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 A CSI team found a hair at a murder scene.

The root of the hair is not


attached. Can they identify it as male or female?

 Yes.

 No.

 There was an explosion at a manufacturing plant. The bodies were burned too
badly to identify the victims by sight. What is the next most common way to
identify the body in this situation?

3.

o DNA analysis

o Clothing

o Dental records

o Bone structure

5. A skeleton is found inside an empty warehouse. What is the quickest way


to determine the gender?

o Skull size

o Height

o Bone density

o Pelvic bone structure

6. Of the following options, which is the least reliable source of evidence?

o DNA data

o Eyewitness account
o Latent fingerprints
o

 A CSI forgot to bring luminol to a crime scene. What can the CSI now not
scientifically and quickly detect at the scene?

 Blood

 Saliva

 Urine

 COffee

 Blood from a crime that occured 2 hours ago was found on a doorknob at a
crime scene. A CSI wants to determine if the person who left the blood had
alcohol or drugs in his/her system at the time of the crime. Is it possible to
determine this from the blood on the doorknob?

 Yes.

 No.

 What kit is important for a CSI to bring to every crime scene?

 Manicure kit

 Computer repair kit

 Fingerprint Kit

 Sewing kit
 Victimology, a useful area of knowledge when training to become a better CSI
in order to better understand crime scenes, is the study of what?

 The scientific study of victimization

 A theory relating to blaming victims

 The 7 step process of healing victims

 The victimization rate in the United States

 A CSI team found evidence that suggests a man named Walter is hiding a
murder weapon in his home. How can the CSI team find out if the murder
weapon is in Walter's home?

 Enter Walter's home and show official CSI badges because he legally must let them
enter

 Have police escorts let them into Walter's home

 Ask Walter for permission to enter and search his home

 Obtain a search warrant and then search Walter's home

 A CSI discovers a bullet in a wall near where a murder occured. The CSI also
finds a firearm 20 feet from the scene. How can the CSI determine if the bullet
came from the firearm?

 Run a ballistics report at the lab

 Visually compare the bullet to the firearm and determine if it is a match

 Test for fingerprints on both

 Fire a couple of rounds into the wall at the scene and see if the bullets look the same
as the one found
 A body was found burnt in a bed. The CSI team found clues to suggest the fire
was set on purpose. Which of these clues would indicate purposelful arson?

 Char burns on the walls

 Disintegration of furniture in the room

 Candles in the room next to this room

 High concentration of flammable liquid trace in one location

 A CSI team found evidence in a case from 1973 that lead to the conviction of
Joey for murder. In 2009, Joey requested a thorough test of all physical evidence
from his case, which lead to his exoneration. What specific testing, that did not
exist in 1973, could have proven him innocent in 2009?

 Ballistics testing

 DNA testing

 GPS locating

 Is it possible to find deleted files on a computer of a suspect?

 Yes

 No

 Which of the following methods can help determine how long a body has been
dead?

 Skeletal mortis

 Livor mortis
 Dead-o-meterology

 Rigor mortis

 A CSI team finds a car at the scene of a crime, in a grocery store parking lot.
It appears to have blood on the tire. Can the CSI team legally search the vehicle?

 Yes

 No
   


  Remove Excerpt
 Question Excerpt
1. A proceeding in which a sworn testimony regarding the facts of a case are provied to either a
defense attorney or prosecutor prior to a trial is known as:
A. A sworn affidavit
B. A deposition
C
A grand jury testimony
.
D
A pretrial testimony
.
2. 
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding sex crimes.
A A lewd or lacivious assualt involves engaging in sexual activity with a person 12 years of
. age or older but less that 16 years of age.
B. Lewd or lascivious molestation occurs when a person unintentionally touches another
person in a lewd or lacscvious manner.
C A lewd or lacivious battery involves engaging in sexual activity with a person 12 years of
. age or older but less than 16 years of age.
D A person who touches another person in any manner is guilty of a lewd and lascivious act
. which is punishable under sexual violence as defined in Florida Statute 784.046(c).
3. When determining the primary aggressor in a domestic violence incident an officer should do
the following.
A Arrest any person who acted reasonably to protect or defend him or herself of another
. family or household member from domestic violence.
B. Evaluate each party's statements separetely to determine whether there is proable cause for
an arrest this can be done by analyzing the totality of the circumstances of the incident.
C Compare notes with the back-up officer and make a determination on who should be
. arrested.
D
Ask politely at the incident who started the dispute and arrest that person at the scene.
.
4. When an officer learns of a case of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a disabled adult or elderly
person, the criminal conduct becomes a:
A. Private family matter, and not merely a public concern.
B. Victimless crime and should be reported to DCF.
C
Felony punishable under F.S. 415.105.
.
D. Public concern, not merely a private family matter.
5. A __________ occurs when a suspect takes property from a person by using force, violence,
or assualt, or by putting a victim in fear, with the intent to permanently or temporarily deprive
the victim of his or her right to the property.
A
Armed Battery
.
B. Aggravated assualt
C
Robbery
.
D
Armed Burglary
.
6. Officer Castle is on routine patrol and happens upon the First Church of Worship where he
notices a group of juveniles maliciously damaging the stain glass windows of the church. The
owner of the church states that the total damage to the church is over a thousand dollars.
Officer Castle arrest the juveniles and states they will be charged with _____________ and
that the crime they commited is a _____________ due to the amount of damage.
A
Criminal mischief, second degree felony.
.
B. Breach of the peace, second degree misdemeanor.
C
Criminal mischief, third degree felony.
.
D
Crimes against an religous establishment, first degree felony.
.
7. Types of evidence that may be present at a human trafficking crime scene include all the
following except:
A. Humans
B. Legal or fradulent identification
C. endangered animals
D
Pay stubs
.
8. The United States State Department estimates that every year _______ to __________ people
are trafficked worldwide.
A. 1, 2
B. 800,000, 2 million
C 1.5 million, 3.5 million
.
D
100,000 to 1 million
.
9. To activate the Florida AMBER plan five conditions must exist, which of the following is not
one of the conditions:
A
The child must be under 18 years of age.
.
B. A clear indication of abduction is not required.
C The law enforcement agency's investigation must conclude that the child's life is in
. danger.
D There must be a detailed description of child and/or abductor/vehicle to broadcast to the
. public.
10. 
The difference between the preliminary investigation and the follow-up investigation is:
A The preliminary investigation gathers information subsequent to the initial report to
. establish a case, whereas the follow-up investigation focuses on establishing whether a
criminal act has been committed and what type.
B. There is no difference.
C The preliminary investigation focuses on establishing whether a criminal act has been
. committed and what type, whereas the follow-up investigaiton gathers information
subsequent to the initial reprot to establish a case.
D
The preliminary investigation occurs after the follow-up investigaiton.
.
11. An operator of an establishment and a law enforcement officer can be held criminally and
civilly liable for false arrest, false imprisonment, or unlawful detention.
A
True
.
B. False
12. _____________ is altering, or counterfeiting a public record, certificate, legal document, bill
of exchange or promissory not with the intent to injure or defraud someone. ____________ is
knowingly exhibiting or publishing a document to someone or attempting to cash a check by
signifying that the check and the endorsement is real.
A. Uttering & Forgery
B. Embezzlement & Fraud
C
Fraud & Embezzlement
.
D. Forgery & Uttering
13. The Fire Chief at Station #29 notifies Law Enforcement that a mother has just dropped off a
newborn infant at his fire station. What actions can a Law Enforcement Officer take upon
arriving at the fire station? 
A. Arrest the mother for child neglect.
B. Congratulate the Fire Chief on the arrival of his new kid.
C No action can be taken against the mother since a parent neither commits child neglect if
. he or she leaves a newborn infant at a fire station.
D
Initiate a criminal investigation because the mother has left the newborn.
.
14. According to F.S. 406.11 when a person dies in Florida by criminal violence, accident,
suicide, or through any suspicious or unusual circumstance the ____________ must ne
notified.
A
Homicide Investigator
.
B. Coroner
C
Sheriff of the County in which the death occured.
.
D
Medical Examiner
.
15. 
Types of Vice Crimes an officer may find him or herself involved include all except:
A. Gambling
B. Child Pornography
C
Sexual Battery
.
D. Prostitution
16. 
When a victim of a crime become empathic to thier captors they are said to suffer from:
A. The Andromeda Strain
B. Stockholm Syndrome
C
Patty Hurst Syndrome
.
D. Asperger Syndrome
17. 
Which of the following statement in regards to responding to a hate crime is most accurate.
A Appropriate response to the victim of a hate crime allows perpetrators to realize that what
. was done will not be tolerated.
B. Only officers of the same national origin, race, or sexual orientation should respond to
victims of a hate crime.
C Officers should listen attentively to victims, but under no circumstances should victims be
. allowed to vent.
D Victims of hate crimes should be questioned sensitively with the officer remaining
. discrete about requesting answers from distraught victims.
18. __________ maintains that whoever, without lawful authority, knowingly or recklessly takes
or entices any child under the age of 18 years from the custody of its parent, guardian, or
other lawful custodian, is guilty of a _______ _______ felony.
A
Kidnapping, first, degree
.
B. Interference with custody, third degree
C
False Imprisonment, second degree
.
D
Interference with custody, second degree
.
19. Which of the following statements in regards to Sudden Death Infant Syndrome (SIDS) is
most accurate:
A SIDS, unlike SUID causes, is a diagnosis of exclusion. If there is a determined cause of
. death, it is not a SIDS incident.
B. A greater number of females infants die from SIDS (3-to-2 ratio) than do males.
C Infants that die from SIDS are often unheathly and suffer from mild lower respiratory
. infection.
D SUIDS, unlike SIDS causes, is a diagnosis of exclusion. If there is a detemined cause of
. death, it is a SIDS incident.
20. The criteria for an Injunction for Protection Against Dating Violence include all the
following except:
A
The dating relationship should have existed within the past six months.
.
B. The frequency and type of interaction between the parties involved in the relationship does
not have to include that the persons have been involved over time.
C The expectation of affection or sexual involvement between the parties characterized the
. nature of the relationship.
D Persons would have to have a continuing and significant relationship of a romantic or
. intimate nature.
21. 
The primary responsibility of an officer after the arrival of fire personnel is to:
A. notify dispatch
B. evacuate occupants of dwellings when possible.
C
assist fire personnel
.
D. maintain crowd control
22. __________ is the examination of facts and related law presided over by a judge or other
magistrate, who has the authority or jurisdicaiton to hear the matter.
A
Pre-trial hearing
.
B. Deposition
C. Grand Jury hearing
D
Trial
.
23. 
Which of the following are the different kinds of categories of burglars.
A
Professional, Vandals, Opportunistic, Memento driven
.
B. Gang related, Serial, Impulsive, Other burglars
C. Professional, Juvenile, Drug addicts, and impulse.
D. Juvenile, Organized, Drug addict, Impulsive
24. According to Florida Law, the first appearance hearing must occur within ________ hours of
arrest.
A. 12
B. 72
C. 36
D. 24
25. A young child has recently been kidnapped at the Stone Creek neighborhood. Law
Enforcement Officer respond to the scene and begin to conduct a door-to-door inquiry for
any information about the missing child and about the area. This technique of policing is
known as:
A
Surveilence
.
B. Investigating
C
Canvassing
.
D. Following leads
26. ______________ are persons who furnish police with information about crimes, either from
a sense of civic duty or in the expectation of some personal benefit or advantage, and
_________ is any person with whom an officer has contact with while on patrol.
A. Informants & Field Contact
B. Witnesses & Informant
C. Field Contacts & Informant
D
Concerned citizens & Feild Contact.
.
27. 
Victimless Crimes are all of the following except:
A
Prosititution
.
B. Gambling
C. Drug related homicides
D. Pornography
28. Detective Banner has been working missing children investigations for a number of years. He
recently received a call concerning a 12 year old girl who has runaway from home for the
fourth time. Detective Banner has a number of abducted children cases to deal with. What
would be the appropriate action for Detective Banner to take in this situation.
A. The Detective should focus on the abducted children cases as they have priority.
B. Inform the parents of the 12 year old runaway to file a missing person's report after 24
hours and then attempt to solve the case.
C Detective Banner should place the same effort in locating and recovering the 12 year old
. girl as any other child from his cases.
D Due to a recent amendment in federal law, agencies do not need to take reports
. immediately on any missing children under the age of 18, including runaways.
29. 
When notifying next of kin and or relatives about the death of a loved one, officers should:  
A notify next of kin via telephone to avoid a confrontational situation.
.
B. not answer any question concerning the deceased person's location and the circumstances
surronding the death.
C
attempt to identified the location of relatives, and go to the location if feasible.
.
D
Do not use a Clergy as it could upset members of the family who are not religious.
.
30. _________________ is a person who suffers from a condition of physical or mental
incapacitatin due to a developmental disabiltiy, organic brain damage or mental illness, or
who has one or more physical or mental limitations and ___________________ is a person
who suffers from the infirmities of aging as manifested by advanced age or organic brain
damage or other physical, mental, or emotional dysfunction to the extent that the ability of
the person to provide adequately for the person's own care or protection is impaired.
A
elderly person & disabled adult
.
B. disabled elder person & mentally ill person
C
elderly person & neglected child
.
D
disabled adult & elderly person
.
31. In order for a victims of a human trafficking crime to cooperate law enforcement agencies
are encouraged to:
A
promise victms benefits for their cooperation.
.
B. tell the victim that if they do not cooperate they will just hand them back to the human
traffickers.
C. collaborate with victim service providers.
D notify victims that the Immigration and Customs Enforcement agency will be informed of
. their illegal status in the country.
32. 
The Florida Amber Plan purpose is to:
A broadcast critical information about a missing or abducted child that is danger in a timely
. manner via radio, television, and the internet.
B. provide information about what law enforcement agencies are doing to find abducted
children.
C. alert the community when a child is born.
D. alert the community about runaway children via the radio, television, or internet.
33. 
Dealing in stolen property, also known as "fencing" is a _______________ in Florida.
A. second degree misdemeanor
B. third degree felony
C. second degree felony
D. first degree misdemeanor
34. When developing suspects for a known crime law enforcement has the privilage of obtaining
both public and private records, such as employment history, finacial records,or records of
any private organization without a subpoena in order to promptly solve the crime.
A
True
.
B. False
35. Officer Summers is on patrol downtown and happens upon two individual who are verbally
arguing with each other. Officer Summers attempts to use his crisis intervention, and 
verbalization skills to calm the two down. Both individuals begin to yell and curse the
officer. What would be Officer's Summers best course of action?
A Since Officer Summers is on duty he is unable to charge the two individuals with any
. violation.
B. If Officer Summers was off duty he could escalate his use of force without the worry of a
complaint being filed with his agency.
C Officer Summer should utlize his intermediate weapons such as his dart-firing stun gun or
. pepper spray on the two individuals.
D Arrest both individuals for Breach of the Peace since they began cursing and yelling at
. Officer Summers.
36. 
C.A.R.T. is an acronym that stands for:
A
Children Abduction Reaction Team
.
B. Crime Alert Response Team
C
Child Abduction Response Team
.
D
Child Abortion Reaction Team
.
37. ________________ is a secure internet site used by the Florida criminal justice community
as a pathway to FDLE and other online law enforcemetn agencies.
A
DAVID
.
B. NCIC
C. MCIC
D. CJNet
38. _________________ occurs after the defense, alleging that an officer's improper actions
violated their client's rights, files a motion to exclude certain testimony and/or evidence from
trial.
A
Pre-trial hearing
.
B. Deposition
C
Suppression hearing
.
D. Bond Hearing
39. 
______________ is one of the most underreported crimes.
A. Robbery Homicide
B. Sexual Battery
C
Child Pornography
.
D. Elderly abuse
40. An officer is authorized by the state of Florida to enforce a court order issued by another
state or jurisdiction unless the court order is domesticated by a court within the officer's
jurisdiction.
A
True
.
B. False
41. Which of the following crimes would fall under Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt
Organization (RICO) offenses according to Florida Statue Chapter 895.
A. Smuggling crimes
B. Child pornography crimes
C. Human Trafficking crimes
D
Sexual battery crimes
.
42. If property damage is greater than $200 but less than $1,000 then the criminal mischief
charge is a _____________.
A. second degree misdemeanor
B. third degree felony
C. first degree misdemeanor
D. second degree felony
43. ______________ is any person who is not a United States citizen and _____________ is 
foreign national who entered the United States without inspection at a border crossing or
airport.
A. Illegal alien & alien
B. immigrant & refugee
C
Alien & illegal alien
.
D
immigrant & alien
.
44. 
When giving testimony an officer should:
A avoid showing biases and prejudice. Always use plain, professional terminology, not
. slang, or police jargon.
B. state that they do not understand questions giving to them by the defense so as to throw
the defense off its game.
C
be expressive and speak in a clear and monotone voice so the jury can understand.
.
D make suggestions to enhance testimony to strengthen a case because officer are not
. subject to perjury laws.
45. When a minor is trafficked for a commercial sex act law enforcement agency must prove
which of the following:
A. force was used
B. coercion was used
C
fraud was used
.
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
46. Officer Maddox stops an individual with a thick mustache wearing aviator sunglasses at 3am
on a Thursday morning walking around a residential area for suspicious activity. Officer
Maddox has not advised the individual of his rights, but the individual is: 
A not compelled to explain his or her presence and conduct regardless of being stopped by
. the police officer.
B. to be released without further questioning as mandated by F.S. 856.021
C. allowed to flee from the officer since his rights were not given.
D
going to be arrested for loitering.
.
47. Agencies that may be involved in combating human trafficking include all the following
except:
A. Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs)
B. Prosecutions Offices
C
U.S. Marshall Special Operations Group (USMSOG)
.
D
Legal services
.
48. ________________ is the unlawful use of a persons identifying information such as a social
security number, date of birth, account number, ect.
A
embezzelment
.
B. exploitation of an elderly person
C. fraud
D
Identity theft
.
49. 
Human trafficking is a crime phenomenon about:
A
people being held in a condition of compelled service.
.
B. the movement of people
C
immigration servitude.
.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
50. Common methods of identifying criminal suspects include confessions, admissions, witness
testimony, informant information and:
A. Planted evidence
B. Defense Attorney statements
C
Watching how it is done on CSI: MIAMI
.
D
Physical Evidence
.
  

 Remove Excerpt
Question Excerpt
1. 
An eye for an eye is an example of punishment based on
A. retribution
B. rehabilation
C
incapacitation
.
D. deterrence
2. 
Which of the following are most consistent with incapacitation
A
drug treatment, indeterminate sentence and parole
.
B. banishment, life in prison and the death penalty
C
indefinite sentences, probation and parole
.
D
indefinite sentences, indeterminate sentece and probation
.
3. 
The older theory of punishment is
A
rehabilation
.
B. deterrance
C
incapaciation
.
D. retribuation
4. Incapacitation that focuses on offenders with a high risk of serious recidivism is termed
______ incapacitation
A
focused
.
B. special
C
selective
.
D. preferential
5. The concept of __________ dominated most thinking about sentencing for the most of
twentieth century
A. retribution
B. rehabiliation
C
incapacitation
.
D. deterrence
6. 
SInce the mid 1970s, the trend in sentencing has been to
A
turn toward rehabiliation
.
B. increased the use of indeterminate sentencing
C
ignore incapacitation and deterrence
.
D
decrese judicial and parole board discretion
.
7. 
A sentence of one to five years imprisonment is a __________ sentence
A
determinate
.
B. fixed
C. indeterminate
D
mandatory minimum
.
8. 
A ____ or fixed sentence is a sentence of a specific number of years imprisonment
A
indefinite
.
B. definite
C
determinate
.
D. indeterminate
9. 
Wide sentencing discretion and makig the punihsment fit the criminal is most consistent with
A. general deterrance
B. rehabilitation
C. retribution
D. just deserts
10. 
The _______ amendment bans cruel and unusual punishments
A. fifth
B. sixth
C. eighth
D. ninth
11. Beginning around 1975, trends in prison populations showed
A. slight decreases
B. slight increases
C
marked decreases
.
D
marked increases
.
12. 
Traditionally in the U.S., the primary alternative to prison was
A. parole
B. banishment
C
intermediate
.
D
probation
.
13. 
Symbolic restitution usually involves some form of
A. community service
B. direct pyment to victim
C. a fine
D
house arrest
.
14. In many jurisdiction with indeterminate sentencing, the earliest the convict can be paroled is
typically when time served plus ____ equals the minium sentence
A. merit credits
B. positive days
C. rehabiliation credits
D
good time
.
15. 
Fines are most consistent with the punihsment theory of
A. retribution
B. rehabilitation
C. deterrence
D
incapacitation
.
16. 
Evidence shows that the success at rehabilitation centers on what
A. The quality, including the funding, of the rehabilitation program
B. That the program forces inmates tochange their behavior by participating job training,
counseling, and other reentry programs
C
The desire of the inmate to change behavior
.
D. all of the above
17. Sentences of flogging, branding, or chopping off a hand are no long permitted in the United
States. Why?
A
Because states have prohibited these kinds of punishment
.
B. Because of the Eighth Amendments ban on cruel and unusual punishment
C
Because of activism of human rights
.
D
Floggin is still permitted in some U.S. jurisdiction
.
18. 
Most prisoners on death row have atleast one prior felong conviction
A
true
.
B. false
19. 
Retribution focuses on the crime committed, not on the defendant
A
true
.
B. false
20. The executive branch of government becomes involved in punishment by way of pardons
and parole
A
True
.
B. False
21. 
The second amendment prohibits cruel and unusual punishment
A
True
.
B. False
22. An indeterminate sentence can also be called a indefinite sentence because it represents a
range based on whether or not treatment is successful
A
True
.
B. False
23. Restitution is infrequently ordered in federal court because most defendants do not have the
ability to pay
A
True
.
B. False
24. 
Courtroom work groups use ____ penalties in seeking individual sentences
A
usual crime
.
B. normal
C
going rate
.
D. typical sanction
25. 
The most important factor in setting normal penalties in the
A
seriousness of the offense
.
B. prior record of the offender
C
persuasiveness of the prosecutor
.
D. skill of the defense attorney
26. Factors such as age, mental capacity, and social stability may have an influece on sentencing
and are called ____
A
mitigating factors
.
B. positive and negative sanctions
C. latent and patent considerations
D
exacerbating and exculpatory factors
.
27. Which of the following factors is least likely to deemed unlawfully discrimiatory in sentence
decision
A. employment history
B. race
C
ethnicity
.
D
religion
.
28. Beginning in the 1960s and 1970s, both liberal and conservatives began calling for ____ in
sentencing.
A
a more emphasis on rehabilitation
.
B. more punishment for drug dealers
C
decreasing judical discretion
.
D
decreasing use of mandatory minimums
.
29. 
In most indeterminate sentencing schemes, the convict is leased from prison
A
only after serving the full sentence
.
B. when the trial judge feels the convict can safety be released
C
when the parole board grants parole
.
D
only after serving 2/3 of the maximum setence
.
30. 
Federal court sentence guidelines are
A
popular with taxpayers because they reduce federal prison populations
.
B. popular among federal judges because it mkes diffclt decisions easier
C
critized for allowing too much discretion and too much leniency
.
D. critzed as too harsh, unfair, rigid, and complex
31. A sentence for a specific term of year that is within the legislative minimum and maximum is
a _____ sentence
A
determinate
.
B. indeterminate
C
mandatory minimum
.
D. empirical
32. The rape and murder of seven year old _______ helped the drive for sex offender registration
laws
A. Polly Klaas
B. Aimee Willard
C. Megan Kanka
D
Tracy Stemmons
.
33. 
Which of the following is not a consequence of tougher sentecing laws?
A. fewer plea bargains
B. more trials
C
increasing prison population
.
D
lower taxes
.
34. 
The murder ofyoung __________ spurred California to pass its three strikes law
A. Polly Klaas
B. Aimee Willard
C. Megan Kanka
D. Tracy Stemmonds
35. 
Offical discretion can sometimes be nullify or compensate for serve punishment laws
A
true
.
B. false
36. 
The most important facto in setting normal penalties is the defendants family situaton
A
true
.
B. false
37. 
Sentencing inconsistencies based on extralegal or unlaful is termed sentence disparity
A
true
.
B. false
38. 
Three strikes laws were invalidated by the U.S Supreme Court in 2002 in Ewing v. California
A
true
.
B. false
39. 
A judge generally follow the recomendation for the sentencing set out in the PSI
A
true
.
B. false

Criminal InvestigationPractice Test

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

____ 1.

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Question Excerpt
1. 
_____ occurs when an officer makes detailed and systematic inquiries or observations.
A. Inquiry
B. Investigation
C
Epiphany
.
D. Evidence
2. 
An investigation.....

3. 
An investigation....

4. 
Which of these is NOT a safety concern when dealing with a crime scene?
A. Number of entrances and exits to the scene
B. The suspect's location
C
The mood of bystanders around the scene
.
D. Physical size of the scene
E. All of the above are dangers
5. 
True or False: It is possible to have too many officers at a crime scene.
A
True
.
B. False
6. The size of the crime scene depends on the type of crime, the location of the evidence,
and........
A. Type of evidence
B. Location of the suspect
C
Climate of the crime scene
.
D. # of officers in a crime scene
7. True or False: Overestimating the area of a crime scene is better than underestimating the area
of a crime scene.
A
True
.
B. False
8. 
______ is the person who has been harmed by a crime
A. Complainant
B. Victim
C
Witness
.
D
Suspect
.
9. 
____ is the person who alleges that a crime has been committed.
A. Complainant
B. Victim
C
Witness
.
D
Suspect
.
10. 
_____ is the person who has information regarding a crime.
A. Complainant
B. Victim
C
Witness
.
D
Suspect
.
11. 
Which of the following is NOT a reason to keep witnesses separate?
A. They are easier to search when apart
B. They cannot corroborate a story
C
None of the witnesses can be intimidated
.
D
The integrity of each witnesses's statement is maintained.
.
12. 
There are 4 types of witnesses. There is Hostile, Reluctant, Cooperative, and......
A
Unreliable
.
B. Confidential
C. Unknowing
D. Ulterior motive
13. True or False: If a victim or witness is uninjured, the officer should ask fundamental
questions such as, "Who hit you?"
A
True
.
B. False
14. 
When dealing with injuries, what should the officer do?
A
Photograph all injuries with a scale
.
B. Document the size, type, and location of injuries
C
Make sure the injuries match the victim's account of the incident
.
D. All of the above
15. 
When photographing a victim of the opposite sex, what should the officer do?
A
State the type of camera that he/she used
.
B. Have an officer of the same gender as the officer accompany the photographer
C Have an officer of the same gender as the victim accompany the photographer
.
D
Have a supervisor, regardless of gender, observe the photographer while taking photos.
.
16. 
______ is anything that tends to prove or disprove an alleged fact.
A. Evidence
B. Testimonial Evidence
C
Physical Evidence
.
D
Hearsay
.
17. 
_____ consists of objects or things that can be used to prove or disprove an alleged fact.
A. Evidence
B. Testimonial Evidence
C
Physical Evidence
.
D. Relative Evidence
18. 
True or False: Testimonial evidence is generally more reliable.
A
True
.
B. False
19. _____ belongs to an individual and is not open to the public. An officer must get a search
warrant if it is involved in a crime scene.
A
Private Property
.
B. Public Property
C. Public Property w/limited access
D
Custodial Property
.
20. 
True or False: There is a 4th Amendment exception in regard to searching crime scenes.
A
True
.
B. False
21. Once the nature of the scene and the ____________ being investigated are determined, an
officer can decide how best to protect the scene.
A. Size of the scene
B. Location of the scene
C. Location of the crime
D. Type of crime
22. If somebody enters your crime scene who is not supposed to be there, the first thing you do
is....
A. Arrest that person for Trespassing
B. Arrest that person for Tampering with Evidence
C
Verbally instruct them to move behind the crime scene tape
.
D
Tell them to sign the crime scene log and not to touch anything.
.
23. 
If evidence (regardless of type) is contaminated in any way, the officer......
A. Must destroy it
B. Must document it
C
Must uncontaminate it
.
D
Must bring it to a supervisor
.
24. The _____ and _____ of search dictates the number and type of personnel or resources
needed for crime scene processing
A. Size, Type
B. Type, Purpose
C. Size, Purpose
D
Purpose, Resources
.
25. 
The 3 basic things that must be included in a crime scene log are.....
A. Name, Rank, Agency
B. Name, Time, Purpose
C
Name, Agency, Time
.
D. Name, Rank, Purpose
26. 
Who said that "Every contact leaves a trace"?
A
Sir Walter Kronkite
.
B. Sir Edward Lockhart
C. Dr. Denis Leary
D. Dr. Edmund Locard
27. This type of search pattern is often used indoors. It is the most methodical and thorough, and
can be described as an overlapping series of lanes in a "cross" pattern.
A. Spiral
B. Strip/Line
C. Grid
D. Pie/Wheel
E. Zone/Quadrant
28. This type of search pattern is for extremely large areas, and splits the area into pie-shaped
sections that are individually searched using the Strip/Line method.
A. Spiral
B. Strip/Line
C. Grid
D. Pie/Wheel
E. Zone/Quadrant
29. This type of search method is used outdoors or for an area that is large. The area should be
divided into four different sections and searched individually using any type of search
pattern.
A. Spiral
B. Strip/Line
C. Grid
D. Pie/Wheel
E. Zone/Quadrant
30. 
The "Spiral" search pattern is used....
A
By starting at the most outward point and circling in
.
B. By starting at the most inward point and searching back and forth until the outer edges are
reached
C
By spinning around a bunch of times and using an "oblong" technique
.
D. By starting at the most inward point and slowly walking in increasing circles.
31. 
This type of evidence contains blood, semen, saliva, bones, hair, and DNA
A. Trace
B. Biological
C. Firearms
D. Chemistry
E. Impression
32. This type of evidence establishes a possible source of origin, such as bumper paint on another
vehicle
A. Trace
B. Biological
C. Chemistry
D. Impression
E. Firearms
33. There is a bloody handprint on the wall. You collect fingerprints from each finger left on the
wall. You have just collected....
A. Latent Prints
B. Plastic Prints
C
Patent Prints
.
D. Elimination Prints
34. You get your car back from the dealership after a fresh paintjob. One of the painters foolishly
ruined your paintjob by leaving his fingermarks in it. You can find out who committed the
error by collecting...
A. A Latent print
B. A Plastic Print
C. A Patent Print
D. An Elimination Print
35. From the scenario above, you want to find out if the fingerprint from your car matches
anybody in the paint shop. You collect all prints of all personnel who were around your car
the day it was painted. You are collecting...
A. Latent Prints
B. Plastic Prints
C
Patent Prints
.
D. Elimination Prints
36. ______ is the documentation of everyone who handled the evidence as well as hwen, why,
and what changes, if any, were made to it.
A. Crime Scene log
B. Evidence log
C. Chain of Custody
D. Documentary Evidence
37. There are 3 types of photos taken at a crime scene. This one allows us to view the crime
scene as a whole
38. 
The type of photograph used to capture tire tracks can be identified as...
A. Overlook
B. Mid-Range
C
Closeup
.
D
Establishing
.
39. The most common method of measuring and documenting objects within the crime scene
that measures from two fixed points.
A. Bird's Eye View
B. Quadrant Photography
C. Triangulation
D. Point-fixing
40. 
Photographing should take place....
A. Before any investigating begins
B. During the investigation
C. After everything has been processed
D
After everything has been collected
.
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1. An officer should obtain as much information as possible from dispatch about the bomb. If
information from dispatch is not sufficient, how can the officer find out more information?
A. By trying to find the person who planted the bomb
B. By using the Emergency Resources Guidebook
C
By talking to the complainant
.
D
By picking up the bomb and examining it.
.
2. 
Most bomb threats are made via....
A
Telephone
.
B. E-mail
C. Postal mail
D
Walk-in
.
3. A common policy or rule is to be out of the suspected building _____ before the alleged time
of detonation and not return until ______ after the alleged time of detonation
A
15 minutes/30 minutes
.
B. 30 minutes/45 minutes
C
30 minutes/30 minutes
.
D
1 hour/1hour
.
4. 
If an officer decides to turn his/her radio off, he/she should ask to be contacted....
A. via email
B. via cell phone
C
via messenger
.
D. via land line phone
5. 
The _________ rule for evacuations can also be used for parking a patrol vehicle
A. Yardstick
B. 300 feet with cover
C. Stadium
D. Locardic
6. 
_____ will be the main issue in determining whether to search or evacuate
A. Size of the building
B. # of people
C. # of officers available
D. Credibility of the threat
7. In a bomb threat situation, the advisability of a search depends on different factors. Which of
these is NOT a factor?
A
Obtaining permission to search
.
B. Level of risk for searchers
C
Possibility of threats in addition to the bomb
.
D. Agency policy
E. All of the above are factors for determining a search
8. 
If a bomb is set to go off in a public place, the officer......
A
Does not need permission to search
.
B. Does need permission to search
C
Must get a search warrant
.
D
Must defer authority to the bomb squad
.
9. In this type of search, members of management conduct a search without the knowledge or
assistance of employees.
A. Overt
B. Covert
C
Cooperative
.
D. Mandatory
10. 
The fastest type of search is the ______ search
A. Overt
B. Covert
C. Quadrant
D
Floor-to-floor
.
11. 
When searching a building for an explosive device, the search must be conducted......
A. From bottom to top
B. From top to bottom
C
From the centermost point of the building and fan outwards
.
D
From the outskirts of the building and merge inwards
.
12. Protruding wires, poorly typed addresses, and "PERSONAL" markings are all characteristics
of.....
A. A mail bomb
B. A vehicle bomb
C
A bomb with an external triggering device
.
D. A suspicious bomb
13. 
When a bomb is found, the next step is to.....
A. Immediately begin disarming it
B. Transport the device to a safe area
C
Alert everyone in the building to evacuate
.
D
Calmly depart the area and begin a mandatory evacuation
.
14. A device whose main purpose is to detonate after the initial explosion to kill Law
Enforcement Officers, EMT's, and Firefighters is known as a....
A
External Triggering Device
.
B. Bogey
C. Secondary Device
D. Shrapnel
15. 
There are two types of evacuations when deal with a bomb. They are.....
A
Primary and Secondary evacuations
.
B. Partial and Total evacuations
C. Sectional and Complete evacuations
D
Overt and Covert evacuations
.
16. 
After an evacuation is complete, the only people allowed back in are....
A
The owner of the establishment and a police officer
.
B. The owner of the establishment, a police officer, and 2 firefighters
C. Only law enforcement officers
D
Nobody
.
17. True or False: The penalty for making a "hoax" Weapon of Mass Destruction is higher than
making an actual Weapon of Mass Destruction.
A
True
.
B. False
18. 
BNICE is a term used to describe....
A
Points to hit when deciding on an evacuation
.
B. Possible hazards associated with WMDs
C
Different types of WMDs
.
D
Different steps used in disarming a WMD
.
19. Unusual numbers of sick or dying people, an unusually high prevalence of respiratory
disease, unexplained damage to crops and agricultural products, and casualty distribution
aligned with wind direction are all signs of a.....
A
Nuclear WMD
.
B. Incendiary WMD
C
Chemical WMD
.
D. Biological WMD
E. Explosive WMD
20. _____ is a highly toxic poison found in the seeds of the castor bean plant. Symptoms of
ingestion are vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and severe dehydration.
A
Anthrax
.
B. Anhydous Ammonia
C
Ricin
.
D. Ammonium Nitrate
21. ______ is the single most poisonous substance known. It is inhaled. Onsets of infection occur
within 12-80 hours.
A. Botulinum
B. Ricin
C. Anhydrous Ammonia
D
Anthrax
.
22. 
True or False: "Dirty" bombs are considered Nuclear weapons.

23. These types of devices have 3 MAJOR COMPONENTS.1. Ignition Source2. Combustible


Filler Material3. Housing/Container
A. Biological WMD
B. Nuclear WMD
C Incendiary WMD
.
D
Chemical WMD
.
E. Explosive WMD
24. The greatest overall WMD threat is the
25. An area that is uphill/upwind/upstream from the contaminated area and is secure to set up a
treatment facility to aid the contaminated and uncontaminated victims is known as the....
A
Safe Evacuation Zone
.
B. Rescue Point
C. Aid to Victim Zone
D
Victim Collection Point
.

The principal target of the police commando operation in Mamasapano, Maguindanao on Jan. 25
was known as the Osama bin Laden of Southeast Asia.

Malaysian Zulkifli bin Abdul Hir, also known as Marwan,  was believed killed in the
operation. His Filipino cohort Basit Usman managed to escape.

Forty-four Special Action Force (SAF) commandos, purportedly pursuing Marwan and Usman,
were killed in a clash with the Moro Islamic Liberation Front (MILF), the Bangsamoro Islamic
Freedom Fighters (BIFF) and a private armed group.

Marwan is listed as one of the world’s most wanted terrorists, with at least a $5-million bounty
on his head. He is believed to head the Kumpulun Mujahidin Malaysia (KMM), a member
organization of the Jemaah Islamiyah (JI) terrorist network.

According to his profile in the US Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Marwan had used two
dates of birth – Jan. 5, 1966 and Oct. 5, 1966. He weighs 120 pounds and is 5 feet 6 inches tall.

Marwan – supposedly able to speak Malaysian, English, Tagalog and Arabic – is believed to
have been staying in the southern Philippines since 2003, where he has conducted bomb-making
training for the Abu Sayyaf group. He allegedly taught Azahari Husin, known as the “demolition
man” who supposedly masterminded the 2002 Bali attack, how to create explosive devices.

On Aug. 1, 2007, Marwan was indicted in the US District Court, Northern District of California,
and charged with “providing material support to terrorists, conspiracy to provide material
support to terrorists, contributing goods and services to a specially designated global terrorist and
making false statements.”

In 2012, the Armed Forces of the Philippines (AFP) declared that Marwan was among the 15
terrorists killed in a US-backed air strike in Sulu, a victory that was much celebrated. The
operation killed Abu Sayyaf leader Umbra Jumdail Gumbahali, or Doc Abu.

However, in August last year, the military recanted their earlier pronouncements as intelligence
reports noted that Marwan was supposedly sighted roaming with about 10 terrorists in Mindanao.

Another operation to either kill or capture Marwan had been planned last year – perhaps one
reason why suspended Philippine National Police (PNP) chief Director General Alan Purisima
was still allegedly on top of the SAF attack gone awry.

The operation on Jan. 25 was purportedly green-lighted because intelligence reports were
deemed “actionable.”

According to reports, Marwan, a US-trained engineer, grew fond of his Filipino wife Joromee
Dongon, widow of Abu Sayyaf founder Khadaffy Janjalani, such that US troops and intelligence
groups used her as a “tracer” to identify Marwan’s exact location.

Dongon’s calls were purportedly tapped and this enabled the SAF and intelligence groups to
trace Marwan’s calls and location.  – Cherry Salaza

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