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Business

Communication

400 MCQ
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

INDEX

Unit 1 & 2 Grammar & its usages + Enriching Vocabulary

Unit 3 Comprehensive Passage

Unit 4 Business Communication

Unit 5 Listening skills

Unit 6 Business Correspondence

Unit 7 E-Correspondence

CS SOMYA KATARIA - 8461967667 1


ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

Unit 1 & 2: GRAMMAR & ITS USAGES + ENRICHING VOCABULARY

tions given below -


1. _____ means language that is special to science, (A) (X), (Y) & (Z)
technology, art, trade or profession.
(B) (X) & (Y)
(A) Verbosity
(C) (Y) only
(B) Boli bhasha
(C) Jargon
(D) Any of the above
(D) (Y) & (Z)
2. Jargon means language which is special to
7. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair of
different fields of knowledge.
words?
(A) True
(A) Competent-Capable
(B) False
(B) Advice-Advise
(C) Partly false
(C) Silly-Ridiculous
(D) None of above
(D) Proficient-Skilled
3. An expressive style that uses excessive or
8. Identify Homonyms from the following pair of
empty words is known as -
words?
(A) Verbosity
(A) Affect-Effect
(B) Homonyms
(B) Bankrupt-Solvent
(C) Jargon
(C) Bold-Timid
(D) Antonyms
(D) Deep-Shallow
4. There are several pairs or groups of words that
9. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair of
are similar in sound but are different in spelling
words?
and meaning. These are called -
I. Bare-Bear
(A) Synonyms
II. Eulogy-Encomium
(B) Antonyms
III. Slander-Malign
(C) Homonyms
Select the correct answer from the options given
(D) Jargon
below -
5. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair of
(A) I
words?
(B) II
(A) Unusual-Unnatural
(C) III
(B) Additional-Auxiliary
(D) All of above
(C) Delight-Enjoyment
10. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair
(D) Access-Excess
of words?
6. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair of
(A) Wearisome-Drudging
words?
(B) Prosper-Flourish
(X) Easy-Simple
(C) Healthy-Healing
(Y) Accident-Incident
(D) Casual-Causal
(Z) Berth-Birth
11. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair
Select the correct answer from the op
of words?

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(A) Pertinent-Germane (A) Arrogant-Humble
(B) Silent-Reserved (B) Ghastly-Ghostly
(C) Dull -Stupid (C) Guilty-Innocent
(D) Check-Cheque (D) Heavy-Light
12. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair 19. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair
of words? of words?
(A) Leave-Forsake (A) Human-Humane
(B) Competent-Capable (B) Natural-Artificial
(C) Decease-Disease (C) Outward-Inward
(D) None of above (D) Zenith-Nadir
13. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair 20. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair
of words? of words?
(A) Refrain-Withhold (A) Lose-Loose
(B) Dependent-Dependant (B) Diligent-Dilatory
(C) Shorten-Curtail (C) Economical-Extravagant
(D) None of above (D) Flexible-Rigid
14. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair 21. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair
of words? of words?
(A) Distress-Sorrow (X) Negligent-Negligible
(B) Device-Devise (Y) Persecute-Prosecute
(C) Sufficient-Satisfactory (Z) Practice-Practise
(D) Moralizing-Preach Select the correct answer from the options given
below -
15. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair
of words? (A) (X)&(Y)
(A) Elicit-Illicit (B) (Y)&(Z)
(B) Skill-Deftness (C) (X)&(Z)
(C) Excessive-Wasteful (D) All of above
(D) Deadly-Disastrous 22. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair
of words?
16. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair
of words? (A) Root-Route
(A) Dangerous-Risky (B) Bad-Good
(B) Delight-Enjoyment (C) Route-Rout
(C) Negligent-Careless (D) (A) & (C)
(D) Exhausting-Exhaustive 23. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair
of words?
17. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair
of words? (A) Union-Unity
(A) Ability- Inability (B) Beginning-Ending
(B) Abnormal-Normal (C) Bright-Dull
(C) Accord-Discord (D) Criminal-Lawful
(D) Emigrant-Immigrant 24. Match the following:
18. Identify 'Homonyms' from the following pair
List-I List-II
of words?

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28. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of


P. Homonyms 1. Abdicate
words?
Q. Antonym 2. Words that have (A) Yield-Resist
very nearly the
(B) Abridge-Shorten
same meaning
(C) Virtue-Vice
R. Formally put an end 3. Abolish
(D) None of above
to
29. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
S. Synonyms 4. Word opposite or words?
contrary in
(A) Able-Competent
meaning to another
word. (B) Popular-Populous
(C) Tense-Relax
5. Words that are
similar in sound (D) None of above
but are different in
30. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
spelling and
words?
meaning
(A) Visible-Invisible
Select the correct answer from the options given
(B) Plain-Plane
below -
(C) Abhor-Hate
P Q R S
(D) None of above
(A) 5 4 1 2 31. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
words?
(B) 5 4 3 2
(A) Thick-Thin
(C) 4 5 3 2 (B) Persecute-Prosecute

(D) 5 2 3 4 (C) Affliction-Sorrow


(D) None of above
25. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
words? 32. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
words?
(A) Gentle-Rough
(A) Rear-Front
(B) Root-Route
(B) Adherent-Follower
(C) Adequate-Satisfactory
(C) Observance-Observation
(D) None of above
(D) None of above
26. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
words? 33. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
words?
(A) Accumulate-Collect
(A) Original-Duplicate
(B) Route-Rout
(B) New-Old
(C) Refuge-Refuse
(C) Adept-Proficient
(D) None of above
(D) None of above
27. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
words? 34. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
words?
(A) Genuine-Spurious
(A) Permanent-Temporary
(B) Accessory-Auxiliary
(B) Negligent-Negligible
(C) Humble-Proud
(C) Achieve-Accomplish
(D) None of above
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ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
(D) None of above (D) None of above
35. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of 42. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Zenith -
words?
(A) Zeal
(A) Momentous-Memento
(B) Nadir
(B) Human-Humane
(C) Culmination
(C) Abundant-Plentiful
(D) Summit
(D) Momentary-Momentous
43. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Virtue -
36. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
(A) Vertical
words?
(B) Visible
(A) Quiet- Noisy
(C) Vice
(B) Absolute-Unrestricted
(D) None of above
(C) Emigrant-Immigrant
44. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Sane -
(D) None of above
(A) Insane
37. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
words? (B) Safe
(A) Abstain-Refrain (C) Smart
(B) Receive-Give (D) None of above
(C) Safe-Vulnerable 45. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Quiet -
(D) None of above (A) Quick
38. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of (B) Pleasure
words? (C) Noisy
(A) Smart-Stupid (D) None of above
(B) Exhausting-Exhaustive 46. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Peace -
(C) Abnormal-Unnatural (A) Temporary
(D) None of above (B) War
39. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of (C) Pain
words?
(D) None of above
(A) Virtue-Vice
47. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Omission -
(B) Omission-Addition
(A) Addition
(C) Elicit-Illicit
(B) Inclusion
(D) - Abandon-Leave
(C) (A) & (B)
40. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of
words? (D) None of above
(A) Brisk-Lively 48. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Untidy -
(B) Device-Devise (A) Neat
(C) Omission-Addition (B) New
(D) None of above (C) Old
41. Identify 'Synonyms' from the following pair of (D) None of above
words? 49. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Quiet -
(A) Dependent-Dependant (A) Soft
(B) Candid-Sincere (B) Loud
(C) Smart-Stupid (C) Mad

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(D) None of above (C) Abnormality


50. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Plentiful - (D) None of above
(A) Meager 58. Give single word for group of words:
(B) Merit To sway to and fro, to show indecision -
(C) Minimum (A) Vendetta
(D) None of above (B) Vacillate
51. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Stagnation - (C) Vandal
(A) Genuine (D) None of above
(B) Growth 59. Give single word for group of words:
(C) Guilty Renounce a throne, high office of dignity
(D) None of above (A) Abdicate
52. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Inferior (B) Abbreviation
(A) Incomplete (C) Acoustics
(B) Inaction (D) Acrobat
(C) Smart 60. Give single word for group of words:
(D) Superior To transform into a purer or idealized form -
53. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Timid - (A) Quisling
(A) Bold (B) Philistine
(B) Beginning (C) Philanthropist
(C) Cold (D) Sublimate
(D) None of above 61. Give single word for group of words:
54. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Suave - Often lost in thought and unaware of one's
surroundings -
(A) Decrease
(A) Absent-minded
(B) Increase
(B) Connoisseur
(C) Expensive
(C) Dilemma
(D) Caustic
(D) None of above
55. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Dilatory
62. Give single word for group of words:
(A) Lazy
One who is hostile or indifferent to culture and
(B) Diligent
the arts -
(C) Distance
(A) Philistine
(D) None of above
(B) Philanthropist
56. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Abundance -
(C) Numismatics
(A) Inactive
(D) Malcontent
(B) Inaction
63. Give single word for group of words:
(C) Insufficiency
Living both on land and in water -
(D) Increase
(A) Cosmopolitan
57. Give the 'Antonym' for the word: Ability -
(B) Flora
(A) Inability
(C) Amphibious
(B) Liability
(D) Benefactor
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ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
64. Give single word for group of words: 68. Match the following:
An exact copy, especially of written or printed
List-I List-II
material -
(A) Machine that copies printed material P. A blood feud started by 1. Accurate
(B) Sublimate murder seeking vengeance 2. Actuary
(C) Opportune
Q. An undertaking by an 3. Abdicate
(D) Facsimile authority to take no action
65. Give single word for group of words:
against specified offences 4. Amnesty
The study or collection of coins, bank notes and
medals - during a fixed period 5. Vendetta
(A) Philistine
R. One who calculates insurance 6. Quisling
(B) Philanthropist and annuity premium
(C) Numismatics
S. Renounce a throne, high office
(D) Malcontent of dignity
66. Give single word for group of words:
Select the correct answer from the options given
The study and collection of postage stamps - below -
………
(A) Philanthropist P Q R S
(B) Philately (A) 5 4 1 3
(C) Panacea
(B) 5 4 2 3
(D) Collector
67. Match the following: (C) 6 4 2 3

List-I List-II (D) 5 2 4 3

P. Shortened form of 2. Testor 69. Fax is the abbreviated form of the word -
(A) Facsimile
a word or phrase 2. Aggression
(B) Faximile
Q. Free from error 3. Abbreviation (C) Fac
R. An expert judge in 4. Accurate (D) Simile
Grammar & Its Usage
matters of taste 5. Connoisseur
70. The part of speech (or word class) that is used
S. Action of attacking Agnostic to name or identify a person, place, thing, quality,
or action.
with provocation 6. (A) Adverbs
Select the correct answer from the options given (B) Verbs
below - (C) Proposition
P Q R S (D) Noun
71. I, we, you, he, she, it, we, they, me, him, her, us
(A) 3 4 1 2
are - ……….
(B) 3 4 5 6 (A) Possessive pronoun
(B) Relative pronoun
(C) 4 3 5 2
(C) Personal pronoun
(D) 3 4 5 2
(D) Collective pronoun
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ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

72. Which, what, who, whose, whom, that are - 79. Neither-nor, either-or, not only-but also,
both- and, whether-or etc. are known as -
(A) Possessive pronoun
(A) Interjections
(B) Relative pronoun
(B) Correlative conjunctions
(C) Personal pronoun
(C) Verb
(D) None of above
(D) Adjective
73. Mine, ours, yours, theirs, its, hers are -
80. Verbs may perform the function -
(A) Possessive pronoun
1. State existence
(B) Relative pronoun
2. Give a command
(C) Personal pronoun
3. Describe activity
(D) None of above
Select the correct answer from the options given
74. Which of the following add meaning to a noun
below -
or pronoun?
(A) 1
(A) Adjective
(B) 2
(B) Preposition
(C) 3
(C) Conjunctions
(D) All of above
(D) Interjections
81. As a general rule, we should use _____ in our
75. _____ by definition is placed before a noun or
sentences.
its equivalent in order to show its relationship in
terms of time, place, case, etc. (A) Loud Voice
(A) Adjective (B) Good voice
(B) Preposition (C) Passive Voice
(C) Conjunctions (D) Active Voice
(D) Interjections 82. Which of the following is found more suitable
while drafting legal formulations when no
76. Which of the following join words or even
identifiable subject can be mentioned?
sentences conveying related ideas?
(A) Voice
(A) Adjective
(B) Good voice
(B) Preposition
(C) Active voice
(C) Conjunctions
(D) Passive voice
(D) Interjections
83. Which of the following is the definite article
77. _____ are words, which are used in a sentence
and is always specific, referring to a definite or
to express more emotion or feeling.
only thing, person or entity?
(A) Adjective
(A) ‘a’
(B) Preposition
(B) 'an'
(C) Conjunctions
(C) 'The'
(D) Interjections
(D) None of above
78. Two commonly used conjunctions are -
84. How many kinds of articles are there in
(A) To, by English?
(B) And, but (A) Two: definitive and in-definitive
(C) To, and (B) Three: a, an, and the
(D) None of above (C) Five: a, an, the, definitive and in-definitive

8 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
(D) One: a E.g. The RBI intervened in the Forex Market as
there were strong rumours about an intense
85. The article _____ is used when the noun to
speculative activity caused by the spurt in
which it is attached begins with a vowel sound (a,
imports.
e, i, o and u).
(A) Paragraph Construction
(A) ‘a’
(B) Loose Sentences
(B) 'ail
(C) A Complicated Sentence
(C) 'The'
(D) None of above
(D) None of above
91. Spelling errors are common when -
86. In which of the following sentence "Present
Tense" has been used? (A) A word similarly spelt has two variants with
different meanings and past plus past participle
(i) I will go to office tomorrow.
forms.
(ii) I go to office every day.
(B) Words have the same pronunciation but
(iii) I went to office yesterday. different spellings.
Select the correct answer from the options given (C) When noun and verb forms of the same word
below - have different spellings.
(A) (iii) (D) All of above
(B) (ii) & (i) 92. Fill in the blanks to make the sentence
(C) (i) & (iii) grammatically correct.

(D) (ii) Most of the patient visits _____ to physician


assistants in the recent years all around the
87. _____ contains only one finite verb and can world.
make only one complete statement. However it
may have more than one subject or object. (A) have been made

(A) A complicated sentence (B) was made

(B) A complex sentence (C) will have been made

(C) A compound sentence (D) have made

(D) A simple sentence 93. Fill in the blanks to make the sentence
grammatically correct.
88. _____ is made up of two or more main clauses,
none playing a subordinating role. The government _____ that the tasks _____ with
great success.
(A) Loose sentence
(A) is confirming/maintained
(B) A complex sentence
(B) confirms/have been maintained
(C) A compound sentence
(C) was confirmed/have maintained
(D) A simple sentence
(D) will confirm/had been maintained
89. _____ is formed when its main clause is
supported by dependent clauses. E.g. The 94. Fill in the blanks to make the sentence
director who arrived yesterday agreed he would grammatically correct.
support the resolution. New legislation _____ in congress but it _____ by
(A) Loose Sentence many.

(B) A Complex Sentence (A) was introduced/wasn't accepted

(C) A Compound Sentence (B) introduced/didn't accept

(D) A Simple Sentence (C) will be introduced/isn't accepted

90. _____ are suited to simple style of letter (D) introduced/hadn't been accepted
writing and are closer to the spoken form. They 95. Find the correct spelt word.
begin with the main statement and develop it to
(A) Adulterate
its logical conclusion.
(B) Adeldurate
CS SOMYA KATARIA 9
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

(C) Adulterat 102. _____ are those that denote the meaning of re
moving something or depriving something or
(D) Adultarate
someone.
96. Identify grammatically correct sentence.
(A) Supportive Prefixes
(A) The small child does whatever his father was
(B) Derivative Prefixes
done.
(C) Reversative Prefixes
(B) The small child does whatever his father has
done. (D) Pejorative Prefixes
(C) The small child does whatever his father did. 103. _____ are those that express contempt,
disapproval, bad or wrong.
(D) The small child does whatever his father
does. (A) Supportive Prefixes
Prefixes & Suffixes (B) Place Prefixes
97. If the affix or addition to the base form or root (C) Reversative Prefixes
word comes at the beginning, it is a -
(D) Pejorative Prefixes
(A) Start-fix
104. Which prefixes indicate place or placing of
(B) Suffix things, situation, etc.?
(C) Outfix (A) Supportive Prefixes
(D) Prefix (B) Place Prefixes
98. _____ are prefixes that support or are for the (C) Reversative Prefixes
root word.
(D) Pejorative Prefixes
(A) Negative Prefixes
105. Megaphone, megastar, megalith, megawatt
(B) Reversative Prefixes are examples of -
(C) Supportive Prefixes (A) Status prefixes
(D) Opposing Prefixes (B) Number Prefixes
99. _____are prefixes that are opposed to the (C) Time Prefixes
action denoted by the root word.
(D) Size Prefixes
(A) Negative Prefixes
106. Ex-wife, ex-president, ex-student are
(B) Reversative Prefixes examples of -
(C) Supportive Prefixes (A) Status prefixes
(D) Opposing Prefixes (B) Number Prefixes
100. _____ are prefixes that denote the absence of (C) Time Prefixes
distinguishing features of the root world.
(D) Class Changing Prefixes
(A) Negative Prefixes
107. Megahertz, megabuck, megabit are examples
(B) Reversative Prefixes of -
(C) Supportive Prefixes (A) Number prefixes
(D) Opposing Prefixes (B) Noun Suffixes
101. ………. are prefixes that denote the act of un (C) Time Prefixes
doing the previous act that the root word denotes
(D) Class Changing Prefixes
as being done.
108. Co-partner, co-author, co-founder are
(A) Supportive Prefixes
examples of -
(B) Derivative Prefixes
(A) Status prefixes
(C) Reversative Prefixes
(B) Noun Suffixes
(D) Pejorative Prefixes

10 CS SOMYA KATARIA
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(C) Time Prefixes (C) Time Prefixes
(D) Class Changing Prefixes (D) Number Prefixes
109. Besiege, bewitch, besmear, bewail, belittle, 116. Unidirectional, unilateral, unicycle, unity are
befoul, beribboned are examples of - examples of -
(A) Status prefixes (A) Number Prefixes
(B) Supportive Prefixes (B) Supportive Prefixes
(C) Reversative Prefixes (C) Status Prefixes
(D) Class Changing Prefixes (D) Time Prefixes
110. Untie, unscramble, unlock are examples of - 117. Vice-president, vice admiral, vice chancellor
are examples of -
(A) Supportive Prefixes
(A) Supportive Prefixes
(B) Place Prefixes
(B) Size Prefixes
(C) Reversative Prefixes
(C) Status Prefixes
(D) Pejorative Prefixes
(D) Number Prefixes
111. Unleaded, unmark, unhouse, uncap, uncover
are examples of - 118. An addition to the end of a word to form a
derivative of the root word is a -
(A) Supportive Prefixes
(A) Last-fix
(B) Derivative Prefixes
(B) Suffix
(C) Reversative Prefixes
(C) Combination words
(D) Pejorative Prefixes
(D) Prefix
112. Miscalculate, misgovern, misspell,
mismanage, misalign, misapply, misbelieve are 119. Appellant, informant, arrogant (denoting an
examples of - agent)-deodorant
(A) Place Prefixes (A) Adverb Suffixes
(B) Supportive Prefixes (B) Adjective Suffixes
(C) Reversative Prefixes (C) Noun Suffixes
(D) Pejorative Prefixes (D) Verb Suffixes
113. Circumvent, circumnavigate, circumlocution, 120. Responsibility, technicality, publicity,
circumbulate, circumlunar are examples of - humility are examples of -
(A) Supportive Prefixes (A) Adverb Suffixes
(B) Place Prefixes (B) Adjective Suffixes
(C) Reversative Prefixes (C) Noun Suffixes
(D) Pejorative Prefixes (D) Verb Suffixes
114. Minibus, miniseries, minicab, minimarket 121. Capitalize, modernise, popularise, terrorise,
are examples of - expertise are examples of -
(A) Supportive Prefixes (A) Adverb Suffixes
(B) Size Prefixes (B) Adjective Suffixes
(C) Time Prefixes (C) Noun Suffixes
(D) Number Prefixes (D) Verb Suffixes
115. Post-war, post-modernism, postdate are 122. Sorrowful, powerful, careful, resentful,
examples of - fretful, forgetful are examples of -
(A) Supportive Prefixes (A) Noun Suffixes
(B) Size Prefixes (B) Adverb Suffixes

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(C) Adjective Suffixes (D) All of above


(D) Verb Suffixes 129. _____ separate or enclose subordinate clauses
and phrases in sentences.
123. Clockwise, notewise, taxwise, anticlockwise
are examples of - (A) An Apostrophe (')
(A) Adverb Suffixes (B) Brackets ( )
(B) Adjective Suffixes (C) The Comma (,)
(C) Noun Suffixes (D) All of above
(D) Verb Suffixes 130. _____ is used to construct words to clarify
meaning. It links words to form a compound
Punctuations
word.
124. The marks, such as full stop, comma, and
(A) Hyphen (-)
brackets, used in writing to separate sentences
and their elements and to clarify meaning are (B) The Semi colon (;)
called -
(C) An Apostrophe (')
(A) Narration
(D) Square Brackets
(B) Punctuation
131. _____ is used to separate two or more
(C) Punctuary independent clauses, which are of more or less
equal importance in sentences, that are placed
(D) None of above
together.
125. _____ is the most basic form of punctuation
(A) An Apostrophe (')
which separates words, sentences, paragraphs
and chapters. (B) Square Brackets
(A) Dash (C) The Semi colon (;)
(B) Comma (D) Angle brackets
(C) Space 132. The colon (:) is a punctuation that
function(s) as -
(D) Colon
(A) To introduce material that explains
126. Full stop should not be omitted after
acronyms which are pronounced as a word. (B) To enclose cited words or expressions
(A) False (C) To denote certain names especially of Celtic
origin
(B) True
(D) All of above
(C) Partly false
133. The colon (:) is a punctuation that
(D) None of above
function(s) as -
127. _____ is used to end a declarative sentence, a
(A) To introduce examples
sentence which is not a question or an
exclamation. (B) To introduce quotations or direct speech
(A) The Comma (,) (C) To enclose expressions that the author does
not take responsibility for
(B) The Full Stop (.)
(D) (a) and (b)
(C) Hyphen (-)
134. The colon (:) is a punctuation that
(D) All of above
function(s) as -
128. The Full Stop (.) is used _____
(A) To link contrasting statements
(A) Before decimal and between units of money
(B) To present a conclusion
(B) After initials or after a shortened form of a
(C) To point the reader's attention forward.
word to indicate an abbreviation
(D) All of above
(C) To end a declarative sentence

12 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
135. An Apostrophe (') is used _____ they are used alone or as part of a larger number
are always -
(A) To separate two or more independent clauses
(A) Question marked
(B) To enclose references to other places in a text
(B) Hyphenated
(C) To denote certain names especially of Celtic
origin (C) Full stopped
(D) All of above (D) None of above
136. The apostrophe comes before the 's' if the 143. Abbreviation and Acronyms are the same
noun is - thing.
(A) Plural (A) False
(B) For missing letter (B) True
(C) Singular (C) Partly true
(D) None of above (D) None of above
137. The apostrophe comes after the 's' if the 144. An abbreviation is a short way of writing a
noun is _____ word or phrase that could not be written out in
full.
(A) Plural
(A) False
(B) For missing letter
(B) True
(C) Singular
(C) Partly true
(D) None of above
(D) None of above
138. Apostrophe is never used in a single word.
Idioms, Phrases, Proverbs
(A) False
145. A Phrase is a ……….
(B) True
(A) Group of words
(C) Partly true
(B) Part of sentence which does not make a
(D) None of above
complete sentence but has an independent
139. Quotation Marks (""/") also known as - meaning
(A) Brace brackets (C) Quite often equivalent to an adjective, adverb
(B) Quotes or noun

(C) Inverted commas (D) All of above

(D) (b)or(c) 146. Cast a slur upon means ……….

Abbreviations (A) To encounter a strong adversary

140. Abbreviations are the shortened form of a - (B) To get into difficulty

(A) Word (C) By word or act to cast a slight reproach on


someone
(B) Phrase
(D) To be defeated in every contest
(C) Text
147. To play into someone's hands means -
(D) Any of the above
(A) To take a subordinate part
141. _____ is the widely used abbreviation for
'etcetera' (B) To act as to be of advantage to another

(A) Eta. (C) To work vigorously

(B) Ete. (D) To bring to sudden end

(C) Etc. 148. To eat one's heart out means -

(D) Etx. (A) To suffer in silence, grieve bitterly

142. While expressing numbers in words all (B) To have to humiliate oneself
compound numbers between 21 and 99, whether (C) To undergo severe criticism or ill treatment
CS SOMYA KATARIA 13
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

(D) To unnecessarily cause delay in taking action (D) All of above


149. ………. are everyman's philosophy. 156. Viva voce means ……….
(A) Foreign words (A) An examination
(B) Phrases (B) Written examination
(C) Proverbs (C) an oral or written examination
(D) None of above (D) An oral examination
150. The same word cannot be used as different 157. Status quo means ……….
parts of speech.
(A) The existing condition
(A) False
(B) The past condition
(B) True
(C) The future condition
(C) Partly true
(D) Condition precedent
(D) None of above
158. Match the following:
151. As far as spelling of English Language is
concerned, the British prefer 'z’ over 's', i.e., List-I List-II
criticize, realize, recognize and so on.
P. Quid pro quo 1. Utmost faith
(A) False
(B) True Q. Sub rosa 2. Done in secret
(C) Partly true R. Bona fide 3. Good faith
(D) None of above
S. Mutatis 4. Return for something
Foreign Words & Phrases mutandis
152. Entrepreneur means ……….
5. Without a day being
(A) A person who takes financial risk appointed
(B) A person who sets up business taking greater
financial risk 6. With the necessary
changes
(C) A person who invest money in the business of
others. Select the correct answer from the options given
(D) All of above below -
153. laissez-faire means ………. P Q R S
(A) The important feature of a creative work
(A) 4 2 3 5
(B) Without a day being appointed
(C) A policy of interference (B) 4 1 3 6

(D) A policy of non-interference (C) 2 4 6 3


154. Vice versa means ……….
(D) 4 2 3 6
(A) Opposite words
(B) Word for word 159. Prima facie means ……….

(C) Important words (A) For the good of the public

(D) None of above (B) At last view of consideration

155. Ultra vires means ………. (C) At first view of consideration

(A) Within one's authority (D) The most important reason

(B) Beyond one's authority 160. In toto means ……….

(C) Within one's capacity (A) Entirely

14 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
(B) Deadlock (A) Side by side
(C) Harmony (B) Equally
(D) By right (C) Equivalently per se
161. Mala fide means ………. (D) All of above
(A) Bad faith 169. Proforma means ……….
(B) Good faith (A) Denoting a standard document or form
(C) Big faith (B) Proportionate
(D) Utmost faith (C) In proportionate form
162. Post mortem means ………. (D) None of above
(A) Examination made after death 170. Sine die means ……….
(B) Examination made before event occurs (A) With a day being appointed
(C) Analysis made after an event has occurred (B) Without a day being ended
(D) (A)or(C) (C) With appointed time
163. Pro rata means ………. (D) Without a day being appointed
(A) According to value 171. Sub judice means ……….
(B) According to rate (A) Under consideration
(C) According proportion (B) Under judicial custody
(D) (B)or(C) (C) Under judicial consideration
164. Ab initio means ………. (D) Under judgment
(A) At the ending 172. Ad hoc means ……….
(B) From the beginning (A) From the beginning
(C) At the middle (B) A body elected or appointed for a particular
work
(D) All of above
(C) According to value
165. Addenda means _____
(D) None of above
(A) List of deletion
173. Errata means ……….
(B) List of additions
(A) List of correction made
(C) List of additions & deletion
(B) List of errors
(D) List of subtraction
(C) List of right
166. De facto means -
(D) None of above
(A) Actual
174. According to the card means ……….
(B) Infact
(A) a la carte
(C) by right
(B) a la mode
(D) (a)or(b)
(C) ab origin
167. Esprit de corps means ……….
(D) ad valorem
(A) Group of people accompanying a dignitary
175. Ad infinitum means ……….
(B) The animating spirit of a particular group like
a regiment (A) Infinity
(C) A report in the media that reveals something (B) Endlessly
discreditable
(C) Forever
(D) All of above
(D) All of above
168. Pari passu means ……….

CS SOMYA KATARIA 15
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

176. Amour proper means ………. (B) Privilege entails responsibility


(A) Self-love (C) A way of doing something
(B) Self defence (D) Better than the others of the same kind
(C) Self-esteem 182. Hoi polloi means ……….
(D) (A)or(C) (A) The common people
177. Sub rosa means ………. (B) The important people
(A) Done publicly (C) The people
(B) Confidentially (D) None of above
(C) Done in secret 183. Impasse means ……….
(D) (B)or(C) (A) A lock
178. Resume means ………. (B) A free way
(A) A summary (C) A deadlock
(B) Most important (D) None of above
(C) Curriculum vitae 184. In all there are _____ tenses that are used in
English language.
(D) (a)or(c)
(A) 12
179. Ex post facto means ……….
(B) 11
(A) With retrospective action
(C) 14
(B) With prospective action
(D) 10
(C) Without proper action
185. Fill in the blanks with appropriated words:
(D) Any of the above
He warned workers against supporting these
180. Ipso facto means ……….
anti-social policies, which he declared would _____
(A) By that very fact rather then _____ the plight of the common people.
(B) By side by side (A) Rescue; Destroy
(C) By less important fact (B) Aggravate; Alleviate
(D) None of above (C) Empower; Improve
181. Modus operandi means ………. (D) Encouraged; Defy
(A) With the necessary changes

Answers

1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B)

8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (B)

15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (D)

22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (B)

29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (C)

36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (B)

43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (B)

16 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

50. (A) 51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (D) 55. (B) 56. (C)

57. (A) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (A) 63. (C)

64. (D) 65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (D)

71. (C) 72. (B) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (D)

78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (D) 81. (D) 82. (D) 83. (C) 84. (A)

85. (B) 86. (D) 87. (D) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (B) 91. (D)

92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (A) 96. (D) 97. (D) 98. (C)

99. (D) 100. (A) 101. (C) 102. (B) 103. (D) 104. (B) 105. (D)

106. (C) 107. (A) 108. (A) 109. (D) 110. (C) 111. (B) 112. (D)

113. (B) 114. (B) 115. (C) 116. (A) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (C)

120. (C) 121. (D) 122. (C) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (C) 126. (A)

127. (A) 128. (D) 129. (C) 130. (A) 131. (C) 132. (A) 133. (A)

134. (D) 135. (C) 136. (C) 137. (A) 138. (A) 139. (D) 140. (D)

141. (C) 142. (B) 143. (A) 144. (A) 145. (D) 146. (C) 147. (B)

148. (A) 149. (C) 150. (A) 151. (A) 152. (B) 153. (D) 154. (D)

155. (B) 156. (D) 157. (A) 158. (D) 159. (C) 160. (A) 161. (A)

162. (D) 163. (D) 164. (B) 165. (B) 166. (D) 167. (B) 168. (D)

169. (A) 170. (D) 171. (C) 172. (B) 173. (B) 174. (A) 175. (D)

176. (D) 177. (D) 178. (D) 179. (A) 180. (A) 181. (C) 182. (A)

183. (C) 184. (D) 185. (D)

CS SOMYA KATARIA 17
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
Unit 3: COMPREHENSIVE PASSAGE

1.
Questions 1-7. One ship deserted while in this passage and
returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were

In the sixteenth century, an age of great privileged to gaze at that first panorama of
the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained
marine and terrestrial exploration,
crossed the meridian we now call the
Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition
to sail around the world. As a young International Date Line in the early spring of
1521 after ninety-eight days on the Pacific
Portuguese noble, he served the king of
Ocean. During those long days at sea, many
Portugal, but he became involved in the
quagmire of political intrigue at court and of Magellan's men died of starvation and
disease.
lost the king's favor. After he was dismissed
from service to the king of Portugal, he
offered to serve the future Emperor Charles Later Magellan became involved in an
V of Spain. insular conflict in the Philippines and was
killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship and
seventeen sailors under the command of
A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all
the Basque navigator Elcano survived to
land in the New World west of 50 degrees
W longitude to Spain and all the land east of complete the westward journey to Spain
and thus prove once and for all that the
that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to
world is round, with no precipice at the
prove that the East Indies fell under
Spanish authority. On September 20, 1519, edge.

Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships.


More than a year later, one of these ships The sixteenth century was an age of great exploration.
was exploring the topography of South
A. cosmic
America in search of a water route across
B. land
the continent. This ship sank, but the C. mental
remaining four ships searched along the D. common man
southern peninsula of South America. E. none of the above
Finally they found the passage they sought
near a latitude of 50 degrees S. Magellan 2. Magellan lost the favor of the king of
named this passage the Strait of All Saints, Portugal when he became involved in a
political
but today we know it as the Strait of
Magellan.
A. entanglement
B. discussion

18 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

C. negotiation D. Portugal
D. problems E. Madrid
E. none of the above 7. In the spring of 1521, the ships crossed the now calle

3. The Pope divided New World lands A. imaginary circle passing through the poles
between Spain and Portugal according to
B. Imaginary line parallel to the equator
their location on one side or the other of an
imaginary geographical line 50 degrees
C. area
west of Greenwich that extends in a D. land mass
direction. E. answer not found in article

A. north and south 8. Questions 8-14


B. crosswise Marie Curie was one of the most
C. easterly accomplished scientists in history. Together
D. south east with her husband, Pierre, she discovered
E. north and west radium, an element widely used for treating
cancer, and studied uranium and other
4. One of Magellan's ships explored the radioactive substances. Pierre and Marie's
amicable collaboration later helped to
of South America for a passage across the
continent. unlock the secrets of the atom.

A. coastline Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland,


B. mountain range
C. physical features where her father was a professor of physics.
D. islands At the early age, she displayed a brilliant
E. none of the above mind and a blithe personality. Her great
exuberance for learning prompted her to
5. Four of the ships sought a passage along a continue with her studies after high school.
southern .
She became disgruntled, however, when she
learned that the university in Warsaw was
A. coast closed to women. Determined to receive a
B. inland higher education, she defiantly left Poland
C. body of land with water on three sides
D. border and in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a French
E. answer not available university, where she earned her master's
degree and doctorate in physics.
6. The passage was found near 50 degrees S
of .
Marie was fortunate to have studied at the
Sorbonne with some of the greatest
A. Greenwich
scientists of her day, one of whom was
B. The equator
C. Spain Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were

CS SOMYA KATARIA 19
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

married in 1895 and spent many


productive years working together in the
9. Marie had a bright mind and a personality.
physics laboratory. A short time after they
discovered radium, Pierre was killed by a
A. strong
horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was B. lighthearted
stunned by this horrible misfortune and C. humorous
endured heartbreaking anguish. D. strange
Despondently she recalled their close E. envious
relationship and the joy that they had
shared in scientific research. The fact that 10. When she learned that she could not
attend the university in Warsaw, she felt
she had two young daughters to raise by
herself greatly increased her distress.
A. hopeless
B. annoyed
Curie's feeling of desolation finally began to C. depressed
fade when she was asked to succeed her D. worried
E. none of the above
husband as a physics professor at the
Sorbonne. She was the first woman to be
given a professorship at the world-famous 11. Marie by leaving Poland and traveling
to France to enter the Sorbonne.
university. In 1911 she received the Nobel
Prize in chemistry for isolating radium.
A. challenged authority
Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a
B. showed intelligence
fatal illness from her long exposure to C. behaved
radium, she never became disillusioned D. was distressed
about her work. Regardless of the E. answer not available in article
consequences, she had dedicated herself to
science and to revealing the mysteries of the 12. she remembered their joy together.
physical world.
A. Dejectedly
B. Worried
The Curies' collaboration helped to C. Tearfully
unlock the secrets of the atom. D. Happily
E. Sorrowfully

A. friendly 13. Her began to fade when she


B. competitive returned to the Sorbonne to succeed her
C. courteous husband.
D. industrious
E. chemistry
A. misfortune
20 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

B. anger
C. wretchedness
D. disappointment
E. ambition

14. Even though she became fatally ill from


working with radium, Marie Curie was
never .

A. troubled
B. worried
C. disappointed
D. sorrowful
E. disturbed

15. Questions 15-19.

Mount Vesuvius, a volcano located between


the ancient Italian cities of Pompeii and
Herculaneum, has received much attention
because of its frequent and destructive
eruptions. The most famous of these
eruptions occurred in A. D. 79.

The volcano had been inactive for


centuries. There was little warning of the
coming eruption, although one account
unearthed by archaeologists says that a
hard rain and a strong wind had
disturbed the celestial calm during the
preceding night. Early the next morning,
the volcano poured a huge river of
molten rock down upon Herculaneum,
completely burying the city and filling in
the harbor with coagulated lava.

CS SOMYA KATARIA 21
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

Meanwhile, on the other side of the the excavations at both Pompeii and
mountain, cinders, stone and ash rained Herculaneum have yielded many examples
down on Pompeii. Sparks from the burning of classical art, such as jewelry made of
ash ignited the combustible rooftops bronze, which is an alloy of copper and tin.
quickly. Large portions of the city were
destroyed in the conflagration. Fire,
The eruption of Mount Vesuvius and its
however, was not the only cause of
tragic consequences have provided us with
destruction.
a wealth of data about the effects that
Poisonous sulphuric gases volcanoes can have on the surrounding
saturated the air. These heavy area. Today volcanologists can locate and
gases were not buoyant in the predict eruptions, saving lives and
atmosphere and therefore sank preventing the destruction of cities and
toward the earth and suffocated cultures.
people.

Herculaneum and its harbor were buried


Over the years, excavations of Pompeii and under _lava.
Herculaneum have revealed a great deal
A. liquid
about the behavior of the volcano. By
B. solid
analyzing data, much as a zoologist dissects C. flowing
a specimen animal, scientist have concluded D. gas
that the eruption changed large portions of E. answer not available
the area's geography. For instance, it turned
the Sarno River from its course and raised 16. The poisonous gases were not in the
the level of the beach along the Bay of air.
Naples. Meteorologists studying these
events have also concluded that Vesuvius A. able to float
caused a huge tidal wave that affected the B. visible
C. able to evaporate
world's climate. D. invisible
In addition to making these investigations, E. able to condense
archaeologists have been able to study the
skeletons of victims by using distilled water 17. Scientists analyzed data about Vesuvius in
to wash away the volcanic ash. By the same way that a zoologist

strengthening the brittle bones with acrylic


paint, scientists have been able to examine A. describes in detail
B. studies by cutting apart
the skeletons and draw conclusions about
C. photographs
the diet and habits of the residents. Finally, D. chart
22 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

E. answer not available was Roman Catholic, most of England had


become Protestant. King Philip II of Spain
18. have concluded that the volcanic wanted to claim the throne and make
eruption caused a tidal wave.
England a Catholic country again. To satisfy
his ambition and also to retaliate against
A. Scientist who study oceans England's theft of his gold and silver, King
B. Scientist who study atmospheric
conditions Philip began to build his fleet of warships,
C. Scientist who study ash the Armada, in January 1586.
D. Scientist who study animal behavior
E. Answer not available in article
Philip intended his fleet to be indestructible.
19. Scientist have used _ water to wash away In addition to building new warships, he
volcanic ash from the skeletons of victims. marshaled one hundred and thirty sailing
vessels of all types and recruited more than
A. bottled nineteen thousand robust soldiers and eight
B. volcanic thousand sailors. Although some of his ships
C. purified lacked guns and others lacked ammunition,
D. sea
Philip was convinced that his Armada could
E. fountain
withstand any battle with England.

20. Questions 20-24.


The martial Armada set sail from
Conflict had existed between Spain and Lisbon, Portugal, on May 9,1588, but
England since the 1570s. England wanted a bad weather forced it back to port. The
share of the wealth that Spain had been voyage resumed on July 22 after the
taking from the lands it had claimed in the weather became more stable.
Americas.

The Spanish fleet met the smaller, faster,


Elizabeth I, Queen of England, encouraged and more maneuverable English ships in
her staunch admiral of the navy, Sir Francis battle off the coast of Plymouth, England,
Drake, to raid Spanish ships and towns. first on July 31 and again on August 2. The
Though these raids were on a small scale, two battles left Spain vulnerable, having
Drake achieved dramatic success, adding lost several ships and with its ammunition
gold and silver to England's treasury and depleted. On August 7, while the Armada
diminishing Spain's omnipotence. lay at anchor on the French side of the
Strait of Dover, England sent eight burning
ships into the midst of the Spanish fleet to
Religious differences also caused conflict
set it on fire. Blocked on one side, the
between the two countries. Whereas Spain
Spanish ships could only drift away, their
CS SOMYA KATARIA 23
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

crews in panic and disorder. Before the B. warlike


Armada could regroup, the Englis attacked C. independent
again on August 8. D. isolated
E. answer not available

Although the Spaniards made a valiant 23. The two battles left the Spanish fleet .
effort to fight back, the fleet suffered
extensive damage. During the eight hours A. open to change
of battle, the Armada drifted perilously B. triumphant
close to the rocky coastline. At the moment C. open to attack
D. defeated
when it seemed that the Spanish ships
E. discouraged
would be driven onto the English shore, the
wind shifted, and the Armada drifted out
24. The Armada was on one side.
into the North Sea. The Spaniards
recognized the superiority of the English
A. closed off
fleet and returned home, defeated.
B. damaged
C. alone
Sir Francis Drake added wealth to the
treasury and diminished Spain's .

A. unlimited power
B. unrestricted growth
C. territory
D. treaties
E. answer not available in article

21. Philip recruited many soldiers and


sailors.

A. warlike
B. strong
C. accomplished
D. timid
E. non experienced

22. The Armada set sail on May 9, 1588.

A. complete
24 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
D. circled
E. answer not available in this article

25. Questions 25-29. citizens fought bravely. The power of the


mighty Persians was offset by the love that
The victory of the small Greek democracy of the Athenians had for their city. Athenians
Athens over the mighty Persian empire in 490 B. defeated the Persians in archery and hand
combat. Greek soldiers seized Persian ships
C. is one of the most famous events in history.
and burned them, and the Persians fled in
Darius, king of the Persian empire, was
terror. Herodotus, a famous historian,
furious because Athens had interceded for the
reports that 6400 Persians died, compared
other Greek city-states in revolt against
with only 192 Athenians.
Persian domination. In anger the king sent an
enormous army to defeat Athens. He thought
it would take drastic steps to pacify the Athens had the other Greek city-states
rebellious part of the empire. Persia was ruled against the Persians.
by one man.

A. refused help to
In Athens, however, all citizens helped to rule. B. intervened on behalf of
Ennobled by this participation, Athenians C. wanted to fight
were prepared to die for their city-state.
D. given orders for all to fight
E. defeated
Perhaps this was the secret of the remarkable
victory at Marathon, which freed them from
26. Darius took drastic steps to the
Persian rule. On their way to Marathon, the
rebellious Athenians.
Persians tried to fool some Greek city-states
by claiming to have come in peace. The
A. weaken
frightened citizens of Delos refused to believe B. destroy
this. Not wanting to abet the conquest of C. calm
Greece, they fled from their city and did not D. placate
return until the Persians had left. They were E. answer not available
wise, for the Persians next conquered the city 27. Their participation _to the Athenians.
of Etria and captured its people.
A. gave comfort
B. gave honor
Tiny Athens stood alone against Persia. The C. gave strength
Athenian people went to their sanctuaries. D. gave fear
E. gave hope
There they prayed for deliverance. They asked
their gods to expedite their victory. The
28. The people of Delos did not want to the
Athenians refurbished their weapons and
conquest of Greece.
moved to the plain of Marathon, where their
little band would meet the Persians. At the last
A. end
moment, soldiers from Plataea reinforced the B. encourage
Athenian troops. C. think about
D. daydream about
E. answer not available
The Athenian army attacked, and Greek

CS SOMYA KATARIA 25
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

29. The Athenians were by some soldiers eager to win the golden apple, tried
who arrived from Plataea. aggressively to bribe him.

A. welcomed
B. strengthened “I'll grant you vast kingdoms to rule, “ promised
C. held Hera. “Vast kingdoms are nothing in comparison
D. captured with my gift,” contradicted Athena. “Choose me
E. answer not available
and I'll see that you win victory and fame in
war.” Aphrodite outdid her adversaries,
30. Questions 30-32. however. She won the golden apple by offering
Helen, Zeus' daughter and the most beautiful
The Trojan War is one of the most famous mortal, to Paris. Paris, anxious to claim Helen,
wars in history. It is well known for the set off for Sparta in Greece.
ten-year duration, for the heroism of a
number of legendary characters, and for
the Trojan horse. What may not be Although Paris learned that Helen was
familiar, however, is the story of how the married, he accepted the hospitality of her
war began. husband, King Menelasu of Sparta, anyway.
Therefore, Menelaus was outraged for a
According to Greek myth, the strife between
number of reasons when Paris departed,
the Trojans and the Greeks started at the
taking Helen and much of the king's wealth
wedding of Peleus, King of Thessaly, and
back to Troy. Menelaus collected his loyal
Thetis, a sea nymph. All of the gods and
forces and set sail for Troy to begin the war to
goddesses had been invited to the wedding
reclaim Helen.
celebration in Troy except Eris, goddesses of
discord. She had been omitted from the
guest list because her presence always Eris was known for both mortals and
embroiled mortals and immortals alike in immortals.
conflict.
A. scheming against
B. involving in conflict
C. feeling hostile toward
To take revenge on those who had slighted D. ignoring
her, Eris decided to cause a skirmish. Into the E. comforting
middle of the banquet hall, she threw a golden
apple marked “for the most beautiful.” All of 31. Each goddess tried _ to bribe Paris.
the goddesses began to haggle over who
should possess it. The gods and goddesses
A. boldly
reached a stalemate when the choice was B. effectively
narrowed to Hera, Athena, and Aphrodite. C. secretly
Someone was needed to settle the controversy D. carefully
E. answer not stated
by picking a winner. The job eventually fell to
Paris, son of King Priam of Troy, who was said
to be a good judge of beauty. 32. Athena Hera, promising Paris victory
and fame in war.

Paris did not have an easy job. Each goddess, A. denied the statement of
26 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
B. defeated and the rest of her family had been killed. Two
C. agreed with brothers named Tschaikovsky had carried her
D. restated the statement into Romania. She had married one of the
E. questioned the statement
brothers, who had taken her to Berlin and left
her there, penniless and without a vocation.
33. Questions 33-37.
Unable to invoke the aid of her mother's
family in Germany, she had tried to drown
One of the most intriguing stories of the
herself.
Russian Revolution concerns the identity of
During the next few years, scores of the Czar's
Anastasia, the youngest daughter of Czar
relatives, ex-servants, and acquaintances
Nicholas II. During his reign over Russia, the
interviewed her. Many of these people said
Czar had planned to revoke many of the harsh
that her looks and mannerisms were
laws established by previous czars. Some
evocative of the Anastasia that they had
workers and peasants, however, clamored for
known. Her grandmother and other relatives
more rapid social reform. In 1918 a group of
denied that she was the real Anastasia,
these people, known as Bolsheviks, overthrew
however.
the government. On July 17 or 18, they
murdered the Czar and what was thought to Tried of being accused of fraud, Anastasia
be his entire family. immigrated to the United States in 1928 and
took the name Anna Anderson. She still
wished to prove that she was Anastasia,
Although witnesses vouched that all the
though, and returned to Germany in 1933 to
members of the Czar's family had been
bring suit against her mother's family. There
executed, there were rumors suggesting that she declaimed to the court, asserting that she
Anastasia had survived. Over the years, a
was indeed Anastasia and deserved her
number of women claimed to be Grand
inheritance.
Duchess Anastasia. Perhaps the best –known
claimant was Anastasia Tschaikovsky, who
was also known as Anna Anderson. In 1957, the court decided that it could
neither confirm nor deny Anastasia's identity.
Although we will probably never know
In 1920, eighteen months after the Czar's
whether this woman was the Grand Duchess
execution, this terrified young woman was
Anastasia, her search to establish her identity
rescued from drowning in a Berlin river.
has been the subject of numerous books,
She spent two years in a hospital, where
plays, and movies.
she attempted to reclaim her health and
shattered mind. The doctors and nurses
thought that she resembled Anastasia and Some Russian peasants and workers for
questioned heer about her background. She social reform.
disclaimed any connection with the Czar's
family.
A. longed
B. cried out
C. begged
Eight years later, though, she claimed that she
D. hoped
was Anastasia. She said that she had been E. thought much
rescued by two Russian soldiers after the Czar

CS SOMYA KATARIA 27
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

34. Witnesses that all members of the lavish spending greatly enraged the people
Czar's family had been executed. of France. They felt that the royal couple
bought its luxurious lifestyle at the poor
A. gave assurance people's expense.
B. thought
C. hoped
D. convinced some Marie Antoinette, the beautiful but exceedingly
E. answer not stated impractical queen, seemed uncaring about her
subjects; misery. While French citizens begged
35. Tschaikovsky any connection with the for lower taxes, the queen embellished her
Czar's family. palace with extravagant works of art. She also
A. denied surrounded herself with artists, writers, and
B. stopped musicians, who encouraged the queen to
C. noted
spend money even more profusely.
D. justified
E. answer not stated
While the queen's favorites glutted
36. She was unable to _the aid of her relative. themselves on huge feasts at the royal table,
many people in France were starving. The
A. locate French government taxed the citizens
B. speak about outrageously. These high taxes paid for the
C. call upon
D. identify entertainments the queen and her court so
E. know enjoyed. When the minister of finance tried
to stop these royal spendthrifts, the queen
37. In court she maintaining that she was replaced him. The intense hatred that the
Anastasia and deserved her inheritance. people felt for Louis XVI and Marie
Antoinette kept building until it led to the
A. finally appeared French Revolution.
B. spoke forcefully
During this time of struggle and violence
C. testified
D. gave evidence (1789-1799), thousands of aristocrats, as
E. answer not stated well as the king and queen themselves, lost
their lives at the guillotine. Perhaps if Louis
38. Questions 38-39. XVI and Marie Antoinette had reined in
their extravagant spending, the events that
King Louis XVI and Queen Marie Antoinette rocked France would not have occurred.
ruled France from 1774 to 1789, a time The people surrounding the queen encouraged
when the country was fighting bankruptcy. her to spend money
The royal couple did not let France's
A. wisely
insecure financial situation limit their B. abundantly
immoderate spending, however. Even C. carefully
though the minister of finance repeatedly D. foolishly
warned the king and queen against wasting E. joyfully
money, they continued to spend great
fortunes on their personal pleasure. This 39. The minister of finance tried to curb these

28 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
royal .efforts.

A. aristocrats
After further study, the Wright brothers
B. money wasters
C. enemies concluded that the published tables of air
D. individuals pressure on curved surfaces must be wrong.
E. spenders They set up a wind tunnel and began a series
of experiments with model wings. Because of
40. Questions 40-45. their efforts, the old tables were repealed in
time and replaced by the first reliable figures
Many great inventions are greeted with for air pressure on curved surfaces. This work,
ridicule and disbelief. The invention of the in turn, made it possible for them to design a
airplane was no exception. Although many machine that would fly. In 1903 the Wrights
people who heard about the first powered built their first airplane, which cost less than
flight on December 17,1903, were excited and one thousand dollars. They even designed and
impressed, others reacted with peals of built their own source of propulsion- a
laughter. The idea of flying an aircraft was lightweight gasoline engine. When they started
repulsive to some people. Such people called the engine on December 17, the airplane
Wilbur and Orville Wright, the inventors of the pulsated wildly before taking off. The plane
first flying machine, impulsive fools. Negative managed to stay aloft for twelve seconds,
reactions, however, did not stop the Wrights. however, and it flew one hundred twenty feet.
Impelled by their desire to succeed, they
By 1905 the Wrights had perfected the first
continued their experiments in aviation.
airplane that could turn, circle, and remain
airborne for half an hour at a time. Others had
Orville and Wilbur Wright had always had a flown in balloons or in hang gliders, but the
compelling interest in aeronautics and Wright brothers were the first to build a full-
mechanics. As young boys they earned money size machine that could fly under its own
by making and selling kites and mechanical power. As the contributors of one of the most
toys. Later, they designed a newspaper-folding outstanding engineering achievements in
machine, built a printing press, and operated a history, the Wright brothers are accurately
bicycle-repair shop. In 1896, when they read called the fathers of aviation.
about the death of Otto Lilienthal, the brother's
interest in flight grew into a compulsion.
The idea of flying an aircraft was to some
people.
Lilienthal, a pioneer in hang-gliding, had
controlled his gliders by shifting his body in
A. boring
the desired direction. This idea was repellent B. distasteful
to the Wright brothers, however, and they C. exciting
searched for more efficient methods to control D. needless
E. answer not available
the balance of airborne vehicles. In 1900 and
1901, the Wrights tested numerous gliders and
developed control techniques. The brothers' 41. People thought that the Wright brothers had
_ .
inability to obtain enough lift power for the
gliders almost led them to abandon their
A. acted without thinking
CS SOMYA KATARIA 29
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

B. been negatively influenced


C. been too cautious
D. had not given enough thought A. to a great height
E. acted in a negative way
B. to uplift

42. The Wright's interest in flight grew into a . C. Storage

D. None of the above.


A. financial empire
B. plan
C. need to act
D. foolish thought 47. Choose the antonym for ‘repulsive’.
E. answer not in article

43. Lilenthal's idea about controlling airborne A. Jovial


vehicles was the Wrights.
B. Morose

A. proven wrong by C. Sad


B. opposite to the ideas of
D. Disgusting
C. disliked by
D. accepted by
E. opposed by
48. How did the author describe the wright
44. The old tables were __ and replaced by brothers?
the first reliable figures for air pressure on
curved surfaces.
A. Clever
A. destroyed
B. canceled B. Impulsive fools
C. multiplied C. Bright minded
D. discarded
E. not used D. Repulsive

45. The Wrights designed and built their own


source of .
49. When did the wright brothers build their first
plane?
A. force for moving forward
B. force for turning around
C. turning
D. force to going backward A. 1896
E. none of the above
B. 1905

46. Choose the correct meaning of ‘Aloft’. C. 1903

D. All of the above

30 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
Answer Key 17. B 34. A
1. B 18. B 35. A
2. A 19. C 36. C
3. A 20. A 37. B
4. C 21. B 38. B
5. C 22. B 39. B
6. B 23. C 40. B
7. A 24. A 41. A
8. A 25. B 42. C
9. B 26. C 43. C
10. B 27. B 44. B
11. A 28. B 45. A
12. A 29. B 46. A.
13. C 30. B 47. D
14. C 31. A 48. B
15. B 32. A 49. C
16. A 33. B

CS SOMYA KATARIA 31
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

CHAPTER 4: BUSINESS COMMUNICATION


Concept, Characteristics & Importance of (C) (A) or (B)
Communication
(D) (A) & (B)
1. Communication is a process by which
6. Communication is essentially a _____ process.
information is exchanged between individuals
through a common system of - (A) One-way
(X) Symbols (B) Two-way
(Y) Signs (C) Simple
(Z) Behaviour (D) Complicated
Select the correct answer from the options given 7. Which of the following is an essential part of
below - communication?
(A) (X) and (Y) (A) Reply
(B) (Y) and (Z) (B) Acknowledgement
(C) (X) and (Z) (C) Feedback
(D) All of the above (D) Repetition
2. When one communicates to transact some 8. Communication is not an ongoing process.
commercial activity i.e., providing goods or (A) False
services, with the intention of generating profits,
then it is termed as - (B) True
(A) Informal communication (C) Partly false
(B) Social communication (D) None of above
(C) Self communication 9. Communication is essential -
(D) Business communication (A) In all types of organizations
3. "Colleges teach the one thing that is perhaps (B) At all levels of management
most valuable for the future employees to know. (C) (A) or (B)
This one basic skill is to organize and express
ideas in writing and speaking." This is said by - (D) (A) & (B)
(A) Peter Drucker 10. _____ is a written or a spoken message that
uses words to exchange ideas/information.
(B) Henry Fayol
(A) Non-verbal communication
(C) Adam Smith
(B) Verbal communication
(D) Fredrick Taylor
(C) Informal communication
4. As per Plain Language Commission, USP means
- (D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Unique Sales Position 11. _____ is an unspoken or unwritten message
that uses body language.
(B) United Selling Proposition
(A) Non-verbal communication
(C) Unique Selling Proposition
(B) Verbal communication
(D) Unique Selling Participation
(C) Informal communication
5. Plain Language Commission insisted that the
USP (Unique Selling Proposition) of Business (D) Both (A) and (B)
English should be: 12. Which of the following is non verbal
(A) Simplicity communication?
(B) Clarity (X) Oral communication

32 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
(Y) Written communication 16. Which of the following is not example of
written communication?
(Z) Audio-visual communication
(A) Memo
Select the correct answer from the options given
below - (B) Office order
(A) (X) (C) Circulars
(B) 00 (D) TV news
(C) (Z) 17. Which of the following is example of written
communication?
(D) None of the above
(A) Notice, agenda, notes on agenda
13. Which of the following is non-verbal
communication? (B) Minutes of meetings
P. Body language (C) Leaflet/Brochure/Handbills
Q. Visual communication (D) All of above
R. Audio-visual communication 18. Which of the following is not advantage of
written communication?
Select the correct answer from the options given
below - (A) It takes much more time to compose a
message in writing.
(A) R
(B) The use of headings and bullets enable us to
(B) Q
organize the material for better understanding.
(C) P
(C) It also enables us to revise the contents if we
(D) None of the above find them unsuitable for the recipient from the
14. Which of the following is verbal point of view of clarity or interest.
communication? (D) All of above
(I) Facial expressions (II) Gestures 19. Which of the following is not requirement(s)
(III) Audio-visual communication of effective written communication?

Select the correct answer from the options given (A) Inoffensive language
below- (B) Coherent presentation
(A) (I) (C) Careful listening
(B) (II) (D) All of above
(C) (III) 20. Language used in communication should be -
(D) (I) & (II) (A) Inoffensive
15. Non-verbal communication includes - (B) Complicated
I. Movements (C) Offensive
II. Meetings (D) (B) & (C)
III. Eye contact 21. Research studies have shown that _____ of
IV. Conferences communication by executives of a company is in
the oral form.
V. Nodding the head
(A) 80%
Select the correct answer from the options given
below - (B) 100%

(A) II, IV, I (C) 10%

(B) III, V, IV (D) 20%

(C) I, V, II 22. Which of the following cannot be treated as


oral communication?
(D) V, I, III
(A) Meetings/Conferences
(B) Radio
CS SOMYA KATARIA 33
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

(C) Facial expressions Encoding, Decoding, Message, Feedback, Sender,


Receiver
(D) All of above
(A) Message, Sender, Encoding, Decoding,
23. Which of the following can be treated as oral
Receiver, Feedback
communication?
(B) Sender, Message, Encoding, Receiver,
(i) Brainstorming sessions
Decoding, Feedback
(ii) Grapevine
(C) Sender, Message, Receiver, Encoding,
(iii) Eye contact Feedback, Decoding,
(iv) Presentation (D) Sender, Encoding, Decoding, Message,
(v) Radio listening Receiver, Feedback

(vi) Minutes of meetings 28. There are _____ C's of effective communication

Select the correct answer from the options given (A) Five
below - (B) Seven
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (v) (C) Three
(B) (iv), (v), (ii), (i) & (vi) (D) Ten
(C) (ii), (iv), (v), (iii) 29. Which of the following is/are not seven C's of
(D) (i), (ii), (v) effective communication?

24. Which of the following provide immediate & (A) Clarity of expression
quick feedback? (B) Conciseness of message
(X) Written communication (C) Courtesy towards recipient
(Y) Radio listening (D) Co-ordination in work
(Z) Oral communication 30. Which of the following is/are not seven C's of
Select the correct answer from the options given effective communication?
below - (A) Completeness of information
(A) (Y) (B) Consideration for receiver
(B) (X) (C) Cooperation in work place
(C) (Z) (D) Correctness of facts
(D) All of above 31. There must be at least three persons to allow
25. Which of the following can be treated as a the completion of the process in interpersonal
part of visual communication? communication.

(A) Grapevine (A) False

(B) Brainstorming sessions (B) True

(C) Neon hoardings (C) Partly false

(D) All of above (D) None of the above

26. Which of the following can be treated as a 32. Oral communication consumes more time
part of audio-visual communication? compared to written communication.

(A) Pagers (A) False

(B) Television (B) True

(C) Video conferencing (C) Partly false

(D) All of above (D) None of the above

27. Arrange the process of communication in 33. Lack of planning acts as a communication
proper form. barrier.

34 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
(A) False (A) Non-verbal communication
(B) True (B) Written communication
(C) Partly false (C) Oral communication
(D) None of the above (D) Audio visual communication
34. When people within the organization 41. Facial expressions; Gestures; Eye contact;
communicate with each other, it is said to be - Nodding the head and Physical appearances are
the form of -
(A) An informal communication
(A) Verbal communication
(B) An internal communication
(B) Non-verbal communication
(C) External communication
(C) Oral communication.
(D) Non-verbal communication
(D) Visual communication
35. People also communicate within the
organization at a personal level this is known as - 42. Inoffensive language is a sure way to -
(A) An informal communication (A) Build goodwill and reputation
(B) An internal communication (B) Break relationships
(C) Grapevine (C) Attract untalented staff
(D) (A)or(C) (D) All of the above
36. When the people in an organization 43. This type of communication flow usually
communicate with anyone outside the takes place between people of the same
organization it is called - status/level of hierarchv in the organization.
(A) An informal communication (A) Downward flow
(B) An internal communication (B) Horizontal flow
(C) External communication (C) Vertical flow
(D) Non-verbal communication (D) Upward flow
37. The flow or pattern of communication may be 44. In business, the purpose of writing is mainly
- to:
(A) Downward (A) Inform
(B) Upward (B) Persuade
(C) Diagonal (C) Both inform and persuade
(D) Any of the above (D) Entertain
38. Failure to communicate effectively in 45. The principles of effective writing include:
organizations is also known as -
(X) Brevity
(A) Flow of communication
(Y) Clarity
(B) Communication failures
(Z) Accuracy
(C) Barriers to communication
Select the correct answer from the options given
(D) None of above below-
39. Communication is an _____ process. (A) (X)
(A) Ongoing (B) (Y)
(B) One way (C) (Z)
(C) Three way process (D) All of the above
(D) None of the above 46. Communication is the task of imparting _____
40. Memo, Report, Office Order, Circulars, Staff (A) Training
Newsletters, Fax etc. are the form of -
(B) Information

CS SOMYA KATARIA 35
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

(C) Knowledge (B) internal-operational communication


(D) Message (C) personal communication
47. Select the statement about business (D) none of the above
communication that is not true
51. Which of the following is not an example of
(A) Business Communication may be upward or internal-operational communication?
downward.
(A) giving directives
(B) Business communication takes many forms-
(B) constructing reports
oral, print and electronic
(C) placing orders with suppliers
(C) In business you will be judged on your
professional expertise, not your communication (D) requesting data from subordinates
ability. 52. Mark the most inappropriate comment about
(D) If you communicate well, you are likely to be the grapevine in an organization:
promoted. (A) Wise managers ignore it.
48. When we consider the communication (B) It carries much gossip and rumor.
activities of an organization from an overall point
of view, the activities fall into three broad (C) It carries more information than the formal
categories: _____ communication network.
(A) electronic, face-to-face, and internal (D) Its nature will depend upon the
organization's members.
(B) external operational, external, and personal
53. Which of the following is not true of business
(C) internal operational, external operational, communication as a problem-solving activity?
and personal
(A) There is one best solution to each business
(D) operational, face-to-face, and personal communication problem.
49. In the workplace, internal personal (B) The business communication process may
communication _____ involve some backtracking rather than following
(A) is unacceptable a strictly linear path.
(B) can have a significant impact on the success (C) Solving business communication problems
of the operation involves creativity and judgment as well as
research and analysis.
(C) should be encouraged with no restrictions
(D) The basic plans for common types of business
(D) all of the above
messages need to be adapted to each situation.
50. An email message sent from the production
supervisor to a customer is classified:
(A) external-operational communication

Answers

1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (B)

8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (C) 50. (A) 51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (A)

15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (A)

22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (B)

29. (D) 30. (C) 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (D)

36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (B) 41. (B) 42. (A)

36 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION
UNIT 5: LISTENING SKILLS

7. Which listening barrier occurs when the coarse


language of the speaker offends a listener?

1. According to research, about what percent of o criticizing the speaker


each day does the average person spend listening? o emotional noise
o being self-absorbed
o 65% o external noise
o 45%
o 90% 8. The fear of misunderstanding others is called
o 10% o listener apprehension
2. What is the last step in the listening process? o physical noise
o information overload
o selecting o emotional noise
o responding
o remembering 9. The tendency of a self-absorbed listener to
o understanding require the conversation to focus on them is called
_______
3. Which step in the listening process involves
focusing on a particular sound or message? o Communication domination
o Emotional noise
o understanding o conversational monopoly
o remembering o conversational narcissism
o selecting
o attending 10. The average person speaks at what rate?

4. Which step in the listening process involves o 75 words per minute


assigning meaning to messages? o 100 words per minute
o 150 words per minute
o Selecting o 125 words per minute
o Understanding
o Attending 11. We have the ability to process approximately
o Responding how many words of speech per minute?

5. There is new evidence to suggest that o 200-400


listeners are morewords
likely per minute
to be skeptical when listening to info
o 600-800 words per minute
o time-oriented o 800-1000 words per minute
o content-oriented o 400-600 words per minute
o action-oriented
o people-oriented 12. Which of the following is the best definition of
empathy?
6. The self-absorbed listener is primarily focused on
o feeling that you want to help another
o Feeling sorry for other
o their own needs o Feeling sympathy for other
o waiting patiently for the speaker to finish o Feeling what someone is feeling
o the ideas being communicated by others
o connecting with the speaker 13. Active listening involves responding in what
three ways?

CS SOMYA KATARIA 37
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

o mentally, verbally, and non-verbally accuracy of the facts in a message.


o emotionally, mentally, and verbally d. all of the above.
o content, feelings, and thoughts
o emotionally, mentally, and spiritually

14. A statement that causes someone to value him 19. Which of these is not a barrier to listening?
or herself less is called a . a) Physical barrier
b) Cultural barrier
o confirming response c) Linguistic barrier
o disconfirming response d) Written barrier
o clarifying response
o direct acknowledgement

15. Which of the following is NOT a disconfirming 20. Which is the main barrier to listening?
response? a) Physical barrier
b) Linguistic barrier
o irrelevant response c) Cultural barrier
o Tangential response d) Physiological barrier
o Impersonal response
o Narcissistic response

16. Which of the following kinds of communication 21. Which of these is not a physiological barrier?
do students spend most time engaged in: a) Fear
b) Different perception
a. listening c) Gel effect
b. speaking d) Halo effect

c. reading.
d. writing
22. Barriers which are caused because of different
17: Which of the following behaviors are part of meanings of a word to different people is called
active listening? ________
a) different perception
a. maintain eye contact b) semantic distortions
b. nodding and making eye contact. c) physical barriers
d) cultural barriers
c. asking for clarification
d. all of the above.

18. Evaluative listening is successful when we: 23. Which of these occur because of difference in
language?
a. accurately distinguish stimuli in a a) Physical barriers
message. b) Linguistic barriers
b. understand the intended meaning of c) Cultural barriers
a message. d) Speech decoding
c. make critical assessments of the

38 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

29. What is an important use of body language and


active listening?

o to show you are listening


24. What is a situation that calls for using your o to encourage the person to talk
active listening skills? o to see how the speaker is feeling
o all of these
o riding the bus to school
o Watching TV
o Listening to Taylor Swift's new CD 30. Why do you need to use your eyes when
o When a teacher explains the homework actively listening?
assignment
o you don't
o to observe the speaker's body language
25. Why is it called "active listening"? o to make the speaker think you are tuned in
o none of these
o You stay active rather than sitting around.
o It requires a lot of multi-tasking.
o You use your eyes and brain as well as your 31. What is the first step to active listening?
ears.
o You look very focused. o grunt and nod
o ask questions
o look at the speaker
26. Which one is NOT part of active listening o give feedback

32. To understand another person's feeling about


o Look at the person
o something, the least important part may be
Encourage the person to talk
o Give advice o the facial expression
o Use empathy o the words
o the tone of voice
o the posture
27. Which one is NOT one of the ways to give
feedback when listening?
33. Which of the following is a sign of active
o repeat the information back
o listening?
give advice
o reflect how the speaker probably feels o paraphrasing, or summarizing what
o put their statement in your own words, to someone has said
clarify. o interrupting, or talking over someone
o changing the subject
o being totally silent while someone else talks
28. Which is NOT a good reason to use active
listening?
34. Which posture best shows that a person is
o to be a good friend
o actively listening?
to have time to think of what you want to
say o slouching
o to make sure you understand what to do o lying down
o to get more information o sitting up straight
o . standing with your back to the speaker
35. When you’re actively listening, you should look
________.

CS SOMYA KATARIA 39
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

o at the ground o because if you listen to others, you can


o at the speaker force them to listen to you
o out the window o because both the listener and the speaker
o at a page of notes give and receive something
o because it means you are walking and being
active while you listen
36. If you're facing the person speaking, you're o because two people are saying the same
always actively listening thing at the same time

o True
o False 41. True or false: Even if you're silent while
someone else speaks, you might not be actively
listening.
37. Akshay Kumar is giving a presentation on the
Central region of India. If you’re actively listening o true
you might ________. o false

o speak over her to describe your trip to


Ladakh 42. The tendency to listen to bits and pieces of
o raise your hand in the middle of the information that will enable you to find fault with
presentation to invite Akshay to the mall what the speaker has said is called
after school
o raise your hand at the end to ask her to o critical listening
clarify if Goa is part of that region
o o judgmental listening
stay quiet while daydreaming about your
trip to Manali in May o selective listening
o o offensive listening
38. Nigel is actively listening to Courtney. He is most
likely ________.

o nodding and trying to put himself in her


shoes 43. Evaluating consists of _____ messages:
o telling Courtney she is wrong before she
finishes speaking o Judging
o o Responding
waiting patiently for his turn to speak, so he
can change the subject to something more o Listening to
interesting o hearing
o facing away from Courtney
44. As a sympathetic listener, you should consider
39. William is talking to Jenna, but Jenna is not the message from the point of view of:
actively listening. William probably feels ________.
o Yourself
o o The audience
relaxed
o frustrated o The speaker
o cheerful o Others
o ashamed
45. When the listener listens partially, the listening
40. Why is active listening a "two-way street"? is______:

40 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

o Non-listeners
o Active listeners
o Distorted o Passive listeners
o Obstructed o Marginal listeners
o Helped
o Slanted
52. Which one of the following are not barriers of
Active listening:
46. Good listeners concentrate on:
o Language base
o Minor details o Diffidence
o Important words o Pre-judging the speaker
o The speaker’s every word o All of the above
o The speaker’s main thought

53. How to avoid personal prejudice for effective


47. Listening and hearing refer to: listening?
o The same thing o Try to be impartial
o Different things o Don’t become irritated
o Mental and physical acts o Don’t let the other person’s habits distract
o Specific act versus general act
you
o All of the above
48. A serious listener Concentrates on:
54. Becoming emotional is a______ for effective
o The speaker’s physical appearance
o The message communication.
o The speaker’s body language
o Characterstic
o Other thoughts
o Barrier
49. Dialogic listening is derived from:
o Tip
o 'dia', meaning 'through' and 'logos' meaning o Way to overcome barrier
'words'.
o 'dia', meaning two' and 'logos' meaning
55. Being empathetic means:
'symbols'
o 'dia', meaning 'through' and 'logos' meaning
o Showing sympathy
'signs'
o Have an emotional connect
o 'dia', meaning 'conversation' and 'logos'
o To feel what the other person is feeling
meaning 'words'.
o Prepare yourself to listen
50. Lovers talking is which types of listening?

o Selective listening
56. Volume and____ both add to what someone is
o Active listening
o Sympathy Listening saying.
o Relationship listening
51. ____ are opposite of passive listeners
o Tone
o Non-listeners
o Content
o Active listeners
o Physical appearance of the speaker
o Marginal Listeners
o Pitch
o Non-passive listeners
51. The listeners who only pay attention to the
main topic are:

CS SOMYA KATARIA 41
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

57. When people get involved into multi-tasking, o Active


they are doing _____: o Hearing
o Passive
o Marginal listening
o Partial Listening
o Active listening 63. They do not show empathy or sensitivity to the
o Non-marginal listening speaker. They are mostly prejudiced and
judgmental as they presume the meaning before
actually the speaker completes a sentence.
58. Hearing is more than listening.

o True
o False o Evaluative listeners
o Partially true o Passive Listeners
o None of the above o Non-listeners
o Ineffective Listeners
59. Listening is all about receiving information
through ___ and ____. 64. Which one of the following is not a barrier to
effective listening:
o Ears, mind
o Mind, heart o Pre-conceived ideas
o Ears, eyes o Faking attention
o All of the above o Interrupting
60. The most basic types of listening is: o None of the above

65. For ways to overcome barriers for effective


o Comprehension listening
communication, you should refrain from______:
o Appreciative Listening
o Sympathetic listening
o An immediate response
o Discriminative listening
o Preparing beforehand
o Prepare to focus
o All of the above
61. In ______, the listener has a purpose of not only
empathizing with the speaker but also to use this
deep connection in order to help the speaker 66. It is risky to communicate with ______ listeners
understand, change or develop in some way. because they are not focused on the main ideas and
often misunderstand their import.

o Passive
o Sympathetic listening o Non-listeners
o Empathetic Listening o Inactive
o Therapeutic Listening o Marginal
o Relationship listening 67. In which listening can you imply that the listener
is somehow biased to what they are hearing?
62. ______ “listening,” is actually hearing not
o Dialogic
listening. o Discriminative
o Selective
o Marginal
o Empathetic
42 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

sound or action.
o All of them are correct.
68. Evaluative listening is also called ______.

o Critical 70. Comprehension listening is also known as


o Judgemental content listening, informative listening and
o Interpretive
o All of the above Dialogic listening.

69. Which one of the following statements is


incorrect? o Partially true
o True
o Listening is more than hearing o False
o Hearing is a voluntary act o None of the above
o to listen simply means giving attention to

CS SOMYA KATARIA 43
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

Answers

1: B 2: B 3: D 4: B 5: C

6: A 7: B 8: A 9: D 10: D

11: B 12: D 13: A 14: B 15: D

16: A 17: D 18: C 19: D 20: A

21: C 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. C

26. C 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. B

31. C 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. B

36. B 37. C 38. A 39. B 40. B

41. B 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. B

46. C 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. D

51. D 52. A 53. D 54. B 55. C

56. A 57. A 58. B 59. C 60. D

61. C 62. D 63. A 64. D 65. A

66. D 67. C 68. D 69. B 70. A

44 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

UNIT 6: BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCE


1. A memorandum (Memo) is considered a brief (D) LEGAL NOTICE
form of written communication for -
5. Office circulars are part of …………….
(A) Formal use
(A) External communication
(B) External use
(B) Informal communication
(C) Internal use
(C) Internal communication
(D) Legal use
(D) None of above
2. Mark the most correct statement concerning
6. Fill in the blanks.
memorandums.
(A) Memorandums and letters have a similar …………… No. 3/44
appearance. It is brought to the notice of all employees that
(B) Hard-copy memorandums are signed at the the canteen facilities are being extended to S-31
bottom. building located in Sector 44 with immediate
effect. The existing practice of providing packed
(C) Large companies may include special lunch courtesy Air Kitchen is being discontinued.
headings adapted to the needs of the
organization. Suggestions about fare and quality may be made
to the undersigned or dropped in the box
(D) Most memorandums are extremely formal in provided on the premises.
nature.
Sd/-
3. When addressed to all employees, a
memorandum is as good as an - Hospitality Manager

(A) Office Circular (A) Intra note

(B) Office Note (B) Circular

(C) Office Memorandum (C) Public notice

(D) Legal Notice (D) None of above

4. Fill in the blanks. 7. Memorandum (Memos) is _____

XYZ ENGINEERING LIMITED PUNE (A) A note or record

Ref: 81/1/2019 (B) A mode of internal communication

13th February 2019 (C) A document to initiate disciplinary


proceedings
………………………
(D) A report of organizational updates
Shri Madan Kulkarni is hereby informed that the
office has no objection to his pursuing part time 8. The abbreviation 'ESOP' stands for -
M. A. Degree Course in the evenings after office (A) Employee Stock Option Plan
hours. However, grant of leave for
(B) Employee Share Option Plan
study/examination is subject to exigencies of
office work. (C) Employee Share Option Programme
Sd/- (D) Employee Stock Option Programme
Anuradha N Zad 9. Fill in the blanks.
Manager (Personnel) No. 34/4
(A) MEMORANDUM 7th February, 2019
(B) OFFICE CIRCULAR ………………………..
(C) NOTICE Mr. J.K. Saxena, Manager (Credits), Friends
Colony branch is transferred to the Regional

CS SOMYA KATARIA 45
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

Office on the same rank and pay. He shall hand (B) False
over charge to the Chief Manager and report at
(C) Partly true
the Regional Office by 10th February, 2019.
(D) None of above
Sd/-
15. Memos are used commonly for issuing
Personnel Officer
instructions to the staff, change in the policy
(A) Office order inviting suggestion, giving information, making
requests etc.
(B) Office circular
(A) True
(C) Public notice
(B) False
(D) Legal notice
(C) Partly true
10. Memorandums are preferred when one needs
to convey information in writing. (D) None of above
(A) True 16. The management is thinking of expanding
and wishes to invite referrals for recruitment,
(B) False they will write a -
(C) Partly true (A) Office Order
(D) None of above (B) Application
11. Office Notes are exchange between two (C) Note
different companies.
(D) Internal circular
(A) True
17. Whatever be the subject matter, the language
(B) False of the memo should be -
(C) Partly true
(A) Very strict & offensive
(D) None of above (B) Polite and courteous
12. Various documents used for internal (C) (A)or(B)
communications are -
(D) None of above
(A) Memorandums, office circulars, office orders,
office note, suggestions, complaints and 18. Office orders are documents where -
representations (A) Information is passed on to external
(B) Reports, press releases, advertisement shareholders
(C) Presentation, e-mail, social media reports, (B) Information is passed on to employees
blogs (C) Information is passed on to the media
(D) Notices, circulars etc. (D) Confidential information is shared with
13. Correspondence with regional/branch office employees
is part of - 19. Memorandum, office circulars, office orders,
(A) External communication office notes, suggestions, complaints and
representations are the various forms of -
(B) Informal communication
(A) External communication
(C) Internal communication
(B) Informal communication
(D) None of above
(C) Inter-organizational communication
14. A memo is similar to a letter both in format
and in its effect on the addressee. (D) Intra-organizational communication
(A) True

46 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

20. As manager you are informing the recipient (C) Press release
about his suspension. For this purpose ……… will
(D) Memorandum
be drafted.
25. These are used for disseminating information
(A) Advertisement
to a large number of employees within the
(B) Office Circular organization -
(C) Press Release (A) Office Circulars
(D) Memorandum (B) Representations
21. When a factory worker wish to reach out to (C) Public Notice
the management for implementation of certain
(D) None of the above
policy changes they will write a _____
26. The HR department is organizing a CSR
(A) Memo
Activity in a nearby village and wants to invite
(B) Office Order participants and volunteers. They will write a -
(C) Application (A) Circular
(D) Representation (B) Office Order
22. As manager you are appealing employees to (C) Representation
donate blood. For this purpose _____ will be
(D) Memorandum
drafted.
27. Memo, Report, Office order, Circulars, Staff
(A) Advertisement
Newsletters, Fax etc. are the form of -
(B) Office Circular
(A) Non-verbal Communication
(C) Press Release
(B) Written Communication
(D) Memorandum
(C) Oral Communication
23. Office Orders have a format similar to that of -
(D) Audio Visual Communication
(A) Representations
28. The purchase department wishes to purchase
(B) Advertisements expensive factory equipment. As per the rules,
tenders are invited from various vendors and
(C) Memorandums
suppliers. This will be done through -
(D) Press Release
(A) Tender notice in newspapers
24. Which of the following is not a form of intra-
(B) Letters
or- ganizational communication?
(C) Notice
(A) Representations
(D) Applications
(B) Office Notes

Answers

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B)

8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (B)

15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (D) 21. (D)

22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (A)

CS SOMYA KATARIA 47
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

UNIT 7: E-CORRESPONDENCE
1. Issuing a press release is primarily an exercise 6. The World Wide Web is a system of interlinked
in ………………….. ………. documents accessed via the Internet.
(A) Government relations (A) Special text
(B) Customer relations (B) Plain text
(C) Public relations (C) Hypertext
(D) Creditors relations (D) Webtext
2. A ………………….. is usually drafted in-house by 7. With a ………., one can view web pages that may
the Public Relations Officer of the company, who contain text, images, videos, and other multi-
makes available information with him which may media and navigate between them via hyperlinks.
be published without any major cuts in the print
(A) Fax
or electronic media.
(B) Web browser
(A) Press Report
(C) Phonogram
(B) Press Release
(D) Browser
(C) Public Notice
8. 'Internet' and 'World Wide Web' two terms are
(D) None of above
synonymous.
3. The alternative to a press release is a ……….
(A) True
(A) Office Order
(B) False
(B) Paid Advertisement
(C) Partly false
(C) Office Memorandum
(D) None of above
(D) Office Note
9. Which of the following protocol is used by the
4. In order to have a fair chance of selection, a web?
press release should have the following:
(A) HTTP
(A) News value
(B) HTPT
(B) Factual
(C) TTPH
(C) Suitable
(D) TPTH
(D) All of above
10. Which of the following is a web browser?
5. The following is format of ……….
(A) Google Chrome
TIMES OF INDIA (B) Internet Explorer
"Shri Shushant Kamalnath Gore has been elected (C) Firefox
President of the Punjab, Haryana, Delhi Chamber
of Commerce and Industry. Shri Shushant (D) All the above
Kamalnath is presently Chairman and Managing 11. Who is called the 'father of email' and is
Director of XYZ International Ltd., a multinational credited with its invention?
company".
(A) Aristotle
(A) Office Order
(B) Tomlinson
(B) Office Memorandum
(C) Merriam
(C) Office Note
(D) None of the above
(D) Press Release

48 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

12. E-mail is commonly known as ………. (C) Foreign Transfer Protocol


(A) E-correspondence (D) File Transfer Protocol
(B) E-communication 19. Abbreviation SMTP means ……….
(C) Both (A) & (B) (A) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(D) None of the above (B) Straight Mail Transfer Protocol
13. Unsolicited or Junk mails are filtered through (C) Simple Mail Tall Protocol
the option of ……….
(D) Simple Mail Transfer Promotion
(A) Spam
20. Email can be considered a confidential mode
(B) Attachments of communication.
(C) Packages (A) False
(D) None of the above (B) True
14. In 1965, the Massachusetts Institute of (C) Partly true
Technology (MIT) was the first to demonstrate
(D) None of above
the use of the first email system, known as:
21. An ………. means that only the company
(A) Email
employees that are set up on the server can
(B) Mailbox access the company pages
(C) Test mail (A) Internet
(D) Internet (B) Intranet
15. WWW stands for: ………. (C) Extranet
(A) Wide World Web (D) Webnet
(B) World Wide Web 22. E-Correspondence is an electronic, cost-
effective and fastest mode of communication as
(C) Web World Wide
of today.
(D) Wide Wide Web
(A) False
16. The ………. (MIT) was the first to demonstrate
(B) True
the use of the first email system, known as
MAILBOX. (C) Partly true
(A) Morocco Institute of Technology (D) None of above
(B) Massachusetts Institute of Technology 23. Email etiquettes must be strictly adhered to
in order to keep your communication authentic
(C) Manhattan Institute of Technology
and graceful.
(D) Melbourne Institute of Technology
(A) False
17. In year ………. email service was being offered
(B) True
in commercial packages and per-minute charges
were applicable to those using these services. (C) Partly true
(A) 1965 (D) None of above
(B) 1985 24. Press releases are usually sent to the -
(C) 1996 (I) Newspapers
(D) 1976 (II) Government
18. Abbreviation FTP means ………. (III) Electronic media
(A) File Transfer Promotion (IV) Leading news agencies
(B) File Tall protocol (V) Local authorities

CS SOMYA KATARIA 49
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

Select the correct answer from the options given (C) Eight hours time
below -
(D) None of above
(A) (I), (II) & (IV) only
31. Which of the following is applicable in case of
(B) (I), (II), (III) & (IV) only Telegrams?
(C) (I), (II) & (V) only (A) The message must be detailed
(D) (I), (III) & (IV) only (B) Time should be written according to the
twenty four hour clock
25. A press release is same thing as a press
report. (C) Normal grammar and punctuation may
always be followed
(A) False
(D) Block letters must not be used
(B) True
32. What began as an ………………. experiment in
(C) Partly true
computer communication technology during the
(D) None of above cold war has revolutionized the world.
26. Telegrams may also be communicated over (A) American
the telephone and this is popularly called ……….
(B) German
(A) Telephonogram
(C) Indian
(B) Telegram-phone
(D) None of above
(C) Phonogram
33. HTML means ……………….
(D) Pager
(A) High Text Markup Language
27. Advantages of Telegraphic Messages: ……….
(B) Hyper Telegraph Markup Language
(A) They are fast.
(C) Hyper Text Markup Language
(B) They are efficient.
(D) Hyper Text Marker Language
(C) They are economical.
34. Which of the following is a system of
(D) All of above interlinked hypertext documents accessed via the
28. Normal grammar and punctuation may be Internet ……………….
ignored in ………………. (A) Intranet
(A) Job application letter (B) Extranet
(B) Minutes (C) World Wide Web
(C) Telegram (D) None of the above
(D) E-mail 35. Which of the following protocol is used by the
29. The golden rule is to draft telegraphic web?
messages in ………………. (A) HTTP
(A) Small letters (B) HTPT
(B) Block letters (C) TTPH
(C) Capital letters (D) TPTH
(D) Block or capital letters 36. Which of the following is a web browser?
30. Generally .... is used while drafting telegram. (A) Google Chrome
(A) Twelve hours time (B) Internet Explorer
(B) Twenty four hours time (C) Firefox

50 CS SOMYA KATARIA
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

(D) All the above (B) Fax


37. This began as an American experiment in (C) Pager
computer communication technology during the
(D) None of above
cold war and has revolutionized the world
44. SMS means ……………….
(A) Fax
(A) Short More Service
(B) Emails
(B) Several Messaging Service
(C) Telegrams
(C) Short Messaging Service
(D) None of the above
(D) Several Machine Service
38. Who is called the 'father of email' and is
credited with its invention ………………. 45. In cases where the receiver has the
telegraphic code, the full address has to be
(A) Aristotle
mentioned.
(B) Tomlinson
(A) True
(C) Merriam
(B) False
(D) None of the above
(C) Partly true
39. No abbreviations such as 'UR' for 'your' are
(D) None of above
used in official communications.
46. The email message should be sent
(A) True
immediately after writing.
(B) False
(A) True
(C) Partly true
(B) False
(D) None of above
(C) Partly true
40. Telex machines allow exchange of ……………….
(D) None of above
(A) Photos
47. It is advisable to use the telephone to reply to
(B) Text invitation.
(C) Email messages (A) True
(D) None of the above (B) False
41. Fax is the abbreviated form of the word (C) Partly true
……………….
(D) None of above
(A) Facsimile
48. ………. are made in order to voice a grievance
(B) Faximile and to secure a relief.
(C) Fac (A) Office orders
(D) Simile (B) Presentations
42. ………………. means the transmission of an (C) Representations
exact copy of a document.
(D) Office circulars
(A) Fax
49. When an organization needs to share
(B) Pager important information with members of general
public such as a change of name or
(C) Telegram
representative, it drafts a ……….
(D) None of above
(A) Social Notice
43. ………………. can send pictures graphics or
(B) Public Notice
designs as well.
(C) Private Notice
(A) Telex machines
(D) Organizational Notice

CS SOMYA KATARIA 51
ETHICS & COMMUNICATION

50. In sending telegrams and telexes utmost (B) False


economy in the use of words is needed.
(C) Partly true
(A) True
(D) None of above
(B) False
53. Invitations are normally sent only when the
(C) Partly true occasion is very formal.
(D) None of above (A) True
51. In telegrams, normal grammar and (B) False
punctuation are often ignored in favour of
(C) Partly true
condensation.
(D) None of above
(A) True
54. Which of the following is cheapest mode of
(B) False
sending small size message?
(C) Partly true
(A) Fax
(D) None of above
(B) Email
52. In fax messages, conventional salutations and
(C) SMS
complimentary close are added.
(D) Telegram
(A) True

Answers

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B)

8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (B)

15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (B)

22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (C)

29. (D) 30. (B) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (A)

36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (B) 41. (A) 42. (A)

43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (B)

50. (A) 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (A)

52 CS SOMYA KATARIA

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