ORGANIZATIONAL DEVELOPMENT AND CHANGE MANAGEMENT

CHAPTER I
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Creativity is the process ……

a. thinking which enable individuals or groups to find novel solutions to unexpected
problems
b. Of conducting Survey to find out appropriate solution to the problem
c. Of transformation of input into output
d. Of working efficiently and effectively
2. Innovation is often conceptualized as------
a. Application of study of human behaviour
b. Finding out totally new and non existing things
c. The way of organizational change
d. Application of science and technology
3. Managing change is the ---
a. Managing people
b. Sudden change in the entire processes of manufacturing
c. Effective implementation of software programme
d. use of new ways of doing things, generating and selecting ideas, translating ideas
into innovations and moving the organization forward to meet the shifting
demands of dynamic business environments, is a complex business.

4. Following is not the key dimension of organizational change

a. Scope
b. Cost
c. Timeframe
d. Scale
5. External Factors responsible for change------
a. Demographic characteristics, Technology, marketing conditions, social and
political pressures
b. Nature of HR, Managerial decisions, deficiencies in existing management
structure
c. Avoid developing inertia, demographic characteristics, nature of HR
d. Technology, managerial decisions, social pressures
6. Creative industries means---------------
a. Non economic activities
b. Economic activities concerned with the generation or exploitation of knowledge
and information.
c. No durability to the products, hence no copyright protection to the creator
d. No demand uncertainty because the consumers’ reaction are known beforehand
7. Creativity is essential for the national prosperity in following ways
a. Generates employment , Demands and evolves new skills, Provides cutting edge
technology ,Improves overall standard of living
b. Increases productivity, effectiveness and efficiency of the organization
 c. Updates the technological development
d. Increases GDP and GNP of the nation
8. Diffusion of innovation theory states the five established adopter categories ….
a. Inception, Growth, Maturity, Declining, vanish
b. Innovators, Early adopters, Early Majority, Late Majority, Laggards
c. Upper level management, middle level management , Staff, technical support,
bottom level
d. Input, freezing, unfreezing, refreezing, output
9. Product/service innovation involves----
a. Improvement in operational processes
b. Innovative approach in the marketing
c. Innovative way of raising finance
d. Developing new products, enhancing existing products/services and technological
innovation.
10. Radical innovation represents ---
a. Exploitation of existing technology
b. Low uncertainty
c. Focuses on cost
d. Drastic change in the way that the product or the service is consumed
11. Key difference between creativity and innovation
a. Creativity is an imaginative process as opposed to innovation is a productive
process.
b. Creativity is a process of conducting Survey to find out appropriate solution to the
problem and innovation is an application of the solution discovered in the
creativity process
c. Creativity is an economic activity and innovation is non economic activity
d. Creativity is a thinking process and innovational is an experimental process
12. Schumpeter coined the term creative destructions which he defined as -----
a. a ‘process of industrial mutation that incessantly revolutionizes the economic
structure from within, incessantly destroying the old one, incessantly creating a
new one.”
b. that creates a new market and value network and eventually disrupts an existing
market and value network, displacing established market leading firms, products,
and alliances.
c. It reflects small continuous improvements in products or product lines.
d. It improves supply chain management of the company
TOPIC II

13. . The balanced scorecard allows managers to look at the business from four critical
indicators of current and future performance, these are ----
a. Human resource perspective, financial perspective, marketing perspective and
operation perspective
b. Financial perspective, customer perspective, internal business perspective and
learning growth perspective
 c. Financial perspective, marketing perspective, internal business perspective and
operation perspective
d. Financial perspective, customer perspective, internal business perspective and
operation perspective
14. To investigate whether improvements in manufacturing capabilities are leading to an
increase in profitability comes under---
a. Financial perspective of Balance score card
b. Marketing perspective of Balance score card
c. Internal business perspective
d. Learning growth perspective
15. According to Kalpan and Norton importance of aligning this scorecard information
with business strategy and this concept provides manager----------
a. performance measurement tool to a framework for determining the alignment of
strategy with an organization’s human information and resource capital.
b. a better understanding of how their companies are really doing and how their
current actions may influence tomorrow’s goals.
c. To translate strategic goals into tangible objectives and measures they suggest
four interrelated management processes.
d. All the above
16. In designing organizational structure six key elements play important role, these are
a. Marketing, finance, operation, Information technology, Human resource and
supply chain management
b. Work specialization, departmentalization, chain of command, span of control,
centralization/decentralization, and formalization.
c. Human resource planning, recruitment , selection, training, career opportunities
and succession planning
d. Job specification, job description, job enhancement, job enrichment, job
conditions and job expertise
17. Chain of command means ----
a. employees specialize in a single task. Jobs tend to be small, but they can be
performed efficiently.
b. The chain of command illustrates the authority structure of the organization.
c. number of employees reporting to a supervisor
d. communication lines
18. ------------ means that the people with authority and responsibility are subject to
reporting and justifying task outcomes to those above them in the chain of command.
a. Span of Management
b. Chain of command
c. Accountability
d. Authority, responsibility and delegation
19. -------means that decision authority is located near the top of the organization. With
-----------------decision authority is pushed downward to lower organization levels.
a. Formalization, departmentation
b. Strategy, system
c. Chain of command, span of management
d. Centralization, decentralization
20. ----------------------- are associated with mechanistic organization structure.
a. Goals of efficiency and a stable environment, rigidity, centralization and
formalization
b. Autonomy, uncertainty, decentralization and no formalization
c. Moderate freedom, moderate flexibility, decentralization and moderate
formalization
d. Uncertainty, flexibility, decentralization and formalization
21. ------------------- are associated with organic organization structure.
a. Hierarchy , centralization and formalization
b. Goals of efficiency and a stable environment, rigidity, centralization and
formalization
c. Moderate freedom, moderate flexibility, decentralization and moderate
formalization
d. Horizontal and decentralized, enabling the organization to be more fluid and
adaptable to changes
22. -----------is not an advantage of Entrepreneurial structure of the organization.
a. As soon as an element of the market alters, the entrepreneur should recognise it
and act quickly.
b. A lack of a chain of command
c. There is only on person taking decisions
d. Employees performing multiple tasks
23. -------------- structure resemble a bureaucracy.
a. Mechanistic
b. Organic
c. Product based
d. Functional
24. ------- is not a benefit of matrix structure of organization.
a. Minimize uncertainty
b. Increases informal and formal communication within the organization
c. Providing quick responses to technical problems and customer demands
d. Power struggles or turf wars among managers
25. Strategic Alliance is a form of ------------
a. Boundaryless organization
b. Matrix organization
c. Project organization
d. Learning organization
26. In learning organizations---------
a. Experimenting, learning new things, and reflecting on new knowledge are the
norms
b. Necessary to work with a team consisting of employees with different functional
backgrounds increases the potential for task conflict at work
c. Flexible and decentralization
d. Virtual networking and no boundaries
 Topic III
Organization Culture
27. Kotler and Heskett defines culture as -------
a. ‘Way of running day to day organizational activities
b. Values and ethics which are institutionalized
c. “ values that are shared by the people in a group … at the more visible level,
culture represents the behavior patterns or style of an organization that new
employees are automatically encouraged to follow by their fellow employees.’
d. Values and ethics of an individuals who are working in the organization
28. The dominant characteristic of culture is -------
a. a shared phenomenon, visible and less visible, and learned
b. Culture exists in bottom level of the organization
c. Culture is modern and contemporary
d. Culture is not at all related to organizational development
29. ----------------- perspective focuses on cultural manifestations that have inconsistent
interpretations, such as when top executives announce a policy and then behave in a
policy-inconsistent manner.
a. Integration
b. Fragmentation
c. Differentiation
d. Cost
30. Which statement is False in context to Attraction -Selection-Attrition
a. Employees in the organization leave the organization
b. the company attracts, selects, and retains people who share its core values,
whereas those people who are different in core values will be excluded from the
organization
c. refers to the process through which new employees learn the attitudes, knowledge,
skills, and behaviors required to function effectively within an organization.
d. Refers to the process through which old employees are retrenched.
31. ------ is the type of reward system
a. Succession planning
b. Pay for performance
c. Change management
d. Punishment
32. ----------- are the norms that promote creativity and innovation
a. Focus on work specialization, no mistakes , no learning environment
b. Focus on efficiency and effectiveness, quality control and no rejection
c. Focus on an idea generation , Supporting a continuous learning culture, ,tolerance
of mistakes
d. Focus on Human resource development and career planning

TOPIC IV

33. The term organisational development (OD) refers ----

a. Experimentation and testing potentially better operational methods are
encouraged.
 b. To a specific set of change interventions, skill, activities, tools or techniques that
are used to help people and organisations to be more effective and in its most
restrictive usage,
c. Development of individual and groups in the organization
d. To resolve organizational conflicts prevailing at individual level and group level
34. According to Richard Beckhard, organization development is defined as---------
a. A planned effort , Organisation-wide , Managed from the top , To increase
organisation effectiveness and health through planned interventions in the
organisation’s ‘processes’, using behavioral science knowledge.
b. A complex strategy intended to change the beliefs, attitudes, values, and structure of
organisations so that they can better adapt to new technologies, markets, and
challenges.
c. “anything done to better an organisation”; it is a particular kind of change process
designed to bring about a particular kind of end result.
d. A systematic application of behavioral science knowledge to the planned development
and reinforcement of organisational strategies, structures and processes for improving
an organisation’s effectiveness.
35. ------ is not the characteristic of Organizational Development
a. OD focuses on culture and processes.
b. It focuses on the human and social side of the organisation.
c. OD realize on the action research model with extensive participation by client
system participation.
d. New ways of doing things, generating and selecting ideas, translating ideas into
innovations and moving the organization forward to meet the shifting demands of
dynamic business environments,
36. ------ is not a normative goal of Organizational Development listed by Warren Bennis
a. Improvement in interpersonal competence.
b. A shift in values so that human factors and feelings come to be considered legitimate.
c. Development of increased understanding between the working groups in
organisations to reduce tensions.
d. Away from avoidance of risk taking towards willingness to take risk.
37. -------- is one of the objective of Organizational Development.
a. Refines, combines, displaces and overlaps with what has gone before
b. Motivate employees to comply the targets
c. It keeps work organisation productive as well as hospitable for members as it
helps in developing strategy for intelligently facing the requirements of changing
world and coping up effectively the environment.
d. Avoid developing inertia
38. ---- are the features of Organization Development
a. To improve the functioning of individuals, teams and the whole organisation.
b. To improve the financial performance of the organization
c. To improve the sales performance of the organization
d. To improve the operational performance of the organization

39. Change Agent is ======

a. Person with technical expert skill
b. A behavioural scientist
c. software
 d. unexperienced person
40. An organisation that has a problem and wants to solve that is -----
a. Sponsoring Organization
b. Client Organization
c. Subsidiary Organization
d. Acquired organization
41. Orgnization Development interventions focus on ----
a. internal and external functioning and relationship
b. the total culture and cultural processes of organisations and group
c. Monitoring health of organizations
d. Monitoring behavioural change
42. OD process is action oriented and ends, when:-
a. Desired development result is obtained
b. Plan is implemented
c. Data is gathered
d. Problem is identified

TOPIC V
43. Katz and Kahn have described the characteristics of a ‘system’as follows
a. Interdependency, interconnectedness, and interrelatedness among elements in
asset that constitutes an identifiable whole or gestalt.
b. Input-throughput-output Mechanism, delineated by a boundary, proposes goals
for their existence
c. Closed environment
d. Open environment
44. The theories of Organizational Development are categorized in -----
a. Life cycle, technology, dialectical and evolutionary theories
b. Structural, environmental, technological and life cycle theories
c. Organization design, organization change, organizational development and
incremental theories
d. Human resources, technical resources and financial resources
45. Holistic change programme have guided changing with Organizational Development-
a. Focus is dialogic and builds on conversation about change and changing
b. Focus is likely to be diagnostic, drawing on traditional action research. May also
be dialogic and draw on any of the action modalities.
c. Focus is likely to be diagnostic, drawing on traditional action research
d. Focus on overall development of the organization
46. Limited change programmes are aimed at addressing a specific problem, such as----
a. Recruitment, selection, training and development
b. Low performance, communication, operational improvement
c. Team building, communication improvement, management development
operational improvement
d. Time, quality, customer value, and then use these, by-design, as levers for
changing the organization system-wide.
47. Directed change is--------
 a. Where there is a clear goal and vision of the future and leadership devises a
roadmap to reach it and influences how it is reached
b. Where the direction is loosely defined and leadership points the way and keeps
watch over the process
c. Where there are tightly defined goals and leadership directs and commands
d. Where there are not tightly defined goals and plans for execution
48. Action research can be defined as ---------------
a. Interdisciplinary research
b. Inquiry about attitude, perception and behaviour of the employees
c. Tool for solving financial problems
d. An emergent inquiry process in which applied behavioural science knowledge is
integrated with existing organizational knowledge and applied to solve real
organizational problems.
49. David Nadler and associates developed ----------- model
a. Pay for performance model
b. Management by objectives
c. Socio Technical model
d. Congruence model
50. Congruence model depicts three major inputs-----------
a. Men, material, money resources
b. Environment, Resources, History
c. Planning, organizing, directing
d. Collaboration, coordination, control
51. Socio Technical theory developed by ---
a. Katz and Kahan
b. F.W.Taylor
c. Trist and others
d. David Nadler and associates
52. According to Socio Technical theory organizations are comprised of -----
a. Two independent systems, a social system and a technical system.
b. Two independent systems a socialism and totalitarianism
c. Tow independent systems political and legal systems
d. Two independent systems of compensation and benefits
TOPIC VI
53. The ‘organizational diagnosis’ means:-
a. To understand the competitors organizational problems, Understanding positive
and negative attributes of the competirors’ organization,
b. To understand the competitors organizational problems , Understanding positive
and negative attributes of the own organization
c. To understand organizational problems , Understanding positive and negative
attributes of the organization
d. To understand market problems and understanding positive and negative attributes
of the market
54. . Diagnostic models for analyzing problems explore three levels of activities
mentioned below
a. Top level management, middle level management and bottom level management
b. Organizational level, Group level and individual level
c. Staff level, line level and top level
d. None of the above
55. . . Planning strategy for change involves--------
a. Overall goals for change, determination of the basic approach for attaining these
goals, Sequence of detail scheme
b. Communication, training, determination of way for attaining goals and
implementation
c. Technology to be used and implementation plan
d. overall goals, communication, training and implementation
56. . . Chein, Cook, and Harding describe four varieties of action research:---
a. Data collection, analysis and conclusion
b. Data collection, feedback and action
c. Diagnostic, Participant, Empirical and experimental
d. None of the above
57. .. OD interventions gives emphasis on ----------
a. change in the structure
b. Technological development
c. management of work team and work team culture
d. strategic planning
58. . . Large scale interventions have -------- approach
a. Bottom up approach
b. Top down approach
c. Horizontal approach
d. Radical approach
59. . . Strategic intervention includes -----
a. Organizational change readiness
b. Organizational development
c. Change in the organizational policies
d. Setting up of Mission/vision/purpose , strategic planning and goal setting
60. .Techno Structural interventions focus on -----
a. Improving the organizational effectiveness and Human development
b. Redefining the leadership profiles
c. Setting up of Mission/vision/purpose , strategic planning and goal setting
d. strategic planning
61. . . Team development and group processes interventions aims --------
a. Minimization of group conflicts
b. Improving different aspects of a group performance
c. Creating continuous development culture
d. Redefining the leadership profiles
62. . . Structural interventions are aimed at -----------
  a. Redefining the leadership profiles
b. Improving different aspects of a group performance
c. Creating continuous development culture
d. changes task, structural and technological subsystems of organization
63. . .-------- Principle of organization theory suggests each in an organization should be
responsible to one superior
 a. Scalar chain
b. Unity of command
c. Clarity
d. Span of control
64. . . ---------this refers to the number of specialized activities or individual supervised by
one person
a. Scalar chain
b. Unit of command
c. Clarity
d. Span of Control
65. Departmentalisation refers to the grouping of activities or jobs involving common
functions is known as------
a. Product departmentation
b. Process Departmentation
c. Functional Departmentation
d. None of the above
66. . . ------------ is not advantage of product departmentation
a. Functional expertise
b. Easier communication between sub-units;
c. Less complex coordination mechanisms;
d. Providing a training ground for top management
TOPIC VIII
67. Monitoring ensures that--------
a. the delivery of an intervention is on track.
b. tracking of financial performance
c. tracking of human resource performance
d. base for evaluation
68. Evaluation is conducted to see -------
a. To know customer satisfaction
b. To evaluate the organizational performance
c. The intervention created the change intended
d. Monitoring is going on well
69. Following is not the purpose of evaluation
a. Measure the input-output relationship
b. Measure overall judgement and accountability
c. Measure learning and development
d. Measure technical and political challenges
70. Following is not the benefit of the evaluation
a. encourages to define and refine theory of Change .
b. helps to clarify desired OD objectives and outcomes
c. help to keep it on
d. help to unlearn and relearn
71. The measure challenge of OD is--------
a. Managing expectations
b. Managing finance
c. Managing competition
d. Managing Information system
72. ---------------- methods are used to collect data that can be analysed in a numerical
form. ------------ methods are those that allow things to be measured or counted, or ask
questions in such a way that the answers can be readily coded and analysed
a. Filed survey, experimental
b. Ranking, Rating
c. Diagnosis, Dialysis
d. Quantitative, Qualitative
73. Commonly used quotative method for monitoring and evaluating OD is --------
a. Survey
b. Checklist
c. Outcome mapping
d. All the above
74. Following is not the example of Quantitative method of monitoring and evaluation
a. Group discussion
b. Interviews
c. Oral story telling
d. All the above
75. The objective of conducting change readiness survey is --------
a. To evaluate satisfaction of training participants
b. To measure the hit rate
c. To understand how stakeholder groups are feeling about the change at different
points in time
d. To measure the Human resource readiness
76. -----Can be used to measure communicators metrices
a. Marketing analytics
b. Operation Analytics
c. HR analytics
d. Google Analytics
77. Action research starts with -----
a. What exists
b. If analysis
c. Future changes
d. History
78. With a view to measure cost benefit analysis manager may use--------
a. Quality control, capital budgeting, manufacturing speed and effectiveness
b. Cost reduction, Revenue increase, Transaction speed, Process efficiency
c. Time reduction, return on investment, operation speed and effectiveness
d. Productivity, return on investment, sales turnover and market share
79. ----- is the characteristic of influencer change leader.
a. Leverage operational efficiency
b. leverage their network and influence to market and garner the traction required to
make the initiative successful
c. drive the failure
d. Leverage financial efficiency
80. Change Maturity assessment is focused on --------
a. Human resource development
b. Improvement in internal and external environment
c. Resistence to change
d. Building change capability across the organization across different dimensions
81. Under Change management measure model Enterprise consists-------
a. Change benefit tracking
b. Change leadership assessment
c. Change capacity assessment
d. Change maturity assessment
82. Business level measures are those that measure----------
a. To what extent the business has the right ability, capacity, and readiness for the
change.
b. Measures leadership ability
c. Measures complexity
d. Measure productivity
83. Enterprise level change measures compares-------
a. Performance of different business units in a firm
b. Performance of industry
c. Global performance
d. No performance evaluation
84. -----is the point of difference between monitoring and evaluation.
a. Monitoring focuses on output and evaluation focuses on output and impact
b. No difference at all
c. Evaluation comes first and monitoring comes at the end
d. Monitoring and evaluation are not related to output and impact
85. ------------ are based on participant satisfaction across various categories such as
content, instructor effectiveness, usefulness, etc
a. Communication metrices
b. Salary survey
c. Performance appraisal
d. Training Evaluation survey
Based on PPTs
86. Process for planned organizational change includes----
a. Inception, growth, maturity, declining and vanish
b. Old state, unfreeze, change , refreeze, new state
c. Top, middle, staff, line and bottom
d. Incremental, radical, transformational and new state
87. ---------- is not the source of Resistance to change
a. Security
b. Habit
c. Social Factors
d. Awareness
88. Shared values of the organization are those------------
a. Values reflected in the way of individual actually behave
b. Shared among the entire industry
c. Shared among the global industries
d. Shared among organizational members
89. --------- is not the strength of bureaucracy.
a. Economies of scale
b. Enhanced communication
c. Obsessive concern with rules and regulations
d. Higher productivity
90. Team structure of organization -----------
a. Use of team as the central device to coordinate work activities
 b. Is a structure of dual lines functional and product
c. Is a Structure of highly operating routine tasks
d. Is a structure of exceptional operating task
91. For innovation strategy, the suitable structure will be ------
a. Mechanistic structure
b. Organic structure
c. Matrix structure
d. Vertical structure
92. This is an indicator of size of the organization
a. Number of labours, High turnover, More specialization and horizonal growth
b. Net wealth
c. Internal and external environment,
d. Divisional structure of the organization
93. Inter role conflicts means -----
a. When there are incompatible components within the same role
b. When the expectations from two separate roles clash
c. Group conflicts
d. All the above
94. -------------- is not conflict management strategy
a. Accommodation
b. Avoidance
c. Competition
d. Commitment
95. --------means reduce the number of stressors and -----means improve the employees
stamina against unavoidable stress
a. Stress reduction, stress resilience
b. Stress reduction, stress recuperation
c. stress recuperation , stress resilience
d. stress resilience, stress recuperation
96. ----- is not a culture’s function
a. Boundary-defining
b. Conveys a sense of identity for organization members
c. Facilitates commitment to something larger than one’s individual self-interest
d. Creating net wealth
97. ----------- possess good social skills and empathy
a. Fragmented culture
b. Mercenary culture
c. Communal culture
d. Networked culture
98. --------- is not a remedy for overcoming resistance to change
a. Compromise
b. Education and communication
c. Facilitation and support
d. Participation and involvement

99. ---- is not a Strategy for merging cultures

a. Assimilation
b. Separation
c. Integration
d. Compromising
100. People who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for managing
change activities is known as –
a. Leader
b. Change agent
c. Change manger
d. Change Consultant
***********Best Luck************