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Chapter: One
Introduction
Financial Management is an integral part of Business Management. Finance is one of the key functions in an organisation. The
other key functions in an organisation are:
Production
Human Resources
Marketing
Each of the above function has got sub-divisions – for example Production has maintenance, Administration has purchases etc.
Finance deals with financial resources. Financial management as a corollary would deal with management of financial resources
and related areas.
Chapter: One
This has been explained this in the above point. For reinforcement the student’s attention is drawn to one of the objectives of
financial management at least in the short run, the objective of maximising profits of the organisation. The profits so maximised
in turn enhance the Earning Per Share (EPS – for formula please refer to Chapter no. 9).
Accounts function
Core accounts have to take care of the following areas:
Maintaining accounts on a regular basis for all items of income, expenditure, assets and liabilities
Conforming to Generally Accepted Accounting Practices (GAAP – India), Accounting principles, Various Accounting
standards of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), Requirements under the Companies’ Act like
following “Accrual system of accounting” (as opposed to cash system of accounting), Requirements under The Income
Tax Act while maintaining the Accounts of the limited company
Finalisation of accounts at the end of the accounting period (financial year) and preparation of final accounts in the
formats prescribed in the Companies’ Act – Schedule VI after claiming depreciation as per provisions of Companies’
Act – Schedule XIV
Chapter: One
Conforming to provisions relating to Advance Tax payment in four instalments – first instalment by 15/6, second
instalment by 15/9, third instalment by 15/12 and the last instalment by 15/3.
Conforming to provisions relating to statutory audit of accounts under the Companies’ Act
Preparation of revenue and capital budgets
Management Information System (MIS) relating to Accounts and Finance
Note: Further details on the above are not given here as they are outside the scope of textbook on “Financial Management”. As
the students can see, most of them are self-explanatory.
Long-term objective
The long-term objective of financial management is to increase the wealth of the shareholders. The term “wealth” refers to
various business assets of the enterprise that are free of debt. This means that this wealth belongs to the equity shareholders. It is
often reflected in the “book value” of the share as reflected in the balance sheet.
The formula for book value is:
Equity share capital + Reserves and Surplus
Number of equity shares issued
This can be explained through an example.
Example no. 3
Equity share capital = Rs. 100 lacs (paid up capital)
Reserves and surplus = Rs. 200 lacs
Number of shares = 10 lacs with the Face Value being Rs.10/-
Then the book value of the share would be = Rs. 100 lacs + Rs. 200 lacs = Rs. 30/-.
10 lacs shares
This means that at the starting point the book value was Rs.10/- and this has gone up to Rs. 30/- due to the prudent policy of the
management of retaining profits within the organisation. Thus the short-term objective also is a contributory factor to realising
the long-term objective of wealth maximisation.
Some of the measures through which we achieve the long-term objective are:
1
Carrying too much liquidity involves cost. This cost is referred to as “opportunity cost”. It simply means that by
carrying too much liquidity, the business enterprise has foregone an opportunity of getting a return on such amount
that it will have got by employing the funds in business. On the contrary, carrying too little cash is also risky as the
enterprise may not be able to fulfil its obligations to creditors etc. in time.
Chapter: One
Strategic financial management decisions relating to expansion, take over of another business, financial re-restructuring
through financial re-engineering (example – swap a costly loan for a cheaper loan provided the credibility of the firm is
quite high), joint venture etc. Thus while profitability reflects the operating efficiency wealth maximisation reflects the
managerial/entrepreneurial efficiency.
To sum up, both short-term objective and long-term objective need to be put in place for sustained growth of a business
enterprise. To an extent at least, the long-term objective is dependent upon the short-term objective of profit maximisation.
Chapter: One
some others will be lenders. There is no specific market place. Deals are done over the
phone.
Segments of money markets Commercial paper issued by companies and Public Sector Undertakings as part of
working capital requirement. This is a promissory note issued by companies requiring
short-term funds (say from 15 days to 180 days or six months). Maximum period is
twelve months. The six-month commercial paper can be extended for a further period of
six months, making a total of 12 months.
Commercial bills discounted by banks and Non-banking Financial Institutions. These are
short-term bills usually not exceeding 90-120 days covering commercial transactions in
the private sector.
Treasury bills issued by Government of India through the RBI for meeting
budgetary deficits. These are for fixed maturity periods of 91 days and 364 days.
The Reserve Bank of India controls the money markets in India. It is known as money market regulator.
Primary market
Primary market in the money market is wherein the Institutions requiring funds issue securities like treasury bills and get finance
and there is no specific market place excepting in the case of treasury bills. RBI conducts auction of treasury bills after due notice
in national dailies and hence this can be construed as the “market place”.
Secondary market
The secondary market is provided by Discount and Finance House of India Limited (DFHI) a subsidiary of RBI. It provides a
two-way quotation, one for purchasing money market instruments and another for selling money market instruments. For
example, a holder of Treasury bill of Government of India can sell it to DFHI and anyone wants to purchase treasury bills, he can
approach DFHI who can sell it to him. There is no secondary market for call money or notice money market.
Primary market
There is no specific market place for this. This again, like in the case of money market, facilitates issue of securities by those who
require funds in the medium to long-term. The public issue process is supervised and controlled by the lead merchant
banker/bankers in the case of all public issues. Primary market ends with the listing of securities on stock exchanges by the
Registrar to the Issue. Details of operators in the primary market have been given under “Agents operating in financial markets”.
Secondary market
The secondary market begins with the listing of securities on the stock exchanges by the Registrar to the issue. It has a market
place in the form of stock exchanges. Its operations are through share brokers who are registered with respective stock
Chapter: One
exchanges. The stock exchanges in turn are controlled and regulated by SEBI. Details of operators in the secondary market have
also been given under “Agents operating in the financial markets”.
Statutes governing the various segments of the financial markets and the statutory authorities
Statute means an Act passed either by the Parliament or State legislature.
Money market – No specific statute – controlled by RBI
Capital market – Securities Contracts Regulations Act and Rules as well as SEBI regulations for the various operators in the
Capital market – controlled by SEBI. Mutual Funds also come under the Regulations of SEBI.
Insurance – Insurance Regulatory and Development Act (IRDA) – controlled by the Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority coming under GOI, Ministry of Finance
Banking – Banking Regulations Act controlled by RBI
Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs – example Kotak Mahindra Finance Company Limited) – Non-Banking Financial
Companies Act of RBI
Functioning of limited companies registered in India – The Companies’ Act – controlled by the Company Law Board 2 (CLB)
coming under GOI, Ministry of Finance. The principal officer is known as “The Registrar of Companies” (ROC).
Foreign Exchange market – Foreign Exchange Management Act and Exchange Control Regulations Act both coming under the
RBI
Some segments of the financial markets like the Indian companies accessing international markets come directly under the GOI,
Ministry of Finance
Special organisations
These come under one of the financial market regulators or directly under GOI – Ministry of Finance
All-India Financial Institutions – GOI – MOF
Central Board of Direct Taxes – CBDT – GOI – MOF
Stock Exchanges – SEBI
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) – RBI
Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) – GOI – MOF
Institute of Cost and Works Accountants of India (ICWA) – GOI – MOF
Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI) – GOI – MOF
Institute of Chartered Financial Analysts of India (ICFAI) – GOI – MOF
Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) – GOI - MOF
2
Company Law Board is primarily responsible for conduct of the affairs of limited companies registered in India
under the Companies’ Act. The difference in roles of CLB and SEBI is that the latter is mainly concerned with issue
of securities in the capital market protecting the interests of various kinds of investors. SEBI is not controlling The
Companies’ Act while CLB is not controlling the SCRA. They play complementary roles.
Chapter: One
Chapter: One
In this context the students may refer to the chapter on “capital structure” in which the difference between the resources of a new
unit and an existing unit has been shown. “Retained earnings” are readymade resource available to a business enterprise.
Dividend yield measures the return that an investor can make from dividends alone. It is related to the market price for the share.
= Dividends / Stock Price
Example no. 2
The market price of a stock is Rs. 4000/- and the dividend is Rs. 50/-. Then the dividend yield is 1.25%, which is very poor in
Indian conditions. Thus while dividend rate for the above stock assuming Rs. 100/- as the face value would be 50%, the dividend
yield is just Rs. 1.25%
Chapter: One
of the management to retain its control of the company. If this need is high, it may not issue further stocks, which will dilute
its control.
7. The restrictions imposed by lenders, bond trustees, debenture trustees and others on % of dividends declared by a limited
company. As a part of loan agreement, debenture trustee agreement or bond trustee agreement, there is a clause that restricts
the companies from declaring dividends beyond a specified rate without their written consent.
8. The compulsion to declare dividend to foreign joint venture partners and institutional investors – when you have strategic
partners in business including foreign investors, you may be required to declare minimum % of dividend. This is true of
institutional investors in India too, who have contributed to the company’s equity. This is more relevant in the case of
management of limited companies who left to themselves, will not declare any dividends.
9. Effects of dividend policy on the market value of the firm – in case in the perception of the management, the market value is
largely dependent upon the rate of dividend, the management will try to increase the rate of dividend.
Note: It will be apparent to the students that the dividend policy decisions based on above factors can at best
be exercises in informed judgement but not decisions that can be quantified precisely. In spite of this, the
above factors do contribute to make rational dividend decisions by Finance Managers.
From the factors influencing dividend policy flow the different kinds of dividend policies as under:
1. Stable dividend policy irrespective of profitability – increasing or decreasing. This means that over the years the company
declares the same % of dividend on the equity share capital. The rates3 will neither be too high nor too low – they will be
moderate.
2. Stable Dividend payout ratios – Dividend payout ratio is the ratio of dividend payable by a limited company to its Profit
After Tax. This could be more or less the same over a period, irrespective of whether the profits are going up or coming
down. The assumption here is that there are no drastic changes in the profitability of the organisation, especially when it is
on the decrease. It can be visualised by the students that any drastic reduction in profits will result in changes in the DPO.
3. Dividend being stepped up periodically – this is possible in the growth phase of the company. The company can come up
with the financial forecast say for the next 10 years and decide to increase the rate of dividend every 5 years or three years or
so. This may not be true of companies that have been in existence for a long period of time.
Most observers believe that dividend stability if a desirable attribute as seen by investors in the secondary market before they
decide to invest in a stock. If this were to be true, it means that investors prefer more predictable dividends to stocks that pay the
same average amount of dividends but in an erratic fashion. This means that the cost of equity 4 will be minimised and stock price
maximised if a firm stabilises its dividends as much as possible.
Indian companies declaring dividend – need for cash retention for growth and effective tax rate influencing
dividend policy
The following is based on an empirical study made by Mr. Ajay Shah of Indira Gandhi Institute for Development Research in the
year 1996. The researcher had studied 1725 companies out of the listed companies in Mumbai Stock Exchange. These firms met
the following three criteria:
(a) Had net profits in 1994-95 of more than 1% of sales;
(b) Are in manufacturing and not in finance or trading and
(c) Are a part of the databases of CMIE5
The 1725 firms were broken up into two groups, high-tax firms where the average tax rate in 1994-95 was above 10%and the
remaining low-tax firms
The findings in these two groups are compiled in the table below.
3
The rate of dividend is always expressed as a percentage of the face value.
4
Cost of equity, ke = (D1/P0) + g. Refer to chapter on “capital structure and cost of capital”. If “g” in dividend rate
is minimal, the cost of equity automatically comes down and this pushes up P 0. This means that the market value
increases with stable dividend policy.
5
CMIE = Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy., Mumbai. This Institute brings out statistics for the Indian markets,
private sector, public sector etc. periodically.
Chapter: One
1993-94 1994-95
Low-tax High-tax Low-tax High-tax
Growth in GFA (%) 18.75 16.66 28.90 20.77
Uses of funds (%)
GFA 65.08 39.03 66.49 44.08
Inventories 3.84 13.68 8.62 14.54
Receivables 17.42 21.54 14.54 22.59
Investments 8.78 13.08 7.20 16.29
Cash 4.88 12.66 3.16 2.49
Dividend payout (%) 18.61 25.65 18.77 22.17
Number of companies 1043 682 1043 682
GFA = Gross Fixed Assets
Summary of observations:
♦ Low-tax companies have had faster growth of GFA
♦ They allocated a much larger fraction of their incremental resources into asset formation; around 65% of the incremental
resources were directed to GFA addition as compared with around 42% in the case of high-tax companies
♦ Low-tax companies pay out a smaller fraction of earnings as dividends, as compared with high-tax companies
♦ Finally, low-tax companies invested a much smaller fraction of their incremental resources into financial markets.
♦ This evidence is consistent with the view that the low-tax phenomenon is primarily driven by the depreciation which is
allowed to be written off in the income-tax at a rate that is higher than the rate in the books.
Chapter: One
♦ If companies pay too little in dividends, they do not use the excess cash for bad projects or acquisitions but use them only
for their existing business
♦ Investors are rational and dissemination of information is effective
Examination with reference to India
1. Prior to 01-04-2002, there was no tax on dividend in the hands of the shareholders. With effect from 01-04-2002, tax on
dividend in the hands of the investors has resumed. Further the capital gains tax on indexed stocks is 10% as against
personal tax that would vary from one slab of income to another. Even then it would be prudent to assume that on an
average the tax rate would not be less than 20% and hence capital gains tax is less than income-tax
2. No transaction costs – impossible to raise resources without any transaction costs in India especially if the firm were coming
out with “Initial Public Offer”. This is true of developed markets in the West too.
3. Although investors are getting to be rational in India and that dissemination of information is improving, there is still much
scope for improvement.
Theory no. 2 – Walter’s Theory – Long-term capital gains preferred to dividend, as tax on dividend is higher
than long-term capital gains
Preposition – Long-term capital gains are less than tax on dividends. This is true of India at present.
Basis:
The higher the rate of dividend, the less the amount available for retention and growth and vice-versa. Hence the less the value of
the firm. The premises for this position is that the market value of the firm is not due to dividends paid but funds retained in
business. As such this is logical as growth of the firm occurs due to the funds retained.
Underlying assumptions:
Dividend rate does not influence the market value. Profit retention rate influences the market. The short-term tax on dividends is
higher than the long-term capital gains on the shares.
Examination with reference to India:
Please refer to the explanation under “dividend irrelevance” theory of Miller and Modigliani
ke ke
Where,
P = Market price per share,
D = Dividend per share
E = Earnings per share and
r = Return on equity
Example no. 3
A listed company’s return on equity is 18% and its dividend payout is 50%. The growth rate = (1 - 0.5) x 0.18 = 0.09 x 100 = 9%.
This is the growth rate that is expected in dividend amount paid out to the shareholders. In India, at present the long-term capital
gains tax is 10% and hence the investors would prefer market appreciation to dividends.
Chapter: One
To sum up Walter’s theory on dividend, as dividends have a tax disadvantage, they are bad and increasing dividends will reduce
the value of the firm. As a corollary, it is only the retained earnings that give growth to an organisation and contribute to the
increase in value of the firm.
Mathematically expressing:
As per Gordon’s theory, the cost of equity, ke = (D1/P0) + g. In this equation, D1 = dividend at T1, P0 = market value of the share
at T0 and g = growth rate in decimals. We can have variations of this equation and find out any of the four parameters, given the
other parameters. The variations are:
To determine D1 = P0 x (ke – g)
Example no. 4
A firm has dividend of Rs. 25/- and growth rate of the company is 5%. If the cost of equity is 18%, what is the price at which the
stock would have been purchased?
Applying the formula, P0 = D1/(ke – g), we get 25/0.136 (in decimals) = Rs. 192.31
6
This is crucial in this kind of numerical exercise. The student will be tempted to write 13 in the denominator and
this would give an absurd answer of Rs.2/- nearly. The growth rate, cost of equity and return on equity have to be
expressed in decimals always.
Chapter: One
Following is the sum and substance of the survey conducted in the US market to find out the management beliefs about dividend
policy.
7
Book value of equity share = {Net worth (-) Preference share capital}/number of equity shares. This truly reflects
the increase in value of equity share due to profits retained in business.
Chapter: One
♦ You have less number of equity shares on which to declare dividend in future. This saves a lot of cash every year.
♦ You have less number of shares and hence “Earnings Per Share” goes up. This in turn would improve market value. Market
value = EPS x P/E ratio
♦ Less number of shares in the market available for purchase. Hence chances of increasing the demand for a company’s
stocks, thereby increasing its price
The option of “buy back” is especially good under certain conditions. Some of the conditions are:
♦ The number of shares issued by a limited company is very large and demand is perceptibly less. This is affecting the market
value of the share
♦ Opportunities for growth are limited or negligible and hence investment in fixed assets is not much
♦ Market conditions are uncertain or recession is on and time for revival cannot be estimated
♦ Right now cash is available and profitability could be under pressure in foreseeable future
Indian companies have started preferring “buy back” to “bonus issue” of shares as the latter is only going to increase the number
of shares for servicing by way of dividend. This will only add to the pressure on profits. In quite a few developed markets,
limited companies have “buy back” programmes in preference to “dividend” even. This has not started happening in a big way in
India. In fact some of the excellently performing companies abroad do not give dividend – example, Microsoft. It has never
declared dividend in its corporate history.
Chapter: One
Is there a situation in which the prices decrease over a period of time and opposite of “inflation” takes place?
Usually in a developing country, such a situation does not arise, as the demand is always greater than supply. However currently
Japan is experiencing “deflation” in which current prices would be less than the past prices. This is harmful to a developing
economy, as units that save money would get very low interest or no interest. Hence there will be no incentive for the units to
invest money in bonds, fixed deposits etc.
8
“Rate of inflation coming down” - What does it mean? Does it mean that the prices of commodities are coming
down or the increase in prices of commodities is coming down? – Answer is: The increase in prices of commodities
is coming down; in actual terms, the prices of commodities are not reducing.
Chapter: One
Tier 3 – What does the bank do with the deposits that it accepts? It gives loans. The rate of interest on loans becomes the next
tier, Tier 3.
What are the factors that a bank would consider to determine its lending rate?
Average interest paid out on deposits and expenses
Minimum expected profit from lending operations
Degree of risk in lending – specific to a borrower, depending upon his business
Continuing discussion on Tier 3, we see that the minimum rate of interest on loans would be 7% + 3% + 1% = 11%. This is the
lowest interest that any bank offers now in India on loans. There is a specific name for this rate. It is referred to as “Prime
Lending Rate” or PLR. The bank would add further to this rate depending upon risk etc., which is called “risk premium” 9. This
would again be different from borrower to borrower.
Example No. 2
Let us summarise the above as under:
Rate of inflation = Tier no. 1 = 3% p.a.
Rate of interest on investment = Tier no. 2 = 7% p.a.
Rate of interest on loans = Tier no. 3 = 11% p.a.
9
This is the reason that for different activities, the same bank charges different rates of interest at the
same time. Similarly for different borrowers pursuing the same activity, the rates of interest would be
different as per perception of risk associated with them.
Chapter: One
Rate of return from investment in projects = Tier no. 4 = 15% p.a. (This is just an example. The rate of return expected from a
project would actually depend upon the degree of risk associated with the project in the perception of the project owners
primarily and project lenders secondarily)
n
(1 + r/100) is known as compounding factor.
Let us apply this formula to another investment example and determine the future value.
Example no. 3
You have a fixed deposit for Rs.10,000/- in a bank. Terms of deposit are:
Period – Two years
Rate of interest = 10% p.a.
The bank does not pay interest periodically. Interest gets accumulated to the principal amount; it gets paid at the end of the period
along with principal amount.
What is the future value of this investment?
The future value is Rs.12,100/-. In the compounding formula, by substituting 10% for “r” and 2 for “n”, we get this value. The
break-up of principal and interest amount for the period of investment, i.e., two years is as under:
Principal – Rs.10,000/-
Interest – Rs.2,100/-
Does the future value alter with the change in the frequency of compounding?
In the above example, we have assumed that the bank pays interest at the frequency of one year. Suppose the bank pays interest at
a higher frequency, would the future value turn out to be different? Let us see the following example.
Example no. 4
Suppose the bank increases the frequency of compounding from yearly to half-yearly. What will be the future value? We can use
the same formula with an amendment. The amended formula would be:
With these values, the future value FV at T2 works out to 10,000 x (1.05) 4 = Rs.12,155/-.
Similarly we can see that in case the frequency of compounding increases to quarterly from half-yearly, the future value works
out to Rs. 12,184/-.
Chapter: One
Let us summarise what we have learnt so far on “compounding and future value”:
♦ The amount that you get back at the end is called “future value”
♦ Future value is determined by “compounding”
♦ Future value depends upon:
♦ Rate of interest and
♦ Frequency of compounding
♦ The multiplying factor is known as “compounding factor”
♦ The more the frequency, the higher the amount of interest
Doubling period
A frequent question posed by an investor is: “How much time it will take for my investment to double in value”? This question
can be answered by a rule known as “Rule of 72”. It is an approximate way of finding out the doubling period. Suppose the rate
of interest is 12%. The doubling period is 6 years.
A more accurate answer can be had by a better formula like:
0.35 + 69/interest rate in % terms. Employing the same rate of 12%, we find that the doubling period is 6.10 years instead of 6
years. This is more accurate than the Rule of 72 formula.
Example no. 5
We want to get Rs.108/- at the end of T1. The desired rate of interest is 8% per annum. What is the amount that we should invest
at T0?
Can we use the “future value” formula here?
Yes – with necessary modification as under:
n
Future value = Present investment x (1 + r/100)
Chapter: One
The reciprocal of compounding factor is referred to as “discounting factor. We need to multiply the future value by this
n
discounting factor and not divide. In the above formula, 1/(1+r/100) is referred to as “discounting factor”.
Discounting factor = 1/compounding factor; discounting factor x compounding factor = 1. Discounting factor would
always be less than 1.
Example no. 6
We want to get Rs.10,000/- after two years. The desired rate of interest is 12% p.a. The frequency of is yearly.
What is the present value of this future sum of Rs.10,000/-?
Present value = Rs. 7,971/-
The two-step process in determining present value is:
We have already seen under “future value” that higher frequency of compounding increases the future value. Conversely, higher
frequency of discounting decreases the present value. The students are advised to take the following exercise and verify for
themselves.
Exercise No. 1
After three years we are likely to get a windfall of Rs.1,00,000/-. What will be the present value of this windfall, in case the
expected rate of return is 15% p.a.?
Answer – Rs.65,751/-
Let us summarise what you have learnt so far on “discounting and present value”:
♦ Discounting is the converse of compounding
♦ It is used when you want to determine the present value of a future sum
♦ Just as there is a compounding factor, there is a discounting factor
♦ In case you determine the discounting factor, you should multiply the future value by this factor to get the present value
♦ The more the frequency the of discounting, the less will be the value of present value
♦ Present value will always be less than future value by the same token of inflation.
Chapter: One
The estimated future earnings are:
T1 – Rs.30 lacs
T2 – Rs.35 lacs
T3 – Rs.40 lacs
T4 – Rs.45 lacs
We want to evaluate our investment decision in the project. How do we do this? By applying discounting factor for 20% to the
future earnings.
The “sum total” of all the T0 values = Rs.94.13 lacs = Present value of future earnings for a period of four years.
What does this mean? It means that at 20% expected return the project has given back only Rs.94.13 lacs. This is against Rs.100
lacs that have been invested in it. That is, the present value of future earnings is less than original investment. Hence we will not
invest in the project. The difference between the present value of future earnings and the investment at T 0 is called the “Net
present value” or NPV. This is one of the fundamental methods of selecting a project.
Exercise No. 2
We are investing in a project Rs. 1000 lacs. The rate of return that we expect from the project is 18% p.a. The estimated future
earnings for three years are:
T1 = Rs.450 lacs
T2 = Rs.500 lacs
T3 = Rs.550 lacs
The above are also referred to as cash flows 10(in this case cash inflows)
Examine as to whether it is worthwhile investing in the project. Find out the Net Present Value of the project.
10
Cash flow could either be cash inflow or cash outflow. When an investment is made at T0 it is called “cash out
flow”. Similarly when returns are received they are called “cash in flows. Cash out flow is denoted by mentioning
the figure within bracket like (50 lacs)
Chapter: One
Answer:
Present value of future earnings = Rs.1071 lacs
Net Present Value = Rs.71 lacs
We can invest in the project
Step 2 = discounting the payment expected by the rate of return, i.e., 8% p.a., we can determine the present value of the future
cash flows. It is Rs.1080.30. This means that an investor will be willing to purchase this bond now from the market provided the
market price of this bond is less than Rs.1080.30.
Exercise No. 3
We have a bond with the face value of Rs.5,000/-. The interest on the bond is Rs.600/- per year. We are supposed to get a
premium on the bond of Rs.250/- at the end of the maturity period. Expected rate of return by us = 10% p.a. Suppose the maturity
is after 5 years, what is the price at which an investor would be willing to purchase it from us?
(Note – please add the premium amount to the face value. You will get Rs.5,250/- on maturity)
Answer: Present value of future returns = Rs.5534/-. An investor will be willing to pay anything less than this value for
purchasing the bond from you.
Chapter: One
2000 Rs.250/- Rs.5 lacs
2200 Rs.250/- Rs.5.5 lacs
2500 Rs.250/- Rs.6.25 lacs
This is similar to finding out the net present value in the case of projects. We discount the expected sales by the expected rate of
return of 15% p.a. This determines the present value of the expected sales. Let us compare this with the total product
development expenses.
Exercise No. 4
Find out the net present value in the above example. Also confirm that the total product development costs stand fully recovered
at T3.
Let us summarise what we have learnt on application of “Time value of money” to business
♦ Compounding and discounting have a number of applications to Finance decisions.
♦ Compounding has greater application to personal investment while discounting has greater application to business.
♦ Discounting is useful in a number of decisions like project, product development, opening a branch office etc.
♦ Bond valuation is also done through discounting.
Let us look at one more example for reinforcing our learning. Let us select the best project out of the three
projects proposed.
Consider the following 3 alternative projects. Assumptions are also given below:
(Rupees in Lacs)
Project 1 Project 2 Project 3
Chapter: One
As Project 3 has the highest NPV it would be selected. NPV = PV of future earnings (-) original investment. Accordingly, the net
present values for the three projects would be:
Project 1 76.44 lacs
Project 2 56.29 lacs
Project 3 136.91 lacs
On the basis of net present value, project 3 would get selected.
Concept of annuity
So far we have seen the following in respect of application of time value of money:
Investment lump sum at T0 and get lump sum at Tn = Future value; process is “compounding”. This is called future value of a
single stream.
Suppose we are given a future value and want to know how much should be invested at present. We use the process that is
converse of compounding and this is called “discounting”. In order to get lump sum after a given period, we should invest the
present value at the beginning, again a lump sum. This is called the present value of a single stream.
Invest lump sum at T0 in a project and get annual returns. The returns will not be equal to each other. To determine the present
value of the future returns to determine Net Present Value = Present value; process is “discounting”. This is the example of
present value of multiple streams.
Annuity refers to “multiple stream” of cash flows but which are equal to each other and occurring annually. The cash flows
could either be in flows or out flows. This means that the following alternatives are available to us when we are talking of
“annuity”.
♦ We invest at the beginning one lump sum amount and get returns over a period of time that are equal to each
other. The cash in flows that are equal to each other are called “annuity”. Herein we use what is known as
Present Value Interest Factor Annuity (PVIFA). We multiply the Annuity by this factor and get the present
value of the future cash flows in one shot. Then we compare this present value with our proposed investment at T0
taking decision on investment. We invest provided the Present value of future annuities is at least equal to our
investment at T0.
♦ We invest in equal instalments over a period of time and get one lump sum at the end of the period. The cash
outflows that are equal to each other are called “annuity”. Herein we use what is known as Future Value
Interest Factor Annuity (FVIFA) .We multiply the Annuity by this factor and get the future value of the cash out
flows in one shot.
Let us study the following examples to understand the concept of “annuity”.
Chapter: One
Example no. 10
We are able to invest every year Rs.1000/- for a period of 5 years. We expect a return of 10% p.a. What will be the value of this
investment at the end of 5 years?
Let us represent this by way of a timeline
At T0 T1 T2 T3 T4 T5
Investment = zero 1,000/- 1,000/- 1,000/- 1,000/- 1,000/-
Can we use the future value formula, find out the future value of each stream of Rs.1000/- and add them up? Thus T 1 investment
would earn interest for 4 years, the 2nd year investment would earn interest for 3 years, the 3rd year investment would earn interest
for 2 years, the 4th year investment would earn interest for 1 year and the last year investment would not earn any interest. Instead
of doing such an elaborate exercise, we use the alternative “FVIFA”.
Practical applications of “Annuity”11 for future value
♦ Life Insurance policy premium
♦ Recurring deposit account with a bank
Example no. 11
Similar in concept to Example no. 10, we can think of investment lump sum at T0 and getting returns over a period of time, the
returns being equal in value. Example is investment in bank deposit floated by competitive banking industry at present. Each
return will be partly principal amount and partly interest amount. Our aim is to determine the present value of the future returns
by discounting them and comparing the present value with our investment value.
Can we use PVIF and find out the present value of future cash flows? Yes. The cash flow at T 1 is discounted for one year, the
cash flow at the end of the second year is discounted for two years, the cash flow at the end of the third year is discounted for
three years and so on and so forth. Instead of repeating the discounting process so many times, we have the easy alternative of
Present Value Interest Factor Annuity.
It is okay for discussion. However the students will be interested in knowing as to where he will get the PVIFA and FVIFA
values. These will be available as annexure with any standard textbook on “Financial Management” and multiply with the
annuity to arrive at the Present Value or Future value as the case may be.
Concept of perpetuity
This is the concept applicable in the case of pension. Pension is taken to be perpetual. Can we find out the lump sum amount in
case the pension amount is given?
Example no. 12
Suppose the pension amount is Rs. 1000/-. The expected rate of return is 10% p.a. What is the core amount out of which interest
is paid? The annual payment is Rs.12,000/-. Hence the lump sum amount is Annual payment/rate of interest expressed in
decimals.
Accordingly the lump sum amount is Rs. 12,000/0.1 = Rs. 1,20,000/-.
11
Annuity could be at a frequency more than one year. In fact in the case of recurring deposit, the annuity is
monthly.
Chapter: One
One of the fundamentals in Finance is – “Risk and Return go together”. Recall what we learnt in Chapter 2 under “4 tier structure
for interest rates”. We saw that from tier 2 onwards the rate of interest starts progressively increasing. Why? This is because in
each successive tier, the risk is higher than the immediately preceding tier. For example, we saw that the loan given by a bank
carries more risk than the deposit kept with the bank. This is so as the bank is much more broad based with so many customers
than the borrower to whom the loan is given. We mean that the chances of failure of an individual business are more than the
chances of failure of a larger bank. Similarly the rate of return from a project is the highest at Tier no. 4, as entrepreneurial risk is
the highest risk in any economy – the risk of running a business enterprise. Please recall the factors considered by us while
concluding that the rate of return from a project should be the highest. We repeat here for facilitating recall.
♦ The project owner’s investment does not have the backing of assets. A lender, on the contrary, has backing of assets for
his loan.
♦ The enterprise pays the lender interest periodically. The owners on the contrary, get return in the form of dividend. This
is not certain.
♦ Besides interest, the enterprise should also have sufficient surplus after paying interest to repay the loan amount
♦ Risk of project failure affects the owners more than the lenders for the same reason as mentioned in the first bullet
point
Thus we prove the point mentioned at commencing this chapter namely “risk and return go together”. The question relevant here
is that “can we define risk?’ Let us make an attempt here. We make an investment in bank’s fixed deposit at 8% p.a. We have an
agreement with the bank that if the market rate comes down the rate of interest offered on the deposit would also come down. Is
there a risk here? Definitely, if the market rate comes down. What is this risk? The risk of not getting the expected return of 8%.
Thus the first definition of “risk” is the “uncertainty”. Uncertainty relating to what? In the given example, uncertainty relates to
“outcome” of an “activity”, i.e., investment. Is the “outcome” stated? Yes. Right in the beginning when we contracted with the
bank to get 8% return.
So, we build up the definition of “risk”. We can define risk in general as “uncertainty relating to a stated outcome of a specific
activity”. The activity could be anything and the outcome automatically gets related to this. For example, undergoing a post
graduation course in “Management” could be the activity and the risk could be relating to the stated outcome of landing oneself
in a well-paid job. In finance terms, the “risk” obviously relates to the activity of investment and the stated outcome relating to
this would be the “return” on this investment. Thus going back to our example of investment in a bank deposit, the activity is
“investment in a bank deposit”. The risk relates to the outcome of return on this investment namely interest not coming down
from the expected rate of 8%.
Is risk related only to possible reduction in rate of return? Or in other words, is there no risk in case the
return is higher than the expected rate of return?
Suppose the bank deposit referred to above fetches us higher return than expected rate of 8%. Is there no risk? There apparently
is no risk from the point of view of the depositor. However this is not the correct picture. The very fact that the return is higher
than the expected rate due to increase in market rate of interest could also bring the rate down in future any time. Thus
going by the accepted definition of “risk” relating to investment, it relates to uncertainty of the return from the investment and not
specifically to whether the deviation (fluctuation) is positive (return being higher than expected) or negative (return being less
than expected). In both the cases of deviation or fluctuation from the expected rate of return, risk exists. Let us examine the
following graph.
Return
On
investment
Chapter: One
The above graph shows returns deviating from the expected rate of return both positively and negatively. Does it mean that when
it deviates positively there is no risk for us? There is a risk of uncertainty that the returns could go down and be less than the
expected rate of return.
Conclusion:
The higher the uncertainty the higher the risk. The higher the risk the higher the return expectation. This is because the investors
are risk averse and would expect a higher return in case the risk increases. In terms of probability of return, the higher the
probability, the less the uncertainty and less the risk. Conversely the less the probability, the more the uncertainty and higher the
risk.
In this chapter, we are going to study the return on investment in stock markets, i.e., in shares and bonds and not any other
investment as these are subject to market risk and fluctuations. This enhances the risk associated with investment into equity
market and bond market. We will examine as to what kind of risk can be minimized and what cannot be minimized. We are also
going to see how the risk of an individual stock (share) can be minimized by including the same in a bunch of securities
(investment instruments) that is called “portfolio”.
The total return on investment = Amount received on sale of investment – Amount invested at T0
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Amount invested at T0
Thus the return on our investment for a period of one year = 130/1000 = 13% p.a12.
12
Return is always expressed on annual basis. For example if the return for holding a security is 13% for a period of
six months, the annualised return would be 26% = 2 x 13%
Chapter: One
Return on investment in shares = dividend + market appreciation during the period of holding the security (difference between
selling and purchase prices). Suppose the holding period is two years, the return is determined cumulatively for a period of 2
years and divided by 2 to arrive at annual return.
Standard deviation
Investment is about selection of one stock (share or bond) in preference over another, after due consideration of the risks
associated with them respectively. Let us say for example investment in shares of two limited companies A and B. In this case we
should understand the implication of probability distribution of expected returns for a given period for both the stocks. Let us
examine the probability distribution and understand the concept of risk. We are examining below the expected value of return and
standard deviation of return for a chosen stock.
Probability of 2
Possible return (Ri) (Ri) x (Pi) (Ri – R) x (Pi)
occurrence (Pi)
2
Total = 1.00 ∑ = .090 = R σ = 0.00703 and σ = 0.0838
th
Where Ri is the return for the i possibility, Pi is the probability of that return occurring and n is the total number of possibilities.
Thus the expected value of return is simply a weighted average of the possible returns, with the weights being the probabilities of
occurrences. For the above distribution of possible returns, the expected weighted average return is 9% and the standard deviation
of the return is 0.0838 or 8.38%. We can easily see that the higher the standard deviation the higher the risk; the higher the risk,
the higher the expected rate of return in future. Thus the standard deviation is a simple measure of risk based on the distribution
of returns in the past by assigning probabilities to them. The probabilities represent the % times the return has been so. In this
case the probability is 10% for 20% return, this means that 10% of the times, the return has been 20%.
Coefficient of Variation
The standard deviation can at times be misleading in comparing the risk, or uncertainty relating to the alternative returns, if they
differ in size. Consider two alternative investment opportunities, A and B, whose normal probability distributions of one-year
returns have the following characteristics:
____________________________________
Investment
A B
____________________________________
Expected Return R 0.08 0.24
Standard deviation σ 0.06 0.08
Chapter: One
Co-efficient of variation CV 0.75 0.33
We have mentioned earlier that higher the standard deviation, the higher the risk and vice-versa. Now looking at the above table,
can we say that since the standard deviation of stock B is more than that of stock A, the risk associated with it is higher? Yes and
No. Yes if the sizes of investment is the same in both the stocks. This is best explained by taking two persons having widely
different incomes with the same standard deviation. Let us assume that the average monthly income of the first person is
Rs.10,000/- while that of the second person is Rs. 1,00,000/-. Both of them are having standard deviation of say 3,000/-. We can
very easily see that while this standard deviation would affect the first person much more than it does the second person. This is
what establishes the need for determining the co-efficient of Variation. How does one do it?
To adjust for scale or size, the standard deviation can be divided by the expected value of return to compute the coefficient of
variation (CV). Co-efficient of variation (CV) = σ /R. This in the above table gives us the values of 0.75 = 0.06/0.08 for stock A
and 0.33 = 0.08/0.24 for stock B. Thus using the co-efficient of variation (CV) we find that the riskiness of stock A is more than
the riskiness of stock B while by standard deviation method, we would have found stock B to be more risky than stock A.
Portfolio Return
The expected return of a portfolio is simply the weighted average of the expected returns of the securities constituting that
portfolio. The weights are equal to the proportion of total funds invested in each security (the total of weights must equal to 100
percent). The general formula for the expected return of a portfolio Rp is as follows:
m
R p = ∑ Aj x R j
J=1
Where Aj is the proportion of total funds invested in security j; Rj is the expected return for the security j and m is the total
number of different securities in the portfolio. The expected return and standard deviation of the probability distribution of
possible returns for two securities are shown below:
Security A Security B
Portfolio Risk
13
For details of different markets and instruments, please refer to the chapter on “Financial Sources”
Chapter: One
The portfolio expected return is a straightforward weighted average of returns on the individual securities; the portfolio standard
deviation is not the weighted average of individual security standard deviations. We should not ignore the relationship or
correlation between the returns of two different securities in a portfolio. This correlation however has no impact on the portfolio’s
expected return. Let us understand what we mean by “correlation” between securities.
Suppose we have two stocks “A” and “B” in our portfolio. During a given period the return of “A” increases say by 1% while
that of “B” increases by 0.5% in the same period. This means that both are moving positively in the direction of increasing
returns. This is described as “positive” correlation. However the quantum of increase is not the same in both the cases. Hence this
is imperfect but positive correlation. In case the quantum of increase is 1% in both the cases, then the correlation is said to be
positive and perfect correlation.
If the returns move in the opposite direction, say one increasing and the other decreasing, then the correlation is negative. Still the
relationship could be perfect in the sense that the quantum of increase in return say in the case of “A” is the same in the case of
“B” but in the opposite direction. This means that while stock “A” has increased its return, stock “B” has lost its return by the
same percent. Let us try to put these in the form of equations.
“Δ” represents the increase in return and (“Δ”) (within brackets indicate that the return is decreasing). Keeping these in mind let
us attempt the following:
Δ of stock A = 1% for a given period = Δ of stock B = perfect and positive correlation
Δ of stock A = 1% for a given period; Δ of stock B = greater than or less than 1% but the return has increased and not decreased
= positive but imperfect correlation
Δ of stock A = 1% for a given period; (“Δ”) of stock B = 1%. Then stock A and stock B are said to have perfect but negative
correlation.
Δ of stock A = 1% for a given period; (“Δ”) of stock B less than or more than 1%. Then stock A and stock B are said to have
imperfect and negative correlation.
We have consciously omitted the fifth possibility of both the stocks A and B losing to the same percent during a given period.
Any portfolio would avoid such stocks unless the future is going to be completely different in which case the past is not the basis
on which stock selection is being made.
We have also tried to present these concepts in as simple a manner as possible. The students are advised to go through these
repeatedly to grasp the essence of the underlying concept in correlation between one stock and another. This is required because
the concept of correlation is the fundamental based on which the selection of stocks for a portfolio is done. The students will
appreciate that positive correlation between two stocks would mean increased risk especially if the relationship is perfect.
Negative correlation stocks are not desirable. What is then left is positive but imperfect correlation. The risk-averse investors
would invariably choose such stocks as show positive relationship between them (or among them in view of the number of stocks
in a portfolio being more than 2, which is usually the case) but not perfect relationship. Then only the risk in a portfolio is
reduced. For a given period, same degree of movement in return on different stocks in the same direction only increases
the risk in a portfolio.
Now going back to the standard deviation of a portfolio, we will appreciate that it is not merely the weighted average of the
standard deviation numbers for each stock in the portfolio. Suppose there are five stocks in a portfolio. We can appreciate that
there are quite a few possible combinations of these five stocks depending upon the proportion of investment in each of them; for
each combination, the weighted average of the standard deviation numbers has to be etermined first and then the ultimate average
standard deviation should be found out for all possible combinations. This involves a very complicated calculation and hence not
presented here.14 However before we end this topic it should be mentioned that the complicated calculation is worth the time
invested in, as the ultimate result is reduction in the total risk of the portfolio. This is the very objective of a portfolio.
14
This is better explained by any standard textbook on “Security Analysis and Portfolio Management”. Any student
interested on the topic of “Investment” is well advised to refer to any standard textbook on SAPM.
Chapter: One
sectors etc. we are diversifying the risks. This means that sector specific or industry specific or instrument specific or maturity
specific risks are diversifiable. Let us explain this through examples.
Your portfolio could contain stocks of Cement, Textiles, Software and Pharmaceuticals. This is called sector diversification. You
will choose such sectors as are not having perfect correlation.
Your portfolio could contain stocks of ACC, Larsen & Toubro and Dalmia Cements. This is called unit diversification in the
same sector. You will choose again such units as are not having perfect correlation.
Your portfolio could contain one-year investment (bond or debenture), more than one-year investment and long-term investment
too. This is called maturity diversification. Here the relationship will rarely be perfect.
Your portfolio could contain investment into equity shares, debt instruments and money market instruments. This is called
instruments diversification. Here too the relationship will not be perfect as these relate to different segments of the Financial
Markets.
All the above are examples of diversifiable risks. One can use detailed analytical study of the past trends and knowledge about
the various sectors and specific units for true diversification of stocks in a portfolio. Such diversifiable risks are often referred to
as “non-systemic risks” or “specific risks” as such risks are not thrown in by the system.
Non-diversifiable or systemic risks
Suppose we do all the above and arrive at a very good portfolio. The US and their allies decide to bomb IRAQ. All hell breaks
loose. All the markets internationally are nervous. Can you and I do something about it besides feeling helpless about the whole
thing? Such kind of risks could be specific to a country or economy or universal in its impact. The universality of market risks
depends upon the degree of integration of different countries into the global system. The more they are integrated the higher will
be the degree of uniformity of impact due to US bombing IRAQ. We cannot diversify this kind of risk at least within a country or
system, although global investors are in a better position to diversify the country specific risk by pulling out of the country and
reinvesting the amount in less risky markets.
Typical example of a market risk in India – Sensex crashing from 6000 odd points in early 2000 to less than 3000 points in 2002.
The markets becoming nervous on news of Indo-Pak war is another example.
Total risk of a portfolio = market risk of the portfolio + specific risk of the portfolio
Chapter: One
relationship between the returns of selected stock and market portfolio. This is not the correct definition of “Beta”– please
note.
Example no. 3
Let us say that the risk-free rate is 6.5% as assumed in the above paragraphs. Let us say that the market premium is also 6% as
assumed before. The Beta of a given stock is 1.2. Then the expected rate of return from this stock is = R j = Risk free rate + (Beta
of selected stock x market premium) = 6.5% + 6% x 1.2 = 13.7%. This means that the expected rate of return from selected stock
is 13.7%. This equation is the famous equation called “Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)”
The higher the Beta, the higher the risk and the higher the risk premium in comparison with the market premium and vice-versa.
In the preceding paragraph we saw that the Beta for RIL is less than 1. What does it mean? The risk associated with RIL stock is
less than the risk associated with market portfolio. It is safer. Beta is a true measure of the relative volatility of the return of a
given stock in comparison with the volatility of return of market portfolio.
Short-term
15
Datum is singular and data is a plural of datum. Hence data and are should be used and not data and is.
Chapter: One
This is up to twelve months in duration. The shortest period could be as short as one day as in the case of “call money markets”
and/or “Repo contracts”. It is convention to take a year to consist of 365 days even if the year under consideration were to be a
leap year. The short-term market is called “money market”. Hence short-term instruments are often referred to as “money
market” instruments.
Examples – Call money market, Commercial paper etc. Characteristic features of all the instruments have been detailed
elsewhere.
Medium-term
This is beyond twelve months and the maximum duration is five to seven years. Some authors and some markets consider the
maximum duration for a medium-term instrument as ten years. The students are well advised to be flexible in their understanding
of different definitions of medium-term. All the medium-term instruments are debt instruments.
Examples – Debentures, bonds, fixed deposits accepted from public etc.
Long-term
Anything beyond the medium-term period is long-term. There is no ceiling on the maximum duration of long-term instruments.
Examples – long-term bonds, Equity share capital, Preference share capital, unsecured loans from promoters, friends and
relatives etc.
Chapter: One
use them for working capital. As we proceed further with the chapter the concept behind this will be clear to the students.
However we shall see one example here just to show that capital of the owners in business is available both for fixed assets and
working capital.
Example no. 2
Stage 1 - Starting point for a business enterprise = introduction of capital into business by the owners
Stage 2 - The capital is used for purchase of business assets and business assets comprise fixed assets and working capital. Only
if needed, the business takes loans from outside and together they constitute the funds required for business. This means that
small business may not take loans from outside in case the scale of operations or the nature of activity undertaken does not
warrant this. However most of the business enterprises would require funds from external sources.
Thus we can see that a long-term resource like capital is available both for working capital and fixed assets. Working capital
assets are also known as “current assets”. Similarly fixed assets are also known as “long-term” assets.
We keep talking of current assets of the business enterprise. What are these?
The type of current assets depends upon the type of activity undertaken by the business enterprise. A manufacturing unit requires
more funds than a trading enterprise, which in turn requires more funds than a service enterprise.
Why?
Manufacturing enterprise requires conversion of material into finished goods and then sells it. Hence it will require different
kinds of current assets.
A trading unit does not convert material into finished goods and hence the variety of current assets and investment in it will be
less than in the case of a manufacturing unit.
A service unit does not deal in finished goods. Hence the requirement of current assets is still less in this case.
Chapter: One
Cash balance for day-to-day operations and bank balances in current account (only where short-term bank borrowing like cash
credit or overdraft is absent)
Example no.3
Suppose a limited company wants Rs. 1000 lacs from the public. It completes the necessary formalities in this behalf including
taking permission from the Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI). It proceeds to collect the funds through duly authorised
agents and issues share certificates denoting the number of shares invested in by the investors. Equity share capital is a typical
example of long-term source available to a limited company.
Seekers of
Funds
Suppliers of
(mainly
Funds
business,
(mainly
firms and
households)
government)
Chapter: One
market enables selling off investment in business enterprises by public at large either through stock exchanges or directly to other
investors.
The Financial markets are segmented into the “Money Markets” (up to 12 months) and “Capital Markets” (beyond 12 months)
Money Markets
♦ Money market-Instruments traded in the money market are as under:
♦ Commercial paper – promissory notes issued by the borrowers
♦ Bills discounted – discounting of bills of exchange drawn by the sellers of goods and/or services on the buyers of goods
and/or services
♦ Inter-corporate deposits – one company borrowing money from another company in the short-term
♦ Treasury bills of the Government of India through Reserve Bank of India;
♦ Certificate of deposits raised by banks depending upon their requirement for large amounts;
♦ Call money market wherein the major players are the banks, financial institutions, Life Insurance Corporation of India,
General Insurance Corporation of India etc. both as lenders and borrowers;
Commercial paper
Commercial papers are short term unsecured promissory notes issued at a discount value by large and well-established corporates
having good credit rating for short-term instruments. It is a part of their working capital funds and to the extent of commercial
paper borrowing; their working capital limits with the banks are reduced. As even today in India, the commercial banks’ lending
for working capital purposes is significant, their permission is a must for issuing C.P.’s. They are either issued directly to the
investors or through merchant banks and security houses. The instrument has been welcome especially by the corporates who
have been doing well as their cost of borrowing in the short-term is reduced to a great extent, because the C.P. is always at a
lower rate of interest than the rate of interest on working capital limits charged by the banks.
CP Operational Guidelines
[Following is the summary of various guidelines from RBI. The Fixed Income and Money Market Dealers’ Association
(FIMMDA) as a self-regulatory organisation is working on standardised procedure and documentation in consonance with the
international best practices. Till then, the procedures/documentation prescribed by the Indian banks’ Association would be
followed]
Eligibility: Corporates, primary dealers (PDs), satellite dealers (SDs), and all-India financial institutions (FIs); for a corporate
to be eligible, (a) the tangible net worth of Rs.4 crore; (b) having a sanctioned working capital limit from a bank/FI; and (c) the
Rating Requirement: The minimum credit rating shall be P-2 of CRISIL or such equivalent rating by other approved agencies.
Chapter: One
Limits and Amount: CP can be issued as a "stand alone" product. Banks and FIs will have the flexibility to fix working capital
limits duly taking into account the resource pattern of companies’ financing including CPs.
Issuing and Paying Agent (IPA): Only a scheduled bank can act as an IPA.
Investment in CP: CP may be held by individuals, banks, corporates, unincorporated bodies, NRIs and FIIs.
Mode of Issuance: CP can be issued as a promissory note or in a dematerialised form. Underwriting is not permitted.
Preference for Demat: Issuers and subscribers are encouraged to prefer exclusive reliance on demat form. Banks, FIs, PDs and
SDs are advised to invest only in demat form as soon as arrangements are put in place.
Stand-by Facility: It is not obligatory for banks/FIs to provide stand-by facility. They have the flexibility to provide credit
Bills discounted
These are the commercial bills of corporates or business houses drawn on buyers and duly accepted by them. In some of the
cases, the lender does insist on the co-acceptance of the bankers to the corporate or business house, as the case may be, which
means that this borrowing is done with the full knowledge of the banks that have lent working capital funds to the corporates.
This is a highly unorganised market with no ground rules for operations. There is no secondary market and there is always a
possibility that the bills may not be genuine trade bills but only accommodation bills. The players are N.B.F.C.’s whose banks do
not lend them money against the bills discounted by them and hence money available for such activity is minimum. Rates
entirely depend upon the lender and to an extent are influenced by the credit rating of the drawer as well as the drawee, besides
the liquidity in the market. Nowadays, in view of the fiasco in the I.C.D. market, this market has also been affected to a large
extent and the lenders have started insisting upon the “post dated cheques” from the drawees besides their banks’ approval in
some cases.
Chapter: One
Shares of blue chip companies wherever possible and in some cases shares of their own companies held by the promoter directors
etc.
The above documents are required to be submitted along with the board resolution of the company. The maturity ranges between
3 months and 6 months. The ICD is renewed once or twice at the most, subject to a maximum period of 12 months from the date
of first deposit. The companies who subscribe to ICD’s from the working capital funds they borrow from the banks do run great
risk of reduction in limits once the facts come to the notice of the lending banks
Treasury bills:
It is the short-term instrument issued by the Government to tide over short-term liquidity problems. As this resource plugs the
budget deficit, it is often referred to as “monetization” of budgetary deficit. To back up the treasury bills, currency notes are
printed to that extent. Characteristic features of treasury bills are as under:
As Treasury bills are of very limited value to the business enterprise, we shall not discuss the details or their modus operandi.
Certificate of deposits:
This is more of an investment instrument for those having investible surplus, rather than an instrument for market borrowing.
Commercial banks have been permitted by the RBI to issue certificates of deposits depending on their requirement of funds in the
short term up to 12 months by offering a higher rate of interest than on the regular deposits. Hence the details or their modus
operandi are not discussed here.
Besides the money market instruments, there are other resources for working capital. They are as under:
Chapter: One
RBI also prescribes the ceiling of rate of interest that can be offered on such Fixed Deposits accepted from the public. The
present ceiling is 12.5% p.a. Fixed deposits up to a maturity period of 12 months alone will constitute short-term funds.
Capital Markets
The primary market and the secondary market constitute the capital market and besides, the capital market has the share capital as
well as debt capital instruments. The primary and secondary markets are inter-dependent on each other. They are closely linked
to each other. In case there are many public issues in the primary market it automatically leads to the growth in the secondary
market, as it provides easy liquidity to the existing investors by off-loading their investment either in capital or in debt
instruments and unless the secondary market is active with transparency and efficiency, seekers of capital funds, i.e., corporate
entities cannot hope to tap the primary market for further funds through public issues.
Background:
Capital Issues in the country were being controlled by the Controller of Capital Issues;
They were determining even pricing of the issues;
CCI’s office was abolished in 1992 with The Securities Exchange Board of India being accorded “legal status” under SEBI ACT,
1992. SEBI was actually established in 1988;
Even CCI was controlling the secondary market through the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, which statute continues
even today. In fact, SEBI is responsible for compliance with the provisions of “SCRA 1956”.
Objectives of SEBI:
Promote fair dealings by the issuer of securities and ensure a market place where funds can be raised at a relatively low cost;
Provide a degree of protection to the investors and safeguard their rights and interests so that there is a steady flow of savings into
the market;
Regulate and develop a code of conduct and fair practices by intermediaries in the capital market like brokers and merchant
banks with a view to making them competitive and professional.
In order to carry out its functions to fulfil the above objectives, SEBI has been given various powers like the following:
Power to call for periodical returns from stock exchanges;
Power to call upon the Stock Exchange or any member of the exchange to furnish relevant information;
Power to appoint any person to make inquiries into the affairs of the Stock Exchanges;
Power to amend byelaws of Stock Exchanges;
Power to compel a public limited company to list its shares in any Stock Exchange etc.
Modus operandi in the public issue of share capital and other instruments:
The provisions of the Companies Act and SEBI guidelines apply together for any public issue;
As per the provisions of Companies Act, any capital issue to be done by a limited company should comply with the provisions
relating to prospectus, allotment, issue of shares at premium/discount, further issue of capital etc.
Under SEBI guidelines, the issues should be in conformity with the published guidelines relating to disclosure and other matters
relating to investors protection. SEBI does not make any appraisal of issue but scrutinizes the prospectus that adequate
disclosures have been made in the offer document to enable the investors to take informed investment decisions.
Types of issue:
Public issue of equity shares, preference share, debentures etc.
Rights issue
Bonus issue and
Chapter: One
Private placement
We shall see in short, the specific features of the above issues.
Public Issue
Public limited companies can either be closely held or widely held. Closely held public limited companies do not go to public to
garner resources from the public at large in the form of equity or preference share capital or even debentures. Only widely held
public limited companies go to the public for this purpose. Steps involved in any public issue:
1. Company decides about the size of the public issue;
2. It passes a board resolution to raise the issue;
3. It gets the approval of the general body for the issue;
4. It prepares the prospectus which gives salient features of the issue like:
The purpose of the issue;
The details of existing business, if any, and plans for future expansion etc.;
The details of the project for which public issue is sought, like, location, details of collaboration for
technology tie-up, background of promoters, like educational qualifications, relevant experience in the
chosen field of activity, financial background, association as director with other companies, liabilities in
personal capacity either to the company or on behalf of the company, installed capacity, cost of project,
means of finance, schedule of implementation of the project, advantages arising out of the project, earning
capacity of the project, arrangement for supply of power, water and fuel as well as materials required for
production, arrangement for distribution of finished product, marketing strategy as well as set up, effect on
environment, steps for conserving energy, foreign exchange earning potential of the project, prospective
industries using the product of the project, risks associated with the project and management’s perception of
these risks, details of companies under the same management and subsidiaries, arrangement for term loans,
appointment of all the agents to the issue, like, managers to the issue, bankers to the issue, brokers to the
issue, underwriters to the issue, registrars to the issue, the duration of the issue, etc.
5. Receipt of approval of SEBI;
6. Appointment of all the agents connected with the Issue through the Lead Manager to the Issue;
7. The issue gets underwritten by the underwriters;
8. Printing of prospectus, memorandum, share application forms, publicity material and deciding on the mode of media
publicity, either audio or visual or print or any combination thereof or all the three;
9. Holding of seminars or conferences of brokers and prospective investors respectively;
10. Despatch of publicity material to all the centres;
11. Issue opens at the appointed places;
12. Issue closes, with a minimum period of issue being 3 days;
13. All the share application forms together with the money received by the Registrar to the Issue to the credit of special
account opened for this purpose;
14. You cannot retain any over subscription, excepting to the extent required to fulfil the proportionate allotment exercise.
Similarly, wherever the issue is not underwritten, if the subscription is less than 90% of the issue size, the amount has
to be returned to the applicants. It should be noted that at present underwriting is not obligatory;
15. Allotment of the issue within a specified period from the close of the issue;
16. Issue of share certificates within specified period from the date of allotment and refund of excess money within 30 days
from the date of allotment without interest;
17. In case the refund is later than this period, then interest as per the rates stipulated by SEBI from time to time to be paid;
18. Registrar gives time to the shareholders to get the discrepancies, if any in the share certificates rectified;
19. Submission of all relevant forms and documents to the Registrar of Companies, SEBI etc.;
Chapter: One
20. Registrar to the Issues transfers all the documents and registers to the Issuing company and fulfils his obligations as the
registrar;
21. Lead manager or manager to the issue (in case only one manager) settles all the claims of all the agents to the issue and
22. Lead manager or manager to the issue is paid.
23. Fixation of overall ceiling on the cost of public issue:
For equity and convertible debentures:
Up to Rs.5crores - Mandatory cost + 5%
In excess of Rs.5crores - Mandatory cost + 2%
Non-convertible debentures:
Up to Rs.5crores - Mandatory cost + 2%
In excess of Rs.5crores - Mandatory cost + 1%
Mandatory costs include underwriting commission/brokerage payable to the bankers to the issue and the
brokers to the issue, fees of managers to the issue, fees to the registrars to the issue, mandatory press
announcements and listing fees. Other costs represent among other things, incidental expenses relating to
conferences, seminars etc., printing cost for memorandum, prospectus, share application forms, share
certificates, call notices etc.
The above steps are common in the case of all types of public issue, like for share capital, be it equity or debentures etc.
Rights Issue:
1. It can be issued only to the existing equity shareholders;
2. It has to be issued to all the existing equity share holders and the number of shares offered per share is on a pro-rata
basis – for example, it may be 3 shares for every 5 shares held as equity shares in the company or 1 share for every
share held or 3 shares for every share held etc.;
3. Rights issue cannot be made before expiration of 2 years from the date of incorporation of the company or one year
after the last allotment, whichever is earlier.
4. Rights issues are mostly at premium and rarely at par.
5. Minimum subscription 90% just as in the case of public equity issue as otherwise the entire amount has to be returned
to the applicants.
6. Shareholders have a right to renounce their rights for subscription in favour of his nominee,
7. Either fully or partly under intimation to the share issuing company.
Bonus Issue:
1. No bonus issue to be made within 12 months of any public issue;
Chapter: One
2. The issue is to be made only out of free reserves or share premium collected in cash and not out of any committed or
encumbered reserves;
3. Bonus issue cannot be made in lieu of dividend;
4. Bonus issue cannot be made unless the partly paid shares, if any, are made fully paid up;
5. The company should not have defaulted in payment of interest or principal amount in respect of fixed deposits,
debentures etc.;
6. The company should not be a defaulter in respect of statutory dues of the employees such as contribution to provident
fund, gratuity, bonus etc.;
7. The bonus issue should be completed within a period of 6 months from the date of approval of the Board of directors
and shall not have the option of changing the decision;
8. After the issue of bonus shares, there should be residual free reserves as per stipulation of Companies Act and
9. The issue of bonus shares must be recommended by the Board of Directors and approved by the General Body and the
management’s intention of the rate of dividend on the enhanced capital base is also to be included in the resolution
passed by the General Body in this behalf.
Private placement:
It is marketing of the securities of a private or a public limited company, both shares and debentures, with a limited number of
investors like UTI, LIC, GIC, State Finance Corporations etc. The intermediaries in such issues are credit rating agencies and
trustees e.g. ICICI and financial advisors such as merchant bankers etc. Private placement can be made out of promoters’ quota.
Preference share capital issued by Private Sector Companies mostly belong to this category of private placement as there will
seldom be a public issue of such security.
Govt. securities and securities issued by Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) are excluded here from study under the “Capital
Markets” as the private sector or a commercial business enterprise is not going to benefit from these.
Some of the readers will be wondering about what the differences are between Equity shares and Preference shares and similarly
between “debentures” and “bonds”. Here are the differences.
Difference between Equity shares and Preference shares
If preference share capital is also there, ESC forms the bulk of This forms a minor portion of the share capital
the share capital
Equity shareholders are the owners of the company and have Preference shareholders are not owners of the company and do
voting rights on all the administrative issues referred to the not have any voting rights on the general administration issues.
general body of shareholders by the Board of Directors In short the preference shareholders do not constitute the
general body of shareholders
Dividend is paid only after paying dividend to preference Dividend is paid first on preference share capital out of profit
shareholders after tax (PAT)
Dividend rate is not fixed. There is no ceiling on the rate of Fixed rate of dividend
dividend. There are instances in India when even 130%
(Colgate-Palmolive) or 500% (VSNL – 2000/2001) on the face
value of Equity Share have been paid
At the time of liquidation of the company money can be paid At the time of liquidation of the company, money can be paid
back to Equity shareholders only after paying off the back to the preference shareholders first before paying back to
investment made by preference shareholders the Equity shareholders
Chapter: One
Different kinds of equity share capital like cumulative and Different kinds of preference share capital like cumulative and
ordinary are absent ordinary are possible. Cumulative means that in case during a
year dividend could not be paid for want of cash, as and when
the company starts paying dividend, the cumulative preference
shareholders get dividend for the period during which dividend
has not been paid.
Equity shares can be issued either through private placement or Preference shares are usually issued through private placement
public issue
They are entitled to benefits like Bonus Issues (additional They are not entitled to any of the benefits
shares issued to the shareholders without any funds) and
Rights Issue (additional shares issued to the shareholders by
fresh subscription)
Permanent share capital in business Cannot be permanent share capital in business. As per
provisions of the Companies’ Act, they are either convertible
(converted into equity shares after a given period) or
redeemable (paid back to the investors after a specific period)
Debentures Bonds
Medium term instrument – not exceeding ten years This could be for longer periods – Reliance Industries in fact in
1997 had issued bonds for 100 years in the international market
It is always a face value investment. This means that the This could be discounted value investment. This means take
amount invested by the debenture holders is the same as the for example IDBI deep discounted bond – The face value of
face value of debentures. the instrument is Rs. 1lac payable after 15 years. The amount
invested will be the present value duly discounted by the
implied rate of interest.
Debenture certificates carry stamp charges as per the Stamp Bond certificates carry stamp charges as per the India Stamp
Act of the state in which they are issued Act
Bonds in India are slowly replacing debentures. As it is, Bonds have come to stay in India. Before 1996/1997 Indian
debentures are not very popular instruments internationally. private sector was not using this instrument much. Nowadays
bonds are becoming more common
Debentures could be convertible into equity shares like Bonds are rarely convertible
preference shares
Debentures are seldom issued by Governments or Public Bonds are issued by practically all the sectors: Private sector
Sector Undertakings or Banks or Financial Institutions. They companies, public sector undertakings, Financial Institutions,
are issued by private sector companies Commercial Banks (SBI – India Resurgent Bond or Millenium
Bond as examples) and Central Government/State
Governments
Debentures issued by private sector companies carry Bonds issued by private sector companies carry an inferior
preference over bonds issued by them at the time of liquidation charge to the debentures. Bonds issued by Public Sector
of the company (debenture holders get a superior charge – Undertakings, Financial Institutions, Governments and
legal claim on assets of the company to bond holders) Commercial Banks are not secured. There is no legal claim in
favour of the bondholders.
Chapter: One
Outside the “Capital Markets”, there are other resources available for acquiring fixed assets as under:
16
Gestation period for a project means the time lag between completion of the project for commercial production
and generation of positive cash flow by the project. Positive cash flow means total cash inflow is higher than total
cash outflow. Till the business starts registering positive cash flows repayment of the principal amount does not
start.
Chapter: One
Lease
♦ The owner of the equipment leases it out to the user for a specific period on lease rentals
♦ Two kinds of leasing arrangement -:
Financial lease in which at the end of the lease period the owner (“lessor”) transfers the asset to the “lessee” who has
been using the asset for a small sum, known as “residual value” – factory equipment, office equipment like
photocopier, network of PCs, cranes, forklifts used in factories etc. fall in this category.
Operating lease in which at the end of the lease period the owner gets back the leased asset to be leased out to another
user – cars, earth moving equipment, land, building, aircraft, ships etc. fall in this category.
♦ During the period of use, the lessor charges “lease rentals” to the lessee
♦ The lease rentals in the case of “Financial lease” would be much higher than in the case of operating lease, as recovery of
capital cost of the equipment will be included in the former.
♦ Lease period for a financial lease would not exceed five years
♦ Lease period for operating lease would be less excepting land and building in which case it could be for longer periods
Hire Purchase
Very similar to “Financial Lease” arrangement. The major difference is that in Hire Purchase, the transfer of ownership from the
Financing Company to the Hirer (one who has taken the equipment on Hire Purchase) is automatic at the end of a specific period.
Chapter: One
♦ Involves a series of bills of exchanges17 drawn by the seller on the buyer and accepted by the buyer
♦ Involves co-acceptance or guarantee of payment by the buyer’s banks
♦ The seller gets payment immediately on sale of equipment from his bank
♦ The buyer’s bank honours its commitment by recovering the instalments as per due dates from the buyer and remitting the
amount to the seller’s bank
♦ The buyer’s bank gets commission for co-acceptance of the bills of exchange or guaranteeing
♦ The seller’s bank gets interest that is included in the amount of bills of exchange and provides finance immediately to the
seller. This process is called “discounting”18
♦ Period not exceeding seven years and available for indigenous equipment – rarely for import equipment
♦ Seller’s bank can have rediscounting arrangement with IDBI for rates of interest that are lower than the rates at which he
recovers interest from the buyer of the equipment
17
Bill of exchange – as the term indicates is exchanged between the buyer and the seller whenever the sale is on
credit. Sale on credit means that the buyer is not going to pay immediately. A bill of exchange should not be
confused with “commercial bill” or “invoice”. This is accepted by the buyer acknowledging his debt to the seller or
his bank towards the cost of the equipment together with interest especially in the case of medium-term bills. The
seller of the equipment draws bill of exchange as an order on the buyer. Without this instrument, the seller’s bank
will not finance the seller.
18
The term “discount” means less than face value. The value of the bill of exchange in this case would include the
instalment payable towards the cost of the capital equipment and the interest. The seller’s bank while giving
finance to the seller would deduct the interest charged and finances only the principal amount.
Chapter: One
Concept of leverage
What is leverage? Leverage is a handle available to facilitate doing a work as easily as possible, as in the case of a “lever” in
Physics. Let us revisit the concept of a “lever”. Suppose we want to lift a stone with a crowbar. We can lift it without any
support. We can lift it with some support called “fulcrum”. The “fulcrum” is the support on which the crowbar rests while lifting
the stone.
Suppose the fulcrum is close to the object being lifted that is “stone”. The leverage is very good, i.e., the ease with which the
stone can be lifted is high. If the “fulcrum” is in the middle of the length of the crowbar, it will be more difficult. The leverage
available to the lifter is less than in the previous case. If on the contrary, the “fulcrum” is close to the hand that exerts pressure to
lift the stone, it becomes increasingly difficult to lift it. The leverage is said to be the least. Thus the point of “fulcrum”, the
support decides the extent of ease (leverage) in completing the work of lifting the stone.
Similar is the concept of leverage in the case of a business enterprise. Leverage to a business enterprise is of two kinds:
♦ Operating leverage - leverage relating to the operations of the company, which relate either to the level of output
(production) or level of sales. In this, the business tries to leverage its operations against fixed operating costs that are
expected to be constant for some time. Here again, the operations could relate either to the output or level of sales. As sales
represent the revenues to the organisation, let us confine our discussion on “operating leverage” to the level of sales rather
than the level of output (production).
It is measured through “degree of operating leverage”, called DOL = Δ EBIT/ Δ Sales
♦ Financial leverage - leverage available in financing arrangement of the company to enhance the earnings per share of the
equity shareholders (EPS). Financial leverage is due to “interest”19 on loans being allowed as an expense. This tells us how
Earning Per Share (EPS) moves in relation to Earnings Before Interest and Tax (EBIT). Interest paid by the business
enterprise on loans enjoys what is known as “tax shield”20. In “Financial leverage”, the business enterprise tries to leverage
its finances by having a proper mix of equity and debt in its capital structure. Let us see the following example to understand
this concept.
Equation for degree of financial leverage, DFL = Δ EPS/Δ EBIT. In the following example, the assumption is that the two
enterprises under comparison are in the same line of business employing the same amount of capital in business. It is also
further assumed that the loan in both the cases carries the same rate of interest and the tax rate is 38.5% (35% basic tax rate
and 10% surcharge thereon). Face value of share is Rs.100/- in both the cases.
Thus “Operating Leverage” is leveraging the operations against the fixed operating costs of the business enterprise and
“Financial Leverage” is leveraging the earnings against the tax shield available on interest cost on borrowings form outside and
they are measured in terms of degree of operating and degree of financial leverages.
Leverage means the “risk” associated with a business enterprise. Operating leverage means the risk associated with the scale of
operations and financial leverage means the risk associated with the pattern of financing, i.e., debt financing or equity financing.
HOW?
Just as an increase in sales could impact EBIT positively, a decrease in sales also would affect EBIT negatively. Similarly an
increase in EBIT could impact EPS positively, a decrease in EBIT also would affect EPS negatively. That is why leverage is
often referred to as a “double edged sword”.
19
Interest on loans is a pre-tax expense in the sense that it is part of the revenue expenditure of the organisation
as against dividend on share capital that is profit distribution after meeting income tax obligation.
20
Tax shield is the amount of tax saved by claiming a business expense against income of the business enterprise.
Hence tax shield on interest is the tax saved by taking loans and paying interest as a pre-tax expense.
Chapter: One
They include all the costs in operation of the business enterprise that are fixed in nature with the exclusion of
interest charges and other financial charges that are mostly fixed in nature.21
Short-run:
This depends upon the industry in general and the enterprise in particular. For example in the case of a manufacturing unit, this
could be two years whereas in the case of a service industry especially like IT, this could be less than six months even. The term
short-run refers to the period in which, ignoring the impact of “inflation”, the operating costs of the business do not increase 22.
This is a very useful tool in measuring the impact of the increase in the scale of operations (preferable to take “sales” as
operations instead of “production”)23. Once the operating costs are fixed, the management can decide about the scale of
operations and the higher the scale of operations, the higher the EBIT as the operating costs would not increase with the increase
in scale of operations. Let us examine the following example.
Conclusion
It is possible to have high operating leverage, i.e., high degree of sensitivity of EBIT to change in Sales, only when the operating
fixed costs form the bulk of total costs. On the contrary if variable costs form the bulk of total costs, the operating leverage
vanishes almost.
Example no. 2
Sales 100 110
F.C. --- ---
21
Please note the difference between fixed operating costs in the context of operating leverage and fixed costs in
the context of “marginal costing”. While in the former, interest and other financial charges are excluded, the latter
would include interest and other financial charges as “fixed costs”
22
The underlying approach to fixed costs, be it in the context of “marginal costing” or “operating leverage” is that
effect of “inflation” is ignored. If we consider the effect of “inflation”, all costs of a business enterprise would be
variable.
23
Production would not recover the costs incurred whereas sales would recover the costs incurred and hence it is
preferable to take sales as the base here although a number of renowned authors still consider “production” as the
parameter while considering the scale of operations.
Chapter: One
V.C. 70 77
EBIT 30 33
Change in EBIT (Δ EBIT) --- 10%
Operating leverage ---- 1 (Δ EBIT/Δ Sales)
This means that there is practically no leverage opportunity existing. Leverage opportunity exists only when due to change in
scale of operations, the EBIT changes also to the same extent and not more than proportionately. This is called “Degree of
Operating Leverage (DOL)”.
24
When two comparative positions are available as in Example nos. 1 and 2, the degree of operating leverage
would be Δ EBIT/Δ Sales. However most of the times two comparative positions may not be available. Based on a
single level of operation, the formulae given here would help in determining the DOL. The same thing holds good
for Degree of Financial leverage.
Chapter: One
Interest on debt 7.50
Profit before tax 52.50
Income Tax @ 35% 18.38
Profit After Tax 34.12
Dividend on preference share capital 5.00
Equity earnings 29.12
Quantity produced – 5000 units
Variable cost per unit – Rs. 2000/-
Selling price per unit – Rs. 5000/-
Degree of operating leverage – 5000 (5000-2000)/5000 (5000-2000) – 90,00,000 = 150/60 = 2.5
Break-even point = 3000 units when contribution = fixed costs
Financial leverage – advantage of debt in preference to equity, its usefulness to increase Earning Per Share
(EPS) for shareholder
1. It measures the sensitivity of the undertaking’s Earnings Per Share (EPS) to the changes in the Earnings Before Interest and
Tax (EBIT)
2. The basic assumption for this is that source of funds (whether equity or debt) does not affect the EBIT whereas it does affect
the EPS
3. This is based on the advantage of interest on debt being a pre-tax expense.
Example no. 4
Unit 1 Unit 2
Equity share capital Rs. 100 lacs = 1 lac shares Rs. 200 lacs = 2 lac shares
Debt capital @ 14% interest Rs. 300 lacs Rs. 200 lacs
EBIT Rs. 150 lacs Rs. 150 lacs
Chapter: One
Less: Interest Rs. 42 lacs Rs. 28 lacs
EBT or PBT Rs. 108 lacs Rs. 122 lacs
25
Tax say at 35% Rs.37.8 lacs Rs.42.7 lacs
EAT or PAT Rs.70.2 lacs Rs.79.3 lacs
Earnings Per share (EPS) Rs. 70.20 Rs. 39.65
It can be seen from the above that increasing the debt component in a given capital structure increases the Earnings Per Share
(EPS) as the number of shares issued is less than when more equity share capital is present in the capital structure. This is the
concept of “Financial leverage”.
Observations:
1. As debt component increases in a capital structure, EPS also increases;
2. Presence of corporate tax makes the difference
3. In the absence of taxes, the difference in EPS will be negligible
Example no. 5 (Rupees in lacs)
Alternative 1 Alternative 2
EBIT 200 200
Interest 45 60
PBT 155 140
Tax 0 0
PAT 5.17 7
Difference = 36.6%
Earlier difference = 36.4%
So what makes the difference?
Interest being allowed as operating expense
Does it mean that we can increase the debt component without any ceiling? Answer is “No”.
Even if the project/enterprise owner wants it that way (as he will be required to put in less of his money) lenders will not permit
it. The ceiling prescribed by the market or lenders at present is 2: 1. This is considering only the medium and long-term debts and
excluding the short-term debts.
25
Actual tax rate is at present = 35% + 10% Surcharge thereon making a total of 38.5%
Chapter: One
DFL = (Δ EPS/EPS)/ (Δ EBIT/EBIT) –------------------ Equation no. 1
We know that EPS = {(EBIT – I) (1-t)26 – Dp}/ no. Of equity shares in which Dp is the dividend on preference share capital.
Substituting this in equation no. 1, we get equation no. 2 as above.
How does one determine the level of finance for the firm?
When trying to determine the appropriate financial leverage for a firm, we would also analyze the cash-flow ability of the firm to
service the fixed financial charges. The greater the rupee amount of debts taken by the company, the greater the fixed financial
charges. This further increases in case the maturity of these debts is of shorter duration, i.e., less than 5 years. Before taking on
additional fixed financial charges, the firm should analyze its expected future cash flows, as fixed financial charges must be met
with cash. The inability to meet these charges may result in financial insolvency. The greater and more stable the expected future
cash flows, the greater the debt capacity of the firm.
Conclusion on leverages
1. Leverage is a double-edged sword; if used properly it will enhance the operating efficiency of the firm by increasing the
EBIT in response to sales (operating leverage) and maximize the return to shareholders by increasing the EPS in response to
EBIT.
2. Simultaneously if not used properly, the results could be disastrous in the sense that the firm’s operating risk and financial
risk both increase
3. Business enterprises use the leverage opportunities depending upon their risk taking ability or risk aversion that in turn
depend upon the corporate philosophy of the management – whether they are conservative or aggressive. If they are
conservative, they would like to operate at a very low leverage level – the DOL and DFL could be less than 1 and on the
contrary if they are aggressive, the level of leverages would also increase – the DOL and DFL would be well above 1
26
Please note that as dividend is post-tax and interest is pre-tax, this needs to be converted into post-tax and for
this the formula is post-tax rate or value = pre-tax rate or value (1-t) wherein “t” represents the tax rate expressed
in decimals. Suppose the tax rate is 35%, then “t’ is 0.35.
Chapter: One
Chapter: One
expense”. As this does not involve any outlay of funds, the cash remains within the system primarily
for giving the enterprise funds for purchase of machine at the end of 4 years in our example on
replacement basis. Depreciation can be claimed either on “Straight Line Method” basis or “Written
Down Value Method” basis.
The importance of “depreciation” does not rest there. By claiming depreciation, we are reducing the
profit for the year and thereby tax. As there is no “cash out flow” involved in depreciation, the
entire funds are available with the enterprise. Thus, depreciation is at once a “business expense”
and a “fund”. It is a well-known method of “tax planning” by acquiring fixed assets regularly, so
that you reduce your tax liability. This would be possible only if your level of income permits
absorption of “depreciation” as expenditure. Let us see the following example.
Example no. 1
Depreciation by straight line method and written down value method
Suppose we have an asset worth Rs.1lac at the beginning and we can claim depreciation either by the
straight-line method or by the written down value method. Further let us assume the rates are same
for both the methods, say 10%. Then the depreciation schedule would look like:
(Straight-line method)
Year No. Opening value Depreciation Closing value
Zero 1,00,000/- ----- 1,00,000/-
1 1,00,000/- 10,000/- 90,000/-
2 90,000/- 10,000/- 80,000/-
3 80,000/- 10,000/- 70,000/-
4 70,000/- 10,000/- 60,000/-
5 60,000/- 10,000/- 50,000/-
6 50,000/- 10,000/- 40,000/-
7 40,000/- 10,000/- 30,000/-
8 30,000/- 10,000/- 20,000/-
9 20,000/- 10,000/- 10,000/-
10 10,000/- 10,000/- Nil
Chapter: One
10 38,738/- 3,874/- 34,864/-
Note: The depreciation in the straight-line method is dependent on the original value and does not
vary from year to year. Under this method, an asset would be reduced to “zero” after a period of time.
The rate of depreciation is applied on the original value and not the closing value.
The depreciation in the written down value method is dependent on the closing value only and the rate
of depreciation is applied to it. Hence, every year, the amount of depreciation varies. If the rate of
depreciation is the same under both the methods, then, while an asset gets written off under the
straight-line method, under the written down value method, it always retains a positive value. Hence,
the rates of depreciation have been so arranged in the Schedule XIV of the Companies Act, 1956, that
under either method, over a period of time the closing value remains more or less the same.
A limited company can claim depreciation either under S.L.M. or W.D.V. in the books, as per the
provisions of the Companies Act. The Income Tax rules permit only one method, i.e., the written down
value method and the rates of depreciation prescribed in the Income tax are different from the rates
prescribed in the Companies Act. These rates are the same for any form of business organisation,
namely, firms or limited companies.
Learning Points:
♦ Depreciation is at once an expense and a fund (resource).
♦ It is a part of the internal accruals.
♦ Depreciation is a part of tax planning in companies.
♦ In the books, you can claim depreciation either by SLM or WDV but in the income tax you can claim
only by WDV.
♦ In the books, only for limited companies, rates of depreciation have been prescribed by The
Companies’ Act.
♦ The rates of depreciation in the Income tax are uniform to all forms of business organisation.
♦ In the SLM the value of the asset can reduce to “zero”, while in the WDV, this would not happen.
Note
27
EBDT = Earnings Before Depreciation and Tax
Chapter: One
Usually Profit After Tax is taken as the parameter for comparing the performance (intra-firm, i.e.,
comparison with its own past performance) or (inter-firm, i.e., with other firms in the same industry
having same scale of investment). However from what we know “depreciation” is a non-cash expense
and hence “Cash Accruals” are a better parameter as a comparison tool.
Chapter: One
o Lease and/or hire purchase for purchase of specific fixed assets or what is called
“equipment financing”
o Medium-term acceptances for purchase of specific capital equipments under IDBI or
SIDBI schemes
o Deferred Payment Guarantee scheme for purchase of specific capital equipment under
which the buyer’s bank gives guarantee in favour of the seller and/or his bank – the
seller obtains finance against this guarantee. This is very similar to medium-term
acceptance as above
The details of all the resources have already been discussed in Chapter no. 4. Hence they are not
repeated here.
From the list above it can be seen that in the case of existing enterprises, two additional resources are
available, namely depreciation on fixed assets and profits earned and retained in the business
enterprise. This is the difference in approach between the existing enterprise and a new enterprise. Let
us examine it through an example.
Example no. 3
Let us take a business enterprise that starts with a total capital of Rs. 1000 lacs – financed by equity to
the extent of Rs. 400 lacs and loans to the extent of Rs. 600 lacs. The business enterprise is supposed
to repay the loans over a period of five years at the rate of Rs. 200 lacs every year. Let us also assume
that it has earned sufficient profits to be in a position to repay the loan as per the loan amortization 28
schedule. Let us map their capital structure as under:
(Amount in lacs of rupees)
Parameter in the capital structure Period T0 Period T5
Equity share capital 400 400
Loans 600 ----
Reserves and surplus ---- 40029
Applying the debt to equity ratio, it is 1.5:1 at the beginning and it is “infinity” at the end of five years
as there is no debt obligation outstanding. Hence the business enterprise is in a position to raise
further resources for financing its fixed assets and put in a part of the amount required as “margin
money” from its internal accruals. This is the most important difference between new business
enterprise and an existing one in as much as resources that are available for fixed assets.
Thus in financial planning for fixed assets for an existing enterprise, internal
accruals including depreciation form a very important source whereas in the case
of a new enterprise internal accruals would not be there.
Let us see one more example to get this reinforced in our minds.
Example no. 4
The enterprise in the above example requires Rs. 600 lacs. It would first see how much it could commit
from its internal accruals to the fixed assets funding. Let us say Rs. 100 lacs. Suppose it has to observe
a debt to equity ratio of 1.5:1. Then it has to raise by way of internal accruals and fresh capital Rs. 240
lacs (600/5 * 2). As it has internal accruals of Rs. 100 lacs, it is enough for it to raise equity of Rs. 140
lacs {240 lacs (-) 100 lacs}, whereas in the case of a new enterprise, it requires entire Rs. 240 lacs by
way of equity.
28
The students should progressively learn to adopt international finance language as in the case of “amortization”.
Loan amortization schedule is very common internationally, by which they mean the repayment schedule.
29
The balance amount of Rs.200 lacs have come from the depreciation claimed on fixed assets and utilized for this
purpose. The business enterprise would have claimed more than Rs.200 lacs by way of depreciation and it is
assumed here that a part of this amount, it has utilized for replacement of fixed assets.
Chapter: One
Chapter: One
11. Salaries and wages for staff and workers
12. Material consumption as a % of cost of production or sales
13. Fixed costs and break-even sales etc.
The above list is not exhaustive but fairly indicative of the working assumptions of any project
Based on the above, the finance department prepares the first year’s projected profit and loss
statement, balance sheet at the end of the period, cash f low and funds flow statements.
Once Year 1 projections are ready, bifurcation of expenses into variable and fixed expenses takes
place. Fixed expenses are projected to increase by “Budgeted Expenses Method (BEM)” and variable
expenses are increased by “Percentage Sales Method (PSM)”. Let us see examples for both of these as
under:
Chapter: One
capital namely the long-term capital does not work. Working capital has got two connotations – gross
working capital and net working capital.
Gross working capital = Sum total of current assets
Net working capital = Difference between gross working capital and current liabilities.
What are working capital assets? Are there other names for these terms?
Gross working capital is also known as short-term assets or current assets
Current liabilities that finance working capital are also known as short-term liabilities or working capital
liabilities
Chapter: One
Chapter: One
“Operating Cycle” or “Working Capital Cycle”. Let us examine the following diagrammatic
representation to understand this.
Cash Materials
Chapter: One
Materials 45 230
Work in progress 21 200
Finished goods 15 180
Receivables or debtors 30 500
Creditors outstanding or credit on 15 76
Purchases
Then the operating cycle in number of days = 45 + 21 + 15 + 30 – 15 = 96 days
Operating cycle in value = 230 + 200 + 180 + 500 – 76 = Rs. 1034 lacs
Is there any difference between operating cycle in value and operating cycle in
terms of funds invested?
Yes. In the above case, the value of operating cycle is Rs. 1034 lacs. However this is not the same as
the amount of funds invested in operating cycle. The difference is the profit on outstanding debtors.
Let us assume that the profit margin is 10%. Hence in the above example, the profit on Rs. 500 lacs
works out to be Rs. 50 lacs. This is return on investment and not a part of investment. Hence to
determine how much of funds have been invested in current assets, we will have to deduct this
amount. After deducting Rs. 50 lacs, the resultant figure is Rs.984 lacs.
Thus in the given example, the investment in operating cycle is Rs. 984 lacs and the value of one
operating cycle is Rs.1034 lacs.
Chapter: One
Thus very rarely the working capital requirement of a business enterprise gets reduced in future. So
long as the business enterprise is working, the working capital requirement would only increase. Along
with increase in gross working capital, the net working capital would also increase proportionately. In
case this does not happen the current ratio is likely to reduce. We will examine this example to
understand this.
The banks financing current assets would be reluctant to accede to the borrower’s request of reduction
in net working capital that affects the current ratio. From the above it is very clear that any business
enterprise has certain minimum working capital at all times. This is called the “core working capital”.
Invariably this is financed by net working capital and rarely by current liabilities. Thus in most of the
business enterprises, core working capital = net working capital = permanent working capital =
medium and long-term investment in current assets that only goes on increasing with growth and not
reduce.
Chapter: One
♦ If it is high the lead time30 will be high and accordingly the amount invested in materials or
components or spares or consumables as the case may be will be high
4. Whether the operations are seasonal or not?
♦ For example a sugarcane crushing industry is a seasonal industry – the material of sugar cane
is not available throughout the year. Hence whenever available stocking in large quantities is
necessary. The same thing is true of a manufacturer producing edibles that are dependent
upon availability of the required agricultural products in the market.
5. What is the policy of the management towards current assets?
♦ Is it conservative? If it is the management is risk-averse and tends to carry higher inventory of
materials and cash on hand at least. The current ratio tends to be high with higher
dependence on medium and long-term sources for financing current assets rather than short-
term liabilities
♦ If it is aggressive, it is risk taking and tends to carry less inventory of materials and cash on
hand. The current ratio tends to be low with higher dependence on short-term liabilities for
financing current assets
♦ If it moderate, it is between conservative and aggressive and hence investment in materials
and cash on hand is moderate. The current ratio would also be moderate with balanced
dependence on medium and long-term liabilities on one hand and short-term liabilities on the
other hand to finance current assets.
6. The degree of process automation in the industry
♦ If it is more = less investment in work in progress or semi finished goods
♦ If it is less = more investment in work in progress or semi finished goods
7. Government policy in the country
♦ If it allows freely imports just as it is at present in India, imported materials will be higher in
the inventory with consequent higher holding and higher requirement of working capital funds
8. Who the customers are for the industry?
♦ If the unit supplies more to Government agencies = more outstanding debtors and hence
higher requirement of working capital
9. Whether the unit is in a buyer’s position or seller’s position as a supplier and as a customer?
♦ If the unit is in the buyer’s position as a supplier = more outstanding debtors due to higher
ACP
♦ If the unit is in the buyer’s position as a customer = longer credit on purchases and less
requirement of working capital
♦ Contrary would be true for the opposite position, i.e., unit is in seller’s position as a supplier
and seller’s position as a customer.
10. The market acceptance for the unit – the credit rating given by suppliers, banks etc. The better the
rating the better the terms of supply or lower the cost of borrowed funds and hence the
requirement of working capital funds would alter
11. Availability of bank finance – freely and on easy terms:
♦ If it is so the enterprise tends to stock more and draw more finance from banks; if it converse,
it will be less bank finance. The same goes for rates of interest on working capital finance
charged by the banks. If it is less – dependence on bank finance would increase; if it is
converse, it would reduce
12. Market conditions and availability of alternative instruments of finance like commercial paper etc.
30
Lead time is the time gap between placing the order for materials and its receipt at the factory
Chapter: One
♦ Increasingly commercial paper is being adopted as reliable means of short-term finance. The
rates are very competitive. They depend upon the credit rating of the commercial paper
floated by the company. If more and more such instruments of short-term finance are
available, dependence upon bank finance will reduce and one’s own investment in current
assets in the form of net working capital will reduce.
13. Easy availability of materials, components and consumables in the local markets:
♦ If they are freely available then there is no need to stock it and the unit can adopt what is
known as “Just In Time (JIT). Their investment in inventory of materials, components and
consumables would be less
Chapter: One
3. Bill finance – both seller’s bills and purchaser’s bills should be encouraged more in comparison
with funding through overdraft/cash credit. The rate of interest should be at least 1% less than for
overdraft/cash credit facility.
4. Bulk of the finance for borrowers having working capital limits of Rs. 10 crores and above, the
funding should be through loan facility rather than cash credit/overdraft. The amount of loan
should be 85% and cash credit/overdraft cannot be more than 15%
5. Banks can evolve their own lending norms
6. Export finance should be given priority
7. Banks should have statements from the borrower for post-sanction monitoring on a continuous
basis
8. Banks should have credit rating of their borrowers done on a regular basis so as to give benefit or
increase the rates or maintain at the current level the rates of interest on working capital finances.
The banks by and large lend evolving their own lending norms including minimum current ratio, extent
of finance, minimum credit rating required, prime security, additional security (collateral security), rate
of interest depending upon the credit rating given to the borrower, preference to bill finance and
export finance etc.
Cash management
Objective – to minimize holding of cash that is at once liquid and unproductive. Conventional authors
have written about various cash management models like Miller-Orr model etc. However in practice
these models are seldom used. The control over cash is more through cash flow statement or in some
cases cash budgeting. This is similar to funds flow statement. All cash inflow items and cash outflow
items are listed out with due bifurcation as shown in the Annexure to the chapter. Cash budgeting
could also be for estimates of income and expenses whereas cash flow statement is essentially for
monitoring available cash at the end of the period vis-à-vis the actual requirement. On review, this
enables to take a suitable decision to reduce the average requirement of cash or increase it as the
case may be.
There could be three alternative positions in respect of cash in an enterprise as under:
Chapter: One
profit of the organisation that partially can be committed to investment in the medium to long-term,
this can be done without fear of liquidity problems in future.
Inventory management
What do you mean by "inventory management"?
In simple terms, it means effective management of all the components of inventory in a business
enterprise with the objective of and resulting in -
Optimum utilization of resources - this will be possible only if the unit carries neither too much nor too
little inventory. There should be just sufficient investment in the inventory so as to maximize the
number of times the inventory turns over in one accounting period and simultaneously the unit's
production or selling is not hampered for want of inventory. This means striking a balance between
carrying larger inventory than necessary (conservative inventory or working capital policy - too much
of "elbow" room) and high risk of stoppage of activity for want of inventory (aggressive inventory or
working capital policy or the practice of over trading - too little "elbow" room).
Please refer to example above on “operating efficiency”.
Who takes more risk? - A person holding higher inventory or less inventory?
Assuming that the person holding too much inventory has the right mix of inventory that is needed for
his business, carries less risk of stoppage of production or selling but ends up paying higher cost in
carrying higher inventory. On the other hand, the person carrying less inventory incurs less cost in
carrying inventory but runs the risk of stoppage of production of selling for want of resources. He is
perhaps rewarded with higher sales revenue and profits for the higher risk that he takes, provided that
his operations are not hampered for want of resources. Thus inventory management as a subject
Chapter: One
offers a classic proof for one of the two popular maxims in Finance, namely "Risk" and "Return" go
together.
As mentioned earlier, one of the objectives of inventory management is to minimize the total costs
associated with it, namely ordering costs and carrying costs. The underlying principle that should be
kept in mind while discussing this is that ordering cost and carrying cost are inversely related to each
other. Suppose the ordering cost increases because of more number of times the order is repeated, a
direct consequence would be reduction in inventory held (average value of inventory held) and hence
carrying cost would be less. Conversely if the number of orders is less, this means that the average
value of inventory held is higher with the consequence of higher inventory carrying costs.
Average inventory could be the average of opening and closing stocks or wherever this information is
not available, this could be half of the size of inventory per order.
Are there tools for effective inventory management?
Yes. The tool depends upon the type of inventory, namely materials, work-in-progress or finished
goods. Let us examine the tools for managing materials.
Chapter: One
Receivables management:
Receivables form the bulk of the current assets in most of the business today, as business firms
generally sell goods or services on credit and it takes a little time for the receivables to realise. Hence
“receivables management” forms an important part of working capital management, as it involves the
following:
1. Company’s cash flow very much depends on the timely realisation of receivables, so much so that
the cash inflow assumed in the cash flow statement turns out to be reliable;
Chapter: One
2. With any delay in realisation of bills, the likelihood of bad debts increases automatically and
3. There is a cost associated with the bills or book-debts in the form of following costs:
♦ Receivable carrying cost in the form of interest on bank borrowing against the receivables as
well as on the margin brought in by the promoters;
♦ Administrative costs associated with the maintenance of receivables;
♦ Costs relating to recovery of receivables and
♦ Defaulting cost due to bad debts.
Hence “receivables management” assumes significance in the context of overall efficient working
capital management.
Steps involved in “receivables management” or “monitoring receivables”:
1. Selective extension of credit to customers instead of uniform credit “across the board” to all the
customers. In fact, there should be a well designed “credit policy” in a company, which lays down
the parameters for “credit decision” on sales. In fact, the company should have its own credit
rating system of all its customers and details of these have been discussed under “credit
evaluation” elsewhere in the note.
2. Availing the services of “Consignment agents” who would take the responsibility of collection of
receivables for payment of a suitable commission. In fact, all the companies who do not enjoy
their own network of sales force or branch offices are effectively controlling their receivables
through this. Of late the consignment agents have started acting as “factoring service agents”
called “factors” who extend collection of receivables service besides the service of financing.
3. Try to raise bill of exchange on the customers especially for bills with credit period and route the
documents through the banks, so that there is a control over the customers due to their
acceptance on the bill of exchange. Acceptance means commitment to payment on due dates.
Even in the case of bills not involving any credit period, i.e., “sight bills” or “demand bills”, it
should be customary to despatch documents through banks so that better control can be
exercised on the “receivables”.
4. Try and obtain “Advance money” against bank guarantees so that the outstanding comes down
automatically, besides improving the liquidity available with the company.
5. Try for early release of payment by offering “cash discount”. Any decision of this kind should take
into consideration both the cost saved due to interest on bank borrowing and margin money on
one hand and the increase in cost due to the discount. For example, let us say that the interest on
bank borrowing and margin money is 15% p.a. The present credit period is 30 days and you desire
to have immediate payment by offering 1.5% cash discount. The decision should be taken after
comparing the saving of interest due to immediate payment with the amount of cash discount. At
15% p.a., the interest burden per month is 1.25%, as against the additional cost of 1.5% cash
discount. Hence, cash discount is costlier.
Note: Here, the matter has been considered only from “finance point of view” and not from the
“liquidity” point of view. All credit decisions are influenced to a great extent by consideration of
“liquidity” also.
6. Proper bifurcation of receivables of the company into different credit periods for which they have
been outstanding from the respective dates of invoices like the following. This is more from the
point of view of control and easy review rather than anything else:
Receivables up to 30 days;
Receivables between 31 days and 60 days;
Receivables between 61 days and 90 days;
Receivables between 91 days and 180 days;
Receivables above 180 days up to 1 year;
Receivables between 1 year and 2 years and so on.
Chapter: One
7. Proper and timely follow up with the customers whose bills are outstanding, both by distant
communication as well as personal visits to find out whether the delay is due to any dissatisfaction
of the customer with the quality of the goods and/or services or the after sales service rendered by
the company. This should be done regularly by ensuring that the marketing and sales personnel
are provided with the statement of outstanding receivables every month so that the matter can be
followed up with the customers during their periodic visit to them.
8. Once any customer’s profile is available as regards his outstanding bills, any further order from the
same customer should not be processed by the marketing department for sending it on to the
production department for manufacturing, especially in case the outstanding position of
receivables is not satisfactory. Thus at the very first stage, i.e., even production of goods for
customers who are defaulting would be avoided.
9. In case of large contracts, especially where the end user is not our customer and there is a clause
regarding release of 5% or 10% of the receivables after implementation of a “project” by the
ultimate end-user, try and obtain the amounts released by providing the customers with
“performance” guarantees, as mostly the retention would be due to the time necessary for being
satisfied with the performance of the goods supplied by you to the end-user through the
intermediary, who is our customer.
10. Note: In point numbers 2 and 3, it should be borne in mind that the banks while giving guarantee
do take security at least up to 25% but you still improve the cash flow to the extent of 75% of the
amount involved and the margin money given to the bank can be kept in the form of “fixed
deposit” with the bank earning “interest”, so that the overall cost of “guarantee” can be reduced.
11. Try to evolve an incentive scheme for the marketing/sales departments, by which one of the
parameters for earning the incentive is “collection of receivables” or “improvement in profile of
debtors” in the respective territories. It is observed that most of the times, incentives are given
only for booking the orders and hence there is no incentive to induce the marketing/sales
personnel to go after recovery.
12. Try to get the receivables factored by some factoring agency, like the SBI factoring company
although the cost could be higher than in the case of finance against receivables or book debts. In
fact having regard to the cost associated with “factoring”, this step is more for “liquidity” due to
the finance available from the “factor” rather than for “management of receivables”. Similar is the
case with “forfaiting” for international transactions involving “capital goods”.
Note: Factoring can be either with recourse against the drawers or without recourse. In India,
factoring is permitted only with recourse. Factoring is for short-term receivables, while forfaiting is
for medium and long-term receivables. Forfaiting internationally, is without recourse against the
drawers. However, in India, as of now, it is only with recourse. Just like “factor”, the forfaiting
agency is called “Aval” or “Avalising agent”. In India, there is “Indo Suez Aval Associates” who do
such transactions. RBI has laid down the rule that forfaiting should be registered with EXIM Bank
and that it should be backed by a bank guarantee given by the exporter’s bank.
Example No. 11
Existing sale - Rs.200lacs
No credit on sales at present
Proposed selective credit for certain customers – 45 days
Increase in sales due to this – 24lacs per year
Chapter: One
Earnings before interest to sales – 20%
Cost of funds – 15% both from the bank and on margin
What is the additional profit from the increased sales, in case the earnings before interest and the cost
of funds is maintained, based on the assumption that on the increased sales, the bad debts is 10%.
Example No. 12
Existing sales: Rs.180lacs
Current credit period: 30days
Earnings before interest: 25%
Cost of funds: 18%p.a.
Contemplated increase in sales: Rs.20lacs
Contemplated increase in credit period for entire sales: 15 days
Loss due to bad debts due to new sales: 5%
Should the company go in for increased credit period?
Chapter: One
Similar examples could be given even for cash discount in case there is reduction in the overall credit
period due to cash discount with or without resultant increase in sales.
Factors considered before altering credit decision and/or for credit rating
customers:
Utility of the customers to the company, in terms of existing turnover, expected increase in turnover
due to the altered credit period, efforts in promoting new products, helping in achieving the yearly
targets by agreeing to dumping and past track record regarding credit discipline.
Instruments available for credit rating and credit evaluation:
1. Bank credit reports
2. Reports in the market
3. Credit reports from independent market or credit agencies, especially in the case of international
customers
4. Customers’ published accounts in the case of limited companies.
Chapter: One
♦ Find out the feasibility of the proposal received from the marketing department. Show
all the steps. Do not skip any step.
4. Your company is at present doing Rs.1200 lacs sales a year. The credit period is 30 days for all
customers. You draw bank finance to the extent of 70% and the balance is the margin. Rate of
interest is 16% p.a. and the management is expecting a return of 24% on its investment. The % of
EBIT to sales is 20%. You want to expand your market and the marketing department advises you
to increase the credit period by another 30 days. The promised increase in sales is 20%. There is
no incidence of bad debts on new sales as well as old sales. Examine the issue and advise the
management suitably as to whether they should accept the recommendation and go ahead with
increasing the credit period
5. From the following determine the operating cycle in days, value of operating cycle, investment in
current assets and eligible bank borrowing.
Raw materials: 30 days – 100 lacs
Packing materials: 30 days – 30 lacs
Consumable stores and spares: 60 days – 20 lacs
Work-in-progress: 15 days – 75 lacs
Finished goods: 30 days - 200 lacs
Receivables: 45 days – Annual sales being Rs.3120 lacs
Creditors at 20 days of purchases
Profit margin – 15% on sales
Current ratio – 2:1
There are no other current liabilities
6. From the following find out the EOQ
Annual demand – 12000 units
Cost per order – Rs.1500/-
Carrying cost of inventory per unit 12% of the value of Rs.150/- per unit.
The supplier is willing to give quantity discount of 10% (reduction in Rs.150/- per unit) provided
you increase the quantum per order by 25%. If the carrying cost remains the same in value (not in
%) and the annual demand is not changed what is the revised EOQ?
Compare the total costs in both the cases (excluding the cost of material) and advise as to
whether we should go in for quantity discount?
Chapter: One
Profit and Loss statement – to know whether the enterprise is in profit or loss at the end of a
given period or not. The period would usually be one year. It could be as short a period as one
month even. However preparing the Profit and Loss Account every year is a must.
Balance Sheet – it is also referred to as statement of assets and liabilities. This is as on a
particular date. The objective is to know the financial position of the enterprise, how much it
owes to outsiders in the form of liabilities and how much it owns in the form of various assets.
Although it could be prepared on a monthly basis as at the end of every month, it is prepared
as at the end of every year – again a statutory requirement besides being a business
necessity.
Cash flow statement – as explained in the chapter on working capital management, cash flow
statement is primarily to know the cash from operations, investments and finance obtained
and manage the liquidity in the short-run. In the short-run, the objective could be financial
planning. It lists all the cash inflows and cash outflows to verify as to whether the system has
the required liquidity or not. The business should not have too little or too much cash. The
frequency of preparing it depends upon the business needs – it could even be on a weekly
basis. The minimum frequency is one month.
Funds flow statement – this is the fundamental statement used for financial planning. The
minimum period is one year. It talks of all resources, be it short-term or medium-term/long-
term and the uses to which these are put to. The objective is to ensure that proper funding
takes place in the business enterprise and that there is no diversion of working capital to
acquiring fixed assets.
Out of the above we have seen cash flow statement in the chapter on “working capital
management”. Hence the same is not repeated here. The students should take “funds flow”
statement as summary statement of sources and application for a given period; they would
realise that the format for the statement as given in the annexure to this chapter is different
from the one they are used to under “Management Accounting”.
Learning points:
Chapter: One
♦ Interest is charged to income before determining the profit of the organisation. Once the profit of
the organisation is determined, tax is paid at the stipulated rate and the dividend is paid only after
this. Thus, dividend is profit allocation.
♦ This difference between “interest” and “dividend” gives opportunity to business enterprises, to
have a mix of capital of the owners and loans taken from outside, so that they can save on tax,
through the interest charged as expense on the income. The amount of tax so saved is called “tax
shield” on the interest.
♦ In the case of profit distributed among the partners as well in the case of dividend distributed
among the shareholders, these are not taxed again in the hands of the owners.
Example no. 2
The balance sheet is also known as “Assets and Liability” statement. A sample balance sheet is shown
below:
(Rupees in lacs)
Liabilities Assets
Share capital: 100 Fixed Assets 60
Reserves: 150 Less: Depreciation 30
(Retained profits Net Fixed Assets: 30
over a period of Investments: 80
time) Current Assets:
Net worth 250 Bills Receivable 100
Bank overdraft 30 Cash and Bank 35
Creditors for expenses 10 Other current assets 60
Other current liabilities 15 Total current assets 195
Total current liabilities 55
Total Liabilities 305 Total Assets 305
Suppose profit for the year is Rs.30 lacs after paying tax and dividend. This would be transferred to
the balance sheet and the reserves at the end of the current year would be Rs.150 lacs + Rs.30 lacs =
Rs.180 lacs. Similarly the depreciation claimed on the fixed assets and shown as an operating expense
would also get transferred to the balance sheet to reduce the value of the fixed assets.
Let us assume that there is no increase in the fixed assets during the year that there are no other
changes and the depreciation for the year is Rs.10 lacs. We can construct the balance sheet for the
Chapter: One
next year without much change, excepting to accommodate these figures of depreciation and increase
in reserves.
The balance sheet as at the end of the next year would look as under:
(Rupees in Lacs)
Liabilities Assets
Share capital 100 Fixed assets 60
Reserves and surplus 180 Less: depreciation 40
Net worth 280 Net fixed assets 20
Bank overdraft 30 Investments 100
Creditors for expenses 10 Bill Receivable 120
Other current liabilities 15 Cash and Bank 35
Total current Other current assets 60
liabilities 55 Total current assets 195
Total liabilities 335 Total Assets 335
We see that between the two balance sheets, there are two
changes –
Investment has gone up by Rs.20 lacs and
Bill receivable has gone up by Rs.20 lacs.
The total is Rs.40 lacs. Where have these funds come from? This amount is the total of profit
transferred to balance sheet from the profit and loss account and depreciation added back, as it does
not involve any cash outlay. The figure is Rs.30 lacs + Rs.10 lacs = Rs.40 lacs. This figure is referred
to as “internal accruals”.
This need not be the case all the times. Where we use these funds entirely depends upon the business
priority and what we have shown is only a sample.
Learning points:
♦ The business enterprise generates funds from operations, known as “internal accruals” comprising
depreciation (which is added back, being only a book-entry) and profit after tax and dividend;
♦ Where these funds are used is entirely dependent upon business exigencies;
♦ Depreciation claimed in the books as an expense goes to reduce the value of the fixed assets in
the books, while profit after tax and dividend is shown as “Reserves” and increases the net worth
of the company.
Chapter: One
♦ Net worth means total of share capital and reserves and surplus. This includes preference share
capital unlike in Accounts preference share capital is treated as a debt. For the purpose of debt to
equity ratio, the necessary adjustment has to be done by reducing preference share capital from
net worth and adding it to the debt in the numerator.
♦ Reserves and surplus represent the profit retained in business since inception of business.
“Surplus” indicates the figure carried forward from the profit and loss appropriation account to the
balance sheet, without allocating the same to any specific reserve. Hence, it is mostly called
“unallocated surplus”. The company wants to keep a portion of profit in the free form so that it is
available during the next year for appropriation without any problem. In the absence of this
arrangement during the year of inadequate profits, the company may have to write back a part of
the general reserves for which approval from the board and the general members would be
required.
♦ Secured loans represent loans taken from banks, financial institutions, debentures (either from
public or through private placement), bonds etc. for which the company has mortgaged immovable
fixed assets (land and building) and/or hypothecated movable fixed assets (at times even working
capital assets with the explicit permission of the working capital banks)
♦ Usually, debentures, bonds and loans for fixed assets are secured by fixed assets, while loans
from banks for working capital, i.e., current assets are secured by current assets. These loans
enjoy priority over unsecured loans for settlement of claims against the company.
♦ Unsecured loans represent fixed deposits taken from public (if any) as per the provisions of Section
58 (A) of The Companies Act, 1956 and in accordance with the provisions of Acceptance of Deposit
Rules, 1975 and loans, if any, from promoters, friends, relatives etc. for which no security has been
offered.
♦ Such unsecured loans rank second and subsequent to secured loans for settlement of claims
against the company. There are other unsecured creditors also, forming part of current liabilities,
like, creditors for purchase of materials, provisions etc.
♦ Gross block = gross fixed assets mean the cost price of the fixed assets. Cumulative depreciation
in the books is as per the provisions of The Companies Act, 1956, Schedule XIV. It is last
cumulative depreciation till last year + depreciation claimed during the current year. Net block =
net fixed assets mean the depreciated value of fixed assets.
♦ Capital work-in-progress – This represents advances, if any, given to building contractors, value of
building yet to be completed, advances, if any, given to equipment suppliers etc. Once the
equipment is received and the building is complete, the fixed assets are capitalised in the books,
for claiming depreciation from that year onwards. Till then, it is reflected in the form of capital
work in progress.
♦ Investments – Investment made in shares/bonds/units of Unit Trust of India etc. This type of
investment should be ideally from the profits of the organisation and not from any other funds,
which are required either for working capital or capital expenditure. They are bifurcated in the
schedule, into “quoted and traded” and “unquoted and not traded” depending upon the nature of
the investment, as to whether they can be liquidated in the secondary market or not.
♦ Current assets – Both gross and net current assets (net of current liabilities) are given in the
balance sheet.
♦ Miscellaneous expenditure not written off can be one of the following –
♦ Company incorporation expenses or public issue of share capital, debenture etc. together known
as “preliminary expenses” written off over a period of 5 years as per provisions of Income Tax.
Misc. expense could also be other deferred revenue expense like product launch expenses.
♦ Other income in the profit and loss account includes income from dividend on share investment
made in other companies, interest on fixed deposits/debentures, sale proceeds of special import
licenses, profit on sale of fixed assets and any other sundry receipts.
♦ Provision for tax could include short provision made for the earlier years.
♦ Provision for tax is made after making all adjustments for the following:
Chapter: One
Example no. 3
Purchases during the year: Rs.600lacs
Opening stock of raw material: Rs.100lacs
Closing stock of raw material: Rs.120lacs
Then, the quantum of raw material consumed during the year is Rs.580lacs and only this can be
booked as expenditure during the year. Consumption is always valued in this manner and cross
verified with the value of materials issued from stores during the year to compare with the previous
year;
Similarly, a second adjustment arises due to the difference between closing stocks of work-in-progress
and finished goods on one hand and opening stocks of work-in-progress and finished goods on the
other hand. Suppose the closing stocks are higher in value, the difference has to be either added to
Chapter: One
this year’s income or deducted from this year’s expense. (Different ways of presentation). Similarly in
case the closing stocks are less than the opening stocks, the difference has to be deducted from
income or added to expenses for that year. Let us study the following example.
In a company, the opening stocks were Rs.100lacs and closing stocks are Rs.120lacs. This means that
during the course of this year, the stocks on hand have gone up by Rs.20lacs from the goods produced
during this year. This does have an effect on the profit of the company. The company cannot book
expenditure incurred on producing this incremental stock of Rs.20lacs, as they have not sold the
goods. However the materials and other expenses have already been incurred and hence this value is
deducted.
The basic assumption is that the carry forward stocks have been sold during the current year while at
the end of the current year fresh stocks worth Rs.120lacs have come in for stocking. Hence, on an
ongoing basis, opening stocks are added and closing stocks are deducted. In the above example, the
effect of adding the opening stock and deducting the closing stock would be as under:
Example no. 4
Let us assume the production for the year was Rs.1000lacs
Then, sales for the year could only be Rs.980lacs derived as follows:
Production during the year: Rs.1000lacs
Add: Opening stock: Rs. 100lacs
Deduct: Closing stock: Rs. 120lacs
Sales for the year: Rs. 980lacs.
On the other hand, in case the closing stocks would have been Rs.90lacs, the sales would have been
Rs.1010lacs, more than the production value. Thus, the difference between the opening and closing
stocks of work-in-progress and finished goods affects income and thereby profit. The companies
always use this as a tool, either to increase or decrease income. In case they show more closing
stocks, income is less and thereby profit is less and tax is saved and similarly if they show less closing
stocks, income is more and profit is also more.
Let us see some of the important types of ratios and their significance:
Liquidity ratios;
Turnover ratios;
Profitability ratios;
Investment on capital/return ratios;
Leverage ratios and
Chapter: One
Coverage ratios.
Liquidity ratios:
Current ratio: Formula = Current assets/Current liabilities.
Min. Expected even for a new unit in India = 1.33:1.
Significance = Net working capital should always be positive. In short, the higher the net working
capital, the greater is the degree of overall short-term liquidity. Means current ratio does indicate
liquidity of the enterprise.
Too much liquidity is also not good, as opportunity cost is very high of holding such liquidity. This
means that we are carrying either cash in large quantities or inventory in large quantities or
receivables are getting delayed. All these indicate higher costs. Hence, if you are too liquid, you
compromise with profits and if your liquidity is very thin, you run the risk of inadequacy of working
capital.
Range – No fixed range is possible. Unless the activity is very profitable and there are no immediate
means of reinvesting the excess profits in fixed assets, any current ratio above 2.5:1 calls for an
examination of the profitability of the operations and the need for high level of current assets. Reason
= net working capital could mean that external borrowing is involved in this and hence cost goes up in
maintaining the net working capital. It is only a broad indication of the liquidity of the company, as all
assets cannot be exchanged for cash easily and hence for a more accurate measure of liquidity, we
see “quick asset ratio” or “acid test ratio”.
Chapter: One
Conditions of the market – monopolistic or competitive – monopolistic, this would be higher and
competitive it would be less as you are forced to give credit;
Whether new enterprise or established – new enterprise would be required to give higher credit in the
initial stages while an existing business would have a more fixed credit policy evolved over the years
of business;
Hence any deterioration over a period of time assumes significance for an existing business – this
indicates change in the market conditions to the business and this could happen due to general
recession in the economy or the industry specifically due to very high capacity or could be this unit
employs outmoded technology, which is forcing them to dump stocks on its distributors and hence
realisation is coming in late etc.
Average collection period = inversely related to debtors turn over ratio. For example debtors
turn over ratio is 4. Then considering 360 days in a year, the average collection period would be 90
days. In case the debtors turn over ratio increases, the average collection period would reduce,
indicating improvement in liquidity. Formula for average collection period = 360/receivables turn over
ratio. The above points for debtors turn over ratio hold good for this also. Any significant deviation
from the past trend is of greater significance here than the absolute numbers. No minimum and no
maximum.
Inventory turn over ratio – as said earlier, this directly contributes to the profitability of the
organisation. Formula = Cost of goods sold/Average inventory held during the year. The inventory
should turn over at least 4 times in a year, even for a capital goods industry. But there are capital
goods industries with a very long production cycle and in such cases, the ratio would be low. While
receivables turn over contributes to liquidity, this contributes to profitability due to higher turn over.
The production cycle and the corporate policy of keeping high stocks affect this ratio. The less the
production cycle, the better the ratio and vice-versa. The higher the level of stocks, the lower would
be the ratio and vice-versa. Cost of goods sold = Sales – profit – Interest charges.
Current assets turn over ratio – not much of significance as the entire current assets are involved.
However, this could indicate deterioration or improvement over a period of time. Indicates operating
efficiency. Formula = Cost of goods sold/Average current assets held in business during the year.
There is no min. Or maximum. Again this depends upon the type of industry, market conditions,
management’s policy towards working capital etc.
Fixed assets turn over ratio
Not much of significance as fixed assets cannot contribute directly either to liquidity or profitability.
This is used as a very broad parameter to compare two units in the same industry and especially when
the scales of operations are quite significant. Formula = Cost of goods sold/Average value of fixed
assets in the period (book value).
Profitability ratios –
Profit in relation to sales and profit in relation to assets:
Profit in relation to sales – this indicates the margin available on sales;
Profit in relation to assets – this indicates the degree of return on the capital employed in
business that means the earning efficiency. Please appreciate that these two are totally
different.
Example no. 5
Units A and B are in the same type of business and operate at the same levels of capacities. Unit A
employs capital of 250 lacs and unit B employs capital of 200lacs. The sales and profits are as under:
Chapter: One
Profits 100lacs 90lacs
Profit margin on sales 10% 9%
Return on capital employed 40% 45%
While Unit A has higher profit margins, Unit B has better returns on capital employed.
While both the units have the same net profit to sales ratio, the significant difference lies in the fact
that while Unit A has less cost of production and more office and selling expenses, Unit B has more
cost of production and less of office and selling expenses. This ratio helps in controlling either
production costs if cost of production is high or selling and administration costs, in case these are high.
Net profit/sales ratio – net profit means profit after tax but before distribution in any form = Formula =
Net profit/net sales. Tax rate being the same, this ratio indicates operating efficiency directly in the
sense that a unit having higher net profitability percentage means that it has a higher operating
efficiency. In case there are tax concessions due to location in a backward area, export activity etc.
available to one unit and not available to another unit, then this comparison would not hold well.
Chapter: One
Leverage ratios
Leverages are of two kinds, operating leverage and financial leverage. However, we are concerned
more with financial leverage. Financial leverage is the advantage of debt over equity in a capital
structure. Capital structure indicates the relationship between medium and long-term debt on the one
hand and equity on the other hand. Equity in the beginning is the equity share capital. Over a period of
time it is net worth (-) redeemable preference share capital.
It is well known that EPS increases with increased dose of debt capital within the same capital
structure. Given the advantage of debt also, as even risk of default, i.e., non-payment of interest and
non-repayment of principal amount increases with increase in debt capital component, the market
accepts a maximum of 2:1 at present. It can be less. Formula for debt/equity ratio = Medium and long-
term loans + redeemable preference share capital / Net worth (-) Redeemable preference share
capital.
From the working capital lending banks’ point of view, all liabilities are to be included in debt. Hence
all external liabilities including current liabilities are taken into account for this ratio. We have to add
redeemable preference share capital and reduce from the net worth the same as in the previous
formula.
Coverage ratios
Interest coverage ratio
This indicates the number of times interest is covered by EBIT. Formula = EBIT / Interest payment on
all loans including short-term liabilities. Minimum acceptable is 2 to 2.5:1. Less than that is not
desirable, as after paying interest, tax has to be paid and afterwards dividend and dividend tax.
Asset coverage ratio
This indicates the number of times the medium and long-term liabilities are covered by the book value
of fixed assets.
Formula = Book value of Fixed assets / Outstanding medium and long-term liabilities. Accepted ratio is
minimum 1.5:1. Less than that indicates inadequate coverage of the liabilities.
Debt Service coverage ratio
This indicates the ability of the business enterprise to service its borrowing, especially medium and
long-term. Servicing consists of two aspects namely, payment of interest and repayment of principal
amount. As interest is paid out of income and booked as an expense, in the formula it gets added back
to profit after tax. The assumption here is that dividend is ignored. In case dividend is paid out, the
formula gets amended to deduct from PAT dividend paid and dividend tax.
Chapter: One
Formula is:
PAT (+) Depreciation (+) Amortisation (DRE write-off) (+) Int. on med. & long-term liabilities
Interest on medium and long-term borrowing (+) Instalment on medium and long-term borrowing.
This is assuming that dividend is not paid. In the case of an existing company dividend will have to be
paid and hence in the numerator, instead of PAT, retained earnings would appear. The above ratio is
calculated for the entire period of the loan with the bank/financial institution. The minimum acceptable
average for the entire period is 1.75:1. This means that in one year this could be less but it has to be
made up in the other years to get an average of 1.75:1.
Liquidity of the company, i.e., whether the Current ratio and quick ratio or acid test ratio.
company is in a position to meet all its short- Current ratio = Current assets/current liabilities.
term liabilities (also called “current liabilities”) Quick ratio = Current assets (-) inventory/
with the help of its current assets current liabilities. Current ratio should not be
too high like 4:1 or 5:1 or too low like less than
1.5:1. This means that the company is either
too liquid thereby increasing its opportunity cost
or not liquid at all, both of which are not
desirable. Quick ratio could be at least 1:1.
Quick ratio is a better indicator of liquidity
position.
Whether the company has acquired new fixed Examination of increase in secured or
assets during the year and if so, what are the unsecured loans for this purpose. Without
sources, besides internal accruals to finance the adequate financial planning, there is always the
same? risk of diverting working capital funds for fixed
assets. This is best assessed through a funds
flow statement for the period as even net cash
accruals (Retained earnings + depreciation +
amortisation) would be available for fixed
assets.
Profitability of the company in general and Percentage of profit before tax to total income
operating profits in particular, i.e., whether the including other income, like dividend or interest
main operations of the company like income. Operating profit, i.e., profit before tax
manufacturing have been in profit or the profit (-) other income as above as a percentage of
of the company is derived from other income, income from the main operations of the
i.e., income from investment in company, be it manufacturing, trading or
shares/debentures etc. services.
Chapter: One
Relationship between the net worth of the Debt/Equity ratio, which establishes this
company and its external liabilities (both short- relationship. Formula = External liabilities +
term and long-term). What about only medium preference share capital /net worth of the
and long-term debts? company (-) preference share capital
(redeemable kind). From the lender’s point of
view, this should not exceed 3:1. Is there any
sharp deterioration in this ratio? Is so, please
be on guard, as the financial risk for the
company increases to that extent.
For only medium and long-term debts, it cannot
exceed 2:1.
Has the company’s investments in Difference between the market value of the
shares/debentures of other companies reduced investments and the purchase price, which is
in value in comparison with last year? theoretically a loss in value of the investment.
Actual loss is booked upon only selling. The
periodic reduction every year should warn us
that at the time of actual sales, there would be
substantial loss, which immediately would
reduce the net worth of the company. Banks,
Financial Institutions, Investment companies or
NBFCs would be required to declare their
investment every year in the balance sheet at
cost price or market price whichever is less.
Relationship between average debtors (bills Average debtors in the year/average creditors in
receivable) and average creditors (bills payable) the year. This should be greater than 1:1, as
during the year. bills receivable are at gross value {cost of
development (+) profit margin}, whereas;
creditors are at purchase price for software or
components, which would be much less than
the final sales value. If it is less than 1:1, it
shows that while receivable management is
quite good, the company is not paying its
creditors, which could cause problems in future.
Too high a ratio would indicate that receivable
management is very poor.
Future plans of the company, like acquisition of Directors’ report. This would reveal the
new technology, entering into new collaboration financial plans for the company, like whether
agreement, diversification programme, they are coming out with a public issue/Rights
expansion programme etc. issue etc.
Has the company revalued its fixed assets Auditors’ comments in the “Notes to Accounts”
during the year, thereby creating revaluation relevant for this. Frequent revaluation is not
reserves, without any inflow of capital into the desirable and healthy.
company, as this is just an entry passed in the
books?
Has the company during the year given any Any increase in unsecured loans. If the loans
unsecured loans substantially other than to are to group companies, then all the more
Chapter: One
Are the company’s unsecured loans (given) not Any comments to this effect in the notes to
recoverable and very old? accounts should put us on caution. This
examination would indicate about likely impact
on the future profits of the company.
Has the company been regular in payment of its Any comments about over dues as in the “Notes
dues on account of loans or periodic interest on to Accounts” should be looked into. Any serious
its liabilities? default is likely to affect the “credit rating” of
the company with its lenders, thereby
increasing its cost of borrowing in future.
Has the company defaulted in providing for Any comments about this in the “Notes to
bonus liability, P.F. liability, E.S.I. liability, Accounts” should be looked into.
gratuity liability etc?
Whether the company is holding very huge Cash balance together with bank balance in
cash, as it is not desirable and increases the current account, if any, is very high in the
opportunity cost? current assets.
How many times the average inventory has Relationship between cost of goods sold and
turned over during the year? average inventory during the year (only where
cost of goods sold cannot be determined, net
sales can be taken as the numerator). In a
manufacturing company, which is not in capital
goods sector, this should not be less than 4:1
and for a consumer goods industry, this should
be higher even. For a capital goods industry,
this would be less.
Has the company issued fresh share capital Increase in paid-up capital in the balance sheet
during the period and what is the purpose for and share premium reserves in case the issue
which it has raised equity capital? If it was a has been at a premium.
public issue, how did it fare in the market?
Has the company issued any bonus shares Increase in paid-up capital and simultaneous
during the year? reduction in general reserves. Enquiry into the
company’s ability to keep up the dividend rate
of the immediate past.
Has the company made any rights issue in the Increase in paid-up capital and share premium
period and what is the purpose of the issue? If reserves, in case the issue has been at a
it was a public issue, how did it fare in the premium.
market?
What is the increase in sales income over last Comparison with previous year’s sales income
year in % terms? Is it due to increase in and whether the growth has been more or less
numbers or change in product mix or increase in
Chapter: One
What is the amount of provision for bad and In percentage terms, how much is it of total
doubtful debts or advances outstanding? debts outstanding and what are the reasons for
such provision in the notes to accounts by the
auditors?
What is the amount of work in progress as Is there any comment about valuation of work in
shown in the Profit and Loss Account? progress by the auditors? It can be seen that
profit from operations can be manipulated by
increase/decrease in closing stocks of both
finished goods and work in progress.
Whether the company is paying any lease Examination of expenses schedule would show
rentals and if so what is the amount of lease this. What is the comment in notes to accounts
liability outstanding? about this? Lease liability is an off-balance
sheet item and hence this examination, to
ascertain the correct external liability and to
include the lease rentals in future also in
projected income statements; otherwise, the
company may be having much less disclosed
liability and much more lease liability which is
not disclosed. This has to be taken into
consideration by an analyst while estimating
future expenses for the purpose of estimating
future profits.
Has the company changed its method of Auditors’ comments on “Accounting” policies.
depreciation on fixed assets, due to which, Change over from straight-line method to
there is an impact on the profits of the written down value method or vice-versa does
company? affect the deprecation charge for the year
thereby affecting the profits during the year of
change.
Has the company changed its method of Auditors’ comments on “Accounting” policies.
valuation of inventory, due to which there is an
impact of the profits of the company?
Whether the company had sufficient income to Interest coverage ratio = earnings before
pay the interest charges? interest and tax/total interest on all short-term
and long-term liabilities. Minimum should be
3:1 and anything less than this is not
satisfactory.
Chapter: One
Whether the finance charges have gone up Relationship between interest charges and sales
disproportionately as compared with the income – whether it is consistent with the
increase in sales income during the same previous year or is there any spurt?
period?
Is there any explanation for this, like substantial
expansion or new project or diversification for
which the company has taken financial
assistance? While a benchmark % is not
available, any level in excess of 6% calls for
examination.
Whether the % of employee costs to sales has Relationship between “payment to and
increased? provision for employees” and the sales. In case
any undue increase is seen, it could be due to
expansion of activity etc. that would be included
in the Directors’ Report.
Whether the % of selling expenses in relation to Relationship between “selling and marketing”
sales has gone up? expenses and the sales. Any undue increase
could either mean that the company is in a very
competitive industry or it is aggressive to
increase its market share by adopting a
marketing strategy that would increase the
marketing expenses including offer of higher
commission to the intermediaries like agents
etc.
Whether the company had sufficient internal Debt service coverage ratio = Internal accruals
accruals {Profit after tax (-) dividend (+) any (+) interest on medium and long-term external
non-cash expenditure like depreciation, liabilities/interest on medium and long-term
preliminary expenses write-off etc.} to meet liabilities (+) repayment of medium and long-
repayment obligation of principal amount of term external liabilities. The term-lending
loans, debentures etc.? institution or bank looks for 1.75:1 on an
average for the loan period. This is a very
critical ratio to indicate the ability of the
company to take care of its obligation towards
the loans it has taken both by way of interest as
well as repayment of the principal.
Return on investment in business to compare it Earnings before interest and tax/average total
with return on similar investment elsewhere. invested capital, i.e., net worth (+) debt capital.
This should be higher than the average cost of
funds in the form of loans, i.e., interest cost on
loans/debentures etc.
Return on equity (includes reserves and surplus) Profit after tax (-) dividend on preference share
capital/net worth (-) preference share capital
(return in percentage). Anything less than 15%
means that our investment in this company is
earning less than the average return in the
market.
How much earning has our share made? (EPS) Profit after tax (-) dividend on preference share
capital/number of equity shares. In terms of
percentage anything less than 40% to 50% of
the face value of the shares would not go well
with the market sentiments.
Chapter: One
Whether the company has reduced its dividend Relationship between amount of dividend
payout in comparison with last year? payout and profit after tax last year and this
year. Is there any reason for this like liquidity
crunch that the company is experiencing or the
need for conserving cash for business activity,
like purchase of fixed assets in the immediate
future?
Is there any significant increase in the “Notes on Accounts” as given at the end of the
contingent liabilities due to any of the following? accounts.
Disputed central excise duty, customs duty, Any substantial increase especially in disputed
income tax, octroi, sales tax, contracts amount of duties should put us on guard.
remaining unexecuted, guarantees given by the
banks on behalf of the company as well as the
guarantees given by the company on behalf of
its subsidiary or associate company, letter of
credit outstanding for which goods not yet
received etc.
Has the company changed its policy of Substantial change in vendor charges, or
outsourcing its work from vendors and if so, subcontracting charges.
what are the reasons?
Has the company opened any branch office in Directors’ Report or sudden spurt in general and
the last year? administration expenses.
Chapter: One
♦ The auditors’ report is based more on information given by the management, company
personnel etc.
♦ To an extent at least, there can be manipulation in the level of expenditure, level of
closing stocks and sales income to manipulate profits of the organisation, depending upon the
requirement of the management during a particular year.
♦ One cannot come to know from study of financial statements about the tax planning of
the company or the basis on which the company pays tax, as it is not mandatory under the
provisions of The Companies’ Act, 1956, to furnish details of tax paid in the annual statement
of accounts.
♦ Notwithstanding all the above, continuous study of financial statements relating to an
industry can provide the reader and analyst with an in-depth knowledge of the industry and
the trend over a period of time. This may prove invaluable as a tool in investment decision or
sale decision of shares/debentures/fixed deposits etc.
Funds flow statement – its format and construction
Financial funds flow statement is different from what the students would have learnt by this time as
“Funds flow for Management Accounting”. Financial funds flow statement bifurcates the funds into
short-term and long-term instead of working capital and funds from operations etc. It further bifurcates
the long-term funds into internal and external resources.
The purpose of this bifurcation is to ensure proper financial planning. Financial planning essentially
involves planning for resources and obtain matching resources in terms of duration, rate of interest
etc. For example, short-term resource cannot be used for fixed assets. This is called “diversion” of
funds and could land the enterprise in serious shortfall of working capital funds. Similarly long-term
funds would always be more than long-term use, as internal accruals are a part of long-term funds
along with share capital. These could be used for short-term as well as long-term purposes. Please
refer to the Chapter on “Working capital management”.
Increase in liability = source of funds; decrease in assets = source of funds
Increase in assets = use of funds; decrease in liability = use of funds
Thus a liability can reduce during a year and increase because of fresh borrowing. Let us take for
example, term loans. During the period under review, a part of the outstanding loan would have been
paid during the year and the enterprise would have taken fresh loans. Thus in the following statement,
increase in term-loans has been shown as a source of fund and decrease in term-loan has been shown
as use of fund. This is true of all medium and long-term liabilities. The student should keep this in
mind while preparing funds flow statement. He should not be tempted to adjust and
present only the net position as a source or use. For example fresh loan taken = Rs. 100 lacs
and loans repaid during the year = Rs. 30 lacs. The student may be tempted to present the net
position of Rs. 70 lacs as source of funds. This will not give the correct picture.
Chapter: One
Chapter: One
amount. This is reflected in a very critical ratio called “Interest coverage ratio”. EBIT/I. The higher
the ratio, the more the chances of debt in the capital structure.
2. Reliable cash flows – the more they are reliable the more the lenders are willing to give debt
capital to the enterprise. Once debt is taken cash outflows get fixed for the future. Accordingly the
reliability of firm’s cash flows assumes great significance here.
3. Degree of risk associated with the enterprise – the higher the risk less the chances of debt capital
and more the chances of equity
Example – IT industry (at least in the late 90’s in India) run predominantly on equity
4. Management’s risk aversion attitude – conservative managements take less of external debt and
try to utilise internal accruals to maximum extent and equity to the extent necessary; on the
contrary aggressive managements go in for debt to a larger extent.
Examples – Sundaram group of companies in Chennai in general and Sundaram Claytons in
particular – conservative attitude towards debt and debt to equity ratio being less than 1:1. On the
contrary, Essar oils have very high debt to equity ratio – close to 3:1.
5. Whether the business enterprise enjoys tax concessions in a big way like till recently the IT
industry? Owing to high level of exports till recently the IT sector was enjoying 100% tax
concession on the exports profits. There was no difference in cost of debt (interest) and cost of
equity (primarily dividend) in the absence of taxes. Please refer to the Chapter on “Leverages”.
Such enterprises are indifferent to debt and have more of equity only.
6. Availability of different kinds of debt instruments like “deep discounted” bonds, floating rate notes
(where the rate of interest is adjusted to the market rates) etc. that are attractive to the
enterprises to go in for maximum debt within the debt to equity ratio norms specified by the
lenders or the market. These instruments have entered the market only in the 90s and hence the
debt market is getting more and more attractive and limited companies have started using them
instead of only depending upon institutional finance.
7. Attitude of the promoters towards financial and management control - if this is high, first
preference would be given for debt and then preference shares. Last preference would be given for
public equity where financial control gets diluted because of larger number of shareholders and
managerial control is likely to be affected.
8. Nature of the industry – more competitive = higher equity and less debt; more monopolistic = less
equity and more debt. Further depending upon the nature of industry the lenders do have different
lending norms. This means that the leverage ratios in a particular industry are more or less
uniform. These serve as the benchmark for determining the capital structure for any unit in the
industry
Chapter: One
♦ Invest in projects that yield a return greater than the minimum acceptable hurdle rate (cost of
capital)
♦ Manage financial risks that investors cannot easily manage, to maximise the firm’s debt and
investment capacity
♦ Choose a capital structure and financing mix that minimises the hurdle rate and matches the
assets being financed
Chapter: One
100% = Rs. 166.67 lacs and tax is Rs. 66.67 lacs]. Hence tax attributable to Rs. 50 lacs dividend = Rs.
33.33 lacs.
Of the various resources that constitute the capital structure of a business enterprise, for Term loans,
Acceptances of medium/long-term maturity, Deferred payment credit, Retained earnings, Privately
placed debentures, there is no cost incurred for raising the resources; whereas, in the case of any
public issue, be it equity/preference share, or debt like debenture, bond, there would always be issue
costs associated with it like the following:
Advertisement expenses;
Underwriting commission;
Fees paid to Registrar to the issues;
Brokerage to bankers/brokers to the issues;
Cost of printing prospectus, shares/debentures/bond application forms as well as share/debenture
certificates;
Conference/seminar of brokers/prospective groups of investors;
Fees paid to the manager/managers to the issue.
These costs are known as “floatation costs” and get amortized over a period of time through
preliminary expenses. Hence for the purpose of determination of cost of capital, from the amount of
the issue, the floatation costs are reduced to arrive at the net amount received under the issue and
the rate of interest/dividend actually paid is related to this net amount and not to the size of the issue.
Similarly, there could be a redemption premium at the time of repaying debenture/preference share
capital and seldom in other cases. Hence the redemption amount that is called “premium” is an
addition to the cost of that particular instrument.
Expansion for used abbreviations or symbols in the following paragraphs:
1. Kd = Cost of debt including floatation cost
2. f = floatation Costs
Chapter: One
8. F in the case of preference share capital = Redemption value and
9. P in the case of preference share capital = Face value
Example no. 3
Equity share capital is Rs.1000lacs;
Floatation costs are 15% of this amount. Then, the dividend outgo would relate at least for the
purpose of determination of the cost of capital to Rs.850lacs and not to Rs.1000lacs. Similarly if
redemption premium is 10% of debenture issue of Rs.200lacs, the outgo of Rs.20lacs would be a part
of cost of debenture, besides interest outgo.
Now that we have seen the adjustment required to be made due to floatation costs and redemption
premium, we will see the different costs.
Debentures:
Interest payable is pre-tax expenditure. Hence it is multiplied by (1-tax rate) to arrive at post-tax cost,
which is the measure of cost of capital. Hence, if kd is the cost of debenture, then the formula works
out as under:
Kd = {Int. outgo p.a. x (1-tax rate)} + {Redemption value of debenture (-) Amt. recd. (net of floatation
costs)}/N
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Note No. 1:
Cost of bonds and any other instrument would be similar to this so long as the outgo is interest, which
is pre-tax and there is a likelihood of floatation cost and redemption premium.
Cost of term loans/deferred payment credit/acceptances/fixed deposits:
Annual interest outgo (1-tax rate)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ X 100
Average outstanding during the year, i.e., average of opening and closing balances
Note No. 2:
In the case of fixed deposits, you incur upfront costs and the same should be taken as deduction in the
amount of fixed deposits received but there would be no redemption premium in this case.
Cost of preference share capital:
kd = D + (F– P)/N
------------------
(F + P)/2
Here for dividend rate, as it is post-tax, no conversion takes place, unlike in the case of interest.
Chapter: One
ke = ------------------------------------------- +g,
Price of equity share at the beginning
Where g = constant growth rate in dividend per share (DPS).
ke
Ke = -------, where ke = cost of equity without floatation costs and f = floatation cost
(1-f) in % of the equity capital amount.
Cost of retained earnings:
It is equal to cost of equity without floatation costs.
(Rupees in lacs)
Name of the component in the capital structure Value
Weight Pre-tax cost Post- tax cost Cost
Equity share capital 1000 2 -- 18% 36
Bonds 2000 4 13% 8% 32
Fixed deposits 500 1 12.5% 7.69% 7.69
Total costs 75.69
Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) = total cost/number of weights = 75.69/7 = 10.82%
Note:
Conversion of 13% pre-tax to post-tax = 13% (1 – 0.385) = 8%
Similarly fixed deposit pre-tax cost of 12.5% = 7.69%
Weights are found out for all the components of a given capital structure by dividing all the amounts
with the Highest common factor (HCF). Here the HCF is Rs. 500 lacs.
Above individual costs of various components of capital structure include all costs, i.e.,
prime and additional costs.
Chapter: One
In theory, certain assumptions underlie the determination of cost of capital. For this, one thing that
must be understood generally is the influence of leverage (higher debt) on the firm’s valuation in the
market and accordingly the cost of debt and cost of equity are determined. Following are the
assumptions between cost of capital and finance leverage:
♦ There is no income-tax, corporate or personal;
♦ Entire earnings are paid out to share-holders in the form of dividend;
♦ Investors have identical subjective probability distribution of earnings before interest and taxes;
♦ Net operating income to remain constant at least in the short-term as well as in the medium-term;
♦ A company can change its capital structure without incurring any transaction costs.
Accordingly,
♦ Cost of equity, i.e., ke, based on 100% dividend, = E/S = Equity earnings
------------------------
MV of equity
Measured by the ratio of B/S, the effect of change in the financial leverage on kd, ke & ko has to be
examined. There are different approaches, like:
1. Net income approach;
2. Net operating income approach;
3. Traditional approach and
4. Miller and Modigliani approach with three propositions.
According to this approach, the cost of equity capital, i.e., k e and the cost of debt, k d remain
unchanged when B/S, the degree of leverage varies. This means that k o, the average cost of capital
measured as ko = kd{B/(B+S)} + ke{S/(B+S)} declines as B/S increases. This happens because when
B/S increases, kd, which is lower than ke, receives higher weight in the calculation of ko.
The net income approach may be illustrated with a numerical example as under:
Firm X Firm Y
Example no. 5
Nettwo
Consider operating income
firms X and Y, (O)
which are identical in all aspects2lacs 2lacs of leverage
excepting in the degree
employed by them.
Interest The following (F)
on debt is the financial data for these firms.
------- 50,000/-
Equity earnings (E) 2lacs 1.5lacs
Chapter: One
ko = kd {B/(B+S)} + ke {S/(B+S)}
Therefore, the cost of equity can be expressed as:
The critical assumption in this approach is that k o is constant irrespective of the debt/equity
relationship. The market capitalises the value of the firm as a whole and is indifferent to debt/equity.
An increase in the leverage, which reduces the cost of capital, is offset by the increase in the equity
return as expected by the prospective investors in view of the increased risk associated with the firm
due to higher leverage. As the cost of the firm k o cannot be altered through leverage, this theory
implies that there is no optimal capital structure.
Traditional approach:
The traditional approach has the following propositions:
1. The cost of debt capital kd remains more or less constant up to a certain degree of leverage
but rises thereafter at an increasing rate.
2. The cost of equity capital, ke, remains more or less constant or rises only gradually up to a
certain degree of leverage and rises sharply thereafter.
3. The average cost of capital, ko, as a consequence of the above behaviour of kd and ke
(a) Decreases up to a certain point with the increase in leverage;
Chapter: One
(b) Remains more or less unchanged for moderate increase in leverage thereafter and
(c) Rises beyond a certain point.
Note No. 3:
The principal implication of this approach is that the overall cost of capital is dependent on the capital
structure and there is an optimal capital structure, which minimizes the cost of capital. At point of
optimal capital structure, the real marginal cost of debt and equity is the same. Before the optimal
point, the real marginal cost of debt is less than the real marginal cost of equity. Beyond the optimal
point, the real marginal cost of debt is more than the real marginal cost of equity.
Basic propositions:
Proposition 1:
The total market value of the firm which is equal to the total market value of debt and market value of
equity is independent of the degree of leverage and is equal to its expected to its expected operating
incomes discounted at the rate appropriate to its risk class.
Symbolically, it is represented as:
Vj = Sj + Bj = Oj /pk,
pk = discount rate applicable to the risk class k to which the firm belongs.
Chapter: One
Proposition 2:
The expected yield on equity, ij is equal to pk plus a premium, which is equal to the debt/equity ratio,
times the difference between pk and the yield on debt r. Symbolically, it is represented by the
following equation:
Ij = pk + (pk – r)Bj/Sj
Proposition 3:
The manner in which an investment is financed does not affect the cut-off rate for the investment
decision making for a firm in a given risk class. The proposition emphasises the point that average
cost of capital is not affected by the financing decisions as both investment and financing decisions are
independent.
Conclusion:
Thus, there is a traditional approach, which states that there exists an optimal capital structure and
the MM position that financial leverages do not affect the overall value of the firm in the market.
However, there are certain imperfections in the underlying assumptions in the MM position, which if
overcome by necessary correction, would render the altered MM position quite acceptable.
Chapter: One
Example no. 6
Consider two firms A and B having an expected net operating income of Rs.5lacs and which are similar
in all respects except in the degree of leverage employed by them. Firm “A” employs no debt capital
whereas Firm “B” has Rs.20lacs in debt capital on which it pays 12% interest. The corporate tax rate
applicable to both the firms is 50%. The income to stockholders and debt-holders of both the firms is
shown below.
Firm A Firm B
Net operating income 5,00,000/- 5,00,000/-
Interest on debt ------ 2,40,000/-
Profit before taxes 5,00,000/- 2,60,000/-
Taxes 2,50,000/- 1,30,000/-
Profit after tax (income available 2,50,000/- 1,30,000/-
To shareholders)
Combined income of debt-holders 2,50,000/- 3,70,000/-
And shareholders
This is because of the less amount of tax paid in the case of Firm B, which is again due to the interest
charge of Rs.2,40,000/-. This saving in tax due to a tax-deductible expenditure is called “Tax shield”.
Tax shield is calculated at the rate of corporate tax on any tax-deductible expenditure. It should be
borne in mind that due to the presence of tax shield, the value of the firm also increases, unlike in the
classical theory, in which, the firm enjoying higher leverage, i.e., debt has its market value diminished
due to the higher incidence of risk on account of higher level of debt. The best way to combine these
two is that, while, in the presence of corporate taxes and availability of “tax shield” on interest on
debt capital, the value of the firm having higher debt capital increases initially up to a certain point,
beyond this point, the advantage of “leverage” diminishes and the market value of the firm starts
declining.
In general, when corporate taxes are considered the value of the firm that is levered would be equal to
value of the unlevered firm added by the tax shield associated with debt, i.e.,
------------------------------------------ + tc B
k
where, “O” is the operating income of the firm as reduced by the tax rate to convert it into a post-tax
return and discounted by a rate of return expectation by the share holder, namely, “k” and t c B is the
present value of the “tax shield” on the interest on debt capital, enjoyed by the firm B in our example.
It is assumed here, that the debt capital is perpetual and the rate of interest is constant and hence, it
is taken that the present value of tax shield on the interest outflows is equal to the present value of
the borrowing as multiplied by (1-tax rate) which is tc
Chapter: One
At present in India, the dividend income is not taxed with effect from 01/04/97 and hence, from the
point of view of the shareholder, he would prefer to have dividend income rather than income from
interest which is taxable. Hence, incorporation of personal tax into the scene together with corporate
tax does not alter the situation and if at all it alters, it alters in favour of the firm, which is having
higher leverage, wherein the EPS could be higher along with the dividend pay out. Let us incorporate
the corporate tax to the debt holder in the above example and compare the two firms A and B again.
Example no. 7
Firm A Firm B
Income available to the shareholders 2,50,000 1,30,000
Personal tax on dividend ---------- ----------
Net income after tax to the shareholders 2,50,000 1,30,000
Income to debt holders ------------- 2,40,000
Less Corporate tax @ 35% ------------- 84,000
Net income on debt after tax ------------- 1,56,000
Combined income to shareholders and 2,50,000 2,86,000
Debt holders
From the above it is clear that the advantage of “leverage” for the firm B is reflected in its combined
income to the shareholders and the debt holders, post-tax.
Chapter: One
Net operating income (EBIT) Rs.200000/-
Less interest on 10% debenture (I) Rs.80000/-
----------------
Earnings available to equity holders (NI) Rs.120000/-
Equity capitalisation rate 0.125
Market value of equity (Earnings available/ECR) Rs.960000/-
Market value of debt Rs.800000/-
Total value of the firm Rs.1760000/-
Alternatively:
Alternative 2
Suppose we increase the amount of debenture to Rs.12lacs and pay off the shareholders, assuming
that it is possible. The kd and ke would remain unaffected as per the “Net operating income” approach
theory. Hence in the new situation, let us see the value of the firm and overall cost of capital for the
firm.
Net operating income (EBIT) Rs.200000/-
Less interest on 10% debenture (I) Rs.120000/-
----------------
Earnings available to equity holders (NI) Rs.80000/-
Equity capitalisation rate 0.125
Market value of equity (Earnings available/ECR) Rs.640000/-
Market value of debt Rs.1200000/-
Total value of the firm Rs.1840000/-
Alternatively:
ko = kd (B/(B+S) + ke (S/(B+S) = {10.0% x 12lacs/18.4lacs} + {12.5% x 6.40lacs/18.4lacs}
Chapter: One
= 10.87%
Thus it can be seen, that by increasing the debt, i.e., the leverage, the firm is able to increase the
market value and simultaneously reduce the overall cost of capital. The opposite would be the effect if
we reduce the debt component.
Alternative 2
Decrease the amount of debenture from Rs.8lacs to Rs.6lacs and all other factors remain unchanged:
Net operating income (EBIT) Rs.200000/-
Less interest on 10% debenture (I) Rs.60000/-
----------------
Earnings available to equity holders (NI) Rs.140000/-
Equity capitalisation rate 0.125
Market value of equity (Earnings available/ECR) Rs.1120000/-
Market value of debt Rs.600000/-
Total value of the firm Rs.1720000/-
Alternatively:
ko = kd (B/(B+S) + ke (S/(B+S) = {10.0% x 6lacs/17.2lacs} + {12.5% x 11.20lacs/17.2lacs}
= 11.62%
Net operating income approach (NOI)
Example no. 9
Operating income Rs.150000/-; debt at 10%; outstanding debt Rs.6lacs; overall capitalisation rate
12.5%; total value of the firm and equity capitalisation rate to be found out.
Net operating income (EBIT) Rs.150000/-
Overall capitalisation rate 0.125
Total market value of the firm (V) = EBIT/ko Rs.1200000/-
Market value of debt (B) Rs.600000/-
Market value of equity (S) Rs.600000/-
Equity capitalisation rate, ke = {EBIT (-) I}/S
Earning available to equity holders
-------------------------------------------------------- ke= {150000 (-) 60000}/600000 = 15%
Total market value of equity shares
Chapter: One
Alternatively,
ke = ko + {(ko – kd) x B/S} = 12.5% + {(12.5% - 10%) x 6lacs/6lacs} = 15%
Now let us examine the effect of changes in the debt as in the case of net income approach, i.e., in the
first instance, the debt goes up to Rs. 8lacs and in the second instance, it reduces to Rs. 5lacs.
Alternative 1
Net operating income (EBIT) Rs.150000/-
Overall capitalisation rate 0.125
Alternatively,
Alternative 2
Net operating income (EBIT) Rs.150000/-
Overall capitalisation rate 0.125
Alternatively,
Chapter: One
The assumption here is that the students understand the significance of the term “budgets”. To recap,
“budgets” are essentially meant for:
♦ Allocation of scarce resources and
♦ Control and monitoring of expenses
The budgets are of various kinds, depending upon the objectives in the organisation. The two major
finance budgets that a business enterprise usually prepare are:
♦ Revenue budget – prepared on an annual basis with monthly break-up. Purpose is to control
revenue expenses related to different activities in an organisation. There is a review process. The
frequency of break-up could be less say a quarter. The frequency of review process and the period
for which break-up is given like month or quarter synchronise with each other. If there is a monthly
break-up of expenses, the review is also done on a monthly basis.
♦ Capital budget – prepared on an annual basis with once in a year review process. This budget is
more meant for capital expenses for which the enterprise will be required to manage within its
internal accruals and not depend upon external finance. External finance and shareholders’ capital
are warranted only for major capital expenditure like expansion, diversification, modernisation etc.
The students will appreciate that there is a difference between capital expenditure on routine
items like say copier machine, furniture and fixtures, EPABX (telephone exchange) etc. which do
not give any return unlike industrial projects. Industrial projects require a lot of funds and in turn,
give positive cash flows (net cash flows being positive – difference between cash outflows and cash
inflows)
In this chapter we are going to learn about capital budgeting, a process of selection of projects and
decision on alternative investment opportunities available to a business enterprise.
Chapter: One
it will not be elaborate. The resource mobilisation will be fairly easy, easier than in the case of
projects. The repayment period will be shorter than for projects in point no. 1 above. The resource
allocation, monitoring and control will also be fairly simple.
3. Budgets for routine items have to be met only from internal accruals. Rarely external assistance
will be available for this as incremental income will be absent. Hence a lot of internal control is
called for in this case. There will be constant demand from various departments within the
organisation for funds and budgetary process is very much indicated here. Budget is for resource
allocation, monitoring and control. Not much of planning is required and resources are available
internally.
Chapter: One
1. Whether the project is earning a return that is higher then its cost of capital?
2. Whether the project’s earnings recover the capital investment in the desired period called “pay
back period”?
3. Whether the objective of the project in creating assets is achieved through “wealth maximisation”
– by adding further wealth?
Broad classification of the methods of financial evaluation of projects –
Conventional methods – these methods do not consider the timing of the future cash flows. Let us see
the following example to understand this.
Example no. 1
We invest in a project Rs. 300 lacs. The projected cash flows at the end of three years is as under:
Year 1 = Rs. 150 lacs
Year 2 = Rs. 100 lacs
Year 3 = Rs. 75 lacs
Total = Rs. 325 lacs. In the conventional method the fact that cash flows occur at different periods is
ignored. This is perhaps due to the fact that the importance of time value of money was not
appreciated in the past.
Conventional methods are:
Payback period31
This is defined as the period in which the original capital investment is recovered. In case there is more
than one project with the same amount of investment to choose from, based on payback period
method, the project having less payback period will be chosen.
Example no. 2
Let us repeat the figures as per Example no. 1.
31
The second method – Accounting Rate of Return is omitted here as it is practically not used even by those who
are not initiated into “finance”
32
Figures within brackets indicate that there is cash out flow rather than inflow. This is because of the investment
into fixed assets at the beginning of the project.
33
In fact this assumption goes for all the methods of evaluation, both conventional and discounting cash flow
methods.
Chapter: One
Chapter: One
Note: As Project 3 has the highest present value it would be selected. Net present value is equal to
present value (-) original investment value, i.e., Rs.500 lacs. Accordingly, the net present values for
the three projects would be:
Project 1 76.44 lacs
Project 2 56.29 lacs
Project 3 136.91 lacs
On the basis of net present value, project 3 would get selected.
Merits:
1. Takes into consideration the project cash flows for the entire economic life of the project.
2. Applies time value of money – timing of the cash flows is the basis of evaluation.
3. Net present value truly represents the addition to the wealth of the shareholders.
4. Reliable as a method of evaluation of alternative projects.
Demerits:
1. It is not an easy exercise to estimate the discounting rate that is linked to “hurdle rate”34
2. In real life situations, alternative investment projects with the same amount of capital investment
are non-existent practically
34
Hurdle rate = the minimum rate of return that should be had from any investment, especially in a project
Chapter: One
------------- + -------------- + --------------- + -------------- +
………. + --------------- (1+IRR)1 (1+ IRR)2 (1+IRR)3
(1+IRR)4 (1+IRR)n
This means that the Net present value in the case of IRR = “zero” or Present value of project cash
flows = original investment at the beginning of the project.
How do you get IRR by calculation?
IRR is obtained by “trial and error” method. Suppose we are given a set of cash flows, both outflow at
the beginning and inflows over a period of time in future. We start with some rate as the discounting
rate and start determining the NPV till we get NPV= zero. In case the rate lies between two rates, we
fix the range and mention that the IRR lies in this range. Let us illustrate this with an example.
Example no. 4
Let us take project 2 in our Example no. 3. The present value is the closest to our original investment
of Rs. 500 lacs. The discounting rate is 15%. p.a. our target present value is Rs. 500 lacs. How do we
get to this figure? By increasing the rate of discount or reducing the rate of discount? As the present
value is inversely related to the rate of discount, we have to increase the rate. Let us try it out for 20%.
1 100 82.0
2 120 80.76
3 200 110.8
4 250 114
5 250 94.25
Total 481.81
This means that the discounting rate of 20% is high and has to be reduced so as to reach the target
present value of Rs. 500 lacs. Le us try it out at 19% and redo the exercise.
1 100 82.80
2 120 82.32
3 200 114
4 250 118.75
5 250 99.00
Total 496.87
This means that we have to reduce the rate of discount to 18%. The IRR lies between 18% and 19%.
This is called the “trial and error” method. However if we want to find out the exact IRR, we will have
to adopt the following steps further:
Chapter: One
1. Find out the Present value by @ 18% discount rate
2. Employ the “method of interpolation”
Let us do this exercise so that the students will be familiar with determining accurate IRR.
1 100 83.60
2 120 84.0
3 200 117.40
4 250 123.50
5 250 104.0
Total 512.50
Compare the present values @ 19% and 18% discount rates. It clearly shows that the IRR is closer to
19% than to 18%. Let us now adopt the method of interpolation35 and determine the exact IRR.
At 18% discounting, PV = Rs. 512.50 lacs
At 19% discounting, PV = Rs. 496.87 lacs and
Our target PV = Rs. 500 lacs
By employing the method of interpolation we find that the IRR =
18% + 512.5 – 500____ = 18.80%
512.5 – 496.87
This vindicates what we have mentioned in the previous paragraph – we have mentioned that IRR is
closer to 19% rather than 18%. How do we take the values in this method?
1. In the denominator, the values at the extremes of the given range are taken and difference is the
denominator
2. One may start from the lower rate in which case in the numerator, the values taken are the target
value and the value corresponding to the lower rate
3. On the other hand, if we want to go from the higher rate, the equation will be =
19% (-) 500 – 496.87____ = 18.80%
512.5 – 496.87
Thus whether we go up from the lower rate or come down from the higher rate, there is no difference
in the end result. The above example tells us clearly how to adopt the trial and error method to fix the
range of interest rates within which our IRR lies and then proceed to adopt “interpolation method” to
determine the exact IRR.
When we employ IRR method of financial evaluation of more than one project, that project
with the higher IRR is chosen.
Merits:
35
Method of interpolation is just the opposite of method of extrapolation. This is adopted whenever the target
parameter (in this case the discount rate) lies between a range of values. In the given example, the target discount
rate (IRR) lies between 18% and 19%.
Chapter: One
1. It tells us the rate at which the project should get a return taking into consideration the risks
associated with the project
2. It takes into consideration the time value of money and hence reliable as a tool for evaluation of
projects
3. It is very useful to a lender who is always interested in NPV = zero at a given rate and in a given
period.
Demerits:
1. It takes a long time to calculate
2. Based on this comparison cannot be made between projects of unequal size. A smaller project
could get selected because of higher IRR as against a project in which wealth maximisation is very
good (NPV being very high) only because its IRR is less than the previous one.
3. Multiple IRRs (more than one IRR) will be the outcome in case there is a negative sign in the
project cash flows in the future. This means that should it happen that in one-year project cash
inflow is negative (cash outflows being more than cash inflows) it will give rise to more than one
IRR.
Chapter: One
It is important to note that one or more of the above constitute a necessary but not sufficient condition
for a conflict in rankings. Thus it is possible that mutually exclusive projects could differ on all these
dimensions (scale, pattern and life) and still not show any conflict between rankings under the IRR and
NPV methods.
Scale differences
Example no. 6
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Net cash flows
------------------------------------------
End of year Project 1 Project 2
____________________________________________________
0 - 1 lac - 100 lacs
1 0 0
2 4 lacs 156.25 lacs
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Suppose the required rate of return is 10%, we can tabulate the IRR and NPV values as under:
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
IRR NPV @ 10%
-------------------------------------------
Project 1 100% 2.31 lacs
Project 2 25% 29.13 lacs
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Can we see the conflict? If we adopt IRR, we will reject the second project whereas the first project is
rejected by the NPV method.
This is because of the fact that in the case of IRR method, the results are expressed as a %, the scale
of investment is ignored in the above case. This could be a serious limitation in applying the IRR
method.
Chapter: One
IRR for project 1 = 23% and IRR for project 2 = 17%. For every discount rate greater than 10%, project
1’s net present value will be larger than for project 2. If we assume a required rate of return of 10%,
each project will have identical net present value of 1,98,000/- . Using these results to determine
project rankings we find the following:
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
r < 10% r > 10%
------------------------------------------------------
Ranking IRR NPV IRR NPV
____________________________________________________
1 Project 1P 2 P1 P1
2 Project 2P 1 P2 P2
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Project Life Differences
Example no. 8
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Net cash flows
------------------------------------------
End of year Project 1 Project 2
____________________________________________________
0 - 10 lacs - 10 lacs
1 0 20 lacs
2 0 0
3 13.75 lacs 0
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ranking the projects based on IRR and NPV criteria, we find that:
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ranking IRR NPV @ 10%
____________________________________________________
1 Project 2 (100%) P 1 (NPV = 1,53,600)
2 Project 1 (50%) P 2 (NPV = 81,800)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
With all the above examples, it is hoped that the concepts of IRR and NPV are clear to the students.
To sum up, we can say that:
1. Both the methods are quite reliable
2. NPV represents wealth maximisation
3. IRR indicates the rate of return from investment
4. In case there is any conflict, the scale of investment and the cash flow timing difference have to be
considered
5. It is wise not to compare two projects with unequal life
Chapter: One
6. IRR is readily suitable for a finance product like lease, hire purchase or term loan as the lender will
decide to invest only based on rate of return.