
possible between (1) 1 o 3 ds e/; (2) 1 o 4 ds e/;
(1) 1 and 3 (2) 1 and 4
(3) 3 and 4 (4) Not possible at all (3) 3 o 4 ds e/; (4) lEHko ugha gS

ALLEN
40. A polaroid is placed at 45º to an incoming 40. ,d /kqzod dks I0 rhozrk ds vkifrr v/kzqfor izdk'k ls 45º dks.k
unpolarised light of intensity I0. Now the intensity ij j[kk x;k gAS vc /kqzo.k ds ckn /kqzod ls xqtjus okyh izdk'k
of light passing through the polaroid after dh rhozrk gksxh -
polarisation would be- (1) I0 (2) I0 /2
(1) I0 (2) I0 /2 (3) I0 /4 (4) zero (3) I0 /4 (4) zero
41. A radioactive sample disintegrates by 10% during 41. ,d jsfM;kslfØ; inkFkZ dk 10% Hkkx 1 efgus esa fo?kfVr
one month. How much fraction will disintegrate gksrk gSA pkj eghuksa esa bldk fdruk izfr'kr Hkkx fo?kfVr
in four months :- gksxk :-
(1) 34.39% (2) 40% (3) 38% (4) 50% (1) 34.39% (2) 40% (3) 38% (4) 50%
42. What is the ratio of the shortest wavelength of the 42. ckej Js.kh dh U;wure rjaxn/S ;Z rFkk ykbesu Js.kh dh U;wure
Balmer series to the shortest wavelength of the rjaxn/S ;Z dk vuqikr gksxk\
Lyman series ? (1) 4 : 1 (2) 4 : 3
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 4 : 3 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 5 : 9 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 5 : 9
43. The work- function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest 43. ,d inkFkZ dk dk;Z Qyu 4.0 eV gAS bl inkFkZ ls iz d k'k
wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron bys D Vª kW u mRltZu ds fy;s vf/kdre rja xn S/ ;Z (yxHkx)
emission from this substance is approximately : gks xk :
(1) 540 nm (2) 400 nm (1) 540 nm (2) 400 nm
(3) 310 nm (4) 220 nm (3) 310 nm (4) 220 nm
44. A two Volts battery forward biases a diode 44. 2 oksYV dh cVS jh ls Mk;ksM dks vxz vfHkufr iznku dh xbZ gAS
however there is a drop of 0.5 V across the diode Mk;ksM ds fljks ij foHko ikr 0.5 V gS tks fd /kkjk ij fuHkZj ugha
which is independent of current. Also a current gAS 10 mA ls vf/kd /kkjk cgqr vf/kd twy gkfu mRiUu djrh
greater then 10 mA produces large joule loss and gS vkjS Mk;ksM dks u"V dj nsrh gAS ;fn Mk;ksM dks 5 mA ij
damages diode. If diode is to be operated at 5 mA, lapkfyr fd;k tk;s rks blds Js.khØe esa fdruk izfrjksèk yxkuk
the series resistance to be put is :– gksxk :–
2V 2V
R R
(1) 3kW (2) 300 kW (1) 3kW (2) 300 kW

(3) 300 W (4) 200 kW (3) 300 W (4) 200 kW
45. Output for the following Boolean circuit is :- 45. fn, x, cqfy;u ifjiFk dk fuxZr gksxk :-
A A
B B
A A
B B
(1) AB (2) AB + AB (1) AB (2) AB + AB

(3) A B + A B (4) A + B + AB (3) A B + A B (4) A + B + AB

ALLEN
Volume(L) at STP STP ij vk;ru
46. 46.
11.2 11.2
5.6 5.6
H2 He NH3 CH4 H2 He NH3 CH4

mass (g) Hkkj (g)
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
Which are placed at correct position? buesa ls dkuS lgh fLFkfr ij j[kk gAS
(1) H2, He (2) He, NH3 (1) H2, He (2) He, NH3
(3) NH3, CH4 (4) CH4 , H2 (3) NH3, CH4 (4) CH4 , H2
47. Total number of nodes, angular nodes and the 47. 4f d{kd esa dq y uksM ] dks.kh; uksM rFkk f=T; uksM Øe'k%
radial nodes in case of 4f orbital respectively are gS :
(1) 4, 3, 2 (2) 3, 3, 0 (3) 3, 2, 1 (4) 4, 2, 1 (1) 4, 3, 2 (2) 3, 3, 0 (3) 3, 2, 1 (4) 4, 2, 1
48. Which of the following equations represents 48. buesa ls dkuS lh vfHkfØ;k esFksu ds fuekZ.k dh ekud Å"ek ds
standard enthalpy of formation of methane? fy;s lgh lehdj.k g?S
(1) C (diamond) + 2H2 (g) ® CH4 (g) (1) C (ghjk) + 2H2 (g) ® CH4 (g)
(2) C (graphite) + 2H2 (g) ® CH4 (g) (2) C (xzsQkbV) + 2H2 (g) ® CH4 (g)
(3) C (diamond) + 4H (g) ® CH4 (g) (3) C (ghjk) + 4H (g) ® CH4 (g)
(4) C (graphite) + 4H (g) ® CH4 (g) (4) C (xzsQkbV) + 4H (g) ® CH4 (g)
49. The molarity of HNO3 in a sample which has density 49. HNO3 dk izfrn'kZ] ftldk ?kuRo 1.4 g/mL rFkk nzO;eku
1.4 g/mL and mass percentage of 63% is _____. iz f r'krrk 63% gks ] HNO 3 dh eksy jrk gks xh _____.
(Molecular Weight of HNO3 = 63) (HNO3 dk v.kq Hkkj = 63)
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 20 (1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 20
50. N2O4 (g) 2NO2(g) 50. N2O4 (g) 2NO2(g)
For the reaction, if the percentage dissociation of fuEu vfHkfØ;k ds fy;s ;fn N 2O 4 ds fo;ks t u dh
N2 O4 are 25%, 50%, 75% and 100 %, then the dks V h Øe'k% 25%, 50%, 75% rFkk 100% rc iz s f {kr
sequence of observed vapour densities will be ok"i ?kuRo dk Øe crkb;s A (d 1, d 2, d 3 rFkk d4 Øe'k%
(d1, d2, d3 and d4 are vapour density at 25%, 50%, 25%, 50%, 75% rFkk 100% fo;ks t u ij ok"i ?kuRo
75% and 100% dissociation respectively) g S a)
(1) d1 > d2 > d3 > d4 (2) d4 > d3 > d2 > d1 (1) d1 > d2 > d3 > d4 (2) d4 > d3 > d2 > d1
(3) d1 = d2 = d3 = d4 (4) (d1 = d2) > (d3 > d4 ) (3) d1 = d2 = d3 = d4 (4) (d1 = d2) > (d3 > d4 )
+ +
51. Let hydrolysis constant (Kh) of NH be y. Then
4
51. NH 4 vk;u dk ty vi?kVu fLFkjka d (K h ) y g SA rks
equilibrium constant (Ka) for conjugate acid of 25° C ij NH3 ds la;Xq eh vEy dk lkE; fLFkjkad(Ka) gksxk %
NH3 at 25oC is :
1
1 -14 (1) ´ 10-14 (2) 10 –14
(1) ´ 10 (2) 10 –14 y
y
(3) y (4) y × 10–14 (3) y (4) y × 10–14

ALLEN
52. If 6×10–3 mole K2 Cr 2O 7 reacts completely with 52. ;fn 6×10–3 eksy K2Cr2O7 iw.kZr;k Xn+ ds 9×10–3 eksy
9×10–3 mole of Xn+ to give XO3- and Cr3+, then ls vfHkfØ;k djrk g]S rks XO3- rFkk Cr3+ cukrk gAS rc n
the value of n is dk eku crkb;sA
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5
53. For the structure given below the site marked as 53. nh xbZ lajpuk esa fpfUgr LFkku S D;k gAS
S is a :
(1) Tetrahedral void (2) Cubic void (1) prq"Qydh; fjfDrdk (2) /kuh; fjfDrdk
(3) Octahedral void (4) Triangular void (3) v"VQydh; fjfDrdk (4) f=dks.kh; fjfDrdk
54. At 40°C, the vapour pressures in torr, of methyl alcohol 54. 40°C ij feFkkby ,YdksgkWy rFkk bZFkkby ,YdksgkWy foy;u dk
and ethyl alcohol solutions is represented by the ok"inkc fuEufyf[kr lehdj.k }kjk Torr esa iznf'kZr fd;k tkrk
equation. P = 119XA + 135 where XA is mole fraction g]S P = 119XA + 135 tgk¡ XA, feFkkby ,YdksgkWy dk eksy
A P A P
of methyl alcohol, then the value of xlim is izHkkt gAS rc xlim dk eku gksxk
A ®1 X A A ®1 X A
(1) 254 torr (2) 135 torr (3) 119 torr (4) 140 torr (1) 254 torr (2) 135 torr (3) 119 torr (4) 140 torr
55. For an electrochemical cell 55. ,d o|
S qrjklk;fud lsy
Sn(s) | Sn2+ (aq,1M)||Pb2+ (aq,1M)|Pb(s) the ratio Sn(s) | Sn2+ (aq,1M)||Pb2+ (aq,1M)|Pb(s) ds fy,] tc
[Sn 2 + ] [Sn 2+ ]
[Pb2 + ]
when this cell attains equilibrium is _______. lsy lkE;koLFkk dks izkIr djrk g]S rks vuqikr gS _______.
[Pb 2 + ]
(Given ESn 2+ |Sn = -0.14V , (fn;k x;k gS ESn 2+ |Sn = -0.14V ,

0 0
2.303RT 2.303RT
E0Pb2+ |Pb = –0.13V, = 0.06 ) E0Pb2+ |Pb = –0.13V, = 0.06 )
F F
(1) 2.15 (2) 3.16 (3) 1.14 (4) 2.82 (1) 2.15 (2) 3.16 (3) 1.14 (4) 2.82
56. A fuel cell is feed with 8 g of H2 and 40 g of O2. How 56. ,d bZ/ku lsy esa 8 g H2 rFkk 40 g O2 Hkjh gqbZ g]S rks og bZèku
long would the fuel cell run to give a current of 5A? lsy fdrus le; rd 5A dh /kkjk izokfgr djsxkA
(1) 1608 minutes (2) 8041 minutes (1) 1608 feuV (2) 8041 feuV
(3) 3217 minutes (4) 12867 minutes (3) 3217 feuV (4) 12867 feuV
57. Conductance and conductivity of 0.1MKCl 57. 0.1 M KCl foy;u dk pkydRo o pkydrk Øe'k%
solution filled in a conductivity cell are y ohm–1 y ohm –1 rFkk x ohm –1 cm –1 g SA ;fn leku ls y es a
and x ohm–1 cm–1 respectively. If the conductance 0.1 M NaOH dk pkydRo z ohm–1 gks] rks NaOH dh
of 0.1 M NaOH filled in the same cell is z ohm–1, eksyj pkydRo Kkr djksA
molar conductance of NaOH will be:
xz xz 3 xz 4 xz
xz xz xz
3 4 xz (1) 0.1 (2) 10 (3) 10 (4) 10
(1) 0.1 (2) 10 (3) 10 (4) 10 y y y y
y y y y

ALLEN
58. The concentration of R in the reaction R ® P was 58. vfHkfØ;k R ® P esa R dk lkUnz.k le; ds lkFk ifjofrZr gksrk
measured as a function of time and the following g]S rFkk fuEufyf[kr eku izkIr gq,A
data was obtained
[R] 1 0.5 0.25 0.125
[R] 1 0.5 0.25 0.125 Time 0 0.05 0.1 0.15
Time 0 0.05 0.1 0.15
vfHkfØ;k dh dksfV crkb;s%
The order of reaction is : (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 'kw U;
(3) 1 (4) zero
æ 1ö
59. According to Arrhenius equation, the graph of 59. vkjsfu;l lehdj.k ds vuqlkj] log10 k vs ç ÷ ds xzkQ
è Tø
æ 1ö dk <ky fdlds cjkcj gksxkA
log10 k vs çè ÷ø has slope equal to
T
Ea Ea
Ea Ea (1) - (2)
(1) - (2) 2.303R R
2.303R R
Ea Ea Ea Ea
(3) (4) - (3) (4) -
2.303R R 2.303R R
60. 500 ml of 0.3 M AgNO3 are added to 600 ml of 60. 0.3 M AgNO3 ds 500 ml foy;u dks 0.5 M KI ds
0.5 M KI solution. The ions which will move 600 ml esa feyk;k tkrk gAS rks dkSu ls vk;u Øe'k% dsFkksM
towards the cathode and anode respectively are rFkk ,suksM dh rjQ xeu djsaxsA
(1) AgI/Ag + and NO3- (1) AgI/Ag+ rFkk NO3-
(2) AgI/I– and K+ (2) AgI/I– rFkk K+
– –
(3) K+ and AgI/I (3) K+ rFkk AgI/I
– –
(4) AgI/K+ and I (4) AgI/K+ rFkk I
61. The most acidic hydrogen in the following compound 61. fuEufyf[kr ;kSfxd esa lokZf/kd vEyh; gkbMªkstu gS :
is :
III
III
HO CH2OH
HO CH2OH
I
I
C C H
C C H
NH2 IV
NH2 IV
II
II
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV (1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
62. The total possible stereoisomers of 62. 1-Dyksjks -3-feFkkby isaVsu ds dqy laHkkfor f=foe leko;oh
1-chloro-3-methyl pentane is : gS :
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

ALLEN
63. The IUPAC name of compound is 63. ;kSfxd dk IUPAC uke g&S
(1) 5-ethyl-3,3-dimethyl cyclohexene (1) 5-bFkkby-3,3-MkbfeFkkby lkbDyksgDs tsu

(2) 4-ethyl-5,5-dimethyl cyclohex -2-ene (2) 4-bFkkby-5,5-MkbfeFkkby lkbDyksgDs l -2-bZ u
(3) 3-ethyl-5,5-dimethyl cyclohex-6-ene (3) 3-bFkkby-5,5-MkbfeFkkby lkbDyksgDs l-6-bZ u
(4) 6-ethyl-4,4-dimethyl cyclohexene (4) 6-bFkkby-4,4-MkbfeFkkby lkbDyksgDs tsu
64. Choose the correct reagent for the following 64. fuEufyf[kr ifjorZu ds fy, mi;qDr vfHkdeZd pqfu, :
conversion : O
O OH ¾¾
® gkbMªksdkWcZu
OH ¾¾
® Hydrocarbon
–
(1) (i) N2H4 , (ii) – OH, D
(1) (i) N2H4, (ii) OH, D
(2) Zn – Hg / HCl
(2) Zn – Hg / HCl
(3) LiAlH4 (3) LiAlH4
(4) Red P / HI (4) yky P / HI
65. Aldehyde can be obtained by the oxidation of 65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds vkWDlhdj.k ls ,fYMgkbM izkIr fd;k
which of the following compound. tk ldrk g&S
O O
(1) R – CH2 – OH (2) R C (1) R – CH2 – OH (2) R C
OH OH
O O
(3) CO2 (4) R C (3) CO2 (4) R C
OR OR
66. The product (P) in the following reaction is : 66. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k esa mRikn (P) gS :
(i) SnCl2 / HCl (i) SnCl2 / HCl
C N ¾¾¾¾¾ ® (P) C N ¾¾¾¾¾(ii) H 2O
® (P)
(ii) H 2O
(1) CH2 NH2 (1) CH2 NH2
O O
(2) C OH (2) C OH
(3) CH NH (3) CH NH
O O
(4) C H (4) C H

ALLEN
67. The IUPAC name of unknown compound ‘Q’ is: 67. vKkr ;kSfxd ‘Q’ dk IUPAC uke gS :
(i) N 2 H 4 (i) N 2 H 4
O3 / H2O
¾¾¾¾ ® (P) ¾¾¾¾ y
® (Q) O3 / H2O
¾¾¾¾ ® (P) ¾¾¾¾ y
® (Q)
(ii) O H, D (ii) O H, D
(1) Hexanoic acid (1) gsDlsuksbZd vEy

(2) n-Heptane (2) n-gsIVsu
(3) Heptanoic acid (3) gsIVsuksbZd vEy
(4) n-Hexane (4) n-gsDlsu
68. Preparation of Bakelite proceeds via reactions. 68. csdy s kbV dk fojpu fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;kvksa ls gksdj vxzlfjr
(1) Condensation and elimination gksrk gS :-
(1) la?kuu vkSj foyksiu
(2) Electrophilic addition and dehydration
(2) bysDVªkWuLusgh ;ksxt rFkk futZyhdj.k
(3) Electrophilic substitution and dehydration
(3) bysDVªkWuLusgh izfrLFkkiu rFkk futZyhdj.k
(4) Nucleophilic addition and dehydration (4) ukfHkdLusgh ;ksxt rFkk futZyhdj.k
69. Optically active 'P' has the molecular formula C6H12 69. izdkf'kd lfØ; 'P' dk v.kqlw= C6H12 gS rFkk mRizsjdh;
and catalytic hydrogenation converts into achiral gkbMªkstuhdj.k }kjk vfdjy C6H14 esa ifjofrZr gksrk g]S rks 'P'
C6H14 . The structure of 'P' is - gS -
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
70. Which of the following cannot show positive 70. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk /kukRed dkchZy ,ehu ifj{k.k ugha
carbyl amine test? n'kkZ,xk ?
(1) (1)
NH2 NH2
NH2 NH2
(2) (2)
NH2 NH2
(3) (3)
(4) CH3 – NH – CH3 (4) CH3 – NH – CH3

71. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of 71. RCH2OH®RCHO vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lokZf/kd mi;qDr
RCH2OH®RCHO is :- vfHkdeZd gS :-
(1) K2Cr2O7 (2) CrO3 (1) K2Cr2O7 (2) CrO3
(3) KMnO4 (4) PCC (3) KMnO4 (4) PCC

ALLEN
72. The major product (Y) in the following reactions is: 72. fuEu vfHkfØ;kvksa esa eq[; mRikn (Y) gS :
CH3 CH3
® X ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®Y
( i) C2 H 5 MgBr ,H 2 O
® X ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®Y CH3 – CH – C º CH ¾¾¾¾¾
( i) C2 H 5 MgBr ,H 2 O HgSO4 ,H 2SO4
CH3 – CH – C º CH ¾¾¾¾¾
HgSO 4 , H 2SO 4
H O ( ii) Conc. H 2 SO 4 / D H O 2
( ii) Conc. H 2 SO 4 / D
2
CH2 CH2
(1) H 3C – C – CH – CH3 (1) H 3C – C – CH – CH3
C2H 5 C2H 5
CH3 CH3
(2) CH3 – CH – C = CH – CH3 (2) CH3 – CH – C = CH – CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3 – C = C – CH3 CH3 – C = C – CH3
(3) (3)
CH2CH3 CH2CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3 – CH – C = CH2 CH3 – CH – C = CH2
(4) (4)
CH2CH3 CH2CH3
73. Among the given compounds the correct order of 73. fn, x, ;kSfxdksa esa ,sjkseSfVd bysDVª kWuLusgh izfrLFkkiu dh
decreasing reactivity towards electrophilic aromatic fØ;k'khyrk dk vojksgh Øe gS :
substitution is : CH3
CH3 (I) (II)
(I) (II)
OCH3 CF3 OCH3 CF3
(III) (IV) (III) (IV)
(1) II > I > III > IV (2) III > I > II > IV (1) II > I > III > IV (2) III > I > II > IV
(3) IV > I > II > III (4) I > II > III > IV (3) IV > I > II > III (4) I > II > III > IV
O O
(i) (excess) CH3MgBr (i) (vkf/kD;) CH3MgBr
74. (P) 74. (P)
(ii) H2O (major) (ii) H2O (eq[;)
O O
Et Et
(P) is ? (P) gS ?
(1) (2) (1) (2)

OH OH
OH OH
(3) (4) (3) (4)

OH OH
OH OH

ALLEN
75. Which is not a reducing sugar :- 75. fuEu esa ls dkuS vipk;d 'kdZjk ugha gS :-
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (1) Xywdkst (2) ÝqDVkst
(3) Mannose (4) Sucrose (3) esukst (4) lqØ kst
76. If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 76. ,d MkbZvkWDlhtu Lih'kht dk pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ 1.73 B.M g]S
1.73 B.M, it may be : ;g gks ldrh gS :
(1) O2- or O +2 (2) O2 or O2+ (1) O-2 vFkok O+2 (2) O2 vFkok O2+
(3) O2 or O2- (4) O2, O2- or O+2 (3) O2 vFkok O2- (4) O2, O-2 vFkok O+2
77. Which of the following correctly represents the 77. ,d rRo ftldk ijek.kq Øekad 33 gS ds fy;s oxZ ,oa vkorZ
position in Periodic table for the element with dkSulk gksxkA
atomic number 33? (1) 4th vkorZ , 15 th oxZ
(1) 4th period, 15th group
(2) 4th vkorZ , 13 th oxZ
(3) 5th vkorZ , 15 th oxZ
(4) 5th period, 13th group (4) 5th vkorZ , 13 th oxZ
78. Which of the following is not a perfect tetrahedral 78. buesa ls dkSulk iw.kZ prq"Qydh; iztkrh ugha g\
S
species?
(1) CCl4 (2) NH +4 (3) POCl3 (4) SiF4
(1) CCl 4 (2) NH +4 (3) POCl3 (4) SiF4
79. The ion with maximum number of lone pairs on 79. buesa ls fdl vk;u esa ,dkdh bysDVªkuksa dh la[;k vf/kdre
the central atom is- gS &
(1) ClO +2 (2) ICl -2 (1) ClO +2 (2) ICl -2
(3) ClO-2 (4) ICl +2 (3) ClO-2 (4) ICl +2

80. Which of the following has all equal bond lengths? 80. buesa ls fdl v.kq esa lHkh ca/k yEckbZ;ka leku g\
S
(1) SF4 (2) ICl 3 (3) PCl3 (4) PCl5 (1) SF4 (2) ICl 3 (3) PCl3 (4) PCl5
81. "CO2 is not liberated when the substance is strongly 81. buesa ls fdl ;kfS xd dks rst xeZ djus ij CO2 xl
S mRlftZr
heated" This statement is applicable on ___ ugha gksxhA
(1) Baking Soda (2) Washing Soda (1) Baking Soda (2) Washing Soda
(3) Lime stone (4) Dolomite (3) Lime stone (4) Dolomite
82. When hydrogen peroxide reacts with ozone, the 82. ;fn H2O2 dh vfHkfØ;k O3 ds lkFk dh tk, rc H2O2
role of hydrogen peroxide in the reaction is fdlds tl S k dk;Z djsxkA
(1) An oxidising agent (1) vWkDLkhdkjd
(2) a reducing agent (2) vipk;d
(3) oxidising agent when concentration of H2O2 low (3) ;fn H2O2 dh lkUnzrk de gS rks vkDlhdkjd tl S k dk;Z
and reducing agent when concentration is high djsxk vkSj lkUnzrk vf/kd gS rks vipk;d tlS k dk;Z djsxkA
(4) There is no reaction possible between these (4) bu nksuksa esa dksbZ vfHkfØ;k laHko ugha gAS
83. The isomer(s) of [Co(NH3)4Cl2] that has/have a 83. [Co(NH3)4Cl2] ds leko;oh ftlesa@ftuesa Cl–Co–Cl
Cl–Co–Cl angle of 90°, is/are : dks.k 90° dk gS] g/S gaS :
(1) meridional and trans (2) cis and trans (1) js[kkaf'kd rFkk VªkUl (2) fll rFkk VªkUl
(3) trans only (4) cis only (3) VªkUl ek= (4) fll ek=

ALLEN
84. Which of the following does not liberate N2 gas 84. buesas ls fdldks xeZ djus ij N2 xSl mRlftZr ugha djsxkA
on heating?
(1) NH 4 NO 2 (2) ( NH 4 )2 Cr2 O7
(1) NH 4 NO 2 (2) ( NH 4 )2 Cr2 O7
(3) Ba ( N3 ) 2 (4) NH 4 NO3 (3) Ba ( N3 ) 2 (4) NH 4 NO3
85. Which compound does not undergo hydrolysis? 85. buesa ls fdl ;kSfxd dk ty vi?kVu ugha gksxkA
(1) SF 6 (2) SF 4 (1) SF 6 (2) SF 4
(3) SOCl2 (4) SO2Cl2 (3) SOCl2 (4) SO2Cl2
86. Which of the following is square planar and 86. buesa ls dkuS oxZ leryh; ,oa vuqpqEcdh; gAS
paramagnetic complex?
-2 -2
-2 (1) [ NiCl4 ] (2) é Pt ( CN ) ù
(1) [ NiCl4 ]
-2
(2) é Pt ( CN ) ù ë 4û
ë 4û
-2 2+
(3) é Zn ( OH ) ù
-2
(4) éë Cu ( NH3 ) 4 ùû
2+
(3) é Zn ( OH ) ù (4) éë Cu ( NH3 ) 4 ùû
ë 4û
ë 4û
87. Which of the following pair of compounds give 87. buesa ls fdl ;kSfxd ds ;qXe dks xeZ djus ij leku xSlh; mRikn
same gaseous product on decomposition mRlftZr djsxkA
(1) KMnO4 , K 2 Cr2 O7 (1) KMnO4 , K 2 Cr2 O7
(2) KMnO4 , ( NH 4 ) 2 Cr2O 7 (2) KMnO 4 , ( NH 4 )2 Cr2O7
(3) K 2Cr2 O7 , ( NH 4 ) 2 Cr2 O 7 (3) K 2Cr2 O7 , ( NH 4 ) 2 Cr2 O 7
(4) KMnO 4 , K 2 CO3 (4) KMnO 4 , K 2 CO3

88. Which of the following complex shows 88. buesa ls dkSulk ladqy T;kferh; leko;rk n'kkZ,sxkA
geometrical isomerism?
3+
3+ (1) éë Zn ( H 2 O ) 2 Cl 2 ùû (2) éë Co ( en )3 ùû
(1) éë Zn ( H 2 O ) 2 Cl 2 ùû (2) éë Co ( en )3 ùû
- +
- + (3) éë Co ( en ) Cl4 ùû (4) é Co ( en ) 2 Cl2 ù
(3) éë Co ( en ) Cl4 ùû (4) é Co ( en ) 2 Cl2 ù ë û
ë û
89. The colour of iodine solution will disappear by the 89. buesa ls fdlds }kjk vk;ksMhu foy;u dk ja x xk;c gks
addition of- tk,xkA
(1) Hypo solution (2) H2O2 solution (1) gkbiks foy;u (2) H2 O2 foy;u
(3) Both of these (4) None of these (3) mijksDr nksukas (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
90. In the extraction of iron from hematite, select the 90. gsesVkbZV ls vk;ju ds /kkrq fu"d"kZ.k ds nkjS ku xyr fodYi dk
incorrect statement p;u dhft;sA
(1) Middle zone of blast furnace is the reduction zone (1) okR;k Hkêh dk e/; laHkkx esa vip;u gksrk gAS
(2) Nature of gangue is acidic (2) vk/kk=h dh izd`fr vEyh; gAS
(3) Fe2 O3 is reduced by CO (3) Fe2O3 dk vip;u CO }kjk gksrk gAS
(4) Product from Blast furnace is "Pig iron". (4) okR;k Hkêh ls var mRikn fix vk;ju (Pig iron) gksxkA

ALLEN
91. Which option is correct for Urochordates? 91. ;wjksdkWMsZVk ds fy, dkSulk fodYi lgh g\ S
(1) They often referred to as protochordata (1) os vDlj izkVs ksdkWMZsV dgykrs gaSA
(2) They are exclusively marine (2) os iw.kZr% leqnzh gksrs gaSA
(3) Notochord is present only in larval tail (3) uksVksdkWMZ buds ykokZ ds iwaN esa mifLFkr gSa
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh
92. Choose incorrect option– 92. xyr fodYi dks pqu&s
(1) Branchiostoma also known as Amphioxus (1) czSafd;ksLVksek dks ,EQhvkWDll ds uke ls tkuk tkrk gSA
(2) Notochord extends from head to tail in Lancelet. (2) ysalysV esa uksVksdkMZ flj ls iwaN rd ik;h tkrh gAS
(3) In cephalochordata notochord not persist (3) flQSyksdkWMsZV esa uksVksdkWMZ thou i;ZUr ugha ik;h tkrh
throughout life. gSA
93. Characters like 93. y{k.k tl S s
– Presence of ctenoid scales. – VhukW;M 'kYd dh mifLFkfr
– Buoyancy regulatory body. – mRIykou fu;ked dk;
– Fertilization usually external – vDlj cká fu"kspu
belong to : lEcfU/kr gS %
(1) Hippocampus (2) Angel fish (1) fgIiksdsEil (2) ,saty fQ'k
(3) Pristis (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) fizfLVl (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
94. Which one option is correct for class mammalia? 94. oxZ Lru/kkjh ds lanHkZ esa dkSulk ,d dFku lgh g\ S
(1) They may found in habitats like polar ice caps, (1) /kzq oh; fge f'k[kj] jsfxLrku] igkM+] taxy bR;kfn tSls
desert, mountain, forests etc. oklLFkku esa ik;s tk ldrs gaAS
(2) Presence of mammary gland with teats without
(2) fcuk fdlh viokn ds pwpqd ;qDr LruxzafFk
exception
(3) fcuk viokn ds cky@jkseksa dh mifLFkfr
(3) Presence of hair without exception
95. After column matching, choose correct option– 95. LrEHk feyku ds mijkUr lgh fodYi pqusa&
Column–I Column–II LrEHk–I LrEHk–II
(i) Very thin (A) Compound (i) cgqr iryh v/kkjh; (A) la;qDr midyk
basement epithelia
f>Yyh
membrane
(ii) Mainly protective (B) Non-keratinised (ii) eq[;r% lqj{kkRed (B) fdjsfVu jfgr]
squamous epithelia Lrjfjr 'kYdh
(iii)Bucco-pharyngeal (C) Transitional midyk
lining epithelia (iii) eq[k&xzluh Lrj (C) ifjorhZ midyk
(iv)Epidermis of skin (D) Keratinised
(iv) LFkyh; d'ks:d dh (D) fdjsfVu ;qDr] Lrfjr]
of land vertebrates stratified squamous
epithelia cká Ropk 'kYdh midyk
(1) (i)–C, (ii)–A, (iii)–B, (iv)–D (1) (i)–C, (ii)–A, (iii)–B, (iv)–D
(2) (i)–D, (ii)–C, (iii)–A, (iv)–B (2) (i)–D, (ii)–C, (iii)–A, (iv)–B
(3) (i)–A, (ii)–B, (iii)–C, (iv)–D (3) (i)–A, (ii)–B, (iii)–C, (iv)–D
(4) (i)–B, (ii)–C, (iii)–D, (iv)–A (4) (i)–B, (ii)–C, (iii)–D, (iv)–A

ALLEN
96. Common Indian earth worm is– 96. lkekU; Hkkjrh; dsapqvk g&S
(1) Pheretima (2) Periplanata (1) Qsjfs Vek (2) isjhIysuVk
(3) Julus (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) twyl (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
97. Choose correct option for cardiac activity– 97. ân; dkf;Zdh ds fy, lgh fodYi pqusa&
(i) Closer of tricuspid and bicuspid valve (i) f=oyuh vkSj f}oyuh dikV dk cUn gksuk
(ii) Semilunar valve opening (ii) v/kZpUnzkdkj dikV dk [kqyuk
(iii)Semilunar valve closing (iii)v/kZpUnzkdkj dikV dk cUn gksuk
(iv)Opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valve (iv)f=oyuh vkjS f}oyuh okys dikV dk [kqyuk
(1) At the time of atrial systole – (i) (1) vkfyUnh; ladqpu ds le; – (i)
(2) At the time of ventricular diastole – (ii) (2) fuy; ds f'kfFkyu ds le; – (ii)
(3) At the time of ventricular diastole – (iii) (3) fuy; ds f'kfFkyu ds le; – (iii)
(4) At the time of ventricular systole– (iv) (4) fuy; ds ladqpu ds le; – (iv)
98. How many statement/s is/are correct for given diagram? 98. fn;s x;s fp= esa fy, fdrus dFku lR; gaS\
D A D A
B B
C C
Statement : dFku %
(i) Organ of corti located on the C. (i) vkWxZu vkWQ dkWVhZ C ij fLFkr gAS
(ii) Reissner's mambrane, fenestra ovalis and (ii) fjluj dh f>Yyh] v.Mkdkj f[kM+dh vkjS isjhfyEQ A ls
perilymph associated with A. lEcfU/kr gAS
(iii)B is thin elastic membrane, above the rows of (iii)B ,d iryh yphyh f>Yyh gS tks jkse dksf'kdkvksa dh
the hair cells. drkj ds Åij fLFkr gAS
(iv) Cochlea located in space D. (iv) dkWfDy;k LFkku D esa fLFkr gAS
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
99. Which is/are commonly called catecholamines? 99. dkSu lk lkekU;r% dSVsdksysfeu dgykrk g\ S
(1) Adrenaline (2) Nor-epinephrine (1) ,fMªuy s hu (2) ukWj ,ihusfÝu
(3) PTH (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) PTH (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
100. Choose incorrect option– 100. xyr fodYi dks pqfu;s&
(1) Fluid filled cavity in 3° follicle called antrum. (1) 3° iqfVdk ds rjy Hkjs xqgk dks ,UVªe dgrs gaAS
(2) First menstruation begins at puberty and is (2) ;kSoukoLFkk voLFkk esa igyk ekfld L=ko 'kq: gksrk gS vkSj
called menarche.
;g feukdZ dgykrk gAS
(3) Sperm released from seminiferous tubule called
semination. (3) lsfeuhQsjl ufydk ls 'kqØk.kq fu"dklu lsfeus'ku gAS
(4) External genitalia in human female called vulva. (4) ekuo eknk esa cká tuukax Hkx gAS
101. Mitochondria present in which part of sperm? 101. 'kqØk.kq ds fdl Hkkx esa ekbVksdkWfUMª;k ik;k tkrk gS\
(1) Acrosome (2) Head (1) ,Økslkse esa (2) flj esa
(3) Neck (4) Middle plece (3) xzhok esa (4) e/; Hkkx esa

ALLEN
102. Key concept of Darwinian theory of evolution– 102. mf}dkl ds MkfoZuokn dk eq[; vk/kkj ga& S
(1) Branching descent (2) Natural selection (1) 'kkjcuh vojksg.k (2) izkÏfrd oj.k
(3) Mutation (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) mRifjorZu (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
103. Triceratops evolve from– 103. VªkbfljsVkWIl fuEu ls mn~fHkr gq,&
(1) Tyrannosaurus (2) Brachiosaurus (1) VhjSukslkWjl (2) czSfd;kslkWjl
(3) Stegosaurus (4) None of the above (3) LVsxkslkWjl (4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
104. Out breeding is– 104. cká iztuu g& S
(1) Breeding of unrelated animals (1) vlEcU/kh tUrqvksa ds chp iztuu
(2) Breeding between different breed (2) fofHkUu u'y ds chp iztuu
(3) Breeding between different species (3) fofHkUu tkfr;ksa ds chp iztuu
105. Optimum growth conditions for Genetically 105. fdlh ck;ksfj;sDVj esa vkuqokaf'kd :i ls ifjofrZr lw{e thoksa
modified microbes in a bioreactor, are– dh o`f¼ ds fy, loksZRÏ"V 'krs± ga&S
temperature, pH, substrate, salt, vitamine, O 2 rki] pH, fØ;k/kkj] yo.k] foVkfeu] O2
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 4 (1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 4
106. Brewer's yeast used for– 106. 'kjkc cukus okyk [kehj iz;ksx gksrk g& S
(1) Bread making (1) czM
s cukus esa
(2) Wine making (2) okbu cukus esa
(3) Acid making (3) vEy cukus esa
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) o (3) nksuksa
107. Choose correct option – 107. lgh fodYi pqus&
(1) Hirudin is a protein that prevents blood clotting. (1) gh:Mhu ,d izksVhu gS tks jDr LdUnu dks jksdrk gAS
(2) Bt indicate biotechnology. (2) Bt ck;ksVsDuksykWth dks n'kkZrk gSA
(3) In flavr-savr tomato, native tomato gene has (3) ¶ykj&lkj VekVj esa ns'kh VekVj ds thu jksd fn;s tkrs
been blocked gSaA
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) vkjS (3) nksuksa
108. Downstreaming processing associated with– 108. Mkmu LVªhfeax izfØ;k lEcfU/kr gSa&
(1) Seperation (2) Purification (1) i`Fkd~dj.k (2) 'kqf¼dj.k
(3) Production (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) mRiknu (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
109. If the chyme of a person, who had orally consumed 109. ;fn ,d O;fDr ftlus Hkkstu ds :i esa eq[k ls dsoy LVkpZ dk
only starch as food, is analysed before it enters the miHkksx fd;k Fkk] ds ^^dkbe** dk xzg.kh esa izos'k esa djus ls
duodenum, it will show the presence of– igys fo'ys"k.k fd;k tkrk g]S rks ;g fuEu dh mifLFkfr n'kkZ;sxk&
(1) Maltose and glucose (1) ekYVkst rFkk Xywdkst
(2) Dextrin and maltose only (2) dsoy MsfDVªUl rFkk ekYVkst
(3) Starch, dextrins and maltose (3) LVkpZ] MsfDVªUl rFkk ekYVkst
(4) Starch, dextrins and glucose (4) LVkpZ] MsfDVªUl rFkk Xywdkst
110. The conditions which are favourable for the 110. vkWDlhfgeksXyksfcu ds fuekZ.k ds fy;s mi;qDr ifjfLFkfr;k¡ gksrh
formation of oxyhaemoglobin are– gS\
(1) pO2, pCO2, H+con¯, Temperature¯ (1) pO2, pCO2, H+lkanzrk¯, rkieku¯
(2) pO2¯, pCO2¯, H+con, Temperature (2) pO2¯, pCO2¯, H+lkanzrk, rkieku
(3) pO2, pCO2¯, H+con¯, Temperature¯ (3) pO2, pCO2¯, H+lkanzrk¯, rkieku¯
(4) pO2, pCO2, H+con¯, Temperature (4) pO2, pCO2, H+lkanzrk¯, rkieku

ALLEN
111. Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged 111. fodkj ftlesa fd dwf idh; nhokj u"V gks tkrh gS] ftlds
due to which respiratory surface is decreased. One of dkj.k 'olu lrg ?kV tkrh gSA bldk ,d eq [; dkj.k
the major causes of this is cigarette smoking. èkweziku gS&
(1) Asthma (2) Emphysema (1) vLFkek (2) ,EQkblhek
(3) Bronchitis (4) Fibrosis (3) czksadkbfVl (4) Qkbcz ksfll
112. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to:- 112. fujksfir o`Dd dks ,d jksxh esa vfLod`r fd;k tkrk g&S
(1) Innate immune response (1) tUetkr izfrj{kk izfrfØ;k }kjk
(2) Humoral immune response (2) áweksjy izfrj{kk izfrfØ;k }kjk
(3) Cell-mediated immune response (3) dksf'kdk ekf/;r izfrj{kk izfrfØ;k }kjk
(4) Passive immune response (4) fuf"Ø; izfrj{kk izfrfØ;k }kjk
113. HIV that causes AIDS first starts destroying– 113. AIDS mRiUu djus okyk HIV lcls igys fdls u"V djrk g& S
(1) Thrombocytes (1) FkzEckslkbVks dks
(2) B-lymphocytes (2) B-fyEQkslkbV dks
(3) RBC (3) RBC dks
(4) Helper T-lymphocytes (4) gsYij T-fyEQkslkbV dks
114. Which of the following is a degenerative joint 114. fuEu esa dk S ulk ifrr la f /k fodkj g S ftles a lkekU;r%
disease that affects articular cartilages at the o`¼koLFkk esa lk;uksfo;y laf/k ij lU/kk;h mikfLFk izHkkfor
synovial joints normally in old age? gksrh gS\
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis (1) jhesVkW;M vkFkzkZbfVl
(2) Osteoarthritis (2) vkWfLVvksvkFkzkZbfVl
(3) Gouty arthritis (3) xkWVh vkFkzkZbfVl
(4) Paget's disease (4) isxVs jksx
115. Which of the following is not a part of brain stem? 115. fuEu esa ls dkuS efLr"d o`Ur dk Hkkx ugha g\ S
(1) Corpora quadrigemina (1) dkWjiksjk DokMªhtsehuk
(2) Medulla (2) esM~ ;wyk
(3) Cerebellum (3) vuqefLr"d
(4) Pons varolii (4) iksUl ojS ksykbZ
116. Which of the following chemical changes is 116. ,sDlkWu dh f>Yyh esa iqu/kzqZo.k ds fy, fuEu esa ls dkSuls
responsible for repolarisation of the membrane jklk;fud ifjorZu mÙkjnk;h gS\
of axons ? (1) Na + VGC dk [kq y uk o Na + vk;uks a dk rst h ls
(1) Opening of Na+ VGC and rapid influx of Na+ ions vUrokZg
(2) Opening of K+ VGC and rapid influx of K+ ions (2) K+ VGC dk [kqyuk o K+ vk;uksa dk rsth ls vUrokZg
(3) Opening of Na+ VGC and closing of K+ VGC (3) Na+ VGC dk [kqyuk o K+ VGC dk can gksuk
(4) Closing of Na+ VGC and opening of K+ VGC (4) Na+ VGC dk can gksuk o K+ VGC dk [kqyuk
117. In heart cells, which one acts as a secondary 117. ân; dksf'kdkvksa esa fuEu esa ls dkSu f}rh;d lans'kokgd dh rjg
messenger that speeds up muscle contraction in dk;Z djrk gs tks ,Mªhusfyu dh vuqfØ;k ij is'kh ladqpu dks
response to adrenaline? c<+krk g\ S
(1) cAMP (2) GTP (3) cGMP (4) ATP (1) cAMP (2) GTP (3) cGMP (4) ATP
118. Cocaine interferes with the transport of which of 118. dks d s u fuEu es a ls fdl ra f =dk iz s " kd ds ifjogu es a
the following neurotransmitter? ck/kk mRiUu djrk gS\
(1) Dopamine (2) Acetyl choline (1) Mksikfeu (2) ,flVkby dksyhu
(3) Prostaglandin (4) Serotonin (3) izksLVkXysafMu (4) lsjksV ksfuu

ALLEN
119. Following is the diagrammatic presentation of a 119. uhps ekud ECG dk vkjs[kh; izn'kZu fn;k x;k gAS ECG ddk
standard ECG. Each wave in the ECG is identified izR;sd rjax P ls T rd ds v{kj ls igpkuk tkrk gS tks ân;
with a letter from P to T that corresponds to a esa fof'k"V o|
S qr fØ;k dks n'kkZrk gAS fuEu esa ls dkSulk feyku
specific electrical activity of the heart. Which of xyr g\ S
the following is incorrect match?
R R
T P T P
P Q S P S
Q
(1) QRS complex – Represents the depolarisation of

the ventricles. (1) QRS ladqy – fuy;ksa esa fo/kzqo.k dks n'kkZrh gAS
(2) T-wave – Represents repolarisation of ventricles. (2) T-rjax – fuy;ksa ds iqu/kzqZo.k dks n'kkZrk gAS
(3) Q-wave – marks the beginning of atrial systole.
(3) Q-rjax – vkfyUn izdqapu ds izkjEHk dks n'kkZrh gAS
(4) P-wave – Represents the electrical excitation of
the atria. (4) P-rjax – vkfyUn dh o|
S qr mÙkstuk dks n'kkZrh gAS
120. Which of the following events occurs in the 120. fuEu esa dkuS lh ifj?kVuk gsuys ywi dh vojksgh Hkqtk esa gksrh
decending limb of loop of Henle? gS\
(1) 70–80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed (1) bl [k.M ds }kjk 70–80% o|
S qrvi?kV~; o ty dk iqu%
by this segment. vo'kks"k.k gksrk gSA
(2) It is permeable to water but almost impermeable (2) ;g ty ds fy, ikjxE; o oS|qrvi?kV~; ds fy, vikjxE;
to electrolytes. This concentrates the filtrate as gksrk gAS uhps tkus ij ;g [k.M fuL;an dks lkafnzr djrk gAS
it moves down. (3) bl [k.M ls HCO3– dk iqu% vo'kks"k.k rFkk gkbMªkstu o
(3) Reabsorption of HCO3– and selective secretion iksVsf'k;e vk;u o NH3 dk p;ukRed L=o.k pH cuk;s
of hydrogen and potassium ions and NH3 to j[kus ds fy, gksrk gAS
maintain the pH. (4) ;g [k.M ty ds fy, vikjxE; gksrk gs ysfdu blesa
(4) It is impermeable to water but allows the o|S qrvi?kV~; dk lfØ;rk ;k fuf"Ø;rk ls ifjogu gksrk
transport of electrolytes actively or passively. gSA
121. How many statements are correct regarding IUDs– 121. IUDs ls lEcfU/kr fdrus dFku lR; g& S
(A) Increase phagocytosis of sperms. (A) 'kqØk.kqvksa dh QsxkslkbVksfll c<+krs gSaA
(B) Release Cu ions that suppress sperm motility (B) Cu vk;u eqDr djrs g]S tks 'kqØk.kq xfr'khyrk 'kqØk.kqvksa
and fertilizing capacity of sperms. dh fu"kspu {kerk dks lanfer djrs gS
(C) Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation. (C) xHkkZ'k; dks vkjksi.k gsrq v;ksX; cukrs gSaA
(D) Make the cervix hostile to sperms. (D) 'kqØk.kqvksa gsrq xzhfodh; gksLVkby cukrs gAS
(E) Prevent ovulation. (E) v.M+ksRlxZ dks jksdrh gSA
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

ALLEN
122. Match the columns– 122. lqesfyr dhft,&
(A) Australopithecus (i) First human like ancestor (A) vkLVSyksfiFksdl (i) igyk ekuo dh rjg iwoZt
(B) Homo habilis (ii) Used hides to protect (B) gkseks gfS cyhl (ii) 'kjhj dh j{kk ds fy, [kkyksa
the body dk iz;ksx fd;k
(C) Homo erectus (iii) Arose in Africa (C) gkseks bjsDVl (iii) vÝhdk esa fodflr gqvk
(D) Neanderthal man (iv) Probably ate meat (D) fu,.MjFky ekuo (iv) laHkor% ek¡l [kk;k
(E) Homo sapiens (v) Hunted with stone (E) gkseks lfS i;Ul (v) iRFkjksa ds gfFk;kj ls f'kdkj
weapons and ate fruits fd;k vkjS Qy [kk;k
(1) A–v, B–ii, C–iv, D–i, E–iii (1) A–v, B–ii, C–iv, D–i, E–iii
(2) A–i, B–ii, C–iv, D–iii, E–v (2) A–i, B–ii, C–iv, D–iii, E–v
(3) A–v, B–i, C–iv, D–ii, E–iii (3) A–v, B–i, C–iv, D–ii, E–iii
(4) A–v, B–ii, C–iii, D–i, E–iv (4) A–v, B–ii, C–iii, D–i, E–iv
123. A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant 123. ikni jksxksa esa ,d lkekU; to
S fu;a=d dkjd g&S
disease is– (1) cDyksokbjl
(1) Baculovirus
(2) cslhyl Fkwfjautkbufll
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Xyw el
(3) Glomus
(4) Trichoderma (4) VªkbdksMekZ
124. Identify A, B, C, D is the given diagram of E.Coli 124. E.Coli Dyks f ua x okgd pBR322 ds fn, x, fp= es a
cloning vector pBR322. A, B, C, D dks igpkfu,A
A A
B B
C C
D D
A B C D A B C D
(1) EcoR I Bam HI ori amp R (1) EcoR I Bam HI ori amp R
(2) Hind I BamH I kanR amp R (2) Hind I BamH I kanR amp R
(3) BamH I Pst I ori amp R (3) BamH I Pst I ori amp R
(4) EcoR I BamH I amp R
ori (4) EcoR I BamH I ampR ori
125. Outermost covering of cell envelope which 125. dksf'kdk vkoj.k dk lcls ckgjh vkoj.k tks lqj{kk iznku djrk
provides protection and help in cell adhesion, is– gS rFkk dksf'kdk ds vklatu esa lgk;rk djrk g]S g&S
(1) Mesosome (1) ehtkslkse
(2) Glycocalyx (2) XykbdksdSfyDl
(3) Peptidoglycan (3) isfIVMksXykbdsu
(4) Pili (4) fiykbZ

ALLEN
126. Match the items of column-I with column-II and 126. dkWye-I ds inksa ds lkFk dkWye-II dk feyku dhft, ,oa lgh
select correct option. fodYi dks pqfu, &
Column-I Column-II dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. Mesosome (i) Lederberg a. ehtkslkse (i) ySMjoxZ
b. Plasmid (ii) Helps in nitrogen b. IykfTeM (ii) ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k
fixation esa lgk;d
c. Chromatophores (iii) Photosynthetic structure c. o.kZd/kj (iii) dqN izkd
s fs j;ksV~l esa
in some prokaryotes izdk'kla'ys"kh lajpuk
d. Heterocyst (iv) Cell wall formation d. gsVsjksf lLV (iv) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk fuekZ.k
(1) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii) (1) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(2) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) (2) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii) (3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) (4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
127. The given floral formula is represented by 127. uhps fn;k x;k iq"ilw= fdlds }kjk n'kkZ;k tkrk gS\
% K(5)C1+2+(2)A(9)+1G1 % K(5)C1+2+(2)A(9)+1G1
(1) Potato family vkyw dqy
(1)
(2) Mustard family ljlksa dqy
(2)
(3) Onion family I;kt dqy
(3)
(4) Pea family eVj dqy
(4)
128. Seeds are endospermic in : 128. cht Hkwz.kiks"kh gksrs gaS &
(1) Gram (2) Pea (1) pus esa (2) eVj esa
(3) Castor (4) Bean (3) vj.M esa (4) lse esa
129. What are the ploidy of labelled structure A, B, C, 129. eDds ds cht ds fn;s x;s fp= esa ukekafdr lajpukvksa A, B,
D in given diagram of maize seed? C, D dh lw=xqf.krk D;k ga\ S
(B) (B)
(A) (A)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
(1) A-2n, B-3n, C-2n, D-2n (1) A-2n, B-3n, C-2n, D-2n
(2) A-3n, B-3n, C-2n, D-2n (2) A-3n, B-3n, C-2n, D-2n
(3) A-3n, B-2n, C-2n, D-n (3) A-3n, B-2n, C-2n, D-n
(4) A-2n, B-3n, C-2n, D-n (4) A-2n, B-3n, C-2n, D-n

ALLEN
130. Choose the correct match :- 130. lgh feyku dk p;u dhft, :-
(1) Prothallus – Leaf like non-photosynthetic (1) izksFky
S l – iÙkh ln`'k vizdk'kla'ys"kh mikax
appendages
(2) chtk.kqi.kZ – chtk.kq/kkfu;ksa dks /kkj.k djus okyh iÙkh
(2) Sporophyll – Sporangia bearing leaf
(3) Selaginella – Megaphyllous
(3)flysftuy
S k – nh?kZi.khZ (xq:i.khZ)
(4) Adiantum – Sphenopsida (4) ,sfM,UVe – LQhuksfIlMk
131. Find the correct match with respect to annual rings 131. okf"kZd oy;ksa ds lanHkZ esa lgh feyku dk p;u dhft,&
Feature Spring wood Autumn wood y{k.k olUr dk"B 'kjn dk"B
Deposition of (1) fyfXuu dk teko vf/kd de
(1) More Less
lignin (2) jax xgjk gYdk
(2) Colour Dark Light
okfgdk,¡ cgqr vf/kd okfgdk,¡ cgqr de
More in number Less in number
(3) Xylem elementsand vessels with and vessels with (3) tkbyeh vo;o la[;k esa ,oa ladh.kZ la[;k esa ,oa pkSM+h
narrow cavities wide cavities xqfgdk ;qDr xqfgdk ;qDr
(4) Density Low High (4) ?kuRo fuEu mPp
132. Read the following statements carefully– 132. fuEu dFkuksa dks /;kuiwoZd if<+;s&
(a) Present below epidermis in docot stem. (a) f}chti=h rus esa ckg~;Ropk ds uhps fLFkr gksrk gAS
(b) Cells are much thickened at the corners due to (b) lsY;wykst] gsehlsY;wykst rFkk isfDVu ds teko ds dkj.k
deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin. dksf'kdk;sa dksuksa ij cgqr vf/kd eksVh gks tkrh gSaA
(c) Provide mechanical support to the growing parts. (c) o/khZ Hkkxksa dks ;kaf=d lgkjk iznku djrk gAS
Above all are the features of– mijksDr lHkh fdldh fo'ks"krk;sa gSa\
(1) Collenchyma (2) Sclerenchyma (1) LFkwydks.kksrd dh (2) n`<+ksrd dh
(3) Parenchyma (4) Sclereids (3) e`nwrd dh (4) LDysjhM~l dh
133. Match the following 133. fuEu dk feyku dhft,&
Column I Column II dkW y e I dkW ye II

The inner compartment ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k dk Hkhrjh
a Thylakoids i a Fkk;ysdkWbM~l i
of mitochondria d{k
b Cristae ii Infoldings in mitochondria b fØLVh ii ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k esa vUroZy u
Disc-shaped sacs in xkWYth midj.k esa fMLduqek
c Cisternae iii c flLVuhZ iii
golgi apparatus iqfVdk;sa
Flat membranous sacs LVªksek esa piVh f>Yyhe;
d Matrix iv d eSfVªDl iv
in stroma iqfVdk;sa
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
134. Which of the following are considered as a part 134. fuEu esa ls fdudksa vUr% f>fYydk ra= dk Hkkx ekuk tkrk
of the endomembrane system? gS\
(1) Mitochondria, ER and lysosomes (1) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k, ER rFkk ykblkslkse
(2) ER, chloroplast and vacuole (2) ER, gfjryod rFkk fjfDrdk
(3) Lysosomes, ER and golgi complex (3) ykblkslkse, ER rFkk xkWYth ladqy
(4) Golgi complex, vacuole and ribosomes (4) xkWYth ladqy] fjfDrdk rFkk jkbckslkse

ALLEN
135. Select the incorrect statment– 135. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,&
(1) Growth and reproduction are characteristics of cells (1) o`f¼ rFkk tuu] dksf'kdkvksa ds vfHky{k.k gksrs gaS
(2) Cell cycle is under genetical control (2) dksf'kdk pØ vkuqoaf'kd fu;a=.k ds vUrxZr gksrk gS
(3) Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase (3) G2-izkoLFkk esa dksf'kdk o`f¼ dksf'kdknzO;h o`f¼ ds :i esa
stops in G2 -phase :d tkrh gS
(4) Cell grows maximum in G1 -phase (4) dksf'kdk G1-izkoLFkk esa lokZf/kd o`f¼ djrh gS
136. During guttation, the oozed liquid contains– 136. fcUnqL=ko ds nkjS ku fjlus okys nzo esa&
(1) Pure water only (1) dsoy 'kq¼ ty gksrk gS
(2) Inorganic substances only (2) dsoy vdkcZfud inkFkZ gksrs gaS
(3) Organic substances only (3) dsoy dkcZfud inkFkZ gksrs gaS
(4) Inorganic as well as organic substances (4) vdkcZfud ds lkFk&lkFk dkcZfud inkFkZ Hkh gksrs gaS
137. Mark the mis-matched pair– 137. vlqesfyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft,&
(1) Sulphur – Constituent of thiamine (1) lYQj – fFk;kehu dk la?kVd
(2) Copper – Activates nitrogenase enzyme (2) dkWij – ukbVªksftust ,atkbe dks lfØ; djrk gS
(3) Manganese – Best defined function is splitting (3) eSaXuht – lcls Li"V dk;Z izdk'kla'ys"k.k ds nkjS ku ty
of water during photosynthesis dk fo?kVu djrk gS
(4) Zinc – Needed in the synthesis of auxin (4) ftad – vkWfDlu ds la'ys"k.k esa vko';d gksrk gS
138. Secondary nucleus is fertilized by male gamete to 138. fdlds fuekZ.k ds fy;s f}rh;d dsUnzd] uj ;qXed }kjk fu"ksfpr
form– fd;k tkrk g\ S
(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo (1) Hkzw.kiks"k (2) Hkzw.k
(3) Seed (4) Zygote (3) cht (4) ;qXeut
139. Which of the following structures do not represent 139. iq"ih; ikniksa esa fuEu esa ls dkuS lh lajpuk,sa chtk.kqn~fHkn ih<+h
sporophytic generation in flowering plants? dks fu:fir ugha djrh gS %&
(1) Stigma and style (1) ofrZdkxz ,oa ofrZdk
(2) Ovary and nucellus (2) v.Mk'k; ,oa chtk.Mdk;
(3) Megaspore and microspore (3) xq: chtk.kq ,oa y?kq chtk.kq
(4) Megaspore mother cell and integument (4) xq: chtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk ,oa v/;koj.k
140. Ploidy of the cells of the nucellus is : 140. chtk.Mdk; dh dksf'kdkvksa dh xqf.krk gksrh gS :
(1) Haploid (2) Diploid (1) vxqf.kr (2) f}xqf.kr
(3) Tetraploid (4) Polyploid (3) prqxZqf.kr (4) cgqxqf.kr
141. Match the column I to II 141. dkWye I rFkk II dks feykb;s %
Column I Column II dkWye I dkWye II
(a) Catalytic converter (i) Particulate matter (a) mRizsjd ifjorZd (i) df.kdh; inkFkZ
(b) Electrostatic precipitator (ii) CO and NO X (b) fLFkj o| S qr vi{ksfi= (ii) CO rFkk NOX
(c) Earmuffs (iii) noise pollution (c) d.kZeQ (iii) /ouh iznq"k.k
(d) Land fills (iv) Solid wastes (d) ysaM fQYl (iv) Bksl vif'k"B
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

ALLEN
142. Which phenomenon is shown in figure ? 142. fp= esa dkSulh izfØ;k iznf'kZr dh xbZ g\
S
Detergents Rapid growth Aquatic Detergents Rapid growth Aquatic
sewages of phytoplankton Animals sewages of phytoplankton Animals
BOD BOD
DO ¯ DO ¯
Dead Dead
Increase in organic Increase in organic
Phosphates and Nitrates Matter Phosphates and Nitrates Matter
(1) Biological magnification (1) tfS od vko/kZu

(2) Eutrophication (2) lqiks"k.k
(3) Acid rain (3) vEyh; o"kkZ
(4) Photochemical smog (4) izdk'k jklk;fud /kwedksg
143. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal linked recessive 14 3. fldy ls y ,uhfe;k ,d viz H kkoh dkf;d lgyXuh
trait that can be transmitted from parents to the y{k.k g S ] tks ml n'kk es a ekrk&firk ls oa 'kkuq x r gksr k
offspring when both the partners are heterozygous. g S tc nks u ks a fo"ke ;q X eth gks A
Identify X, Y and Z :- X, Y rFkk Z dks igpkfu, :-
....CTC.... ....CTC....
Normal Hb (A) Gene lkekU; Hb (A) thu
....GAG.... ....GAG....
mRNA....GAG.... mRNA....GAG....
Val His Leu Thr Pro Glu Glu Val His Leu Thr Pro Glu Glu
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
HbA Peptide HbA Peptide
....X.... ....X....
Sickle-cell Hb(S) Gene fldy lsy Hb(S) thu
....Y.... ....Y....
mRNA....GUG.... mRNA....GUG....
Val His Leu Thr Pro Z Glu Val His Leu Thr Pro Z Glu
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
HbS Peptide HbS Peptide
(1) GTG GAC Val (GUG) (1) GTG GAC Val (GUG)
(2) CAC GTG val (GUG) (2) CAC GTG val (GUG)
(3) GTA GAG val (GUG) (3) GTA GAG val (GUG)
(4) GTC GAC val (GUG) (4) GTC GAC val (GUG)

ALLEN
144. In a plant height is controlled by two polygenes 144. ,d ik/S ks esa yEckbZ dk fu/kkZj.k nks ikWyhthUl A rFkk B }kjk fd;k
A and B. Tallest plant is 56 cm tall and height of tkrk gAS lcls yEck ikS/kk 56 cm yEck gS rFkk lcls NksVs ikSèks
shortest plant is 30 cm. What will be the height of dh yEckbZ 30 cm gAS ml ik/S ks dh yEckbZ D;k gksxh ftldk
plant having genotype AAbb? thu izk:i AAbb gAS
(1) 43 cm (2) 48.5 cm (1) 43 cm (2) 48.5 cm
(3) 37.5 cm (4) 51 cm (3) 37.5 cm (4) 51 cm
145. "Sonalika" and "Kalyan Sona" are the varieties of 145. ^lksukfydk* ,oa ^dY;k.k lksuk* fdldh iztkfr;k¡ g\ S
(1) Rice (2) Maize (1) pkoy (2) eDdk
(3) Wheat (4) Sugarcane (3) xsagw¡ (4) xUuk
146. First antibiotic to be discovered was 146. igyk [kkstk x;k izfrtfS od Fkk&
(1) Tetracycline (2) Ampicillin (1) Tetracycline (2) Ampicillin
(3) Streptomycin (4) Penicillin (3) Streptomycin (4) Penicillin
147. Cross between AABb and aaBb yield AaBB: 147. AABb ,oa aaBb esa lad j.k djokus ij AaBB: AaBb:
AaBb: Aabb: aabb offspring in the ratio of Aabb: aabb thu izk:i okyh larfr;ksa dk vuqikr gksxk&
(1) 0:3:1:1 (2) 1:2:1:0 (1) 0:3:1:1 (2) 1:2:1:0
(3) 1:1:1:1 (4) 1:2:1:1 (3) 1:1:1:1 (4) 1:2:1:1
148. An individual with cd genes is crossed with wild 148. ,d cd thu okys tho dk izHkkoh ++ okys ls ladj.k djok;k
type ++. On test crossing F1 hybrid, the progeny x;kA F1 ladj dk ijh{k.kkFkZ ladj.k djokus ij +c 105, +d
was +c 105, +d 115, cd 880 and ++ 900. Distance 115, cd 880 and ++ 900 larku mRiUu gqbZA c ,oa d thu
between cd genes is ds e/; nwjh g&S
(1) 44 map units (1)
44 map units
55 map units
11 map units
88 map units
149. Adenine is 30% then what would be the % of 149. ,d dsDNA es a ,Ms uhu 30% g S rks Xokuhu dh ek=k
guanine in a dsDNA gksxh&
(1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 30% (4) 40% (1) 10% (2) 20%
(3) 30% (4) 40%
150. Identify the correct match :- 150. lgh feyku dh igpku dhft, :-
Column I Column II Column I Column II
A. AUG 1. Phenylalanine A. AUG 1. Phenylalanine
B. UAA 2. Methionine B. UAA 2. Methionine
C. UUU 3. Tryptophan C. UUU 3. Tryptophan
D. UGG 4. Termination D. UGG 4. Termination
(1) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 (1) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(2) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (2) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 (4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
151. World environment day is celeberated on 151. fo'o i;kZoj.k fnol dc euk;k tkrk g\
S
(1) 15th March (1) 15 ekpZ dks
(2) 15th April (2) 15 vizys dks
(3) 4th May (3) 4 ebZ dks
(4) 5th June (4) 5 twu dks

ALLEN
152. Which of the following pair is incorrect? 152. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk tksM+k vlR; g& S
(1) Phycomycetes - Algal fungi (1) QkbdksEkkbflVht - 'ko S kyh; dod
(2) Ascomycetes- Sac Fungi (2) ,LdksekbflVht - Fky S h dod
(3) Basidiomycetes-Most primitive fungi (3) csflfM;ksekbflVht - lcls vkfne dod
(4) Deuteromycetes- Fungi imperfecti (4) M~;wVjs ksekbflVht - viw.kZ dod
153. Maximum metabolic diversity is found in kingdom 153. lokZf/kd mikip;h fofo/krk fdl txr esa gksrh g\ S
(1) Fungi (2) Monera (1) QatkbZ esa (2) eksujs k esa
(3) Plantae (4) Animalia (3) IykUVh esa (4) ,fuesfy;k esa
154. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria on the basis 154. vk?k thok.kq fdlds vk/kkj ij ;wcSDVfj;k ls fHkUurk n'kkZrs
of- ga\
S
(1) Nucleus (1) dsUnzd
(2) Ribosome (2) jkbckslkse
(3) Cell wall (3) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk
(4) Prokaryotic nature (4) izksdfs j;ksfVd izÏfr
155. Choose the incorrect pair 155. vlqesfyr ;qXe pqfu, &
(1) Sphagnum - Peat Moss (1) LQsXue - ihV ekWl
(2) Riccia - Liverworts (2) fjfDlvk - fyojoVZ
(3) Cycas - Largest ovule (3) lk;dl - lcls cM+k chtk.M
(4) Pinus - Homosporous (4) ikbul - lechtk.kqd
156. Mesosomes are analogous to :- 156. ehtkslkse fdlds leo`fr gksrs g\ S
(1) Golgi bodies (2) Plastids (1) xkWYthdk; (2) IykfLVM
(3) Mitochondria (4) Nucleus (3) ekbVksdksfUMª;k (4) dsUnzd
157. If there were 4 chromosomes present during 157. ;fn izkQ
s t
s -I esa 4 xq.klw= gks rks v/kZlw=.k-I ds vUr esa izR;sd
prophase-I, how many chromosomes are there in dksf'kdk esa budh la[;k gksxh\
each cell at the end of meiosis I ? (1) 16 (2) 4
(1) 16 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 8 (3) 2 (4) 8
158. Choose the incorrect pair 158. vlqesfyr ;qXe pqfu, &
(1) Zygotene - Synapsis (1) tkbxksVhu - lw=;qXeu
(2) Pachytene - Gene exchange (2) isdhVhu - thu fofue;
(3) Diplotene - Recombination nodules formation (3) fMIyksVhu - iquZ;kstu xzazfFkdk,a dk fuekZ.k
(4) Diakinesis - Terminalization of chiasmata (4) Mkbdkbusfll - dkbTesVk dk mikUrhHkou
159. FADH2 is produced during which of the following 159. fuEu esa ls fdl in esa FADH2 curk g\ S
reaction ? (1) lfDlfud vEy ls ¶;wefs jd vEy
(1) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
(2) ¶;wefs jd vEy ls efS yd vEy
(2) Fumaric acid to malic acid
(3) lfDlukby dks , ls lfDlfud vEy
(3) Succinyl Co-A to succinic acid
(4) Isocitric acid to oxaloacetic acid (4) vkblksflVªhd vEy ls vkWDlsyks,flfVd vEy
160. Stimulus of photoperiods is received by 160. nhIrhdky dk mn~nhiu dkSu xzg.k djrk g\
S
(1) Meristems (1) foHkT;ksrd
(2) Mature leaves (2) ifjiDo i.kZ
(3) Root apex (3) ewy 'kh"kZ
(4) Node (4) ioZlaf/k

ALLEN
161. Which one of the following options gives the 161. fuEufyf[kr fodYi esa ls jksx dks igpkfu;s ftldk jksxdkjh
correct matching of a disease with its causative thok.kq rFkk laØe.k dk rjhdk Hkh lgh gS ?
organism and mode of infection ? jks x jks xdkjh la Øe.k dk
Disease Causative Mode of tho rjhdk
Organisms Infection (1) ,yhQs'kh,fll oqpsjsfj;k laØfer Hkkstu rFkk
(1) Elephantiasis Wuchereria with infected
cSaØks¶VkbZ ty ls
bancrofti water and food
(2) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
(2) eysfj;k IykTeksfM;e uj ,suksQy
s ht
vivax Anopheles mosquito okboDS l ePNj ds dkVus ls
(3) Typhoid Salmonella with inspired air (3) Vk;QkWbM lkYeksuy s k ok;q ds ek/;e ls
typhi Vk;Qh
(4) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet (4) U;weksfu;k LVªsIVksdksdl fcUnqd
pneumoniae Infection U;weksukbZ laØe.k
A A
B B
Capillaries Capillaries
162. 162.
C C
D D
Choose incorrect match regarding A, B, C, D: A, B, C, D ls lEcfU/kr vlR; feyku dk p;u djks:

(1) A – Villi, increase the surface area (1) A – vadqj] {ks=Qy lrg c<+rk gS
(2) B – Lacteal, absorption of cholesterol (2) B – ySfDV;y] dkWysLVªksy dk vo'kks"k.k djrk gS
(3) C – Crypts present in between the base of villi (3) C – vadqjksa ds vk/kkj ij njkjsa mifLFkr gksrh gS
(4) D – Areolar connective tissue forms peritoneum (4) D – ,fjvksyj la;ksth ÅÙkd isfjVksfu;e cukrk gS
163. Match section I with the section II and choose the 163. [k.M I rFkk [k.M II dk feyku dhft, rFkk fn;s fodYi esa
correct combination from given options. ls lgh esy dk p;u dhft,
Section I Section II
(function) (parts of excretory) [k.M I [k.M II
(dk;Z) (mRltZu ds Hkkx)
1 ultra filtration A Henle's loop
1 ijk&fuL;anu A gsuys&ywi
2 concentration of urine B ureter
2 ew=k dh lkUærk B ew=k okfguh
3 transport of urine C urinary bladder
3 ew=k dk LFkkukUrj.k C ew=kk'k;
4 storage of urine D malpighian corpuscle 4 ew=k dk laxzg D esYihxhdk;
proximal convoluted E lehiLFk dq.Mfyr ufydk
E
tubule
(1) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C (1) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
(2) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (2) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(3) 1-E, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C (3) 1-E, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(4) 1-E, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B (4) 1-E, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

ALLEN
164. The diagram given below represents a variety of beaks 164. fn;k x;k fp= MkfoZu ds }kjk xSykiaSxksl }hi esa [kksth xbZ fQapst
of finches that Darwin found in Galapagos island? dh pksap dk g?S
What type of evolutionary process is depicted in

the diagram? fp= esa fdl izdkj ds mn~fodkl dks n'kkZ;k x;k g?S
(1) Parallel adaptation (1) lekUrj vuqdwyu
(2) Convergent evolution (2) vfHklkjh mn~fodkl
(3) Adaptive radiation (3) vuqdwyuh fofdj.k
(4) Adaptive convergence (4) vuqdwyuh vfHklj.k
165. In an experiment a part of a leaf is inserted in a test 165. ,d iz;ksx esa ,d iÙkh dk vk/kk Hkkx ,d VsLV V~;wc esa layXu
tube containing some KOH soaked cotton, while the gksrk gS ftlesa KOH vo'kksf"kr :bZ gS tcfd nwljk vk/kk gok
other half is exposed to air. The setup is then placed ds lEidZ esa jgrk gAS iz;ksx ds lsVvi dks dqN le; ds fy;s
in light for some time. On testing for the presence izdk'k esa j[kk tkrk gAS ifÙk ds nksuksa fgLlksa ij LVkpZ dh mifLFkfr
of starch later in the two parts of the leaf- dk ijh{k.k fd;k tkrk gAS rc -
(1) Exposed part of leaf tested positive (1) ckgjh Hkkx dk ijh{k.k ldkjkRed gksxk
(2) Portion that was in the tube, tested positive (2) og Hkkx tks VsLV V~;wc esa g]S ldkjkRed ijh{k.k nsxk
(3) Entire leaf tested negative (3) lEiw.kZ ifÙk udkjkRed ijh{k.k nsxh
(4) Entire leaf tested positive (4) lEiw.kZ ifÙk ldkjkRed ijh{k.k nsxh
166. Match the column- 166. dkWye dk feyku dhft;s-
Column I Column II dkWye I dkWye II
A. Toxins i. Morphine A. VkWfDlUl i. ekWQhZu
B. Alkaloids ii. Abrin B. ,YdsyksbM~l ii. vjfcu
C. Lectins iii. Vinblastin C. ysfDVUl iii. fouCykLVhu
D. Drugs iv. Concanavalin A D. MªXl iv. dksudsukofyu A
A B C D A B C D
(1) i ii iii iv (1) i ii iii iv
(2) i iii ii iv (2) i iii ii iv
(3) ii i iv iii (3) ii i iv iii
(4) iv ii iii i (4) iv ii iii i
167. TW Engelmann’s prism experiments on a green 167. Vh-MCY;w- ,atsyesu }kjk gjs 'ko
S ky dysMksQksjk ij fizTe iz;ksx
alga, Cladophora led to the discovery of- ls fdldh [kkst lEHko gqbZ-
(1) Cyclic and non - cyclic photophosphorylation (1) pfØ; rFkk vpfØ; izdk'k QkWLQksfjyhdj.k
(2) First action spectrum of photosynthesis (2) izdk'k la'ys"k.k ds fØ;k LiDS Vªe
(3) Two photosystems operating simultaneously (3) nks izdk'kra= lkFk&lkFk pyrs gS
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation (4) vkWDlhdkjh QkWLQksfjyhdj.k

ALLEN
168. Primary productivity varies in different types of 168. izkFkfed mRikndrk vyx&vyx izdkj ds ifjra=ksa esa vyx&vyx
ecosystems because it depends on- gksrh gS D;ksafd ;g vk/kkfjr g-S
A. The plant species inhabiting a particular area A. ,d fo'ks"k {ks= esa ik;h tkus okyh ikniksa dh tkfr;ksa ij
B. On a variety of environmental factors B. i;kZoj.kh; dkjdksa ds izdkj ij
C. Availability of nutrients C. iks"kdksa dh miyC/krk
D. Photosynthetic capacity of plants D. ikniksa dh izdk'kla'ys"k.kh; {kerk ij
(1) Only A (1) dsoy A
(2) Only C (2) dsoy C
(3) A , B and C (3) A , B vkjS C
(4) All of the above (4) mi;qZDr lHkh
169. The ‘bakanae’ or ‘foolish seedling’ disease was 169. ^csdkus* ;k ^eq[kZ uoksn~fHkn~* jksx fdlds dkj.k gqvk Fkk -
due to- (1) ,sxzkcs DS Vhfj;e V~;wfeQsflal
(1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(2) ftczsyk ¶;wftdksjkbZ
(2) Gibberalla fujikuroi
(3) clS hyl Fkqfjaft;safll
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Trichoderma sp. (4) VªkbZdksMekZ Lih-
ATP ATP
D D
170. F0
170. F0
F1 F1
A B C A B C
ADP iP ADP iP
Choose the correct option regarding A,B,C and D A,B,C vkjS D ds fn;s x;s fp= ds lUnHkZ esa lgh fodYi dk
given in diagram. p;u dhft;s
A B C D A B C D
(1) Inner Perimit (1) e fS VªD l ekbVksd ksf.Mª; k isjh

Matrix mitochondrial ochondrial H+ dh vkUrfjd ekbVksd kWf.Mª; y H +
membrane Space f>Yyh vodk'k
(2) Inner Perimit (2) e fS VªD l ekbVksd ksf.Mª; k isjh

Matrix mitochondrial ochondrial H+ dh vkUrfjd ekbVksd kWf.Mª; y H +
membrane Space f>Yyh vodk'k
(3) Perimito Inner (3) isj h ekbVks ekbVksd ksf.Mª; k e fS VªD l

chondrial mitochondrial Matrix H+ dkWf.Mª;y dh vkUrfjd H+
Space membrane vodk'k f>Yyh
(4) Perimit Outer (4) isj h ekbVks ekbVksd ksf.Mª; k e fS VªD l

ochondrial mitochondrial Matrix H+ dkWf.Mª;y dh ckgjh H+
Space membrane vodk'k f>Yyh

ALLEN
171. If the pressure is atmospheric pressure, then which 171. ;fn nkc ok;qe.Myh; nkc gks rc foy;u ds fy, fuEufyf[kr
of the following will be correct for solution :- esa ls dkuS lk lgh gS :-
(1) y w = y s (1) y w = y s
(2) ys = y P (2) ys = y P
(3) yw = ys + y p (3) yw = ys + y p
(4) yw = ys – y p (4) yw = ys – y p
172. Organisms facing a very high risk of extinction in 172. ltho dks rRdky Hkfo"; esa oU; ls foyq Ir gksus dk cgq r
the wild in the immediate future and needs urgent vf/kd [krjk gS vkjS bls foyqIr gksus ls cpkus ds fy;s rRdky
measures to save it from extinction, which of the mik;ksa dh vko';drk gS fuEufyf[kr esa ls okaNuh; n`f"Vdks.k
following is the desirable approach? gksxk\
(1) ex-situ (off site) conservation (1) ckâ;LFkkus (vkWQ lkbV) laj{k.k
(2) In-situ (on site) conservation (2) LoLFkkus (vkWu lkbV) laj{k.k
(3) Conservation in biosphere reserve (3) to S e.My {k=S esa laj{k.k
(4) Conservation in national park (4) jk"Vªh; m|ku esa laj{k.k
173. Monomer unit of sucrose is :- 173. lqØkst dh ,dyd bdkbZ;k¡ gksrh g%S &
(1) a-Glucose + a-Glucose (1) a-Xywdkst + a-Xywdkst
(2) a-Glucose + b-Fructose (2) a-Xywdkst + b-ÝDVkst
(3) b-Galactose + b-Glucose (3) b-xsyDs Vkst + b-Xywdkst
(4) a-Fructose + b-Fructose (4) a-ÝDVkst + b-ÝDVkst
174. What is true for Key-Stone species ? 174. dqat&f'kyk iztkfr ds fy, D;k lR; g\ S
(1) more in number or biomass, more influence (1) la [;k vFkok tSoHkkj esa vf/kd] leqnk; ij vf/kd
on the community izHkkoA
(2) more in number or biomass, less influence on (2) la [ ;k vFkok t S o Hkkj esa vf/kd] leq n k; ij de
the community izHkkoA
(3) less in number or biomass, more influence on (3) la[ ;k vFkok tS oHkkj esa de] leqn k; ij lokZ f /kd
(4) less in number or biomass, low influence on (4) la [ ;k vFkok t S o Hkkj es a de ] leq n k; ij de
175. Match the following column and choose the 175. fuEu LraHkks dk feyku djs vkSj lgh fodYi pqus %
correct option : LrEHk-I LrEHk-II
Column-I Column-II (a) 'kh"kZ ek¡lkgkjh (i) daxk: pwgk
(a) Top carnivores (i) Kangaroo rat
(b) y?kq miHkksDrk (ii) 'ksj
(b) Microconsumer (ii) Lion
(c) daqt f'kyk tkfr (iii) dod
(c) Key stone species (iii) Fungi
(d) LFkkfud iztkfr (iv) daxk:
(d) Endemic species (iv) Kangaroo
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

ALLEN
176. HO–CH2 O 176. HO–CH2 O
OH OH
H H H H H H
H H
OH OH OH OH
(1) It is structure of deoxyribose (1) ;g ,d fMvkWDlh jkbckst dh lajpuk gAS

(2) It is component of deoxyribonucleotide (2) ;g fMvkWDlhjkbcksU;wfDy;ksVkbM dk ?kVd gAS
(3) It is 6 carbons monosaccharide (3) ;g 6 dkcZu dk eksuksld
S sjkbM gAS
(4) It is present in RNA (4) ;g RNA esa mifLFkr gksrk gAS
177. (i) Birds & mammals attains smaller body size in 177. (i) B.Ms {ks=ksa esa i{kh;ksa rFkk Lru/kkfj;ksa dk vkdkj NksVk gksrk
colder climate. gSA
(ii) Mammals of colder climates generally have (ii) BaMs LFkkuksa ij feyus okys Lru/kkfj;ksa ds dku rFkk ikn NksVs
shorter ear's & limbs. gksrs gAS
Select correct option according to Allen's rule. ,sysu fu;e ds vuqlkj lR; fodYi dk pquko djsa %
(1) only (i) (1) dsoy (i)
(2) only (ii) (2) dsoy(ii)
(3) both (i) and (ii) (3) (i) o (ii) nksuksa
(4) neither (i) nor (ii) (4) uk rks (i) uk gh (ii)
178. Which of the following is a correct option for 178. tkrh; fofHkUurk ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh
species diversity ? gS ?
(1) Species diversity is a structural characterstics
(1) tkfr; fofo/krk lef"V dk lajpukRed xq.k/keZ gAS
of population.
(2) Minimum species diversity present at higher (2) mPp v{kka'k okys {ks= esa tkfr; fofo/krk de gksrh
latitude area. gSA
(3) As altitude increased species diversity also increase. (3) tl
S &s tl
S s Å¡pkbZ c<+rh gS tkfr; fofo/krk c<+rh gAS
(4) Species diversity is a functional characteristic
(4) tkfr; fofo/krk leqnk; dk dk;kZRed xq.k/keZ gAS
of community.
179. Fill in the blanks according to the Greenhous effect. 179. xzhu gkÅl izHkko ds vuqlkj fjDr LFkkuksa dh iwfrZ djksA
"Clouds and gases reflect about .......a... of the ßi`Foh dh vkSj vkus okys lkjS fofdj.k dk yxHkx .......a...
incoming solar radiation, and absorb some of it but Hkkx cknyksa vkjS xl
S ksa }kjk vo'kksf"kr gks tkrk gAS yxHkx....b.....
almost ....b..... of incoming solar radiation falls on vkxr lkSj fofdj.k i`Foh dh lrg ij iM+rk gS vkSj bls xeZ djrk
Earth's surface heating it, while a small proportion
gAS bldk dqN Hkkx ifjofrZr gksdj ykSV tkrk gAS Þ
is reflected back."
(1) a-vk/kk Hkkx, b-,d pkFS kkbZ Hkkx
(1) a-one half, b-one fourth
(2) a-rhu pkFS kkbZ Hkkx, b-vk/kk Hkkx
(2) a-three fourth, b-one half
(3) a-one half, b-three fourth (3) a-vk/kk Hkkx, b-rhu pkFS kkbZ Hkkx
(4) a-one fourth, b-one half (4) a-,d pkFS kkbZ Hkkx, b-vk/kk Hkkx

ALLEN
180. Fill in the blanks. 180. fjDr LFkkuksa dks Hkfj;sa
A. According to an estimate, almost ......a.... A. vkdyu ds vuqlkj yxHkx ......a.... iz fr'kr ta xy
percent forests have been lost in the tropics,
Å".kdfVca/k bykdksa dh rqy uk esa dsoy .........b.....
compared to only .........b..... percent in the
temperate region.
izfr'kr 'khrks".k bykdksa esa foyqIr gks x;k gS
B. At the beginning of the twentieth century, B. 20oha lnh ds izkjEHk esa Hkkjr esa ......c...... izfr'kr LFky ij
forests covered about ......c...... percent of the taxy mifLFkr FkkA 'krkCnh ds vUr rd ;g ?kVdj......d.....
land of India. By the end of the century, it izfr'kr jg x;kA
shrunk to ......d..... percent. fodYi %
Code:
a b c d
a b c d
(1) 1 40 33 18 (1) 1 40 33 18
(2) 40 1 30 21.54 (2) 40 1 30 21.54
(3) 1 40 30 39.4 (3) 1 40 30 39.4
(4) 40 1 33 29.4 (4) 40 1 33 29.4
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

ALLEN
dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg

ALLEN
Read carefully the following instructions : fuEufyf[kr funs Z 'k /;ku ls i<+ s a :
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her 1. iwNs tkus ij izR;sd ijh{kkFkhZ] fujh{kd dks viuk ,yu igpku
Allen ID Card to the Invigilator. i= fn[kk,A
2. No candidate, without special permission of 2. fujh{kd dh fo'ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ viuk
the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. LFkku u NksM+As
3. The candidates should not leave the 3. dk;Zjr fujh{kd dks viuk mÙkj&i= fn, fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ
Examination Hall without handing over their ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksM+sA
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Ca lculator is 4. bys D Vª k W f ud@gLrpfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ks x oftZ r
prohibited. gSA
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ ijh{kk ds lHkh
Regulations of the examination with regard to fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa }kjk fu;fer gAS vuqfpr lk/ku ds lHkh
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
ekeyksa dk Ql S yk ijh{kk ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj
Rules and Regulations of this examination. gksxkA
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6. fdlh gkyr esa ijh{kk iqfLrdk vkjS mÙkj&i= dk dksbZ Hkkx
shall be detached under any circumstances. vyx u djs aA
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7. ijh{kk iqfLrdk@mÙkj&i= esa ijh{kkFkhZ viuk lgh uke o QkWeZ
and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer uEcj fy[ksaA
Sheet.
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days
along with Paper code and Your Form No.
uks V % ;fn bl iz ' u i= es a dks b Z Correction gks rks Ïi;k Paper code ,oa vkids Form No. ds lkFk 2 fnu ds vUnj
dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in ij mail djs a A
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in

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(1001CMD303119066) Test Pattern

ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :

05042020/Hindi Major/Page 1/36

Major/Page 2/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

(1) 0.5 (2) 0.4 (1) 0.5 (2) 0.4

All Enthusiast Leader & Achiever (All Phase)

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 3/36

Major/Page 4/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

R12 (R1 + R 2 )2 R12 (R1 + R 2 )2

R22 R12 R22 R12

(1) 2 V (2) 6 V (3) 4 V (4) 3 V (1) 2 V (2) 6 V (3) 4 V (4) 3 V

All Enthusiast Leader & Achiever (All Phase)

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 5/36

Major/Page 6/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

All Enthusiast Leader & Achiever (All Phase)

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 7/36

(1) 3kW (2) 300 kW (1) 3kW (2) 300 kW

(1) AB (2) AB + AB (1) AB (2) AB + AB

Major/Page 8/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

H2 He NH3 CH4 H2 He NH3 CH4

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 9/36

(Given ESn 2+ |Sn = -0.14V , (fn;k x;k gS ESn 2+ |Sn = -0.14V ,

Major/Page 10/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 11/36

(1) 5-ethyl-3,3-dimethyl cyclohexene (1) 5-bFkkby-3,3-MkbfeFkkby lkbDyksgDs tsu

(1) CH2 NH2 (1) CH2 NH2

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Major/Page 12/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

(1) Hexanoic acid (1) gsDlsuksbZd vEy

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

(4) CH3 – NH – CH3 (4) CH3 – NH – CH3

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 13/36

OCH3 CF3 OCH3 CF3

(III) (IV) (III) (IV)

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Major/Page 14/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

(3) ClO-2 (4) ICl +2 (3) ClO-2 (4) ICl +2

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 15/36

(3) Ba ( N3 ) 2 (4) NH 4 NO3 (3) Ba ( N3 ) 2 (4) NH 4 NO3

(2) KMnO4 , ( NH 4 ) 2 Cr2O 7 (2) KMnO 4 , ( NH 4 )2 Cr2O7

(3) K 2Cr2 O7 , ( NH 4 ) 2 Cr2 O 7 (3) K 2Cr2 O7 , ( NH 4 ) 2 Cr2 O 7

(4) KMnO 4 , K 2 CO3 (4) KMnO 4 , K 2 CO3

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Major/Page 16/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 17/36

Major/Page 18/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 19/36

Major/Page 20/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

(1) QRS complex – Represents the depolarisation of

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 21/36

Major/Page 22/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 23/36

Column I Column II dkW y e I dkW ye II

Major/Page 24/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 25/36

(1) Biological magnification (1) tfS od vko/kZu

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Major/Page 26/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

05042020/Hindi dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg Major/Page 27/36

Major/Page 28/36 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg 05042020/Hindi

Choose incorrect match regarding A, B, C, D: A, B, C, D ls lEcfU/kr vlR; feyku dk p;u djks: