Model Question Paper

MCQ Based
For

BTech 2020

Information Technology
[[[

BABU BANARASI DAS

NORTHERN INDIA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
LUCKNOW
 RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK

UNIT-1 c) High Energy Band

d) High Availability
1. __________ photo voltaic devices in the form 9. What is the difference between Photodiode
of thin films. and Solar cell?
a) Cadmium Telluride a) No External Bias in Photodiode
b) Cadmium oxide b) No External Bias in Solar cell
c) Cadmium sulphide c) Larger surface area in photodiode
d) Cadmium sulphate d) No difference
2. _________ is one of the most important
materials is also known as solar grade silicon. 10. What should be the band gap of the
a) Crushed silicon semiconductors to be used as solar cell
b) Crystalline silicon materials?
c) Powdered silicon a) 0.5 eV
d) Silicon b) 1 eV
3. Solar cells are made from bulk materials that c) 1.5 eV
are cut into wafer of _________ thickness. d) 1.9 Ev
a) 120-180μm 11. Which of the following materials cannot be
b) 120-220μm used as solar cells materials?
c) 180-220μm a) Si
d) 180-240μm b) GaAs
4. The amount of photo generated current c) CdS
increases slightly with an increase in d) PbS
_________ 12. Series and parallel combination of the solar
a) Temperature cell is known as _________
b) Photons a) Solar array
c) Diode current b) Solar light
d) Shunt current c) Solar sight
5. When the source of light is not sun light then d) Solar eye
the photo voltaic cell is used as ____________
a) Photo diode 13. Full form of FF in the solar field is
b) Photo voltaic cell ____________
c) Photo detector a) Form factor
d) Photo transmitter b) Fill factor
6. Dye-sensitized solar cells are made from c) Face factor
________ organic dye. d) Fire factor
a) Ruthium melallo 14. Calculate Fill factor using the data: Pmax=15
b) Aniline W, Voc=18 V, Isc=4 A.
c) Safranine a) .65
d) Induline b) .59
7. During the collection of e-h pairs, holes are c) .20
collected by _________ d) .98
a) Front contact 15. Calculate the line voltage in star connection
b) Back contact when phase voltage=311 V.
c) Si-wafer a) 548.29 V
d) Finger electrodes b) 538.66 V
8. Which of the following should not be the c) 587.28 V
characteristic of the solar cell material? d) 185.58 V
a) High Absorption
b) High Conductivity
 RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK

16. The slope of the V-I curve of a solar cell is (c) Drying
66.1°. Calculate the value of resistance. (d) All of the above
Assume the relationship between voltage and 25. The power from the sun intercepted by the
current is a straight line. earth is approximately
(a) 1.8 x 108 MW
a) 3.5 Ω (b) 1.8 x 1011 MW
b) 2.2 Ω (c) 1.8 x 1014 MW
c) 2.5 Ω (d) 1.8 x 1017 MW
d) 2.9 Ω
17. SCIM has a _________
a) Shorter life UNIT-2
b) Medium life
1.Most of the solar radiation received on earth surface lies
c) Longer life within the range of........
d) Infinite life
(a) 0.2 to 0.4 microns
18. A solar cell converts light energy into
(b) 0.38 to 0.78 microns
__________
(c) 0 to 0.38 microns
a) Electrical energy (d) 0.5 to 0.8 microns
b) Thermal energy
c) Sound energy 2.Flat plate collector absorbs.......
d) Heat energy
(a) Direct radiation only
19. Permanent magnet DC motor is more
(b) Diffuse radiation only
expensive than an Induction motor.
(c) Direct and diffuse both
a) True (d) All of the above
b) False
20. The region where the electrons and holes
3. A pyranometer is used for measurement of........
diffused across the junction is called (a) Direct radiation only
________ (b) Diffuse radiation only
a) Depletion Junction
(c) Direct as well as diffuse radiation
b) Depletion region
(d) All of the above
c) Depletion space
d) Depletion boundary 4.Most widely used solar material is........
21. The quantum dot used are _______
(a) Arsenic
a) Cds
(b) Cadmium
b) CdTe
(c) Silicon
c) PbO (d) Steel
d) GaAs
22. Organic polymer solar cells are made from 5.Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are
Polyphenylene.
called........
a) True
(a) Mantle
b) False (b) Ponds
23. Calculate the active power in a 11710 H (c) Diffusers
inductor.
(d) Heliostats
a) 8245 W
b) 1781 W 6.In which type of absorber plate is the overall flow
c) 0 W direction is along the absorber glass plate?
d) 1964 W
a) Overlapped glass absorber
24. Direct Solar energy is used for b) Finned absorber
(a) Water heating c) Non-porous absorber plate
(b) Distillation d) Porous absorber plateView
 RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK

d) Infrared Radiation View

7.How is heat loss over come in liquid plate collectors?
a) By insulation 14. Solar radiation received at any point of earth is called
b) By casing ______________
c) By the transparent cover a) Insolation
d) From provided tubes b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse Radiation
8.The angle being measured from a plane and which is d) Infrared rays View
equal to angle between the beam of rays and normal to the
plane is called __________ 15.Insolation is less ____________
a) Incident angle a) when the sun is low
b) Azimuth angle b) when the sun right above head
c) Hour angle c) at night
d) DeclinationView d) at sun rise

9.The vector sum of the components along the line normal 16.The collection efficiency of Flat plate collector can be
of the titled surface in a direction normal to the tilted improved by
surface is called as __________ (a) putting a selective coating on the plate
a) Hour angleView (b) evacuating the space above the absorber plate
b) Declination (c) both (a) and (b)
c) Incident angle (d) None of the above
d) Solar intensity
17.The efficiency of various types of collectors ______
10.The time from sunrise to sunset is termed as with _______ temperature.
_______________ (a) increases, decreasing
a) Slope (b) decreases, increasing
b) Day length (c) remains same, increasing
c) Local solar time (d) depends upon type of collector
d) Solar intensity
18.Beam radiations are measured with
11.The angle through which the earth must turn to bring (a) Anemometer
the meridian of a point directly in sun’s rays is called (b) Pyrheliometer
__________ (c) Sunshine recorder
a) Hour angle (d) All of the above
b) Declination
c) Latitude 19.In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks
d) Air massView the sun by rotating about
(a) One axes
12.Solar Altitude is also called as ________ (b) Two axes
a) Declination (c) Three axes
b) Altitude angle (d) None of the above
c) Zenith angle
d) Azimuth angle 20.The sun subtends an angle of _____ minutes at the
earth’s surface.
13.The scattered solar radiation is called ____________ (a) 22
a) Direct Radiation (b) 32
b) Beam Radiation (c) 42
c) Diffuse radiation (d) 52
 RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK

c) 1°C/km
21.The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted d) 30°C/km
surface to that falling on a horizontal surface is called the 3. The zone of likely geothermal sites corresponds
(a) Radiation shape factor roughly to:
(b) Tilt factor a) Cold, hilly regions
(c) Slope b) Hot, flat regions
(d) None of the above c) Tropical regions
d) The regions of seismic and volcanic
activities
22.A module in a solar panel refers to
4. Most of the world’s geothermal sites today are
(a) Series arrangement of solar cells.
located:
(b) Parallel arrangement of solar cells a) In the southern hemisphere of the globe
(c) Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells. b) Near the coast of Atlantic ocean
(d) None of the above. c) Near the edges of Pacific plate
d) Near the equator
23.In a solar collector, why is the transparent cover 5. A geothermal resource tapped for electricity
provide for? generation could provide energy for about:
(a) Protect the collector from dust. a) 50 Years
(b) Reduce the heat losses from collector beneath to b) 1000 Years
atmosphere. c) 5 Years
(c) Transmit solar radiation only d) 1 Year
(d) All of the above. 6. Compared to a conventional steam plant, the
efficiency of geothermal plant is:
a) Very High
24.Reflector mirrors used for exploiting the solar energy
b) Higher
are called
c) Comparable
(a) Mantle.
d) Lower
(b) Heliostats. 7. In a practical MHD system, the exhaust of MHD
(c) Diffusers. generator is:
(d) Ponds. a) Used as hot air for combustion in a
furnace
25.What are pyrheliometers? b) Used as an input to gas turbine to
(a) Instruments measures beam radiations generate additional power
(b) Diffuse radiations. c) Used as input to boiler to rise steam for
(c) Direct radiations only. steam turbine to generate additional
(d) None of the above. power
d) Let off to atmosphere
8. The working fluid used in an MHD system
UNIT-3 coupled to a fast breeder reactor is a:
a) Hot flue gas
b) Seeded inert gas
1. Which one of the following statements are not c) Liquid metal-inert gas mixture
true for a geothermal energy system? d) Liquid metal only
a) It is reliable and cheap source of energy. 9. Techno-economic factors make MHD feasible:
b) It is available 24 hours per day. a) Only for large scale central power
c) It has no inherent storage feature, so factors
extra storage facility is required. b) Only for small scale distributed power
d) The system is modular in nature. generation
2. The temperature in the crust increases with c) At any situation irrespective of size
depth at a rate of about: d) Only to meet peak power demand
a) 300°C/km
b) 10°C/km
 RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK

10. MHD generators have not become popular a) Water vapour, CO, NO and CO2
because: b) Water vapour, CO and CO2
a) Of difficulties in material section c) Water vapour and CO2
b) Of difficulties to obtain strong magnetic d) Water vapour only
fields 18. Hydrogen can be used:
c) Other systems such as natural gas a) As primary energy source only
turbines achieved similar thermal b) As an energy carrier only
efficiencies at lower costs c) Both as primary energy source as well
d) Of the need to operate at high as energy carrier
temperatures d) Neither as primary energy source nor as
11. A fuel cell is basically: energy carrier
a) An electro-mechanical energy 19. World’s first geothermal electric power plant is
conversion device located at:
b) An electro-static energy conversion a) Wairakei field in New Zealand
device b) Larderello, Italy
c) An electro-chemical energy c) “The Geysers”, California
conversion device d) El-Salvador
d) A thermo-electric energy conversion 20. The temperature at inner core of earth is about:
device a) 4000°C
12. Which fuel cell has lowest operating b) 1000°C
temperature? c) 40000°C
a) PAFC d) 500°C
b) PEMFC 21. The average thickness of crust is about:
c) SOFC a) 30 Km
d) MCFC b) 3 Km
13. Which fuel cell has highest operating c) 300 Km
temperature? d) 1000 Km
a) PAFC 22. Compared to conventional steam plants, the
b) PEMFC temperature and pressure in a geothermal plant
c) SOFC are:
d) MCFC a) Comparable
14. Direct methanol fuel cell is a modified version b) Much higher
of: c) Higher
a) PAFC d) Lower
b) PEMFC 23. In a geopressured resource, the pressure can go
c) SOFC as high as:
d) MCFC a) 160 atm
15. As a load is applied on an open-circuited fuel b) 1350 atm
cell and is gradually increased: c) 15000 atm
a) Its efficiency increases d) 10 atm
b) Its output voltage increases 24. In most hydrothermal fields, hot spots occur at a
c) Its output voltage remains unchanged depth of about:
d) Its output voltage decreases a) 10 Km
16. For proper operation of fuel cell the operating b) 10 m
point is set in which region of VI characteristic? c) 2 to 3 Km
a) In the low load region d) 30 Km
b) In the middle, near flat region 25. The world’s total present installed electrical
c) In the high load region power generating capacity from geothermal
d) In any region irrespective of load resource is about:
17. With pure hydrogen and pure oxygen as input a) 9000 MW
the exhaust from fuel cell contains: b) 1000 MW
 RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK

c) 29000 MW c) Geothermal
d) 3000 MW d) Bio mass

8.In which region are the winds stronger and constant

a) Deserts
UNIT-4
b) Offshore
c) Low altitude sites
d) All of the above
1.What is the main source for the formation of wind?
a) Uneven land 9. Which country meets 40% of it’s electricity demand
b) Sun through wind energy
c) Vegetation a) Ireland
d) Seasons b) Spain
c) Portugal
2.“During the day, the air above the land heats up more d) Denmark
quickly than the air over water”.
a) True 10. Wind uses
b) False a) Potential energy
b) Thermal energy
3. What type of energy is wind energy? c) Kinetic energy
a) Renewable energy d) Chemical energy
b) Non-renewable energy
11. Forces acting on the wind turbine blade are
c) Conventional energy
a) Viscous
d) Commercial energy
b) Inertia
c) Lift and drag
4. What are used to turn wind energy into electrical
d) None of the above
energy?
a) Turbine 12. The amount of energy available in the wind at
b) Generators any instant is proportional to ___ of the wind speed.
c) Yaw motor (A) Square root power of two
d) Blades (B) Square root power of three
(C) Square power
(D) Cube power
5.At what range of speed is the electricity from the wind
turbine is generated?
13The following factor(s) affects the distribution of
a) 100 – 125 mph wind energy
b) 450 – 650 mph (A) Mountain chains
c) 250 – 450 mph (B) The hills, trees and buildings
d) 30-35 mph (C) Frictional effect of the surface
(D) All of the above.
6.The wind speed is measured using an instrument called
14. A wind turbine designed too to come into operation
a) Hydrometer
at a minimum wind speed is called _________
b) Anemometer a) Cut in velocity
c) Voltmeter b) Windward
d) Wind vane c) Cut out velocity
d) Upwind location
7.Which of the following source of energy is formed by
the uneven heating of earth surface 15 Why is wind turbine designed to stop operation at cut
a) Wind out velocity?
b) Solar a) To protect wheel against damage
b) To make a quick stop in emergencies
 RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK

c) To improve the efficiency

d) In order to adjust the blades to wind 23 Yaw control is a part of
a) Solar concentration collector
16. Which type of Generator is employed in wind power b) OTEC
plant:
c) Biomass generation
a) Synchronous generator
d) Wind energy conversion
b) Induction generator
c) Permanent magnet motor
d) Brushless motor 24. In which parts to find sensors and actuators
a) Fixed gears
17. The kinetic energy per unit volume is given by b) Turbines
where ρ is the density of the air and v is the velocity of c) Control system
wind in m/sec d) Blade
a) 0.5xρxV2
b) ρxV2 25. Wind energy can be used to
c) 2xρxV2 a) Generate electricity
b) Operate flour mill
d) 4xρxV2.
c) Draw underground water
d) All of the above
18 The ratio between the wind speed and the speed of
the tips of the wind turbine blades.
a) Tips ratio
b) Depth ratio
UNIT-5
c) Speed ratio
d) Wind ratio

19. Which type of windmill has better performance? 1. Biomass is used in the production of
a) Vertical type wind mills (a) fibers
(b) chemicals
b) Darrieus type machines
(c) transportation fuels
c) Magnus effect rotor (d) biochemical
d) Horizontal type windmills
2. Production of bio ethanol is through fermentation
20 __________Orients upwind turbines to keep them of ________ and starch components
facing the wind when the direction changes. (a) alcohol
a) Nacelle (b) sugar
(c) milk
b) Pitch
(d) acid
c) Wind vane
d) Yaw drive 3. This is also called as a bio gas
(a) bio butanol
21.What are the disadvantages of wind energy? (b) biodiesel
(c) bio ethanol
A. Birds Death/ Noise Pollution (d) bio methane
B. Visual & Noise Pollution/ Birds Deaths 4. In bio methane, the percentage of carbon dioxide is
C. Bad TV & Radio Receptions/Visual & Noise (a) 55-60
Pollution/Birds Death (b) 35-45
D. Noise Pollution/ Bad signals of TV (c) 30-40
(d) 32-43
22. The Nacelle of windmill houses
a) Brakes 5. By-products generated during rectification of bio
b) Generator ethanol is utilized as
c) Gearbox (a) sheep feed
(b) cow feed
d) All of the above
 RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK

(c) dog feed

(d) pig feed 14. The by-product of the ocean thermal energy
conversion is ____________
6. Bio ethanol is mixed with ________ to prepare a) Hot water
transport fuel b) Cold water
(a) oil c) Chemicals
(b) petrol d) Gases
(c) kerosene
(d) diesel 15. In ocean thermal energy conversion, the plant pumps
the deep cold sea water and do not pump the surface sea
7. Bio ethanol is denatured alcohol, also referred to water.
as a) True
(a) methylene b) False
(b) ethylene
(c) ethylene glycol 16. How many types of OTEC plants are there?
(d) methylated spirit a) 1
b) 2
8. This forestry material is used as biomass c) 3
(a) fish oil d) 4
(b) logging residues
(c) manure 17. Closed cycle systems use the fluid having
(d) tallow ___________
a) High boiling points
9. The aerobic digestion of sewage is utilized in the b) Low boiling points
production of c) High viscosity
(a) metal articles d) low viscosity
(b) bio fuels
(c) biomass 18. Warm surface sea water is pumped through a
(d) synthetic fuels ____________ to vaporise the fluid.
a) Heat exchanger
10. This is an example of starch crops biomass feed b) Generator
stocks c) Evaporator
(a) corn stover d) Condenser
(b) wheat straw
(c) orchard prunings 19. The heat exchanger ___________ the vapour into a
(d) sugar cane liquid which is recycled.
a) Condenses
11. The ocean thermal energy conversion(OTEC) is uses b) Heats
___________ c) Cools
a) Energy difference d) Evaporates
b) Potential difference
c) Temperature difference 20. Open cycle OTEC uses ________ surface water
d) Kinetic difference directly to make electricity.
a) Hot
12. OTEC is developed in ___________ b) Warm
a) 1880 c) Cool
b) 1926 d) Icy
c) 1890
d) 1930 21. In some cases, the steam drives the low pressure
turbine attached to the electrical generator.
13. The OTEC is constructed in __________ a) True
a) 1920 b) False
b) 1924
c) 1922 22. The steam leaves the _______
d) 1926 a) Salts
 RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK

b) Aluminium
c) Copper
d) Silver

23. The open cycle system produces ___________

water.
a) Desalinated
b) Impure
c) Contaminated
d) Chlorinated

24. In _________ method the sea water enters a vacuum

chamber and flash evaporated.
a) Closed cycle system
b) Open cycle system
c) Hybrid OTEC
d) Neither closed nor open system

25. Depending on the embodiment ____________

technique generate power from hydroelectric turbine.
a) Closed cycle
b) Open cycle
c) Hybrid
d) Steam lift pump

*********
 QUESTION BANK OF MACHINE LEARNING (RCS080)

1. What is Machine learning?

a) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer
programs
b) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
c) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
d) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
.

Answer: a
Explanation: Machine learning is the autonomous acquisition of knowledge
through the use of computer programs.

2. Which of the factors affect the performance of learner system does not
include?
a) Representation scheme used
b) Training scenario
c) Type of feedback
d) Good data structures
.

Answer: d
Explanation: Factors that affect the performance of learner system does not include
good data structures.

3. Different learning methods does not include?

a) Memorization
b) Analogy
c) Deduction
d) Introduction
.

Answer: d
Explanation: Different learning methods does not include the introduction.

4. In language understanding, the levels of knowledge that does not include?

a) Phonological
b) Syntactic
c) Empirical
d) Logical
.

Answer: c
Explanation: In language understanding, the levels of knowledge that does not
include empirical knowledge.

5. A model of language consists of the categories which does not include?

a) Language units
b) Role structure of units
c) System constraints
d) Structural units
.

Answer: d
Explanation: A model of language consists of the categories which does not
include structural units.

6. What is a top-down parser?

a) Begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S) and successively predicting
lower level constituents until individual preterminal symbols are written
b) Begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S) and successively predicting
upper level constituents until individual preterminal symbols are written
c) Begins by hypothesizing lower level constituents and successively predicting a
sentence (the symbol S)
d) Begins by hypothesizing upper level constituents and successively predicting a
sentence (the symbol S)
.

Answer: a
Explanation: A top-down parser begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S)
and successively predicting lower level constituents until individual preterminal
symbols are written.

7. Among the following which is not a horn clause?

a) p
b) Øp V q
c) p → q
d) p → Øq
.
8. The action „STACK(A, B)‟ of a robot arm specify to _______________
a) Place block B on Block A
b) Place blocks A, B on the table in that order
c) Place blocks B, A on the table in that order
d) Place block A on block B
.

Answer: d
Explanation: The action „STACK(A,B)‟ of a robot arm specify to Place block A on
block B.

9. Factors which affect the performance of learner system does not include?
a) Representation scheme used
b) Training scenario
c) Type of feedback
d) Good data structures
.

Answer: d
Explanation: Factors which affect the performance of learner system does not
include good data structures.

10. Which of the following does not include different learning methods?
a) Memorization
b) Analogy
c) Deduction
d) Introduction
.

Answer: d
Explanation: Different learning methods include memorization, analogy and
deduction.

11. Which of the following is the model used for learning?

a) Decision trees
b) Neural networks
c) Propositional and FOL rules
d) All of the mentioned
.
Answer: d
Explanation: Decision trees, Neural networks, Propositional rules and FOL rules
all are the models of learning.

12. Automated vehicle is an example of ______

a) Supervised learning
b) Unsupervised learning
c) Active learning
d) Reinforcement learning
.

Answer: a
Explanation: In automatic vehicle set of vision inputs and corresponding actions
are available to learner hence it‟s an example of supervised learning.

13. Which of the following is an example of active learning?

a) News Recommender system
b) Dust cleaning machine
c) Automated vehicle
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: a
Explanation: In active learning, not only the teacher is available but the learner can
ask suitable perception-action pair examples to improve performance.

14. In which of the following learning the teacher returns reward and
punishment to learner?
a) Active learning
b) Reinforcement learning
c) Supervised learning
d) Unsupervised learning
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Reinforcement learning is the type of learning in which teacher
returns reward or punishment to learner.

15. Decision trees are appropriate for the problems where ___________
a) Attributes are both numeric and nominal
b) Target function takes on a discrete number of values.
c) Data may have errors
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: Decision trees can be used in all the conditions stated.

16. Which of the following is not an application of learning?

a) Data mining
b) WWW
c) Speech recognition
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: All mentioned options are applications of learning.

17. Which of the following is the component of learning system?

a) Goal
b) Model
c) Learning rules
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: Goal, model, learning rules and experience are the components of
learning system.

18. Which of the following is also called as exploratory learning?

a) Supervised learning
b) Active learning
c) Unsupervised learning
d) Reinforcement learning
.

Answer: c
Explanation: In unsupervised learning, no teacher is available hence it is also
called unsupervised learning.
19. A statement made about a population for testing purpose is called?
a) Statistic
b) Hypothesis
c) Level of Significance
d) Test-Statistic
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Hypothesis is a statement made about a population in general. It is
then tested and correspondingly accepted if True and rejected if False.

20. If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is

called?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Statistical Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
.

Answer: a
Explanation: If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be
true is called Null Hypothesis. It gives the value of population parameter.

21. A statement whose validity is tested on the basis of a sample is called?

a) Null Hypothesis
b) Statistical Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
.

Answer: b
Explanation: In testing of Hypothesis a statement whose validity is tested on the
basis of a sample is called as Statistical Hypothesis. Its validity is tested with
respect to a sample.

22. A hypothesis which defines the population distribution is called?

a) Null Hypothesis
b) Statistical Hypothesis
c) Simple Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
.
Answer: c
Explanation: A hypothesis which defines the population distribution is called as
Simple hypothesis. It specifies all parameter values.

23. If the null hypothesis is false then which of the following is accepted?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Positive Hypothesis
c) Negative Hypothesis
d) Alternative Hypothesis.
.

Answer: d
Explanation: If the null hypothesis is false then Alternative Hypothesis is accepted.
It is also called as Research Hypothesis.

24. The rejection probability of Null Hypothesis when it is true is called as?
a) Level of Confidence
b) Level of Significance
c) Level of Margin
d) Level of Rejection
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Level of Significance is defined as the probability of rejection of a
True Null Hypothesis. Below this probability a Null Hypothesis is rejected.

25. The point where the Null Hypothesis gets rejected is called as?
a) Significant Value
b) Rejection Value
c) Acceptance Value
d) Critical Value
.

Answer: d
Explanation: The point where the Null Hypothesis gets rejected is called as Critical
Value. It is also called as dividing point for separation of the regions where
hypothesis is accepted and rejected.
 UNIT-2

1. A _________ is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or model

of decisions and their possible consequences, including chance event outcomes,
resource costs, and utility.
a) Decision tree
b) Graphs
c) Trees
d) Neural Networks
.

Answer: a
Explanation: Refer the definition of Decision tree.

2. Decision Tree is a display of an algorithm.

a) True
b) False
.

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. What is Decision Tree?

a) Flow-Chart
b) Structure in which internal node represents test on an attribute, each branch
represents outcome of test and each leaf node represents class label
c) Flow-Chart & Structure in which internal node represents test on an attribute,
each branch represents outcome of test and each leaf node represents class label
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: c
Explanation: Refer the definition of Decision tree.

4. Decision Trees can be used for Classification Tasks.

a) True
b) False
.

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Choose from the following that are Decision Tree nodes?

a) Decision Nodes
b) End Nodes
c) Chance Nodes
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. Decision Nodes are represented by ____________

a) Disks
b) Squares
c) Circles
d) Triangles
.

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. Chance Nodes are represented by __________

a) Disks
b) Squares
c) Circles
d) Triangles
.

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. End Nodes are represented by __________

a) Disks
b) Squares
c) Circles
d) Triangles
.

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. Which of the following are the advantage/s of Decision Trees?

a) Possible Scenarios can be added
b) Use a white box model, If given result is provided by a model
c) Worst, best and expected values can be determined for different scenarios
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

10. Does pattern classification belongs to category of non-supervised learning?

a) yes
b) no
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern classification belongs to category of supervised learning.

11. In pattern mapping problem in neural nets, is there any kind of

generalization involved between input & output?
a) yes
b) no
.

Answer: a
Explanation: The desired output is mapped closest to the ideal output & hence
there is generalisation involved.

a) features of group explicitly stated

b) number of groups may be known
12. What are the issues on which biological networks proves to be superior
than AI networks?
a) robustness & fault tolerance
b) flexibility
c) collective computation
d) all of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: AI network should be all of the above mentioned.

13. The fundamental unit of network is

a) brain
b) nucleus
c) neuron
d) axon
.

Answer: c
Explanation: Neuron is the most basic & fundamental unit of a network .

14. Feedforward networks are used for?

a) pattern mapping
b) pattern association
c) pattern classification
d) all of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: Feedforward networks are used for pattern mapping, pattern
association, pattern classification.

15. Feedback networks are used for?

a) autoassociation
b) pattern storage
c) both autoassociation & pattern storage
d) none of the mentioned
.
Answer: c
Explanation: Feedback networks are used for autoassociation, pattern storage.

16. The simplest combination network is called competitive learning network?

a) yes
b) no
.

Answer: a
Explanation: The most basic example of of combination of feedforward &
feedback network is competitive learning net.

17. What is classification?

a) deciding what features to use in a pattern recognition problem
b) deciding what class an input pattern belongs to
c) deciding what type of neural network to use
d) none of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Follows from basic definition of classification.

18. What is generalization?

a) the ability of a pattern recognition system to approximate the desired output
values for pattern vectors which are not in the test set.
b) the ability of a pattern recognition system to approximate the desired output
values for pattern vectors which are not in the training set.
c) can be either way
d) none of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Follows from basic definition of generalization.

19. What are models in neural networks?

a) mathematical representation of our understanding
b) representation of biological neural networks
c) both way
d) none of the mentioned
.
Answer: c
Explanation: Model should be close to our biological neural systems, so that we
can have high efficiency in machines too.

20. What kind of dynamics leads to learning laws?

a) synaptic
b) neural
c) activation

d) both synaptic & neural

Answer: a
Explanation: Since weights are dependent on synaptic dynamics, hence learning
laws.

21.What is the objective of backpropagation algorithm?

a) to develop learning algorithm for multilayer feedforward neural network
b) to develop learning algorithm for single layer feedforward neural network
c) to develop learning algorithm for multilayer feedforward neural network, so that
network can be trained to capture the mapping implicitly
d) none of the mentioned
.

Answer: c
Explanation: The objective of backpropagation algorithm is to to develop learning
algorithm for multilayer feedforward neural network, so that network can be
trained to capture the mapping implicitly.

22. The backpropagation law is also known as generalized delta rule, is it

true?
a) yes
b) no
.

Answer: a
Explanation: Because it fulfils the basic condition of delta rule.

23. What is true regarding backpropagation rule?

a) it is also called generalized delta rule
b) error in output is propagated backwards only to determine weight updates
c) there is no feedback of signal at nay stage
d) all of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: These all statements defines backpropagation algorithm.

24. There is feedback in final stage of backpropagation algorithm?

a) yes
b) no
.

Answer: b
Explanation: No feedback is involved at any stage as it is a feedforward neural
network.

25. What is true regarding backpropagation rule?

a) it is a feedback neural network
b) actual output is determined by computing the outputs of units for each hidden
layer
c) hidden layers output is not all important, they are only meant for supporting
input and output layers
d) none of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: In backpropagation rule, actual output is determined by computing
the outputs of units for each hidden layer.

UNIT-3

1. How many terms are required for building a bayes model?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
.
Answer: c
Explanation: The three required terms are a conditional probability and two
unconditional probability.

2. What is needed to make probabilistic systems feasible in the world?

a) Reliability
b) Crucial robustness
c) Feasibility
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: On a model-based knowledge provides the crucial robustness needed
to make probabilistic system feasible in the real world.

3. Where does the bayes rule can be used?

a) Solving queries
b) Increasing complexity
c) Decreasing complexity
d) Answering probabilistic query
.

Answer: d
Explanation: Bayes rule can be used to answer the probabilistic queries
conditioned on one piece of evidence.

4. What does the bayesian network provides?

a) Complete description of the domain
b) Partial description of the domain
c) Complete description of the problem
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: a
Explanation: A Bayesian network provides a complete description of the domain.

5.How the bayesian network can be used to answer any query?

a) Full distribution
b) Joint distribution
c) Partial distribution
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: If a bayesian network is a representation of the joint distribution, then
it can solve any query, by summing all the relevant joint entries.

6. How the compactness of the bayesian network can be described?

a) Locally structured
b) Fully structured
c) Partial structure
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: a
Explanation: The compactness of the bayesian network is an example of a very
general property of a locally structured system.

7. What will take place as the agent observes its interactions with the world?
a) Learning
b) Hearing
c) Perceiving
d) Speech
.

Answer: a
Explanation: Learning will take place as the agent observes its interactions with the
world and its own decision making process.

8. Which modifies the performance element so that it makes better decision?

a) Performance element
b) Changing element
c) Learning element
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: c
Explanation: A learning element modifies the performance element so that it can
make better decision.
9. How many things are concerned in the design of a learning element?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
.

Answer: c
Explanation: The three main issues are affected in design of a learning element are
components, feedback and representation.

10. Automated vehicle is an example of ______

a) Supervised learning
b) Unsupervised learning
c) Active learning
d) Reinforcement learning
.

Answer: a
Explanation: In automatic vehicle set of vision inputs and corresponding actions
are available to learner hence it‟s an example of supervised learning.

11.Decision trees are appropriate for the problems where ___________

a) Attributes are both numeric and nominal
b) Target function takes on a discrete number of values.
c) Data may have errors
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: Decision trees can be used in all the conditions stated

12.Neural Networks are complex ______________with many parameters.

a) Linear Functions
b) Nonlinear Functions
c) Discrete Functions
d) Exponential Functions
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Neural networks parameters can be learned from noisy data and they
have been used for thousands of applications, so it varies from problem to problem
and thus use nonlinear functions.

13. A perceptron is a ______________

a) Feed-forward neural network
b) Backpropagation algorithm
c) Backtracking algorithm
d) Feed Forward-backward algorithm
.

Answer: a
Explanation: A perceptron is a Feed-forward neural network with no hidden units
that can be representing only linear separable functions. If the data are linearly
separable, a simple weight updated rule can be used to fit the data exactly.

14. If the Critical region is evenly distributed then the test is referred as?
a) Two tailed
b) One tailed
c) Three tailed
d) Zero tailed

Answer: a

15. The type of test is defined by which of the following?

a) Null Hypothesis
b) Simple Hypothesis
c) Alternative Hypothesis
d) Composite Hypothesis
.

Answer: c
Explanation: Alternative Hypothesis defines whether the test is one tailed or two
tailed. It is also called as Research Hypothesis.
16. Which of the following is defined as the rule or formula to test a Null
Hypothesis?
a) Test statistic
b) Population statistic
c) Variance statistic
d) Null statistic
.

Answer: a
Explanation: Test statistic provides a basis for testing a Null Hypothesis. A test
statistic is a random variable that is calculated from sample data and used in a
hypothesis test.

17. What is meant by generalized in statement “backpropagation is a

generalized delta rule” ?
a) because delta rule can be extended to hidden layer units
b) because delta is applied to only input and output layers, thus making it more
simple and generalized
c) it has no significance
d) none of the mentioned
.

Answer: a
Explanation: The term generalized is used because delta rule could be extended to
hidden layer units.

18. What are general limitations of back propagation rule?

a) local minima problem
b) slow convergence
c) scaling
d) all of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: These all are limitations of backpropagation algorithm in general.

19. What are the general tasks that are performed with backpropagation
algorithm?
a) pattern mapping
b) function approximation
c) prediction
d) all of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: These all are the tasks that can be performed with backpropagation
algorithm in general.

20. How many terms are required for building a bayes model?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
.

Answer: c
Explanation: The three required terms are a conditional probability and two
unconditional probability.

21. What is needed to make probabilistic systems feasible in the world?

a) Reliability
b) Crucial robustness
c) Feasibility
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: On a model-based knowledge provides the crucial robustness needed
to make probabilistic system feasible in the real world.

22. Where does the bayes rule can be used?

a) Solving queries
b) Increasing complexity
c) Decreasing complexity
d) Answering probabilistic query
.

Answer: d
Explanation: Bayes rule can be used to answer the probabilistic queries
conditioned on one piece of evidence.
23. What does the bayesian network provides?
a) Complete description of the domain
b) Partial description of the domain
c) Complete description of the problem
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: a
Explanation: A Bayesian network provides a complete description of the domain.

24. How the entries in the full joint probability distribution can be calculated?
a) Using variables
b) Using information
c) Both Using variables & information
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Every entry in the full joint probability distribution can be calculated
from the information in the network.

25. How the bayesian network can be used to answer any query?
a) Full distribution
b) Joint distribution
c) Partial distribution
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: If a bayesian network is a representation of the joint distribution, then
it can solve any query, by summing all the relevant joint entries.

UNIT4

1. Which of the following is true about Manhattan distance?

A) It can be used for continuous variables

B) It can be used for categorical variables
C) It can be used for categorical as well as continuous
D) None of these
Solution: A

Manhattan Distance is designed for calculating the distance between real valued
features.

2.Which of the following clustering requires merging approach?

a) Partitional
b) Hierarchical
c) Naive Bayes
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Hierarchical clustering requires a defined distance as well.

3.Genetic Algorithm are a part of

a) Evolutionary Computing
b) inspired by Darwin's theory about evolution - "survival of the fittest"
c) are adaptive heuristic search algorithm based on the evolutionary ideas of
natural selection and genetics
d) All of the above.

ANSWER-D

4. Conventional Artificial Intelligence is different from soft computing in the

sense

a) Conventional Artificial Intelligence deal with prdicate logic where as soft

computing deal with fuzzy logic
b) Conventional Artificial Intelligence methods are limited by symbols where
as soft computing is based on empirical data
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

ANSWER-C
5.Three main basic features involved in characterizing membership function
are
a) Intution, Inference, Rank Ordering
b) Fuzzy Algorithm, Neural network, Genetic Algorithm
c) Core, Support , Boundary
d) Weighted Average, center of Sums, Median

ANSWER-C

6.Membership function can be thought of as a technique to solve empirical

problems on the basis of

a) Knowledge
b) Examples
c) Learning
d) experience

ANSWER-D

7.There exist only two types of quantifiers, Universal Quantification and

Existential Quantification.
a) True
b) False
.

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8.First Order Logic is also known as ___________

a) First Order Predicate Calculus
b) Quantification Theory
c) Lower Order Calculus
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9.Which is also called single inference rule?
a) Reference
b) Resolution
c) Reform
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Because resolution yields a complete inference rule when coupled
with any search algorithm.

10. The replication rate remains the same for all the phages irrespective of
what sequence is there in the phage.
a) True
b) False
.

Answer: b
Explanation: The replication rate is not the same for all the phages. Some phages
having a certain insert may be replicating in a slower rate than that of other phages.
Thus, there might be under-representation of some of the sequences.

11. There is a limit on upper size of the DNA to be packed. Choose the correct
statement with respect to phages in this context.
a) There is some phage DNA lost in this process
b) The phages are known as transformed phages
c) These type of phages can‟t be selected and harvested
d) Lambda is not a special attachment site
.

Answer: a
Explanation: There is a limit on the upper size of the DNA to be packed. If the
significant amount of sequence is flanked by the phage particles, there are chances
of losing some phage DNA. These phages are known as transducing phages and
can be easily selected and harvested for the lost DNA. Lambda is having a special
site for attachment in E. coli.
12. How the compactness of the bayesian network can be described?
a) Locally structured
b) Fully structured
c) Partial structure
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: a
Explanation: The compactness of the bayesian network is an example of a very
general property of a locally structured system.

13. To which does the local structure is associated?

a) Hybrid
b) Dependant
c) Linear

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c Explanation: Local structure is usually associated with linear rather than
exponential growth in complexity.

14. Knowledge and reasoning also play a crucial role in dealing with
__________________ environment.
a) Completely Observable
b) Partially Observable
c) Neither Completely nor Partially Observable
d) Only Completely and Partially Observable
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Knowledge and reasoning could aid to reveal other factors that could
complete environment.

15. Treatment chosen by doctor for a patient for a disease is based on

_____________
a) Only current symptoms
b) Current symptoms plus some knowledge from the textbooks
c) Current symptoms plus some knowledge from the textbooks plus experience
d) All of the mentioned
.
Answer: c
Explanation: None.

16. A knowledge-based agent can combine general knowledge with current

percepts to infer hidden aspects of the current state prior to selecting actions.
a) True
b) False
.

Answer: a
Explanation: Refer definition of Knowledge based agents.

17. A) Knowledge base (KB) is consists of set of statements.

B) Inference is deriving a new sentence from the KB.
Choose the correct option.
a) A is true, B is true
b) A is false, B is false
c) A is true, B is false
d) A is false, B is true
.

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

18. Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?

a) Representational Verification
b) Representational Adequacy
c) Inferential Adequacy
d) Inferential Efficiency
.

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

19. Which is not Familiar Connectives in First Order Logic?

a) and
b) iff
c) or
d) not
.
Answer: d
Explanation: “not” is coming under propositional logic and is therefore not a
connective.

20. An inference algorithm that derives only entailed sentences is called sound
or truth-preserving.
a) True
b) False
.

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

UNIT-5

1. There exist only two types of quantifiers, Universal Quantification and

Existential Quantification.
a) True
b) False
.

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. Translate the following statement into FOL.

“For every a, if a is a philosopher, then a is a scholar”
a) ∀ a philosopher(a) scholar(a)
b) ∃ a philosopher(a) scholar(a)
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. A _________ is used to demonstrate, on a purely syntactic basis, that one

formula is a logical consequence of another formula.
a) Deductive Systems
b) Inductive Systems
c) Reasoning with Knowledge Based Systems
d) Search Based Systems
.

Answer: a
Explanation: Refer the definition of Deductive based systems.

4. The statement comprising the limitations of FOL is/are ____________

a) Expressiveness
b) Formalizing Natural Languages
c) Many-sorted Logic
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: d

5. A common convention is:

• is evaluated first
• and are evaluated next
• Quantifiers are evaluated next
• is evaluated last.
a) True
b) False
.

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. A Term is either an individual constant (a 0-ary function), or a variable, or

an n-ary function applied to n terms: F(t1 t2 ..tn).
a) True
b) False
.

Answer: a
Explanation: Definition of term in FOL.

7. First Order Logic is also known as ___________

a) First Order Predicate Calculus
b) Quantification Theory
c) Lower Order Calculus
d) All of the mentioned
.

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. The adjective “first-order” distinguishes first-order logic from ___________

in which there are predicates having predicates or functions as arguments, or
in which one or both of predicate quantifiers or function quantifiers are
permitted.
a) Representational Verification
b) Representational Adequacy
c) Higher Order Logic
d) Inferential Efficiency
.

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. What is the action of task environment in artificial intelligence?

a) Problem
b) Solution
c) Agent
d) Observation
.

Answer: a
Explanation: Task environments will pose a problem and rational agent will find
the solution for the posed problem.

10. What is the expansion if PEAS in task environment?

a) Peer, Environment, Actuators, Sense
b) Perceiving, Environment, Actuators, Sensors
c) Performance, Environment, Actuators, Sensors
d) None of the mentioned
.
Answer: c
Explanation: Task environment will contain PEAS which is used to perform the
action independently.

11. What kind of observing environments are present in artificial intelligence?

a) Partial
b) Fully
c) Learning
d) Both Partial & Fully
.

Answer: d
Explanation: Partial and fully observable environments are present in artificial
intelligence.

12. What kind of environment is strategic in artificial intelligence?

a) Deterministic
b) Rational
c) Partial
d) Stochastic
.

Answer: a
Explanation: If the environment is deterministic except for the action of other
agent is called deterministic.

13. What kind of environment is crossword puzzle?

a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Semi Dynamic
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: a
Explanation: As the problem in crossword puzzle are posed at beginning itself, So
it is static.

14. What kind of behavior does the stochastic environment posses?

a) Local
b) Deterministic
c) Rational
d) Primary
.

Answer: a
Explanation: Stochastic behavior are rational because it avoids the pitfall of
predictability.

15. Which is used to select the particular environment to run the agent?
a) Environment creator
b) Environment Generator
c) Both Environment creator & Generator
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

16. Which environment is called as semi dynamic?

a) Environment does not change with the passage of time
b) Agent performance changes
c) Environment will be changed
d) Environment does not change with the passage of time, but Agent performance
changes
.

Answer: d
Explanation: If the environment does not change with the passage of time, but the
agent performance changes by time.

17. Where does the performance measure is included?

a) Rational agent
b) Task environment
c) Actuators
d) Sensor
.

Answer: b
Explanation: In PEAS, Where P stands for performance measure which is always
included in task environment.
18. Which is used to provide the feedback to the learning element?
a) Critic
b) Actuators
c) Sensor
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: a
Explanation: The learning element gets the feedback from the critic which is
presented in the environment on how the agent is doing.

19. Which condition is used to influence a variable directly by all the others?
a) Partially connected
b) Fully connected
c) Local connected
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

20. What is the consequence between a node and its predecessors while
creating bayesian network?
a) Functionally dependent
b) Dependant
c) Conditionally independent
d) Both Conditionally dependant & Dependant
.

Answer: c
Explanation: The semantics to derive a method for constructing bayesian networks
were led to the consequence that a node can be conditionally independent of its
predecessors.

21. Which instruments are used for perceiving and acting upon the
environment?
a) Sensors and Actuators
b) Sensors
c) Perceiver
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: a
Explanation: An agent is anything that can be viewed as perceiving and acting
upon the environment through the sensors and actuators.

22. What is meant by agent‟s percept sequence?

a) Used to perceive the environment
b) Complete history of actuator
c) Complete history of perceived things
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: c
Explanation: An agent‟s percept sequence is the complete history of everything
that the agent has ever perceived.

23. How many types of agents are there in artificial intelligence?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
.

Answer: d
Explanation: The four types of agents are Simple reflex, Model based, Goal based
and Utility based agents.

24. What is the rule of simple reflex agent?

a) Simple-action rule
b) Condition-action rule
c) Simple & Condition-action rule
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: b
Explanation: Simple reflex agent is based on the present condition and so it is
condition action rule.
25. What are the composition for agents in artificial intelligence?
a) Program
b) Architecture
c) Both Program & Architecture
d) None of the mentioned
.

Answer: c
Explanation: An agent program will implement function mapping percepts to
actions.
 MCQ DATABASE
SUBJECT: DATA COMPRESSION (RCS-087)

BABU BANARSI DAS NORTHERN INDIA INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY

Question Bank Data Compression (RCS-087)
B.TECH. (CSE) 8th Sem.

DATA COMPRESSION

1) Transportation of the data is easier due to __________.

a) Decompression
b) compression
c) Transmission
d) Pixel

2) Due to compression , some of the ___________ is lost.

a) Network
b) Complexity
c) Data
d) Storage

3) Coding time is ______due to compression and decompression.

a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) 0
d) None

4) No information is lost in ________ Compression

a) Lossless
b) Lossy
c) 0
d) None
5) Lossless Compression is used for ______
a) Text and data
b) Speed and Video
c)Text and Video
d) Speed and data

6) Lossy Compression is used for ______

a) Text and Video
b) Speed and Video
c)Text and data
d) Speed and data
7) Compression ratio is _____ in Lossless.
a) High
b) 1
c) Low
d) 0

8) Compression ratio is _____in Lossy.

a) High
b) 1
c) Low
d) 0

9) Huffman coding, runlength coding are examples for_______

a) Lossy compression
b) Lossless compression
c) Transmission
d) Pixel

10) Transform coding, vector quantization are examples for______

a) Pixel
b) compression
c) Transmission
d) Lossy compression

11) Lossless _________ Independent of Human Response.

a) Decompression
b) compression
c) Transmission
d) Pixel

12) Entropy Coding is an ________

a) Lossless
b) Lossy
c) 0
d) None

13) ________ is normally used for the data generated by scanning thedocuments, fax
machine, typewriters etc.
a) Huffman Coding
b) Transformation Coding
c) Vector Quantization
d) Runlength Encoding

14) Compression Technique used in Text is ________

a) Huffman Coding
b) Transformation Coding
c) Entropy Coding
d) Differential Encoding
15) Compression Technique used in Image Video is ________
a) Huffman Coding
b) Transformation Coding
c) Entropy Coding
d) Differential Encoding

16) Lossy _________ Dependent upon Human Sensitivity .

a) Transmission
b) Decompression
c) Pixel
d) compression

17) Compression Technique used in Audio is ________

a) Differential Encoding
b) Transformation Encoding
c) Entropy Coding
d)Differential & Transformation Encoding.

18) Expansion of LZ Coding is _________

a) Lossy
b) Lossless
c) Lempel-ziv-welsh
d) Lempel-ziv

19) Expansion of LZW Coding is ________

a) Lossy
b) Lossless
c) Lempel-ziv
d) Lempel-ziv-welsh

20) LZ Coding Formed by________ String.

a) Appropriate
b) Appending
c) Appearing
d)Absolut

21) _______ Coding Techniques are mainly based on audio

perceptionmechanism.
a) Differential
b) Transformation
c) Entropy
d) Perceptual

22) The Perceptual coders use _________ model which exploit thelimitation of human
ear.
a) Sensitivity
b) Frequency
 c) Psychoacoustic
d) MEPG

23) The strong Signal reduces level of sensitivity of the ear to other signalswhich are
near to it in frequency is called ________ Masking.
a) Spectral
b) Temporal
c) Critical
d) Frequency

24) When ear hears the loud sound, certain time has to be passed beforeit hears
________ Sound.
a) LLouder
b) quieter
c) No Sound
d) None

25) ________ the frequency components that are below maskingthreshold.

a) quantizer masks
b)Temporal mask
c) Frequency mask
d) Dolby

26) Temporal Masking is not present in ______

a) MPEG -2
b) MPEG -3
c) MPEG
d) MPEG -1

27) Dolby AC stands for_______

a) Dolby allocation coder
b)Dolby acoustic coder
c) Dolby adaptive coder
d) Dolby MPEG coder

28) Reduced compressed bit rate since frames does not include bitallocation in _______
a) Dolby -2
b) Dolby -3
c) Dolby -1
d) Dolby

29) ________ used in satellites for FM Radio.

a) Dolby -3
b) Dolby -2
c) Dolby -1
d) Dolby

30) _______ cannot be used for broadcast application .

 a) Dolby -2
b) Dolby -3
c) Dolby -1
d) Dolby

31) _______ images are represented with the help of program.

a) Digitized
b) Picture
c) Graphical
d) video

32) ________ images are represented in the form of a twodimensional matrix.

a) Digitized
b) Picture
c) Graphical
d) video

33) Video compression is used for compression of moving ________ frames.

a) picture
b) Video
c) Audio
d) Speech

34) Pixel of 24-bit colour images is represented by 8-bits for each of _______Colours.
a) Y, Cr and Cb
b) R,G,and B
c) Y, R, and G
d) R,G and Cb

35) GIF is used for representation and compression of _______images.

a) Digitized
b) Picture
c) Graphical
d) video

36) GIF is represented as ________ Format.

a) Graphics Interlaced
b) Graphics information
c) Graphics Interfered
d) Graphics Interchange

37) TIFF is represented as ________ Format.

a) Tagged Image FFile
b) Target Image File
c) Tagged Import File
d) Target Import File

38) SIF is represented as ________ Format.

 a) Source Image
b) Source Interchange
c) Source Import
d) Source Input

39) CIF is represented as ________ Format.

a) Common Image
b) Common Interchange
c) Common Import
d) Common Input

40) QCIF is represented as ________ Format.

a) Quarter Common Image
b) Quarter Common Input
c) Quarter Common Import
d) Quarter Common Interchange

41) READ is represented as ________ Format.

a) Relative Entity Address Designate Code
b) Relative Element Allocation Designate Code
c) Relative Element Address Decoder Code
d) Relative Element Address Designate Code

42) Baseline JPEG algorithm draw ______ after line untilcomplete image.
a) Circle
b) Triangle
c) Line
d) None

43) Progressive algorithm draws the ______ image at once, JPEGbut in very poor
quality.
a) Particular
b) Whole
c) Combined
d) Both a and b

44) An image is divided into 8x8 size, each 8x8 submatrixis called ______
a) Part
b) Potion
c) Block
d) Both a and b

45) A ______ consist of an information regarding start and end of the frame,its location
in an image ect.
a) Block
b) Frame
c) Frequency
d) Device
46) The frame header contains an information regarding _______ ofthe image.
a) width/height
b) Dot
c) Line
d) Location

47) The DC coefficients have normally ________ amplitudes.

a) Small
b) Large
c) No
d) Both a and b

48) The AC coefficients are remaining _________ coefficients in eachblock.

a) 62
b) 65
c) 66
d) 63

49) I - Frame is encoded without reference to any other_______

a) Block
b) Frame
c) Frequency
d) Device

50) DCT stands for ________

a) Discrete Command Transform
b) Dialogue Cosine Transform
c) Discrete Cosine Transform
d) Dialogue CommandTransform

51) _________ value = Round value X Threshold .

a) Quantized
b) Dequantized
c) Compressed
d) Uncompressed

52) Reconstructed image is _______ same as original one.

a) exactly
b) not exactly
c) Particularly
d) None
53) The frame decoder identifies a particular frame and giveinformation to ________
a) Inverse DCT
b) Dequantization
c) Both a and b
d) Image Builder
54) _________ = DCT coefficient - Dequantized value.
a) Quantization Process
b) Quantization error
c) Quantization Percentage
d) Quality Process

55) The GIF image can be transferred over the network in _______
a) interlaced image
b) interlaced mode
c) interchange mode
d) interchange image

56) Data compression means to decrease the file size.

1)True
2)false

57) Data encryption and compression both work on binary code

1)True
2) False

58) What is compression?

a) To convert one file to another
b) To reduce the size of data to save space
c) To minimize the time taken for a file to be downloaded
d) To compress something by pressing it very hard

59) The purpose of data compression is to decrease file sizes .

1) True
2) False

60) Compression in general makes it _______ to send, upload and stream data.
1) Quicker
2)Slower

61) Data compression usually works by..

1)Finding repeating patterns.
2)Deleting random bits data

62) Which of these terms is a type of data compression?

a) resolution
b) zipping
c) inputting
d) caching

63) WHAT TYPE OF FILE IS REPRESENTED HERE?

a) MPEG
b) MP3
c) WAV
 d) BMP

64) Lossy or lossless? This type of compression does not get rid of any data.
a) Lossy
b) Lossless
c) Both

65) Lossy or lossless? This type of compression makes the file smaller
a) Lossy
b) Lossless
c) Both
66) Lossy or lossless? This type of compression gets rid of some information.
a) Lossy
b) Lossless
c) Both

67) Which best describes Lossless Compression?

a) No information is lost but file size is increased
b) There is no loss in information at all after compression
c) Files which have the exact same data after compression
d) Compression that involves an algorithm

68) When is Run Length Encoding used?

a) When we want to compress patterns of data
b) When we want to decompress patterns of data
c) When we want to encode running videos

69) Huffman trees use the _______________ of each character to work out their
encoding.
a) Frequency
b) Order in ASCII
c) umber value

70) How do you move through a Huffman tree?

a) 0 = right 1= left
b) 1 = left 2 = right
c) 0 = left 1 = right
d) 0 = middle 1 = back

71) How do you calculate the number of bits of a body of text in ASCII?
answer choices
a) Number of characters * 7
b) Number of characters (including spaces) *7
c) bits in Huffman * 7
d) its in Huffman / 7

72) Which formula shows how to work out the percentage a file has been compressed
by?
 a) bits in (Huffman *7) /100
b) its in ASCii - bits in Huffman
c) difference in bits / bits in ASCII * 100

73) Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman codes?
a) exhaustive search
b) greedy algorithm
c) brute force algorithm
d) divide and conquer algorithm

74) How many printable characters does the ASCII character set consists of?
a) 120
b) 128
c) 100
d) 98

75) Which bit is reserved as a parity bit in an ASCII set?

a) first
b) seventh
c) eighth
d) tenth

76) How many bits are needed for standard encoding if the size of the character set is X?
a) log X
b) X+1
c) 2X
d) X2

77) The code length does not depend on the frequency of occurrence of characters.
a) true
b) false

78) In Huffman coding, data in a tree always occur?

a) roots
b) leaves
c) left sub trees
d) right sub trees

79) An optimal code will always be present in a full tree.

a) true
b) false

80) The type of encoding where no character code is the prefix of another character code
is called?
a) optimal encoding
b) prefix encoding
c) frequency encoding
d) trie encoding
81) What is the running time of the Huffman encoding algorithm?
a) O(C)
b) O(log C)
c) O(C log C)
d) O( N log C)

82) What is the running time of the Huffman algorithm, if its implementation of the priority
queue is done using linked lists?
a) O(C)
b) O(log C)
c) O(C log C)
d) O(C2)

83) How many printable characters does the ASCII character set consists of?
a) 122
b) 129
c) 100
d) 980

84) Digitizing the image intensity amplitude is called.

a) sampling
b) quantization
c) framing
d) Both A and B

85) Compressed image can be recovered back by.

a) image enhancement
b) image decompression
c) image contrast.
d) mage equalization

86) Digital video is sequence of.

a) pixels
b) matrix
c) frames
d) coordinates

87) Image compression comprised of

a) encoder
b) decoder
c) frames
d) Both A and B

88) Information is the...

a) data
b) Meaningful data
c) raw data
 d) Both A and BAnswer B

89) Coding redundancy works on

a) pixels
b) matrix
c) intensity
d) coordinates

90) Sequence of code assigned is called

a) code word
b) word
c) byte

91) Every run length pair introduce new

a) pixels
b) matrix
c) frames
d) intensity

92) In the coding redundancy technique we use

a) fixed length code
b) variable length code
c) byte
d) both A and B

93) Morphology refers to

a) pixels
b) matrix
c) frames
d) shape

94) FAX is an abbreviation of

a) fast
b) female
c) feminine
d) facsimile

95) Source of information depending on finite no of outputs is called

a) markov
b) finite memory source
c) zero source
d) Both A and B

96) Information per source is called

a) sampling
b) quantization
c) entropy
d)normalization
97) What type of compression would you use to compress a video?
a) Lossy
b) Lossless

98) What would you use compression for?

a) Making an image file smaller
b) Modifying an image

99) How many bits make up one byte?

a) 4
b) 16
c) 8
d) 10

100) What is compression?

a) To convert one file to another
b) To reduce the size of data to save space
c) To minimise the time taken for a file to be download
d) To compress something by pressing it hard

101) Which of the following are not in a compressed format?

a) JPEG
b) MPEG
c) Bitmap
d) MP3

102) Uncompressed audio and video files require less memory than compressed
files....
a) True
b) False

103) JPEG stands for

a) joint photo Exampted grade
b) Joint photographic Experts Group
c) Junior photographic exports Group

104) LZ77 maintains a ______

a) sliding window
b) To minimise the time
c) Modifying an image
d) To file

105) LZ77 encodes and decodes from

a) a sliding window
b) To Video
c) a image
d) To file
 106) Lossy compression can cause
a) generation loss.
b) data loss
c) data increment
d) None

107) Speech coding is used in

a) internet telephony
b) raw data
c) program
d) All of above

108) Lossy data compression schemes are designed by research on how people
perceive the data in question.
a) True
b) False

109) Lossy compression reduces bits by removing necessary or important

information.
a) True
b) False

110) A Distortion measure

a) mathematical quantity
b) digital quantity
c) both a, b

111) The entropy of a message is in a certain sense a measure of how much information
it really contains.
a) True
b) False

112) Vector quantization is a lossy compression technique used in speech and image
coding.
a) True
b) False

113) What property has the output signal of a scalar quantizer?

a) The output is a discrete signal with a countable symbol alphabet (but not
necessarily a finite symbol alphabet).
b) The output is a digital signal with a countable symbol alphabet .
c) Both a, b

114) ppm stands for_________

a) Prediction by partial matching
b) Production by partial matching
c) none
 115) PPM models use a set of previous symbols in the uncompressed symbol stream to
predict the next symbol in the stream.
a) False
b) True

116) adaptive quantization the input is devided into_____

a) File
b) bit
c) byte
d) blocks

117) Quantization, involved in____

a) File Processing
b) Image Processing
c) both

118) Companded quantization is the combination of ___

a) three functional building blocks
b) two functional building blocks
c) one functional building blocks
d) none

119) The type of quantization____

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) none

120) Sub Band Coding(SBC) is a transform coding.

a) True
b) False

121) What is meant by optimum prefix

codes?
a) Prefix coding is known as optimum coding.
b) Postfix coding is known as optimum coding
c) None of the above

122) variable-length codes are Huffman coding, LempelZiv code.

a) True
b) False

123) How many techniques used for lossless compression?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
124) Arithmetic Coding is_____
a) A variable-length entropy encoding form.
b) A variable-length entropy decoding form.
c) All of above

125) Companded Quantization maps__

a) input through compressor function
b) output through function
c) Both a, b
Answer---
1)B 11) B
2)B 12) A
3)A 13) D
4)A 14) C
5)A 15) B
6)B 16) D
7)C 17) D
8)A 18) D
9)B 19) D
10)D 20) B

21) D 31) C
22) C 32) A
23) D 33) A
24) B 34) B
25) A 35) C
26) D 36) D
27) B 37) C
28) C 38) D
29) C 39) B
30) A 40) D

41) D 51) B
42) C 52) B
43)B 53) D
44) C 54) B
45) B 55) B
46) A 56) 1
47) B 57) 1
48) D 58) B
49) B 59) 1
50) C 60) 1

61) 1 71) B
62) B 72) C
63) B 73) B
64) B 74) C
65) C 75) C
66) A 76) A
67) B 77) B
68) A 78) B
69) A 79) A
70) C 80) B

81) C 91) D
82) D 92) D
83) C 93) D
84) B 94) D
85) B 95) D
86) C 96) C
87) D 97) A
88) B 98) A
89) C 99) C
90) A 100) B

101) C 111) A
102) A 112) A
103) B 113) A
104) A 114) A
105) A 115) B
106) A 116) D
107) A 117) B
108) A 118) A
109) B 119) D
110) A 120) A
121) A
122) A
123) B
124) A
125) A