HAND TOOLS TEST

OM
1. At what angle is the point on a centre punch ground?
A.120 degrees
B. 100 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 60 degrees
Answer: C

2. At what angle is the point on a prick punch ground?

A. 120 degrees

.C
B. 100 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 60 degrees
Answer: D

PS
3. How is the size of a machinist’s vise determined?
A. By the width of the vise jaws
B. By the length of the vise handle
C. By the size of the casting
D. By the length of the body
Answer: A
AP
4. How is the size of a “C” clamp determined?
A. By the length of the threaded screw
B. By the length of the handle
C. By the cross sectional area of the body casting
D. By the size of the jaw opening
Answer: D
AM

5. What is an advantage of using a torque limiting wrench?

A. It allows you to measure how far a bolt is threaded into a workpiece
B. It allows you to determine the weight of the nut and bolt
C. It allows you to measure the amount of tightening of a threaded fastener
D. It allows you to double the amount of tightening force
Answer: C

6. In which direction should you turn a wrench when loosening a threaded

EX

fastener?
A. Always turn the wrench clock wise
B. Always turn the wrench counter clock wise
C. Push the wrench away from you
D. Pull the wrench towards you
 Answer: D

7. Why are pipe wrenches not used on finished machined part surfaces?

OM
A. A pipe wrench will not grip on a finished machined surface
B. A pipe wrench does not have serrated teeth for gripping work
C. A pipe wrench has serrated teeth that bite into the work surface
D. A pipe wrench is not made in sizes large enough to grip most work
Answer: C

8. What are pin punches used for?

A. To undo flush and recessed type threaded fittings
B. To tighten hexagonal headed threaded fasteners

.C
C. To provide a starting hole before drilling
D. To remove straight, taper, and roll pins
Answer: D

9. What is one of the advantages of using a standard screwdriver?

PS
A. It is not necessary to maintain the end of the screwdriver in good condition
B. Screws are available with this stile of head in a wide range of sizes
C. It can also be safely used as a pry bar
D. It can also be safely used as a chisel
Answer: B
AP
10. How is the size of a ball peen hammer determined?
A. By the diameter of its head
B. By the length of its handle
C. By the weight of its handle
D. By the weight of its head
Answer: D
AM

11. How many strokes per minute are normally used when hacksawing ½
thick mild steel bar?
A. 120 to 200
B. 80 to 120
C. 60 to 80
D. 40 to 60
Answer: D

12. What is the purpose of the set on a hacksaw blade?

EX

A. To strengthen the blade along its entire length

B. To increase the width of the kerf providing clearance for the blade body
C. To allow the blade to be easily mounted in the hacksaw frame
D. To allow the hacksaw teeth to be reground easily
Answer: B
 13. How many teeth on the blade of a hacksaw should be in contact with the
workpiece at any one time?

OM
A. Only one
B. At least three
C. Between 20 to 30
D. Between 40 to 50
Answer: B

14. What is an advantage of using a single cut file over a double cut file?
A. A single cut file will remove material more quickly
B. A single cut file will leave a smoother surface finish

.C
C. A single cut file cuts on the reverse as well as the forward stroke
D. A single cut file is made from a harder metal
Answer: B

15. Which of the following are grades of file roughness?

PS
A. Fine, second cut, bastard
B. Bastard, smooth, fine
C. Slick, coarse, rough
D. Rough, course, bastard
Answer: D
AP
16. It is always necessary to use a file with a file handle?
A. Only on large files
B. Yes
C. Only when working in confined spaces
D. Only on smaller files
Answer: B
AM

17. What is the term used to indicate that soft metal has become trapped in
the teeth of a file?
A. The file is clogged
B. The file is pinned
C. The file is wedged
D. The file is blocked
Answer: B

18. What equipment is used to remove soft metal that has become lodged in
EX

the teeth of a file?

A. A small drill
B. Another file
C. A wire brush
D. A file card
 Answer: D

DRILL AND DRILLING

OM
1. Which of the following drills is most useful for drilling very deep holes?
A. Micor drill
B. Core drill
C. Jobber drill
D. Gun drill
Answer: D

2. Which of theses drills is most suitable for enlarging an existing hole?

.C
A. jobber drill
B. gun drill
C. micro drill
D. core drill
Answer: D

A. ceramics
B. cubic boron nitride
C. high speed steel
PS
3. What material are the majority of twist drills made from?

D. O1 tool steel
AP
Answer: C

4. How is the size of a drill specified?

A. with a numbering system from 1 to 1000
B. with a lettering system from A to D
C. With a unified system of SAE codes
D. With fractional letter and number sizes
AM

Answer: D

5. How many flutes does a core drill have?

A. more than 2
B. always an odd number
C. a single one
D. always more than 6
Answer: D
EX

6. Which of the following statements is true?

A. drilled holes are always the exact diameter of the drill
B. drilled holes always have a good surface finish
C. drilled holes cannot be relied upon to be straight
D. drilled holes are always round
 Answer: C
7. Why are drills sometimes coated with a very thin layer of titanium
nitride?

OM
A. the coating imparts a pleasing appearance
B. the coating imparts a measure of self lubricant
C. the coating stops the drill from rusting
D. the coating increases the carbon content on the cutting edges
Answer: C

8. What is the included point angle of a twist drill?

a. 118 deg
b. 90 deg

.C
c. 120 deg
d. 45deg
Answer: A

PS
REAMING AND REAMERS

1. What is one of the drawbacks when using a regular expansion reamer?

A. It normally produces under sized holes
AP
B. The tool may expand without warning
C. The tool may chatter
D. It is difficult to hold in the machine
Answer: C

2. How should a reamer be removed from a finished hole?

A. Increase the spindle speed, before removing the reamer
AM

B. Run the reamer backwards for a few seconds

C. Remove the reamer before stopping the machine
D. Switch the machine off
Answer: C

3. What type of reamer is used to machine a bore with a keyseat?

A. Helical fluted
B. Straight flute
C. Concave flute
EX

D. Convex flute
Answer: A

4. How do reamer manufacturers try to reduce the possibility of chatter

during a reaming operation?
A. By making the reamer from softer metal
 B. By making the reamer from harder metal
C. By staggering the spacing of the teeth
D. By spacing the teeth equally

OM
Answer: C

5. What is one of the differences between a hand and machine reamer?

A. Hand reamer have a very short starting or lead taper
B. Hand reamers have a very long starting or lead taper
C. Hand reamers always have tapered shanks
D. Hand reamers always have straight flutes
Answer: B

.C
6. When are expansion style reamers used?
A. When a bore needs to be enlarged slightly to achieve a close fit
B. When a bore needs to be opened up by a large amount
C. When chatter in the hole is a problem
D. When coolant is not available in large quantities
Answer: A
PS
7. Which of the following statement is true?
A. When machining a ¼ dia hole we leave 0.005 for hand reaming
B. When machining a ¼ dia hole we leave 0.050 for hand reaming
C. When machining a 1.0 dia hole we leave 0.100 for machine reaming
AP
D. When machining a 1.0 dia hole we leave 0.200 for machine reaming
Answer: A

8. Which machine reamer is recommended for cutting blind holes in ductile

metals?
A. Left hand helix
B. Right hand helix
AM

C. Straight tooth
D. Involute tooth
Answer: B

9. Why are reamers used?

A. To finish machine holes to a specific diameter
B. To rough out a hole ready for final finishing
C. To produce elliptical holes in steel
D. To burnish a hole to a high shine
EX

Answer: A

10. What material are reamers normally made from?

A. High speed steel
B. Cubic boron nitride
 C. Aluminum oxide
D. Ceramics
Answer: A

OM
THREADS

The following 4 questions are based on: ¾ -16 UNF 1A

1. How many threads per inch are there?

.C
A. ¾
B. 1
C. 1/16
D. 16
Answer: D

B. British Standard
C. American sharp V
D. Unified
PS
2. What type of thread is this?
A. Metric
AP
Answer: D

3. What does the ¾ represent?

A. The pitch
B. The nominal size
C. The major diameter
D. The minor diameter
AM

Answer: B

4. What does the 1A tell you about the thread?

A. The outside diameter of the thread
B. It is and internal thread
C. It is an external thread
D. The nominal size of the thread
Answer: C
EX

4. When are fine threads used?

A. On ductile materials
B. On thin walled tubing
C. When fast movement of the nut is required
D. When low locking potential is required
 Answer: B

5. Which thread form is the most efficient?

OM
A. Square
B. Acme
C. Buttress
D. V
Answer: A

6. Which thread form is most commonly used?

A. Square
B. Acme

.C
C. Buttress
D. V
Answer: D

PS
TAPS AND TAPPING
1. What happens if a machine tap is used in the same way as a hand tap?
A. The cutting edges will chip
B. The tap will become soft
AP
C. The Tang will not engage properly
D. The chips will be long and stringy
Answer: A

2. What are most taps made from?

A. Low carbon steel
AM

B. High speed steel

C. Aluminum alloys
D. Stellite
Answer: B

3. When are gun taps used?

A. For machine tapping
B. For cleaning out existing tapped holed
C. For tapping in hardened steel
EX

D. For tapping shallow blind holes

Answer: A

4. What coatings are applied to enhance the life and cutting capacity of taps?
A. Tungsten carbide
B. Aluminum dioxide
 C. Titanium nitride
D. Potassium chromate
Answer: C

OM
5. What is the required length of thread engagement in relation to the screw
diameter?
A. 1 and a half inches
B. One and one half times the screw diameter
C. 1 inch
D. Twice the screw diameter
Answer: B

.C
6. How are broken taps removed from a work piece?
A. With a HSS drill
B. With a High carbon steel drill
C. With an EDM machine
D. With a diamond point extractor
Answer: C

A. External taps
B. Die blocks
C. Diestocks
PS
7. What tools are used to cut external threads by hand?
AP
D. Threading die
Answer: D

8. What are the 3 taps found in a standard tap set?

A. Starter, middle and Ending
B. Starter, Plug and Bottoming
C. First, second and third
AM

D. Initial, intermediate and final

Answer: B

9. What tap drill is used to create a 75% approx. thread depth in a 3/8-16
UNC threaded hole?
A. Letter O
B. Letter F
C. Number 42
D. 5/32 inch
EX

Answer: A

10. What tap drill is used to create a 70% approx thread depth in an M18x1.5
threaded hole?
A. 7/16 inch
 B. Letter J
C. Number 21
D. 16.5 mm

OM
Answer: D

GRINDING

1. What causes a grinding wheel to become loaded?

.C
A. The grit is too hard
B. The grit is too soft
C. The structure is too dense
D. The structure is too open
Answer: C

PS
2. What causes a grinding wheel to become glazed?
A. The grade of the wheel is too hard
B. The grade of the wheel is too soft
C. The structure is too dense
D. The structure is too open
AP
Answer: A

3. What type of grinding wheel abrasive is used to grind aluminum?

A. Aluminum oxide
B. Resinoid
C. Silicon carbide
D. Vitrified
AM

Answer: C

4. What type of grinding wheel abrasive is used to grind HSS cutters?

A. Aluminum oxide
B. Resinoid
C. Silicon carbide
D. Vitrified
Answer: A
EX

5. What type of abrasive is used in a grinding wheel when sharpening solid

carbide cutters?
A. Aluminum oxide
B. Resinoid
C. Silicate
D. Diamond
 Answer: D

6. What does the letter “A” represent in the grinding wheel designation-

OM
A60K8V?
A. Grain size
B. Wheel structure
C. Type of abrasive
D. Type of bond
Answer:C

7. What does the letter “K” represent in the grinding wheel designation
A60K8V?

.C
A. Grain size
B. Wheel structure
C. Wheel grade
D. Type of bond
Answer: C

B. A harder wheel
PS
8. In general terms what type of wheel should you use on softer material?
A. A softer wheel

C. A wheel with fine grains

D. A wheel with a closed structure
AP
Answer: B

9. What causes a grinding wheel to become loaded?

A. When the load of the grinding wheel exceeds the power of the machine
B. When the cutting grains are too friable and break away too easily
C. When the wheel structure is too open and there is insufficient bonding of
the grains
AM

D. When particles of material become embedded in the spaces between the

grains
Answer: D

10. Why are the cutting surfaces of grinding wheels dressed?

A. To enhance their appearance
B. To soften the wheel before grinding
C. To remove loose grit in the wheel
D. To expose new cutting grains
EX

Answer: D

11. What type of grinding machine has a horizontal spindle and a

reciprocating table that moves from side to side?
A. A blanchard grinder
 B. A centerless grinder
C. A pedestal grinder
D. A surface grinder

OM
Answer: D

12. What equipment is used to dress a form on the cutting face of a type 1
grinding wheel mounted on a horizontal spindle surface grinder?
A. A desmond dresser
B. A star wheel dresser
C. A crush roll dresser
D. A Rockwell dress
Answer: C

.C
13. What material is used to condition the cutting face of a grinding wheel
when using a single point dressing attachment?
A. Tungsten carbide
B. Diamond
C. Emerald
D. HSS
Answer: B
PS
14. What grinding problem can result from using dirty cutting fluid?
A. chatter marks appear along edge of work
AP
B. Work surface shows signs of burning
C. Wheel becomes out of balance
D. Fishtail marks appear on work surface
Answer D

15. What procedure is used to reduce the chances of burning the surface of
thin long work?
AM

A. The work piece is placed on the chuck on an angle

B. The work piece is clamped down more securely
C. the work piece is held down only with 2 sided tape
D. The work piece is cooled with nitrogen before machining
Answer: A

16. How far is the centre of the grinding wheel offset when using a single
point dresser on a horizontal spindle surface grinder?
A. 1/32 of an inch
EX

B. 1/16 of an inch
C. 1/8 of an inch
D. ¼ of an inch
Answer: D
 17. At what angle is the nib of a single point diamond dresser inclined?
A.3 degrees
B. 5 degrees

OM
C. 15 degrees
D. 20 degrees
Answer: 15

18. Why are cutting fluids used when grinding?

A. To ensure the wheel bond does not dry out
B. To keep the work piece cool and reduce dust
C. To lubricate the machine table slide ways
D. to make the wheel structure more pliable

.C
Answer: B

19. What metal can be held directly on a magnetic chuck on a surface

grinder?
A. Steel
B. Aluminum
C. Brass
D. Copper
Answer:A
PS
20. What are the steps required to properly mount a grinding wheel on a
AP
horizontal surface grinding machine?
A. Check machine spindle speed, check size of wheel, visually inspect wheel,
ring test wheel, check bore is not a tight fit on machine spindle, mount wheel,
tighten nut as tight as possible, true wheel, balance wheel, dress wheel
B. Check machine spindle speed, check size of wheel, visually inspect wheel,
ring test wheel, check bore is not a tight fit on machine spindle, mount wheel,
do not over tighten nut, replace guards, true wheel, balance wheel, dress
AM

wheel
C. Check machine spindle speed, check size of wheel, visually inspect wheel,
ring test wheel by hitting it with a hammer, check bore is not a tight fit on
machine spindle, mount wheel, do not over tighten nut, replace guards, true
wheel, balance wheel, dress wheel
D. Check machine spindle speed, check size of wheel, visually inspect wheel,
ring test wheel, ensure bore is a tight force fit on machine spindle, mount
wheel, do not over tighten nut, replace guards, true wheel, balance wheel,
dress wheel
EX

Answer: B

21. What does the ring test tell you about a grinding wheel?
A. How heavy the wheel is
B. Its maximum operating speed
 C. If it has internal flaws or cracks
D. how smooth the wheel is
Answer: C

OM
22. Describe three safety precautions that are emphasized when instructing
someone on the correct use of a horizontal surface grinding machine.
Answer: Do not use rags near a revolving grinding wheel, ensure that the
machine spindle speed does not exceed the maximum safe operating speed of
the wheel, check to see if your work piece is properly secured on the magnetic
chuck or other work holding device.

23. Where do you avoid standing when starting a grinding wheel mounted on

.C
a pedestal or bench grinder?
A At the left side of the wheel
B. At the right side of the wheel
C. At the front of the machine
D. At the back of the machine
Answer: B
PS
24. The maximum safe operating speed (rpm) of a new grinding wheel is
printed on the side of the wheel. Which of the following is true?
A You can exceed the maximum operating speed by up to 20% providing the
machine is in good condition
AP
B. You can exceed the maximum operating speed by up to 10% providing the
machine is in good condition
C. You can exceed the maximum operating speed by up to 5% providing the
machine is in good condition
D. You cannot exceed the maximum operating speed even if the machine is in
good condition
Answer: D
AM

25. State two purposes for using a blotter on each side of the grinding wheel?
A. To provide a cushion between the wheel and mounting flanges, and soak
up any excess coolant that may become trapped between the wheel flanges
and the wheel
B To provide a cushion between the wheel and the mounting flanges, and to
allow the wheel to be identified
C. To soak up any excess coolant that may become trapped between the wheel
flanges
EX

D. To allow the wheel to be identified and to reduce potential chatter by

absorbing harmonic vibration
Answer: B

26. How much of a grinding wheel is covered by a guarding system?

 A As little as possible thus allowing the machine operator easier access to
work on larger work pieces
B. As much as possible, leaving only the amount exposed necessary to

OM
perform the grinding operation.
C. A maximum of one half of the wheel
D. A maximum of three quarters of the wheel
Answer: B

27. What happens when you allow cutting fluid to run on a stationary
grinding wheel?
A. The wheel will fall apart
B The wheel will become out of balance and could explode

.C
C. The wheel will become dull more quickly than necessary
D. The wheel will tend to run slower
Answer: B

28. How are grinding wheels stored?

PS
A. In a damp environment, to ensure the bonding material does not dry out
B. On their side with a weight on them
C. In a storage rack or flat on a shelf
D. In a very cold place to keep the wheel grains fresh
Answer: C
AP
29. In accordance to the Ontario Occupational Health and Safety Act and
Regulations, what is the maximum gap allowed between the work rest and
the grinding wheel on a pedestal or bench grinder?
A. 5/16 inch or 8mm
B. 3/16 inch or 5mm
C 1/8 inch or 3mm
D 1/32 inch or .8mm
AM

Answer: C

30. On a grinding wheel rotating clockwise the correct position for the single
point diamond in a dresser is?
a. vertical and directly on the center line
b. at a 15 degree angle directly on the vertical center line
c. pointing in the direction of rotation 15 degrees left of the center line
d. pointing in the direction of rotation 15 degrees right the center line
Ans. C
EX

31. An electromagnetic chuck is used on a surface grinder because it?

a. holds work pieces more firmly than hold down clamps
b. will hold any work piece
c. makes every surface of a work piece available for grinding
 d. is the fastest way to set up most work
Ans. D

OM
32. Besides rotating, the grinding wheel?
a. moves up or down
b. moves forward and back
c. does not move
d. moves from left to right and back
Ans. C

33. In grinding a surface on this type of grinder, the chuck usually travels
farthest in?

.C
a. cross feeding
b. traversing
c. down feeding
d. rotating
Ans. B

PS
34. The surface to be ground must typically be?
a. at right angles to the chuck
b. parallel to the top surface of the chuck
c. centered on the chuck
d. parallel to the edges of the chuck
AP
Ans. C

35. The most precise hand wheel control on the grinder is the?
a. chuck
b. traverse
c. cross feed
d. down feed
AM

Ans. D

36. For grinding most steels, the preferred abrasive is?

a. diamond
b. silicon carbide
c. aluminum oxide
d. cubic boron nitride
Ans. C
EX
 BLUE PRINT READING

OM
1. What is the main reason for sectioning a work piece?
a. to adhere to drafting principals
b. to project the appropriate view in the proper location
c. to show hidden features on a complex part clearly
d. to save space on your drafting sheet
Ans. C

2. In a full sectional view the cutting plane is?

.C
a. divides the part fully
b. is passing though the part along the center line on its full diameter and
indicates the viewing direction
c. divides the part into four equal portions and indicates the viewing direction
d. passing through the object at right angles to each other along the center
lines of the object
Ans. B
PS
3. In a half sectional view the cutting plane is?
a. divides the part fully
b. is passing though the part along the center line on its full diameter and
AP
indicates the viewing direction
c. divides the part into four equal portions and indicates the viewing direction
d. passing through the object at right angles to each other along the center
lines of the object
Ans. D

4. Revolved sections are used on parts that contain?

AM

a. webs, ribs, spokes

b. part drawings
c. gears and racks
d. non ferrous material
Ans. A

5. What is the advantage of removed detailed sections?

a. That the sectioned part can be detached from the object
b. can be detached from the object for a truer representation of the part
EX

c. to show hidden component that can not be seen from the front view
d. to show hidden component that can not be seen from the right side view
Ans. A

6. The direction of the crosshatching when the part is sectioned in more than
one place is?
 a. the same in all sectioned areas
b. at a right angle to each other in all sectioned areas
c. at opposite direction in all sectioned areas

OM
d. the direction does not have any importance
Ans. A

7. When a cutting plane line is cutting through of a rib, web or the tooth of a
gear?
a. the crosshatching is represented with object lines
b. the crosshatching is not shown
c. the crosshatching is represented with construction lines
d. the crosshatching is represented with dotted lines

.C
Ans. B

8. A cutting plane line consists of a heavy dash followed by two short dashes.
At each end it has a short line terminating with arrow heads. The
arrowheads show the reader of the print?

PS
a. of the position of the view
b. the direction to view the section from
c. the position of the removed section
d. the position of the revolved section
Ans. B
AP
9. The type of drawing that views a building by looking directly at the front,
top and side is referred to as a?
a.. isometric
b. orthographic
c. oblique
d. cabinet
Ans. A
AM

10. The symbol in the diagram below represents a?

a. Screwed tee side outlet away from you.

b. Screwed tee outlet towards you.
c. Flanged tee outlet away from you.
d. Flanged tee outlet towards you.
EX

Ans. A

11. What type of drawing would you find the depth of an open web steel joist?
a. Structural drawing,
b. Shop drawing
c. Electrical drawing
 d. Mechanical drawing
Ans. A

OM
The next 9 questions are based on the drawing below:

12. What section of the house plan is this?

Answer: Upper floor

13. How wide is the front of this floor of the house?

Hint: The front is at the bottom of the drawing.
Answer: 42’-6”

.C
14. Name the room you could enter if you walked up the stairs from the main
entrance, then turned right in the hallway, and then went through the door
in front of you?
Answer: The drawing room

Answer: 11’-2”x 5’-6”

PS
15. What is the length and width (dimensions) of the storage room?

16. What is the height of the doors in this house?

Answer: 6’-8”
AP
17. There are marks along the bottom of the plan that show the distances
between the centers of the windows, the “centre-to-centre distance” between
them. The size of each window is also marked next to the window itself,
width × height:
What is the width of each of the two windows at the front of the library?
Answer: The floor plan says the windows are 3' - 0" × 4' - 0", so the windows
are 3 feet wide.
AM

18. How long is the chimney in the north wall of the living room?
Answer: 6ft

19. Determine how many treads there are in this staircase?

Answer: 13

20. Calculate the total area of the treads of the staircase?

Answer: We know the area of each tread is 3.972 ft², so 13 of them makes a
EX

total area of 13 × 3.972 = 51.639 ft²

 OM
.C
PS
AP
AM

21. Which of the following does a dotted line on a print mean?

a. line is an object line
b. line is a center line
c. line is a section line
d. line is a hidden line
EX

Ans. D

22. Which of the following best describes tolerance?

a. actual measured dimension of a part section
b. capability of a process as dictated by the Cpk
 c. the acceptable amount of variation allowed from a specific dimension
Ans. C

OM
23. What orthographic view is represented by the following term “plain
view”?
a. top view
b. front view
c. side view
d. right side view
Ans. A

.C
PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF
METALS/STEEL MAKING
1. What is steel made from?

PS
A. Titanium resin and bauxite
B. Iron carbon and resin
C. Titanium carbon and alloying elements
D. Iron carbon and alloying elements
Answer: D
AP
2. What is the difference between a ferrous and non ferrous metal?
A. A ferrous metal must contain iron
B. A non ferrous metal must contain iron
C. A ferrous metal must contain carbon
D. A non ferrous metal must contain carbon
Answer: A
AM

3. What element does iron ore contain?

A. Molybdenum nickel and tungsten
B. Sulfur silicon and oxygen
C. Silicon nickel and vanadium
D. Tungsten sulfur and molybdenum
Answer: B

4. What are the 3 basic ingredients loaded in a blast furnace to produce iron?
EX

A. Granite coke and iron ore

B. Limestone coke and iron ore
C. Granite sulfur and iron ore
D. Limestone manganese and iron ore
Answer: B
 5. Which of the following types of furnaces are used to produce the majority
of plain carbon steels in North America?
A. Induction

OM
B. Basic oxygen
C. Electric arc
D. Open hearth
Answer: B

6. What major alloying elements give stainless steel its corrosion resistance?
A. Tungsten sulfur and vanadium
B. Silicon vanadium and carbon
C. Sulfur chromium and graphite

.C
D. Chromium nickel and molybdenum
Answer: D

7. What properties does carbon give to plain carbon steels?

A. Softness and malleability

PS
B. Ductility and good machinability
C. Ability to be hardened be heating and quenching
D. A course tough grain structure straight from the blast furnace
Answer: C

8. What is the major alloying element in a plain carbon steel?

AP
A. Sulfur
B. Tungsten
C. Carbon
D. Vanadium
Answer: C

9. How is cold rolled steel produced?

AM

A. By pickling in acid and then rolling while at room temperature

B. By pickling in acid and then rolling while frozen
C. By turning off the scale and then rolling while at room temperature
D. By turning off the scale and then rolling while frozen
Answer: A

10. What is the name given to iron as it is tapped from the blast furnace?
A. Raw iron
B. Pickled iron
EX

C. Pig iron
D. Basic iron
Answer: C