Mechatronics Scafoundary

This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Elements of Mechatronics System”.
1. Where and when was the word Mechatronics invented?

a) Japan(1960)
b) Japan(1980)
c) Europe(1960)
d) Europe(1980)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The word Mechatronics was first used in Japan in the late 1960s, spread
through Europe and now commonly used in all other parts of the world. In the 1980s there
was a veritable explosion in Microprocessor based products.
2. A servo motor is a typical example of _____
a) Electronics system
b) Mechanical system
c) Computer system
d) Mechatronics system
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A servo motor is a typical example of a mechatronics system. It is a motor
with sensory feedback and it is used for obtaining very complex and precise motions.
3. What is the function of an input signal conditioning unit?
a) To produce control signals
b) To amplify the signal and convert it into digital form
c) To perform mechanical work
d) To produce electrical signals
View Answer
4. The main mechanical components of a servo motor are stator and rotor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main mechanical components of a servo motor are stator and rotor. The
electrical components consist of field windings and rotor windings, circuitry for power
transmission.
5. The main function of Actuator is _____
a) To produce motion
b) Detect input
c) Detect output
d) Detect the state of the system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Actuators produce motion and cause some actions whereas sensors
detect the state of system parameters, inputs and outputs.
6. Example of ‘Stand-alonesystem’ is _____
a) Machining centres
b) Washing machine
c) Robots for parts handling
d) Automated inspection stations
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The example of a stand-alone system is the washing machine. Machining
centres, robots for parts handling and automated inspection system are large factory
systems.
7. Which among the following carry out the overall control of a system?
a) Graphical display
b) Sensors
c) Actuators
d) Digital controls
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The overall control of the system is carried out by digital controls. Graphical
display provides visual feedback. The actuators produce motion and cause some actions
whereas sensors detect the state of system parameters,inputs and outputs.
8. A humanoid robot is an example of _____
a) Artificial intelligence
b) Stand-alone systems
c) Large factory systems
d) High level distributed sensor microcontroller actuator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Humanoid robot is an example of a system that incorporates intelligent
control or artificial intelligence. The example of a Stand-alone system is washing machine
whereas wire aircraft and automated inspection stations are examples of high level
distributed sensor and large factory systems respectively.
9. Where is the feedback generated by sensors in a mechatronics system given?
a) Input sensors
b) Comparators
c) Mechanical actuators
d) Output sensors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The feedback signal is given to comparator, which compares the desired
input signal to the feedback signal to produce an error signal. Input sensor detects the
input signal. Output sensors produce the output.
10. A Mechatronics system contains feedback.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Feedback signals are generated by sensors of mechatronics system, given
to comparators to produce the error signal if any.
“Mechatronics Design Process”.
1. Which is the first aspect which needs to be considered in the Mechatronics design
process?
a) Hardware integration and simulation
b) Conceptual design
c) Mathematical modeling
d) Modeling and simulation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Modeling and simulation involve the representation of physical systems by
suitable models for describing the behavior characteristics such as block diagram.
Hardware design and simulation is a part of prototyping. Conceptual design and
mathematical modeling come under modeling and simulation.
2. In the level of integration of Mechatronics system, an example of the first level is _____
a) Fluid valves
b) Automatic machine tools
c) Industrial robots
d) Microprocessors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First level of the mechatronic system is a basic control system which
integrates electrical signal with mechanical action. An example of this level is a fluid valve.
Automatic machine tools and industrial robots come under the second level and the
microprocessor in the third level respectively.
3. Interface design is an example of hardware integration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Interface design is a part of software integration which involves the Operating
system. Hardware integration involves process design and electronic design respectively.
4. What is the role of the second level in the mechatronics system design?
a) Integrates microelectronics into electrically controlled devices
b) Integrates electrical signal with mechanical action
c) Advanced control strategy level
d) Providing artificial intelligence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Role of the second level is to integrate Microelectronics into electrically
controlled devices. Integration of electrical signal with mechanical action, Advanced
control strategy, and artificial intelligence comes under the first, third and fourth level of
mechatronics design respectively.
5. Microprocessor based electrical motors are used for ____
a) Prediction of fault in the system
b) Correction before a fault occurs
c) Actuation purpose in robots
d) Providing intelligence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Microprocessor based electrical motors are used for actuation purpose in
robots. The other functions such as Correction before a fault occurs, Providing intelligence
or prediction of fault in the system is done using Artificial intelligence.
6. Deployment in mechatronics design is associated with the final product.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Deployment is the third main step in the process of a mechatronics design
process. It is associated with the final product, Embedded software deployment, and life
cycle.
7. Which phase of a mechatronics system consists of hardware designing?
a) Prototyping
b) Modeling
c) Simulation
d) Deployment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hardware design and simulation is a part of Prototyping. Conceptual design
and mathematical modeling come under modeling and simulation.
8. What is the function of “analysis” in the modeling and simulation phase?
a) Database for maintaining project information
b) Sub models for eventual reuse
c) Contains Numerical methods
d) To produce high-level source code
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Analysis provides numerical methods for frequency domain, time domain,
and complex domain design. Database for maintaining project information, Sub-models
for eventual reuse are part of project management. High-level source codes are produced
by the code generator.
9. Describing the behavior characteristics through block diagram is done in ____
a) Modeling and simulation
b) Prototyping
c) Deployment
d) Design optimization
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Modeling and simulation, physical systems are represented by a suitable
model for describing the behavior characteristics such as a block diagram. Hardware
design and simulation is a part of Prototyping. Deployment is associated with the final
product, Embedded software deployment, and life cycle.
10. Prototyping involves ____
a) Conceptual design
b) Replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware
c) Database for maintaining project information
d) Sub models for eventual reuse
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Prototyping involves replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware.
Conceptual design and mathematical modeling come under modeling and simulation.
Database for maintaining project information, Sub-models for eventual reuse are part of
project management.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “
Measurement Systems ”.
1. What converts physical input into output, among the basic parts of a measuring system?
a) Transducer or sensor
b) Signal conditioning
c) Intelligence
d) Display
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A transducer or a sensor is a sensing device used to convert physical input
to output especially voltage. Signal processor performs functions such as filtering and
amplification. Intelligence enables sensor level of signal processing the ability to
communicate with other sensors and subsystems. The display is used for online
monitoring or processing.
2. The analog to digital conversion in a measurement system takes place inside _____
a) transducer
b) signal processor
c) display
d) led
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A signal processor is used for the purpose of analog to digital conversion in
a measuring system. A transducer or a sensor is a sensing device used to convert physical
input to output especially voltage. The display is used for online monitoring or processing.
3. A thermocouple is a transducer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermocouple is a transducer that converts temperature into a small voltage.
These are generally used for temperature measurement.
4. The light emitting diodes are used as a/an ____
a) intelligence
b) display
c) transducer
d) sensor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The light emitting diodes are used as display devices. A transducer or a
sensor is a sensing device used to convert physical input to output especially voltage.
Intelligence enables sensor level of signal processing the ability to communicate with other
sensors and subsystems.
5. Which type of error is caused due to friction or electrical capacitance?
a) Hysteresis
b) Zero
c) Systematic
d) Random
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hysteresis errors are always due to friction or electrical capacitance.
Systematic errors always have the same and consistent value. Random errors are
unpredictable and varying.
6. Accuracy is the difference between a true value and the measured value.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Accuracy is the difference between a true value and the measured value. It
is always given in percentage of the full-scale output of the measurement system.
7. Which type of error always has the same and consistent value?
a) Random errors
b) Systematic errors
c) Zero errors
d) Hysteresis errors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Systematic errors always have the same and consistent value. Random
errors are unpredictable and varying. Hysteresis errors are always due to friction and
electrical capacitance.
8. The largest value for which the instrument output remains zero is ____
a) hysteresis error
b) resolution
c) sensitivity
d) dead zone
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Dead zone is the largest value of the measured variable for which the
instrument output stays zero. Hysteresis errors are always due to friction and electrical
capacitance. Sensitivity is the smallest absolute amount of change that can be detected
by a measurement. Resolution is the discrete nature of the measurement system which
will not allow them to follow an exactly continuous change in measurand.
9. The function of the data transmission element is ____
a) to transfer data from one element to another
b) to Modify the data
c) to process the data
d) to separate the signal hidden in the noise
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Data transmission is used to transmit data from one element to another. The
data processing element is used to modify the data before display and separate data from
noise.
10. Which elements among the following is used to modify the data before display?
a) Data presentation element
b) Data transmission element
c) Data processing element
d) Variable manipulation element
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Data processing element is used to modify the data before display. Variable
manipulation element is used to manipulate the signal. Data transmission is used to
transmit data from one element to another, Data presentation element communicate the
information of a measured variable to a human observer for monitoring.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “
Control Systems”.
1. What are Dashpots?

a) It works as a damper which resists motion by viscous friction
b) Toothed parts which transfer power between two shafts
c) Used to transmit power between two parallel shafts
d) Convert the rotatory motion into translatory motion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It works as a damper which resists motion by viscous force. In the other three
options, toothed parts which transfer power between two shafts is done by the gear drive.
The other functions mentioned are performed using spur and rack and pinion type of gears
respectively.
2. Force applied by dashpot is proportional to the velocity of an object in ____
a) Same direction
b) Opposite direction
c) All directions
d) Upward and Downward direction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Force provided by dashpot is proportional with the velocity of an object but
opposite in direction.
3. Dashpot absorbs energy from an object.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dashpot absorbs energy from the object like spring, and makes the object
stable.
4. Which type of damper works on the principle of the magnetic field?
a) Linear dashpot
b) Rotary dashpot
c) Eddy current damper
d) Shock absorbers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Eddy current damper works on the principle of the magnetic field. It provides
a force on an object proportional to its velocity. Linear dashpot and Rotary dashpot work
on the principle of torque and velocity.
5. In any pair of gear, the smaller one is called as the pinion and the larger one is called
as ____
a) Gear immaterial
b) Spur Gear
c) Internal gear
d) Helical gear
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In any pair of gear the smaller one is called as pinion and the larger one is
immaterial of which is driven by the other. Spur gear, helical gear and internal gear are
the different types of gears.
6. When the gear is driven, it results in step down driven in which the output speed
decreases and torque increases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a gear is driven, it results in step up driven in which the output speed
increases and torque decreases. When the pinion is driven, it results in step down driven
in which output speed decreases and torque increases.
7. In which type of gear teethes are parallel to the axis?
a) Spur Gears
b) Helical Gears
c) Rack and pinion
d) Internal Gears
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In spur gears teethes are parallel to the axis and used for transmitting power
between two parallelshafts. In helical gears teethes are inclined with the axis. Rack and
pinion and internal gears have different types of construction.
8. Which type of gear is used to convert rotary into translatory motion?
a) Spur gear
b) Rack and pinion
c) Helical gear
d) Internal gear
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: Rack and pinion type of gear is used to convert rotary motion into translatory
motion. In spur gears teethes are parallel to the axis and used for transmitting power
between two parallel shafts. In helical gears teethes are inclined with the axis.
9. Bevel gears are used for ____
a) Transmitting power between intersecting shafts
b) Converting rotary into translatory motion
c) For high speed and high load applications
d) Used in high capacity reduction driver like cement mills
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bevel gears are used for transmitting power between intersecting shafts.
Rack and pinion type gears are used to convert rotary into translatory motion. For high
load and high-speed applications, high capacity reduction driver like cement mills spur
gears and double helical gears are used respectively.
10. The planet pinion carrier and shaft are used in which type of gear?
a) Rack and pinion
b) Internal Gears
c) Spur Gears
d) Helical Gears
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Internal gears consist of planet pinion carrier and shaft used in automobiles
automatic transmission and step up driver of windmills.
“Microprocessor Based Controllers”.
1. What is the sequence followed by the automatic washing machine?

a) Washing, soaking, rinsing and drying
b) Soaking, washing, rinsing and drying
c) Washing, soaking, drying and rinsing
d) Drying, soaking, rinsing and washing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Soaking, washing, rinsing and drying are the events of the washing machine.
According to this, the controller actions are decided. In the other options the sequence is
changed and therefore these are not the accurate choices.
2. The chemical sensor in the washing machine is used ____
a) To count the quantity of detergent
b) To measure the amount of water
c) To measure the pH value of water
d) For Drying operations
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chemical sensor is used to measure the pH value of water in the drum and
compare to the water supply. The amount of water, pH value and detergent are all sensed
by the sensor. Drying operations are performed through another hardware in the device.
3. The amount of water, pH value and detergent are input to ____
a) Microprocessor
b) Microcontroller
c) Valve
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of water, pH value and detergent are all sensed by the sensor
and sensed qualities are input to the microcontroller. Further the signals are sent from the
microcontroller to device so that the user get to know if the work is done.
4. What is used to calculate the distance of the object and according to that sets the lens
of the camera?
a) Range processor
b) Microprocessor
c) Shutter
d) Switch
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Range sensor is used to calculate the distance of the object and according
to that it sets the lens of the camera. The microprocessor sends the signal to the motor
for adjusting the lens of the camera.
5. A CD is made of plastic and a thick layer of aluminium.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The CD is made of plastic and a thick layer of aluminium. Between plastic
and aluminium layers is a spiral track, 0.5 microns wide with the repetitions of the track
1.6 microns apart radially.
6. The microprocessor is used in drive motor of CD for controlling the speed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The microprocessor is used to control the speed of the drive motor based on
the position of the tracking mechanism. Depending on the complexity of the CD player,
sometimes music data is temporarily stored in RAM chip, for anti-skip functions.
7. What is the precise rate at which the drive motor rotates the CD?
a) 800 to 100 rpm
b) 500 to 200 rpm
c) 1000 to 600 rpm
d) 100 to 200 rpm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The drive motor rotates the CD at a precise rate, somewhere between 500
to 200 rpm. The other options are not the accurate or precise rate of rotation and therefore
these are not the right choices.
8. What are the applications of PLC in mechatronics?
a) Timing, counting, logic, arithmetic and sequencing
b) Managing, commanding and directing
c) Storing data
d) Processing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Timing, counting, logic, arithmetic and sequencing are the applications of
PLC. Managing and commanding are done through the controller, Memory stores the data
and Processor is used for processing.
9. What is the main of DAS (data acquisition system)?
a) Storing data
b) It converts analog to digital data
c) It converts digital to analog data
d) Processes the data
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DAS is used basically to convert analog to digital quantities, measures
several physical quantities and converts them into electrical form. It can measure voltage,
current, sound or pressure and various other physical quantities.
10. Reading mechanism is available in _______
a) CD
b) Washing machine
c) Digital camera
d) Camcorders
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CD consists of a reading mechanism part. A laser and a laser diode read
when it can see the laser light. In other options, washing machine, Digital camera and
camcorders does not require reading mechanism and they are not available.
This set of Mechatronics Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Real Times
Mechatronics System”.
1. In the mechatronics design process, what is the role of modelling?

a) Making understandable and behavioural models of physical phenomena
b) Numerical strategies for solving models
c) Information for maintaining project data
d) To supply efficient high-level source code
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Modelling is a process of making understandable and behavioural models of
physical phenomena. Numerical strategies for solving models containing differential and
non-linear equations is done through simulation.
2. Numerical strategies for affected improvement and performance functions supported
model parameters and signals is called as ____
a) simulation
b) design
c) modelling
d) project management
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Design process in the mechatronics design process is Numerical strategies
for affected improvement and performance functions supported model parameters and
signals. Modeling is a process of making understandable and behavioural models of
physical phenomena. Numerical strategies for solving the model and non-linear equations
is done through simulation.
3. Simulation provides numerical strategies for solving models containing differential,
discrete, hybrid, partial and implicit non-linear equations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Simulation provides numerical strategies for solving models containing
differential, discrete, hybrid, partial and implicit non-linear equations. It should have a lock
for real-time processing and be capable of executing quicker than real time.
4. The function of the code generator is ____
a) project management
b) simulation
c) numerical strategies for solving models
d) to supply efficient high-level source code
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Function of the code generator is to supply efficient high-level source code
from the block diagram or visual modelling interface. Project management is done through
a project manager. The design process in the mechatronics design process is Numerical
strategies for affected improvement and performance functions supported model
parameters and signals. Simulation is not done through the code generator.
5. Hardware approach in integrated design approach in mechatronics is ____
a) advanced control functions
b) bringing together sensors, actuators and computers in one system
c) to provide built-in intelligence
d) to provide a coherent framework of component interactions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hardware integration means designing the mechatronics system as an
overall system and bring together the sensors, actuators and computers into one system.
Software integration is based on advanced control functions.
6. In the integrated design approach, a coherent framework is provided through control
systems.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mechatronics uses the control system to provide a coherent framework of
component interactions for system analysis. Software integration is based on advanced
control functions. Hardware integration brings together the sensors, actuators and
computers into one system.
7. The built-in intelligence provided through ____
a) Advanced control functions
b) Real-time programming
c) Control systems
d) Integrated design approach
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An important characteristic of a mechatronics system is built in intelligence
provided through real-time programming integrated with the design process.
8. In mechatronics system design phase, prototyping phase consists of ____
a) hardware in loop simulation and design optimization
b) deployment of software
c) finding the mathematical model
d) selecting Sensors and Actuators
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Prototyping phase consists of hardware in loop simulation and design
optimization. The deployment of the software is done in the Deployment phase of
mechatronics system design process.
9. How is the integration of mechatronics system possible?
a) By use of control systems
b) By combining hardware and software
c) By providing built-in intelligence
d) By providing efficient high-level source code
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Integration of a mechatronics system is possible through combining
hardware and software. Hardware integration means designing the mechatronics system
as an overall system and bring together the sensors, actuators and computers into one
system. Software integration is based on advanced control functions.
10. The function of project management is ____
a) providing information for maintaining data and Sub models
b) deployment of software
c) real-time programming
d) integrated design approach
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of project management is providing information for maintaining
data and sub models for ultimate reprocess. The deployment of the software is done in
the Deployment phase of mechatronics system design process. The built-in intelligence is
provided through real-time programming integrated with the design process.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “CNC
Machines”.
1. What is the full form of CNC?

a) Computer numerical control
b) Computer number control
c) Computer network control
d) Computer numbers count
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Computer numerical control is the full form of CNC. If we provide software-
based numerical control then it is called as computer numerical control. The other three
options are not the perfect choice for the full form of CNC.
2. What does CNC machine use to control motion and speed?
a) Numerical
b) Programs, as well as computer keyboard, Graphical user interface
c) Feedback system
d) GUI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CNC machine uses the program to control motion and speed. The feedback
system is used to record data from the sensor and compare it with input data. The
graphical user interface provides a facility to understand the position of the tool according
to the input program.
3. The function of the feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare
it with output data.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with
input data. If there is an error found in the system, then it is controlled by sending new
signals towards the driver.
4. What is the function of the GUI(Graphical user interface)?
a) To control motion and speed
b) Converts program into the action of the driver
c) To record the data from the sensor
d) To understand the position of the tool according to the input program
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To understand the position of the tool according to the input program is the
function of GUI. CNC programs are used to control motion and speed. Machine control
unit converts the program into the action of the driver. The feedback system is to record
the data from the sensor and compare it with input data.
5. The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is ____
a) feedback system
b) input device
c) program
d) driving system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is an input device. Magnetic tape,
as well as computer keyboard, can be used in CNC as an input device. The feedback
system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. CNC machine
uses the program to control motion and speed.
6. Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial motion
commands.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial
motion commands. It reads the code provided and decodes the instruction.
7. What is the function of the driving system in CNC?
a) Auxiliary control functions such as coolant
b) Speed and position control
c) Consist of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Driving system consists of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead
screw. These are used to actuate the driving motors. Speed and position control is
provided by machine tools. To understand the position of the tool according to the input
program is the function of GUI.
8. Sensors used in measurement systems are ____
a) speed and position sensor
b) consist of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw
c) numerical control sensors
d) measurement sensors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sensors used in measurement systems are speed and position sensors. The
driving system consists of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw. Numerical
control sensors and Measurement sensors are not used in CNC devices.
9. Speed and Position in CNC can be controlled using _____
a) slide table and spindle
b) machine code unit
c) feedback system
d) graphic user interface
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed and position are controlled by using a sliding table and a spindle. X
and Y directions are controlled by the machine table. The z-direction is controlled by
spindle speed control. In the other options, The Machine control unit implements
interpolation commands to generate axial motion commands. The feedback system is to
record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. To understand the position
of the tool according to the input program, is the function of Graphic user interface.
10. In the block diagram of the CNC machine, data processing and control loop are a part
of ____
b) feedback system
c) machine control unit
d) input device
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the block diagram of the CNC machine, data processing and control loop
are a part of the Machine control unit. Machine control unit implements interpolation
commands to generate axial motion commands. The feedback system is to record the
data from the sensor and compare it with input data. Speed and position are controlled by
using a sliding table and a spindle. The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is an input
device. Magnetic tape, as well as computer keyboard, can be used in CNC as an input
device.
This set of Mechatronics Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on
“Flexible Manufacturing System”.
1. Who developed FMS (Flexible manufacturing system)?

a) Jerome H. Lemelson
b) Charles Wheatstone
c) Charles manes
d) Samuel Hunter Christie
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Jerome H. Lemelson developed FMS (Flexible manufacturing system). He
was an American industrial engineer who brought in the concept of flexible manufacturing
system. He filed many patents in the early 1950’s.
2. When did Jerome H. Lemelson set up his factory based on FMS (Flexible manufacturing
system)?
a) Early 1950’s
b) Early 1940’s
c) Late 1940’s
d) Late 1960’s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Jerome H. Lemelson set up his factory based on FMS (Flexible
manufacturing system) in the late 1960’s. His initial factories in this decade was set up in
U.S (United states) and Europe. This concept slowly started to gain profit in 1970’s.
3. What is done in make-to-order production?
a) Production is ordered by the owner
b) Regular production
c) Production stops due to less order
d) Production is done according to customer requirements
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Production is done according to customer requirements. In this process the
customers can customize an existing product of the company according to their needs.
He can customize it by paying extra sum of money or through any other means demanded
as per the company.
4. Which is a false statement on FMS (Flexible manufacturing system)?
a) Accuracy in the final goods produced is high
b) The cost of production is less
c) Quality and quantity of produced goods can be changed easily
d) The cost of initial setup is less due to less labour cost
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The cost of initial setup is less due to less labour cost is a false statement on
FMS (Flexible manufacturing system). The labour cost may be less but the cost of setup
and its installation is high compared to the traditional ones.
5. Flexible manufacturing system (FMS) lowers the company’s production cost.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flexible manufacturing system (FMS) lowers the company’s production cost.
It can easily adapt to change in number of units produced, quality of units produced and
time taken for the final product to be ready for manufactured, thus decrease the overall
cost.
6. Anyone can operate FMS (Flexible manufacturing system).
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Anyone cannot operate FMS (Flexible manufacturing system). Although it
reduces the labour cost, but for these systems to function efficiently, skilled and specially
trained individuals are required.
7. What was the original design of Jerome H. Lemelson which he patented for FMS
(Flexible manufacturing system)?
a) Robot based system
b) Conveyer
c) Motor based pulley
d) Shredder
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation: Robot based system was the original design of Jerome H. Lemelson which
he patented for FMS (Flexible manufacturing system). This robot based system can do
multiple works such as welding, conveying, inspecting manufactured goods etc.
8. Which is not a property of FMS (Flexible manufacturing system)?
a) High accuracy
b) Less production cost
c) Less initial cost
d) Flexibility in production
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Less initial cost is not a property of FMS (Flexible manufacturing system). In
these type of systems, the upfront cost is high. The cost of System, its installation cost
and its maintenance is higher compared to that of the traditional ones.
9. What happens to labour workforce when FMS (Flexible manufacturing system) concept
is used?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) Gradually increases with time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The labour workforce decreases when FMS (Flexible manufacturing system)
concept is used. In this concept most of the work is done using the machines, only few
skilled labours are specifically trained to operate these machines. This leads to overall
decrease in labour work force.
10. Which development board uses energia IDE (Integrated development environment)
for its programming?
a) MSP430G2ET Launchpad
b) Arduino UNO
c) Arduino nano
d) NodeMCU
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MSP430G2ET Launchpad is a development board that uses energia IDE
(Integrated development environment) for its programming. Arduino UNO, Arduino nano
and NodeMCU uses Arduino IDE (Integrated development environment).
11. Which work cannot be done by Jerome H. Lemelson’s first robot based system?
a) Manufacturing product
b) Welding
c) Inspecting the product
d) Convey the product
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Manufacturing of product cannot be done by Jerome H. Lemelson’s first robot
based system. It can convey the product, inspect it or can even weld two metals. This was
the first machine model that was used in industrial sector.
12. FMS (Flexible manufacturing system) consist of a single machine that controls
everything.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: FMS (Flexible manufacturing system) does not consist of a single machine
that controls everything. It is a cluster of machines that work together to manufacture a
product. These machines together form up a system called FMS (Flexible manufacturing
system).
13. FMS (Flexible manufacturing system) is not suitable if production quantity is less.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FMS (Flexible manufacturing system) is not suitable if production quantity is
less. FMS (Flexible manufacturing system) is best suited if the production has to be done
for a long time and huge amount of goods has to be manufactured.
14. Which does SMC stand for with respect to machine related manufacturing?
a) Single machine control
b) Singular machine control
c) Slot machine cell
d) Single machine cell
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SMC with respect to machine related manufacturing stands for Single
machine cell. It has one CNC (Computer Numerical control) based machine hub that
controls all other units. It is also combined with a storage system for unattended operation.
15. The expansion cost of FMS (Flexible manufacturing system) is less.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The expansion cost of FMS (Flexible manufacturing system) is high. The
initial and expansion cost of FMS (Flexible manufacturing system) is high because the
advanced machines and systems used in it are costlier than the traditional ones.
1. Which does CNC stand for with respect to machine related manufacturing?
a) Computer Numb control
b) Computer Number control
c) Computer Numerical control
d) Computerised Numerical controller
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CNC with respect to machine related manufacturing stands for Computer
Numerical control. It can control machines such as milling machine, lathe, welding
machine etc by taking digital data as its input which is fed into it by the operator.
2. Which is a false statement on CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing)?
a) Quality of the final goods produced is better
b) The cost of production is less
c) Quantity of produced goods can be changed easily
d) The cost of initial setup is less
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: “The cost of initial setup is less” is a false statement on CIM (Computer
integrated manufacturing). The labour cost may be less but the cost of setup and its
installation is high compared to the traditional ones, because the setup consists of costly
and advanced machines.
3. When did the ‘digital manufacturing’ concept became prominent?
a) Early 1950’s
b) Early 1970’s
c) Late 1940’s
d) Late 1960’s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The concept of ‘digital manufacturing’ became prominent in the early 1970’s.
It became famous after the release of the book “Computer Integrated Manufacturing”
written by Dr. Joseph harrington.
4. What is the full form of CAD?
a) Computer aided Design
b) Computer arts Design
c) Computer arts Designing
d) Computer assisted Design
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CAD stands for Computer aided Design. CAD software is used to digitally
design a model. They can create 3-Dimensional model of any desired object. Software
such as “Ansys” can even determine stress or strain falling on an object.
5. CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing) system is same as “lights-out factory”.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CIM(Computer integrated manufacturing) system is not same as “lights-out
factory”. In “lights-out factory” there is no requirement of a single human being. Everything
is done by the robots. But this is not so in the CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing).
Here skilled technicians are needed for the manufacturing.
6. “Lights-out factory” is a factory where there is no need any kind of light source.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: “Lights-out factory” is a factory where there is no need any kind of light
source. It is also known as “Dark factory”. Every work inside the factory is automated and
is carried out by programmed robots.
7. Which does DNC stand for with respect to machine related manufacturing?
a) Direct Numb control
b) Direct Number control
c) Direct Numerical control
d) Directed Numerical controller
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DNC with respect to machine related manufacturing stands for Direct
Numerical control. It is also called as distributed numerical control. In this machines are
controlled by a programmed computer with the help of direct connections.
8. Which does PLC stand for with respect to machine related manufacturing?
a) Programmed Logic Controller
b) Programmable Logic Controller
c) Programmed Logic Control
d) Programmable Low-key Controller
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PLC with respect to machine related manufacturing stands for
Programmable Logic Controller. It is used in the control of manufacturing process. It can
control the assembly lines, carrier robots etc. It provides ease in programming and in the
diagnosis of any fault.
9. What is the full form of CAPP?
a) Computer aided processed plans
b) Computer arts process planning
c) Computer aided process planning
d) Computer assisted process planning
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CAPP stands for Computer aided process planning. It is the use of computer
aided technology to plan or design a product for manufacturing. This process is widely
used in CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing) for the planning purpose.
10. Which is an example of PLC (Programmable Logic Controller)?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SR3B261BD
d) BMP180
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SR3B261BD is an example of PLC (Programmable Logic Controller)
developed by SCHNEIDER Electric. BMP180 is a pressure sensor. MSP430G2ET is a
development board manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS” and CMCP793V-500
is a velocity sensor.
11. Which software cannot be used for 3D modelling and CAD (Computer aided design)?
a) Creo
b) Ansys
c) Blender
d) Adobe premium pro
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Adobe premium pro software cannot be used for 3D modelling and CAD
(Computer aided design). Creo, Ansys and Blender all three are 3D modeling app which
can also be used for CAD (Computer aided design).
12. CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing) implies that there should be at least two
computers between which information is interchanged.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CIM (Computer integrated manufacturing) implies that there should be at
least two computers between which information is interchanged. There can be more than
two systems which works together and exchange information.
13. Who coined the term CAE (Computer aided engineering)?
a) Jerome H. Lemelson
b) Jason Lemon
c) Charles manes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Jason Lemon first coined the term CAE (Computer aided engineering). He
was the founder of SDRC (Structural Dynamics Research corporation). It was founded in
the year 1967.
14. Stress analysis can be performed using “ansys” CAD (Computer aided design)
software.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stress analysis can be performed using “ansys” CAD (Computer aided
design) software. Ansys is a 3D modelling CAD (Computer aided design) software through
which we can easily figure out the stress in any part of the object.
15. When was the first attempt of lights-out manufacturing made?
a) 1950
b) 1970
c) 1784
d) 1860
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first attempt of lights-out manufacturing made in the year 1784. It was
carried out by “Oliver Hans”. He was the one who created the world’s first continuous
production line in the year 1784.
“Humanoid Robot”.
1. Which organization has developed the humanoid robot “Sophia”?

a) Google
b) Amazon
c) Texas Instruments
d) Hanson Robotics
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The humanoid robot “Sophia” has been developed by “Hanson Robotics” at
Hong Kong. Sophia is social humanoid robot that can mimic more than 60 human
expressions.
2. When was first humanoid robot created?
a) 1945
b) 1930
c) 1927
d) 1975
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first humanoid robot was claimed to be created in the year 1927. It was
manufactured by Westinghouse Electric and Manufacturing Co. and was named as
Herbert Televox.
3. Which type of sensors are used for tracking the humanoid’s body and joints movement,
its orientation, position and speed?
a) mpu6050
b) ECG monitoring sensor
c) Proprioceptive
d) Exteroceptive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Proprioceptive sensors are used for tracking the humanoid’s body and joints
movement, its orientation, position and speed. They function the same as like our muscle
or limb work to provide orientation and movement to our body.
4. The motors used in humanoid robots are called as ______
a) Actuators
b) B-O motors
c) Orientation motors
d) Axis motors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The motors used in humanoid robot are called as Actuators. They help the
humanoid bots to mimic the motion like that of an actual human being. B-O motors are not
so accurate to provide the precession in movement which is needed.
5. Humanoid robot is same as chatbots.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The humanoid robot and the chatbots are not the same. The chatbots only
respond verbally or textually but the humanoid robots have to show interaction through
expressions, movements, verbally and other humanly behaviours.
6. When was the humanoid robot “Sophia” activated?
a) February 14, 2012
b) March 16, 2016
c) February 14, 2016
d) March 16, 2012
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The humanoid robot “Sophia” was first activated on February 14 in the year
2016 with the capabilities of Facial Recognition, Artificial Intelligence, visual data
processing. She could interact and could reply through speech. Scientists are still working
on it to make advancements.
7. ZMP in terms of humanoid robotics stands for ____
a) Zero Moment Point
b) Zero Mean Point
c) Zenith Moment Point
d) Zenith Measurement Point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ZMP stands for Zero Moment Point. It’s basically a concept that is associated
to the movement of the legs of a robot. It’s a crucial concept for the biped robots as they
have only two contact points (contacts at the bottom part of the leg). Others do not relate
to any robotic contexts.
8. What is the use of proximity sensor?
a) It’s used for sensing humidity
b) It’s used for sensing heat
c) It’s used for measuring distance
d) It’s used for sensing the presence of nearby objects
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Proximity sensors can detect the presence of the nearby objects without
making any physical contact with it. They are also used in mobile phones which is used
to turn off the mobile screen when it’s placed near the ear.
9. What is the name of the famous humanoid robot developed by the company “Honda”?
a) Eskimo
b) Ansino
c) Asimo
d) Sophia
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Asimo was developed by Honda back in 2000 and became one of the most
popular Humanoid robot of the decade. He has the ability to interact, run, play football and
can mimic many different human actions. Scientists are still working on it to increase its
capabilities.
10. Which organization developed the humanoid robot “ATLAS”, which was developed to
carry out rescue missions?
a) Google
b) Honda
c) Space X
d) Boston Dynamics
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The robot was first revealed in the year 2013 by Boston Dynamics. This bot
was made aiming to get an upper hand at the rescue missions as these bots can possess
much more capabilities required at the rescue areas, than a normal human being.
“Advanced Vehicle Control System”.
1. When was first practical power steering invented?
a) 1820
b) 1760
c)1920
d) 1926
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The first practical power steering invented in the year 1926. The need of
power steering emerged greatly during the time war, when there was need of driving heavy
military vehicles which needed a lot of force while steering it with normal steering systems.
2. What is the frictional force in a braking system if the brake pads offer a normal force of
20Newton and the coefficient of friction is 0.4?
a) 4Newton
b) 8Newton
c) 2Newton
d) 40Newton
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 8Newton is the frictional force in a braking system if the brake pads offer a
normal force of 20Newton and the coefficient of friction is 0.4.
Given,
Normal force=20Newton
Coefficient of friction=0.4
Frictional force=Normal force*Coefficient of friction
Frictional force=20*0.4=8Newton
Explanation: Active transducers do not require and additional power source for converting
the energy from one form to another as they work on the principle of energy conversion.
One such example of active transducer is thermocouple.
3. What is the full form of EHPS with respect to vehicle dynamics?
a) Electric-hydro power steering
b) Electro-hydraulic power steering
c) Electro-hydraulic pulse steering
d) Electro-hydraulic power system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: EHPS with respect to vehicle dynamics stands for Electro-hydraulic power
steering. It uses hydraulic systems for assisting the driver of the vehicle. It acts as a power
steering and helps the driver to easily turn the vehicle in the desired way.
4. When was first calliper-type disc brakes patented?
a) 1902
b) 1800
c) 1945
d) 1850
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The first calliper-type disc brakes patented in the year 1902. It was patented
by Frederick William Lanchester in his birmingham factory. It was first tested on the
lanchester cars.
5. What is the frictional force in a braking system if the brake pads offer a normal force of
10Newton and the coefficient of friction is 0.4?
a) 4Newton
b) 8Newton
c) 2Newton
d) 40Newton
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:Given,
Normal force = 10Newton
Coefficient of friction = 0.4
Frictional force = Normal force * Coefficient of friction
Frictional force = 10*0.4 = 4Newton
6. What is the frictional force in a braking system of a truck if the drum brake pads offer a
normal force of 30Newton and the coefficient of friction at the area of contact is 0.5?
a) 4Newton
b) 7.5Newton
c) 15Newton
d) 40Newton
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given,
Coefficient of friction at the area of contact=0.5
Frictional force=30*0.5=15Newton.
7. What is the full form of MDPS with respect to vehicle dynamics?
a) Motor driven pulse steering
b) Motor driven power steering
c) Multi driving power steering
d) Motor driven power system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MDPS with respect to vehicle dynamics stands for Motor driven power
steering. It uses an electric motor for assisting the driver of the vehicle. It acts as a power
steering and helps the driver to easily turn the vehicle in the desired way.
8. Volvo XC90 has automatic braking system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Volvo XC90 has automatic braking system. It contains systems that detects
the presence of vehicles or objects and apply brakes when they come too close to the car
and can be threat.
9. Which is not a self driving car?
a) Tesla Model S
b) NEXT TWO
c) Renault duster
d) Nissan LEAF
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Renault duster is not a self driving car. Tesla Model S is self driving car made
by the company Tesla. NEXT TWO is self driving car made by the company Renault.
Nissan LEAF is self driving car made by the company Nissan.
10. What is the frictional force in a braking system of a car if the disc brake pads offer a
normal force of 15Newton and the coefficient of friction at the area of contact is 0.5?
a) 4Newton
b) 7.5Newton
c) 2Newton
d) 40Newton
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given,
Coefficient of friction = 0.5
Frictional force=15*0.5=7.5Newton
11. Which is the first autopilot ship?
a) Tesla Model S
b) NEXT TWO
c) J.A Moffet
d) Nissan LEAF
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: J.A Moffet was the first autopilot ship. It was a standard oil tanker that
became the first ship to use auto pilot in 1920’s. Autopilot systems are fully automatic
systems that can constantly control vehicles trajectory without manual guidance.
12. When was first autopilot system developed?
a) 1911
b) 1912
c) 1932
d) 1931
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first autopilot system was developed in the year 1912 by Lawrence
Sperry. It was just 9 years after wright brothers developed their airplane Kitty Hawk.
Sperry’s invention was also named as “Gyroscopic automatic pilot”.
13. Which is the first helicopter with autopilot?
a) Piasecki HUP Retriever
b) NEXT TWO
c) J.A Moffet
d) Nissan LEAF
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Piasecki HUP Retriever is the first helicopter with autopilot. It was developed
by Piasecki Helicopter Corporation of Morton, Pennsylvania. It has a single radial engine
with twin overlapping tandem rotor.
14. Who developed the first autopilot system?
a) Lawrence Sperry
b) Joseph Henry
c) Norman Bel Geddes
d) Walther Bothe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lawrence Sperry was an American inventor who developed the first autopilot
system. Sperry’s invention was also named as “Gyroscopic automatic pilot”. This system
automatically balanced the plane.
15. When was the first steering wheel made?
a) 1911
b) 1894
c) 1832
d) 1831
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first steering wheel was made in the year 1894. It is the earliest trace of
the presence of steering wheels which was used by Alfred Vachero in his 4 horse powered
custom car to participate in Paris-Rouen race.
“Advantages and Disadvantages”.
1. Which among the following is a false statement regarding “Mechatronic system”?

a) Its initial cost of setup is high
b) Does not require highly skilled labours for operating it
c) More output in less time
d) It provides flexibility in production
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: False statement regarding “Mechatronic system” is that it does not require
highly skilled labours for operating it. It does require highly skilled and trained labours for
operating the manufacturing machines.
2. Which among the following is a correct statement regarding “Mechatronic system”?
a) Its initial cost of setup is low
b) Cheaper maintenance
d) Any individual can operate these systems
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Correct statement regarding “Mechatronic system” is that it is gives more
output in less time compared to the primitive techniques. Machines do not require rest and
are built in such a way that it can provide the same accuracy on any other day like it gave
on the first day.
3. How many principle axes do a Cartesian robot has?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Cartesian robot has 3 principle axes. These are industrial robots that can
translate in all X, Y and Z axis. They have three arms that are placed at right angle to each
other. A 3D printer is best example of Cartesian robot.
4. What does SCARA stand for in terms of industrial mechatronic robots?
a) Selectively Compliance Assembled Robot Arm
b) Selective Complicated Assembly Robot Arm
c) Selective Compliance Assembly Robot Arm
d) Static Complicated Assembly Robot Arm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SCARA stand for Selective Compliance Assembly Robot Arm in terms of
industrial mechatronic robots. They are industrial robots that are mainly used in industries
for assembling parts and accessories.
5. Which axis of SCARA (Selective Compliance Assembly Robot Arm)robot is rigid and
static?
a) X axis
b) Y axis
c) Z axis
d) No axis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Z-axis of SCARA (Selective Compliance Assembly Robot Arm) robot is
rigid and static. It can translate easily on X axis and Y axis. It has a rotating end that can
perform rotational motion on vertical axis.
6. Primitive methods should be preferred over mechatronic systems for short term
manufacturing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Primitive methods should be preferred over mechatronic systems for short
term manufacturing. This is so because primitive methods are cheaper and easy to apply,
whereas mechatronic systems are costlier and can be difficult to install and maintain in
short run.
7. Which mechatronic system is also called as Gantry robot?
a) Cartesian Robot
b) Dual Arm Robots
c) SCARA(Selective Compliance Assembly Robot Arm)robot
d) 6 axis robots
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cartesian Robots are also called as Gantry robots. These robots can perform
lineal motion on the entire 3 perpendicular axes. These Robots are usually used for
carrying loads, welding, 3D printing etc.
8. How many degrees of freedom do an industrial redundant arm has?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An industrial redundant arm has 7 degree of freedom. These industrial arms
resemble the human arms and are capable performing every action that a human arm can
do. These arms are mainly used in industries for assembling parts and accessories.
9. How many degrees of freedom do an industrial delta robot has?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An industrial delta arm has 3 degree of freedom. These robots have a dome
shaped structure which constitutes of 3 arms joined with universal joints. These arms are
mainly used in industries for quick pickup and placing of objects.
10. Who invented delta robot?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
d) ReymondClavel
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Delta robot was invented by ReymondClavel in the early 1980’s. These
robots have a dome shaped structure which constitutes of 3 arms joined with universal
joints. These arms are mainly used in industries for quick pickup and placing of objects.
11. Who invented first SCARA(Selective Compliance Assembly Robot Arm) robot?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) Hiroshi Makino
d) Walther Bothe
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Professor Hiroshi Makino invented first SCARA(Selective Compliance
Assembly Robot Arm) robot . This revolutionary prototype was created in the year 1978
at Yamanashi University in Japan.
12. How many degrees of freedom do an industrial SCARA (Selective Compliance
Assembly Robot Arm) has?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 4
d) 9
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An industrial SCARA (Selective Compliance Assembly Robot Arm) has 4
degree of freedom. It can translate easily on X axis and Y axis. It has a rotating end that
can perform rotational motion on vertical axis.
13. Sensors and transducers are subsystem of mechatronics.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sensors and transducers are subsystem of mechatronics. Sensors are
transducers are used to collect information from the environment and feed it into
computers or microcontrollers that analyses the data and operates accordingly.
14. Which among the following is a correct statement regarding “Mechatronic system”?
a) Its initial cost of setup is low
b) Cheaper maintenance
c) It is suitable for short term business
d) It provides flexibility in redesigning and manufacturing the products
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Correct statement regarding “Mechatronic system” is that it provides flexibility
in redesigning and manufacturing the products. Mechatronic systems can be easily
modified to increase or decrease the quality as well as the quantity of products produced.
15. Which among the following is a false statement regarding “Mechatronic system”?
a) Its initial cost of setup is high
b) Requires highly skilled labours for operating it
d) Easy to identify faults and repair it
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: False statement regarding “Mechatronic system” is that it is “Easy to identify
faults and repair it”. It is rather difficult to identify the fault and repair manufacturing
systems. It requires skilled engineers to repair them.
This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Types
of Transducers”.
1. What are transducers?

a) They convert power from one form to another
b) They convert work from one form to another
c) They convert work to power
d) They convert energy from one form to another
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Transducer are devices that convert energy from one form to another. This
energy can be either mechanical energy, light energy, heat energy or any other forms of
energy.
2. Active transducer do not require any type of additional power source for an operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Active transducers do not require any additional power source for converting
the energy from one form to another as they work on the principle of energy conversion.
One such example of active transducer is thermocouple.
3. What type of energy conversion does a piezoelectric transducer perform?
a) It converts mechanical energy to sound energy
b) It converts sound energy to mechanical energy
c) It converts mechanical energy to electrical energy
d) It converts electrical energy to mechanical energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A piezoelectric transducer converts mechanical energy to electrical energy.
They are generally used to detect a knock or any impulsive force. They are also used in
electronic drum pads to detect the impulse provided by the drumsticks.
4. Pirani Gauge is an example of which type of transducer?
a) Pressure transducer
b) Temperature transducer
c) Light transducer
d) Mechanical transducer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pirani Gauge is a pressure transducer. It’s a thermal conductivity gauge used
to detect pressure in vacuum conditions. It was named after a German physicist “Marcello
Stefano Pirani” who invented it in 1906.
5. The IC LM35 is used as which type of sensor?
a) Pressure sensor
b) Temperature sensor
c) Light sensor
d) Mechanical sensor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The LM35 IC manufactured by Texas Instruments is used as a temperature
sensor. The output voltage generated by this IC is linearly proportional to the temperature
in Centigrade. The output voltage is directly proportional to the temperature.
6. What is the range of frequency of the waves produced by the Ultrasonic transducer?
a) 20 Kilohertz to several Gigahertz
b) 1 Kilohertz to several Gigahertz
c) 40 Kilohertz to several Megahertz
d) less than 20 Kilohertz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic transducers produce frequency ranging from 20 Kilohertz to
several Gigahertz. Ultrasounds have a wide range of application in many fields, but
majorly they are used for measuring the distance of objects.
7. What is the full form of LVDT with respect to displacement transducer?
a) Linear variable differential temperature
b) Linear variable differential transformer
c) Liquid visible differential transformer
d) Liquified visible differential transformer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LVDT stands for Linear variable differential transformer. It is a displacement
transducer that converts rectilinear motion to electric signals. They are used widely due to
their robustness.
8. What is the effect on properties of LDR when light falls on it?
a) Its resistance remains same
b) Its resistance changes
c) Its capacitance changes
d) Its inductance changes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When light falls on LDR (Light dependant resistor) its resistance changes. It
is inversely proportional to the intensity of light. When light falls on LDR, the resistance
decreases and more current starts to flow through it. It is used to measure the intensity of
light.
9. What is measured by a hall effect transducer?
a) Electric flux
b) Electric Field
c) Magnetic field
d) Temperature
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hall effect transducers or Hall effect sensor is used for measuring the
magnitude of the magnetic field. The output voltage produced by the sensor is directly
proportional to the strength of the magnetic field passing through it.
10. In which state of chemical substances does a chemical sensing device work?
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Vapour
d) Plasma
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The chemical sensors detect the chemicals in the vapour form. Most of the
chemical sensor are in the form of gas sensors. These sensors are widely used in
industries to detect any gas leakage or for automatic fire alarms.
1. What is the nature of resistance to light intensity graph of an LDR (Light dependent
resistor)?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Parabolic
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance to light intensity graph of an LDR (Light dependent resistor)
has a decreasing nature. As the intensity of the light falling on the LDR (Light dependent
resistor) increases, the value of its resistance decreases.
2. What is the absolute error of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor which
predicts the distance of an object to be 5.1 cm but the actual value is 5 cm?
a) 1.02
b) 0.1
c) 0.01
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:Given: Actual Value=5cm
Measured Value=5.1cm
Absolute error=Measured Value-Actual Value
Absolute error=5.1cm-5cm=>0.1cm
3. What is the relative error of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor which predicts
the distance of an object to be 3.1 cm but the actual value is 3 cm?
a) 1.03
b) 0.1
c) 0.033
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=3cm
Absolute error=3.1cm-3cm => 0.1cm
Relative error=Absolute error/Actual value
Relative error=0.1/3=>0.033
4. What is the sensitivity of a sensor if the difference between two alternative output
observations is 0.6 and difference between two alternative input observations is 0.2?
a) 3
b) 0.6
c) 0.2
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Change in output=0.6
Change in input=0.2
Sensitivity=Change in output/Change in input
Sensitivity=0.6/0.2=>3
5. What is the nature of resistance to light intensity graph of aB57211P0100M301
thyristor?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Parabolic
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance to temperature graph of a B57211P0100M301 thermistor has
a decreasing nature. When the temperature of the B57211P0100M301 increases, then
the value of its resistance decreases. And vice versa happens when temperature
decreases.
6. The intensity of light is inversely proportional to the resistance of a photo resistor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The intensity of light is inversely proportional to the resistance of a photo
resistor. When the intensity of light falling on the photo resistor increases its resistance
decreases. The resistance to light intensity graph of a photo resistor has a decreasing
nature.
7. Transformer is a type of transducer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
View Answer
Explanation: Transformer is not a type of transducer. Transducers are devices that can
convert one form of energy to some different form, whereas a transformer steps up or
steps down voltage or current. It does not changes the form of energy
8. The resistance of a thermistor is directly proportional to its temperature.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance of a thermistor is inversely proportional to its temperature.
When the temperature of the thermistor increases, then the value of its resistance
decreases. And vice versa happens when temperature decreases.
9. What is the sensitivity of a sensor if the difference between two alternative output
observations is 0.4 and difference between two alternative input observations is 0.2?
a) 0.4
b) 0.6
c) 0.2
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given: Change in output=0.4
Change in input=0.2
Sensitivity=Change in output/Change in input
Sensitivity=0.4/0.2=>2
10. What is the relative error of an observation taken by an infrared sensor which predicts
the distance of an object to be 4cm but the actual value is 3.8cm?
a) 1.03
b) 0.05
c) 0.033
d) 1
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=3.8cm
Measured Value=4cm
Absolute error=4cm-3.8cm=>0.2cm
Relative error=0.2/4cm=>0.05
11. All sensors are transducers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All sensors are transducers. Transducers are devices that can convert one
form of energy to some different form; when a sensor senses an object it converts it into
machine readable electrical signals therefore it’s a transducer. But all transducers are not
sensors.
12. What is the nature of resistance to temperature graph of a thermistor?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Increases and then decreases
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance to temperature graph of a thermistor has a decreasing nature.
When the temperature of the Thermistor increases, then the value of its resistance
decreases. And vice versa happens when temperature decreases.
13. What is the relative error of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor which
predicts the distance of an object to be 2.3 cm but the actual value is 2.1cm?
a) 1.03
b) 0.2
c) 0.0869
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Absolute error=2.3cm-2.1cm=>0.2cm
Relative error=0.2/2.3=>0.0869
14. What is the absolute error of an observation taken by an Infrared sensor which predicts
the distance of an object to be 3.2 cm but the actual value is 2.9cm?
a) 1.1
b) 0.3
c) 0.03
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=2.9 cm
15. What is the nature of resistance to light intensity graph of a Photo resistor?
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Parabolic
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The resistance to light intensity graph of a photo resistor has a decreasing
nature. When the intensity of the light falling on the photo resistor increases, then the
value of its resistance decreases.
1. What is the relative error percentage of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor

which predicts the distance of an object to be 2.12cm but the actual value is 2cm?
a) 12%
b) 10%
c) 6%
d) 1%
View Answer
Answer: c
Relative error=(Absolute error/Actual Value)*100
Relative error=6%
2. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a distance measuring
sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 7.19cm but the actual distance is
7.02cm?
a) 13:719
b) 17:619
c) 17:702
d) 13:619
View Answer
Answer: c
Absolute error=7.19cm-7.02cm=0.17cm
Relative accuracy=(Absolute error/Actual distance)
Relative accuracy=(0.17/7.02)=>17:702
3. What is the mean value of a distance observation set taken by a distance measurement
sensor?
Observations={2,2.13,2.1,1.9}
a) 2.0325
b) 2.2
c) 2.125
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Observation set={2,2.13,2.1,1.9}
Mean=Sum of observations/Total number of observations
Mean=(2+2.13+2.1+1.9)/4
Mean=2.0325
4. Static characteristic of a sensor cannot be found using calibration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Static characteristic of a sensor can be found using calibration. Calibration
refers to a comparison between a known or standard measurement to the unknown
measurement taken by the tool which has to be calibrated.
5. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a IR(Infrared) sensor
which predicts the distance of an object to be 1.26 cm but the actual distance is 1cm?
a) 13:409
b) 13:50
c) 17:719
d) 13:619
View Answer
Answer: b
Relative accuracy=(0.26/1)=>13:50
6. Static characteristics of any sensor or transducer are determined by observing criteria’s
that vary very slowly with time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Static characteristics of any sensor or transducer are determined by
observing criteria’s that vary very slowly with time. Dynamic characteristics of any sensor
or transducer are determined by observing criteria’s that vary rapidly with time.
7. Accuracy and precession are same for a sensor’s observation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Accuracy and precession are not same for a sensor’s observation. Accuracy
is the observation closest to the true value whereas precession is the closeness of a
observation among the predefined sets of observations.
8. Hysteresis error of any sensor has maximum difference between the observed value
and actual value.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hysteresis error of any sensor has maximum difference between the
observed value and actual value. Inside the specified range of the sensor, it is the
maximum deviated observation from the actual observation.
9. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a IR(Infrared) sensor
which predicts the distance of an object to be 4.16cm but the actual distance is 4.09cm?
a) 7:409
b) 13:603
c) 17:719
d) 13:619
View Answer
Answer: a
10. What is the relative error percentage of an observation taken by a distance measuring
sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 2.32cm but the actual value is 2cm?
a) 12%
b) 7.09%
c) 6%
d) 16%
View Answer
Answer: d
Relative error=16%
11. What is the average value of a distance observation set taken by a ultrasonic sensor?
Observations={5,5.413,5.41,4.97}
a) 5.0325
b) 5.198
c) 5.125
d) 5.07325
View Answer
Answer: b
Mean=(5+5.413+5.41+4.97)/4
Mean=5.198
12. Static characteristics are related to the steady state response of an instrument.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Static characteristics are related to the steady state response of an
instrument. Steady state response of sensor is the relationship between input and output
when the output changes very slowly or remains constant after a span of time. And static
characteristics are the characteristics that changes very slowly or remains constant.
13. What is the mean value of a distance observation set taken by a distance
measurement sensor?
Observations={3,3.213,3.11,2.97}
a) 3.0325
b) 3.2
c) 3.125
d) 3.07325
View Answer
Answer: d
Mean=(3+3.213+3.11+2.97)/4
Mean=3.07325
14. What is the relative accuracy ratio of an observation taken by a distance measuring
sensor which predicts the distance of an object to be 6.16cm but the actual distance is
6.03cm?
a) 13:719
b) 13:603
c) 17:719
d) 13:619
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given: Actual Value=6.03 cm
Measured Value=6.16 cm
15. What is the relative error percentage of an observation taken by an infrared sensor
which predicts the distance of an object to be 3.32cm but the actual value is 3.1cm?
a) 12%
b) 7.09%
c) 6%
d) 1%
View Answer
Answer: b
Relative error=7.09%
“Dynamic Characteristics”.
1. Which error is also termed as measurement error?

a) Static errors
b) Dynamic errors
c) Systematic errors
d) Statical error
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic error is also termed as measurement error under specified
conditions. Dynamic error is defined as the difference between the actual or true value
with a quantity that changes with time.
2. In retardation type measuring lag the instrument responds after an unspecified dead
time lag.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In retardation type measuring lag the instrument does not responds after an
unspecified dead time lag. The instruments respond immediately as soon as a change in
measured quantity is encountered.
3. Active transducers do not require power source for operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Active transducers do not require power source for operation. These types
of transducers convert one form of energy to another without any external power source.
Example:- Photovoltaic cells present in solar panels.
4. Which among the following transducer is an example of active transducer?
a) LDR (Light dependant sensor)
b) Strain gauge
c) Hall effect sensor
d) Photovoltaic cell
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Photovoltaic cell is an example of active transducer. Active transducers are
those types of transducers that convert one form of energy to another without any external
power source. Photovoltaic cells are present in solar panels that generates electricity from
sunlight.
5. Which among the following transducer is an example of passive transducer?
a) Chemical transducer
b) Thermoelectric transducer
c) Strain gauge
d) Piezoelectric transducer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Strain gauge is an example of passive transducer. Passive transducers are
those types of transducers that bring change in passive electrical quantity usually with the
help of external power source. Strain gauge is a device that changes its resistance when
there is change in applied pressure.
6. Fidelity is a static characteristic.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fidelity is not a static characteristic. It is a dynamic characteristic of an
instrument. Fidelity refers to the degree of exactness of a measured value with a
measured quantity that has been measured without dynamic errors.
7. Measuring lag is a dynamic characteristic.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Measuring lag is a dynamic characteristic. Sensors, transducers or any
instrument do not respond immediately to the change in input. Measuring lag refers delay
in response of an instrument to the change in input.
8. In time delay type measuring lag the instrument responds immediately as soon as the
input is altered.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In time delay type measuring lag the instrument does not responds
immediately as soon as the input is altered. In this type of time delay type measuring lag
the instrument responds after an unspecified dead time lag.
9. Which instrument can be used to measure time without any errors?
a) Analog Clock
b) Digital Clock
c) Atomic clock
d) Doomsday clock
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Atomic clock is an instrument can be used to measure time without any static
errors. These are the most accurate instrument that can accurately measure time and
frequency and are used as standard for different purpose such as for global navigation
satellite systems.
10. Which method can reduce dynamic error?
a) By increasing accuracy
b) By increasing precession
c) By reducing sensitivity
d) By reducing time lag
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Dynamic errorcan be reduced by reducing time lag. Accuracy, precession
and sensitivity are static characteristics. Dynamic errors are caused when the instruments
do not respond immediately therefore reducing time lag will reduce dynamic error.
11. Which among the following is not a dynamic characteristic?
a) Precession
b) Measuring lag
c) Dynamic error
d) Fidelity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Precession is not a dynamic characteristic. It comes under static
characteristic. Dynamic characteristics of any sensor or transducer are determined by
observing criteria’s that vary rapidly with time. Precession is the closeness of a single
observation among the predefined sets of observations.
12. Which among the following is not a dynamic characteristic?
a) Response speed
b) Accuracy
c) Retardation type measuring lag
d) Time delay lag
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Accuracy is not a dynamic characteristic. It comes under static characteristic.
Static characteristics are related to steady state response. Accuracy is the observation
closest to the true value.
13. Which method can reduce dynamic error?
a) By increasing stability
b) By increasing tolerance
c) By increasing resolution
d) By increasing speed of response
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Dynamic error can be reduced by increasing speed of response. Stability,
tolerance and resolution are static characteristics. Dynamic errors are caused when the
instruments do not respond immediately therefore increasing speed of response will
reduce dynamic error.
14. Which among the following transducer is an example of passive transducer?
a) Photovoltaic cell
b) Thermocouple
c) Piezoelectric transducer
d) Thermistor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermistor is an example of passive transducer. Passive transducers are
those types of transducers that bring change in passive electrical quantity usually with the
help of external power source. Thermistor is a device that changes its resistance when
there is change in temperature.
15. Which among the following transducer is an example of active transducer?
a) LDR (Light dependant sensor)
b) Thermocouple
c) LVDT (linear variable differential transformer)
d) Thermistor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermocouple is an example of active transducer. Active transducers are
those types of transducers that convert one form of energy to another without any external
power source. Thermocouple consists of two rods made of different metal welded at a
junction. When it senses a temperature difference it generates a voltage.
This set of Mechatronics Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on “Displacement

Sensors”.
1. An Eddy current type displacement sensor can detect which types of objects?
a) Wooden Objects
b) Metal Objects
c) Plastic Objects
d) Bricks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Eddy current type displacement sensor can detect metal objects because it
uses high frequency magnetic field for the detection of objects. When this metallic object
come in the range of magnetic field, due to the electromagnetic induction, eddy current
starts to flow through the object in vertical direction which causes a change in the
impedance of the sensor. This change in impedance is used to measure the distance.
2. Which displacement sensor has the slowest response time among Optical type, Eddy
current type, Ultrasonic type and Laser focus type?
a) Optical Type
b) Eddy Current Type
c) Ultrasonic Type
d) Laser Focus Type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ultrasonic type displacement sensor has the slowest response time among
all the above mentioned type sensors. It’s so because it uses ultrasonic sound waves for
the measurement while Optical and Laser type uses light for the measurement which is
much faster than the ultrasonic waves. Eddy current type sensors uses high frequency
magnetic field which is also faster than the ultrasonic waves.
3. Which displacement sensor has the lowest accuracy to measure displacement among
Optical type, Eddy current type, Ultrasonic type, Laser focus type?
a) Optical Type
b) Eddy Current Type
c) Ultrasonic Type
d) Laser Focus Type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ultrasonic type displacement sensor has the lowest accuracy to measure
displacement among all the above mentioned type sensors. It’s so because it uses
ultrasonic sound waves for the measurement while Optical and Laser type uses light for
the measurement which is much faster than the ultrasonic waves and also has quick
response time. Eddy current type sensors uses high frequency magnetic field which too
has a greater response time compared the ultrasonic type which make it more accurate
in measuring distances.
4. What is the International System of length used to measure displacement?
a) Metre
b) Kilo Meter
c) Centimetre
d) Yards
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The international system of length, also known as the SI unit of length is
metres. In MKS system the standard unit of measuring length is metre, mass in kilogram
and time in seconds. This MKS unit is mostly used in engineering field, but for basic
physics field the most common system is the CGS system where the unit of measurement
of length is in centimetres, mass in grams and time in seconds.
5. Displacement sensors can also be used to measure an object’s thickness, height and
width.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In addition to measure the relative displacement of an object, these sensors
can also be used to measure the dimensions of an object. This measurement can be done
either by non-contact methods by using light, sound waves or through making an actual
contact with this object.
6. Interferometer can be used for accurate measurement of distance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Interferometer can be used for accurate measurement of distance. It can
measure small things with incredibly high accuracy by comparing light or radio beams. It
uses the wave pattern interfaces to measure the distance by comparing reflected or
refracted waves coming from objects.
7. ECS in context to displacement measurement stands for ____
a) Electronic Chirp Scaling
b) Extended Chirp Scaling
c) Electronic Chip Scaling
d) Extended Chip Scaling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ECS in context to displacement measurement stands for Extended chirp
scaling. It’s a commonly used algorithm used for SAR (Synthetic Aperture Radar) imaging.
8. Bently nevada 3300 xl 5/8mm in an example of which type of sensor?
a) Infrared Sensor
b) Proximitor Sensor
c) Ultrasonic Sensor
d) Temperature Sensor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bently nevada 3300 xl 5/8mm in an example of proximitor sensor. This
sensor is mostly used in industrial sector, it measures the very small movements due to
vibrations caused by the big machinaries. It helps the employee to monitor and control the
vibrations in machines.
9. Potentiometer as a displacement sensor works on the principle of ________
a) Mutual Inductance
b) Self Inductance
c) Variable Resistance Transduction
d) Hall Effect
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Potentiometer as a displacement sensor works on the principle of Variable
resistance transduction. They are linear or rotary potentiometers which converts this
rotation in potential difference and this potential difference is used for calculating the
displacement.
10. In capacitive sensors the displacement is measured with respect to change in which
internal factor of the sensor?
a) Capacitance
b) Resistance
c) Inductance
d) Effervescence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In capacitive sensors the displacement is measured with respect to change
in capacitance of the sensor. The displacement changes the area of overlap of the
charged plates also it moves the dielectric between the plates which results in change of
the dielectric constant and hence both the factors lead in the overall change of the
capacitance.
“Position Sensors”.
1. Which type of position can be determined by a position sensor?

a) Mechanical position
b) Lateral position
c) Prone position
d) Lithotomy position
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Position sensors are capable of determining mechanical position of an object
with respect to an arbitrary reference point. In addition, these sensors are also capable of
detecting the presence of an object nearby.
2. What is the principle of operation of Potentiometric position sensor?
a) Resistive Effect
b) Hall Effect
c) Mutual Inductance
d) Eddy current effect
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Potentiometric position sensor works on the principle of resistive effect.
These sensors basically have a potentiometer built in it whose resistance can be altered
using a slider, this resistive track is used as a sensing element for measuring the distance.
3. How the capacitance in a capacitive position sensor is altered?
a) By changing dielectric constant
b) By changing overlapping area of plates
c) By changing both dielectric constant and overlapping area
d) By adding a resistance in parallel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The capacitance in a capacitive position sensor can be changed by altering
the dielectric constant as well as by changing overlapping area of the plates. Dielectric
change can be achieved by changing the material placed between the plates, while the
change in overlapping area can be done by fixing a plate and overlapping the other plate
on the body of the first one.
4. Which type of materials can be detected by Eddy current position sensor?
a) Conducting materials
b) Insulating materials
c) Semi-Insulating Materials
d) Amorphous Materials
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The position of conducting material can be determined by the Eddy current
position sensor. Since the eddy current effect is observed in conducting materials, the
sensors working on this principle can detect and determine the position of the conducting
materials only.
5. LIDAR stands for ________
a) Light Detection and Radiation
b) Light Detection and Ranging
c) Lithium Detector and Radiator
d) Lithium Detection and Ranging
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LIDAR stands for Light Detection and Ranging. It emits optical laser light in
pulses and can detect the X,Y,Z co-ordinates of an object. This technology is widely used
in archaeological surveys.
6. LVDT position sensor is a capacitive type of position sensor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LVDT is not a capacitive type of position sensor. It’s an inductive type of
position sensor. It stands for Linear Variable Differential Transformer. It works on the same
principal as an AC transformer. It is very accurate in measuring linear movements.
7. Proximity sensor is a ____ type of position sensor.
a) contact
b) non-contact
c) eddy current
d) resistive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Proximity sensor is a non-contact type of position sensor. There are several
type of proximity sensors that uses electromagnetic fields, light and sound for detection of
the objects and their position.
8. OptoNCDT 1420 in an example of which type of position sensor?
a) Infrared type position sensor
b) Proximity type position sensor
c) Ultrasonic type position sensor
d) Laser triangulation type position sensor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: OptoNCDT 1420 in an example of Laser triangulation type position sensor.
This sensor can detect the position as well as the distance covered by a particular object.
They provide very high accuracy and has set a milestone in the field of position sensing.
9. Inductive proximity sensor works on the principle of ________
a) Mutual Inductance
b) Faraday’s law of Induction
c) Variable Resistance Transduction
d) Hall Effect
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inductive proximity sensor works on the principle of Faraday’s law of
Induction. According to this, the magnitude of the electromotive force induced is directly
proportional to the change in the magnetic flux that cuts through it.
10. Which laser sensor is used for measuring very long distances?
a) OptoNCDT ILR 1030
b) OptoNCDT1420
c) EddyNCDT 3300
d) EddyNCDT 3301
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: OptoNCDT ILR 1030 is laser sensor used for computing distance and objects
placed at very high distances. They are very precise and accurate. The range of these
sensors varies from 10m to 3000 metres.
1. Which type of material can be sensed by inductive proximity sensor?

a) Wooden type
b) Metallic type
c) Plastic type
d) Glass type
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Metallic type of material can be sensed by inductive proximity sensor.
Inductive proximity sensor works on the principle of electromagnetic induction, that is it
creates a magnetic field which induces an emf(electromotive force) which used to
determine the presence of objects.
2. Will an infrared proximity sensor detect a black object when it comes in suitable range?
a) Yes, It will detect the object
b) No, It will not detect the object
c) Yes but it will produce random output
d) The sensor will stop working
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: No, It will not detect the object if a black object comes in the range of an
infrared proximity sensor. Since infrared proximity sensors work on reflection of Infrared
ray from the objects but when these rays hit a black object, the ray gets absorbed and
does not bounce back. So the sensor is unable to detect the object.
3. Which is the emf(electromotive force) induced in a coil if it has 8 turns and rate of change
of flux with respect to time is 0.5?
a) -10 V
b) -25 V
c) 5.5 V
d) -4 V
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:Given:
Number of turns(N)=8
Change of flux with respect to time(dΦ/dt)=0.5
Emf(electromotive force)(e)=-N*(dΦ/dt)
e=>-8*0.5=-4 V
-4 V is the emf (electromotive force) induced in a coil if it has 8 turns and rate of change
of flux with respect to time is 0.5.
4. Which metal will have a larger range of detection by inductive proximity sensor?
a) Iron
b) Aluminium
c) Copper
d) Lead
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Iron will have a larger range of detection by inductive proximity sensor. A
ferrous metal enables a longer range of detection where as non-ferrous metals can reduce
the sensing range by 60%. Iron is a ferrous metal whereas all others are non-ferrous which
is why iron will have a longer range of detection.
5. A proximity sensor requires physical contact.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A proximity sensor does not require any physical contact. It can detect
objects at distant places without a touch or contact. It uses electromagnetic waves for the
detection. Most of the proximity sensor uses infrared waves for detection.
6. An inductive proximity sensor cannot detect a metallic object if it is wet or dirty.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An inductive proximity sensor can detect a metallic object even if it is wet or
dirty. Inductive proximity sensor works on the principle of electromagnetic induction, that
is it creates a magnetic field which induces an emf (electromotive force) which used to
determine the presence of objects. The water and dirt does not interfere the magnetic field
so it can detect a metallic object even if it is wet or dirty.
7. Which is has the number of turns in a coil if the emf (electromotive force) induced in it
is -2.5V and rate of change of flux with respect to time is 0.5?
a) -1.5 V
b) -2.5 V
c) 5.5 V
d) -3 V
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:Given:
Emf(electromotive force) induced in it is -2.5V
Change of flux with respect to time(dΦ/dt)=0.5
-2.5=-N*0.5
N=5
Therefore, the coil has total 5 turns.
8. Inductive sensors are also referred as “NMR” coils. What does NMR stand for?
a) Nuclei Magneto resonance
b) Nuclei Magnetic resonator
c) Nuclear Magnetic resonator
d) Nuclear Magnetic resonance
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: NMR stands for Nuclear Magnetic resonance. The “NMR (Nuclear Magnetic
resonance)” coils detect the magnetic component of the EM (Electro-magnetic )field linked
with the nuclear spin precession in Nuclear Magnetic resonance.
9. Which metal will have a larger range of detection by inductive proximity sensor?
a) Zinc
b) Steel
c) Copper
d) Lead
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Steel will have a larger range of detection by inductive proximity sensor. A
ferrous metal enables a longer range of detection where as non-ferrous metals can reduce
the sensing range by 60%. Steel is a ferrous metal whereas all others are non-ferrous
which is why Steel will have a longer range of detection.
10. Which is an example of infrared proximity sensor?
a) GP2Y0A41SK0F
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GP2Y0A41SK0F is an example of infrared proximity sensor. It is used for
detecting object in short range. BMP180 is an example of pressure sensor.
SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. Which is the emf (electromotive force) induced in a coil if it has 10 turns and rate of
change of flux with respect to time is 1?
a) -10 V
b) -25 V
c) 5.5 V
d) -3 V
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:Given:
Number of turns(N) = 10
Change of flux with respect to time(dΦ/dt)=1
e=>-10*1=-10 V
-10 V is the emf (electromotive force) induced in a coil if it has 10 turns and rate of change
of flux with respect to time is 1.
12. A capacitive proximity sensor can detect only metallic object.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A capacitive proximity sensor can also detect other object other than just
metallic object. It can detect all objects that have a dielectric constant other than air. These
type of sensors are widely used in appliances such as track-pads or touch-screen sensors.
13. A proximity sensor does not work if the temperature exceeds 100 degree Celsius.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A proximity sensor can work even if the temperature exceeds 100 degree
Celsius. They can work on a wide temperature range which may extends from -40 degree
Celsius to 200 degree Celsius and even more. They can work accurately at any
temperature within this range.
14. Which type of proximity sensor can be used as touch sensor?
a) Inductive proximity sensor
b) Capacitive proximity sensor
c) Ultrasonic proximity sensor
d) Photoelectric proximity sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacitive proximity sensor can be used as touch sensor. Capacitive
proximity sensors can detect all objects that have a dielectric constant other than air.
When a human finger comes in contact to the sensor, it immediately responds to this
touch.
15. Which type of proximity sensor can detect a magnetic substance even if a wall of non-
ferrous substance is made?
a) Magnetic proximity sensor
b) Capacitive proximity sensor
c) Ultrasonic proximity sensor
d) Photoelectric proximity sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetic proximity sensor can detect a magnetic substance even if a wall of
non-ferrous substance is made. It can detect the objects beyond the normal limit of
inductive proximity sensor. Since magnetic field can penetrate any wall made of ferrous
substance, so they can easily detect a magnetic substance placed beyond the wall.
1. Which type of lens is generally used in the PIR sensors?

a) Concave lens
b) Convex lens
c) Bifocal lens
d) Fresnel Lens
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fresnel lens is most commonly used lens in the PIR sensors. These Lens
help to evenly distribute the Passive Infrared waves around it which facilitates it to detect
motion in 180 degrees in all X,Y and Z axis.
2. The Samuel motion sensor works on which principle?
a) Hall effect
b) Inductive effect
c) Doppler effect
d) Capacitive Effect
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Samuel motion sensor works on the principle of “Doppler Effect”. It states
that, it is the change in the frequency of light, sound or any other wave in relation to
observer who is in motion with respect to wave source.
3. Tomographic sensors uses which type of waves for motion detection?
a) Radio waves
b) Ultrasonic waves
c) Infrared waves
d) Microwaves
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tomographic sensors uses radio-waves for motion detection. They can
sense objects when those radio waves are disrupted. They are generally very costly and
are mostly used in the industrial areas.
4. Combined motion sensors are triggered when all the motion sensors detect a motion.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Combined motion sensors are triggered when all the motion sensors
detect a motion. If any one of the sensor detect motion then the alarm is not triggered.
This facility eliminates the possibility of fake alarms.
5. Microwave motion sensors has more area coverage than the PIR sensors.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microwave motion sensors have larger area of coverage than that of the
Passive Infrared sensors as it uses Microwaves for the detection of the objects. They are
usually more expensive than the PIR sensors.
6. What is the frequency range of the ultrasonic sound waves used by the ultrasonic
sensors?
a) 20000Hz to 25000Hz
b) 25KHz to 50KHz
c) 25Hz to 55Hz
d) 25Hz to 50Hz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Ultrasonic Sensors produces sound waves of frequency in the range of
25KHz to 50KHz. These Ultrasonic sounds produced by the sensors transmitter bounce
back the in the same path when it encounters an object in its path. The receiver part
receives these waves and calculates the distance and displacement accordingly.
7. PIR stands for ____
a) Passive Infrared
b) Pulsating Infrared
c) Pulsating ratio
d) Pulse is radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PIR stands for Passive infrared. The PIR sensors are most commonly used
motion sensors that are used for detecting motion by recognizing the heat sensors. They
are designed to detect body heat and for motion recognition.
8. RCWL- 0516 is an example of which type of sensor?
a) Infrared Sensor
b) Microwave Radar Sensor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RCWL- 0516 is an example of Microwave radar sensor. It is used as an
alternative to the PIR sensors. They are cheap and more accurate. Due to the usage of
the microwaves, they have a greater range of detecting objects.
9. The distance range of detection of the PIR sensor is ________
a) 5-10 cm
b) 5-7 m
c) Up to 12 m
d) 5-12 cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The range of detection of the PIR sensor is up to 12 meter. They can
accurately detect objects in motion in this range. These sensors constitute of a pyroelectric
sensors that can detect different levels of infrared radiation.
10. “SAW” in respect to acoustic wave technology stands for ______
a) Sound Acoustic Wave
b) Surface Acoustic Wave
c) Simple Acoustic Wave
d) Surface Acoustic Wave
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: “SAW” in respect to acoustic wave technology stands for Surface Acoustic
Wave. This wave is used in the acoustic sensor for detection of motion. It is named so
because acoustic wave has to propagate through a surface as a medium, any change in
the propagation path, changes the velocity and other property of wave which is used to
detect motion in these acoustic sensors.
11. A car moves with a speed of 30 km/hr. What will be the speed of the same car
measured by a speed sensor which is placed in a truck which is moving with a speed of
20 km/hr in the same direction?
a) 30 km/hr
b) 50 km/hr
c) 10 km/hr
d) 0 km/hr
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed of the same car measured by a speed sensor which is placed in a
truck will be 10 km/hr. Since both car and the truck moves in the same direction therefore
the relative velocity of the car will be 30–20=>10km/hr.
12. A moving platform moves with a speed of 100 km/hr. What will be the speed of a boy
who is running on it with a speed of 10 km/hr along the motion of the moving track
measured by a speed sensor placed on stationary ground?
a) 150 km/hr
b) 160 km/hr
c) 110 km/hr
d) 140 km/hr
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed of the boy measured by a speed sensor who is running on the moving
platform will be 110 km/hr. Since both move in the same direction then the speed of the
boy gets added up with the speed of the moving platform therefore net speed becomes
100+10=110.
13. A car moves with a speed of 60 km/hr. What will be the speed of the same car
measured by a speed sensor which is placed in a bicycle which is moving with a speed of
12 km/hr in the opposite direction?
a) 60 km/hr
b) 72 km/hr
c) 58 km/hr
d) 48 km/hr
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed of the same car measured by a speed sensor which is placed in a
bicycle will be 72 km/hr. Since both car and the truck moves in the opposite direction
therefore the relative velocity of the car with respect to bicycle will be 60+12=>72km/hr.
14. A moving platform moves with a speed of 80 km/hr. What will be the speed of a boy
who is running on it with a speed of 20 km/hr opposite to the motion of the moving track
measured by a speed sensor placed on stationary ground?
a) 50 km/hr
b) 60 km/hr
c) 100 km/hr
d) 160 km/hr
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed of the boy measured by a speed sensor who is running on the moving
platform will be 60 km/hr. Since the boy and the moving platform moves in opposite
direction then the speed of the boy gets subtracted with the speed of the moving platform
therefore net speed becomes 80-20=60.
15. A car moves with a speed of 50 km/hr. What will be the speed of a stationary bicycle
parked along the roadside measured by a speed sensor which is placed in the same car?
a) 50 km/hr
b) 60 km/hr
c) 0 km/hr
d) 40 km/hr
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: speed of a stationary bicycle measured by a speed sensor will be 50 km/hr.
Since car is moving with a speed of 50 km/hr therefore relative speed of the bicycle with
respect to car will be 50–0=50 km/hr.
1. Which type of velocity sensor has a fixed permanent magnet attached to it?
a) Pyroelectric type
b) Piezoelectric type
c) Moving coil type
d) Stationary coil type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moving coil type of velocity sensor has a fixed permanent magnet attached
to it. The coil inside it has a relative motion with respect to the stationary magnet. When
the coil is in motion, an electromagnetic force is induced in the coil due to electromagnetic
induction. This electromagnetic force is proportional to the velocity of the moving object.
2. What is the unit in which tachometers measure velocity?
a) Revolution per minute
b) Meter per second
c) Kilometer per hour
d) Rotation per minute
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tachometers measure velocity in Revolution per minute (RPM). They also
act as revolution counters, (i.e) they can also count the number of revolution an object has
made in the required interval of time.
3. Which type of tachometer contain primary and secondary stators with fixed windings?
a) AC tachometers
b) DC tachometers
c) Alternating tachometers
d) Brushless tachometers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: AC tachometers contain primary and secondary stators with fixed windings.
It provides fixed output voltage when the rotor is stationary and varying voltage only when
the rotor is moving, this varying voltage is proportional to the velocity of the revolving
object.
4. For what purpose, a “tachometer” is used?
a) It is used for calculating velocity in revolution per minute
b) It is used for calculating the number of revolutions
c) It is used for calculating velocity in revolution per second
d) It is used for calculating the velocity in rpm and number of revolutions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tachometer is used to calculate velocity in revolution per minute. It can also
be used as a revolution counter to calculate the number of revolutions the object has made
which we have taken into consideration.
5. The Laser surface velocimeter works on dopplers principle.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Laser surface velocimeter(LSV) works on dopplers principle or the
dopplers effect. According to dopplers effect, there is change in the intensity of wave (here
light wave) when the source and observer move towards or away from each other.
6. Accelerometer can be used to measure the tilt.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In addition of measuring the inertial measurement of velocity and position,
accelerometers can be also used to measure the degree of tilt by considering the
acceleration due to gravity as reference. These are generally used in self balancing robots.
7. What does RPM stand for?
a) Rotation per minute
b) Revolution per minute
c) Rounds per minute
d) Rotation per millisecond
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RPM stands for revolution per minute. It is the most commonly used unit in
motor appliances and motor vehicles for denoting the speed of the crank shaft in the
engine.
8. _______ velocity sensor is a type of velocity sensor
a) Infrared
b) Proximitor
c) Piezoelectric
d) Ultrasonic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Piezoelectric velocity sensor is a type of velocity sensor. The output of the
velocity sensor is proportional to the velocity of the object. Since the output of the sensor
is very small so it mostly needs an amplifier for using it for any application.
9. LSV in terms of velocity measurement stands for ________
a) Laser Surface Velocimeter
b) Laser Surface Velocity meter
c) Linear Surface Velocimeter
d) Linear Surface Velocity meter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: LSV in terms of velocity measurement stands for Laser surface velocimeter.
It is a non-contact type velocity measuring tool which uses the laser doppler effect for
evaluating the light scattered from the moving object.
10. Which is a type of velocity sensor?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity sensor. It is used to examine very small
vibrations in terms of velocity. Since these received signals are of very low frequency, they
need an amplifier to amplify the received signal and convert them in terms of velocity.
1. Which is the most common load cell used in the force sensors?
a) Hydraulic load cells
b) Strain-Gauge based load cells
c) Pneumatic load cells
d) Capacitive load cells
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain-Gauge based load cells are the most common load cell used in the
force sensors. It is a transducer that is used for sensing the force, it converts the applied
force into electrical signals which is used for sensing the amount of load that is applied.
2. What is the standard capacity of tension load cells to measure load?
a) 25,000 to 100,000 lbs
b) 25,00 to 10,000 lbs
c) 25,000 to 100,000 Kg
d) 25,00 to 10,000 Kg
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The standard capacity of tension cells to measure load ranges from 25,000
to 100,000 lbs. Tension cells calculate the applied force based upon the tension applied
on beams or cables. Though this range can be exceeded in the custom ones.
3. Which force sensor is not a strain gauge type force sensor?
a) Load pins
b) Shear beams
c) Tension links
d) ALC annular load cell
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ALC annular load cell sensor is not a strain gauge type force sensor. It is a
capacitive load cell or a capacitive based load sensor. Other all the remaining are stress
gauge type force sensors which are used to measure tension or sheer forces.
4. Which transducer does not require any external power supply for working?
a) Strain gauge transducer
b) Piezoelectric Crystals
c) Hydraulic transducer
d) Pneumatic transducer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Piezoelectric Crystals does not require any external power supply for
working. They generate a voltage when an external force is applied on it which is directly
proportional to the external applied force. These sensors need special indicators for
measuring that voltage change.
5. RFI (Radio frequency interference), moisture and temperature cannot interfere with the
signals sent by the load cells.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RFI (Radio frequency interference), moisture and temperature can interfere
with the signals sent by the load cells. RFI acts as electrical noise to the force transducer’s
signal. Moisture can wick itself the cables and can create a difference in capacitance
between the signal lines. Temperature affects the resistance of the cables and thus can
create an interference in the original signal.
6. Higher capacitive load cells can ensure Wind loading and shock loading.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Higher capacitive load cells can ensure Wind loading and shock loading.
Wind and shock waves can affect the actual measurement of weight or force calculated.
Using higher capacitive load cells will eliminate the very small changes caused by these
external factors and only give the correct ones in the output.
7. RFI is electrical noise to load cells. What does RFI stand for?
a) Radio Frequency Interface
b) Radio Frequency Interference
c) Relay Frequency Interference
d) Relay Frequency Interface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RFI stand for Radio Frequency Interference. Radio frequency interference is
also called as Electromagnetic interference (EMI). It is electrical noise to the load cell
signal sent from the sensor.
8. What causes the problem of 60-hertz hum?
a) In-appropriate voltage supply
b) Absence of digital to analog converter
c) In-appropriate current supply
d) Absence of analog to digital converter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Absence of analog to digital converter can causes the problem of 60-hertz
hum. The controllers is advised to have a digital to analog converter which can be
synchronised with the 60 Hz frequency signals in the power supply lines.
9. What is the phenomenon (principle) on which magnetoelastic force sensors work?
a) Villari effect
b) Hall effect
c) Lenz law
d) Mutual Induction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Magnetoelastic force sensors work on “Villari effect” also known as the
magnetoelastic effect. It was named after an Italian physicist who discovered it. This effect
states that when a ferromagnetic material is subjected to stress then there is change in
the magnetic flux. This effect is known as the “Villari effect”.
10. Which is an example of force sensor?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) L298N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor. It is a strain transducer that
converts the strain to electrical signals. MSP430G2ET is a development board
manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS”, CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor and
L298N is a motor driver.
11. What is the value of force measured by a force sensor lying on a plane ground if a
block of mass 3 kg is kept on it and a normal upward tensile force of 5 Newton is applied
on the block? (Take acceleration due to gravity=10m/s2)
a) 15 Newton
b) 25 Newton
c) 30 Newton
d) 24 Newton
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block=3kg
Normal upward force=5Newton
Net force due to block=Force due to mass of block-Normal upward force
Force due to mass of block=mass*acceleration (here acceleration due to gravity)
Force due to mass of block=3*10=>30N
Net force due to block=30N-5N=>25N
12. What is the value of force measured by a force sensor lying on a plane ground if a
block of mass 2 kg is kept on it and a normal upward tensile force of 4 Newton is applied
on the block? (Take acceleration due to gravity=10m/s2)
a) 15 Newton
b) 20 Newton
c) 16 Newton
d) 24 Newton
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block=2kg
Normal upward force=4 Newton
Net force due to block=Force due to mass of block-Normal upward force
Force due to mass of block=mass*acceleration (here acceleration due to gravity)
Force due to mass of block=2*10=>20N
Net force due to block=20N-4N=>16N
13. What is the value of force, measured by a force sensor placed on the wall; if a rigid
block of mass 3kg is smashed against the wall with an acceleration of 5m/s2? (Take
acceleration due to gravity=10m/s2)
a) 15 Newton
b) 20 Newton
c) 16 Newton
d) 0 Newton
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block = 3 kg
Acceleration of block=5m/s2
Force experienced by sensor=mass*acceleration
Force experienced by sensor=3*5=>15 N
14. What should be the acceleration of a rigid body of mass 5kg; if a force sensor
measures a normal collision impact force of 15N? (Ignore acceleration due to gravity)
a) 5 m/s2
b) 13 m/s2
c) 6 m/s2
d) 3 m/s2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Mass of block=5 kg
Force measured by the force sensor=15N
Force experienced by sensor=mass of body*acceleration of body
Acceleration of body=Force experienced by sensor/mass
Acceleration of body=15N/5kg=>3m/s2
. What will be the value measured by an accelerometer in free fall?

a) Zero
b) Infinite
c) Error
d) 9.81
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a free fall the accelerometer will measure value=0. In a stationary state
the accelerometer will measure the acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2 but in a free
fall the acceleration of the falling accelerometer is also 9.81 m/s2 in the same direction,
therefore the relative acceleration of the accelerometer becomes zero.
2. Which is the name of the accelerometer that is used to measure the gravity of the earth?
a) MPU6050
b) Gravitymeter
c) Gravitometer
d) Gravimeter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gravimeter are the accelerometer that is used to measure the gravity of the
earth. The gravity of the earth varies from place to place depending upon the type of plain,
plateau etc. This determination of acceleration due to gravity is called gravimetry.
3. What is the exact value of acceleration due to gravity taken in consideration?
a) 10 m/s2
b) 9.80665 m/s2
c) 9 m/s2
d) 0 m/s2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The exact standard acceleration due to gravity is taken as 9.80665 m/s . For
2
general calculations it is assumed to be 10 m/s2. It the acceleration in which the earth pulls
all the object present on the surface of earth. This acceleration varies at the poles of the
earth.
4. Which element is mostly used in the capacitive accelerometers for sensing?
a) Germanium
b) Silicon
c) Lead
d) Carbon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Silicon is mostly used in the capacitive accelerometers for sensing. It is
relatively cheap and exhibits far better performance in the low frequency range. They can
provide a higher stability and linearity when operated in servo mode.
5. MEMS stands for ________
a) Micro electric mechanical system
b) Micro electro mechanical system
c) Mini electro mechanical system
d) Mini electronic mechanical system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MEMS stands for Micro electro mechanical system. Accelerometers,
Gyroscopes and pressure sensors are MEMS sensors. It is a technology using which most
of the accelerometers and other sensors are designed.
6. Accelerometers can be used for sensing mechanical vibrations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Accelerometers can be used for sensing mechanical vibrations. They can
detect even very precise vibrations in the machine. Since the vibration is in single plane a
two axis accelerometer is best suited for the measurement.
7. Acceleration is a ______ quantity.
a) scalar
b) vector
c) tensor
d) resistive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Acceleration is a vector quantity. It is a vector quantity because it depends
on both, magnitude of acceleration as well as the direction of acceleration. Had it been
only dependent on magnitude, it would be a scalar quantity but it is not so.
8. MPU6050 in an example of which type of sensor?
a) Acceleration sensor
b) Proximity Sensor
c) Ultrasonic sensor
d) Laser sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MPU6050 is an example of Acceleration sensor. It consists both 3 axis
accelerometer and 3 axis gyroscope, which is capable of measuring very precise
movements and accelerations.
9. Piezoelectric accelerometers converts ________ energy to ______energy.
a) mechanical, sound
b) mechanical, electrical
c) sound, electrical
d) sound, electrical
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Piezoelectric accelerometers converts mechanical energy to electrical
energy. The word piezoelectric is derived from a Greek word “piezein” which means to
press or squeeze. When any mechanical variable such as force or shock is applied on the
input, then it produces subsequent electrical signals which is used to measure its
magnitude.
10. Which is an example of accelerometer?
b) OptoNCDT 1420
c) ADXl 335
d) EddyNCDT 3301
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ADXl 335 is an example of accelerometer. OptoNCDTILR 1030 and
OptoNCDT 1420 are laser sensor used for computing distance and objects placed at very
high distances. EddyNCDT 3301 is a Eddy currents sensor.
11. A free falling heavy object will have more acceleration than a free falling light object if
released from a same height. (Ignore air resistance)
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A free falling heavy object will not have more acceleration than a free falling
light object if released from a same height. Both the object will experience same
acceleration due to gravity, which is why a free falling light object and heavy object will
reach the ground at the same time if released from a same height.
12. Who invented the first accelerometer?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) George Atwood
d) Walther Bothe
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: George Atwood invented the first accelerometer. The first accelerometer was
invented in the year 1783 and was originally named as Atwood machine. This machine
was used to calculate linear accelerations.
13. What was the original name of first accelerometer?
a) Eskimometer
b) Atwood machine
c) Asimo machine
d) Pepper
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The original name of first accelerometer was Atwood machine. It was named
after its inventor George Atwood. He was an English physicist who invented the first
accelerometer in the year 1783.
14. AC (Alternating Current) response accelerometer cannot measure constant or static
acceleration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: AC (Alternating Current) response accelerometer cannot measure constant
or static acceleration such as acceleration due to gravity. They are designed to determine
dynamic accelerations and events which changes regularly.
15. DC (Direct Current) response accelerometer cannot measure dynamic acceleration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DC (Direct Current) response accelerometer can measure dynamic
acceleration as well as static acceleration such as acceleration due to gravity. However,
AC (Alternating Current) response accelerometer cannot measure constant or static
acceleration. They are designed to determine dynamic accelerations and events which
changes regularly.
1. Which is the formula for measurement of torque, provided “r” is the position vector and
“f” is the force vector?
a) f*r*sinθ
b) f*r*cosθ
c) f*r*tanθ
d) f*r*secθ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula for measurement of torque, provided “r” is the position vector
and “f” is the force vector is f*r*sinθ. Torque is the cross product of the force vector and
position vector (i.e) t(torque)=f x r, which ultimately gives f*r*sinθ.
2. What is the unit in which torque is measured?
a) Newton meter
b) Meter per second
c) Kilometer per hour
d) Rotation per minute
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The SI unit of torque is Newton-meter (Nm). Torque is defined as force
multiplied by the position vector and Sine of the angle between the force vector and
position vector. The corresponding SI unit of measurement is Newton and meter. So the
SI unit is newton meter.
3. Which sensor is a type of inline torque sensor?
a) M425
b) FF425
c) RS425
d) ADXL345
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: M425 sensor is a type of inline torque sensor. FF425 is a dual flange torque
sensor. RS425 is completely contactless type torque sensor. ADXL345 is a 3 axis
accelerometer.
4. What type of torque is associated with braking system of a vehicle, when brakes are
applied?
a) Stationary torque
b) Dynamic torque
c) Static torque
d) Distinctive torque
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When brakes are applied in a moving vehicle, static torque is generated. It is
because the force applied by the brakes is static as there is no acceleration involved, so
the corresponding torque generated is called static torque.
5. Inline torque measurement is more accurate than reaction torque measurement.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Inline torque measurement is more accurate than reaction torque
measurement. It is so because inline torque sensors are placed beside the torque carrying
components, this eliminates the possibility of any other external parasitic torques to
interfere.
6. Reaction torque measurement is done when acceleration is required.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reaction torque measurement is done when acceleration is not required. It
is also called as static torque measurement. The word “static” itself denotes that the item
on which the torque is measured should not be in motion.
7. What varies in a strain gauge torque sensor when force is applied?
a) Resistance
b) Inductance
c) Capacitance
d) Velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistance varies in a strain gauge torque sensor when force is applied. A
strain gauge has some electrical conductive material printed on an insulated substrate,
when force is applied over it the material experiences a strain and the resistance of the
material changes.
8. The two types of torque are: ______ torque and ________ torque.
a) Static torque, dynamic torque
b) Static torque, distinctive torque
c) Stationary torque, non-stationary torque
d) Dynamic, non-dynamic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The two types of torque are: Static torque and dynamic torque. The torque
generated when there is no relative acceleration is called static torque. Whereas the
torque generated due to dynamic acceleration or deacceleration is called dynamic torque.
9. SAW torque sensors are a wireless torque sensor. SAW stands for ________
a) Sound Acoustic Wave
b) Surface Acoustic Wave
c) Simple Acoustic Wave
d) Surface Acoustic Wave
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: “SAW” stands for Surface Acoustic Wave. This wave is used in the acoustic
sensor for detection of motion. It is named so because acoustic wave has to propagate
through a surface as a medium, any change in the propagation path, changes the velocity
and other property of wave which is used to detect motion in these acoustic torque
sensors.
10. Which is a type of torque sensor?
a) CMCP793V-500
b) FF425
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: FF425 is a type of torque sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity
sensor. MPU 6050 is a 6 axis gyroscope and accelerometer. L298N is a motor driver with
dual-H bridge.
11. What is the torque provided by a flywheel which is being rotated with a force of 2N and
radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 1m? (Consider the
radial distance vector and force vector are perpendicular to each other)
a) 2 Nm
b) 3 Nm
c) 4 Nm
d) 5 Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Force (f) = 2N
Radial distance(r)=1m
Angle between radial distance vector and force vector(θ)=90°
We know; Torque (t)=f*r*sinθ
Torque (t)=2*1*sin (90°) [since sin (90°)=1]
Torque (t)=2 Nm
12. What is the torque provided by a flywheel which is being rotated with a force of 3N and
radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 0.5m? (Consider the
radial distance vector and force vector are perpendicular to each other)
a) 2 Nm
b) 3 Nm
c) 1.5 Nm
d) 5 Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Force (f) = 3N
Radial distance(r)=0.5m
Angle between radial distance vector and force vector (θ)=90°
Torque (t)=3*0.5*sin (90°) [since sin (90° )=1]
Torque (t)=1.5 Nm
13. What is the torque provided by a rotating object which is being rotated with a force of
6N and radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 2m? (Consider
the radial distance vector and force vector are at 30° to each other)
a) 3 Nm
b) 6 Nm
c) 1 Nm
d) 5 Nm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Force(f)=6N
Torque (t)=6*2*sin(30°) [since sin(30°)=1/2]
Torque (t)=6Nm
14. What is the force provided for rotating object which is being rotated with a torque of
10 Nm and radial distance of point of application of the force from the centre is 4m?
(Consider the radial distance vector and force vector are at 30° to each other)
a) 13 N
b) 16 N
c) 10 N
d) 5 N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Torque (t)=10Nm
We know; Torque (t)=f(force)*r(radial distance)*sinθ
10 = f*4*sin (30°) [since sin (30°)=1/2]
F (force)=5N
15. If the radial distance vector and force vector are in the same line then the torque will
be 0.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the radial distance vector and force vector are in the same line then the
torque will be 0. Torque is the cross product of the force vector and position vector (i.e)
t(torque)=f x r, which ultimately gives f*r*sinθ. If radial distance vector and force vector are
in the same line then θ=0 and sin0°=0. Therefore Torque=0.
1. How is pressure (p) defined in terms of force(F) and area(A)?

a) p = F*A
b) p = F+A
c) p = F/A
d) p = F-A
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pressure is defined as force per unit area (i.e) pressure (p) = force (F)/Area
of cross-section (A). The standard unit of force and area taken is Newton and
(meter)2respectively.
2. What is the SI unit of pressure?
a) Pascal
b) Barye
c) Atm
d) Newton
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pascal is the SI unit of pressure. 1 pascal = 1 Newton of force applied on 1
square meter of area. Barye is the CGS unit of pressure. Atm is used to measure
atmospheric pressure, whereas Newton is unit of force.
3. 1 atm = ____ pascal or ______bar.
a) 101325, 101.325
b) 101325, 9.81
c) 1.01325, 101325
d) 101325, 1.01325
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 1 atm = 101325 Pascal or 1.01325 bar. 1 atm is the atmospheric pressure
above the sea level (i.e) pressure exerted by the atmosphere above the sea level. Pascal
is the SI unit of pressure and 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to 101325 Pascal.
4. Whose pressure can be determined by the bourdon tube pressure gauge?
a) Solids
b) Fluids
c) Only Gas
d) Only liquids
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bourdon tube can determine the pressure of the fluids. Fluids include all the
materials that can flow, be it gas or liquid. Bourdon tube is curved, hollow tube. When the
pressure in the tube increases, it causes a deformation in the shape of the tube. This
deformation is used to determine the amount of pressure exerted by the fluid in the tube.
5. Absolute pressure is the sum of over pressure and atmospheric pressure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Absolute pressure is the sum of over pressure and atmospheric pressure.
Over pressure is commonly known as gauge pressure, therefore P(abs)={P(over) or
P(gauge)}+P(atm).
6. Gauge pressure is the summation of absolute pressure and atmospheric pressure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gauge pressure is the not summation of absolute pressure and atmospheric
pressure. It the difference between the absolute pressure and atmospheric pressure
(i.e)P(gauge)=P(abs)-P(atm).
7. Which is not equal to 1 atmospheric pressure?
a) 101325 Pascal
b) 1.01325 Bar
c) 101.325 torr
d) 760 torr
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 101.325 torr is not equal to 1 atmospheric pressure. 1 atmospheric pressure
is equal to 101325 pascal or 1.01325 bar or 760 torr. Pascal is the SI unit of pressure.
8. Which fluid is commonly used in U-tube manometers as a reference, in determining the
pressure of the liquid?
a) Sodium
b) Argon
c) Water
d) Mercury
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Mercury is commonly used fluid in U-tube manometers as a reference, in
determining the pressure of the liquid. The specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 which mean
that it is 13.6 times heavier than water.
9. What is the pressure experienced by a wall, if a brick is thrown with a force 10 Newton
and cross-section area of contact is 2 square metres?
a) 5 Pascal
b) 5 Atm
c) 5 barye
d) 1 Atm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Force of brick thrown=10 Newton
Cross-section area=2m2
Since pressure (p)=Force of brick thrown (F)/Area of cross-section (A),
P=10N/2m2=5 pascal.
10. Which is an example of pressure sensor?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: BMP180 is an example of pressure sensor. SLB700A/06VA is an example
of force sensor. MSP430G2ET is a development board manufactured by the “TEXAS
INSTRUMENTS” and CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. What is the pressure experienced by a pressure sensor, if a rigid body is thrown
normally with a force 5 Newton and cross-section area of contact is 1 square metre?
a) 5 Pascal
b) 5 Atm
c) 5 Barye
d) 1 Atm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given;
Cross-section area=1 m2
Since pressure (p) = Force of brick thrown (F)/Area of cross-section (A),
P=5N/1m2=5 Pascal.
12. What is the absolute pressure experienced by a pressure sensor, if the atmospheric
pressure of a fluid is 2 atm, gauge pressure is 5 atm and differential pressure is 3 atm?
a) 5 pascal
b) 5 Atm
c) 7 barye
d) 7 Atm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given;
Atmospheric pressure=2 atm
Gauge pressure=5atm
Differential pressure=3 atm
Absolute pressure=Gauge pressure+Atmospheric pressure
Absolute pressure=5atm+2atm => 7atm
13. What is the gauge pressure experienced by a pressure sensor, if the atmospheric
pressure of a fluid is 1 atm, absolute pressure is 6 atm and differential pressure is 2 atm?
a) 5 pascal
b) 5 Atm
c) 5 barye
d) 1 Atm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given;
Atmospheric pressure = 1 atm
Absolute pressure = 6 atm
Differential pressure = 3 atm
Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure-Atmospheric pressure
Gauge pressure = 6 atm-1atm => 5atm
14. What is the cross-section area of contact, if a brick is thrown with a force 10 Newton
and the pressure experienced by a wall is 5 Pascal?
a) 2m2
b) 5m2
c) 4m2
d) 3m2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Pressure experienced by a wall=5 Pascal
5 Pascal=10/A
Area of cross-section (A)=2m2
15. What is the pressure experienced by a pressure sensor, if a rigid body is thrown
normally with a force 6 Newton and cross-section area of contact is 2 square metres?
a) 3 Pascal
b) 3 Atm
c) 3 Barye
d) 12 Atm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Cross-section area=2m2
P=6N/2m2=3 Pascal.
1. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of cross section area
0.5m2 and velocity of the liquid is 0.5m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.25
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Cross section area=0.5 m2
Velocity of the liquid=0.5 m/s
Flow rate=Cross section area*Velocity of the liquid
Flow rate=0.5*0.5=0.25m3/s
2. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of radius 0.2 m and
velocity of the liquid is 0.6m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.07536
c) 0.0157
d) 0.0628
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Radius(r)=0.1m
Cross section area=pi*r2
Cross section area=3.14*(0.2) 2
=> 0.1256
Velocity of the liquid=0.6m/s
Flow rate=0.1256*0.6 => 0.07536m /s 3
velocity of the liquid is 0.5m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.0157m3/s
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Radius(r)=0.1m
Cross section area=3.14*(0.1) =>0.0314
2

Flow rate= Cross section area*Velocity of the liquid
Flow rate=0.0314*0.5 => 0.0157m3/s
4. What is the SI unit of volumetric flow rate?
a) m2/s
b) m3/s
c) m/s
d) m3/s2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: m /s is the SI unit of volumetric flow rate, where “m” and “s” denotes meter
3
and seconds respectively. Volumetric flow rate represents the rate at which a particular
volume of fluid flows through a cross section area in 1 second.
5. High turbidity is bad for aquatic life.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: High turbidity is bad for aquatic life. Turbidity refers to the amount of
sediments present in the water. High turbidity can block the sunlight which is essential for
the aquatic plants to live. The turbidity contains several pathogens which may be harmful
for the aquatic life.
6. Ultrasonic flow meter works on Doppler Effect.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic flow meter works on Doppler Effect. Ultrasonic flow meters are
generally used for monitoring dirty water such as sewage waste water. It can detect large
suspended particles and bubbles flowing through the channel.
7. Which is a gas flow meter?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) FLUXUS G601
d) FMA-PC16
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FLUXUS G601 is a gas flow meter. FMA-PC16 is a mass flow meter.
MSP430G2ET is a development board manufactured by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS”
and CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
velocity of the liquid is 0.5 m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.0157
d) 0.0628
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Radius(r)=0.1m
Cross section area=3.14*(0.2) =>0.1256
2

Flow rate= Cross section area*Velocity of the liquid
Flow rate=0.1256*0.5=>0.0628m3/s
9. What is the flow rate of a liquid flowing through a cylindrical pipe of cross section area
0.2m2 and velocity of the liquid is 0.5 m/s?
a) 0.5
b) 0.75
c) 0.25
d) 0.1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Cross section area=0.2m2
Velocity of the liquid=0.5m/s
Flow rate=0.2*0.5=0.1m3/s
10. Which is a mass flow meter?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FMA-PC16
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: FMA-PC16 is a mass flow meter. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force
sensor. MSP430G2ET is a development board manufactured by the “TEXAS
INSTRUMENTS” and CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. Which liquid has lowest density?
a) Acetic acid
b) Pure water
c) Olive oil
d) Sea Water
View Answer
12. Which liquid will have more mass for same amount of volume?
a) Brine
b) Chloroform
c) Olive oil
d) Sea Water
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We know density=mass/volume
Since volume is constant so, mass is directly proportional to liquid. Therefore the liquid
with highest density has the highest mass.
Olive oil has density is 911 kg/m . Sea Water has a density of 1022kg/m . Brine has a
3 3
density of 1230kg/m3. Chloroform has the highest density among the four, with a density
of 1489 kg/m3.
Therefore chloroform will have the highest mass.
13. Which liquid will have more mass for same amount of volume?
a) Coconut oil
b) Phosgene
c) Castor oil
d) Sea Water
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We know density=mass/volume
Since volume is constant so, mass is directly proportional to liquid. Therefore the liquid
with highest density has the highest mass.
Castor oil has density is 952 kg/m 3. Sea Water has a density of 1022kg/m3. Coconut oil
has a density of 930kg/m3. Phosgene has the highest density among the four, with a
density of 1378kg/m3.
Therefore Phosgene will have the highest mass.
14. Which is a Liquid flow sensor?
a) SLF3X
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FMA-PC16
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SLF3X is a Liquid flow sensor. It is durable, stable and provides long time
durability for various applications. FMA-PC16 is a mass flow meter. SLB700A/06VA is an
example of force sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
15. What is the SI unit of flow rate of a Liquid or fluid?
a) m3/s
b) m2/s
c) m/s
d) m3/s2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: m3/s is the SI unit of flow rate of a Liquid. Flow rate is calculated by
considering unit of volume flowing in one second. SI unit of volume is m 3 and time is
seconds, which gives the SI unit of flow as m3/s.
1. Which factor affects the least while selection of sensor?
a) Size
b) Accuracy
c) Colour
d) Durability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Colour of a sensor affects the least while selection of sensor. Accuracy of
the sensor is needed in order to achieve precise results. Size of the sensor depends on
the area of application. And for the sensor to last long and give the same results, it must
be durable enough.
2. Which sensor should one prefer for accurate measurement of distance upto 1 meter?
a) Ultrasonic sensor
b) Infrared sensor
c) PIR sensor
d) Photoresistor sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic sensor should one prefer for accurate measurement of distance
upto 1 meter. Infrared sensor can also be used for measuring distance but its range is
less than a meter. PIR sensor and Photoresistor sensor cannot be used for measuring
distance.
3. Which sensor one should prefer for detecting black objects?
a) Ultrasonic sensor
b) Infrared sensor
c) PIR sensor
d) Photoresistor sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ultrasonic sensor one should prefer for detecting black objects. Infrared
sensor and PIR sensor cannot detect black objects, because they work on reflection of
Infrared ray from the objects and black objects does not reflect infrared rays.
4. IR sensors can’t work in dark environment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IR sensors can work in dark environment. It does not require an external light
source. They only need an Infrared emitter or any source of infrared and these sources
are present on the sensor itself. So it can work in dark.
5. Arduino UNO is a microcontroller board based on ESP8266 IC.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Arduino UNO is not based on ESP8266 IC. It is a microcontroller board based
on Atmega328P. It is a general purpose development board which contains 6 analog pins
and 14 digital pins out of which 6 pins can be used as PWM (pulse width modulation)
outputs.
6. Which IC (integrated circuit) is present on NodeMCU?
a) ESP8266
b) Atmega326
c) Atmega328P
d) ESPN8266
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ESP8266IC (integrated circuit) is present on NodeMCU. It is a wifi enabled
chip. It is developed by Espress if Systems. It is a low cost Wifi chip with TCP/IP protocol.
Atmega328P is present on the Arduino UNO development board.
7. Which colour does not reflect infrared rays?
a) White
b) Black
c) Red
d) Green
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Black colour does not reflect infrared rays. All other colour reflects infrared
rays. This is the reason why infrared sensors or any other infrared based sensor is unable
to detect black coloured objects.
8. HC-SR04 is an example of which type of sensor?
a) Infrared Sensor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: HC-SR04 is an example of Ultrasonic Sensor. It is one of the most widely
used ultrasonic sensor for robotic or arduino projects. It is cheap and gives accurate
measurement of distance upto few metres.
9. What is the maximum distance range of detection of the HC-SR04?
a) 10 cm
b) 10 m
c) 5 feet
d) 13 feet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 13 feet is the maximum distance range of detection of the HC-SR04. HC-
SR04 is a Ultrasonic Sensor. It is cheap and one of the most widely used ultrasonic sensor
for robotic or arduino projects.
10. What is the maximum range of HC-05?
a) 5 metre
b) 10 meter
c) 20 meter
d) 50 meter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 10 meter is the maximum range of HC-05. HC-05 is a Bluetooth sensor which
uses 2.45 gigaHertz frequency band for transmission. The transfer rate of data can go
upto 1Mbps (Mega-byte per second).
11. Which sensor should be used for calculating pressure?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MPX10DP sensor should be used for calculating pressure. MPX10DP is a
pressure sensor which can measure pressure up to 10 kPa. HC-SR04 is an example of
Ultrasonic Sensor. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature sensor. DHT11 is a temperature and
humidity sensor.
12. Which sensor should be used for calculating humidity?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DHT11 sensor should be used for calculating humidity. It can also be used
as temperature sensor. MPX10DP is a pressure sensor which can measure pressure up
to 10 kPa. HC-SR04 is an example of Ultrasonic Sensor. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature
sensor.
13. Which sensor should be used for calculating distance?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: HC-SR04 sensor should be used for calculating distance. HC-SR04 is a
Ultrasonic Sensor that has a range of 13 feet linearly. MPX10DP is a pressure sensor
which can measure pressure up to 10 kPa. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature sensor. DHT11
is a temperature and humidity sensor.
14. Which sensor should be used for calculating temperature as well as humidity?
a) DHT11
b) LM335Z/NOPB
c) HC-SR04
d) MPX10DP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DHT11 sensor should be used for calculating temperature as well as
humidity. MPX10DP is a pressure sensor which can measure pressure up to 10 kPa. HC-
SR04 is an example of Ultrasonic Sensor. LM335Z/NOPB is temperature sensor but it
cannot calculate humidity.
15. Which sensor is used in line following robots?
a) Infrared Sensor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Infrared Sensor is used in line following robots. These line following robots
follow a path which is made by black strips or tapes. These robots use a bunch of infrared
sensors which makes them work accurately.
1. Which is not a solid state device?

a) Mother board
b) Integrated circuit
c) Hard disc
d) Flash memory
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hard disc is not a solid state device. Solid state device is the one which does
not have any moving part. Hard drives have a moving drive head and a disc which rotates
while reading or writing the data into the drive.
2. When was flash memory invented?
a) Early 1980’s
b) Early 1970’s
c) Late 1990’s
d) Late 1970’s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flash memory was invented early 1980’s. It was developed by Masuoka
Fujio. He was a Japanese engineer working at Toshiba Corporation. He was working on
the alternatives of existing data storage devices such as floppy and magnetic drives.
3. What is the full form of SATA?
a) Stable allowed technology attachment
b) Serial allowed technology attachment
c) Stable advanced technology attachment
d) Serial advanced technology attachment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The full form of SATA is Serial advanced technology attachment. It is an
interface that is commonly used in most of the mass storage device to connect it to the
mother board. It transforms and controls the data flow form mass storage device.
4. Which is not a solid state device?
a) TV set
b) Speakers
c) Digital watches
d) Analog Watch
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Analog Watch is not a solid state device. Solid state device is the one which
does not have any moving part. Analog Watch have several moving parts such as a small
motor which works on battery that keeps the arms of the clock in motion.
5. RAM (Random access memory) is a solid state device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RAM (Random access memory) is a solid state device. RAM (Random
access memory) does not have any part which is in motion. It contains small micro chips
which stores the data and also provides fast retrieval of data.
6. Jump drive and flash drives are same.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Jump drive and flash drives are the same. These are two different names
given to same memory storage unit. They are commonly used as pen drives. It is a solid
state device that has no moving parts and it can also store huge amount of data.
7. What is the full form of SSD in terms of data storage?
a) Solid State Device
b) Semi Solid Drive
c) Solid State Drive
d) Semi Solid Device
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solid State Drive is the full form of SSD in terms of data storage. It has
storage capacity equal to the hard drives but it does not have any moving part. Since it
has no moving part, this makes it function faster and power consumption is also less.
8. When was first SSD (Solid State Drive) made?
a) 1976
b) 1978
c) 1945
d) 1947
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First SSD (Solid State Drive) was invented in the year 1976. It was released
by “Dataram” and was named as “BULK CORE”. It was bulky and first of its kind. It had a
storage memory of 2 MB (Megabytes).
9. What is the full form of PATA?
a) Parallely allowed technology attachment
b) Parallel allowed technology attachment
c) Parallely advanced technology attachment
d) Parallel advanced technology attachment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The full form of PATA is Parallel advanced technology attachment. It is an
interface that is used to connect hard drives to the computer systems. Today, commonly
used interface used in SSD (Solid state drive) is PCIe connection.
10. Which is an example flash memory?
a) Nvidia 1650
b) SST26WF040B-104I/SN
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) Nvidia 1650 ti
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SST26WF040B-104I/SN is an example flash memory. It is developed by
“MICROCHIP TECHNOLOGY”. Nvidia 1650 ti and Nvidia 1650 are examples of graphics
card. SLB700A/06VA is a force sensor.
11. What was first SSD (Solid State Drive) named?
a) Cat’s Whisker
b) Seagate
c) Bulk core
d) Core Black
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first SSD (Solid State Drive) was named as Bulk core. It was made by
Dataram. It was invented in the year 1976. It was bulky and can only store 2
MB(Megabyte) of data. It did not have any moving part so it consumed very less power.
12. What was first Solid State Device named?
a) Cat’s Whisker
b) Seagate
c) Bulk core
d) Core Black
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The first Solid State Device was named as Cat’s Whisker. It was made in the
year 1906. It was made to detect a radio signal. In this a fine wire was made to move
across a solid crystal to detect a radio signal.
13. When was first Solid state device made?
a) 1976
b) 1906
c) 1945
d) 1947
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: First Solid state device was invented in the year 1906. It was named as “Cat’s
whisker”. It was made to detect a radio signal. In this a fine wire was made to move across
a solid crystal in order to detect a radio signal.
14. Transistor is a solid state device is a solid state device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Transistor is a solid state device is a solid state device. It was invented in the
year 1947 by Bell Labs. It is the most widely used semiconductor device used in solid
state electronics. It was the first solid state device to be used commercially in 1960’s.
15. What is the full form of HDD in terms of data storage?
a) Hard disk drive
b) Hard drive disk
c) Hard drive device
d) Hard disc device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hard disk drive is the full form of HDD in terms of data storage. It is one of
the most commonly used storage device used today. It has extremely high storage
capacity compared to its size. It can store up-to several Terabytes.
1. How many PN junctions is/are present in a bipolar junction transistor?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A bipolar junction transistor (BJT) contains 2 PN junctions. If the transistor is
NPN type then it contains a P-type semiconductor sandwiched between two N-type
semiconductor. If the transistor is PNP type then it contains a N-type semiconductor
sandwiched between two P-type semiconductor. In both the cases there are two PN
junctions.
2. What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductors?
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Negative Ions
d) Positive Ions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Holes are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductors. These holes
are actually electron vacancies that contain positive charge. The holes are responsible for
the conduction in p-type semiconductors.
3. What are present at the potential barrier of a PN junction when no external voltage is
applied?
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Positive Ions
d) Positive and Negative Ions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Positive and Negative Ions are present at the potential barrier of a PN
junction when no external voltage is applied. These Ions are immobile and are
accumulated which does not allow the electrons and holes to cross the junction until an
external voltage is applied.
4. Which is an example of Schottky diode?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) MBR5H100MFST1G
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MBR5H100MFST1G is an example of Schottky diode. Schottky diodes are
most common PN junction diodes used in analog electronics. It is a simple diode that
contain P and N junction but has a fast switching action and a low forward voltage drop.
5. Ions do not move in a PN junction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ions does not move in a PN junction. They are immobile. They are created
due to the absence of charge carriers at a position. If an electron moves from one place
to another, then it leaves behind a vacancy which is positively charged. This vacancy is
called Positive Ion.
6. When the p-type semiconductor is connected to positive terminal and n-type to negative
terminal of a PN junction diode then the diode is said to be reverse biased.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the p-type semiconductor is connected to positive terminal and n-type
to negative terminal of a PN junction diode then the diode is said to be forward biased. In
forward biased configuration the holes start to move towards N type semiconductor and
the electrons towards P type semiconductor, this leads to flow of current in the diode.
7. What is the minimum voltage required to make the PN junction of a real silicon transistor
in forward biased?
a) 0.7 volts
b) 0.8 volts
c) 0.9 volts
d) 0.3 volts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 0.7 volts is the minimum voltage required to make the PN junction of a real
silicon transistor in forward biased. This 0.7 volt potential difference makes the PN junction
between base and emitter terminal in forward biased.
8. Which is an example of PN junction diode?
a) Light Emitting Diode
b) Light dependent resistor
c) Photo Voltaic cell
d) Capacitor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Light Emitting Diode (LED) is an example of PN junction diode. A layer of
Phosphor is added at the junction who is responsible for the glow. Phosphor is a
substance that exhibits the phenomenon of luminescence.
9. What are the parameters over which a diode characteristics curve is made?
a) Current and time
b) Voltage and time
c) Current and frequency
d) Voltage and current
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Voltage and current are the parameters considering which a diode
characteristics curve is made. It is voltage versus current graph in which Current is
denoted on Y-axis and voltage is denoted on (X-axis).
10. What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductors?
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Negative Ions
d) Positive Ions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrons are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductors. When
a potential difference is created across the terminals of semiconductor, the electrons starts
to move, these free electrons are responsible for the conduction in N-type semiconductors.
11. What happens when a trivalent semiconductor is doped with a pure semiconductor?
a) N-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed
b) P-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed
c) PN junction is formed
d) NP junction is formed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed when a trivalent semiconductor is
doped with a pure semiconductor. Holes are the majority charge carriers in P-type
semiconductor, whereas electrons are majority charge carriers in N type semiconductors.
12. What happens when a pentavalent semiconductor is doped with a pure
semiconductor?
a) N-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed
b) P-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed
c) PN junction is formed
d) NP junction is formed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: N-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed when a pentavalent
semiconductor is doped with a pure semiconductor. Electrons are the majority charge
carriers in N-type semiconductor, whereas holes are majority charge carriers in P type
semiconductors.
13. Which impurity should be added to pure semiconductor to make a P-type
semiconductor?
a) Arsenic
b) Phosphorus
c) Boron
d) Antimony
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Boron should be added to pure semiconductor to make a P-type
semiconductor. P-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed when a trivalent semiconductor
is doped with a pure semiconductor. Boron is a trivalent compound whereas all others are
pentavalent compound.
14. Which impurity should be added to pure semiconductor to make an N-type
semiconductor?
a) Gallium
b) Phosphorus
c) Indium
d) Aluminum
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Aluminum should be added to pure semiconductor to make a N-type
semiconductor. N-Type extrinsic semiconductor is formed when a pentavalent
semiconductor is doped with a pure semiconductor. Phosphorus is a pentavalent
compound whereas all others are trivalent compound.
15. PN junction can be made by physically joining P type and N type semiconductor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PN junction cannot be made by physically joining P type and N type
semiconductor. Even when P type and N type materials are held firmly then also huge
microscopic gaps are present between both the semiconductors which does not allow
holes and electrons to pass through it.
1. A bipolar junction transistor has beta=250 and base current=10micro ampere. What is
the collector current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 10 micro ampere
c) 2.5 milli ampere
d) 10 milli ampere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Base current(Ib)=10micro ampere
Beta=250
Since Ic(collector current)=beta*Ib(base current)
Ic(collector current)=250*10 micro ampere=2.5 milli ampere.
2. What happens to the collector current if the emitter current increases while no base
voltage is applied?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No current
d) First increases then decreases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When no voltage is provided at the base then no current passes from emitter
to collector, so even if very high potential difference is applied at the emitter collector
junction, no current flows through it. This configuration is used for switching in various
appliances using bipolar junction transistor.
3. Which terminal of the diode is common to the other two terminals of the diode?
a) Base is common to collector and emitter
b) Emitter is common to collector and base
c) Collector is common to base and emitter
d) No terminal is common to any other
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Base terminal is common to collector and emitter terminal of the diode. A
bipolar junction transistor is made by sandwiching base terminal between emitter and
collector terminal. If base terminal is made of N type material then both emitter and
collector terminal is made of P-type material and vice-versa.
4. Which is an example of bipolar junction transistor?
a) BC547B
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) MBR5H100MFST1G
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: BC547B is an example of bipolar junction transistor. It is most common and
widely used NPN transistor. It is small, cheap, uses less power and fulfills most of the
requirement for general purpose use.
5. In bipolar junction transistors both electron and holes are responsible for conduction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In bipolar junction transistors both electron and holes are responsible for
conduction. The term “bipolar” itself mean two polarities which represents that both
charged particle are responsible for the conduction in the bipolar junction transistor.
6. Three PN junctions is present in a bipolar junction transistor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A bipolar junction transistor has 2 PN junctions. First PN junction is between
the base emitter terminal and second PN junction is between base collector terminal. A
base is always between emitter and collector.
7. What is the minimum voltage required to make base emitter junction of a real silicon
bipolar junction transistor in forward biased?
a) 0.7 volts
b) 1.8 volts
c) 2.3 volts
d) 0.3 volts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 0.7 volts is the minimum voltage required to make the base emitter junction
of a real silicon bipolar junction transistor in forward biased. This 0.7 volt potential
difference between base and emitter terminal makes the PN junction in forward biased.
8. When bipolar junction transistor acts as an amplifier?
a) When base emitter terminal is forward biased and base collector terminal is reverse
bias
b) When base emitter terminal is reverse biased and base collector terminal is reverse
bias
c) When base emitter terminal is reverse biased and base collector terminal is forward
bias
d) When base emitter terminal is forward biased and base collector terminal is forward
bias
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bipolar junction transistor acts as an amplifier when base emitter terminal is
forward biased and base collector terminal is reverse biased. There is a transfer of
resistance from low resistance to high resistance while the current remains same, and
since V=IR, the voltage gets amplified.
9. What are the parameters over which transfer characteristics curve of bipolar junction
transistor is made in common emitter configuration?
a) Emitter Current and time
b) Emitter Voltage and time
c) Collector Current and frequency
d) Collector to Emitter Voltage and Collector current
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Collector to Emitter Voltage and Collector current are the parameters
considering which transfer characteristics curve of bipolar junction transistor is made. It is
voltage versus current graph in which Current is denoted on Y-axis and voltage is denoted
on (X-axis).
10. What are the parameters over which Input characteristics curve of bipolar junction
transistor is made in common emitter configuration?
a) Emitter Current and time
b) Emitter to base Voltage and time
c) Collector Current and frequency
d) Base to Emitter Voltage and base current
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Base to Emitter Voltage and base current are the parameters considering
which input characteristics curve of bipolar junction transistor is made. It is voltage versus
current graph in which Current is denoted on Y-axis and voltage is denoted on (X-axis).
11. A bipolar junction transistor has beta=100 and base current= 8 micro ampere. What is
the collector current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 0.8 micro ampere
c) 0.8 milli ampere
d) 10 milli ampere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given;
Base current (Ib) = 8 micro ampere
Beta=100
Since Ic(collector current)=beta*Ib(base current)
Ic(collector current)=100*8 micro ampere=0.8 milli ampere.
12. A bipolar junction transistor has collector current(Ic)=1.3 milli ampere and emitter
current=1.5 milli ampere. What is the base current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 0.2 micro ampere
c) 0.2 milli ampere
d) 10 milli ampere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given;
Collector current (Ic)=1.3 milli ampere
Emitter current (Ie)=1.5 milli ampere
Since Ie(emitter current)=Ic(collector current)+Ib(base current)
Therefore Ib(base current)=Ie(emitter current)-Ic(collector current).
Ib(base current)=1.5 mA-1.3 => 0.2 milli ampere
13. A bipolar junction transistor has emitter current(Ic)=1.6 milli ampere and collector
current=1.47 milli ampere. What is the base current?
a) 25 micro ampere
b) 0.13 microampere
c) 0.8 milli ampere
d) 0.13 milli ampere
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Collector current(Ic)=1.47 milli ampere
Emitter current(Ie)=1.6 milli ampere
Since Ie(emitter current)=Ic(collector current)+Ib(base current)
Therefore Ib(base current)=Ie(emitter current)-Ic(collector current).
Ib(base current)=1.6-1.47 => 0.13 milli ampere
14. What is the value of current gain (α) where emitter current(Ic)=1.6 milli ampere;
collector current=1.5 milli ampere and base current=0.1 milli ampere?
a) 3.1
b) 0.937
c) 0.8
d) 0.31
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Base current=0.1 milli ampere
Since: current gain( α )=Ic(collector current)/Ie(emitter current)
Therefore current gain(α)=1.5/1.6 => 0.937
15. What is the value of current gain (α) where emitter current(Ic)=2 milli ampere; collector
current=1.9 milli ampere and base current=0.1 milli ampere?
a) 1.5
b) 0.937
c) 80
d) 150
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Base current=0.01milliampere
Since: Voltage gain( β )=Ic(collector current)/Ib(base current)
Therefore; Voltage gain( β )=1.5/0.01 => 150
1. Which is the majority charge carrier in N-channel JFET?

a) Electrons
b) Negative ions
c) Holes
d) Positive ions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrons are the majority charge carrier in N-channel JFET. The channel
formed is in between source and drain which are made of p-type semiconductor material.
For conduction between source and drain, a potential difference is created across the gate
terminal which forms a n-channel between source and drain.
2. Which type of channel is formed, between P-type source, N-type substrate and P-type
drain terminal, when a positive voltage is applied on the gate terminal of an enhancement
type MOSFET?
a) P-channel
b) N-channel
c) No channel
d) Half N channel half P channel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: N-channel is formed, between P-type source, N-type substrate and P-type
drain terminal, when a positive voltage is applied on the gate terminal of an enhancement
type MOSFET. When the positive voltage is applied on the gate terminal, it attracts all the
electrons from the N-type substrate and forms a N-channel between source and drain.
3. What are the three terminals of JFET?
a) Source, Drain and Base
b) Emitter, Base and Collector
c) Source, Drain and Gate
d) Emitter, Base and Drain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The three terminals of JFET are Source, Drain and Gate. The P-channel
JFET has a heavily doped gate of N-type and lightly doped channel of p-type. The N-
channel JFET has heavily doped gate of P-type and lightly doped channel of N-type.
4. How many terminals does a MOSFET have?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: MOSFET has four terminals. These terminals are namely Source, drain, gate
and substrate. The source and drain are heavily doped which can be either of P-type or
N-type material and the substrate in lightly doped of either N-type or P-type material
respectively.
5. When a negative voltage is applied on the gate terminal, a N channel is formed between
N-type source, P-type substrate and N-type drain terminal of an enhancement type
MOSFET.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a negative voltage is applied on the gate terminal, a P channel is
formed between N-type source, P-type substrate and N-type drain terminal. When the
negative voltage is applied on the gate terminal, it attracts all the holes from the P-type
substrate and forms a p-channel between source and drain.
6. Enhancement and depletion type are the two types of metal oxide semiconductor field
effect transistor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Enhancement and depletion type are the two types of metal oxide
semiconductor field effect transistor. In enhancement type MOSFET no prior channel is
inbuilt; a voltage must be applied so as to build the channel. In depletion type MOSFET a
channel is already built, even without applying any external voltage.
7. MOSFET stands for ____
a) Metal Oxidized Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor
b) Metal Oxide Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor
c) Metallic Oxidized Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor
d) Metal Oxide Superconductor Field Effect Transistor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MOSFET stands for “Metal Oxide Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor”. It
is a type of Field Effect Transistor (FET) that has a insulated gate for which it is also called
as insulated gate field effect transistor. The voltage of the gate determines the electrical
conductivity of the device.
8. IRF9540N 8mm in an example of which type of transistor?
a) Junction field effect transistor
b) Bipolar junction transistor
c) Metal oxide field effect transistor
d) NPN transistor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: IRF9540N 8mm in an example of Metal oxide field effect
transistor(MOSFET). It has very fast switching speed and works on advanced techniques
to achieve very low resistance per silicon area.
9. Field effect transistor is a _______ controlled device.
a) Current
b) Inductance
c) Voltage
d) Resistance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Field effect transistor (FET) is a voltage controlled device. It is so because
the output characteristics of these transistors depend on the field and the filed generated
depends on the voltage. Where as bipolar junction transistors is a current control device.
10. Which is the majority charge carrier in P-channel JFET?
a) Electrons
b) Negative ions
c) Holes
d) Positive ions
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Holes are the majority charge carrier in P-channel JFET. The channel formed
is in between source and drain which are made of n-type semiconductor material. For
conduction between source and drain, a potential difference is created across the gate
terminal which forms a p-channel between source and drain.
11. What is the transconductance of an n-channel JFET (Junction Field effect transistor)
if its gate to source voltage is -3Volts, pinch-off voltage is -1 volts and no bias drain current
is 2miliAmpere?
a) 2mA/V
b) 6mA/V
c) 4mA/V
d) 8mA/V
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Gate to source voltage(Vgs)=-3Volts
Pinch-off voltage(Vp)=-1 volts
No bias drain current(Idss)=2mA
Transconductance(gm)={(2*Idss)/Vp)}*{1-(Vgs/Vp)}
Transconductance(gm)={(2*2mA)/-1V)}*{1-(-3V/-1 V)}=>8mA/V
12. What will be the transconductance of an n-channel JFET (Junction Field effect
transistor) if Gate to source voltage(Vgs) is equal to Pinch-off voltage(Vp)?
a) 1mA/V
b) 0mA/V
c) -1mA/V
d) 2mA/V
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Gate to source voltage(Vgs) = Pinch-off voltage(Vp)
Transconductance(gm)={(2*Idss)/Vp)}*{1-(Vgs/Vp)}
Transconductance(gm)={(2*Idss)/Vp)}*{1-(1)} [Since Vgs = Vp] Transconductance(gm)=0
mA/V
13. What is the no bias drain to source current of an n-channel JFET (Junction Field effect
transistor) if its gate to source voltage is -2Volts, pinch-off voltage is -1 volts and
transconductance is 2mA/V?
a) 1mA/V
b) 6mA/V
c) 2mA/V
d) 1mA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Gate to source voltage(Vgs) = -2Volts
Pinch-off voltage(Vp) = -1 volts
Transconductance = 2mA/V
Transconductance(gm) = {(2*Idss)/Vp)}*{1-(Vgs/Vp)}
2mA/V={(2*Idss)/-1)}*{1-(-2/-1)}
No bias drain current(Idss) = 1mA
14. What is the drain current of an n-channel JFET (Junction Field effect transistor) if its
gate to source voltage is -2Volts, pinch-off voltage is -1 volts and no bias drain current is
1miliampere?
a) -15mA
b) 6mA
c) 2mA
d) -8mA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Pinch-off voltage(Vp) = -1volts
No bias drain current(Idss) = 1mA
From Shockleys equation we know; Drain current (Id)=(Idss)*{1-(Vgs/Vp)2}
Drain current (Id)=(1)*{1-(-4/-1)2}=>-15mA
15. What is the no bias drain to source current of an n-channel JFET (Junction Field effect
transistor) if its gate to source voltage is -3Volts, pinch-off voltage is -1 volts and drain
current is -24 miliampere?
a) 5mA
b) 16mA
c) 3mA
d) 8mA
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Pinch-off voltage(Vp) = -1volts
Drain current = -24 miliampere
From Shockleys equation we know; Drain current (Id)=(Idss)*{1-(Vgs/Vp)2}
-24 = ( Idss)*{1-(-3/-1)2}
Idss = 3 milliampere
1. How many layers and junctions does an SCR have?

a) Four layers and three junctions
b) Three layers and four junctions
c) Three layers and three junctions
d) Four layers and four junctions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An SCR has four layers and three junctions. The layers are the p-n-p-n layer
and there are three p-n junctions. There are three terminals named as anode, cathode
and the gate terminal. The other options mentioned above are incorrect.
2. An SCR is a ____
a) semiconductor device
b) full conductor device
c) inductor device
d) bidirectional device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SCR is a Semiconductor device. It is made up of silicon. As the conduction
takes place only in a single direction, an SCR is a unidirectional device. The other options
are incorrect.
3. An SCR is a bidirectional device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In an SCR, the conduction takes place in a single direction, therefore the
SCR is called as a unidirectional device. It is also called a Semiconductor device as it is
made up of silicon.
4. The SCR is controlled through ____
a) anode
b) cathode
c) gate
d) anode and cathode
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The SCR is controlled through the gate. It is a current controlled device. The
anode is always positive with respect to the cathode and the direction of forwarding
voltage is from anode to cathode.
5. What is the relation between the firing angle of SCR and the output?
a) Directly proportional to each other
b) Inversely proportional to each other
c) Independent of each other
d) Both are zero
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The relation between the firing angle of SCR and the output is that they are
inversely proportional to each other. The output of the SCR decreases when the firing
angle is increased and vice versa.
6. Gate loses control when the SCR starts conducting.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gate loses control when the SCR starts conducting. The SCR is controlled
through the gate. Once the SCR is triggered, the gate loses control over it. The gate is
only used to trigger the device.
7. What is the use of Fast acting current limiting fuses?
a) To protect SCR from over current
b) To turn on SCR
c) To increase the flow of current
d) To stop the current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The fast acting current limiting fuses are used to limit the value of the current
and thus they are used to protect the SCR from over current and surge currents. The other
options are not accurate answers.
8. What are the main components used in a snubber circuit?
a) Resistors
b) Capacitors
c) Transistors
d) Resistors and Capacitors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main components used in a snubber circuit are resistors and capacitors.
They are generally used to suppress the voltage spikes. In most of the snubber circuits,
the resistors and the capacitors are connected in series.
9. An SCR is a ____
a) N-P-N device
b) N-P-N-P device
c) P-N-P-N device
d) P-N-P device
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An SCR is a P-N-P-N type device. The layers are the p-n-p-n layer and there
are three p-n junctions. There are three terminals named as anode, cathode and the gate
terminal. The other options mentioned above are incorrect.
10. Which among the following are not the parts of SCR?
a) Anode
b) Cathode
c) Gate
d) Base
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An SCR has three terminals anode, cathode and gate. It does not consist of
a base. It has four layers and three junctions. As the conduction takes place only in a
single direction, an SCR is a unidirectional device.
1. How many minimum thyristors are required to make a TRIAC (Triode alternating
current)?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 2 thyristors are required to make a TRIAC (Triode alternating current). These
thyristors are connected parallel to each other but in opposite direction. Their gates are
made common, which makes it a 3 terminal device.
2. How many terminals does a DIAC (Diode alternating current) have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC (Diode alternating current) is a 2 terminal device. It has got two zener
diodes connected back to back which forms a DIAC (Diode alternating current). The two
terminals are anode terminals in a PNPN DIAC (Diode alternating current).
3. What are present at the potential barrier of a PN junction when no external voltage is
applied?
a) Electrons
b) Holes
c) Positive Ions
d) Positive and Negative Ions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Positive and Negative Ions are present at the potential barrier of a PN
junction when no external voltage is applied. These Ions are immobile and are
accumulated which does not allow the electrons and holes to cross the junction until an
external voltage is applied.
4. Which is an example of DIAC?
b) OptoNCDT1420
c) NTE6408
d) EddyNCDT 3301
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NTE6408 is an example of DIAC. OptoNCDT ILR 1030 and OptoNCDT1420
are laser sensor used for computing distance and objects placed at very high distances.
EddyNCDT 3301 is a Eddy currents sensor.
5. DIAC is a unidirectional device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC (Diode alternating current) is a not a unidirectional device, it is a
bidirectional device. It is a thyristor that can be switched on in both polarities. It is mainly
used in activating TRIAC (Triode alternating current).
6. DIAC can act as AC switch.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC can act as AC switch. It is one of the major application of DIAC (Diode
alternating current). It is also extensively used to assist the triggering action of TRIAC
(Triode alternating current) when used as a switch.
7. What is the breakdown voltage of three layered DIAC (Diode alternating current)?
a) Approximately 30 volts
b) Approximately 20 volts
c) Approximately 50 volts
d) Approximately 40 volts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 0.7 volts is the minimum voltage required to make the PN junction of a real
silicon transistor in forward biased. This 0.7 volt potential difference makes the PN junction
between base and emitter terminal in forward biased.
8. How many layers of semiconductor does a DIAC have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A DIAC (Diode alternating current)is a 4 layered semiconductor device. It has
alternating P-type and N-type semiconductor fused together. Together these 4 layers form
up a DIAC (Diode alternating current).
9. What is the full form of SIDAC?
a) Silicon diode for alternating current
b) Silicate diode for alternating current
c) Silicon dioxide for alternating current
d) Silicon diode for analogous current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SIDAC stands for Silicon diode alternating current. It is a member of thyristor
family that has 5 layers of n-type and p-type semiconductor layers fused together. They
are used for switchimg and triggering pupose.
10. A SIDAC (Silicon diode for alternating current) does not conduct below a break-over
voltage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A SIDAC (Silicon diode for alternating current) does not conduct below a
break-over voltage. There is some specified voltage which has to be crossed by the input
voltage, in order to make the SIDAC work. Further it does not depend on voltage.
11. DIAC starts to conduct current after some threshold voltage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC starts to conduct current after some threshold voltage. It starts to
conduct current only when the input voltage crosses the breakdown voltage. It is also
extensively used to assist the triggering action of TRIAC (Triode alternating current) when
used as a switch.
12. DIAC’s get damaged when voltage of wrong polarity is applied at its terminals.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC’s does get damage when voltage of wrong polarity is applied at the
terminals. They are bidirectional device, that is they do not have fixed anode and cathode
terminals. They work the same even if the polarity is changed.
13. What is the full form of DIAC?
a) Diode for alternating current
b) Diode attenuating current
c) Dioxide for analogous current
d) Diode analogous current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC stands for Diode for alternating current. It only conducts current when
the applied voltage crosses breakdown voltage. DIAC is a 2 terminal device. It has got
two zener diodes connected back to back which forms a DIAC.
14. What is the full form of TRIAC?
a) Triode attenuating current
b) Triode for alternating current
c) Trioxide for analogous current
d) Triode analogous current
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TRIAC stands for Triode for alternating current. 2 thyristors are required to
make a TRIAC. It is a three terminal device. The thyristors are connected parallel to each
other but in opposite direction and their gates are made common.
15. DIAC’s do not work with DC voltage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC’s do work with DC voltage. But it shows different behaviours with the
DC voltage. IT works exactly same as the Shockley’s diode. A Shockley diode is a four
layered, unidirectional diode composed of alternating N type and P type material.
1. How many minimum thyristors make up a TRIAC (Triode alternating current)?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 2 thyristors make up a TRIAC (Triode alternating current). These thyristors
are connected parallel to each other but in opposite direction. Their gates are made
common, which makes it a 3 terminal device.
2. How many terminals does a TRIAC (Triode alternating current) have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TRIAC (Triode alternating current) is a 3 terminal device. It has got two
thyristors are connected parallel to each other but in opposite direction which forms a
TRIAC (Triode alternating current). The third terminal is the common gate o these
thyristors.
3. How many doped regions do a standard TRIAC have?
a) 1
b) 6
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A standard TRIAC has 6 doped regions. The gate terminal makes ohmic
contact between p-type and N-type materials. The other two terminals are similar therefore
there is no specific anode and cathode terminal.
4. Which is an example of TRIAC?
b) OptoNCDT1420
c) BT136
d) EddyNCDT 3301
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: BT136 is an example of TRIAC. OptoNCDT ILR 1030 and OptoNCDT1420
are laser sensor used for computing distance and objects placed at very high distances.
EddyNCDT 3301 is a Eddy currents sensor.
5. TRIAC is a unidirectional device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TRIAC (Triode alternating current) is not an unidirectional device, it is a
bidirectional device. The TRIAC (Triode alternating current) can be operated from any
polarity on its input. It is also a bipolar device.
6. TRIAC can act as AC switch.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TRIAC can act as AC switch. It is one of the major application of TRIAC
(Triode alternating current). It can perform switching action at high voltage levels and high
current levels. It is widely used in power switching.
7. TRIAC (Triode alternating current) is unipolar device.
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TRIAC (Triode alternating current) is not a unipolar device. It is a bipolar
device. It uses both electrons and holes for the conduction of current through it. This is
why it is called bipolar device.
8. How many layers of semiconductor does a TRIAC (Triode alternating current) have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A TRIAC (Triode alternating current) is a 4 layered semiconductor device. It
has three terminals and it is bidirectional. It is widely used in power electronics for control
purpose.
9. What is the full form of SCR?
a) Silicon controlled rectifier
b) Silicate controlled rectifier
c) Silicon controlled rectification
d) Silicon controlling rectification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SCR stands for Silicon controlled rectifier. It is a unidirectional device and
has 4 layers of semiconductors fused together. The current through it flows in one direction
only.
10. A TRIAC (Triode alternating current) cannot perform switching action on DC voltage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A TRIAC (Triode alternating current) can perform switching action on DC
voltage. It can turn on like a switch, but it further it cannot be turned off. It is because the
current and voltage across it is very low.
1. Who developed the first Light emitting diode?

a) Nick brown
b) Nick Holonyak
c) Stefencolumbus
d) Billy Stern
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first LED was developed by Nick Holonyak in the year 1962. He is a 91
year old American engineer and educator, widely known for his work on Light emitting
diodes and was the first one to create the first visible LED.
2. Who was/were awarded with noble prize in physics in the year 2014 for the invention
of blue light emitting diodes?
a) Hiroshi Amano
b) Nick Holonyak
c) Isamu Akasaki, Hiroshi Amano
d) Isamu Akasaki, Hiroshi Amano and Shuji Nakamura
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The noble prize in physics in the year 2014 was awarded to a trio scientists
of United states and japan, Isamu Akasaki, Hiroshi Amano and Shuji Nakamura for the
invention of blue light emitting diodes.
3. Which alloy is used for green blue and white LED’s?
a) InGaN (Indium gallium nitride)
b) GaAs (Gallium arsenide)
c) (AlGaInP) Aluminum gallium indium phosphide
d) TiO2(titanium dioxide)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: InGaN (Indium gallium nitride) alloy is used for green blue and white LED’s.
Colour emitted by an LED depends on the type of Semiconductor materials used and also
the proportion of the semiconductors used in the alloy.
4. Which alloy is used for red, orange and yellow LED’s?
a) InGaN (Indium gallium nitride)
b) GaAs (Gallium arsenide)
c) (AlGaInP) Aluminum gallium indium phosphide
d) TiO2(titanium dioxide)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: (AlGaInP) Aluminum gallium indium phosphidealloy is used for red, orange
and yellow LED’s. Colour emitted by an LED depends on the type of Semiconductor
materials used and also the proportion of the semiconductors used in the alloy.
5. Recombination of charge carriers in an LED, releases some energy which comes out
in the form of light.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Recombination of charge carriers in an LED, releases some energy which
comes out in the form of light. The energy emitted by the recombination of charge carriers
hits a layer of phosphor, this phosphor shows the properties of luminescence when
charged, which is emitted in the form of visible light.
6. Opto-isolator uses a source of light for transmission, most commonly “near infrared light
emitting diodes”.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Opto-isolator uses a source of light for transmission, most commonly “near
infrared light emitting diodes”. An opto-isolator transmits signals through this source of
light which passes through an isolated dielectric channel and is finally fetched by the
photosensor(receiver).
7. LASER stands for ____
a) Light amplification by systematic emission of radiation
b) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
c) Light absorption by stimulated emission of radiation
d) Low amplification by stimulating emitted radiation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LASER stands for “Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation”.
Laser or laser diodes are similar to the light emitting diodes as it directly produces light
when voltage is applied across the terminals. The difference is that the light which it
radiates is amplified by stimulated emission.
8. Which is a type of Opto-isolator?
a) CMCP793V-500
b) MOC3021
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MOC3021 is a type of Opto-isolator. CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity
sensor. MPU 6050 is a 6 axis gyroscope and accelerometer. L298N is a motor driver with
dual-H bridge.
9. Optical isolator is also called as ________
a) Opaque isolator
b) Optical coupling
c) Optocoupler
d) Optical resistor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Optical isolator is also called as Optocoupler. Optical isolator’s are devices
that transfer electrical signals between two isolated circuit by using light. They prevent
damages to the system due to very high input voltage.
10. Which electromagnetic rays is emitted GaAs LED’s ?
a) Infrared
b) Visible light
c) Ultraviolet
d) Radio
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Light emitting diodes made of Gallium arsenide alloy(GaAs) emits infrared
rays or infrared light. The wavelength of the emitted rays is in the range of 850 nano-
meters to 940 nano-meters.
11. Who is known as the father of fibre optics?
a) Nick brown
b) Nick Holonyak
c) Stefencolumbus
d) Narinder Singh Kapany
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Narinder Singh Kapany is known as the father of fibre optics. This title is
given to him for his amazing work towards fibre optics. He is an Indian born American
physicist who was also a former Indian Ordnance Factories Service officer.
12. Which layer is just present above core that protects the light from going outside?
a) Core
b) Cladding
c) Coating
d) Mine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cladding is just present above core that protects the light from going outside.
It is made up optically transparent material with higher refractive index than that of core,
which results the light to bounce due to total internal reflection.
13. Which layer is just present above cladding that protects the optical fibre from physical
damage?
a) Core
b) Cladding
c) Coating
d) Cover
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coating is just present above cladding that protects the optical fibre from
physical damage. They are usually made up of optically opaque materials. No light can
pass through it either from inside or outside.
14. What is the working principle of optical fiber?
a) Total internal refraction
b) Total internal reflection
c) Lenz Law
d) Brine theory
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The optical fiber works on the principle of Total internal reflection. It occurs
when the angle of incidence of the incoming light ray is greater than the critical angle. It
occurs when the light travels between two mediums of different refractive index.
15. The critical angle in total internal reflection depends on the colour of the incident light.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The critical angle in total internal reflection depends on the colour of the
incident light. Different lights of different colours have different wavelengths and therefore
the refractive index changes, so ultimately the critical angle also changes.
1. What is the full form of FIR in terms of signal filtering?
a) Finite impulse response
b) Finite impulse reduction
c) Finite impulse recombination
d) Filthy impulse response
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FIR in terms of signal filtering stands for Finite impulse response. It is a digital
filter. The Impulse response of this filter is of a certain finite duration. The response settles
to zero after some time.
2. Which frequency is attenuated in a Low-Pass filter?
a) High frequency
b) Low frequency
c) Mid-Range frequency
d) No frequency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Low pass filter, High frequency is attenuated. It passes the frequencies
only of Low-range and the frequency of high range is attenuated. The range may differ
from filter to filter used for this purpose.
3. Which filter contains entirely passive elements?
a) Electrical filter
b) Mechanical filter
c) Digital filter
d) Optical filter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electrical filter contains entirely passive elements. These passive elements
include resistors, inductors and capacitors. Electric filters were originally made from a
combination of these passive elements.
4. Which is a signal generator module?
b) OptoNCDT1420
c) AD9850
d) EddyNCDT 3301
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: AD9850 is a signal generator module. It can generate Sine signal.
OptoNCDT ILR 1030 and OptoNCDT1420 are laser sensor used for computing distance
and objects placed at very high distances. EddyNCDT 3301 is an Eddy currents sensor.
5. A system is said to be causal if its output depends on the future inputs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A system is said to be causal if its output does not depends on the future
inputs. It is said to be causal only if it depends on the present and past inputs. If a system
depends on the future input then the system is said to be non causal.
6. Capacitor can be used for signal filtering.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacitor can be used for signal filtering. Capacitor is a device which stores
charge. It can be used as a filter because it does not allow Direct current (DC) to pass
through it, it only allows alternating current to pass through it.
7. Which family of filter has maximum flat frequency response?
a) Chebyshev filter
b) Bessel filter
c) Elliptic filter
d) Butterworth filter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Butterworth filters have maximum flat frequency response among all other
types of filter. Bessel filters have maximum flat phase delay. For a specific order and
ripple, Elliptic filter has the steepest cut-off curve. Chebyshev filters show most appropriate
ideal response.
8. Which family of filters have maximum flat phase delay?
a) Chebyshev filter
b) Bessel filter
c) Elliptic filter
d) Butterworth filter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bessel filters have maximum flat phase delay. Butterworth filters have
maximum flat frequency response among all other types of filter. For a specific order and
ripple, Elliptic filter has the steepest cut-off curve. Chebyshev filters show most appropriate
ideal response.
9. What is the full form of IIR in terms of signal filtering?
a) Infinite impulse response
b) Infinite impulse reduction
c) Infinite impulse recombination
d) Instant impulse response
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IIR in terms of signal filtering stands for Infinite impulse response. It is a
discrete time filter also known as digital filter. It depends linearly with the number of input
samples and a finite number of previous filter inputs.
10. A system is said to be non causal if its present output depends on the future inputs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A system is said to be non causal if its present output depends on the future
inputs. In non-causal system the inputs are the future responses of the system. If a system
depends on the present and past inputs then the system is said to be causal system.
11. Which signal is obtained after integrating the unit step signal?
a) Square signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ramp Signal is obtained after integrating the unit step signal. Integration of
a curve gives the total area under the curve. For a standard unit step signal the value of
signal is 0, so integration value is also 0. At index 0, the value of unit step signal is 1 but
area under it is 0. So the integrated signal remains 0. But slowly the area under unit step
signal increases constantly, so when it is integrated, gives out ramp function or ramp
signal with constant slope.
12. Which signal is obtained after integrating the ramp signal (for x>0 in X-Axis)?
a) Square signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Parabolic Signal is obtained after integrating the ramp signal. Integration of
a curve gives the total area under the curve.
Let us consider a ramp signal, Y=x
So its integration is (x2)/2 which clearly a parabolic signal.
13. Which signal is obtained after differentiating the ramp signal?
a) Square signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unit Step Signal is obtained after differentiating the ramp signal.
Differentiation gives the rate of change of a signal. Since integration and differentiation
are reverse function of each other so integrating a unit step function also gives ramp signal
back.
14. Which signal is obtained after differentiating the unit step signal?
a) UnitImpulse signal
b) Unit Step Signal
c) Ramp Signal
d) Parabolic Signal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: UnitImpulse signal is obtained after differentiating the unit step signal.
Differentiation gives the rate of change of a signal. Since the only change occurs at point
0 in unit step signal so the differentiation of unit step signal becomes unit impulse signal
at point 0.
15. Derivative of a unit step signal is zero everywhere.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Derivative of a unit step signal is not zero everywhere. It is 0 at all points
except at X=0 in XY plane. Differentiation gives the rate of change of a signal. Since the
only change occurs at point 0 in unit step signal so the differentiation of unit step signal
becomes unit impulse signal.
1. What is the slew rate of an ideal operational amplifier?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 100
d) Infinite
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The slew rate of an ideal operational amplifier is infinite. Slew rate of an
operational amplifier is defined as the rate of change of output voltage with respect to time
(i.e) dv/dt. An ideal operational amplifier takes no time to change the output, therefore
dt=0. So dv/dt becomes infinite and hence an ideal operational amplifier has infinite slew
rate.
2. What is the open loop gain of an ideal operational amplifier?
a) 0
b) 1
c) Infinite
d) -1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The open loop gain of an ideal operational amplifier is infinite. Open loop
gain of an operational amplifier is defined as output voltage divide by input voltage
(Vout/Vin). In ideal case the operational amplifier produces infinite output voltage when
very low input voltage is applied.
3. What is the phase difference between input signal and output signal when input is
provided to the inverting terminal of the operational amplifier?
a) 0 degree
b) 90 degree
c) 180 degree
d) 45 degree
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There 180 degree phase difference between input signal and output signal
when input is provided to the inverting terminal of the operational amplifier. When input is
provided to the negative terminal it adds 180 degree phase shift to the input signal and
inverts the input signal, that is why the terminal is also called as inverting terminal.
4. What is the slew rate of an operational amplifier whose output voltage increases by 9
volt in 18 micro second?
a) 0.5 Volt/microsecond
b) 5 Volt/microsecond
c) 50 Volt/second
d) 2 Volt/microsecond
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Change in voltage(dv)=9 Volt
Change in time(dt)= 18 micro second
Slew rate=dv/dt=9V/18 microsecond=0.5 volt/microsecond
5. A practical operational amplifier has infinite bandwidth.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A practical operational amplifier does not have infinite bandwidth. It is so
because at higher frequency signals the efficiency of amplification starts to decrease. The
practical operational amplifier cannot amplify signals with very high frequency. Ideal
operational amplifiers have infinite bandwidth.
6.An ideal Operational amplifier should have Infinite output resistance and zero input
resistance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An ideal Operational amplifier should have zero output resistance and infinite
input resistance. Infinite input resistance allows any input signal to drive the operational
amplifier and zero output resistance facilitates the operational amplifier to drive infinite
number of loads.
7. CMRR stands for ____
a) Common mode rejection ratio
b) Common mains rejection ratio
c) Common mode reluctance ratio
d) Common mode rejection rate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CMRR stands for Common mode rejection ratio. It is the ability of the
Operational Amplifier to reject the common mode signals in the inverting and non-inverting
terminals. It is the ratio of differential voltage gain to common mode voltage gain.
8. Which of the integrated circuit mentioned below is the name of an operational amplifier?
a) BC541
b) LM741H
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LM741H is most commonly used operational amplifier. It comes in 8-pin TO-
99 package with an operating voltage of +15 volt to -15 volt. It provides high voltage gain
with a bandwidth of 1.5MHz.
9. PSRR stands for ________
a) Power Supply Relaxation Ratio
b) Power Supply Rejection Rate
c) Power Supply Rejection Ratio
d) Power Supply Rejecting Ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: PSRR stands for Power Supply Rejection Ratio. It is defined as the ratio of
change in the input supply voltage to the equivalent output voltage it generates. An ideal
operational amplifier has infinite power supply rejection ratio.
10. What is the common mode rejection ratio of an operational amplifier which has
common mode gain=0.5 and differential gain=1200?
a) 600
b) 1200
c) 2400
d) 1200 db
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Common mode gain=0.5
Differential gain=1200
Common mode rejection ratio(CMRR)=differential gain(Ad) / common mode gain(Ac)
Ad/Ac=2400.
c) 50 Volt/second
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Change in time(dt)=12 micro second
c) 50 Volt/second
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Change in time(dt)=15 micro second
a) 650
b) 6500
c) 2400
d) 1200 db
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Common mode rejection ratio(CMRR)=differential gain(Ad)/common mode gain(Ac)
Ad/Ac=6500.
a) 650
b) 6500
c) 1666.66
d) 1200 db
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Common mode rejection ratio(CMRR)=differential gain(Ad) / common mode gain(Ac)
Ad/Ac=1666.66.
15. Common mode rejection ratio is defined as (common mode gain)/(differential mode
gain).
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Common mode rejection ratio is defined as (differential mode gain)/
(common mode gain). It is the ability of the Operational Amplifier to reject the common
mode signals in the inverting and non-inverting terminals.
1. Which noise is also termed as multiplicative noise?

a) Gaussian Noise
b) Salt and pepper noise
c) Speckle noise
d) Linear noise
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Speckle noise is also termed as multiplicative noise. It occurs when some
unwanted signal gets multiplied with the original signal during its transmission, receiving
or during an other signal processing.
2. Who invented median filter?
a) Norbert wiener
b) Pitas
c) Charles young
d) Charles wheatstone
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pitas invented median filter. It was developed in the year 1990. Median filters
are widely used to remove speckle and pulse noises. It is a robust filter which is also used
for image smoothers in variety of application.
3. Which filter should be used to remove speckle noise from an image?
a) Mean filter
b) Median filter
c) Gaussian filter
d) Weiner filter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Weiner filter should be used to remove speckle noise from an image. It is
most suitable filter for this purpose. Speckle noise generally degrades the quality of image
taken from SAR (Synthetic aperture radar) or medical ultrasound.
4. Which filter should be used to remove salt and pepper noise from an image?
a) Mean filter
b) Median filter
c) Gaussian filter
d) Weiner filter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Median filter should be used to remove salt and pepper noise from an image.
It is most suitable filter for this purpose. Morphological filters can also be used. Both the
filters provide maximum noise reduction.
5. Mean filter is better than median filter.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Median filter is better than mean filter. It is better because it does not create
random and unrealistic pixel values on its own. It creates the pixel value which is actually
present in the neighbourhood. It can preserve sharp image better than the mean filters.
6. Noise reduction technique is only applicable for audio and other time varying signals.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Noise reduction technique is not only applicable for audio and other time
varying signals but also applicable for an image. The main aim of noise reduction
technique is removing the unwanted signals and unwanted pixel intensity from audio and
image respectively.
7. What is the full form of FPGA in terms of signal filtering and noise reduction technique?
a) Functionally programmable gate array
b) Function programmed gate array
c) Field programmable gate array
d) Field programmable gateway array
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FPGA in terms of signal filtering and noise reduction technique stands for
Field programmable gate array. It can be used for removing the noise from the signal. It
can contain thousands or millions of logic gates with programmable interconnections.
8. Which type of signal facilitates easier noise removal?
a) Digital Signal
b) Analog Signal
c) Random Signal
d) Sine Signal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Digital Signal facilitates easier noise removal. It is easier so because in digital
signal there is fixed magnitude of signal. The unwanted signal can be easily identified by
their different magnitudes at different time intervals.
9. What is the full form of IIR in terms of signal filtering and noise reduction technique?
a) Infinite impulse response
b) Infinite impulse reduction
c) Infinite impulse recombination
d) Imperfect impulse response
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IIR in terms of signal filtering stands for Infinite impulse response. It is a digital
filter. The Impulse response of this filter depends upon finite number of inputs and finite
number of previous outputs of the filter. It is a combination of FIR (Finite impulse response)
and previous output of the filter.
10. Which is an example of Power line filter?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FN2060A-6-06
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: FN2060A-6-06 is an example of Power line filter. It is developed by Schaffner
to attenuate frequencies between an electronic component and an external line.
SLB700A/06VA is a force sensor. MSP430G2ET is a development board manufactured
by the “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS” and CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. Who invented wiener filter?
a) Norbert wiener
b) Robert Wiener
c) Charles young
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Norbert wiener invented wiener filter. The theory behind this filter was
proposed by Norbert Wiener in the 1940’s. It was later published in the year 1949. This
theory is often called as Wiener–Kolmogorov filtering theory because of significant work
of Andrew Kolmogorov behind this.
12. Median filter removes the sharp edges from an image.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Median filter does not remove the sharp edges from an image. It preserves
those edges better than anyone else. Unlike mean filters it does not create unrealistic pixel
values that will reduce the quality and sharpness of image.
13. Low pass filters removes the sharpness of an image.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Low pass filters removes the sharpness of an image. It is a major
disadvantage of low pass filters. For preserving the sharpness, generally median filters
are used. Low pass filters blur the sharp edges.
14. Which noise is caused by voltage spikes?
a) Gaussian Noise
b) Salt and pepper noise
c) Impulse noise
d) Linear noise
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Impulse noise is caused by voltage spikes. These noises can cause error in
the circuits used for data transmission. It can be tolerated by some circuits but can also
cause trouble for other. Median filters are used to handle these types of noises.
15. Which filter should be used to remove impulse noises?
a) Mean filter
b) Median filter
c) Gaussian filter
d) Weiner filter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Median filter should be used to remove impulse noises. It is most suitable
filter and is widely used for this purpose. It is reliable as it removes the noises without
damaging the desired edge details.
1. Who invented wheatstone bridge?
a) Samuel wheatstone
b) Charles Wheatstone
c) Charles manes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge was invented by Samuel Hunter Christie. He was the one
behind the concept which was further developed and popularised by Charles Wheatstone.
After whome it was named as wheatstone bridge.
2. Why wheatstone bridge is generally used in DC ciruit?
a) To determine resistance
b) To determine capacitance
c) To determine inductance
d) To determine flux
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is generally used to determine an unknown resistance in
a circuit. It creates a balanced bridge of 4 resistors in which the ratio of two resistance of
specific side is equal to the ratio of the other two sides.
3. What should be the value of Rv, for the bridge to be balanced?
(Given that: R1=3 ohm, R3=6 ohm, R4=2 ohm)
a) 3 ohm
b) 2 ohm
c) 6 ohm
d) 1 ohm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
R1=3 ohm
R3=6 ohm
R4=2 ohm
We know that for a wheat stone bridge to be balanced R1/R3 = Rv/R4,
Ra/R3=3/6=>1/2
Therefore Rv/R4=1/2
Rv/2=1/2
Rv=1ohm
4. Who invented Wien bridge?
a) Samuel Wein
b) Max Wein
c) Charles wheatstone
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wien bridge was invented by Max Wein. It was developed in 1891. A Wien
bridge consists of 4 resistors and 2 capacitors. This bridge is used to determine unknown
capacitance in terms of resistance and frequency.
5. In a balanced wheatstone bridge, maximum current passes through galvanometer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a balanced wheatstone bridge, no current passes through galvanometer.
In a balanced wheat stone bridge there are 4 resistors in which the ratio of two resistance
of specific side is equal to the ratio of the other two sides. In this condition no current flows
through the galvanometer connected at two opposite vertices.
6. Wheatstone bridge can be used to calculate capacitance in AC circuits.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge can be used to calculate capacitance in AC circuits.
Wheat stone bridges are generally used to calculate the overall impedance of the AC
circuits. It can also be used to calculate inductance as well as dissipation factor in an AC
circuit.
7. Wheatstone bridge with high DC input cannot be balanced.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge with high DC input can be balanced. Balancing of
wheatstone bridge does not depend upon the DC input, it totally depends on the value of
resistors that we are using in the circuit. Therefore irrespective of the input, the bridge can
be balanced.
8. What is the deflection in galvanometer(Vg)?
(Given that: R1=3 ohm, R3=9 ohm, R4=6 ohm, Rv=2 ohm)
a) 90 degree deflection
b) 180 degree deflection
c) No deflection
d) 45 degree deflection
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
R1=3ohm
R3=9 ohm
R4=6 ohm
Rv=2 ohm
Ra/R3=3/9=>1/3
Rv/R4=2/6=>1/3
So the circuit is balanced, therefore no current will flow through the galvanometer. So
there will be no deflection in the galvanometer.
9. What is will happen to the light(Lg)?
(Given that: R1=2ohm, R3=8 ohm, R4=4 ohm, Rv=1 ohm)
a) Light will flicker

b) Light will glow constantly
c) Light will not glow
d) Light will turn on for 5 second and then turn off
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
R1=3 ohm
R3=9 ohm
R4=6 ohm
Rv=2 ohm
Ra/R3=2/8=>1/4
Rv/R4=1/4
So the circuit is balanced, therefore no current will flow through the branch containing the
light, therefore the light will not glow.
10. What should be the value of Rv and R4 for the bridge to be balanced?
(Given that: R1=4 ohm, R3=8 ohm,)
a) Rv = 3 ohm, R4 = 4 ohm
b) Rv = 2 ohm, R4 = 4 ohm
c) Rv = 6 ohm, R4 = 5 ohm
d) Rv = 1 ohm, R4 = 7 ohm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
R1=4 ohm
R3=8 ohm
R1/R3=4/8=>1/2
Therefore Rv/R4 should be 1/2
Rv/R4=1/2 or 2/4
Rv=2 ohm R4 = 4 ohm
11. Who invented Schering Bridge?
a) Samuel Schering
b) Max Schering
c) Charles Wheatstone
d) Harald Schering
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Schering Bridge was invented by Harald Schering. It is a type of AC
(Alternating Current) bridge. A balanced Schering bridge is independent of frequency
change and is used for measuring insulating capacity of cables.
12. Which is a type of DC bridge?
a) Maxwell’s Bridge
b) Hay’s Bridge
c) Wheatstone Bridge
d) Schering Bridge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is a type of DC (Direct Current) bridge. Maxwell’s bridge,
Hay’s bridge and Schering bridge are a type AC (Alternating Current) bridge. Wheatstone
bridge is generally used to determine an unknown resistance in a circuit.
13. Which is a type of DC bridge?
a) Anderson Bridge
b) Wein Bridge
c) Kelvin Bridge
d) Schering Bridge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Kelvin bridge is a type of DC (Direct Current) bridge. Anderson bridge, Wein
bridge and Schering bridge are a type AC (Alternating Current) bridge. Kelvin bridge is
generally used to determine an unknown resistance in a circuit below 1 ohm.
14. Which bridge is also called as Thompson Bridge?
a) Anderson Bridge
b) Wein Bridge
c) Schering Bridge
d) Kelvin Bridge
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kelvin bridge is also called as Thompson bridge. It is a type of DC (Direct
current) bridge. Kelvin or Thompson bridge is generally used to determine an unknown
resistance in a circuit below 1 ohm.
15. A galvanometer cannot be used for detecting and balancing AC (Alternating current)
bridges.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A galvanometer cannot be used for detecting and balancing AC (Alternating
current) bridges. It can only be used in DC (Direct current) circuits and bridges. If a
galvanometer is placed in an AC circuit then its needle will continuously deflect back and
forth and will never be stable.
1. Which bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit?
a) Wheatstone Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maxwell bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. This
bridge is a modification of wheatstone bridge. It contains bunch of resistors, capacitors
and inductors which when placed at a specific configuration forms a Maxwell bridge.
2. Which bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit?
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell
bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit and Heaviside bridge is used
to measure the effects of mutual inductance. Wheatstone bridge is used to find resistance
in DC circuits.
3. Which bridge is used to calculate unknown resistance in DC circuit?
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is used to find resistance in DC circuits. Wien bridge is
used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell bridge is used to calculate
unknown inductance in AC circuit and Heaviside bridge is used to measure the effects of
mutual inductance.
4. Which bridge is used to measure the effect of mutual inductance among two circuits?
a) Wheatstone bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Heaviside bridge is used to measure the effect of mutual inductance among
two circuits Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell
bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. Wheatstone bridge is used
to find resistance in DC circuits.
5. Which bridge can be used to alternate the polarity of an applied voltage?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: H-Bridge can be used as a switch to alternate the polarity of an applied
voltage. Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell
bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit and Heaviside bridge is used
to measure the effects of mutual inductance.
6. How many H-bridges are present in the motor driver of a bipolar stepper motor?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 2H-bridges are present in the motor driver of a bipolar stepper motor. These
stepper motors does not have single long winding like normal DC motors , they are
wounded in such a fashion that without an external motor driver, it is very difficult to rotate
its shaft.
7. In a Wheatstone bridge if all the resistors are same then the bridge is unbalanced.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a Wheatstone bridge if all the resistors are same then the bridge is
balanced. It is so because, for a balanced wheatbridge it is necessary that the ratio of two
specific resistance values is equal to the resistance of the other two. In any case, the ratio
will always be “1” and same for both the side.
8. Which bridge can be used as a switch?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Heaviside Bridge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: H-Bridge can be used as a switch. It is generally used in motors drivers and
robots which allow accurate and desirable movement of robots and motors. H-bridge can
alternate the polarity of the applied voltage, and this characteristic is used in switching
property.
9. Which bridge can be used for providing a DC output from AC input?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Diode bridge circuit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Diode bridge circuit can be used for providing a DC output from AC input.
Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit. Maxwell bridge is
used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. H-bridge can alternate the polarity of
the applied voltage, and this characteristic is used in switching property.
10. Which bridge can be used to find very small difference in two resistor values?
a) H-Bridge
b) Wien Bridge
c) Maxwell Bridge
d) Carey foster bridge circuit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Carey foster bridge circuit can be used to find very small difference in two
resistor values. Wien bridge is used to calculate unknown capacitance in AC circuit.
Maxwell bridge is used to calculate unknown inductance in AC circuit. H-bridge can
alternate the polarity of the applied voltage, and this characteristic is used in switching
property.
11. Vibration galvanometer is used as a detector in AC circuit instead of normal
galvanometer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vibration galvanometer is used as a detector in AC circuit instead of normal
galvanometer. Normal galvanometer is used in DC bridge circuit for balancing and
detecting. If a normal galvanometer is placed in an AC circuit then its needle will
continuously deflect back and forth and will never be stable.
12. Which detector is not used in AC circuit?
a) Tunable amplifier circuit
b) Vibration galvanometers
c) Galvanometers
d) Head phones
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Galvanometers is not used in AC circuit. Head phones and Vibration
galvanometers are used as detectors in AC (Alternating current) bridge circuit. Vibration
galvanometers are also referred as Tunable amplifier circuit.
13. Which condition is referred as balanced condition of bridge?
a) When the centre Galvanometer detects highest current flow
b) When the centre Galvanometer detects constant current flow
c) When the centre Galvanometer detects no current flow
d) When the centre Galvanometer gets damaged
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the centre Galvanometer detects no current flow then condition is
referred as balanced condition of bridge. This condition occurs when the potential
difference in two specific branches becomes equal.
14. Which DC bridge is used to find very small resistor values, generally below 1 ohm?
a) Maxwell’s Bridge
b) Wheatstone Bridge
c) Kevin Bridge
d) H-Bridge
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kevin bridge is used to find very small resistor values, generally below 1
ohm. Wheatstone bridge is also a DC bridge which is used to find resistance but it is
suitable for determining larger resistance values.
15. Schering bridge is a DC (Direct current) bridge.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Schering bridge is a not a DC (Direct current) bridge. It is a type of AC Bridge.
A balanced Schering bridge is independent of frequency change and is used for
measuring insulating capacity of electric cables and measuring the capacitance value of
the capacitors.
1. Which law or equation gives a relationship between voltage and current?

a) Maxwell’s second equation
b) Maxwell’s first equation
c) Lenz Law
d) Ohm’s law
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ohm’s law gives a relationship between voltage and current. It states that, at
a constant temperature the voltage across a conductor is directly proportional to the
current flowing through it. The proportionality constant is termed as resistance.
2. What is the voltage drop across a resistor of 12 ohm if the current flowing through it is
1A?
a) 10V
b) 12V
c) 11V
d) 6V
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 12V is the voltage drop across a resistor of 12 ohm if the current flowing
through it is 1A. From the ohm’s law we know that V=I*R, where V is the voltage in volts,
I is the current in ampere and R is the resistance in ohm’s. Therefore, the voltage drop will
be=>12*1 = 12 volts.
3. Op-Amp in the form of trans-impedance amplifier can be used as current to voltage
converter.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Op-Amp in the form of trans-impedance amplifier can be used as current to
voltage converter. In this negative feedback is used, because without any feedback the
Op-Amp will not work. The input is provided at the inverting terminal and the non inverting
terminal is set to ground. The voltage output is taken from the output terminal.
4. What should be the resistance placed across a voltage source in order to generate a
current of 6 ampere from a voltage source of 12 volts?
a) 2 ohms
b) 72 ohms
c) 4 ohms
d) 1 ohm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A resistance of 2 ohm should be placed across a voltage source in order to
generate a current of 6 ampere from a voltage source of 12 volts. From the ohm’s law we
know that V=IR, therefore resistance = V/I => 12/6 = 2 ohms.
5. Which integrated circuit can be used as a current to voltage converter?
a) BC541
b) LM741
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LM741 Op-Amp integrated circuit can be used as a current to voltage
converter. It is an operational amplifier integrated circuit, and its non-inverting
configuration can be used for the conversion of current to voltage.
6. Trans-impedance amplifier is more efficient than a resistance in terms of current to
voltage conversion?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Trans-impedance amplifier is more efficient than a resistance in terms of
current to voltage conversion. The output impedance is expected to be low, for driving any
device. Op-Amp has very less output impedance which makes it better for current to
voltage conversion. Also it has very high input impedance which consumes very less
current in the input.
7. What does DAQ stand for?
a) Data Acquisition
b) Data Acquisition quantity
c) Data Acquisition quality
d) Digital Acquisition
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DAQ stands for Data Acquisition. It is a process by which physical quantities
are measured. Physical quantities such as current, voltage etc. can be measured with the
help of DAQ (Data Acquisition) systems.
8. What is the magnitude of gain of an Op-Amp if it’s negative feedback resistance is 20
ohm and its input resistance is 10 ohm (consider the input is in inverting terminal)?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1/2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The gain of an Op-Amp is 2 if its negative feedback resistance is 20 ohm and
its input resistance is 10 ohm. Since we know that the magnitude of gain, when the input
is given at the inverting terminal is given by RF/RI, where RF is feedback resistance and
RI is input resistance. This gives out, gain= 20/10 => 2.
a) 2 ohms
b) 72 ohms
c) 4 ohms
d) 1 ohm
View Answer
Answer: c
know that V=IR, therefore resistance = V/I => 24/6 = 4 ohms.
10. What is the voltage drop across a resistor of 12 ohm if the current flowing through it is
2A?
a) 10V
b) 22V
c) 11V
d) 24V
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 24V is the voltage drop across a resistor of 12 ohm if the current flowing
through it is 2A. From the ohm’s law we know that V=I*R, where V is the voltage in volts,
I is the current in ampere and R is the resistance in ohm’s. Therefore the voltage drop will
be =>12*2 = 24 volts.
11. What is the magnitude of gain of an Op-Amp if it’s negative feedback resistance is 30
ohm and its input resistance is 10 ohm (consider the input is in inverting terminal)?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1/2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The gain of an Op-Amp is 3 if its negative feedback resistance is 30 ohm and
its input resistance is 10 ohm. Since we know that the magnitude of gain, when the input
is given at the inverting terminal is given by RF/RI, where RF is feedback resistance and
RI is input resistance. This gives out, gain = 30/10 => 3.
12. What is the magnitude of gain of an Op-Amp if it’s feedback resistance is 30 ohm and
its input resistance is 10 ohm (consider the input is in non-inverting terminal)?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1/2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The gain of an Op-Amp is 4 if its feedback resistance is 30 ohm and its input
resistance is 10 ohm. Since we know that the magnitude of gain, when the input is given
at the non-inverting terminal is given by 1+(RF/RI), where RF is feedback resistance and
RI is input resistance. This gives out, gain=1+(30/10) => 4.
13. What is the magnitude of gain of an Op-Amp if it’s feedback resistance is 20 ohm and
its input resistance is 10 ohm (consider the input is in non-inverting terminal)?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1/2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The gain of an Op-Amp is 3 if its feedback resistance is 20 ohm and its input
resistance is 10 ohm. Since we know that the magnitude of gain, when the input is given
at the non-inverting terminal is given by 1+(RF/RI), where RF is feedback resistance and
RI is input resistance. This gives out, gain=1+(20/10) => 3.
a) 2 ohms
b) 72 ohms
c) 4 ohms
d) 1 ohm
View Answer
Answer: c
know that V=IR, therefore resistance=V/I => 12/3 = 4 ohms.
15. Who invented direct current?
a) Nicola Tesla
b) Thomas Edison
c) Albert Einstein
d) Stephen Hawking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thomas Edison invented direct current. Direct current is a unidirectional
current. It flows when electrons move constantly in a particular direction. By convention
the direction of current is taken opposite to the direction of electron flow.
1. Ohm’s law gives a relation between voltage and resistance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ohm’s law does not give relation between voltage and resistance. The ohms
law establishes a relationship between voltage and current. Resistance is the
proportionality constant. In equation form, ohms law can be expressed as V=I*R, where
all variables have their usual meaning.
2. What is the current flowing through a resistor of 12ohm if the voltage drop across a
resistor is 4 volts?
a) 4Ampere
b) 3Ampere
c) 2Ampere
d) 6Ampere
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 3Ampere current flowing through a resistor of 12ohm if the voltage drop
across a resistor is 4 volts. Since we know from the ohm’s law we know that V=IR where
V is the voltage drop across the resistor, I is the current flowing through it and R is the
resistance value of it, therefore I=V/R, which gives I=>12/4=3ampere.
3. Resistance of a substance does not change if we alter its shape or length.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Resistance of a substance changes, if we alter its shape or length.
Resistance is directly proportional to the length of the substance and inversely
proportional to its area. Resistivity of a material remains constant.
current of 6ampere from a voltage source of 12volts?
a) 2ohms
b) 72 ohms
c) 4 ohms
d) 1 ohm
View Answer
Answer: a
generate a current of 6 ampere from a voltage source of 12volts. From the ohm’s law we
know that V=IR, therefore resistance=V/I=>12/6=2ohms.
5. Which is a voltage to current converter?
a) BC541
b) XTR111
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: XTR111 is a voltage to current converter. It is a very precise voltage to
current converter designed by the Texas Instruments. It has an adjustable voltage
regulator with a wide output supply range.
6. Trans-impedance amplifier is more efficient than a resistance in terms of current to
voltage conversion?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Trans-impedance amplifier is more efficient than a resistance in terms of
current to voltage conversion. The output impedance is expected to be low, for driving any
device. Op-Amp has very less output impedance which makes it better for current to
voltage conversion. Also, it has very high input impedance which consumes very less
current in the input.
7. What is the ratio of current to the voltage called?
a) Resistivity
b) Resistance
c) Conductance
d) Impedance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of current to the voltage is called as conductance. It is the reciprocal
of resistance. It is the degree or the measure of how easily the electric current can flow
through a substance. Its unit is mho also called as ohm inverse.
8. What is the ratio of voltage to current called?
a) Resistivity
b) Resistance
c) Conductance
d) Impedance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of current to the voltage is called as resistance. It is the degree or
the measure of opposition of flow of electric current through a substance. Its unit is ohm.
It is generally denoted by “R”.
current of 6ampere from a voltage source of 24volts?
a) 2ohms
b) 72 ohms
c) 4 ohms
d) 1 ohm
View Answer
Answer: c
generate a current of 6 ampere from a voltage source of 12volts. From the ohm’s law we
know that V=IR, therefore resistance=V/I=>24/6 = 4ohms.
10. What is the current flowing through a resistor of 24ohm if the voltage drop across a
resistor is 4 volts?
a) 4Ampere
b) 3Ampere
c) 2Ampere
d) 6Ampere
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 6Ampere current flowing through a resistor of 24ohm if the voltage drop
across a resistor is 4 volts. Since we know from the ohm’s law we know that V=IR where
V is the voltage drop across the resistor, I is the current flowing through it and R is the
resistance value of it, therefore I=V/R, which gives I=>24/4=6ampere.
11. Resistivity of a substance does not change if we alter its shape or length.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistivity of a substance does not change if we alter its shape or length.
Resistivity is the property of a material, which does not vary with length and size.
Resistance of a substance changes, if we alter its shape or length.
12. Which among the following can be termed as voltage to current converter?
a) Current controlled current source
b) Current controlled voltage source
c) Voltage controlled current source
d) Voltage controlled voltage source
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Voltage controlled current source can be termed as voltage to current
converter. In this type of sources, the output current depends on some external voltage
drop or voltage source, which is why they are named so.
13. What is the current flowing through a resistor of 24 ohms if a capacitor of 10
microfarads is placed in series to a resistor along with 10V DC voltage supply?
a) 4Ampere
b) 3Ampere
c) 2Ampere
d) 0Ampere
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: No current or 0 current flows through a resistor of 24 ohms if a capacitor of
10 microfarads is placed in series to a resistor along with 10V DC voltage supply. Since
capacitor does not allow any DC current to pass through it so the current flowing across
the resistor is 0.
14. What is the current flowing through a resistor of 24 ohms if a capacitor of 10
microfarads is placed in parallel to the resistor and 4V DC voltage supply is placed in
series with the resistor?
a) 4Ampere
b) 3Ampere
c) 6Ampere
d) 0Ampere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 6ampere current flowing through a resistor of 24ohm if the voltage drop
across a resistor is 4 volts. The capacitor will act as open circuit and no current will pass
through it as DC voltage is applied. And since we know from the ohm’s law we know that
V=IR where V is the voltage drop across the resistor, I is the current flowing through it and
R is the resistance value of it, therefore I=V/R, which gives I=>24/4=6ampere.
15. What is the current flowing through a resistor of 4 ohms if a capacitor of 10 microfarads
is placed in series to a resistor along with 5V DC voltage supply?
a) 4Ampere
b) 3Ampere
c) 2Ampere
d) 0Ampere
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: No current or 0 current flows through a resistor of 4 ohms if a capacitor of 10
microfarads is placed in series to a resistor along with 5V DC voltage supply. Since
capacitor does not allow any DC current to pass through it so the current flowing across
the resistor is 0.
1. What is the frequency of the supplied alternating current in India?

a) 50 KHz
b) 30 Hz
c) 50 Hz
d) 60 Hz
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 50 Hz is the frequency of the supplied alternating current in India. The
frequency of supplied current, vary from country to country. In USA the frequency of the
supplied alternating current is 60 Hz.
2. Which type of waveform can be produced by linear oscillators?
a) Saw tooth
b) Sinusoidal
c) Square
d) Parabolic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sinusoidal waveform can be produced by linear oscillators. There are two
types of oscillator, namely linear oscillator and non-linear oscillator. Linear oscillator can
only produce sinusoidal waveform.
3. NE555 Integrated circuit can create alternating signals.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NE555 Integrated circuit can create alternating signals. It can create square
signals. It has three modes of configuration (mono-stable, bi-stable, A-stable) through
which we can control the duty cycle and the type of signal we want.
4. How many modes are present in NE555 Integrated circuit?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: NE555 integrated circuit has three operating modes. These modes are
namely Astable mode, monostable mode and bistable mode. Monostable mode has only
one stable state, bistable mode has two stable states whereas Astable mode has no stable
state.
5. Which is a voltage to frequency converter?
a) BC541
b) TIP122
c) LM566
d) TIP135
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LM566 is a voltage to frequency converter. It is a voltage controlled oscillator
designed by the National Instruments. The frequency of the output can be altered by
varying the voltage at the input side.
6. How many stable states does Astable mode of NE555 has?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 0
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Astable mode of NE555 has no stable state. It produces continuous
alternating signal whose duty cycle can be controlled by choosing different values of
resistance used in this configuration, or just changing the resistance value using
potentiometer.
7. Which type of wave can be generated by LM566?
a) Aperiodic
b) Sine
c) Square
d) Parabolic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LM566 can generate square waveform. It a voltage controlled oscillator. It
can generate time varying alternating square or triangular waveforms from constant DC
voltage. Its frequency is linear function to the applied input voltage.
8. What is the full form of LFO in context to signal generations?
a) Least frequency oscillator
b) Low frequency oscillator
c) Low frequency oscillations
d) Least frequency oscillations
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LFO in context to signal generations stands for Low frequency oscillator. It is
used to generate time varying signals whose frequency is very low. Its output frequency
is less than 20 Hz.
9. What is the frequency range of radio frequency(RF)?
a) 20 KHz to 300 GHz
b) 2 KHz to 30 GHz
c) 200 KHz to 3000 GHz
d) 10 KHz to 10 GHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The range of radio frequency(RF) is 20 KHz to 300 GHz. Radio
frequency(RF) is generally used in telephonic communications. These High frequency
valued signal can encapsulate large number of information within them.
10. Which type of waveform cannot be produced by non-linear oscillators?
a) Saw-tooth
b) Sinusoidal
c) Square
d) Triangular
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sinusoidal waveform cannot be produced by non-linear oscillators. There are
two types of oscillator, namely linear oscillator and non-linear oscillator. Linear oscillator
can only produce sinusoidal signals. Non-linear oscillator can only produce non-sinusoidal
waveforms such as Saw tooth, Square, Triangular etc.
11. Which type conversion can be done using LM2575WU?
a) DC-DC conversion
b) AC-DC conversion
c) DC-AC conversion
d) AC-AC conversion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DC-DC conversion can be done using LM2575WU. It is a step down DC
(Direct current) to DC (Direct current) converter Integrated circuit. It is manufactured by
microchip technology. It has total 6 pins.
12. Who invented alternating current?
a) Nicola Tesla
b) Thomas Edison
c) Albert Einstein
d) Stephen Hawking
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nicola Tesla invented alternating current. Alternating current is a bidirectional
current. The direction of current is not fixed; it changes in every fraction of a second. This
is the current which comes in our home through electric poles and we use it for fulfilling
up our daily needs such as lighting up bulbs and tubelights.
13. What is the frequency of the supplied alternating current in United States?
a) 50 KHz
b) 30 Hz
c) 50 Hz
d) 60 Hz
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 60 Hz is the frequency of the supplied alternating current in United States.
The frequency of supplied current, vary from country to country. In India the frequency of
the supplied alternating current is 50 Hz.
14. What is the time taken by a sinusoidal signal of frequency 0.5 Hz to complete one
fundamental cycle?
a) 5 seconds
b) 3 seconds
c) 2 seconds
d) 4 seconds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:
Given: Frequency(F) = 0.5 Hz
Frequency(F)=1/T
Time Period(T) = 1/F
Therefore, Time Period(T)=1/0.5 => 2 seconds.
15. What is the frequency of a sinusoidal signal if the time taken to complete one
fundamental cycle is 0.1 seconds?
a) 5 Hz
b) 10 Hz
c) 0.5 Hz
d) 4 Hz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
Given: Time Period(T)=0.1 second
Frequency(F)=1/T
Therefore, Frequency(F)=1/0.1=>10 s-1
Or Frequency(F)=10 Hz.
1. We can control the High and Low states of 555 timer IC (Integrated Circuit) in
monostable mode.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We cannot control the High and Low states of 555 timer IC (Integrated
Circuit) in monostable mode. In monostable mode we have only stable state which can be
either high or low. But in bistable mode we can control the High and Low states of 555
timer IC (Integrated Circuit) because we have two stable states.
2. Capacitors do not allow AC (Alternating current) to pass through it?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Capacitors allows only AC (Alternating current) to pass through it. It blocks
DC (Direct current) to pass through it. Capacitors are used as a filter to separate DC
(Direct current) and AC (Alternating current). It acts as open circuit when DC (direct
current) is applied.
3. Capacitors do not allow DC (Direct current) to pass through it?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacitors does not allow DC (Direct current) to pass through it. Capacitors
only allow alternating type of signal to pass through it. When DC voltage is applied across
the terminals of the capacitor then, the capacitor gets charged up and acts as an open
circuit path.
4. How many pins do LM331 IC (Integrated circuit) has?
a) 16
b) 4
c) 8
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LM331 IC (Integrated circuit) has 8 pins. It comes in a 8 pin DIP package. It
has excellent linearity property which can be used for voltage to frequency conversion and
vice versa. It is manufactured by National Semiconductors.
5. Which is a frequency to voltage converter?
a) BC541
b) TIP122
c) LM555
d) TIP135
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LM555 is a frequency to voltage converter. It can produce accurate and
precise oscillations. It can also be used to generate precise time delays. For generating
time delays, an external resistor or capacitor is used.
6. How many pins does LM555 IC (Integrated circuit) has?
a) 16
b) 4
c) 8
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LM555 IC (Integrated circuit) has 8 pins. It is a timer IC (Integrated circuit)
that comes in a 8 pin DIP package. The IC (Integrated circuit) can be used in three modes
that are monostable, astable and bistable.
7. Which is not a voltage to frequency converter?
a) BC541
b) LM2917
c) LM555
d) KA331
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: BC541 is not a voltage to frequency converter. It is a bipolar junction
transistor. LM2917 is a voltage to frequency converter designed by the Texas instrument.
LM555 is a timer Integrated circuit which can be used for voltage to frequency. KA331 is
developed by ON Semiconductor which can be used voltage to frequency conversion and
vice versa.
8. Which is a frequency to voltage converter?
a) BC541
b) LM741H
c) LM2917
d) TIP135
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LM2917 is a frequency to voltage converter. It is manufactured by the Texas
Instruments. LM741H is most commonly used operational amplifier. BC541 is a bipolar
junction transistor. TIP135 is a Darlington transistor.
9. What is the bandwidth range of KA331 IC?
a) 1 Hz to 100 KHz
b) 1 Hz to 100 GHz
c) 2 KHz to 30 GHz
d) 10 KHz to 10 GHz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bandwidth range of KA331 IC is 1Hz to 100 KHz. It is a voltage to
frequency converter which is used in making analog to digital converter. This IC
(Integrated circuit) comes in a 8 in DIP package. It can also be used to make frequency
to voltage converter.
10. LM331 cannot be used for frequency to voltage conversion?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LM331 can be used for frequency to voltage conversion. It is designed for
precise frequency to voltage conversion by the National Semiconductors. It can also be
used for voltage to frequency conversion.
11. What is the frequency of a signal if the time taken to complete one cycle is 0.2
seconds?
a) 5 Hz
b) 2 Hz
c) 0.5 Hz
d) 4 Hz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:
Given: Time Period (T) = 0.2 second
Frequency (F) = 1/T
Therefore, Frequency (F)=1/0.2=>5-1
Or Frequency (F)=5 Hz
12. What is the time period of a signal if the time taken to complete one cycle is 10 hertz?
a) 5 second
b) 0.1 second
c) 0.5 second
d) 4 second
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:
Given: Frequency (F) = 10 hertz
Time Period (T) = 1/F
Therefore, Time Period (T) = 1/10 => 0.1 s
13. What is the type of signal called when its frequency is zero?
a) Sine Signal
b) Square wave
c) DC (Direct current) Signal
d) Rectilinear signal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DC (Direct current) Signal has frequency zero. These types of signal does
not contain any crests and troughs, the signal is represented by straight line parallel to
any axis. The straight line represents that the signal does not changes its polarity with
time.
14. Inductors do not allow DC (Direct current) to pass through it?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inductors allows DC (Direct current) to pass through it. Inductors show their
characteristic properties with alternating current (or signals). When DC current is applied
to it, it acts as a normal conductor with zero resistance.
15. Inductors do not allow AC (Alternating current) to pass through it?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inductors allows AC (Alternating current) to pass through it. Inductors show
their characteristic properties with alternating current (or signals). When AC (Alternating
current) is applied across it, it resists the change in current flowing through it and therefore
the current lags the voltage by 90 degree.
1. Which type of system uses ‘oil under pressure’ means for power transmission?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the
transmission of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”.
If “oil under pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is
called as hydraulic system. If “compressed air” is used in the system for power
transmission then the system is called as pneumatic system.
2. The force developed in hydraulic systems is high due to ____
a) high pressure
b) more oil
c) less pressure
d) less oil
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil is incompressible, oil can be pressurized to very high pressure (500
tons or more). Since pressure is high, the force developed is also very high (thousands of
tons). Since pressure is high, components are very strong, made of steel and are heavy.
3. Hydraulic systems are slower in operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As oil has more viscosity, it cannot flow fast. Hence Hydraulic systems are
slower in operation. Hydraulic oils are petroleum-based oils, they are inflammable and
there is every chance of fire hazard if this is neglected.
4. Which component of a hydraulic system is used to store a sufficient amount of hydraulic
oil?
a) Rotatory pumps
b) Oil reservoir
c) Flow control valve
d) Pressure gauge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of an oil reservoir is to store a sufficient amount of
hydraulic oil in the system. Apart from this, it has many other functions such as to cool the
hot return oil, to settle down the contaminants, to remove air bubbles and to separate
water from the oil. The other options mentioned are the parts of the hydraulic system with
different functions.
5. What pumps hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit?
a) Flow control valve
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of the rotatory pump is to pump hydraulic oil to the hydraulic
circuit. It converts mechanical energy to hydraulic energy. The flow control valves, oil
reservoir and pressure gauge are the other parts of the hydraulic system with different
functions.
6. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every
displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every
positive displacement pump. This valve is connected to the outlet of the pump. Its main
function is to release the oil back to the tank when the pressure increases beyond pre-set
value.
7. In which type of system does power transmission takes place through compressed air?
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pneumatic system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission
of power takes place through compressed air. The mechanical energy is given to
compressor, that is, the shaft of the compressor is rotated by any means of the prime
mover. The fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission
of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”. If “oil under
pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called as
hydraulic system.
8. The compressed air flows to the actuator through ____
a) pipes and valves
b) shafts
c) motors
d) flow control valve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressor drives air from the atmosphere and the compressed air flow
through actuator through pipes and valves. Actuator produces back the mechanical
energy that can either be a linear motion of cylinder or rotary motion of the air motor shaft.
The other sources mentioned in the options are not the sources for the flow of compressed
air.
9. What is the function of an air dryer?
a) Removes dirt
b) Removes moisture
c) Controls the rate of flow
d) Controls the pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The compressed air delivered by the compressor contains moisture from the
atmosphere. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Only the dry
compressed air is given to the pneumatic system.
10. Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
c) Air receiver tank
d) Air lubricator
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The air receiver tank stores the compressed air. Apart from storing the
compressed air, it has several other functions also. It acts as cooler to cool the hot
compressed air. It acts as moisture separator to separate and remove the water.
1. Which type of mechanical device is used to give energy to the liquid?

b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Hydraulic Pumps
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pump is a mechanical device which gives energy to the liquid. The liquid can
have energy in any of the forms such as Kinetic energy, Pressure energy and potential
energy. The fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission
pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called as
hydraulic system. If “compressed air” is used in the system for power transmission then
the system is called a Pneumatic system.
2. Which among the following pumps have a definite amount of discharge?
a) Positive displacement pumps
b) Non-positive displacement pumps
c) Self-priming pumps
d) Jet pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In positive displacement pumps, the discharge is positive. The word positive
implies that there will be a definite amount of discharge irrespective of an increase in
pressure. In non-positive displacement pumps, the discharge is not constant. Self-priming
pumps and Jet pumps are the types of non-displacement pumps.
3. Which among the following is not the component of FRL unit?
a) Air filter
b) Air dryer
c) Air regulator
d) Air lubricator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The FRL unit does not consist of the air filter. It contains Air dryer, Air
regulator and Air lubricator. The air filter removes the dust particles from compressed air
and allows clean dry compressed air to the system. Air regulator controls the pressure of
the compressed air and Air lubricator adds lubricating oil to the compressed air.
4. What is the function of the flow control valve?
a) Controls the direction of flow of air
b) The moisture is separated and removed
c) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
d) It controls the rate of flow of compressed air
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of compressed air, by which
speed of extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The direction control valve
controls the direction of the flow of oil.
5. The direction control valve controls ____
a) direction of flow
b) rate of flow
c) moisture
d) force and motion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It controls the direction of flow of compressed air, by which speed of
extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The flow control valve controls the rate
of flow of compressed air. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Force
and motion are controlled through the double acting cylinder.
6. Which among the following is an advantage of the Pneumatic system?
a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Use of silencers
d) Low viscosity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pneumatic systems can run continuously for a longer period. Harder it runs,
cooler it works. In any pneumatic system, the continuous free expansion of compressed
air causes chilling effect and dues the continuous long run would not heat the system
components. The other options mentioned are the disadvantages or limitations of the
Pneumatic systems.
7. Which among the following is a disadvantage of Pneumatic system?
c) Used better in mines
d) Produces a dust-free surroundings
View Answer
8. Which among the following are not the applications of Pneumatic system?
a) Aerospace
b) Packing systems
c) Mining
d) Agriculture equipment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Pneumatic systems are not used in Aerospace activities, Hydraulic
systems are used. The other options are the applications of Pneumatic systems. Packing
is the final operation done on the product of any industry. The Pneumatic hand tools are
extensively employed in mines. They are also used in shears and Pneumatic systems.
9. What prevents the leakage of oil inside an unbalanced vane pump?
a) Vanes
b) Cylindrical rotor
c) Screw
d) Difference between the pressure of inlet and outlet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The vanes are seated in the radial slots of the rotor and held against the
casing by spring force or hydraulic force. Hence there will not be any leakage of oil
between the vane tips and the casing. Still, there is a little amount of leakage and hence
the volumetric efficiency will be around 95%.
10. Which among the following are not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic
pumps?
a) Discharge
b) Pressure
c) Speed
d) Weight
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The weight is not the main selection criteria for selection of hydraulic pumps.
There are different values for gear pumps, vane pumps and piston pumps for Pressure,
Discharge and Speed which are predefined values.
1. Which type of system uses ‘oil under pressure’ means for power transmission?
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the
transmission of power takes place by means of “oil under pressure” or “compressed air”.
If “oil under pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is
called a hydraulic system. If “compressed air” is used in the system for power transmission
then the system is called a pneumatic system.
a) high pressure
b) more oil
c) less pressure
d) less oil
View Answer
Answer: a
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
slower in operation. Hydraulic oils are petroleum based oils, they are inflammable and
4. Which component of a hydraulic system is used to store the sufficient amount of
hydraulic oil?
a) Rotatory pumps
b) Oil reservoir
d) Pressure gauge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of the oil reservoir is to store a sufficient amount of
hydraulic oil in the system. Apart from this, it has many other functions such as to cool the
hot return oil, to settle down the contaminants, to remove air bubbles and to separate
water from the oil. The other options mentioned are the parts of the hydraulic system with
different functions.
5. What pumps hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit?
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of the rotatory pump is to pump hydraulic oil to the hydraulic
circuit. It converts mechanical energy to hydraulic energy. The flow control valves, oil
reservoir and pressure gauge are the other parts of the hydraulic system with different
functions.
6. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every
displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
value.
7. What controls the direction of the flow of oil?
a) Pressure relief valve
b) Direction control valve
d) Actuator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The direction control valve controls the direction of flow of oil, by which it
performs extension and retraction of the actuator (double acting cylinder). The pressure
relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive displacement
pump.The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of oil and the actuator produces work.
a) Controls the direction of flow of oil
b) To pump hydraulic oil to the hydraulic circuit.
d) It controls the rate of flow of oil
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of oil, by which, speed of
extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The direction control valve controls
the direction of the flow of oil.
9. How many types of actuators are present in hydraulic systems?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Actuators produces work. There are two types of actuators linear and rotary.
The linear actuator is called cylinder and a rotary actuator is called as the motor. The force
developed is given by the product of the pressure of oil and area of the piston.
10. What is the function of a pressure gauge?
a) It controls the rate of flow of oil
b) It shows the pressure reading
c) Controls the direction of flow of oil
d) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure gauge is used to give the pressure reading. Pressure settings
are made into the pressure gauge. Without a pressure gauge, it is not possible to make
the pressure relief valve settings, unloading valve settings etc.
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
View Answer
Answer: c
pressure” is used in the system for power transmission then the system is called a
hydraulic system.
a) pipes and valves
b) shafts
c) motors
d) flow control valve
View Answer
Answer: a
energy that can either be the linear motion of cylinder or rotary motion of the air motor
shaft. The other sources mentioned in the options are not the sources for the flow of
compressed air.
3. The compressed air is delivered to the pneumatic system through the air compressor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The air compressor draws the air from the atmosphere, compresses it and
delivers the compressed air to the pneumatic system. Compressor drives air from the
atmosphere and the compressed air flow through actuator through pipes and valves.
4. What is the function of the air dryer?
a) Removes dirt
b) Removes moisture
View Answer
Answer: b
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
d) Air lubricator
View Answer
Answer: c
compressed air. It acts as moisture separator to separate and remove the water
6. Pneumatic systems are very fast in operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pneumatic systems are very fast in operation. This is because of the low
viscosity of compressed air. These systems can run continuously for a longer period and
in any pneumatic system, the continuous free expansion of compressed air causes chilling
effect and dues the continuous long run would not heat the system components.
7. Which among the following is not the component of FRL unit?
a) Air filter
b) Air dryer
c) Air regulator
d) Air lubricator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The FRL unit does not consist of the air filter. It contains Air dryer, Air
regulator and Air lubricator. The air filter removes the dust particles from compressed air
and allows clean dry compressed air to the system. Air regulator controls the pressure of
the compressed air and Air lubricator adds lubricating oil to the compressed air.
a) Controls the direction of flow of air
b) The moisture is separated and removed
d) It controls the rate of flow of compressed air
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The flow control valve controls the rate of flow of compressed air, by which,
speed of extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The direction control valve
controls the direction of the flow of oil.
9. The direction control valve controls ____
a) direction of flow
b) rate of flow
c) moisture
d) force and motion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It controls the direction of flow of compressed air, by which, speed of
extension or retraction of the actuator is controlled. The flow control valve controls the rate
of flow of compressed air. This moisture is separated and removed by the air dryer. Force
and motion are controlled through the double acting cylinder.
10. Which among the following is an advantage of the Pneumatic system?
c) Use of silencers
d) Low viscosity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pneumatic systems can run continuously for a longer period. Harder it runs,
cooler it works. In any pneumatic system, the continuous free expansion of compressed
air causes chilling effect and dues the continuous long run would not heat the system
components. The other options mentioned are the disadvantages or limitations of the
Pneumatic systems.
11. Which among the following is a disadvantage of Pneumatic system?
c) Used better in mines
d) Produces a dust free surroundings
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A lubricator is required in a Pneumatic system to add lubricant oil to
compressed air or to minimize friction which is considered as one of the disadvantage or
limitation of the system. The other options mentioned are the advantages of the Pneumatic
systems.
12. Which among the following are not the applications of Pneumatic system?
a) Aerospace
b) Packing systems
c) Mining
d) Agriculture types of equipment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Pneumatic systems are not used in Aerospace activities; Hydraulic
systems are used. The other options are the applications of Pneumatic systems. Packing
is the final operation done on the product of any industry. The Pneumatic hand tools are
extensively employed in mines. They are also used in shears and Pneumatic systems.
1. Which transform converts the function from time domain to “s” domain (complex
frequency domain)?
a) Laplace Transform
b) Fourier Transform
c) Z Transform
d) InverseLaplace Transform
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Laplace transform converts the function from time domain to “s” domain
(complex frequency domain). It is an integral that transforms the function from real time
domain to a function of complex variable “s”.
2. Who invented Laplace transform?
a) Pierre-Simon Laplace
b) Pitas Laplace
c) Charles young
d) Charles Wheatstone
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pierre-Simon Laplace invented Laplace transform. It is an integral that
transforms the function from real time domain to a function of complex variable “s”. The
“s” represents a complex frequency domain.
3. Which signal cannot be determined through mathematical equation?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Non-Deterministic signal
c) Aperiodic signal
d) Power Signal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-Deterministic signal cannot be determined through mathematical
equation. Its value at any point of time cannot be determined beforehand. Due to its
random nature, it is also called as “Random Signal”.
4. What is the type of signal called, if it satisfies the equation x(t)=x(-t){where “t” represents
time domain}?
a) Imaginary signal
c) Odd Signal
d) Even Signal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If a signal satisfies the equation x(t)=x(-t) {where “t” represents time domain},
then the signal is called as even signal. A signal is said to be odd signal if it satisfies the
equation x(t)=-x(-t) {where “t” represents time domain}.
5. Node and junction are same.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Node and junction are not same. A node is a meeting point of two circuit
elements, it does not matter if it’s active or passive element of the circuit. A junction is a
point where least three circuit paths meet.
6. Fourier transform converts the function from time domain to frequency domain.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fourier transform converts the function from time domain to frequency
domain. It decomposes a function of time to a function of frequency. This transform was
proposed by Joseph Fourier in the year 1882.
7. Which Integrated circuit/module can generate square, sine and triangular waveforms?
a) ICL8038
b) LMK61A2-125M00SIAT
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FN2060A-6-06
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ICL8038can generate square, sine and triangular waveforms. LMK61A2-
125M00SIAT is a crystal oscillator that can generate square signals. FN2060A-6-06 is an
example of Power line filter. SLB700A/06VA is a force sensor.
8. What is the type of signal called, if it satisfies the equation x(t)=x(t+T) {where “t”
represents time domain and T represents fundamental time period}?
a) Imaginary signal
b) Periodic signal
c) Odd Signal
d) Even Signal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If a signal satisfies the equation x(t)=x(t+T) {where “t” represents time domain
and T represents fundamental time period}, then the signal is called as periodic signal.
Periodic signals repeat itself after the fundamental time period.
9. What is the type of signal called, if it satisfies the equation x(t)=-x(-t) {where “t”
represents time domain}?
a) Imaginary signal
c) Odd Signal
d) Even Signal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If a signal satisfies the equation x(t)=-x(-t) {where “t” represents time domain},
then the signal is called as Odd signal. A signal is said to be even signal if it satisfies the
equation x(t)=x(-t) {where “t” represents time domain}.
10. Which is an example of Square wave generator?
a) ICL8038
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FN2060A-6-06
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ICL8038is an example of Square wave generator. It can generate square,
sine and triangular waveforms. FN2060A-6-06 is an example of Power line filter.
SLB700A/06VA is a force sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a velocity sensor.
11. What is the signal called if its value is defined only at fixed instants of time?
a) Discrete signal
c) Random Signal
d) Deterministic signal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the value of signal is defined only at fixed instants of time then it is called
as “Discrete Signal”. When the value of signal is defined at every instants of time then it
is called as “Continuous Signal”.
12. A System is a specified process which produces signal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
13. Z transform cannot convert discrete frequency signal to complex time domain.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Z transform cannot convert discrete frequency signal to complex time
domain. It converts discrete time signal to complex frequency domain. The discrete time
signal constitutes a sequence of real and complex numbers.
14. How many minimum number of circuit path, meeting at a point make up a junction?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: At least 3 circuit paths meeting at a point make up a junction. It can be any
point on the electric circuit connected through electrical conductors. It is a point of junction
of two or more branches.
15. Which type of signal is also referred as random signal?
a) Imaginary signal
c) Deterministic signal
d) Power Signal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non-Deterministic signal is also referred as random signal. These signals
cannot be expressed in the form of mathematical equation. The value at any value of time
cannot be determined.
1. Which type of mechanical device is used to give energy to the liquid?

b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Hydraulic Pumps
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pump is a mechanical device which gives energy to the liquid. The liquid can
have energy in any of the forms such as Kinetic energy, Pressure energy and potential
energy. The fluid Power system is a power transmission system in which, the transmission
hydraulic system. If “compressed air” is used in the system for power transmission then
the system is called a pneumatic system.
2. Which among the following pumps have a definite amount of discharge?
a) Positive displacement pumps
b) Non-positive displacement pumps
c) Self-priming pumps
d) Jet pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In positive displacement pumps, the discharge is positive. The word positive
implies that there will be a definite amount of discharge irrespective of an increase in
pressure. In non-positive displacement pumps, the discharge is not constant. Self-priming
pumps and Jet pumps are the types of non-displacement pumps.
3. The non-positive displacement pumps do not have a constant discharge.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In non-positive displacement pumps, the discharge is not constant. The
discharge reduces with increase in pressure and the discharge becomes zero at maximum
pressure. At high pressure, the pump cannot deliver oil. Hence the non-positive
displacement pumps have no use in hydraulic systems.
4. Which type of pumps can give discharge even at high pressure?
a) Multistage Pumps
b) Monoblock pumps
c) Rotary pumps
d) Single stage pumps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotary pumps are positive displacement pumps. Rotary pumps have two or
more rotating components. The discharge of rotary components remains almost the same
irrespective of pressure. They can give discharge even at high pressure. In the other
options, the type of pumps mentioned is all non-positive displacement types.
5. Which type of component in a hydraulic system supports less vibration and noise?
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Very less vibration and noise are observed in the case of rotary pumps.
These pumps are compact with very a smaller number of moving components. The flow
control valves, oil reservoir and pressure gauge are the other parts of the hydraulic system
with different functions.
6. The pressure relief valve is an important component which is required for every positive
displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
value.
7. Which type of pump consists of two spur or helical gears?
a) External gear pumps
b) Internal gear pumps
c) Rotary pumps
d) Vane pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The external gear pump consists of two spur or helical gears, which are
meshed with each other and mounted inside the casing. One is the driver and another one
is driven. The other pumps mentioned in the options does not contain two spur or helical
gears.
8. What is the property of a screw pump?
a) Discharge is continuous, smooth and non-pulsating
b) Very less vibration and noise
c) Has two or more rotating components
d) Consists of a left handed and a right handed screw
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The screw pump is a positive displacement pump which comes with two or
three screws. Each shaft has a left hand and a right hand screw, for hydraulic pressure
balance. The other properties mentioned in the options are the properties of a rotary pump.
a) Vanes
c) Screw
d) Difference between pressure of inlet and outlet
View Answer
Answer: a
between the vane tips and the casing. Still there is a little amount of leakage and hence
pumps?
a) Discharge
b) Pressure
c) Speed
d) Weight
View Answer
Answer: d
Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Mechatronics.
To practice all areas of Mechatronics, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice
Questions and Answers.
Participate in the Sanfou
1. What is the function of a pressure control valve?

a) To control the force generated by actuators
b) To perform two operations in sequence
c) To control the direction of flow
d) To avoid the development of excess of pressure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of the pressure control valve is to control the force
generated by actuators. The other functions mentioned in the options are the functions of
the Direction control valve, Sequence valve and hydraulic fuse respectively. The control
valve is used to control different parameters of the fluid.
2. Which among the following fluid parameters are not controlled by the control valves?
a) Pressure
b) Rate of flow
c) Speed
d) Direction of flow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed is not an important parameter controlled by the control valves. Control
valves control the fluid parameters such as the pressure of the working fluid, Rate of flow
of working fluid and direction of flow of the working fluid.
3. Pressure reducing valve is used to maintain constant reduced pressure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure reducing valve is used to maintain constant reduced pressure in a
system. It consists of a diaphragm, an adjusting screw, a spring, a conical poppet fit to the
diaphragm. If the pressure of the outlet increases, the diaphragm deflects upwards due to
which the conical poppet will also move upwards to close the passage of working fluid
flow.
4. Once the pressure comes to normal, the diaphragm ____
a) deflects downwards
b) deflects upwards
c) has no effect
d) expands
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Once the pressure comes to normal, the diaphragm deflects downwards. If
the pressure of the outlet increases, the diaphragm deflects upwards due to which the
conical poppet will also move upwards to close the passage of working fluid flow. At
normal pressure, it deflects downwards and the conical poppet moves downwards.
5. The function of the pressure relief valve is ____
a) to open when the inlet pressure is more
b) to control the force generated by actuators
c) to control different parameters of the fluid
d) to control the direction of flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of the pressure relief valve is that it opens when the inlet
pressure which may be the system pressure or the pilot pressure becomes more than the
pre-set value. In the other options, the main function of the pressure control valve is to
control the force generated by actuators. The control valve is used to control different
parameters of fluid by which the required specific task is completed in a proper way as
desired.
displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
value.
7. What is the function of a pressure gauge?
a) It controls the rate of flow of oil
b) It shows the pressure reading
c) Controls the direction of flow of oil
d) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure gauge is used to give the pressure reading. Pressure settings
are made into the pressure gauge. Without a pressure gauge, it is not possible to make
the pressure relief valve settings, unloading valve settings etc.
8. What happens when the pressure increases its pre-set value?
a) The pressure relief valve opens
b) Deflects upwards
c) Deflects downwards
d) Has no effect
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the pressure inside a system increases above the pre-set level, this valve
opens to release the working fluid back to the reservoir tank, so that the system pressure
comes to the normal value. The other mentioned options are not the correct choices.
9. What is the formula for the force of a cylinder?
a) F=(p*a)
b) F=(p+a)
c) F=(p/a)
d) F=(p/ap)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The force of a cylinder is the product of the pressure of working fluid and
area of the piston that is (F=p*a). To vary the force, we need to vary any of these two,
either the pressure of working fluid or the area of the piston.
a) high pressure
b) more oil
c) less pressure
d) less oil
View Answer
Answer: a
1. What is the function of the air compressor?

a) Decreases the pressure of air
b) Increases the pressure of air
c) Removes dust particles
d) Adds lubricating oil
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Air compressor is a machine which draws the air from the atmosphere,
compresses it to increase the pressure and delivers the high pressure compressed air to
the air receiver tank. The other options mentioned are the functions of the air filter and air
lubricator respectively.
2. Which among the following are the applications of air compressors?
a) Supercharging of IC engines
b) Agriculture
c) Railways
d) Aerospace
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Some of the applications of air compressors are supercharging IC engines,
Gas turbines and jet engines, Packing machines, Hand tools, CNC machines etc. and in
spray paintings. The other options mentioned are the applications of Hydraulic systems.
3. The capacity of the compressor is specified by free air delivery.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacity of the compressor is specified by free air delivery. Free air delivery
is defined as the volume of the air drawn by the compressor per unit time. After
compression, the volume reduces as per pressure. It is a factor that should be considered
during the selection of air compressor.
4. Which among the following are not the accurate selection criteria for air compressors?
a) Free air delivery
b) Air receiver capacity
c) Power supply
d) Speed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Speed is not the accurate selection criteria for the selection of air
compressors. The selection criteria of the air compressors include factors such as average
air consumption of the system, free air delivery, Air receiver capacity, Power supply and
components and accessories.
5. What is the normal pressure at which the compressed air is stored?
a) 30 bar
b) 40 bar
c) 10 bar
d) 100 bar
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Several types of air compressors are used for generating the compressed
air for pneumatic systems. The air compressor draws the air from the atmosphere,
compresses it and delivers it to the air receiver tank, where it is stored under pressure.
Normally compressed air is stored at a maximum of 10 bar pressure in the air receiver
tank.
6. The compressed air is very costly.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Air is freely available. Compressed air is very costly due to various power
losses during compression. The main loss is due to the heat of compression. During
compression, the pressure increases, the volume reduces and the temperature increases.
7. Which among the following leads to conserving of energy?
a) Conserving compressed air
b) Wasting the compressed air
c) Using compressed air for Cleaning and Washing
d) Allowing leakages of compressed air
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Conserving the compressed air leads to conserving energy. Employees
should be trained well to conserve compressed air in the industry. If leakages of air are
found anywhere, immediately it should be stopped. Use of compressed air for cleaning
anything should be avoided.
8. What is the use of Intake air filters?
a) To reduce the temperature of the air
b) Used as storage and smoothened
c) To prevent dust from entering the compressor
d) To remove the traces of moisture
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Intake air filters are used to prevent dust from entering the compressor. Dust
causes sticking valves, scoured cylinders, excessive wear etc. The other functions
mentioned in the options are done using Interstage coolers, air dryers and air receivers
respectively.
9. What is the function of Interstage coolers?
a) To reduce the temperature of the air
b) Used as storage and smoothened
c) To prevent dust from entering the compressor
d) To remove the traces of moisture
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of Interstage coolers are to reduce the temperature of the
air before it enters the next stage to reduce the work of compression and increase
efficiency. They are normally water cooled. The other functions mentioned in the options
are done using intake air filters, air dryers and air receivers respectively.
10. The removal of moisture from the compressed air is done using ____
a) receivers
b) moisture drain traps
c) air dryers
d) interstage coolers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The removal of moisture from the compressed air is done using Moisture
drain traps. These traps resemble steam traps. Interstage coolers are used to reduce the
temperature of the air before it enters the next stage. The remaining traces of moisture
after cooler are removed using air dryers. Air receivers are provided as storage and
smoothening the pulsating air output.
1. What is the function of the control valve?
a) To control different parameters of the fluid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The control valve is used to control different parameters of fluid, by which the
required specific task is completed in a proper way as desired. The other functions
mentioned in the options are the functions of the Direction control valve, Sequence valve
and hydraulic fuse respectively.
2. Which among the following fluid parameters are not controlled by the control valves?
a) Pressure
b) Rate of flow
c) Speed
d) Direction of flow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Speed is not an important parameter controlled by the control valves. Control
valves control the fluid parameters such as the pressure of the working fluid, Rate of flow
of working fluid and direction of flow of the working fluid.
3. There is no difference between the control valve of the pneumatic and hydraulic system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The only difference between the control valve of the pneumatic and hydraulic
system is that the hydraulic components are made stronger and heavy, they are made up
of steel as they have to work under very high pressure of oil, Whereas the pneumatic
components are made lighter using aluminium, plastic etc.
4. What is the function of the pressure control valve?
a) To control the force generated by actuators
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of the pressure control valve is to control the force
generated by actuators. The other functions mentioned in the options are the functions of
the Direction control valve, Sequence valve and hydraulic fuse respectively. The control
valve is used to control different parameters of the fluid.
5. The valve packing of control valves is used ____
a) to prevent the fluid from escaping
b) to control the force generated by actuators
c) to control different parameters of the fluid
d) to control the direction of flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The valve packing of control valves is used to prevent the fluid from escaping.
In the other options, the main function of the pressure control valve is to control the force
generated by actuators. The control valve is used to control different parameters of fluid
by which the required specific task is completed in the proper way as desired.
displacement pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
value.
7. What is the formula of speed control valve during extension of a flow control valve?
a) V=(Q/A)
b) V=Q.A
c) V=A/Q
d) V=Q(A-a)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula of speed control valve during extension of a flow control valve
is V=(Q/A) where ‘Q’ is the rate of flow of the working fluid and A is the area of the Piston.
V is the speed of the actuator.
8. What is the formula of speed control valve during retraction of a flow control valve?
a) V=(Q/A)
b) V=Q.A
c) V=A/Q
d) V=Q/(A-a)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The formula of speed control valve during retraction of a flow control valve is
V=Q/(A-a), where ‘Q’ is the rate of flow of the working fluid and A is the area of the Piston.
V is the speed of the actuator and ‘a’ is the area of the piston rod.
9. Which among the following are not the ‘work parameters’ of the fluid?
a) Direction
b) Speed
c) Pressure
d) Temperature of flow
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The temperature of flow is not an important work parameter. The work
parameters of the fluid are the amount of force required, Rate of flow of working fluid and
Direction of application of force.
10. Which among the following are not the main selection criteria of the control valves?
a) Type of actuation
b) Environmental conditions
c) Space requirement
d) Software support
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Software support is not the main selection criteria and there is no use of
software support in control valves. The main selection criteria of the control valve are flow
rate of oil, the pressure of oil, the force required by cylinder, speed, type of actuation, port
size, space requirement, the temperature of oil, oil under pressure compatibility and
environmental conditions.
1. Which is not an output device?

a) Seven Segment display
b) Liquid crystal display
c) Lithium battery indicator
d) Lithium battery
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Lithium battery is not an output device. It can give input to a device. “Seven
segment display” is used to display numerical values as well as some English alphabets.
Liquid crystal display (LCD) can be used to display anything. Lithium battery indicator is
used to display the battery level.
2. Who invented hydraulic press?
a) Norbert wiener
b) Joseph Bramah
c) Charles young
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Joseph Bramah invented hydraulic press. The first patent for hydraulic press
was applied and patented by him in the year 1795. Hydraulic press uses hydraulic
cylinders to generate compressive force.
3. What is the push provided by a hydraulic fluid used in fluid based actuator, if a steel ball
of radius 3cm is immersed in it, Given that the fluid has a density of 1200kg/m 3, Take
g=10m/s2?
a) 1.695N
b) 3.2N
c) 2.26N
d) 1.356N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given: Density of fluid (ρf) = 1200kg/m 3
g=10m/s2
Radius=3cm
Volume of steel ball (V) = 4/3πr3=4/3π (0.03 m)3
V=1.13*10-4 m3
Push (P) = ρf*g*v
P=1200kg/m *10m/s*1.13*10
3 -4
m3
P=1.356N
4. What is the push provided by water used in fluid based actuator, if a wooden ball of
radius 3cm is immersed in it, Given that the water has a density of 1000kg/m 3, wood has
a density of 900kg/m3, Take g=10m/s2?
a) 1.695N
b) 3.2N
c) 2.26N
d) 1.13N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: Density of water (ρf) = 1000kg/m3
Density of wood (ρw) = 900kg/m3
Since the push or thrust applied by a fluid does not depend on the density of object, so
we will not consider the density of wood. Rather we should focus on the density of water.
g=10m/s2
Radius=3cm
Volume of wooden ball (V) = 4/3πr3=4/3π (0.03 m)3
V=1.13*10 -4
m3
Push (P) = ρf*g*v
P=1000kg/m *10m/s*1.13*10
3 -4
m3
P=1.13N
5. The ON and OFF time of a buzzer can be controlled using PLC control system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ON and OFF time of a buzzer can be controlled using PLC control
system. PLC stands for programmable logic controller. It is a digital computer that can
control electromechanical machines. The ON and OFF time of a buzzer can be easily
controlled through it.
6. Archimedes principle depends on the density of the immersed object.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Archimedes principle does not depend on the density of the immersed object.
It depends on the density of the fluid in which it is being immersed. It also depends on the
volume of the object and acceleration due to gravity.
7. What is the push provided by a hydraulic fluid used in fluid based actuator, if a steel ball
of radius 3cm is immersed in it, Given that the fluid has a density of 2000kg/m 3, Take
g=10m/s2?
a) 5N
b) 3.2N
c) 2.26N
d) 4N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Density of fluid (ρf)=2000kg/m 3
g=10m/s
Radius=3cm
V=1.13*10 -4
m3
Push (P) = ρf*g*v
P=2000kg/m3*10m/s*1.13*10-4 m3
P=2.26N
8. Where will the push provided by a fluid of hydraulic piston will be more? (Consider the
pistons are cylindrical and have same height)
a) Wooden piston of density 900 Kg/m 3
and radius 6 cm
b) Iron piston of density 7850 Kg/m 3 and radius 5 cm
c) Copper piston of density 8940 Kg/m3 and radius 5 cm
d) Glass piston of density 2580 Kg/m 3 and radius 3 cm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The push provided by a fluid of hydraulic piston will be more in a wooden
piston of density 900 Kg/m3 and radius 6 cm. It is so because the push provided by the
fluid does not depend on the density of rather it is directly proportional to the volume of
the object. Since the wooden piston has maximum radius so the volume is also maximum.
9. How many LED’s (Light Emitting Diodes) are present in 7 segment display?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 7 LED’s (Light Emitting Diodes) are present in 7 segment display. These 7
LED’s (Light Emitting Diodes) together form up a “8” like structure which can be used to
display any number from 0 to 9. Each LED can be controlled individually.
10. Generator is a rotary actuator.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generator is not a rotary actuator. An actuator is a machine or mechanical
component of a machine that moves and controls the movement of machine. It can be
anything that controls the mechanism of a system. A rotary actuator produces rotary
motion. But a generator does not provide rotary motion; it provides electricity from
rotational motion. So it is not a rotary actuator.
11. What is the push provided by a fluid used in fluid based actuator, if a plastic ball of
radius 4cm is immersed in it, Given that the fluid has a density of 1100kg/m 3, plastic has
a density of 800kg/m3, Take g= 10m/s2?
a) 1.695N
b) 2.9469N
c) 2.26N
d) 1.13N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
Given: Density of fluid (ρf) = 1100kg/m 3
Density of plastic (ρP) = 800kg/m3
Since the push or thrust applied by a fluid does not depend on the density of object, so
we will not consider the density of plastic. Rather we should focus on the density of fluid.
g=10m/s2
Radius=4cm
Volume of wooden ball (V) = 4/3πr3=4/3π (0.03 m)3
V=2.679*10 -4
m3
Push (P) = ρf*g*v
P=1100kg/m *10m/s*2.679*10
3 -4
m3
P=2.9469N
12. Motor is a rotary actuator.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Motor is a rotary actuator. An actuator is a machine or mechanical
component of a machine that moves and controls the movement of machine. It can be
anything that controls the mechanism of a system. A rotary actuator produces rotary
motion. Example: motor.
13. How many columns of pixel matrix are present in 16*2 display?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 2
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are 16 pixel matrixes present in 16*2 display. A 16*2 display is made
up of 16 columns and 2 rows of pixel matrix. Each pixel matrix is made up of 5*7 numbers
of pixels. In total it has 1120 pixels.
14. How many pixels are there in 16*2 displays?
a) 1000
b) 1200
c) 1120
d) 1100
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 1120 pixels are present in 16*2 displays. 16*2 display has 32 blocks in which
can be used to display any number or character. Each block is made up of 5*7 pixel matrix.
So the total number of pixel will be 32*35 = 1120 pixels.
15. What is the push provided by a hydraulic fluid used in fluid based actuator, if a steel
ball of radius 3cm is immersed in it, Given that the fluid has a density of 1500kg/m 3, Take
g=10m/s2?
a) 1.695N
b) 3.2N
c) 2.26N
d) 4N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Density of fluid (ρf)=1500kg/m 3
g=10m/s2
Radius=3cm
V=1.13*10-4 m3
Push (P) = ρf*g*v
P=1500kg/m *10m/s*1.13*10
3 -4
m3
P=1.695N
1. Which is an electro-pneumatic device?

a) Seven Segment display
b) BO Motor
c) Hydraulic cylinder
d) Lithium battery
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic cylinder is an electro-pneumatic device. Pneumatics refers to the
system or devices that is being controlled or operated by the means of air pressure.
Hydraulic cylinders often use inert fluids.
2. Which actuator does not need any external power source?
a) 3 phase motor
b) Solenoid valve
c) Wax Motor
d) BO motor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wax Motor is a linear actuator does not need any external power source. It
converts thermal energy to mechanical energy. It works on the principle of expansion of
wax when it is converted to liquid form.
3. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in check valves?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is only 1 direction for a fluid to flow in check valves. The movement of
flow of compressed gas or any fluid is unidirectional. The Valve automatically opens when
the fluid enters the inlet with some specific pressure.
4. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in shuttle valves?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are only 2 directions for a fluid to flow in shuttle valves. It allows inlet
from 2 different directions. A dynamic shuttle is used to switch the flow from the inputs.
Fluid flows from the inlet which is experiencing higher pressure.
5. The OPEN and CLOSE time of an electro pneumatic valve can be controlled using PLC
control system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ON and OFF time of a buzzer can be controlled using PLC control
system. PLC stands for programmable logic controller. It is a digital computer that can
control electromechanical machines. The ON and OFF time of a buzzer can be easily
controlled through it.
6. Thermal actuators need electric current for operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal actuators do not need electric current for operation. It is made up of
a cylinder, piston and a thermal sensitive material. When this actuator comes in contact
with heat the thermal sensitive material expands and pushes the piston out.
7. What is the full form DCV in terms of pneumatic control systems?
a) Delicate Control Valve
b) Distance Control Value
c) Directional Control Valve
d) Diameter Control Valve
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Directional Control Valve is the full form DCV in terms of pneumatic control
systems. These directional control valves are used to control the direction of flow of any
compressed gas or fluid.
8. Which valve should be used if there is a need of fluid to flow in 4 directions?
a) Spool valve
b) Shuttle Valve
c) Check valve
d) Rubber valve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spool valve should be used if there is a need of fluid to flow in 4 directions.
It can also be used for bidirectional and tri-directional flow of fluid. Shuttle Valve allows
only two inlets of fluid and Check valve only allows unidirectional flow of fluids.
9. Which valve works on electricity and not on pressure difference?
a) Rubber valve
b) Pilot Valve
c) Check valve
d) Solenoid valve
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Solenoid valve works on electricity and not on pressure difference. When the
electricity passes through the solenoid, it acts as a switch. By manipulating the electrical
signal it can open and close the valve as per the requirement.
10. Which is an example of pressure regulator?
a) R100UD
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) FN2060A-6-06
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: R100UD is an example of pressure regulator. It is a single stage pressure
regulator. It is made up of cast aluminum. It can regulate pressure of oxygen, nitrogen,
propane, compressed air and other natural gasses.
11. Who invented check valve?
a) Norbert wiener
b) Robert Wiener
c) Charles young
d) Frank P. Cotter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Frank P. Cotter invented check valve. He invented the first check valve in the
year 1907. The valve was easy to install, repair and maintain. Further many types of check
valve were invented such as “Tesla valve” invented by Nicola Tesla.
12. Solenoid valves cannot be used for controlling the valve of a liquid flowing through a
channel.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solenoid valves can be used for controlling the valve of a liquid flowing
through a channel. It can be used for controlling the valve of any fluid flowing through a
channel. When current flows through the solenoid, it acts as a switch.
13. Wax motor does not require external electrical power source.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wax motor does not require external electrical power source. It performs
linear actuation by exploiting the phase change behavior of different waxes. When the
waxes melt due to heat, it can expand up to 20% of its volume.
14. What type of motion can be achieved using thermal actuator?
a) Rectilinear
b) Spiral
c) Circular
d) Parabolic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rectilinear motion can be achieved using thermal actuator. It is a non electric
type linear actuating setup which is made up of a cylinder, piston and a thermal sensitive
material. When this actuator comes in contact with heat the thermal sensitive material
expands and pushes the piston out.
15. Which is an example of push pull solenoid electromagnet?
a) R100UD
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) JF-0630B
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: JF-0630B is an example of push pull solenoid electromagnet. It works on 12
volt DC supply with operating current of 1 ampere. It can provide holding force up to 6
Newton. It is used when there is a requirement of a linear actuation. Example: Door locks.
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
View Answer
Answer: c
hydraulic system.
a) Pipes and valves
b) Shafts
c) Motors
d) Flow control valve
View Answer
Answer: a
energy that can either be the linear motion of cylinder or rotary motion of the air motor
shaft. The other sources mentioned in the options are not the sources for the flow of
compressed air.
3. The compressed air is delivered to the pneumatic system through the air compressor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The air compressor draws the air from the atmosphere, compresses it and
delivers the compressed air to the pneumatic system. Compressor drives air from the
atmosphere and the compressed air flow through actuator through pipes and valves.
4. What is the function of the air dryer?
a) Removes dirt
b) Removes moisture
View Answer
Answer: b
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
d) Air lubricator
View Answer
Answer: c
compressed air. It acts as moisture separator to separate and remove the water.
6. Which type of pumps can give discharge even at high pressure?
a) Multistage Pumps
b) Monoblock pumps
c) Rotary pumps
d) Single stage pumps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotary pumps are positive displacement pumps. Rotary pumps have two or
more rotating components. The discharge of rotary components remains almost the same
irrespective of pressure. They can give discharge even at high pressure. In the other
options, the type of pumps mentioned is all non-positive displacement types.
7. Which type of component in the hydraulic system supports less vibration and noise?
b) Oil reservoir
c) Rotatory pumps
d) Pressure gauge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Very less vibration and noise are observed in the case of rotary pumps.
These pumps are compact with very a smaller number of moving components. The flow
control valves, oil reservoir and pressure gauge are the other parts of the hydraulic system
with different functions.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
slower in operation. Hydraulic oils are petroleum based oils, they are inflammable and
a) Vanes
c) Screw
d) Difference between the pressure of inlet and outlet
View Answer
Answer: a
between the vane tips and the casing. Still, there is a little amount of leakage and hence
pumps?
a) Discharge
b) Pressure
c) Speed
d) Weight
View Answer
Answer: d
1. Duplex cylinders contain more than one piston.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Duplex cylinders contain more than one piston. These cylinders may contain
two or more cylinder chambers and pistons. But the piston of any cylinder is not attached
physically. Each piston and cylindrical chambers are internally separated.
2. Which type of cylinder has rod length less than the piston diameter?
a) Double acting cylinders
b) Tie-Rod cylinders
c) Short stroke cylinders
d) Telescopic cylinders
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Short stroke cylinders have rod length less than the piston diameter. These
types of cylinders are short in height but has considerably larger diameter. These cylinders
can produce high amount off linear force from less input fluid pressure.
3. Which is not an example of linear actuator?
a) Screw jack
b) Electric fan
c) Rack and Pinion gear
d) Hydraulic cylinder
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Electric fan is not an example of linear actuator. “Linear Actuators” are those
devices which can perform linear displacement. Any device that creates motion in a
straight line irrespective if the system used is a linear actuator.
4. Which type of cylinders can extend piston from both sides?
c) Welded cylinders
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Double acting cylinders can extend piston from both sides. All other cylinder
types can be extended on one side only. Telescopic cylinders contain series of nested
tubing. Tie-Rod hydraulic cylinders use 4 or more bolts to tie up the head from the base
plate, whereas welded cylinders have welded base and ends.
5. Linear actuators can only be made using hydraulic push system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Linear actuators can be made using many different push systems. It includes
mechanical, electrical, thermal, hydraulic etc. Hydraulic and motor based systems are
widely and most commonly used.
6. Comb drives can be referred as linear actuators.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Comb drives can be referred as linear actuators. They are micro
electromechanical actuators. They use electrostatic forces for the movement of combs.
These combs are electrically conductive, so when a voltage is applied to the combs they
attract each other.
7. Spring return type single acting cylinder is commonly used for tool and object holding
purpose.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spring return type single acting cylinder is not used for tool and object holding
purpose. Spring extend type single acting cylinder is commonly used for tool and object
holding purpose. This configuration is widely because the spring force can firmly hold a
workpiece.
8. Which type of cylinder contains series of nested tubing?
c) Welded cylinders
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Telescopic cylinders contain series of nested tubing. These tubes are made
precisely, each of slightly small diameters than the preceding ones. These cylinders can
provide huge expansion and can contract in surprisingly smaller area.
9. What does PSI stand for in terms of pressure measurement?
a) Pressure squared in inches
b) Pounds per square inch
c) Pressure per square inch
d) Pounds squared in inches
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PSI in terms of pressure measurement stands for Pounds per square inch. It
a unit if pressure measurement. One psi is a pressure equal to one pound force applied
on an area of one square each.
10. Which type of cylinder should be used to generate high pressure in narrow radial
space?
a) Tandem Cylinders
b) Duplex cylinders
c) Short stroke cylinders
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tandem cylinder should be used to generate high pressure in narrow radial
space. These are specially designed cylinders that can generate high amount of pressure
in less radial space but need subsequently large axial space.
11. Which vice is also known as post vice?
a) Face vice
b) Leg vice
c) End vice
d) Tail vice
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Leg vice is also known as post vice. It is generally referred as “Solid Box”. It
gives stability to the setup. It firmly holds the setup by providing support from the ground.
This facilitates the user to easily work on the work piece.
12. Which is an example of linear actuator?
a) Wheels
b) Generator
c) Light emitting diode
d) Hydraulic cylinder
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic cylinder is an example of linear actuator. “Linear Actuators” are
those devices which can perform linear displacement. Any device that creates motion in
a straight line irrespective if the system used is a linear actuator.
13. Tie-Rod cylinder can bear more pressure than welded cylinder.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
14. Which vice is also known as tail vice?
a) Face vice
b) Leg vice
c) End vice
d) Post vice
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: End vice is also known as tail vice. It gives extra stability to the setup. It is
usually placed or attached on the right side of the bench. This is done with the help of a
jaw, which makes a narrow cut on the edge of the benchtop.
15. Which type of hydraulic cylinders use 4 or more bolts to tie up the head from the base
plate?
c) Welded cylinders
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tie-Rod hydraulic cylinders use 4 or more bolts to tie up the head from the
base plate. These bolt run along the entire length of the cylinders surface and holds the
base plate firmly. These base plates can be easily detached and replaced.
1. What is the percentage change in amount of water flowing through a valve in one hour
when originally the rate of flow from the valve was 15m 3/hr which was reduced to 5m 3/hr?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 20%
d) 66.67%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: Original flow rate: 15m 3/hr
Final flow rate: 5m3/hr
Total volume of water flowing through the valve originally: 15m 3
Total volume of water flowing through the narrow valve: 5m 3
Percentage change in amount of water: [(Original-final)/Original]*100
Percentage change in amount of water: [(15-5)/15]*100 => 66.67%
The flow rate reduced by 66.67% of the original rate.
2. What is the rate of flow of water from a cylindrical valve if the cylindrical valve has a
diameter of 10 cm and velocity of water is 5m/s?
a) 3.92 * 10-3m3/s
b) 3.92 * 10-2m3/s
c) 4.92 * 10-2m3/s
d) 4.92 * 10-3m3/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
Given: Diameter=10 cm
Radius = 5 cm or 0.05m
Area of cross section = π*(r)2
Area of cross section = 3.14*(0.05)2=7.85*10-3 m2
Rate of flow = Area of cross section * Velocity of fluid
Rate of flow = 7.85*10-3m2 * 5m/s
Rate of flow = 3.92 * 10-2m3/s.
3. What is the rate of flow of water in Litres per second from a cylindrical valve if the
cylindrical valve has a diameter of 10 cm and velocity of water is 12m/s?
a) 100L/s
b) 127L/s
c) 157L/s
d) 94.2L/s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
Area of cross section = 3.14*(0.05) =7.85*10
2 -3
m2
Rate of flow = 7.85*10-3m2 * 12m/s
Rate of flow = 0.0942m3/s
Now, we know 1m /s=1000L/s
3
Therefore 0.0942m3/s=94.2L/s.
when originally the rate of flow from the valve was 10 m 3/hr which was reduced to 5m3/hr?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 20%
d) 100%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation:
Percentage change in amount of water: [(10-5)/10]*100 => 50%
The flow rate reduced by 50% of the original rate.
5. In “two way ball valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating the ball in
90 degrees.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In “two way ball valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating
the ball in 90 degrees. These are the simplest type and commonly used control valves. It
contains a ball that has a hole bored through it which used to turn ON and OFF the flow
through the valve.
6. In “Butterfly valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating the obstructer
in 90 degrees.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In “Butterfly valves” the flow can be switched and controlled by rotating the
obstructer in 90 degrees. It is similar to the ball valves but fluid obstructer used in this is a
flat disc rather than a ball. This disc is used to turn ON and OFF the flow through the valve.
7. Which type of valves contains tapered cylindrical obstructer?
a) Butterfly valves
b) Two way ball valves
c) Three way ball valves
d) Plug Valves
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Plug Valves contains tapered cylindrical obstructer. Two way and Three way
ball valves contains a ball that has a hole bored through it which acts as an obstructer.
Butterfly valves contains a flat disc which acts as an obstructer.
8. What is the velocity of water from a cylindrical valve if the cylindrical valve has a
diameter of 10 cm and rate of flow of water in Litres per second is 157L/s?
a) 40m/s
b) 30m/s
c) 20m/s
d) 30m/s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:
Area of cross section = 3.14*(0.05) =7.85*10
2 -3
m2
Rate of flow of water = 157L/s
157L/s = 7.85*10-3m2 * Velocity of fluid
Now, we know 1m3/s=1000L/s
Therefore, Velocity of fluid = 20m/s.
9. Which type of valves contains a flat disc obstructer?
a) Butterfly valves
b) Two way ball valves
c) Three way ball valves
d) Plug Valves
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Butterfly valves contain a flat disc obstructer. Plug Valves contains tapered
cylindrical which acts as an obstructer. Two way and Three way ball valves contains a ball
that has a hole bored through it which acts as an obstructer.
10. How many ports does a 3 way valve have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A 3 way valve has total 3 ports. Generally it is used when a single incoming
input fluid has to be distributed into two directions. In this type of configuration, one port is
used as input port and other two ports are used as exit ports.
when originally the rate of flow from the valve was 10m 3/hr which was reduced to 8m 3/hr?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 20%
d) 800%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:
Total volume of water flowing through the valve originally: 10m3
Percentage change in amount of water: [(10-8)/10]*100 => 20%
The flow rate reduced by 20% of the original rate.
12. How many exit ports does a 2 way valve have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A 2 way valve has 1 exit port. It has total two ports, one entry port and one
exit port. These ports are not fixed and can be interchanged. Both the port are separated
by a different types obstructers.
13. Pneumatic actuator based valves use air to generate rotational force.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pneumatic actuator based valves use air to generate rotational force. This
rotational force is used to turn the ball, disc or cylindrical type obstructer of the valves. The
torque generated is directly proportional to the air pressure provided.
14. What is the rate of flow of water from a cylindrical valve if the cylindrical valve has a
diameter of 10 cm and velocity of water is 10m/s?
a) 3.92 * 10-3 m3/s
b) 3.92 * 10-2 m3/s
c) 7.85 * 10 -2
m3/s
d) 7.85 * 10 -3
m3/s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:
Given: Diameter =10 cm
Area of cross section = π*(r) 2
Area of cross section = 3.14*(0.05)2=7.85*10-3 m2

Rate of flow = 7.85*10-3m2 * 10m/s
Rate of flow = 7.85* 10-2 m3/s.
15. What is the final amount of water flowing through a valve in one hour when originally
the rate of flow from the valve was 10m 3/hr which was reduced by 80%?
a) 3m3/hr
b) 4m3/hr
c) 5m3/hr
d) 2m3/hr
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
Reduction in flow = 80%
Percentage change in amount of water: [(10-final)/10]*100 => 80/100
Final rate of flow of water = 2m3/hr.
1. Which type of motion is said to be covered by an object, moving back and forth in the
same track?
a) Rectilinear type
b) Oscillatory type
c) Circular type
d) Helical type
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The motion covered by the object is said to be Oscillatory type, in this the
object moves back and forth in the same track. The movement can be in parabolic or
straight path but the object has to repeat the motion in the same path.
2. What is the type of motion covered by a ball, when thrown at an angle of 45 degree with
the horizontal under gravity?
a) Rectilinear motion
b) Curvilinear motion
c) Oscillatory motion
d) Rotational motion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The motion covered by a ball, when thrown at an angle of 45 degree with the
horizontal under gravity is curvilinear motion. This type of motion is also called as projectile
motion.
3. What is the type of motion covered by a particle in a plane?
a) One-Dimensional motion
b) Two-Dimensional motion
c) Three-Dimensional motion
d) Four-Dimensional motion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The particle moving in the plane is said to cover two-dimensional motion.
Since a particle has no dimensions, and a plane has only dimensions (i.e) length and
breadth, therefore the type of motion is two dimensional.
4. What does the gradient of a displacement time graph depict?
a) Velocity
b) Revolutions
c) Acceleration
d) Speed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gradient of a displacement time graph depicts the velocity of the object. It
shows how much displacement is covered by an object in certain interval of time. The
gradient of a distance time graph depicts the speed of the object.
5. The graph of a displacement time graph depicting an object at rest is parallel to X-axis.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The graph of a displacement time graph depicting an object at rest is parallel
to X-axis. It is so because at any interval of time the displacement of the object is zero but
the time increases constantly .
6. Translatory motion and rectilinear motions are same.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Translatory motion and rectilinear motions are not same. In rectilinear
motion, the object has to move in a straight line. But in translator motion, all the points of
the object has to move in same direction, be it in a straight line or in any other orientation.
7. What does RPM stand for?
a) Revolution per milliseconds
b) Revolution per minute
c) Rotation per minute
d) Rotation per millisecond
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: RPM stands for revolution per minute. It is the most commonly used unit in
motor appliances and motor vehicles for denoting the speed of the crank shaft in the
engine.
8. A object is said to be in motion if it’s_______ changes with respect to time.
a) Permittivity
b) Permeability
c) Size
d) Position
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A object is said to be in motion if it’s position changes with respect to time.
This is the most common and widely used definition used to define motion. For an object
to be in motion the position of an object recorded at different intervals of time should be
different.
9. Rectilinear motion refers to a motion of an object in ________
a) Straight line
b) Circular Path
c) Tangential Path
d) Non-Linear path
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rectilinear motion refers to a motion of an object in straight line. When an
object moves in a straight line the motion is said to be rectilinear motion of that object.
10. Which is a motion sensor?
a) Piezoelectric sensor
b) PIR sensor
c) MPU 6050
d) Node MCU
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PIR sensor is a motion sensor. PIR stands for Passive Infrared. This sensor
can detect the presence of an object if it is in motion in a given range. The infrared emitted
by warm objects is detected by these sensors, which is used to estimate the position of
object.
11. What does the gradient of a distance time graph depict?
a) Velocity
b) Revolutions
c) Acceleration
d) Speed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gradient of a distance time graph depicts the speed of the object. It shows
how much distance is covered by an object in certain interval of time. The gradient of a
displacement time graph depicts the velocity of the object.
12. What is the nature of graph of displacement time graph depicting an object with
uniform velocity?
a) Constant
b) Parabolic
c) Hyperbolic
d) Exponential
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The displacement time graph depicting an object with uniform velocity is
constant. It is because, in uniform motion, the displacement covered by the object is same
in equal interval of time.
13. What is the SI unit of velocity?
a) m/s2
b) m/s
c) km/hour
d) km/hour2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The SI (International System) unit of velocity is m/s. The SI (International
System) unit of speed is also m/s. The SI (International System) unit of acceleration is
m/s2.
14. What does the gradient of a velocity-time graph depict?
a) Velocity
b) Revolutions
c) Acceleration
d) Speed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gradient of a velocity-time graph depicts the acceleration of the object. It
shows how much is the velocity an object in different intervals of time. The gradient of a
speed-time graph also depicts the acceleration of the object.
15. What does the area under velocity-time graph depict?
a) Velocity
b) Displacement
c) Acceleration
d) Speed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Area under velocity-time graph depicts the displacement of the object. It
shows how much the object has displaced in different intervals of time. The area speed-
time graph depicts the distance covered by the object.
Sanfoundry Global Edu
1. What is Degree of freedom?

a) Total number of observations
b) Total number of independent constraints
c) Total number of observations minus the total number of independent constraints
d) Total number of independent constraints minus the total number of observations
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Degree of Freedom is the total number of observations minus the total
number of independent constraints. It defines the mobility and the possible number of
movements that can be achieved by a system.
2. Degree of freedom is denoted by which Greek symbol?
a) α(alpha)
b) λ(lamda)
c) v(mu)
d) β(beta)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: “Degrees of Freedom” is denoted by the Greek symbol ν (mu). The
abbreviation “d.f” is commonly used to denote the degree of freedom in most of the books
and writings. Degree of freedom is a quantity that represents the mobility of a system.
3. What is the statistical formula of degree of freedom? (where “df” represents degree of
freedom and “n” represents the number of values in the sample set)
a) df = n2
b) df = 2*n
c) df = n-1
d) df = (n2)-1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The statistical formula of degree of freedom is given by df=n-1 (where “df”
represents degree of freedom and “n” represents the number of values in the sample set).
In statistics degree of freedom represents that can be varied without violating the
constraints.
4. What is the degree of freedom of a system, that has 5 variables and only 2 equations
are known?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 1
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of equations
from number of variables. Degree of freedom is the number of independent variables that
we can vary without violating the constraint. Here degree of freedom = 5(no. Of variable)
– 2(no. of equation); therefore degree of freedom = 3.
5. Degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of equations from number
of variables.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of freedom can be found out by subtracting number of equations from
number of variables. Degree of freedom is the number of independent variables that can
be varied without violating the constraints. So by subtracting number of equations from
number of variables we can get the number of independent variables.
6. The degree of freedom of all the gases is same.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The degree of freedom of all the gases is not same. It depends on the number
of atoms present in a molecule. The degree of freedom for mono-atomic gases is 3, for
di-atomic gases it is 5 and for tri-atomic gases it is 6.
7. How many degrees of freedom are present in a bionic arm?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bionic arm consists of 7 degrees of freedom. The 7 degrees of freedom
include shoulder joint that has 3 degrees of freedom, elbow joint has 1 degree of freedom,
forearm with 1 degree of freedom and wrist with 2 degrees of freedom.
8. What will be the degree of freedom for two given independent samples whose sizes are
N1 and N2 respectively?
a) N1+N2
b) N1-N2
c) (N1+N2)-2
d) (N1-N2)/2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of freedom for two given independent samples whose sizes are
N1 and N2 respectively is given by (N1+N2)-2. This method is mostly used while statistical
calculating of the degree of freedom.
9. What is the degree of freedom of mono-atomic gases?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of freedom of mono-atomic gases is 3. Mono-atomic gases have
only one atom in the molecule. This molecule can move in any direction in the space;
therefore it has 3 degrees of freedom.
are known?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 2
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
are known?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 1
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
12. What is the degree of freedom of di-atomic gases?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The degree of freedom of di-atomic gases is 5. Di-atomic gases have two
atoms in the molecule. This molecule can move in any direction in the space; therefore it
has 3 translational degrees of freedom. Also it can rotate in clockwise or anti clockwise
direction which gives it additional 2 rotational degrees of freedom. So it has total 5 degrees
of freedom.
13. What is the degree of freedom of tri-atomic gases?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom of tri -atomic gases is 6. Tri -atomic gases have three
atoms in the molecule. This molecule can rotate in clockwise or anti clockwise direction
from any of the three co-ordinate axis. So it has total 6 degrees of freedom.
14. What is the degree of freedom of Ozone?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom of Ozone gases is 6. The six degrees of freedom
constitute of three rotational degrees of freedom and three translational degrees of
freedom. Ozone is a tri-atomic molecule and the atoms are arranged in non-linear fashion.
15. What is the degree of freedom of Oxygen molecule?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The degree of freedom of Oxygen molecule is 5. The five degrees of freedom
constitute of two rotational degrees of freedom and three translational degrees of freedom.
The molecular formula of oxygen is O2, so it a diatomic molecule and hence the degree
of freedom is 5.
1. Which Equation can be used to determine the “degree of freedom” of a system?

a) Gruebler’s equation
b) Fourier Transform
c) Simon’s equation
d) Maxwell’s equation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gruebler’s equation can be used to determine the “degree of freedom” of a
system. This equation is used to determine the degree of freedom of planar linkages that
are joined with a common joint.
2. Which combination of pairs forms compound joints?
a) Higher pair-Higher pair combination
b) Higher pair-Lower pair combination
c) Lower pair-Lower pair combination
d) Universal pair-Lower pair combination
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A compound joint is a combination of higher pair and lower pair. These pairs
are combined according to the requirement of the design. The arrangement of these
combinations can be altered to obtain robust joints.
3. Which kinematics is used to calculate the joint parameter which will be used to place at
the end of the kinematic chain?
a) Forward Kinematics
b) Reverse Kinematics
c) Inverse Kinematics
d) Backward Kinematics
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Inverse kinematics is used to calculate the joint parameter which will be used
to place at the end of the kinematic chain. It is a mathematical process that is generally
used in animating the skeleton of a character.
4. Which kinematics is used to calculate the position of end-effector from some specified
values?
a) Forward Kinematics
b) Reverse Kinematics
c) Inverse Kinematics
d) Backward Kinematics
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Forward kinematics is used to calculate the position of end-effector from
some specified values. It is a kinematic equation, generally used in robots for the gripping
purpose of any object.
5. Gruebler’s equation can be used to determine degree of freedom of non planar linkages.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gruebler’s equation cannot be used to determine degree of freedom of non
planar linkages. It can be used to determine the degree of freedom of planar linkages that
are joined with a common joint.
6. Cam joint is a lower pair.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cam joint is not a lower pair. It is an example of higher pair. In these types
of pairs the contact between the members has a line or point geometry. These pairs
experience high stress at the point of contact due to very less area of contact.
7. Hinge joint is an example of higher pair.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hinge joint is not an example of higher pair. It is an example of lower pair.
The members of lower pairs have common mating surface. Hinge joint has a considerable
amount of contact area, so it is an example of lower pair.
8. What does degree of freedom in a kinematic chain denotes?
a) Total parameters of kinematic chain
b) Length of kinematic chain
c) Joints in kinematic chain
d) Type of kinematic chain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The degree of freedom represents parameters that are used to define the
configuration of a kinematic chain. It also represents the mobility or the total possible
movements of a kinematic chain.
9. What is the joint called if only four links are joined at a point?
a) Binary joint
b) Ternary joint
c) Quaternary joint
d) Quad-joint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When only four links are joined at a point then the joint is known as
Quaternary joint. When only three links are joined at a point then the joint is known as
Ternary joint. When only two links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Binary
joint. Bi-joint does not exist.
10. Who is termed as the father of kinematics?
a) Nick brown
b) Franz Reuleaux
c) Stefencolumbus
d) Billy Stern
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Franz Reuleaux is termed as the father of kinematics. He was German
mechanical engineer and a lecturer at the Berlin Royal Technical Academy born on
September 30, 1829. He was later declared as the president of the academy.
11. What is the joint called if only three links are joined at a point?
a) Binary joint
b) Ternary joint
c) Quaternary
d) Tri-joint
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When only three links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Ternary
joint. When only two links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Binary joint. When
only four links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Quaternary joint. Tri-joint
does not exist.
12. Members of lower pairs have line geometry.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Members of lower pairs do not have line geometry. They have plane
geometry. They have a large area of contact; therefore the stress at the area of contact is
less. Members of higher pairs have line or point geometry.
13. Lower pairs are the pairs that are joined together with surface contact between them.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lower pairs are the pairs that are joined together with surface contact
between them. There are two types of pair’s lower pairs and higher pairs. The members
of higher pairs have a line or point geometry.
14. Which equation represents Grubler’s equation? (where “F”represents Degrees of
freedom, n represents number of links, l represents Number of lower pairs, h represents
Number of higher pairs)
a) F = 3(n-1)-2l-h
b) F = 2(n-1)-2l-h
c) F = 2(n-1)-3l-h
d) F = 3(n-1)-2l-2h
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: F = 3(n-1)-2l-h represents Grubler’s equation. (where “F”represents Degrees
of freedom, n represents number of links, l represents Number of lower pairs, h represents
Number of higher pairs). This equation is used to determine the Degree of freedom of a
system.
15. What is the joint called if only two links are joined at a point?
a) Binary joint
b) Ternary joint
c) Quaternary joint
d) Bi-joint
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When only two links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Binary
joint. When only three links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Ternary joint.
When only four links are joined at a point then the joint is known as Quaternary joint. Bi-
joint does not exist.
1. Who invented Abalakov Cam?

a) GrueblerAbalakov
b) Vitaly Abalakov
c) Simons Abalakov
d) Reiston Abalakov
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vitaly Abalakov was the inventor of Abalakov Cam. Vitaly Abalakov was a
Soviet chemical engineer and a mountaineer who invented the mounted climbing
equipment Abalakov Cam.
2. What is the full form of SLCD?
a) Spring loaded camming device
b)Spring loading camming device
c) Spring leaver camming device
d) Straight leaver camming device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SLCD stands for “Spring loaded camming device”. They are rock climbing or
mountaineering protection devices. It constitutes of several cams which are mounted on
a common or adjacent axles which favours the rock climbers to climb easily.
3. Which cam is also known as barrel cam?
a) Disc cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Face cam
d) Snail drop cam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cylindrical cam is also known as barrel cam. In these type of cams the
followers rides over the cylindrical surface of the cam. They are generally used to convert
rotational motion to linear motion.
4. Which cam is also known as radial cam?
a) Disc cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Face cam
d) Snail drop cam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Disc cam is also known as radial cam. This cam is also generally referred as
plate cams. These cams are cut-outs of flat metal plates. The follower moves on a plane
which is perpendicular to the camshaft axis.
5. The follower of a cylindrical cam is permanently attached to the cylinder surface.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The follower of a cylindrical cam is not permanently attached to the cylinder
surface. The follower just touches the cylindrical surface and has a physical contact. The
follower rides on the surface of the cam.
6. Cam joint is an example of lower pair.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cam joint is not a lower pair. It is an example of higher pair. In these types
of pairs the contact between the members has a line or point geometry. These pairs
experience high stress at the point of contact due to very less area of contact.
7. Which is the smallest circle that can be drawn on a cam profile?
a) Prime circle
b) Base circle
c) Addendum circle
d) Dedendum circle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Base circle is the smallest circle that can be drawn on a cam profile. Prime
circle is the circle that passes through the pith curve and its radius is larger than the base
circle. Addendum and Dedendum circles are drawn in a gear.
8. What is the nature of the movement of follower in the constant lead cam?
a) Linear
b) Parabolic
c) Circular
d) Elliptical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The nature of the movement of follower in the constant lead cam is linear.
The displacement of the lead is linear with respect to the rotation of the cam. In this type
of configuration the lead remains stationary and just touches the surface of the rotating
cam which gives it a linear motion.
9. Which cam follower experiences least sliding motion?
a) Knife edged
b) Roller Follower
c) Mushroom Follower
d) Flat faced Follower
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Roller Follower experiences least sliding motion. It is so because all other
cam followers are stationary followers whereas roller followers have a roller built on it. So
most of the sliding motion gets converted to rolling motion.
10. What is the nature of movement of the scroll plate present in the scroll chuck?
a) Linear
b) Parabolic
c) Circular
d) Elliptical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The nature of the movement of the scroll plate present in the scroll chuck is
linear. The displacement of the lead is linear with respect to the rotation of the cam. It is a
type of constant lead cam. In this type of configuration the lead remains stationary and
just touches the surface of the rotating cam which gives it a linear motion.
11. Which type of cam is used in stereo phonograph?
a) Heart shaped cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Face cam
d) Snail drop cam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Face cam is used in stereo phonograph. Face cams have followers rotating
on the face of a disc. In stereo phonograph a disc is placed on which a constant lead
follower rides. This follower acts as a tone arm helps in producing music from the
phonograph.
12. Pin tumbler lock is an example of cylindrical cam.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pin tumbler lock is not an example of cylindrical cam. It is an example of
linear cam. Linear cams are those types of cam in which the cam element moves in a
straight line rather than rotating. In “Pin tumbler locks” the key moves straight inside the
lock and the stationary follower rides over it.
13. The motion generated by a face cam is perpendicular to the motion of the rotation of
the cam.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The motion generated by a face cam is not perpendicular to the motion of
the rotation of the cam. It is parallel to the rotation of the cam. Face cams have followers
rotating on the face of a disc; therefore the cam as well as the follower generated motion
in same fashion.
14. Which cams are also known as drop cams?
a) Linear cams
b) Cylindrical cams
c) Face cams
d) Snail cams
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Snail cams are also known as drop cams. These cams have a snail like
structure which is why they are called so. Also when it rotates the constant lead follower
experiences a sudden drop due to the structure of cam which is why it is also called as
drop cam.
15. Which cam is used in ordinary key locks?
a) Linear cams
b) Cylindrical cams
c) Face cams
d) Snail cams
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Linear cam is used in ordinary key locks. Linear cams are those types of cam
in which the cam element moves in a straight line rather than rotating. In “Key locks” the
key moves straight inside the lock and the stationary follower rides over it.
1. What is the module of a gear if its pitch diameter is 10mm and it contains 5 teeth?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Pitch diameter = 10mm
No. Of teeth=5 teeth
Module=Pitch diameter/No. Of teeth
Module=>10/5 =2.
2. What is the pitch of a gear if the gear contains 30 teeth and diameter of the gear is 6
inches?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Diameter=6 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/Diameter
Pitch=30/6=5.
3. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 20 N and radius of the
gear is 1m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 20Nm
d) 2.55Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Tangential force=20N
Radius of the gear=1m
Torque=tangential force (F)*Radius(R)
Torque=20*1=>20Nm.
4. What is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm and the tangential
force is 5N?
a) 5m
b) 15m
c) 10m
d) 4m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Diameter=6 inches
Pitch=30/6 = 5.
5. The pitch of a gear is defined as the number of teeth per unit pitch circle radius.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pitch of a gear is not the number of teeth per unit pitch circle radius. It is
defined as the number of teeth per unit pitch circle diameter. The diameter is taken in
inches.
6. The radial distance between root circle and pitch circle is called addendum.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The radial distance between root circle and pitch circle is not called
addendum. The radial distance between root circle and pitch circle is called dedendum.
Radial distance between addendum circle and pitch circle is called addendum.
7. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has 15 teeth and driven gear
has 5 teeth?
a) 2:1
b) 3:1
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth of driver gear=15
No. Of teeth of driven gear=5
Velocity ratio=No. of teeth of driver gear/No. of teeth of driven gear
Velocity ratio => 15/5=3:1.
8. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 10N and radius of the gear
is 0.5m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Tangential force=10N
Radius of the gear=0.5m
Torque=tangential force (F)*Radius(R)
Torque=10*0.5 => 5Nm.
force is 5N?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 2m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 4m is the radius of a gear, if torque generated by the gear is 20Nm and the
tangential force is 5N. Since the formula for torque(T) is tangential force (F)*Radius(R),
so radius=Torque(T)/Tangential force(F) which gives radius = 20Nm/5m => 4m.
10. What is the module of a gear if its pitch diameter is 15mm and it contains 3 teeth?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Pitch diameter = 15mm
Module=Pitch diameter/No. Of teeth
Module=>15/3=5.
11. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has 20 teeth and driven gear
has 10 teeth?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
No. Of teeth of driver gear=20
No. Of teeth of driven gear=10
Velocity ratio=No. of teeth of driver gear/No. of teeth of driven gear
Velocity ratio => 20/10=2:1.
12. What is the speed ratio of two gears if the speed of the driver gear has 20 km/hr and
driven gear has 10km/hr?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Speed of the driver gear=20km/hr
Speed of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Speed ratio=speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
Speed ratio=>20/10=2:1.
13. What is the speed ratio of two gears if the speed of the driver gear has 25 km/hr and
driven gear has 10km/hr?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Speed of the driver gear=25km/hr
Speed of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Speed ratio=speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
Speed ratio=>25/10=5:2.
14. What is the train value of a gear train if the velocity ratio is 2:5?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: velocity ratio=2:5
Train value=1/(velocity ratio)
Train value=1/(2:5)=5:2.
a) 2:1
b) 1:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
Given: velocity ratio=2:1
Train value=1/(velocity ratio)
1. What is the velocity ratio of a gear train if the train value is 2:5?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
Given: Train value velocity ratio=2:5
Velocity ratio=1/( Train value)
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given: Train value velocity ratio=1:5
Train value=1/( Velocity ratio)
3. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has angular velocity of 20m/s
and driven gear has angular velocity of 10m/s?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=20km/hr
Angular velocity of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Velocity ratio= speed of the driver gear/ speed of the driven gear
Velocity ratio=>20/10=2:1.
4. What is the angular velocity of driven gear if the driver gear has angular velocity of
30m/s and velocity ratio of two gears is 3:2?
a) 10m/s
b) 20m/s
c) 30m/s
d) 40m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=30 km/hr
Velocity ratio= speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
3/2=30/Angular velocity of the driven gear
Angular velocity of the driven gear=20m/s.
5. Which gear cannot connect two parallel shafts?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Double helical gear
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bevel gear cannot connect two parallel shafts. It is used to transmit torque
or power between shafts that are not parallel to each other. Generally it is used to transmit
power between perpendicular shafts.
6. Spur gears can transmit power between perpendicular shafts.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Spur gears cannot transmit power between perpendicular shafts. These are
simplest type of gear. It can transmit power between parallel shafts. Bevel gears are used
to transmit power between perpendicular shafts.
7. Which gear can be used to transmit rectilinear motion?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Rack and pinion gear
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rack and pinion gear can be used to transmit rectilinear motion. This setup
contains a straight rack and a circular spur gear. When the spur gear moves, it drives the
rack in rectilinear fashion.
8. Which gear train is also called as “Sun and planet gear train”?
a) Simple gear train
b) Reverted gear train
c) Compound gear train
d) Epicyclic gear train
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Epicyclic gear train is also called as “Sun and planet gear train”. It is called
so because the driven gear revolves around the driver gear when the gear moves. The
driver and the driven gear are connected to each other.
9. Which gear train contains more than one gear in a single shaft?
b) Helical gear train
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Compound gear train contains more than one gear in a single shaft. The size
of the gears may or may not be same, but a single shaft must contain more than one gear
to be called as compound gear train.
10. In reverted gear train, the input and output gears should be co-axial.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In reverted gear train, the input and output gears should be co-axial.
Reverted gear train is a type of compound gear train, where the shaft of the driver gear
and driven gear must be parallel to each other.
11. Which gear train contains only one gear in a single shaft and the driven gear does not
revolve driven gear around it?
b) Reverted gear train
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Simple gear train contains only one gear in a single shaft and the driven gear
does not revolve driven gear around it. It is the mist simple and most commonly used gear
train. The shafts of driver and driven gear are also parallel to each other.
12. What is the velocity ratio of a gear train if the train value is 2:7?
a) 2:1
b) 2: 7
c) 7:2
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Train value velocity ratio=2:7
Velocity ratio=1/( Train value)
13. What is the velocity ratio of two gears if the driver gear has angular velocity of 15m/s
and driven gear has angular velocity of 10m/s?
a) 2:1
b) 3:2
c) 4:3
d) 5:1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Angular velocity of the driver gear=15km/hr
Angular velocity of the driven gear = 10km/hr
Velocity ratio=speed of the driver gear/speed of the driven gear
Velocity ratio=>15/10=3:2.
14. Reverted gear train is also called as planetary gear train.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reverted gear train is not called as planetary gear train. Planetary gear train
is the other name of epicyclic gear train. They are called so because the driven gear
revolves around the driver gear like the planets around moon.
15. Rack and pinion gear can be termed as linear actuator.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rack and pinion gear can be termed as linear actuator. Linear actuators are
devices that can perform rectilinear motion. When the pinion is held stationary and
revolved then the rack performs rectilinear motion.
1. Who invented Ratchet wrench?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Abalakov
c) Robert Owen
d) Robert Abalakov
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Robert Owen invented Ratchet wrench. Ratchet wrench is also known as
socket wrench. It is widely used hand tool made for tightening or loosening of nuts and
bolts present in furniture, electronics equipment etc.
2. What is the purpose of pawl, when it is used against a ratchet which is attached to a
shaft?
a) It allows unidirectional motion of shaft
b) It allows bidirectional motion of shaft
c) It does not allow motion of shaft
d) It is used to create additional friction force for the shaft
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The purpose of pawl, when it is used against a ratchet which is attached to
a shaft is that; it allows unidirectional motion of shaft. It restricts the motion in other
direction. When the shaft tries to move in other direction then the pawl encounters the
steeper slope of the ratchet which completely stops the rotational motion.
3. What is the minimum number of tooth, a ratchet should have?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is not necessary for a ratchet to always have toothed surface. So the
minimum number of tooth, a ratchet should have is zero. The surface of these ratchets is
made with materials that have high coefficient of friction.
4. Which ratchets are often called as roller drive ratchets?
a) 72 teeth ratchet
b) Stepless ratchets
c) Round ratchet
d) Flip ratchet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stepless ratchets are often called as roller drive ratchets. They are also
popularly known as gearless ratchets. The name itself suggests that they don’t have teeth.
These ratchets are often used during the tightening or loosening of very small and slippery
nuts and bolts.
5. The tooth of a ratchet is symmetrical.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The tooth of a ratchet is asymmetrical. Ratchets are toothed-wheels similar
to the structure of gears; but they have asymmetrical tooth unlike gears. On one side of
the tooth the slope is moderate while the other side has steeper slope.
6. The movement of the ratchet can be locked by pawl if it moves in opposite direction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The movement of the ratchet can be locked by pawl if it moves in opposite
direction. Ratchets have asymmetrical tooth unlike gears; on one side of the tooth the
slope is moderate while the other side has steeper slope. When the ratchet moves in
opposite direction the pawl encounters the steep side of the tooth; therefore it cannot slide
further and gets locked.
7. What is the maximum distance, a pawl can travel during the backward motion of a
ratchet?
a) It is equal to the distance between two alternating teeth
b) It is equal to the distance between two adjacent teeth
c) It is equal to the radius of the ratchet
d) It is equal to the perimeter of the ratchet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum distance, a pawl can travel during the backward motion of a
ratchet is equal to the distance between two adjacent teeth. When the ratchet moves in
opposite direction the pawl encounters the steep side of the tooth; therefore it cannot slide
further and gets locked. So the maximum distance it can travel is the distance between
two adjacent teeth.
8. Who invented Ratchet wheel, which was further used in power loom?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Abalakov
c) Robert Owen
d) William Radcliffe
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: William Radcliffe invented Ratchet wheel, which was further used in power
loom. He was born on the year 1760. He invented the ratchet wheel for his power loom
which moved the cloth piece forward automatically.
9. What is the purpose of pawl, when it is used against a spur gear which is attached to a
shaft?
a) It allows unidirectional motion of shaft
b) It allows bidirectional motion of shaft
c) It does not allow motion of shaft
d) It is used to create additional friction force for the shaft
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The purpose of pawl, when it is used against a spur gear which is attached
to a shaft is that; it does not allow motion of shaft. It will restrict the motion in both
directions. When the shaft tries to move in any of direction then the pawl encounters the
steeper slope of the spur gear which completely stops the rotational motion.
10. What does “12-point” indicates when the term 12 point reversible ratchet is used?
a) Its diameter is 12
b) Its radius is 12
c) It has 12 teeth
d) Its pitch is 12
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the term 12 point reversible ratchet is used,the term “12-point”
indicates that the ratchet or the gear mechanism used in the device has 12 teeths. The
more the number of teeth; the smaller movements a device can achieve.
11. Ratchet screw driver can apply turning force in one direction only.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ratchet screw driver can apply turning force in one direction only. They are
made in such a way that their mechanism allows it apply turning force in one direction
only. Whereas it can move freely in opposite direction.
12. Backlash of a ratchet is the maximum distance covered by the pawl when the ratchet
moves in opposite direction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Backlash of a ratchet is the not maximum distance covered by the pawl when
the ratchet moves in opposite direction. It refers to the motion, when the ratchet moves in
opposite direction and the pawl covers the maximum distance.
13. It is not necessary to have teeth on the surface of the ratchet.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is not necessary to have teeth on the surface of the ratchet. For reducing
the backlash, often toothless ratchets are used. The surface of these ratchets is made
with materials that have high coefficient of friction.
14. Which ratchets are often called as reversible ratchets?
a) 72 teeth ratchet
b) Stepless ratchets
c) 3 way ratchet
d) Flip ratchet
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 3 way ratchets are often called as reversible ratchets. These ratchets
facilitate the customer with three different configurations. One configuration will disengage
the ratchet configuration while the other two configurations allow the movement of the
ratchet in either clockwise or anti-clockwise direction.
15. What is the difference between ratchet and spur gear?
a) Ratchets have bigger diameter than spur gear
b) Ratchets have lesser diameter than spur gear
c) Ratchets have asymmetrical tooth but spur gear have symmetrical tooth
d) Ratchets have symmetrical tooth but spur gear have asymmetrical tooth
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The difference between ratchet and spur gear is that Ratchets have
asymmetrical tooth but spur gear have symmetrical tooth. The asymmetrical shape of the
tooth allows pawl to restrict the bidirectional movement of the ratchet.
1. Which among the following operations does not use belt drives?
a) Mining
b) Logging
c) Road construction
d) Bicycles
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Applications such as mining, Logging, Road construction and many other
applications make use of belt drives including industrial applications. Bicycles are
constructed with the help of chain drives.
2. Which among the following is a type of belt drive?
a) Silent
b) Roller
c) Open
d) Pintle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Open belt drive is a type of belt drive in which both the pulleys are driven and
driving rotate in the same direction. The angle of contact is less. The other options are
examples of chain drives.
3. The angle of contact is greater for cross belt drives.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle of contact is greater for cross belt drives. This is because in case
of cross belt drives both driven and the driving pulley rotates in opposite directions.
4. Cars with interference engines use ____
a) timing belts
b) serpentine belts
c) chain drives
d) V belts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cars with interference engines uses timing belts which connects the
crankshaft and camshaft which is used to keep them in sync. The other mentioned drives
are not used for interference engines.
5. Which among the following is an advantage of using belt drives over chain drives?
a) Efficiency
b) Noise
c) Cost
d) Durability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The greatest disadvantage of using chain drive is that it produces noise which
can overcome by the use of belt drives. The other factors such as cost, durability and
efficiency are good for chain drives.
6. The angle of contact is greater for open belt drives.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The angle of contact is greater for cross belt drives. This is because in case
of cross belt drives both driven and the driving pulley rotates in opposite directions.
7. The amount of power delivered does not depends on ____
a) velocity of belt
b) cost
c) tension
d) arc of contact
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of power delivered does not depend on the cost of the belt. The
velocity of the belt, Tension and Arc the important factors on which the amount of power
delivered depends upon.
8. Which among the following depends upon the friction between the belt and pulley?
a) Positive belts
b) Synchronous belts
c) Friction drive
d) Modern belts
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Friction drives depends upon the friction between the belt and pulley for
transmitting power. V belts have friction multiplying effect and flat belts are the purest form
of friction drives.
9. Which among the following has a toothed profile?
a) Synchronous belts
b) Modern belts
c) Link-type belts
d) Friction drive
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Synchronous belts have a toothed profile with the corresponding groove in
the pulleys and it was the first teeth profile used on drives. It was of a trapezoidal shape.
10. What is the speed of medium drive?
a) 1000m/s
b) 22m/s
c) 100m/s
d) 500m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Medium drives are used to transmit power at the speed of from 10m/s to
22m/s. Light drives are used to transmit small power at belt speed up to about 10m/s.
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1. What is the pitch of a gear if the gear contains 24 teeth and radius of the gear is 6
inches?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Diameter=2*Radius
Diameter=2*6=12 inches
Pitch=Number of teeth/ Diameter
Pitch=24/12=2.
2. What is the number of teeth in a gear if pitch is 3.33 and radius of the gear is 3 inches?
a) 20
b) 13
c) 14
d) 15
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Diameter=2*Radius
3.33 = Number of teeth/6
Number of teeth=6*3.33=>19.98
Now round off the value to the nearest decimal value which gives Number of teeth = 20.
3. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 20 N and radius of the
gear is 0.5m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given: Tangential force=20 N
Radius of the gear = 0.5m
Torque = Tangential force*radius of the gear
Torque=20*0.5 => 10Nm.
force is 10N?
a) 5m
b) 15m
c) 10m
d) 2m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
torque generated by the gear=20Nm
tangential force=10N
torque(T)=tangential force (F)*Radius(R)
so radius=Torque(T)/Tangential force(F)
radius=20Nm/10m=>2m.
5. Chain moves over belt drives.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Chain does not move over belt drives. It moves over gear drives. These gear
drives constitute of spike like structures called teeth. These teeth get into the empty
spaces of the chain and transmit torque.
6. Belt drives can slip.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Belt drives can slip. Since friction plays very important role in transmission of
torque in belt drives, so there should be enough friction between belt and the drive so that
it does not slip. Chain drives do not slip.
7. Which type of drive is used in motor vehicles, for transferring torque between two shafts
present at a distance of more than one meter?
a) Chain drives
b) Belt Drives
c) Rope drives
d) Gear drives
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Chain drives are used in motor vehicles, for transferring torque between two
shafts present at a distance of more than one meter. Since there should not be any slip,
so we cannot use rope drive or belt drive. Gear drive does not slip, but it is suitable for
transferring torque between two shafts present at very less distance.
8. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 10N and radius of the gear
is 0.5m?
a) 5Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Torque = Tangential force* radius of the gear
Torque=10*0.5 => 5Nm.
force is 5N?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 2m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
tangential force=5N
radius=20Nm/5m=>4m.
10. Which type of joints connects the links of a chain?
a) Stationary joints
b) Pin joints
c) Bolted joints
d) Pivot joints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pin joints connect the links of a chain. Each link of the chain has got its two
sides connected with other links with the help of pin joints. These joint allows free
movement of the links, which is collectively known as a chain.
11. What is the pitch of a gear if the gear contains 20 teeth and radius of the gear is 2
inches?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Explanation: Given:
Diameter=2*Radius
Pitch=Number of teeth/ Diameter
Pitch=20/4=5.
12. What is the torque offered by a gear, if the tangential force is 12N and radius of the
gear is 0.2m?
a) 2.4 Nm
b) 15Nm
c) 10Nm
d) 2.55Nm
View Answer
Answer: a
Torque = Tangential force* radius of the gear
Torque=12*0.2 => 2.4 Nm.
force is 3N?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 2m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
tangential force=3N
radius=12Nm/3m=>4m.
14. A partially circular chain has perimeter of 10cm and is made up of 2 cm links. How
many links are present in total?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 12m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Perimeter of circular chain = 10cm
Length of each link = 2cm
Number of links = Perimeter/Length of each link
Number of links = 10/2 => 5 links.
15. A chain is kept in square fashion with one of its side equal to 5 cm and is made up of
2 cm links. How many links are present in total?
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 10m
d) 12m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Length of one side of square chain = 5cm
Perimeter of square=4*5=>20
Length of each link = 2cm
Number of links = Perimeter/Length of each link
Number of links = 20/2 => 10 links.
1. Who patented the first ball bearing?

a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Abalakov
c) Philip Vaughan
d) Robert Abalakov
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Philip Vaughan patented the first ball bearing. He was an iron master and
welsh inventor who designed the first ball bearing in the year 1794 at Carmarthen. His
design was the first modern design that depicted the balls running along the groove in axle
assembly.
2. What is the principle behind the working of magnetic bearing?
a) Maxwell’s second law
b) Electromagnetic suspension
c) Lenz law
d) Flemings Right hand thumb rule
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The principle behind the working of magnetic bearing is Electromagnetic
suspension. It is based on the electromagnetic induction of eddy current in rotating
conductor. It has no physical moving part inside it and is able to achieve very high speeds.
3. Which bearing is also called as thrust bearing?
a) Radial bearing
b) Axial bearing
c) Tangential bearing
d) Snail drop bearing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Axial bearing is also called as thrust bearing. These bearings are often
designed to resist the force in the same direction as of the shaft. And these loads are
called as axial loads or thrust loads.
4. Which type of bearing can achieve highest speed?
a) Ball bearing
b) Roller bearing
c) Magnetic bearing
d) Tapered roller bearings
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Magnetic bearing can achieve highest speed. These bearings can revolve at
very high speed of around 50,000 to 60,000 rpm (revolution per minute) without getting
damaged. It is so because it has no moving part inside it. It works on the principle of
electromagnetic suspension. Normal ball or roller bearing cannot achieve this speed
without getting damaged.
5. Radial ball bearing is also called as roller bearing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Roller bearing and radial ball bearings are not same. They are two different
types of bearing that have different inbuilt mechanism. Ball bearings use metallic balls
between the inner and outer races whereas roller bearings use cylindrical rods between
the races.
6. Slot fill type ball bearings have higher load bearing capacity than Conrad type ball
bearing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Slot fill type ball bearings have higher load bearing capacity than Conrad
type ball bearing. It is so because notches are present on the inner and outer surfaces of
outer and inner race respectively. This facilitates more balls more ball to fit in the same
amount of space which increases the load bearing capacity.
7. Which type of bearing has axial length at least 4 times the length of the diameter?
a) Tapered roller bearing
b) Needle roller bearing
c) Thrust ball bearing
d) Thrust roller bearing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Needle roller bearing has axial length at least 4 times the length of the
diameter. These bearings have extremely small diameters. The rollers or the cylindrical
rods used in it resemble a needle which is why it is known as needle roller bearing.
8. Which type of bearing has a frustum shape assembly?
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tapered roller bearing has a frustum shape assembly. It is often termed as
cup and cone assembly. Its shape resembles the shape of a frustum. These bearings can
bear high axial and radial loads but provides moderate revolution speed.
9. Who invented Conrad style ball bearing?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Conrad
c) Philip Vaughan
d) Robert Conrad
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Robert Conrad invented Conrad style ball bearing. These bearings are
named after the inventor. These bearing are most familiar and most common type ball
bearing used in most of the day to day appliances. They can withstand both radial and
axial loads.
10. Which type of bearing has a frustum of a cone shaped roller inside it?
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tapered roller bearing has a frustum of a cone shaped roller inside it. These
rollers are also referred as taper rollers. These bearings can bear high axial and radial
loads but provides moderate revolution speed.
11. Single row deep groove ball bearing can bear more radial load than double row deep
groove ball bearing.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Single row deep groove ball bearing cannot bear more radial load than
double row deep groove ball bearing. Double row bearing can bear more radial load as
well as axial load than single row bearing. Single row deep groove bearing can provide
higher speed than double row ball bearing as it experiences lesser frictional force.
12. Ball bearing is preferred over roller bearings when the bearing has to bear huge load.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ball bearing is not preferred over roller bearing when the bearing has to bear
huge load. Rather roller bearings are preferred for these kinds of application. It is so
because roller bearings have larger area of contact than ball bearings which helps in easy
distribution of load throughout the bearing.
13. Ball bearings provide higher rotational speed than roller bearing of same size.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ball bearings provide higher rotational speed than roller bearing of same
size. It is so because Ball bearings have lesser area of contact than roller bearings.
Therefore it experiences lesser frictional force than roller bearings which helps ball
bearings to achieve higher speed.
14. When was the first ball bearing patented?
a) 1792
b) 1794
c) 1892
d) 1894
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first ball bearing was patented in the year 1794. Philip Vaughan was the
first who was awarded with the first patent of modern ball bearing. He was an iron master
and welsh inventor whose design depicted the balls running along the groove in axle
assembly.
15. Which type of bearing has no moving parts inside it?
a) Ball bearing
b) Roller bearing
c) Magnetic bearing
d) Tapered roller bearings
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Magnetic bearing has no moving parts inside it. These bearings can revolve
at very high speed of around 50,000 to 60,000 rpm (revolution per minute) without getting
damaged. Normal ball or roller bearing cannot achieve this speed without getting
damaged.
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1. What is the type of preload called when a bearing experiences a stress due to negative
clearance?
a) Fastener preload
b) Bearing preload
c) Testing preload
d) Stress preload
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a bearing experiences a stress due to negative clearance then it is a
type of bearing preload. These types of preload increases the bearing rigidity and helps
in maintaining actual radial and axial position for displacement.
2. What is the strain on an object, when a force of 3 Newton is applied on it and it expands
the length of the object from 4cm to 6 cm?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:-
Force applied=3 N
Original length(o)=4cm
New length=6 cm
Extended length(e)=New length-Original length
Extended length(e)=6-4=>2cm
Strain (s) = Extended length(e)/Original length(o)
Strain (s)=2cm/4cm=>0.5.
3. What is the ratio of stress to strain called?
a) Youngs Modulus
b) Bulks Modulus
c) Modulus of elasticity
d) Modulus of rigidity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of stress to strain is called as Youngs Modulus. It is a mechanical
property that measures the stiffness of a body. It establishes a relationship between stress
and strain of a body. The youngs modulus graph or the stress-strain graph of a body
showing elastic property is a straight line which shows the stress is proportional to strain.
4. What is the unit of stress?
a) Meter
b) Newton/Meter
c) Newton
d) Pascal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The unit of stress is Pascal. Stress is defined as the ratio of internal force of
a material to resist deformation to the area of impact. Mathematically this gives out the
unit as Newton/meter2 which is also termed as “Pascal”.
5. Pressure and stress are same as both are defined as force per unit area.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pressure and stress are not same even if both are defined as force per unit
area. The word “force” in pressure is the external force applied on a body, whereas “force”
in the definition of stress refers to the internal force of a material to resist deformation.
6. Stress on a body occurs only when compressive force act on it.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stress on a body occurs not only when compressive force act on it; but also
when sheer or expanding forces are applied. Stress occurs on a body when any force is
applied irrespective of the direction of the force.
7. What is the unit of strain?
a) Meter
b) Newton/Meter
c) Newton/Meter2
d) No unit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain has no unit. It is so because it is the ratio of two lengths. Strain is
defines as the ratio of extended length of an object to its original length. Since both
numerator and denominator have the unit of length, therefore they cancel out each other
and thus strain has no unit.
8. What is the strain on a hook of a hanger, when its length expands from 5cm to 6 cm
due to a hanging load?
a) 0.2
b) 0.5
c) 1.2
d) 0.3334
View Answer
Answer: a
New length=6cm
9. What is the value of stress that occurs on an object when a force of 5 Newton is applied
perpendicularly to an area of 1meter2?
a) 2 Newton/meter2
b) 5 Newton/meter2
c) 1.2 Newton/meter2
d) 1 Newton/meter2
View Answer
Answer: b
Force applied=5 N
Area of impact=1meter2
Stress (S) = Force applied/Area of impact
Stress (S) = 5 N/1meter =>5 N/meter .
2 2
10. What is the strain on a hanging load, when a force of 1 Newton is applied on it and it
expands the length of the object from 9cm to 12 cm?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1.2
d) 0.3334
View Answer
Answer: d
Force applied=1 N
New length=12 cm
11. Preloads can avoid resonance due to external disturbances.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Preloads can avoid resonance due to external disturbances. These preloads
can avoid harmful or the damage causing resonance by tensioning and increasing the
natural frequency of the structure.
12. Pressure and stress both have same unit (i.e) “Pascal”.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure and stress both have same unit (i.e) “Pascal”. The word “force” in
pressure is the external force applied on a body, whereas “force” in the definition of stress
refers to the internal force of a material to resist deformation. But mathematically they
have same formula (i.e) Force/unit area which gives their units as Newton/meter 2 or
“Pascal”.
13. Sheer stress occurs when a body expands due to external force.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sheer stress does not occur when a body expands due to external force.
When a body expands due to external force it undergoes tensile stress. Sheer stress
occurs when there is slippage along the plane parallel to the direction of imposed stress
and a deformation in the shape of the object occurs.
14. What is the nature of the stress-strain graph of an elastic body?
a) Asymptotic
b) Linear
c) Parabolic
d) Non-Linear
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The nature of the stress-strain graph of an elastic body is Linear. The youngs
modulus graph or the stress-strain graph of a body showing elastic property is a straight
line which shows the stress is proportional to strain.
15. What is the strain on a hanging load, when a force of 5 Newton is applied on it and it
expands the length of the object from 8cm to 12 cm?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Force applied=5 N
New length=12 cm
1. How many terminals does a GTO (Gate turn off thyristor) switch has?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A GTO (Gate turn off thyristor) switch has total 3 terminals. One terminal is
a gate terminal and other two terminals are anode and cathode terminal respectively. It is
a bipolar semiconductor switching device.
2. What is the full form of DPDT with respect to switches?
a) Double pull double throw
b) Double pole double throw
c) Double pull dual throw
d) Dual pole dual throw
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of DPDT is “Double pole double throw” with respect to switches.
This type of switches has two inputs and four outputs. These switches are widely used in
the robotic sector due to its versatile nature.
3. What is the full form of DIAC with respect to switches?
a) Diode alternating current
b) Dipole alternating current
c) Dual alternating current
d) Direct alternating current
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The full form of DIAC is “Diode alternating current” with respect to switches.
It is a two terminal, bidirectional switching device. Since it is bi-directional, therefore it does
not have a fixed anode and cathode terminal.
4. Which is a type of solid state switch?
a) NPN Diode
b) Bipolar junction transistor
c) DPDT(Double pole double throw) Switch
d) Push button Switch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bipolar junction transistor is a type of solid state switch. Theses switches
have no moving parts and no physical contacts which is why they are called so. They are
also called as electronic switch.
5. DIAC (Diode alternating current) switch has three terminals.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DIAC (Diode alternating current) switch does not have three terminals. It is a
two terminal, bidirectional switching device. Since it is bi-directional, therefore it does not
have a fixed anode and cathode terminal.
6. TRIAC (Triode alternating current) is a bi-directional switching device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TRIAC (Triode alternating current) is a bi-directional switching device. They
are often used as motor driver or motor controller to control the revolution speed of the
motor shaft. They are even capable of controlling AC power.
7. Which is an example of pressure switch?
a) KSD9700
b) XMPA06B2131
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure switch. It is manufactured by
“SCHNEIDER ELECTRIC”. KSD9700 is an example of temperature switch. BMP180 is an
example of pressure sensor. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor.
8. Which is an example of temperature switch?
a) KSD9700
b) CMCP793V-500
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) BMP180
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: KSD9700 is an example of temperature switch. It has 250 volt 5 ampere input
rating. It has an operating temperature of up to 150°C. BMP180 is an example of pressure
sensor. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor. CMCP793V-500 is a velocity
sensor.
9. Which type of switch can be used as automatic switch to detect the level of water in a
water tank and perform suitable switching action?
a) Flow Switch
b) Float switch
c) DPDT (Double pole double throw) Switch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Float switch can be used as automatic switch to detect the level of water in
a water tank and perform suitable switching action. These switches are mainly used to
control the AC and DC water pumps. When the water exceeds a certain limit the floating
element of the switch moves along with it and triggers the switch to act accordingly.
10. Which type of switch can be used as automatic switch to detect the presence of object
by its weight?
a) SPST (Single pole Single throw) Switch
b) Limit switch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Limit switch is used as automatic switch to detect the presence of object.
These switches are usually used to detect the presence or absence of the object. They
have a flexible arm which is responsible for the switching action.
11. A GTO (Gate turn off thyristor) switch is a unipolar device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A GTO (Gate turn off thyristor) switch is not a unipolar device. It is a bipolar,
three terminal semiconductor switching device. It uses both electrons and holes for the
conduction of current through it.
12. DIAC (Diode alternating current) is a bi-directional switching device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DIAC (Diode alternating current) is a bi-directional switching device. . It is a
two terminal switching device that does not have a fixed anode and cathode terminal. It
can be used regardless of the identification of anode and cathode terminal.
13. Bipolar transistor can be used as a switch.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bipolar transistor can be used as a switch. This configuration of transistor is
widely used in the electronic industry. A small base current can control comparatively large
emitter to collector current.
14. Which switch can be used to rotate a DC motor in both clockwise and anti-clock wise
direction?
a) SPST (Single pole Single throw) Switch
b) DPST (Double pole single throw) Switch
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DPDT (Double pole double throw) Switch can be used to rotate a DC motor
in both clockwise and anti-clock wise direction. These switches are mostly preferred while
making a remote controlled car projects.
15. What is the full form of SPDT with respect to switches?
a) Single pull double throw
b) Single pole double throw
c) Single pull dual throw
d) Singular pole dual throw
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of SPDT is “Single pole double throw” with respect to switches.
This type of switches has one input and two outputs. These switches are versatile in nature
as it facilitates with two output terminal form a single input.
1. Which type of coil is a solenoid?

a) Electromagnetic
b) Electrical
c) Mechanical
d) Chemical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solenoid is an electromagnetic coil. When an electric current is supplied to
the solenoid, the magnetic field is induced in it and due to this the spool shifts to the
selected position.
2. Iron is used in solenoids for ____
a) increasing the magnetic field strength
b) increasing the electric field strength
c) decreasing the magnetic field strength
d) decreasing the electric field strength
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The iron is used in solenoids for increasing the magnetic field strength. This
is because of the ferromagnetic property of the iron. All ferromagnetic materials help to
increase the magnetic property of an object.
3. The number of turns of the solenoid is inversely proportional to the magnetic field.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mentioned statement is false as the number of turns of the solenoid is
directly proportional to the magnetic field. So as the number of turns increases, the
magnetic field of the solenoid will increase accordingly and as it decreases, the magnetic
field turns weak.
4. What is the relation between the current and the magnetic field?
a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
d) No relation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The relation between the current and magnetic field of a solenoid is that the
current and the magnetic field are directly proportional to each other. The magnetic field
increases or decreases according to the increase or decrease in the value of the current.
5. What is the relation between the magnetic field and the number of turns of a solenoid?
a) Inversely proportional
b) Directly proportional
d) No relation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The magnetic field of a solenoid is directly proportional to the number of turns
in the solenoid. Dues the magnetic field of the solenoid increases and decreases with the
increase and decrease in the number of turns respectively.
6. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The magnetic field produced inside a solenoid is stronger than the magnetic
field outside it, and it is uniform. The presence of a stronger magnetic field inside is due
to the presence of the current inside the solenoid.
7. What is the direction of the magnetic field with respect to the current of a solenoid?
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) No fixed direction
d) Reverse direction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The direction of the magnetic field generated in a solenoid acts always
perpendicular to the direction of the applied current. The relation between the current and
magnetic field of a solenoid is that the current and the magnetic field are directly
proportional to each other.
8. Which among the following are not the applications of a solenoid?
a) Electromagnets
b) Medical
c) Industries
d) Vessels
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Based on its property’s solenoids have very vast applications. Some of the
operations include used in electromagnets, medical, valves, industries etc. The best
example is the car starting system where the transfers the current to different parts of the
motor.
9. What is the formula for the turn density of a solenoid?
a) n=N/L
b) N=n/l
c) n=N.l
d) N=nN/l
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The formula for the turn density of a solenoid is (n= N/L) where n is the turn
density, l is the length of the solenoid and N is the number of turns of the solenoid. The
other options mentioned are not the appropriate answers.
10. How can we increase the magnetic field strength of a solenoid?
a) By increasing current
b) Removing iron from the field
c) By decreasing the current
d) By decreasing the number of turns
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The relation between the current and magnetic field of a solenoid is that the
current and the magnetic field are directly proportional to each other. Dues as the current
increases the magnetic field will increase. The other options mentioned will decrease the
magnetic field.
1. Who invented electrical relay?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) Philip Vaughan
d) Robert Abalakov
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Joseph Henry invented electrical relay. He was an American scientist an
electromagnetism pioneer who invented the electrical relay in the year 1835. This relay
was made in order to improve the capabilities of electric telegraph.
2. What is the full form of MCB?
a) Miniature contact breaker
b) Mini circuit breaker
c) Miniature circuit breaker
d) Mini contact breaker
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: MCB stands for miniature circuit breaker. It is an automatic electro
mechanical switching device which is used in most of the houses, apartments, industries
etc. This device automatically breaks the circuit from the main power supply when
excessive current passes through it.
3. Which electrical relay contact tip material has the highest electrical conductivity?
a) Silver
b) Alloy of silver and copper
c) Alloy of silver and tungsten
d) Alloy of silver and Nickel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Silver electrical relay contact tip has the highest electrical conductivity among
the all mentioned above. The electrical as well as thermal conductivity of silver is much
higher than any of its alloy.
4. Which type of relay can be used to automatically switch between transmitter and
receiver configuration from a same antenna setup?
a) Mercury relay
b) Latching relay
c) Force-guided contacts relay
d) Coaxial relay
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Coaxial relay can be used to automatically switch between transmitter and
receiver configuration from a same antenna setup. These relays are often used to perform
switching action from receiver to transmitter and vice versa when only one antenna is
present.
5. Solid state relays face high arching problems.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solid state relays do not face arching problems. Since solid state relays have
no moving part therefore it does not face any arching problem. The arching problem of the
ordinary electro mechanical relays was resolved by solid state relays.
6. Solid state relays have only one moving part which helps in switching between “ON”
and “OFF” position.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solid state relays have no moving parts. The mechanical switching system
in the primitive electro mechanical relays was replaced by power transistors, thyristors or
triac’s. No physical movement takes place in solid state relays.
7. Which type of snubber network is required at the output terminal of the solid state relays
to protect the semiconductor from transient spikes and unwanted noises?
a) RC (Resistor capacitor) type
b) RL (Resistor inductor) type
c) RLC (Resistor inductor capacitor) type
d) LC (Inductor capacitor) type
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RC (Resistor capacitor) type of snubber network is required at the output
terminal of the solid state relays to protect the semiconductor from transient spikes and
unwanted noises. Snubber circuits are those circuits which are used to suppress the
voltage spikes.
8. Which type of solid state relay turns “ON” when a minimum operating control voltage is
applied and the load voltage nearly reaches zero?
a) Instant ON Relays
b) Zero-Switching Relays
c) Peak Switching Relays
d) Analog Switching Relays
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Zero-Switching Relays turn “ON” when a minimum operating control voltage
is applied and the load voltage nearly reaches zero. Zero switching relays wait for the
alternating wave to reach zero for the relay to turn on.
9. Who developed the first Solid state relay?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Walcraft engineers
c) Crydom engineers
d) Robert Conrad
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Crydom engineers developed the first Solid state relay. These relays were
developed in the year 1972. Solid state relays are switching device that can switch “ON”
and “OFF” positions by a small input voltage.
10. Which is an example of relay?
a) KSD9700
b) XMPA06B2131
c) SLB700A/06VA
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay. It is manufactured by SCHNEIDER
ELECTRIC /MAGNECRAFT. XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure switch. KSD9700
is an example of temperature switch. SLB700A/06VA is an example of force sensor.
11. A good electrical relay contact tip should have higher arc resistance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A good electrical relay contact tip should have higher arc resistance. Too
much arching or sparking can damage the contact tip. If the arching become severe, it
can even weld the contact point which can led excess of current flow and can damage
other components.
12. Relay and contactors perform different physical operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Relay and contactors do not perform different physical operation. They have
same physical operation. The only difference is the rated voltage on which they work.
Contractors are relays that perform switching operation at high voltage. Whereas relays
perform switching operation at low voltage.
13. Electro mechanical relay’s (EMR) needs to be manually turned “ON” and “OFF”.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electro mechanical relay’s (EMR) needs to be manually turned “ON” and
“OFF”. This is one of the biggest disadvantages of Electro mechanical relay’s (EMR). Also
they can only switch small electric current.
14. Which type of relay contains a glass tube which contains an inert gas which is used to
protect the contacts from corrosion?
a) Polarised relay
b) Solid-state relay
c) Contactor
d) Reed relay
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reed relays contain a glass tube which contains an inert gas which is used
to protect the contacts from corrosion. These contacts move on the principle of magnetic
effect of electric current. These contacts act as electromagnets which helps them to
perform switching operation.
15. Which electrical relay contact tip material has the highest thermal conductivity?
a) Silver
b) Alloy of silver and copper
c) Alloy of silver and tungsten
d) Alloy of silver and Nickel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Silver electrical relay contact tip has the highest thermal conductivity among
the all mentioned above. The thermal as well as electrical conductivity of silver is much
higher than any of its alloy.
1. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?
a) Diode
b) Inductor
c) Light emitting source
d) Transistor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This symbol represents Light emitting source. This symbol is generally used
to represent a LED(Light emitting diode) or any other light emitting source in the electrical
circuit. It is usually used as an output device to represent the flow of current through a
branch.
a) Motor
b) Inductor
d) Multimeter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol represents a Motor in an electric circuit. Motors are output device
of a circuit that produces rotational motion. They convert electrical energy to mechanical
energy. It works on the principle of Flemings left hand rule.
a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) Capacitor
d) Transistor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This symbol represents capacitor. Capacitor is a passive element which is
used as an energy storing device in the electrical circuits. Capacitance of a capacitor is
measured in farads. It is the SI unit of capacitance.
a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) PNP Transistor
d) NPN Transistor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This symbol represents PNP Transistor. When an “N” type material is
sandwiched between two “P” type materials, then a PNP transistor is formed. This “P” type
material is actually doped with “N” type material.
5. A diode has no effect on any electric circuit if its terminals are reversed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A diode will affect the electric circuit if its terminals are reversed. It is so
because its properties will completely change when its terminal are reversed. Since it is a
unidirectional device so it will only allow current to flow in one direction only and blocks it
from other direction.
6. What is the full form of FET?
a) Field effect thyristor
b) Field effect thermistor
c) Field effect transistor
d) Field effective transistor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FET stands for field effect transistor. It is a three terminal semiconductor
device namely; Source, drain and gate. It is a voltage controlled device (i.e) its operation
can be controlled by changing the input voltage.
a) N channel enhancement type MOSFET

b) P channel enhancement type MOSFET
c) P channel depletion type MOSFET
d) N channel depletion type MOSFET
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This symbol represents a P channel enhancement type MOSFET. MOSFET
stands for metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor. These MOSFET’s do not have
inbuilt channels; the channels are induced by applying a voltage greater than the threshold
voltage at the gate terminal.
8. Which passive element of a circuit is represented by a zig-zag line composed of sharp
edged and even distributed alternating crests and troughs?
a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
c) Inductor
d) Battery
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resistor is a passive element of a circuit is represented by a zig-zag line
composed of conical and even shaped alternating crests and troughs. The unit of
resistance is ohm which is denoted by Greek letter omega(Ω).

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This symbol represents a P channel depletion type MOSFET. MOSFET
stands for metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor. These MOSFET’s have inbuilt
channels which is made up of “P” type material.

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol represents an N channel enhancement type MOSFET.
MOSFET stands for metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor. These MOSFET’s
do not have inbuilt channels; the channels are induced by applying a voltage greater than
the threshold voltage at the gate terminal.
11. A JFET (Junction Field effect transistor) is a current controlled device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A JFET (Junction Field effect transistor) is not a current controlled device. It
is a voltage controlled device (i.e) its operation can be controlled by changing the input
voltage. A BJT(Bipolar junction transistor) is a current controlled device.
a) Diode
b) Inductor
d) Transistor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol represents Light emitting source. It is a two terminal component
of an electric circuit which allows unidirectional flow of current. An ideal diode has zero
forward bias resistance and infinite reverse bias resistance.
a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter
c) Anode tube
d) Anonymous device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This symbol represents an Ammeter. Ammeters are used to measure the
current flowing through a branch. They are placed in series with the circuit components in
order to measure the branch current.

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This symbol represents an N channel depletion type MOSFET. MOSFET
stands for metal oxide semiconductor field effect transistor. These MOSFET’s have inbuilt
channels which is made up of “N” type material.
a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) PNP Transistor
d) NPN Transistor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This symbol represents NPN Transistor. When a “P” type material is
sandwiched between two “N” type materials, then a NPN transistor is formed. This “N”
type material is actually doped with “P” type material.
1. Who discovered the magnetic effect of electric current?

a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) Oersted
d) Robert Abalakov
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Oersted discovered the magnetic effect of electric current. He accidentally
discovered this phenomenon in the year 1820. He proved this phenomenon with the
deflecting needle of magnetic compass.
2. What is the working principle of DC motor?
a) Fleming’s right hand rule
b) Fleming’s left hand rule
c) Maxwell’s second law
d) Maxwell’s third law
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The working principle of motor Fleming’s left hand rule. It states that, when
a current carrying conductor is place in a magnetic field then it experiences a force. The
direction of force can be determined by Fleming’s left hand rule.
3. What is the full form of CPR with respect to motor movement?
a) Clocks per rotation
b) Counts per revolution
c) Counts per rotation
d) Clocks per revolution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CPR stands for Counts per revolution with respect to motor movement. 2
square pulses are generated at a time by a typical motor encoder, CPR (Counts per
revolution) is the is the number of quadrature decode states that exists between these two
square pulses.
4. How many leads does a 2 phase bipolar stepper motor have?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A bipolar stepper motor has 4 leads. Bipolar stepper motors have two
windings; one winding per stator phase. Each coil or winding has 2 leads. Therefore total
2 windings (coils) will have 4 leads.
5. Speed of an induction motor remains same even if we increase the rotor resistance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed of an induction motor does not remain same; it varies when we
increase the rotor resistance. This method is called as rotor resistance speed control of
induction motor. The motor speed decreases when we increase the rotor resistance. This
method is not applicable for cage rotor type induction motor.
6. Speed control of an ac motor can be achieved by varying the input frequency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed control of an ac motor can be achieved by varying the input frequency.
Usually AC motors run on a constant speed; this because of the constant voltage and
constant frequency. Speed of an ac motor can be varied by changing the input voltage or
frequency.
7. Which finger denotes the direction of current in Fleming’s left hand rule?
a) Middle finger
b) First finger
c) Thumb
d) Little finger
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Middle finger denotes the direction of current in Fleming’s left hand rule.
Fleming’s left hand rule states that, when a current carrying conductor is place in a
magnetic field then it experiences a force. The direction of force can be determined by
Fleming’s left hand rule. Where First finger denotes the direction of magnetic field and
thumb denotes the direction of force.
8. Which type of motor is not an encoder motor?
a) Stepper motor
b) Servo motor
c) BO motor
d) BLDC Drone motor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: BO motor is not an encoder motor. It does not require special types of
encoders or motor drivers for running it. It can be simple be used by connecting the
positive and negative terminal of the battery.
9. Who invented Induction motor?
a) Nicola Tesla
b) Vitaly Conrad
c) Philip Vaughan
d) Mark Henry
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nicola Tesla invented Induction motor. He was a Serbian-American inventor
born on 10 July 1856. He is very famous for his contribution towards modern alternating
current supply systems. He is also well known for his contribution towards wireless power
supply.
10. Which finger denotes the direction of magnetic field in Fleming’s left hand rule?
a) Middle finger
b) First finger
c) Thumb
d) Little finger
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: First finger denotes the direction of magnetic field in Fleming’s left hand rule.
Fleming’s left hand rule states that, when a current carrying conductor is place in a
magnetic field then it experiences a force. The direction of force can be determined by
Fleming’s left hand rule. Where middle finger denotes the direction of current and thumb
denotes the direction of force.
11. Which is an example of motor driver?
a) KSD9700
b) XMPA06B2131
c) L298N
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: L298N is an example of motor driver. It is a dual H-Bridge type motor driver.
792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay. XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure
switch. KSD9700 is an example of temperature switch.
12. Which is an example of single H-bridge type motor driver?
a) DRV8829
b) XMPA06B2131
c) L298N
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DRV8829 is an example of single H-bridge type motor driver. It is
manufactured by “TEXAS INSTRUMENTS”. L298N is an example of dual H-Bridge type
motor driver. 792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay. XMPA06B2131 is an example of
pressure switch.
13. AC motors do not have brushes.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: AC motors do not have brushes. Due to the absence of brush mechanism
AC motors have longer life expectancy. DC motors comes in two forms, Brushed and
Brushless motors. DC motors without brushes are termed as BLDC (Brushless DC)
motors.
14. How many windings does a 2 phase bipolar stepper motor have?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A 2 phase bipolar stepper motor has 2 windings. One winding is present for
each phase. So, in total two windings are present for 2 phases. Each coil or winding has
2 leads. Therefore total 2 windings (coils) will have 4 leads.
15. Which finger denotes the direction of force in fleming’s left hand rule?
a) Middle finger
b) First finger
c) Thumb
d) Little finger
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thumb denotes the direction of force in fleming’s left hand rule. Fleming’s
left hand rule states that, when a current carrying conductor is place in a magnetic field
then it experiences a force. The direction of force can be determined by Fleming’s left
hand rule.
1. Which type of device is a stepper motor?
a) Electromechanical
b) Electrochemical
c) Embedded system
d) Electromagnetic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A stepper motor is an electromagnetic device which converts the electrical
pulses into discrete mechanical movements. The shaft of the electrical motor
2. The speed of the rotation of the stepper motor depends on ________
a) torque
b) number of input pulses
c) frequency of input pulses
d) solenoid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The speed of rotation of input pulses is directly related to the frequency of
input pulses. In the other options, the motor has full torque at standstill. The length of
rotation is directly proportional to the number of input pulses applied. Solenoids are used
as electrical actuators.
3. Stepper motors are extremely reliable.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are no contact brushes in the motor, therefore, the Stepper motors are
extremely reliable. The life of the motor depends only upon the life of the bearings. Wide
ranges of rotational speed are possible.
4. Length of rotation is directly related to ____
a) Torque
b) Number of input pulses
c) Frequency of input pulses
d) Solenoid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of rotation is directly proportional to the number of input pulses
applied. In the other options, the speed of rotation of input pulses is directly related to the
frequency of input pulses, the motor has full torque at standstill. Solenoids are used as
electrical actuators.
5. Which among the following is not the type of a stepper motor?
a) Variable reluctance
b) Permanent magnet
c) Hybrid
d) Variable magnet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Variable magnet is not the type of a stepper motor. Variable reluctance
stepper motor consists of a soft iron multi-toothed rotor and a wound stator. Permanent
magnet stepper motors have a rotor made up of the permanent magnet. Hybrid stepper
motor provides better performance with respect to step resolution, torque and speed.
6. A stepper motor is a bad choice whenever control movement is required.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A stepper motor is a good choice whenever control movement is required.
They can be used in the applications where there is a need to control rotation angle,
speed, position and synchronism. Due to all these reasons, stepper motors are used in
many different applications.
7. A soft iron multi-toothed rotor and wound stator is present in ___
a) Permanent magnet stepper motor
b) Variable reluctance stepper motor
c) Hybrid stepper motor
d) DC motor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Variable reluctance stepper motor consists of a soft iron multi-toothed rotor
and a wound stator. When the stator windings are energized with DC current, the poles
become magnetized, and the teeth of the rotor are attracted towards the energized stator
poles, and hence the rotor rotates. The other motors present in the options do not consist
of such elements.
8. Which type of stepper motors have low cost and low-resolution motor?
d) DC motor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The permanent magnet stepper motor has low cost and low-resolution type
motor with the step angle of 7.5% to 15%. This type of stepper motor has a rotor made up
of the permanent magnet. The other motors mentioned in the option do not have low cost
as well as low redundancy.
9. Which among the following is a property of hybrid stepper motor?
a) Contains a soft iron multi-toothed rotor
b) Low cost and low-resolution motor
c) The better performance provided with respect to step resolution
d) Provides an increased magnetic flux
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A hybrid stepper motor provides better performance with respect to step
resolution, torque and speed, and this is more expensive than the other two stepper
motors. This motor has advantages of both variable reluctance and permanent magnet
stepper motors. The other functions mentioned in the options are the functions of other
types of the stepper motor.
10. Which of the following is not the main selection criterion of a stepper motor?
a) Resolution required
b) Drive mechanism component required
c) Torque required
d) Speed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Speed is not the main selection criteria of a stepper motor. The selection
criteria of a stepper motor include resolution required, drive mechanism component,
operating pattern required such as sequencing, acceleration etc. and torque required.
11. What is the formula to calculate the step angle of a stepper motor?
a) (360*ph)/nph
b) (ph/nph)
c) (nph/ph)
d) (360*nph)/ph
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The step angle is given by (360*ph)/nph where ‘nph’ is the number of
equivalent poles per phase or number of rotor poles, ‘ ph ‘ is the number of phases and ‘
n ‘ is the total number of poles in all phases.
12. What is the step angle of a hybrid stepper motor?
a) 0.9 degree to 3.6 degree
b) 0.9 degree to 7.0 degree
c) 0.1 degree to 1.0 degree
d) 1.0 degree to 0.9 degree
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Typical step angle of a hybrid stepper motor ranges from 0.9 degrees 3.6
degree that is (100 to 400) steps per revolution. The step angle is given by (360*ph)/nph
where ‘nph’ is the number of equivalent poles per phase or number of rotor poles, ‘ ph ‘ is
the number of phases and ‘ n ‘ is the total number of poles in all phases.
1. Which type of device is a stepper motor?

a) Electromechanical
b) Electrochemical
c) Embedded system
d) Electromagnetic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A stepper motor is an electromagnetic device which converts the electrical
pulses into discrete mechanical movements. The shaft of the electrical motor.
2. The speed of the rotation of the stepper motor depends on ____
a) torque
d) solenoid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The speed of rotation of input pulses is directly related to the frequency of
input pulses. In the other options, the motor has full torque at standstill. The length of
rotation is directly proportional to the number of input pulses applied. Solenoids are used
as electrical actuators.
3. Stepper motors are extremely reliable.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are no contact brushes in the motor, therefore, the Stepper motors are
extremely reliable. The life of the motor depends only upon the life of the bearings. Wide
ranges of rotational speed are possible.
4. Length of rotation is directly related to to ____
a) torque
d) solenoid
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of rotation is directly proportional to the number of input pulses
applied. In the other options, the speed of rotation of input pulses is directly related to the
frequency of input pulses, the motor has full torque at standstill. Solenoids are used as
electrical actuators.
5. Which among the following is not the type of a stepper motor?
a) Variable reluctance
b) Permanent magnet
c) Hybrid
d) Variable magnet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Variable magnet is not the type of a stepper motor. Variable reluctance
stepper motor consists of a soft iron multi-toothed rotor and a wound stator. Permanent
magnet stepper motors have a rotor made up of the permanent magnet. Hybrid stepper
motor provides better performance with respect to step resolution, torque and speed.
6. A stepper motor is a bad choice whenever control movement is required.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A stepper motor is a good choice whenever control movement is required.
They can be used in the applications where there is a need to control rotation angle,
speed, position and synchronism. Due to all these reasons, stepper motors are used in
many different applications.
7. A soft iron multi-toothed rotor and wound stator is present in _______
a) permanent magnet stepper motor
b) variable reluctance stepper motor
c) hybrid stepper motor
d) DC motor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Variable reluctance stepper motor consists of a soft iron multi-toothed rotor
and a wound stator. When the stator windings are energized with DC current, the poles
become magnetized, and the teeth of the rotor are attracted towards the energized stator
poles, and hence the rotor rotates. The other motors present in the options do not consist
of such elements.
8. Which type of stepper motors have low cost and low-resolution motor?
d) DC motor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The permanent magnet stepper motor has low cost and low-resolution type
motor with the step angle of 7.5% to 15%. This type of stepper motor has a rotor made up
of the permanent magnet. The other motors mentioned in the option do not have low cost
as well as low redundancy.
9. Which among the following is a property of hybrid stepper motor?
a) Contains a soft iron multi-toothed rotor
b) Low cost and low-resolution motor
c) The better performance provided with respect to step resolution
d) Provides an increased magnetic flux
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A hybrid stepper motor provides better performance with respect to step
resolution, torque and speed, and this is more expensive than the other two stepper
motors. This motor has advantages of both variable reluctance and permanent magnet
stepper motors. The other functions mentioned in the options are the functions of other
types of the stepper motor.
10. Which of the following is not the main selection criterion of a stepper motor?
a) Resolution required
b) Drive mechanism component required
c) Torque required
d) Speed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Speed is not the main selection criteria of a stepper motor. The selection
criteria of a stepper motor include resolution required, drive mechanism component,
operating pattern required such as sequencing, accelerationetc. and torque required.
11. What is the formula to calculate the step angle of a stepper motor?
a) (360*ph.)/nph
b) (ph/nph)
c) (nph/ph)
d) (360*nph)/ph
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The step angle is given by (360*ph)/nph where ‘nph’ is the number of
equivalent poles per phase or number of rotor poles, ‘ ph ‘ is the number of phases and ‘
n ‘ is the total number of poles in all phases.
12. What is the step angle of a hybrid stepper motor?
a) 0.9 degree to 3.6 degree
b) 0.9 degree to 7.0 degree
c) 0.1 degree to 1.0 degree
d) 1.0 degree to 0.9 degree
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Typical step angle of a hybrid stepper motor ranges from 0.9 degrees 3.6
degree that is (100 to 400) steps per revolution. The step angle is given by (360*ph)/nph
where ‘nph’ is the number of equivalent poles per phase or number of rotor poles, ‘ ph ‘ is
the number of phases and ‘ n ‘ is the total number of poles in all phases.
1. What is the synchronous speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has 12 poles and its
frequency is 60 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 500 rpm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Number of poles of motor(P)=12
Frequency(f)=60 Hz
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 120f/P
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 600 rpm.
2. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 500 rpm
and has percentage slip of 4% ?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 480 rpm
d) 500 rpm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 500 rpm
percentage slip=4% =0.04
Speed(N) = Ns*(1-s)
Speed(N) = 480 rpm.
3. What is the frequency of a 3-phase induction motor if has 10 poles and its synchronous
speed is 720 rpm?
a) 60 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 80 Hz
d) 40 Hz
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given:
Frequency (f)=(Ns*P)/120
Frequency(f)=60 Hz.
4. Speed of an induction motor is dependent on the frequency of the input supply.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed of an induction motor is dependent on the frequency of the input
supply. Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by Ns = 120*f/P, where Ns
represents the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and P is the number of
poles. And the Speed of induction motor is given by N = Ns*(1-s) , where N represents
the speed of induction motor, Ns represents the synchronous speed and s is the slip.
Therefore it can be clearly seen that it is dependent on frequency of input supply.
5. Speed of an induction motor is independent of the number of stator poles.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed of an induction motor is dependent of the number of stator poles.
Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by Ns = 120*f/P, where Ns represents
the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and P is the number of stator poles.
And the Speed of induction motor is given by N = Ns*(1-s) , where N represents the speed
of induction motor, Ns represents the synchronous speed and s is the slip. Therefore it
can be clearly seen that it is dependent on the number of stator poles.
6. Rotor rheostat speed control method can be used for controlling the speed of squirrel
cage motors.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rotor rheostat speed control method cannot be used for controlling the
speed of squirrel cage motors. It can only be used with the slip ring motors as an external
resistance cannot be added to the squirrel cage motors.
7. What happens to the synchronous speed of the induction motor if the number of stator
poles increases?
a) It remains same
b) It increases
c) It decreases
d) It does not work
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The synchronous speed of the induction motor decreases if the number of
stator poles increases. Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by Ns = 120f/P,
where Ns represents the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and P is the
number of poles. Therefore it can be clearly seen that, synchronous speed inversely
proportional to the number of stator poles.
8. What happens to the synchronous speed of the induction motor if the frequency of the
supply increases?
a) It remains same
b) It increases
c) It decreases
d) It does not work
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The synchronous speed of the induction motor increases if the frequency of
the supply increases. The synchronous speed of the induction motor is directly
proportional to the input frequency. Since the formula for synchronous speed is given by
Ns = 120f/P, where Ns represents the synchronous speed, f represents the frequency and
P is the number of poles. So if the frequency of the supply increases, then the synchronous
speed also increases.
9. Which speed control method can only be applied to squirrel cage type induction motors?
a) Multiple Stator winding method
b) Rotor rheostat speed control method
c) Pole amplitude modulation method
d) Frequency control method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Multiple stator winding method can only be applied to squirrel cage type
induction motors. Other all speed control methods can also be applied in slip ring type
induction motors. Rotor rheostat speed control method can only be used for controlling
the speed of slip ring type induction motors.
10. What does PAM stands for, in context to speed control method of induction motor?
a) Pole amplitude maintenance
b) Passive amplitude modulation
c) Pole amplification modulation
d) Pole amplitude modulation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: PAM stands for Pole amplitude modulation, in context to speed control
method of induction motor. It is a speed control method of 3 phase induction motor in
which the original sinusoidal wave is modulated by another sinusoidal wave having the
different number of poles.
frequency is 40 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 500 rpm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Frequency(f)=40 Hz
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 600 rpm.
frequency is 50 Hz?
a) 700 rpm
b) 600 rpm
c) 650 rpm
d) 666.667 rpm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
Frequency(f)=50 Hz
Synchronous speed(Ns) = 666.667 rpm.
13. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 400
rpm and has percentage slip of 5% ?
a) 700 rpm
b) 380 rpm
c) 480 rpm
d) 500 rpm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
percentage slip=5%=0.05
Speed(N) = Ns*(1-s)
Speed(N) = 380 rpm.
14. What is the frequency of a 3-phase induction motor if has 12 poles and its synchronous
speed is 620 rpm?
a) 60 Hz
b) 62 Hz
c) 80 Hz
d) 58 Hz
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Frequency (f)=(Ns*P)/120
Frequency(f)=62 Hz.
15. What is the speed of a 3-phase induction motor if has a synchronous speed of 300
rpm and has percentage slip of 0.2% ?
a) 200 rpm
b) 380 rpm
c) 280 rpm
d) 294 rpm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
percentage slip=5%=0.02
Speed(N) = Ns*(1-s)
Speed(N) = 294 rpm.
1. What is the output of 2 Input XNOR gate if both the inputs are same?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 10
d) 11
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The output of 2 Input XNOR gate is 1 if both the inputs are same. The output
of the XNOR gate is 1 if both the inputs are logic 0 or logic 1. This is why they are called
as equality detector.
2. Which gate is called as inequality detector?
a) 2 Input AND Gate
b) 2 Input NAND Gate
c) 2 Input XOR Gate
d) 2 Input XNOR Gate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A 2 Input XOR gate is called as inequality detector. They are called so
because, when the two inputs of the XOR gate is different its output is Logic one (High).
Whereas when both the inputs are same then the output is Logic zero (LOW). Therefore,
a 2 Input XOR gate can compare 2 binary bits.
3. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input OR Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7408
d) 7432
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input OR Gate is 7432. It is also
referred as 74LS32. The Quad 2 Input OR Gate package consists of 4 OR gates. It has
total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin.
4. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input XOR Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7486
c) 7408
d) 7432
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input XOR Gate is 7486. It is
also referred as 74LS86. The Quad 2 Input OR Gate package consists of 4 OR gates. It
has total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin. It is also known as inequality detector.
5. NAND gate and NOR gate are universal logic gates.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NAND gate and NOR gate are universal logic gates. These are called so
because any type of basic or combinational logic gate (such as AND, OR, XOR, XNOR
etc) can be made by a cluster of only NAND gates or NOR gates.
6. The output of 2 Input AND gate is Logic 1 if any one of its input is Logic 1.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The output of 2 Input AND gate is not Logic 1 if any one of its input is Logic
1. Its output is logic 1 only when both the inputs of the AND gate is 1. The output of 2 Input
OR gate is Logic 1 if any one of its input is Logic 1.
7. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input NAND Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7486
c) 7400
d) 7432
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input NAND Gate is 7400. The
Quad 2 Input NAND Gate package consists of 4 NAND gates. It has total 14 pins including
the VCC and Ground pin. It is also called as universal gate.
8. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input NOR Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7400
d) 7432
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input NOR Gate is 7400. The
Quad 2 Input NOR Gate package consists of 4 NOR gates. It has total 14 pins including
the VCC and Ground pin. It is also called as universal gate.
9. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input XNOR Gate of TTL logic
family?
a) 4077
b) 7402
c) 74266
d) 7432
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input XNOR Gate of TTL logic
family is 74266. The Quad 2 Input NOR Gate package consists of 4 XNOR gates. It has
total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin. 4077 is the IC (Integrated circuit) number
of Quad 2 Input XNOR Gate of CMOS IC family.
10. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input AND Gate?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7408
d) 74032
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Quad 2 Input AND Gate is 7408. It is
also referred as 74LS08. The Quad 2 Input AND Gate package consists of 4 NOT gates.
It has total 14 pins including the VCC and Ground pin.
11. What is the minimum number of 2 Input NAND Gate required to make a 2 Input XOR
gate?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum number of 2 Input NAND Gate required to make a 2 Input XOR
gate is 4. This process is of making XOR gate using NAND gate is called realisation of
XOR gate using NAND gate. NAND gate is a universal gate and can be used to design
any logic gate.
12. XOR gate is an abbreviation of Executive OR Gate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: XOR gate is not an abbreviation of Executive OR Gate. It is abbreviation for
Exclusive-OR Gate. This gate is also known as inequality detector. They are called so
because, when the two inputs of the XOR gate is different its output is Logic one(High).
Whereas when both the inputs are same then the output is Logic zero(LOW). Therefore,
a 2 Input XOR gate can compare 2 binary bits.
13. What is the minimum number of 2 Input NOR Gates required to make a 2 Input XNOR
gate?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum number of 2 Input NOR Gates required to make a 2 Input
XNOR gate is 4. This process of making XNOR gate using NOR gate is called realisation
of XNOR gate using NOR gate. NOR gate is a universal gate and can be used to design
any logic gate.
14. What is the IC (Integrated circuit) number of Hex Inverter(NOT Gate)?
a) 7404
b) 7402
c) 7408
d) 74032
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The IC (Integrated circuit) number of Hex Inverter(NOT Gate) is 7404. It is
also referred as 74LS04. The hex inverter package consists of 6 NOT gates. The output
of NOT gate is logic 0 when the input is logic 1 and vice versa.
15. Which gate is called as equality detector?
a) 2 Input AND Gate
b) 2 Input NAND Gate
c) 2 Input XOR Gate
d) 2 Input XNOR Gate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A 2 Input XNOR gate is called as equality detector. They are called so
because, when the two inputs of the XOR gate is different its output is Logic Zero(LOW),
but when both the inputs are same then the output is Logic one (HIGH). Therefore, a 2
Input XNOR gate can compare 2 binary bits.
1. An electronic component used by computers to do its work is ____
a) Microcontrollers
b) Microprocessors
c) Keyboard
d) Resistors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An electronic component used by computers to do its work is
microprocessors. It contains millions of small components like resistors, diodes etc. The
other options are not appropriate choices.
2. What is the major difference between a microprocessor and a microcontroller?
a) Presence of external peripherals
b) Presence of internal peripherals
c) CPU
d) Stack Pointer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RAM, ROM, EEPROM are used as an external circuit in case of the
microprocessor, but these are already embedded in a microcontroller. Due to the use of
external circuits microprocessors are bulkier as compared to the microcontrollers which
are more compact.
3. Microprocessors have high cost and large size.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The microprocessors have generally large size and high cost. This is
because there are several external devices attached to it according to the applications.
The components used are costly as compared to the microcontrollers.
4. Which among the following are not the applications of microprocessor?
a) Word processing
b) Calculation
c) Washing machines
d) Communication
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Washing machines generally depends on microcontrollers. The applications
of a microprocessor are in communication or video display, communication via the
internet, word processing, calculation and many other applications.
5. Von Neumann architecture is used in ____
a) microcontrollers
b) microprocessors
c) computer systems
d) operating Systems
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The architecture used in the Microprocessors is Von Neumann architecture.
The is single memory space for both data and the program.
6. Quartz and metals are not used in microprocessors.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessors are made up of various components which involve metals,
quartz and various other components and chemicals. The microprocessors have generally
large size and high cost.
7. Which among the following have less number of registers?
a) Microprocessors
b) Microcontrollers
c) CPU
d) Input devices
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessors have less number of registers and therefore many of the
functions are memory based whereas the microcontrollers have a number of registers and
therefore the programs are easier to write.
8. In compact systems, we can use ____
a) microprocessors
b) computers
c) CPU
d) microcontrollers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In compact systems, we can use Microcontrollers and hence microcontrollers
are more effective as compared to the microprocessors, and they are also less costly as
compared to the microprocessors.
9. Harvard architecture is used in ____
a) microcontrollers
b) microprocessors
c) computer systems
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The architecture used in the Microcontrollers is Harvard architecture. Due to
this the program memory and the data memory are separate. This is one of the
advantages of the microcontroller.
10. Which among the following applications are not microcontroller based?
a) Computer system
b) Washing Machines
c) MP3 players
d) Telephones
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Computer systems, Microprocessors are generally used. Some of the
applications of a microcontroller are in washing machines, automobiles, telephones,
appliances and peripherals for computer systems.
1. What is the major difference between a microprocessor and a microcontroller?
a) Presence of external peripherals
b) Presence of internal peripherals
c) CPU
d) Stack Pointer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RAM, ROM, EEPROM are used as an external circuit in case of the
microprocessor, but these are already embedded in a microcontroller. Due to the use of
external circuits microprocessors are bulkier as compared to the microcontrollers which
are more compact.
2. Which among the following is a property of a microcontroller?
a) High power devices
b) Low power devices
c) High cost
d) Large size
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the important properties of a microcontroller is that it is a low power
device and may consume only 50 watts of energy. In addition to this, it has low cost and
less size as compared to a microprocessor.
3. Microcontrollers have high cost and large size.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The microcontrollers have generally small size and high cost. The
components chosen for the microcontrollers have generally low size and low cost. One of
the important properties of a microcontroller is that it is a low power device and may
consume only 50 watts of energy.
4. How many bytes can a typical low-end microcontroller have?
a) 100 bytes
b) 500 bytes
c) 1000 bytes
d) 300 bytes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A low-end microcontroller chip has 20 bytes of RAM and 1000 bytes of ROM.
These chips can sometimes have very low cost and very less size suitable for limited
applications.
5. Which among the following is the main advantage of a microcontroller?
a) Simple programming
b) High-level programming
c) Costly
d) High voltage requirement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microcontroller uses a simple language and it is therefore very easy and
flexible to design software. The voltage requirement is very low and it has a very low cost.
6. PIC is a microcontroller.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The peripheral interface controller is a microcontroller which is made by
microchip technology and derived from PIC1650. Its name is currently expanded as a
programmable intelligent computer.
7. Which among the following is not a hardware feature of PIC?
a) EPROM
b) EEPROM
c) SRAM
d) Watchdog timer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Some of the hardware features of the PIC microcontroller is that they have
Flash memory, SRAM, EEPROM, sleep mode, watchdog timer, various crystal or RC
oscillator configurations, or an external clock.
8. In compact systems, we can use ____
a) microprocessors
b) computers
c) CPU
d) microcontrollers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In compact systems, we can use Microcontrollers and hence microcontrollers
are more effective as compared to the microprocessors, and they are also less costly as
compared to the microprocessors.
9. Harvard architecture is used in ____
a) microcontrollers
b) microprocessors
c) computer systems
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The architecture used in the Microcontrollers is Harvard architecture. Due to
this the program memory and the data memory are separate. This is one of the
advantages of the microcontroller.
10. Which among the following applications are not microcontroller based?
a) Computer system
b) Washing Machines
c) MP3 players
d) Telephones
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Computer systems, Microprocessors are generally used. Some of the
applications of a microcontroller are in washing machines, automobiles, telephones,
appliances and peripherals for computer systems.
1. Who invented LabVIEW?

a) Grueblerowen
b) Jeff Kodosky
c) Philip Vaughan
d) Robert Abalakov
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Jeff Kodosky invented LabVIEW. He invented it at National Instruments. He
was the co-founder of National Instruments. LabVIEW provides an interface in which a
user can manually enter one or many sample sets and can convert it into graphical form
or manipulate it to give reasonable meanings. It is used for controlling Data acquisition
systems.
2. What is the full form of MIDAS with respect to data acquisition package?
a) Maximum input data acquisition system
b) Minimum integrated data acquisition system
c) Maximum integrated data acquisition system
d) Minimum input data acquisition system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The full form of MIDAS with respect to data acquisition package is Maximum
integrated data acquisition system. It is a DAQ (data acquisition) package developed at
Paul Scherrer Institute of Switzerland and TRIUMF of Canada.
3. What is stand alone data acquisition systems often called?
a) Data Blogger
b) Data Logger
c) Data Vlogger
d) Digital Blogger
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stand alone data acquisition systems often called as Data Logger. They are
also called as data recorder. It is an electronic device that records quantitative data over
a span of time or with respect to any other reference.
4. Which is an example of Analog to digital converter?
a) ADC0808CCN PDIP-28
b) XMPA06B2131
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ADC0808CCN PDIP-28 is an example of Analog to digital converter. It
consists of a 8 channel multiplexer. RD-KL25-AGMP01 is an example of data logger kit.
792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay. XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure
switch.
5. Data acquisition can be done on qualitative quantities.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Data acquisition cannot be done on qualitative quantities. It can be only done
on quantitative quantities. Data acquisition is a process of sampling physical signals that
can be represented in the form of digital numeric values.
6. DAQ (Data acquisition system) cannot be controlled using C++ programming.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DAQ (Data acquisition system) can be controlled using C++ programming.
C++ programming is generally used for coding in DAQNavi. Other software such as JAVA,
BASIC, LabVIEW can also be used for this purpose.
7. What type of interface does a DAQ (Data acquisition) hardware creates?
a) Interface between two similar signals
b) Interface between a computer and signal
c) Interface between two dissimilar signals
d) Interface between two similar hardware
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A DAQ (Data acquisition) hardware creates an interface between a computer
and signal. These signals are collected from the outside world. They are set of physical
values that can be sampled and is collected using different sensors.
8. DAQ (Data acquisition) system can be controlled using LabVIEW.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DAQ (Data acquisition) system can be controlled using LabVIEW. LabVIEW
provides an interface in which a user can manually enter one or many sample sets and
can convert it into graphical form or manipulate it to give reasonable meanings.
9. Who invented Electro cardiogram?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Vitaly Conrad
c) Willem Einthoven
d) Robert Conrad
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Willem Einthoven invented Electro cardiogram. He was a Dutch physiologist
and physician who developed Electro cardiogram in the year 1895. He received a noble
prize in the year 1924 for it. Electro cardiogram is an example of data acquisition system.
The data and physical samples of heartbeats are collected by the Electro cardiogram and
is converted into suitable and meaningful graph using a computer.
10. Which is an example of data logger kit?
a) KSD9700
b) XMPA06B2131
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RD-KL25-AGMP01 is an example of data logger kit. It is a 10 axis data logger
kit manufactured from NXP. 792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay. XMPA06B2131 is
an example of pressure switch. KSD9700 is an example of temperature switch.
11. DAQ (Data acquisition) system cannot be controlled using fortran programming
language.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DAQ (Data acquisition) system can be controlled using fortran programming
language. DAQ (Data acquisition) applications require programming language such as
fortran to run it. Other software such as JAVA, BASIC, LabVIEW can also be used for this
purpose.
12. Electro cardiogram is an example of data acquisition system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electro cardiogram is an example of data acquisition system. The data and
physical samples of heartbeats are collected by the Electro cardiogram and are converted
into suitable and meaningful graphs using a computer.
13. “JAVA” can be used for data acquisition.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: JAVA” can be used for data acquisition. It provides an interface that can be
used for data acquisition. JDDAC (Java Distributed Data Acquisition and Control) is a
platform that can be used for DAQ (data acquisition).
14. Which is a false statement regarding DAQ (Data acquisition) systems?
a) It can measure physical phenomenon which can be sampled
b) Signal conditioning can be done
c) DAQ system can generate its own physical sample sets
d) Analog to digital conversion can be done
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DAQ systems cannot generate its own physical sample sets. It can measure
physical phenomenon which can be sampled. These systems can also condition signal as
well as it can convert analog signal to digital signal.
15. Which is an example of signal conditioner?
a) RCV420KPG4
b) XMPA06B2131
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RCV420KPG4 is an example of signal conditioner. It is manufactured by
“Texas Instruments”. RD-KL25-AGMP01 is an example of data logger kit. 792XDXM4L-
24A is an example of relay. XMPA06B2131 is an example of pressure switch.
1. What is the name of Intel’s first microprocessor?

a) Intel 4003
b) Intel 4004
c) Intel 4005
d) Intel Pentium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Intel’s first microprocessor was Intel 4004. It was released by Intel
Corporation in the year 1971. It had 4 bit central processing unit along with cutting age
silicon gate technology. It was a complete CPU inside a chip.
2. Which microcontroller is used in Arduino UNO?
a) ATmega2560
b) ATmega1280
c) ATmega328
d) ATmega168
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Arduino UNO is a development board based on the ATmega328
microcontroller. It has total 14 pins which includes both input and output pins. 6 of its pin
can be used as PWM (Pulse Width Modulation) pin.
3. Who invented AND gate?
a) Grueblerowen
b) Joseph Henry
c) Oersted
d) Walther Bothe
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Walther Bothe invented AND gate. He invented modern electronic AND gate
in the year 1924 and received a noble prize in physics for this invention in the year 1954.
He designed electromechanical logic gates for his computer Z1.
4. Which microprocessor is a second generation microprocessor among the following?
a) INTEL 8085
b) INTEL 8086
c) Motorola 68000
d) Motorola 68010
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: INTEL 8085 is a second generation microprocessor among the following
microprocessors. It was an 8 bit micro processor. All others are third generation 16 bit
microprocessor.
5. Microprocessors do not have inbuilt RAM (Random access memory).
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessors do not have inbuilt RAM (Random access memory). They
do not have even ROM (Read only memory). Microprocessors are just integrated circuits
that have CPU (Central processing unit) inside them.
6. Microcontrollers do not have inbuilt RAM (Random access memory).
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Microcontrollers do have inbuilt RAM (Random access memory).
Microcontrollers are integrated circuits that have CPU (Central processing unit) , fixed
amount of RAM (Random access memory), ROM (Read only memory) and some other
components inside it.
7. Which microcontroller is used in Arduino Leonardo?
a) ATmega2560
b) ATmega1280
c) ATmega328
d) ATmega32u4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Arduino Leonardo is a development board based on the ATmega32u4
8. Which is a 64 bit microprocessor among the following?
a) INTEL 8085
b) INTEL 8086
c) Mororola 68020
d) Intel Pentium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Intel Pentium is a 64 bit microprocessor among the following. It is the fifth
generation microprocessor. Mororola 68020 is a 32 bit microprocessor. INTEL 8086 is a
16 bit microprocessor and INTEL 8085 is an 8 bit microprocessor.
9. Which microcontroller is used in Arduino Leonardo?
a) ATmega2560
b) ATmega1280
c) ATmega328
d) ATmega32u4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Arduino Leonardo is a development board based on the ATmega32u4
10. Which microprocessor is a third generation microprocessor among the following?
a) INTEL 8085
b) INTEL 8086
c) INTEL 80386
d) Motorola 68020
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: INTEL 8086 is a third generation microprocessor among the following
microprocessors. It was an 16 bit micro processor. INTEL 8085 is a second generation
microprocessor. INTEL 80386 and Motorola 68020 are fourth generation microprocessor.
11. Second generation microprocessor was a 4 bit microprocessor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Second generation microprocessor was an 8 bit microprocessor. Third
generation microprocessor was a 16 bit microprocessor. Fourth generation
microprocessor was a 32 bit microprocessor and the latest is the fifth generation 64 bit
microprocessor.
12. Microprocessors are built for some special tasks and can only perform those.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Microprocessors are not built for any specific task. They can only perform
variety of tasks depending upon the necessity. Microcontrollers are built for some special
tasks that’s why they have inbuilt small amount of memory in the form of RAM and ROM.
13. Microprocessors do not have inbuilt ROM (Read only memory).
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Microprocessors do not have inbuilt ROM (Read only memory). They do not
have even RAM (Random access memory). Microprocessors are just integrated circuits
that have CPU (Central processing unit) inside them. A system designer has to attach
them externally.
14. Which microprocessor is a fourth generation microprocessor among the following?
a) INTEL 8085
b) INTEL 8086
c) INTEL 80386
d) Motorola 68010
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: INTEL 80386 is a fourth generation microprocessor among the following
microprocessors. It was a 32 bit micro processor. INTEL 8085 is a second generation
microprocessor. INTEL 8086 and Motorola 68010 are third generation microprocessors.
15. Which microcontroller is used in Arduino MEGA?
a) ATmega2560
b) ATmega1280
c) ATmega328
d) ATmega168
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Arduino MEGA is a development board based on the ATmega2560
can be used as PWM (Pulse Width Modulation) pi
1. What is the nyquist frequency for a bandwidth of span “X”?

a) 0
b) X
c) 2X
d) 3X
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The nyquist frequency for a bandwidth of span “X” is 2X. The nyquist
frequency of any signal that is band limited is defined as twice the bandwidth of the
channel. So for a bandwidth span of “X”, the nyquist frequency will be 2X.
2. What is the LSB voltage of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is
16 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits is 2?
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Full scale voltage range=16 volt
Resolution of analog to digital converter=2 bits
Number of intervals=2(resolution of analog to digital converter in bits)
Number of intervals => 2 =4

2
Resolution=Full scale voltage range/ number of intervals

LSB voltage=resolution
LSB voltage=>16/4=4 volts.
3. What is the full scale voltage range of a analog to digital converter if the LSB voltage is
4 volt and the resolution of analog to digital converter in bits 3?
a) 36 volt
b) 31 volt
c) 43 volt
d) 32 volt
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
LSB voltage = 4 volt

3
Resolution=Full scale voltage range/number of intervals

Full scale voltage range=Resolution*number of intervals
Full scale voltage range=4*8
Full scale voltage range=32 V
4. What is the resolution of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:

2

Resolution=>16/4=4 volts.
5. Nyquist rate is the maximum rate at which a signal of finite bandwidth needs to be
sampled in order to retrieve all its information.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nyquist rate is the not maximum rate at which a signal of finite bandwidth
needs to be sampled in order to retrieve all its information. It is the minimum rate at which
the signal of finite bandwidth needs to be sampled to get all its information.
6. What is the LSB voltage of a analog to digital converter if the full scale voltage range is
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:

2

LSB voltage=>8/4=2 volts.
7. How many resistors are required to make an n-bit Analog-to-digital converter using
string resistor ladder network?
a) 2n resistors
b) 2n resistors
c) 3n resistors
d) 3n resistors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 2n resistors are required to make an n-bit Analog-to-digital converter using
string resistor ladder network. The number of resistors increases exponentially, which is
a major disadvantage of this network.
8. Which of the integrated circuit mentioned below is the name of an Analog to digital
converter?
a) BC541
b) ADS1115
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ADS1115 the name of an Analog to digital converter. It is a 16 bit integrated
circuit and is designed by the Texas Instrument. It supports I2C communication protocol.
It also has an oscillator inside it.
9. What does LVDS stand for?
a) Low-voltage differentiating signal
b) Least-voltage differential signal
c) Low-voltage differential signal
d) Low-voltage differentiable signal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LVDS stand for Low-voltage differential signal. It is a technical standard
which specifies the electrical characteristics of a serial, differential communication
protocol. It is also known an TIA/EIA-644.
a) 6 volt
b) 1 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:

Resolution=>8/4=2 volts.
11. What is binary equivalent of 30?
a) 11110
b) 01111
c) 11011
d) 111110
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The binary equivalent of 30 is 11110. Binary number system is the smallest
possible number system that contains only 0 and 1. It is machine level language. Machines
are fed with binary information for performing any work.
12. What is binary equivalent of 70?
a) 1000101
b) 1000111
c) 1000110
d) 111110
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The binary equivalent of 70 is 1000110. Binary number system is the smallest
possible number system that contains only 0 and 1. It is machine level language. Machines
convert our high level language to their binary equivalent for understanding the
commands.
a) 1.5 volt
b) 2.5 volt
c) 4 volt
d) 2 volt
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:

2

Resolution=>10/4=2.5 volts.
14. What is gray code equivalent of 51?
a) 1000101010
b) 0000101010
c) 00001010101
d) 0000101011
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The gray code equivalent of 51 is 0000101010. Gray code was developed to
encrypt the digital data. It converted the binary into similar looking pattern of 0’s and 1’s
which can only be decoded if the correct algorithm is followed.
15. What is gray code equivalent of 7?
a) 0111
b) 0110
c) 01001
d) 0100
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The gray code equivalent of 7 is 0100. Gray code was developed to encrypt
the digital data. It converted the binary into similar looking pattern of 0’s and 1’s which can
only be decoded if the correct algorithm is followed.
1. What is the form in which audio files are stored?

a) Digital
b) Semi-digital
c) Analog
d) Semi-Analog
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The audio files are stored in digital format. Computer or any other storage
device can only understand and store the binary digits (i.e) 0 and 1, the audio or the sound
waves are converted into digital data which is a combination of many 0 and 1. Thus digital
data can be stored in any storage device.
2. Which conversion takes place when music is played from a memory card?
a) AAC
b) ADC
c) DDC
d) DAC
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DAC conversion takes place when music is played from a memory card.
Computer or any memory storing device only understand the binary language which is a
combination of many 0 and 1. Any information that has to be stored should be converted
into binary digits. The output of any music player is analog signal. Therefore digital to
analog conversion (DAC) takes place music is played from a memory card.
3. What is the output of a music player?
a) Digital
b) Semi-digital
c) Analog
d) Semi-Analog
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Output of a music player is analog signal. Music or any type of sound is an
example of analog signal. The sound signal of music contains many crests and troughs
which makes it analog signal.
4. What does PWM stand for?
a) Pulse Width modulation
b) Pulsating Width modulation
c) Pulse Width modulator
d) Pulsating Width modulator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PWM stands for pulse width modulation. It is a process by which the digital
signals are converted to analog signal. In this process the duty cycle of the signal is varied.
This varied signal acts as analog signal.
5. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.4 seconds and the time period
is 0.8 second?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Pulse width=0.4 seconds
Time period=0.8 second
Duty cycle=(pulse width/time period)*100%.
Duty cycle => 0.4/0.8=0.5*100%=50%.
6. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.008 seconds and frequency is
50 hertz?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given:
Frequency=50 hertz
Time period=1/frequency
Time period=1/50= 0.02
Duty cycle=(pulse width /time period)*100%.
Duty cycle => 0.008/0.02=0.4*100%=40%.
7. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the ON time of the signal is 0.5 seconds and off time
of the signal is 0.5 seconds?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
ON time=0.5 seconds
Off time=0.5 seconds
Duty cycle=(ON time / total time period)*100%.
Total time period=ON time + Off time=>1
Duty cycle => 0.5/1=0.5*100%=50%.
8. Which of the integrated circuit mentioned below is the name of a Digital to Analog
converter?
a) BC541
b) MCP4725
c) TIP122
d) TIP135
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MCP4725the name of a Digital to Analog converter. It has 12 bit resolution.
It supports I2C communication protocol. It also has an internal EEPROM to store the
settings. It works on 2.2V to 5.7V input.
9. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.004 seconds and frequency is
50 hertz?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Given:
pulse width=0.004 seconds
Frequency=50 hertz
Time period=1/frequency
Time period=1/50=0.02
Duty cycle=(pulse width/time period)*100%.
Duty cycle => 0.004/0.02=0.2*100%=20%.
10. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the pulse width is 0.3 seconds and the time period
is 0.6 second?
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 20%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
Time period=0.6 second
Duty cycle=(pulse width /time period)*100%.
Duty cycle => 0.3/0.6=0.5*100%=50%.
11. What is the duty cycle of a signal if the ON time of the signal is 0.7 seconds and off
time of the signal is 0.3 seconds?
a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 40%
d) 20%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given:
ON time=0.7 seconds
Off time=0.3 seconds
Duty cycle=(ON time / total time period)*100%.
Total time period=ON time + Off time=>1
Duty cycle => 0.7/1=0.7*100%=70%.
12. Which is an example of Digital to Analog converter module?
a) PCF8591
b) TMS320F2809PZA
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) DM388AAARD21
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PCF8591 is an example of Digital to Analog converter module.
DM388AAARD21 is an example of Digital media processor. It is manufactured by the
“Texas Instruments”. TMS320F2809PZA is an example of Digital signal controller. RD-
KL25-AGMP01 is an example of data logger kit.
13. The highest voltage value of an analog signal is replaced by “logic 1” in digital signal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The highest voltage value of an analog signal is replaced by “logic 1” in digital
signal. Digital signal can only represent 2 values that are logic 1 and logic 0. Logic 1
represents high voltage whereas logic 0 represents low voltage.
14. We cannot store analog data directly.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Analog data cannot be stored directly. Analog data such as voice recording,
music, video etc. everything is converted into digital data for storage. Any storage device
can only store set of binary digits (0’s and 1’s).
15. Light can be considered as a form of digital signal.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Light cannot be considered as a form of digital signal. It is a form of
electromagnetic radiation that can carry both analog and digital signal. Digital and analog
are means of coding information on signals.
1. Who developed Boolean dataflow?

a) Grueblerowen
b) Joe Buck
c) Oersted
d) Robert Abalakov
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Joe Buck developed Boolean dataflow. It supports the data flow control
during runtime like the DDF (Dynamic Data Flow). Joe Buck developed this Boolean
dataflow as a part of his PHD thesis.
2. Fast Fourier transform algorithm can compute the value of which type of transform?
a) DFT (Discrete Fourier transform) and IDFT (Discrete Fourier transform)
b) DFT (Discrete Fourier transform)
c) IDFT (Discrete Fourier transform)
d) Z transform
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fast Fourier transform algorithm can compute the value of both DFT
(Discrete Fourier transform) and IDFT (Discrete Fourier transform). A Fourier transform
converts the signal from time or space domain to frequency domain and vice versa by
IDFT.
3. Which digital filter should be used to separate two frequency bands?
a) Mean filter
b) Median filter
c) Chebyshev filter
d) Weiner filter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chebyshev filter should be used to separate two frequency bands. The
design of the Chebyshev filter was based upon a mathematical technique known as Z-
transform. They are also well known for their fast speed.
4. Which is an example of Digital media processor?
b) TMS320F2809PZA
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) DM388AAARD21
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DM388AAARD21 is an example of Digital media processor. It is
manufactured by the “Texas Instruments”. TMS320F2809PZA is an example of Digital
signal controller. ADC0808CCN PDIP-28 is an example of Analog to digital converter. RD-
KL25-AGMP01 is an example of data logger kit.
5. Von Neumann architecture is currently used in most of the fields for dataflow.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Von Neumann architecture is currently not used in most of the fields for
dataflow. It is a traditional dataflow architecture also known as control flow architecture.
Today Dataflow architecture is used in most of the fields which totally contrasts the Von
Neumann architecture.
6. Program counter is not present in Dataflow Architecture.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Program counter is not present in Dataflow Architecture. Program counters
are registers that contains address of the instructions that are currently being executed.
The execution of the dataflow architecture depends totally on the input.
7. Which is an example of Digital signal controller?
b) TMS320F2809PZA
c) RD-KL25-AGMP01
d) 792XDXM4L-24A
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: TMS320F2809PZA is an example of Digital signal controller. It is
manufactured by the “Texas Instruments”. ADC0808CCN PDIP-28 is an example of
Analog to digital converter. It consists of a 8 channel multiplexer. RD-KL25-AGMP01 is an
example of data logger kit. 792XDXM4L-24A is an example of relay.
8. What does firing of instruction mean in terms of dataflow?
a) The Content-addressable memory is loaded with instruction and ready for execution
b) The Content-addressable memory is loaded with instruction but not ready for execution
c) The Content-addressable memory executed the instruction
d) The Content-addressable memory cannot execute the instruction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Firing of instruction mean in terms of dataflow means that the Content-
addressable memory is loaded with instruction and ready for execution. The CAM
(Content-addressable memory) is also known as associative memory.
9. Which memory is also known as associative memory?
a) Read only memory
b) Random access memory
c) Content-addressable memory
d) Flash memory
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Content-addressable memory is also known as associative memory. In this
type of memory the memory unit or the memory packet is identified by accessing the data
itself rather than the memory address.
10. What does CAM stand for in terms of memory storage and data flow?
a) Context-addressable memory
b) Content-addressable memory
c) Context-addressed memory
d) Content-allocating memory
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CAM stands for Content-addressable memory in terms of memory storage
and data flow. It is a type of computer memory which facilitates us with very high speed
searching of applications.
11. A compiler does not compile a program further if an error is found.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A compiler compiles the whole program further even if an error is found. It
compiles the whole program in one go. After compiling the whole program the compiler
generates the total number of errors in it.
12. An interpreter does not compile a program further if an error is found.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An interpreter does not compile a program further if an error is found. It
compiles the whole program line by line. Therefore when an error occurs, the interpreter
stops compiling from that point onwards.
13. Dynamic data flow allows one token per arc in the data flow graph.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic data flow allows more than one token per arc in the dataflow graph.
Static dataflow allows one token per arc in the dataflow graph. In static dataflow model we
can only approximate the abstract model.
14. What is the type of machines called that uses Content-addressable memory (CAM)?
a) Dynamic Dataflow Machines
b) Static Dataflow Machines
c) Static inflow Machines
d) Dynamic outflow Machines
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The type of machines that uses Content-addressable memory (CAM) are
called as Dynamic Dataflow Machines. A Dynamic Dataflow Machine supports parallelism
by loop unravelling among the iterating loops.
15. What does SDF stand for in terms of signal processing and data flow?
a) Synchronous data flux
b) Synchronous data flow
c) Synthesized data flow
d) Synthesized data flux
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SDF stands for Synchronous data flow in terms of signal processing and data
flow. It is a special type of data flow in which each receiving nodes are restricted to
consume a fixed amount of data tokens per invocation.
1. What is the equivalent capacitance when two capacitors, one of 20 microfarads and
another of 10 microfarads are connected in series?
a) 20 microfarads
b) 30 microfarads
c) 15 microfarads
d) 10 microfarads
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent capacitance when two capacitors, one of 20 microfarads and
another of 10 microfarads are connected in series is 15 microfarads. When capacitors are
placed is series to each other then the equivalent capacitance is given by 1/Ct=
(1/C1)+(1/C2)+….(1/Cn), where Ct is the total capacitance. C1,C2….Cn are total no. of
capacitors in series.
Therefore (1/Ct)=(1/20)+(1/10)
Ct=15 microfarads.
2. What is the effect on phase shift due to a capacitor in AC circuits?
a) Voltage leads the current by 180 degree
b) Voltage leads the current by 90 degree
c) Current leads the voltage by 90 degree
d) Current leads the voltage by 180 degree
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The phase shift due to a capacitor in AC circuits is 90 degrees. In this the
Current leads the voltage by 90 degree. While in case of an inductor the phase difference
remain same but the current lags the voltage by 90 degree.
3. What is the source voltage applied across a loop containing a resistor of 1000 ohm and
capacitor of 15 microfarads in series when a current of 0.02 ampere flows across the
circuit? Given that the voltage drop across capacitor is 5 Volts?
a) 25 Volts
b) 24 Volts
c) 26 Volts
d) 28 Volts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given : Voltage drop across capacitor = 5 Volts
Current in loop = 0.02 ampere
Resistance = 1000 ohm
Capacitance=15 microfarads
Drop across resistor=1000 *0.02
Drop across resistor=20 Volts
Source voltage (Total Voltage) = Drop across resistor + Drop across resistor
Source voltage = 10 Volts + 5 Volts
Source voltage=25 Volts.
4. What is the equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are
connected in parallel?
a) 20 microfarads
b) 30 microfarads
c) 40 microfarads
d) 10 microfarads
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are
connected in parallel is 40 microfarads. When capacitors are placed parallel to each other,
then their value of capacitances simply gets added up.
5. What is the reactance due to a capacitor of 0.05 farads when an alternating current of
frequency 50 Hertz passes through it?
a) 0.063 ohm
b) 0.63 ohm
c) 0.0063 ohm
d) 0.0703 ohm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Frequency of alternating current(f) = 50 Hertz
Capacitance(C) = 0.05 farads
Reactance(Xc)=1/2πfC
Reactance(Xc)=1/(2*3.14*50 *0.05)
Reactance(Xc)=0.063 ohm.
6. What is the reactance due to an inductor of 0.05 henry when an alternating current of
a) 16.7 ohm
b) 15.7 ohm
c) 17.7 ohm
d) 14.7 ohm
View Answer
Answer: b
Inductance(L) = 0.05 henry
Reactance(Xl)=2πfL
Reactance(Xl)=2*3.14*50*0.05
Reactance(Xl)=15.7 ohm.
7. What is the equivalent Inductance when two Inductors one of 20 henry and another of
15 henry are connected in series?
a) 20 henry
b) 35 henry
c) 40 henry
d) 10 henry
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The equivalent Inductance when two Inductors, one of 20 henry and another
of 15 henry are connected in series is 35 henry. When Inductors are placed in series to
each other, then their value of Inductance simply gets added up.
8. What is the equivalent Inductance when two Inductors, one of 20 henry and another of
10 henry are connected in parallel?
a) 20 henry
b) 30 henry
c) 15 henry
d) 10 henry
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The equivalent Inductance when two Inductors, one of 20 henry and another
of 10 henry are connected in parallel is 15 henry. When Inductors are placed is parallel to
each other then the equivalent Inductance is given by 1/Lt=(1/L1)+(1/L2)+….(1/Ln), where
Lt is the total Inductance. L1,L2….Ln are total no. of inductors in series.
Therefore (1/Lt)=(1/20)+(1/10)
Lt=15 henry.
9. What is the equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are
connected in series?
a) 20 microfarads
b) 30 microfarads
c) 40 microfarads
d) 10 microfarads
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The equivalent capacitance when two capacitors each of 20 microfarads are
connected in series is 10 microfarads. When capacitors are placed is series to each other
then the equivalent capacitance is given by 1/Ct=(1/C1)+(1/C2)+….(1/Cn), where Ct is the
total capacitance. C1,C2….Cn are total no. of capacitors in series.
Therefore (1/Ct)=(1/20)+(1/20)
Ct=10 microfarads.
circuit? Given that the voltage drop across capacitor is 2 Volts?
a) 7 Volts
b) 4 Volts
c) 6 Volts
d) 8 Volts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given: Voltage drop across capacitor = 2 Volts
Drop across resistor=100*0.05
11. What is the reactance due to an inductor of 0.01 henry when an alternating current of
a) 3.512 ohm
b) 15.7 ohm
c) 2.512 ohm
d) 14.7 ohm
View Answer
Answer: c
Inductance(L) = 0.01 henry
Reactance(Xl)=2πfL
Reactance(Xl)=2*3.14*40*0.01
Reactance(Xl)=2.512 ohm.
12. What is the reactance due to a capacitor of 0.01 farads when an alternating current of
a) 0.063 ohm
b) 0.398 ohm
c) 0.0063 ohm
d) 0.0703 ohm
View Answer
Answer: b
Capacitance(C) = 0.01 farads
Reactance(Xc)=1/2πfC
Reactance(Xc)=1/(2*3.14*40 *0.01)
Reactance(Xc)=0.398 ohm.
13. The impedance matching is done to match the internal impedance of two different
sources.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The impedance matching is not done to match the internal impedance of two
different sources. Rather this technique is used to match the internal source resistance
and the driven load resistance. It maximizes the power transfer.
circuit? Given that the voltage drop across capacitor is 2 Volts.
a) 12 Volts
b) 4 Volts
c) 6 Volts
d) 8 Volts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given : Voltage drop across capacitor = 2 Volts
Drop across resistor=500*0.02
15. What is the effect on phase shift due to an inductor in AC circuits?
a) Voltage leads the current by 180 degree
b) Voltage leads the current by 90 degree
c) Current leads the voltage by 90 degree
d) Current leads the voltage by 180 degree
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The phase shift due to an inductor in AC circuits is 90 degrees. In this the
voltage leadsthe current by 90 degree. While in case of a capacitor the phase difference
remains same but the current leads the voltage by 90 degree.
1. Which is not a property of group drive?

a) Less initial cost than individual drive
b) Less maintenance cost than individual drive
c) Low power factor
d) Provides constant motor speed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Group drive does not provide constant motor speed. It has less initial cost
compared to individual drive setup. It also has low maintenance cost, but it has a great
disadvantage that the speed of the motor is not constant.
2. Which is not a part of electric drive?
a) Power Modulator
b) Control unit
c) Converters
d) Spark plug
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Spark plug is not a part of electric drive. The control unit converts the input
reference frequency to a desired variable frequency. AC to DC converter is present to
provide a constant DC supply. Power modulator controls the output power generated by
the motor.
3. Which driver is also known as servomotor amplifiers?
a) Servo drives
b) DC Drives
c) Stepper drives
d) AC drives
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Servo drive is also known as servomotor amplifiers. It is generally used to
control the servo motors, but it can be used for variety of applications such as micro
positioning, robotics, generating controlled signal etc.
4. Which driver is also known as Motor indexer?
a) Servo drives
b) DC Drives
c) Stepper drives
d) AC drives
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stepper drive is also known as Motor indexer. It is generally used to control
the stepper motors, but it can be used for variety of applications such as stepped signal
generation, robotics, machine tools etc.
5. Which is the drive in which each machine has separate motors to drive?
a) Multi-motor drive
b) Individual drive
c) Group drive
d) Stepper drive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Individual drive is the drive in which each machine has separate motors to
drive. In these types of drive, each setup has their separate motors and gear pulley
mechanism which together works to fulfil specific task.
6. Induction motor works on the principle of faradays law of electromagnetic induction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Induction motor works on the principle of faradays law of electromagnetic
induction. An electromotive force is generated due to the relative speed between the stator
and the motor. This is due to the faradays law of electromagnetic induction. This further
induces a rotor current which drives the motor.
7. Group drive has low power factor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Group drive has low power factor. It is one of the major issues why group
drives are not extensively used. But it has comparatively low initial cost of setup than that
of an individual drives.
8. Which drive is also called as Line shaft drive?
a) Multi-motor drive
b) Individual drive
c) Group drive
d) Stepper drive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Group drive is also called as Line shaft drive. In this type of drive, a single
motor drives a line shaft. This line shaft may further drive a cluster of working machine
may be operated.
9. In ward leonard system of speed control we cannot achieve uniform acceleration of
motors.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In ward leonard system of speed control we can achieve uniform acceleration
of motors. It is a very smooth speed control method, where the acceleration of the motor
is uniform and it also can be bidirectional.
10. Which is a type of dual H-bridge motor driver?
a) MSP430G2ET
b) CMCP793V-500
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: L298N is a type of dual H-bridge motor driver. CMCP793V-500 is a type of
velocity sensor. MPU 6050 is a gyroscope module. MSP430G2ET is a launchpad
designed by Texas Instruments.
11. Which is a type of Triple Half-H-Bridge motor driver IC (Integrated circuit)?
a) DRV8313
b) CMCP793V-500
c) MPU 6050
d) L298N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DRV8313 is a type of Triple Half-H-Bridge motor driver IC (Integrated circuit).
L298N is a type of dual H-bridge motor driver. CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity sensor.
MPU 6050 is a gyroscope module.
12. Which is a type of single full H-Bridge motor driver IC (Integrated circuit)?
a) DRV8313
b) CMCP793V-500
c) DRV8873
d) L298N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DRV8873 is a type of single full H-Bridge motor driver IC (Integrated circuit).
DRV8313 is a type of Triple Half-H-Bridge motor driver IC (Integrated circuit). L298N is a
type of dual H-bridge motor driver. CMCP793V-500 is a type of velocity sensor.
13. Who invented first practical DC (direct current) motor?
a) William Sturgeon
b) Joseph Henry
d) Walther Bothe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: William Sturgeon invented first practical DC (direct current) motor. It was
made in the year 1886. This was the first practical DC motor that can be used to move
objects of variable weights and could run on constant speed.
14. When was the first AC (Alternating current) induction motor invented?
a) 1887
b) 1886
c) 1832
d) 1835
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The first AC (Alternating current) induction motor was invented in the year
1887. It was invented by the famous Nikola Tesla in his workshop situated at New York.
It works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
15. Which is a type of three phase brushless DC motor driver?
a) DRV8313
b) DRV10970
c) DRV8873
d) L298N
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DRV10970 is a type of three phase brushless DC motor driver. DRV8873 is
a type of single full H-Bridge motor driver IC (Integrated circuit). DRV8313 is a type of
Triple Half-H-Bridge motor driver IC (Integrated circuit). L298N is a type of dual H-bridge
motor driver.
1. What is the medium in which arc is kept in SF6 circuit breaker?

a) Oil
b) Air
c) Sand
d) Sulphur hexafluoride
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Arc of SF6 circuit breaker is kept in Sulphur hexafluoride medium. The in
Sulphur hexafluoride present in it acts as very good arch quenching media and also acts
as insulating medium for breaking the circuits in SF6 type circuit breakers.
2. SF6 circuit breakers are better than BOCB (Bulk oil circuit breaker).
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SF6 circuit breakers are better than BOCB (Bulk oil circuit breaker). It is so
because SF6 circuit breaker uses Sulphur hexafluoride inside the setup which has very
good arch quenching property along with highly favourable physical and chemical
properties.
3. Which is not a property of Sulphur hexafluoride?
a) Colourless
b) Odourless
c) Toxic
d) Non-Inflammable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sulphur hexafluoride is a Non-toxic gas. It has no colour and it also has no
distinguishing smell. It is inflammable along with excellent arc quenching properties. It is
used in SF6 type circuit breakers.
4. What is the dielectric strength of Sulphur hexafluoride used in SF6 type circuit breaker?
a) 2.5 times of air
b) 2.5 times of water
c) 2.5 times of oil
d) 2.5 times of glass
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dielectric strength of Sulphur hexafluoride used in SF6 type circuit
breaker is 2.5 times that of air. Sulphur hexafluoride has excellent physical, chemical and
arc quenching properties. Also it acts as very good insulator that is why it is used in the
SF6 type circuit breakers.
5. Potential difference and EMF (Electro-motive force) are same.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Potential difference and EMF (Electro-motive force) are not same. They are
different in many aspects such as EMF (Electro-motive force) is independent of resistance
but the potential difference depends on resistance.
6. What does “MCB” stand for?
a) Miniature circuit breaker
b) Mini circuit breaker
c) Miniature capacitor breaker
d) Mini Capacitance breaker
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: “MCB” stands for Miniature circuit breaker. It works on magnetic effect of
electric current. When there is overflow of electric current, it creates a magnetic field that
repels the magnet present in the switch. This repulsion breaks the circuit and restricts the
flow of current.
7. What is the principal on which MCB (Miniature circuit breaker) works ?
a) Magnetic effect of electric current
b) Lenz law
c) Faradays law of electric current
d) Flemings Right hand rule
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: MCB (Miniature circuit breaker) works on magnetic effect of electric current.
When there is overflow of electric current, it creates a magnetic field that repels the magnet
present in the switch. This repulsion breaks the circuit and restricts the flow of current.
8. What is the medium in which arc is kept in BOCB (Bulk oil circuit breaker)?
a) Oil
b) Air
c) Sand
d) Water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Arc of BOCB (Bulk oil circuit breaker) is kept in oil medium. The oil present
in it acts as a arch quenching media and also acts as a insulating medium for breaking
the circuits in bulk oil type circuit breakers.
9. Which material is commonly used for making the arch of circuit breakers?
a) Copper
b) Tungsten
c) Aluminium
d) Copper tungsten alloy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Copper tungsten alloy is commonly used for making the arch of circuit
breakers. Tungsten has an advantage that it has a very high level temperature resistance,
whereas copper provides an excellent conducting property.
10. What does “BOCB” stand for in context to circuit protections?
a) Bulk on-spot circuit breakers
b) Bonded oil circuit breaker
c) Bulk oiled circuit breaker
d) Bulk oil circuit breaker
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation: “BOCB” stands for Bulk oil circuit breaker in context to circuit protections. In
these types of circuit breaker, oil acts as an insulating medium that interrupts the flow of
current during the time of short circuits.
11. What is the standard colour of ac supply ground wire in India?
a) Red
b) Magenta
c) Pink
d) Green
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The standard colour of ac supply ground wire in India is green. Separate
standard colours are assigned for wires carrying AC (Alternating current) supply which
comes in our homes in order to easily understand the significance of each wires.
12. What is the standard colour of ac supply live wire in India?
a) Red
b) Magenta
c) Pink
d) Green
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The standard colour of ac supply live wire in India is Red. Separate standard
colours are assigned for wires carrying AC (Alternating current) supply which comes in
our homes in order to easily understand the significance of each wires.
13. What is the standard colour of ac supply neutral wire in India?
a) Red
b) Black
c) Pink
d) Green
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The standard colour of ac supply neutral wire in India is Black. Separate
standard colours are assigned for wires carrying AC (Alternating current) supply which
comes in our homes in order to easily understand the significance of each wires.
14. Green and yellow striped wire is also used to indicate ac (alternating current) supply
live wire.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Green and yellow striped wire is also not used to indicate 220 volt
ac(alternating current) supply live wire. It is used to denote ground wire of an ac
(alternating current) supply. It is also called as earthing wire.
15. Live wire and hot wire are same.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Live wire and hot wire are same. Live wires are sometimes also referred as
hot wires which carry’s the supply voltage. In India red colour is assigned for the indication
of AC (alternating current) live wire.
1. What is the full form of CNC?
a) Computer numerical control
b) Computer numbercontrol
c) Computer network control
d) Computer numberscount
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Computer numerical control is the full form of CNC. If we provide software-
based numerical control then it is called as computer numerical control. The other three
options are not the perfect choice for the full form of CNC.
2. What does CNC machine use to control motion and speed?
a) Numerical
b) Programs, as well as computer keyboard, Graphical user interface
c) Feedback system
d) GUI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: CNC machine uses the program to control motion and speed. The feedback
system is used to record data from the sensor and compare it with input data. The
graphical user interface provides a facility to understand the position of the tool according
to the input program.
3. The function of the feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare
it with output data.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Feedback system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with
input data. If there is an error found in the system, then it is controlled by sending new
signals towards the driver.
4. What is the function of the GUI (Graphical user interface)?
a) To control motion and speed
b) Converts program into the action of the driver
c) To record the data from the sensor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To understand the position of the tool according to the input program is the
function of GUI. CNC programs are used to control motion and speed. Machine control
unit converts the program into the action of the driver. The feedback system is to record
the data from the sensor and compare it with input data.
5. The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is ____
a) feedback system
b) input device
c) program
d) driving system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is an input device. Magnetic tape,
as well as computer keyboard, can be used in CNC as an input device. The feedback
system is to record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. CNC machine
uses the program to control motion and speed.
6. Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial motion
commands.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Machine control unit implements interpolation commands to generate axial
motion commands. It reads the code provided and decodes the instruction.
7. What is the function of the driving system in CNC?
a) Auxiliary control functions such as coolant
b) Speed and position control
c) Consist of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Driving system consists of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead
screw. These are used to actuate the driving motors. Speed and position control is
provided by machine tools. To understand the position of the tool according to the input
program is the function of GUI.
8. Sensors used in measurement systems are ____
b) consist of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw
c) numerical control sensors
d) measurement sensors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sensors used in measurement systems are speed and position sensors. The
driving system consists of amplifier circuits, driving motors and ball lead screw. Numerical
control sensors and Measurement sensors are not used in CNC devices.
9. Speed and Position in CNC can be controlled using _____
a) slide table and spindle
b) machine code unit
c) feedback system
d) graphic user interface
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed and position are controlled by using a sliding table and a spindle. X
and Y directions are controlled by the machine table. The z-direction is controlled by
spindle speed control. In the other options, The Machine control unit implements
interpolation commands to generate axial motion commands. The feedback system is to
record the data from the sensor and compare it with input data. To understand the position
of the tool according to the input program, is the function of Graphic user interface.
10. In the block diagram of the CNC machine, data processing and control loop are a part
of ____
b) feedback system
c) machine control unit
d) input device
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the block diagram of the CNC machine, data processing and control loop
are a part of the Machine control unit. Machine control unit implements interpolation
commands to generate axial motion commands. The feedback system is to record the
data from the sensor and compare it with input data. Speed and position are controlled by
using a sliding table and a spindle. The punch tape reader in a CNC machine is an input
device. Magnetic tape, as well as computer keyboard, can be used in CNC as an input
device.
1. Which is the first robot to get citizenship in any country?

a) Eskimo
b) Ansino
c) Asimo
d) Sophia
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Sophia is the first robot to get citizenship in Saudi Arabia. The humanoid
robot “Sophia” has been developed by “Hanson Robotics” at Hong Kong. Sophia is social
humanoid robot that can mimic more than 60 human expressions.
2. Who created “Sophia”, the humanoid robot?
a) Jeff Bezos
b) Mark Zuckerberg
c) David Hanson
d) Elon Musk
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: “Sophia”, the humanoid robot was created by David Hanson. It was created
in the year 2016 and was first activated of February 14. Sophia is a robot that can mimic
human expressions and can talk based upon her intelligence.
3. Which sensor can be used in robots for measuring distance?
a) mpu6050
b) Piezoelectric sensor
c) LDR module
d) Ultrasonic Sensor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ultrasonic Sensor can be used in robots for measuring distance. This
sensors use ultrasonic sound for measurement of distance. It constitutes of ultrasonic
wave producer and a receiver. When the wave encounters an object, it bounces back to
the receiver which further calculates the distance depending on the time it takes to cover
that distance.
4. What does “AI” stand for?
a) Artificial Intelligence
b) Artificial Intellect
c) Automatic intellect
d) Automatic intelligence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: AI stands for artificial intelligence. It refers to the capability of a robot to think
and take its own decisions based upon its past experiences and algorithms. Providing
intelligence to a non living thing is termed as Artificial Intelligence.
5. Chatbots and humanoid robots are different in many aspects.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Humanoid robots and the chatbots are different in many aspects. The
chatbots only respond verbally or textually but the humanoid robots have to show
interaction through expressions, movements, verbally and other humanly behaviours.
6. What does “PUMA” stand for in context to robotics?
a) Programmable used machine to assemble
b) Programmed utility machine for assembly
c) Programmable universal machine for assembly
d) Programmed utility machine to assemble
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: “PUMA” in context to robotics stands for Programmable universal machine
for assembly. It is a robotic arm used for industrial assembling purpose. It was developed
by Victor Scheinman at Unimation.
7. What does ZMP in terms of robotics stand for?
a) Zero Moment Point
b) Zero Mean Point
c) Zenith Moment Point
d) Zenith Measurement Point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ZMP stands for Zero Moment Point. It’s basically a concept that is associated
to the movement of the legs of a robot. It’s a crucial concept for the biped robots as they
have only two contact points (contacts at the bottom part of the leg). Others do not relate
to any robotic contexts.
8. Which is the first country to give citizenship to any humanoid robot?
a) Saudi Arabia
b) USA
c) India
d) Africa
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Saudi Arabia the first country to give citizenship to any humanoid robot.
“Sophia” is the first humanoid robot to get citizenship in Saudi Arabia. Sophia is social
humanoid robot that can mimic more than 60 human expressions.
9. Which organisation is developing “Asimo”?
a) Google
b) Honda
c) Space X
d) Boston Dynamics
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Asimo is being developed by Honda. The project was started back in 2000
and became one of the most popular Humanoid robot of the decade. He has the ability to
interact, run, play football and can mimic many different human actions. Scientists are still
working on it to increase its capabilities.
10. What is the root word of “robot”, which is derived from Slavic language?
a) Robot
b) Robota
c) Roboto
d) Robust
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: “Robota” is the root word of “robot”, which is derived from Slavic language.
The word “robota” means slave. It was first introduced by a Czech writer Karel Capek in
his play “Rossum’s Universal Robots”.
11. How many legs do the “Athlete” space robot has?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: “Athlete” is a six legged space robot. “Athlete” has been developed by NASA
(National Aeronautics and Space Administration) which is able to walk on its legs and is
can also roll on the wheels which are present on the end of each leg.
12. How many legs do the “RASSOR” space robot has?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: “RASSOR” is a two legged space robot. “RASSOR” is a humanoid robot,
developed by NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) which is able to
walk on its legs like an ordinary human being.
13. Which among the following robot is made by NASA (National Aeronautics and Space
Administration) for space exploration purpose?
a) Eskimo
b) Zenbo
c) Athlete
d) Pepper
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Athlete is is made by NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration)
for space for space exploration purpose. “Athlete” is a six legged space robot which is
able to walk on its legs and is can also roll on the wheels which are present on the end of
each leg.
14. Which among the following is an Indian robot, made by ISRO (Indian space research
organisation) for space exploration purpose?
a) Valkyrie
b) Sita
c) Athlete
d) Vyommitra
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Vyommitra is an Indian robot, made by ISRO (Indian space research
organisation) for space exploration purpose. This robot is aimed to be sent to the outer
space in the year 2020 in an unmanned space mission.
15. Which among the following is a home robot?
a) Vyommitra
b) Zenbo
c) Athlete
d) Valkyrie
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Zenbo is a home robot. It is developed by a Taiwan company, Asus. It has
the ability to interact with humans and can provide adequate assistance. It is a non
humanoid robot that can work as a personal assistant for home and can follow human
orders.
1. Which is the first aspect which needs to be considered in the Mechatronics design
process?
a) Hardware design and simulation
b) Conceptual design
c) Mathematical modelling
d) Modelling and simulation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Modeling and simulation involve the representation of physical systems by
suitable models for describing the behaviour characteristics such as block diagram.
Hardware design and simulation is a part of prototyping. Conceptual design and
mathematical modelling come under modelling and simulation.
2. In the level of integration of Mechatronics system, an example of the first level is _____
a) fluid valves
b) automatic machine tools
c) industrial robots
d) microprocessors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First level of the mechatronics system is the basic control system which
integrates electrical signal with mechanical action. An example of this level is the fluid
valve. Automatic machine tools and industrial robots come under the second level and
microprocessor in the third level respectively.
3. Interface design is an example of hardware integration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Interface design is a part of software integration which involves the Operating
system. Hardware integration involves process design and electronic design respectively.
4. What is the role of the second level in the mechatronics system design?
a) Integrates microelectronics into electrically controlled devices
b) Integrates electrical signal with mechanical action
c) Advanced control strategy level
d) Providing artificial intelligence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Role of the second level is to integrate microelectronics into electrically
controlled devices. Integration of electrical signal with mechanical action, advanced
control strategy and artificial intelligence comes under the first, third and fourth level of
mechatronics design respectively.
5. Microprocessor-based electrical motors are used for ____
a) prediction of fault in the system
b) correction before the fault occurs
c) actuation purpose in robots
d) providing intelligence
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Microprocessor-based electrical motors are used for actuation purpose in
robots. Correction before the fault occurs, Actuation purpose in robots, providing
intelligence is done using Artificial intelligence.
6. Deployment in mechatronics design is associated with the final product.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Deployment is associated with the final product, embedded software
deployment and lifecycle.
7. Which phase of a mechatronics system consists of hardware designing?
a) Prototyping
b) Modelling
c) Simulation
d) Deployment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hardware design and simulation is a part of Prototyping. Conceptual design
and mathematical modelling come under modelling and simulation.
8. What is the function of “analysis” in the modelling and simulation phase?
a) Database for maintaining project information
b) Sub models for eventual reuse
c) Contains Numerical methods
d) To produce high-level source code
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Analysis provides numerical methods for frequency domain, time domain and
complex domain design. Database for maintaining project information, Sub models for
eventual reuse are part of project management. High-level source codes are produced by
the code generator.
9. Describing the behaviour characteristics through block diagram is done in ____
a) modelling and simulation
b) prototyping
c) deployment
d) design optimization
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Modeling and simulation, physical systems are represented by a suitable
model for describing the behaviour characteristics such as a block diagram. Hardware
design and simulation is a part of Prototyping. Deployment is associated with the final
product, embedded software deployment and lifecycle.
10. Prototyping involves ____
a) conceptual design
b) replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware
c) database for maintaining project information
d) sub models for eventual reuse
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Prototyping involves replacing non-computer systems with actual hardware.
Conceptual design and mathematical modelling come under modelling and simulation.
Database for maintaining project information, Sub models for eventual reuse are part of
project management.
1. Which system is used to control the boat without constant ‘hands-on’ control by a human
operator?
a) Autopilot
b) GPS system
c) Compass
d) Actuators and steering system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Autopilot is a system that is used to control the boat without constant ‘hands-
on’ control by a human operator. The other options are not the accurate choices as the
GPS systems, compass and actuators are themselves a part of an Autopilot system which
operates together to control the boat.
2. Which parameters are considered by a boat autopilot during critical weather conditions?
a) Directions
b) Weight, speed and wind conditions
c) Position
d) Steering control
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Autopilots have a large number of parameters which are taken in accounts
such as weight and speed of the boat and sea conditions. Apparent wind and true wind
react differently depending on the speed of the boat. Directions and Position are controlled
by the GPS system and Compass respectively. Steering control is achieved through a
remote control system.
3. System processor works as a central intelligence system in a boat autopilot system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: System processor works as a central intelligence system in a boat autopilot
system. It takes information from various devices of boat and process it. The devices
through which the information is taken can be central processor, compass, control head,
rudder or GPS system.
4. What is the function of GPS in boat autopilot?
a) To control direction
b) To control steering
c) To understand the position of the boat
d) To understand all the parameters of the boat and according to that take decisions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GPS in boat autopilot is used to control the direction of the boat. The direction
of the boat depends upon the direction of the travel. The system processor is connected
to the GPS system.
5. To understand the position of the boat autopilot system uses ____
a) GPS
b) Actuators and steering system
c) Compass
d) System processor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Compass is provided to understand the position of the boat. GPS in boat
autopilot is used to control the direction of the boat. System processor works as a central
intelligence system in a boat autopilot system. Actuators and steering systems are used
to convert digital signals into mechanical energy.
6. The steering is controlled using the control head of a boat autopilot system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Control head is used to provide the graphical user interface. The control
steering of a boat autopilot system is controlled remotely by using the remote control
system. Control head helps to understand all the parameters of the boat and take the
decisions.
7. Signals taken from the compass are sent to the processor according to ____
a) direction of boat
b) position of boat
c) the angle of the boat is decided
d) signals of other boats
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Signals taken from the compass are sent to the processor according to the
angle of the boat decided. The angle of the boat is controlled through the steering of the
boat. The position and direction are not the appropriate options as these together are
taken as the signals. Signals from the other boats are used for correcting the position of
the boat.
8. What is the use of actuators and steering control in boat autopilot system?
a) To control the direction of the boat
b) To control the position of the boat
c) Converts digital signal into mechanical energy
d) Provides graphical user interface
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Actual control of the boat is provided through the actuators which converts
digital signals into mechanical energy and implement. Control head is used to provide the
graphical user interface. Directions and Position are controlled by the GPS system and
Compass respectively.
9. What is the use of a rudder system?
a) To indicate the actual position of our boat and another boat
b) Converts digital signal into mechanical energy
c) The angle of the boat is decided
d) To control steering
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rudder indicates the actual position of our boat and other boats. We can use
these signals to correct the position of the boat. Steering control is achieved through a
remote control system. The angle of the boat is controlled through the steering of the boat.
Actual control of the boat is provided through the actuators which converts digital signals
into mechanical energy and implement.
10. Feedback system in autopilot is used ____
a) to understand the position of the actuator
b) to understand the position of the boat
c) to indicate the actual position of our boat and other boats
d) to convert the digital signal into mechanical energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Feedback system is used to understand the position of the actuator. If it
calculates the error, then the signals are sent again through the central processor.
Compass is provided to understand the position of the boat. Rudder indicates the actual
position of our boat and other boats. Actual control of the boat is provided through the
actuators which converts digital signals into mechanical energy and implement.
1. Which type of force does the tilting train produce?

a) Centrifugal force
b) Gravitational force
c) Viscous force
d) Frictional force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a train goes into a curve, it produces substantial centrifugal force
towards the outside of the curve. By tilting the train, centrifugal force is balanced by a force
into the inner curve and passenger discomfort is reduced. Among the other forces
mentioned, Gravitational force of the train is balanced to the normal force, Frictional and
Viscous forces are not experienced by the tilting train.
2. What are the properties of naturally tilted trains?
a) Using controlling technologies such as sensors
b) Use of electric actuators
c) Use of hydraulic actuators
d) Working based on the law of tilt centre located above the centre of gravity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The naturally tilted trains work on a principle that law of tilt centre located
above the centre of gravity of the car body. The lower parts of the car body swing outwards
under the influence of lateral acceleration in the curve. Using controlling technologies such
as sensors, Use of electric actuators, Use of hydraulic actuators are the properties of
actively tilled trains.
3. Modern tilting trains allows operators to achieve higher speed on existing curve routes,
without costly track improvements.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Modern tilting trains allows operators to achieve higher speed on existing
curve routes, without costly track improvements or the need to consider completely new
high-speed lines.
4. Which systems are used for tilting actions of trains?
a) Servo-hydraulic actuators system
b) Accelerometer
c) Controllers
d) Actuators
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Servo-hydraulic actuators system is used for the tilting mechanism of trains.
The accelerometer is used as tilting booster. Controllers and actuators are the parts of the
control system of the tilting trains.
5. What is the use of the accelerometer in Control system of tilting trains?
a) Used for tilting actions of trains
b) To measure lateral acceleration and provide negative feedback
c) Balancing the centrifugal force of the train
d) To make active tilting possible
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Accelerometer in Control system of tilting trains is used to measure lateral
acceleration and provide negative feedback. Servo-hydraulic actuators system is used for
the tilting mechanism of trains. By tilting the train, the centrifugal force is balanced. Active
tilting is possible through control technology with sensors, actuators, hydraulic and electric
actuators.
6. The car body is rolled outwards during curve negotiation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The car body is rolled inwards during curve negotiation in order to reduce the
lateral acceleration perceived by the passenger. A reduction of car body lateral
acceleration through an increased track and car body tilt is associated with a slightly
increased vertical acceleration.
7. What is the main feedback component of a bolster feedback system?
a) Controllers
b) Body
c) Actuator
d) Bogie accelerometer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bogie accelerometer is the main feedback component of a bolster feedback
system. The accelerometer in Control system of tilting trains is used to measure lateral
acceleration and provide negative feedback. Controllers, body and actuators are the part
of the block diagram of the bolster feedback system.
8. By how much percentage is the tilt compensation factor multiplied in order to reduce
the lateral acceleration of the car body?
a) 100%
b) 50%
c) 70%
d) 60%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The accelerometer to the non-tilting part of the vehicle to measure how much
tilt is needed to reduce the car body lateral acceleration to zero for that multiplied by tilt
compensation factors by 100%.
9. Which type of forces are experienced by the passengers when the train passes through
horizontal curves?
a) Centrifugal force
b) Lateral forces
c) Viscous force
d) Frictional force
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A train and its passengers are subjected to lateral forces when the train
passes through horizontal curves. When a train goes into a curve, it produces substantial
centrifugal force towards the outside of the curve by a force into the inner curve and
passenger discomfort is reduced. Among the other forces mentioned, Frictional and
Viscous forces are not experienced by the tilting train.
1. How does a coin counter system identify the denomination of coins?

a) Sensors
b) Transducers
c) DC motor
d) Electronic circuitry
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coin counter accepts mixed denomination of coins. The system identifies the
denomination of coins through sensors. Transducers are used to convert one form of a
physical quantity to another. These are not used in the coin counters. DC motor is used
for other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the disk and the electronic circuitry is
used to indicate the coins presented and the total value of coins.
2. The sensor output in a coin counter system is interfaced to ____
a) DC motor
b) Electronic circuitry
c) Feedback system
d) Graphical user interface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The sensor output is to be interfaced to electronic circuitry that should
indicate the number of coins presented and the total value of coins. DC motor is used for
other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the disk. Feedback systems and graphical
user interface are not a part of coin counters and these are generally used in the
construction of CNC machines.
3. A multiplexed display is used to display the total values of the coins in a coin counter
system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A multiplexed display is used to display the total values of the coins in a coin
counter system. It generally indicates the number of coins presented and the total value
of the coins.
4. The design of a coin counter system is divided into how many parts?
a) 5 parts
b) 2 parts
c) 1 part
d) 4 parts
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The design of a coin counter system is divided into two parts which are
mechanical design and electrical design. The mechanical design contains components
such as DC motor, funnel, hollow pipe, Angular presenter. The electronic parts consist of
coin sensors, coin presenter, electronic counting device and other components.
5. What is the function of the DC motor in the coin counter system?
a) Feedback system
b) Rotating system
c) Sensing system
d) Driving system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DC motor is used for other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the disk.
As the disk rotates, the coin drops into a slot which contains an array of sensors which
can read their attributes. The sensing system is used to determine the value of the coin.
The feedback system and the driving systems are not a part of the coin counter system.
6. The features of the coin and the value of coin are determined by the well-designed
sensing system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the weight, size and thickness of every coin are unique, these features of
the coin and the value of coin are determined by the well-designed sensing system. The
sensor output is further interfaced with electronic circuitry.
7. Which among the following are the parts of the mechanical design of the coin counter
system?
a) DC motor
b) Coin presenter
c) Coin sensors
d) Electronic counting system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DC motor is used for other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the disk.
As the disk rotates, the coin drops into a slot which contains an array of sensors which
can read their attributes. Coin presenter, electronic counting system and coin sensors are
parts of the electronic design.
8. Which among the following are the parts of the electronic design of the coin counter
system?
a) Angular presenter
b) DC motor
c) Electronic counting system
d) Funnel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The electronic counting system is used to display the number of coins and it
is a part of the electronic design in the coin counting system. Angular presenter, DC motor
and Funnel are parts of a mechanical design system.
9. What is used for determining the combination of each different denominators?
a) Pair of phototransistor photodiode
b) Electronic counting system
c) Sensors
d) DC motor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pair of phototransistor photodiode is used for determining the combination of
each different denominators. The electronic counting system is used to display the number
of coins and it is a part of the electronic design in the coin counting system. Coin counter
accepts mixed denomination of coins. The system identifies the denomination of coins
through sensors. DC motor is used for other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the
disk. As the disk rotates, the coin drops into a slot which contains an array of sensors
which can read their attributes.
10. Which circuit is used for identification of coins?
a) Electronic counting system
b) Sequential logic circuit
c) Schmitt triggers
d) Coin sensors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A sequential logic circuit is designed to identify the coin correctly. The
electronic counting system is used to display the number of coins and it is a part of the
electronic design in the coin counting system. Coin sensors are a part of the electronic
design. The sensor output is converted into transistors logic signals by using Schmitt
triggers, so the output can be compatible with electronic circuitry.
11. The sensor output is converted into transistors logic signals by using ____
a) Schmitt trigger
b) Pair of phototransistor photodiode
c) DC motor
d) Sensors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sensor output is converted into transistors logic signals by using Schmitt
triggers, so the output can be compatible with electronic circuitry. For determining the
combination of each different denominations, a set of phototransistor photodiode pair is
used. DC motor is used for other purposes in coin counter such as rotating the disk. The
system identifies the denomination of coins through sensors.
1. What is the full form of EMS?

a) Electronic management system
b) Engine management system
c) Engine management source
d) Electrical management system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of EMS is the Engine management system. The engine
management system consists of various electronics and electrical parts. Some of those
parts are sensors, relays, actuators and engine control unit. All these parts work together
to provide an EMS with vital data parameters that are essential to govern the various
engine functions effectively.
2. What does ECU stand for?
a) Engine control unit
b) Electronic control unit
c) Engine communication unit
d) Electronic circuitry unit
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ECU stands for Engine unit control. It acts as a brain of the engine
management system. The function of ECU is collecting, processing, analysing and
executing the data received from various subsystems. The other options mentioned
above, are not the correct full form of ECU.
3. The fuel supply of the engine in the engine management system is controlled by ____
a) ECU
b) Fuel injection system
c) Mechanical means
d) Pneumatic means
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fuel injection system has a major role to control the engine’s fuel supply.
The function of ECU is collecting, processing, analysing and executing the data received
from various subsystems. The Mechanical means and Pneumatic means mentioned in
the options are used to control the ignition timing and speed.
4. The engine management system consists of various electronics and electrical parts.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The engine management system consists of various electronics and
electrical parts. Some of those parts are sensors, relays, actuators and engine control
unit.
5. The function of the engine control unit is ____
a) to collect, process, analyse and execute the data
b) to control injection timing
c) to control idle speed
d) to update program
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The function of the engine control unit is to collect, process, analyse and
execute the data. It acts as a brain of the engine management system. Mechanical means
and Pneumatic means are used to control ignition timing and speed. PCB consist of
software and microcontroller. We can update the programs by replacing the chips.
6. What does a PCB in an engine management system consists of?
a) Wheel
b) Microcontroller
c) Valves
d) Pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: PCB consists of software and a microcontroller. We can update the program
by replacing the chips. Wheel, Valve and pumps are hardware parts and these are not the
parts of an engine management system.
7. An Engine control system consists of a computer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Engine control system consists of a computer which uses a microchip to
process the inputs from various engine sensors in real time. ECU consist of hardware and
software PCB. PCB consist of software and a microcontroller. We can update the program
by replacing the chips.
8. The data inputs are sent to the ECU by the means of ____
a) electrical signals
b) valves
c) channels
d) shafts
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All the engine sensors send data inputs by the means of electrical signals to
engine control unit which in turn controls various actuators, ignition timings, variable valve
timing etc. Valves, Channels and shafts are not used to transfer energy in engine
management systems.
9. Which kind of effect is seen in thermocouples?
a) Ferranti effect
b) Corona effect
c) See beck effect
d) Heating effect
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A kind of effect seen in thermocouples is see beck effect. In the other options,
ferranti and corona effects are the effects caused in power electronics and the heating
effect is caused due to electric current and these are therefore not a perfect choice.
10. Which of the following is not a part of the engine control unit?
a) Engine temperature sensor
b) Electronic counting system
c) Ignition circuits
d) Cam position sensors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Among the following options, engine temperature sensor, ignition circuits,
cam position sensors are the parts of the engine control unit. The electric counting system
is not a part of the engine control unit and used in coin counters.
1. Which organisation has developed “ZENBO”, the non-humanoid robot?

a) Asus
b) Qihan Technology
c) Space X
d) Boston Dynamics
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ZENBO is developed by Asus. Asus is a company in Taiwan, famous for its
cell phone technology. “Zenbo” is a healthcare assistant which can be paired with all home
automation devices with an additional ability to interact with humans.
2. Which is the first robot to understand human emotions?
a) Eskimo
b) Walker
c) Asimo
d) Pepper
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pepper is the first robot to understand human emotions. Pepper is a social
robot developed by Softbank who is capable of understanding human emotions, talk and
assist them and can even dance.
3. How many ultrasonic sensors are present in Tesla Model S?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 20
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 12 ultrasonic sensors are present in Tesla Model S. Tesla Model S is a self
driven car with a forward radar, camera and digitally controlled electric assist braking
system. It can monitor and sense the objects in surroundings up to a radius of 16 feet
radius.
4. Which among the following robot is being made for deep space research and can be
sent to mars?
a) Eskimo
b) Zenbo
c) Valkyrie
d) Pepper
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Valkyrie is being made for deep space research and can be sent to mars.
Valkyrie is developed by NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration) in
association with the university of Edinburgh. It is said to based for building safer habitats
on mars.
5. Which among the following is an autonomous flying drone?
a) Foster-Miller TALON
b) Zenbo
c) Valkyrie
d) PARC
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: PARC is an autonomous flying. PARC is an abbreviation of persistent aerial
reconnaissance and communications. It fulfils wide variety of security, surveillance and
business needs.
6. “NEXT TWO” is an autonomous vehicle developed by “RENAULT”.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NEXT TWO is an autonomous vehicle developed by “RENAULT”.
RENAULT’s NEXT TWO is self driven car that can sense and interpret the environment
and is also equipped with advanced driver assistance systems.
7. Which among the following robot is made for serving the military?
a) Foster-Miller TALON
b) Zenbo
c) Valkyrie
d) Pepper
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Foster-Miller TALON is an unmanned robot is made for serving the military.
It is made by a United States company Qinetiq-NA. It is one among the most agile and
fastest military robot that can run on sand, snow and even water.
8. Which among the following is an autonomous robot made for rescuing and searching
purpose?
a) Paro
b) Zenbo
c) Nova 5
d) Pepper
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Nova 5 is an autonomous robot made for rescuing and searching purpose. It
is an intelligent searching robot developed by Fady and Sami Khaled. It uses AI (Artificial
Intelligence) technology for interpreting the surrounding and perform searching operation.
9. Which among the following is an unmanned tank that can be controlled remotely?
a) Paro
b) Zenbo
c) Nova 5
d) Ripsaw M5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ripsaw M5 is an unmanned tank that can be controlled remotely. It is a
robotic combat tank that will be used for serving the US (United states) military purpose.
It has been developed by the team Ripsaw.
10. Which among the following is an autonomous delivery vehicle?
a) Paro
b) Zenbo
c) Nova 5
d) Nuro R2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nuro R2 is an autonomous delivery vehicle. It is developed by the company
Nuro. This self driven delivery vehicle was granted exemption by the transport department
of Us to test it on public roads.
11. Who invented first self driven car?
a) Gruebler owen
b) Joseph Henry
d) Walther Bothe
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Norman Bel Geddes invented first self driven car. It was a electric car that
was guided with the radio controlled electromagnetic waves which was generated by the
metal pieces that were laid on the roadway.
12. Which among the following is Cargo bot which is used for carrying things?
a) Paro
b) Zenbo
c) Nova 5
d) Gita
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gita is Cargo robot which is used for carrying things. It is designed by the
company Piaggio. It is made as a helping hand for the people which can be taken at any
public place and can carry large amount of one’s personnel stuffs.
13. Which among the following is a non humanoid social robot which resembles a dog?
a) Paro
b) Zenbo
c) Aibo
d) Zenbo
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: “Aibo” is a non humanoid social robot which resembles a dog. Aibo is a robot
dog developed by the company “sony”. It was originally developed in the year 1998 which
was further advanced as the years passed by.
14. The non humanoid social robot “Paro” resembles which animal?
a) Parrot
b) Seal
c) Dog
d) Cat
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The non humanoid social robot “Paro” resembles a seal. It is a therapeutic
robot that resembles a baby seal. It is made cute and adorable in order to spread calming
effect on patients at hospitals or anywhere.
15. Which organisation has developed “SANBOT”?
a) Google
b) Qihan Technology
c) Space X
d) Boston Dynamics
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SANBOT is developed by Qihan Technology. It is perfect for the retail
environment. It can interact with people and can also present its own views using its front
screen and also has an inbuilt projector.
1. What is the function of an Anti-lock braking system?
a) Used for car parking
b) To maintain tractive force
c) Programming the system
d) To drive the car
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tractive force used to generate motion between a body and a tangential
surface. Antilock brake system maintains the tractive force between the wheel and road
surface. The other options mentioned are not the functions of the antilock brake systems.
2. The skidding of vehicles, while sudden brakes are applied, is avoided through _______
a) antilock braking system
b) engine management system
c) automatic car parking system
d) driving system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The uncontrolled skidding of vehicles while sudden brakes are applied is
avoided through an antilock braking system. Antilock brake system increases control over
the vehicle and also decreases the stopping distance on the dry and slippery surfaces.
3. The Anti-lock brake system supports electronic stability.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Antilock lock brake system has some special capabilities like electronic
stability control, emergency brake assist and electronic brake force distribution. The
uncontrolled skidding of vehicles, while sudden brakes are applied, is avoided through an
antilock braking system.
4. What is the function of the Electronic control unit in Anti-lock braking system?
a) Monitoring the speed of the wheel
b) Decreases the stopping distance
c) Provides electronic stability control
d) Maintaining the tractive force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The electronic control unit constantly monitors the rotational speed of each
wheel. If it detects a wheel rotating significantly slower than the other wheels then that
condition indicates of impending wheel locks. The other options mentioned ate the
functions of an antilock brake system but not particularly the function of ECU.
5. What detects the fault in the anti-lock brake system?
a) ECU
b) Pump
c) Valves
d) Sensors
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The fault detection in an electronic brake system is possible by fault code
diagnosis through Electronic control unit. The pump, valves and sensors are the other
parts of the anti-lock brake system but these are not specifically used for fault detection.
6. The Electronic control unit is used to detect the speed of wheels.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Electronic control unit detects if the speed of any wheel is faster than
the speed of another wheel and accordingly the pressure on the hydraulic brake is
increased or decreased.
7. Which part of the antilock brake system is used to find the acceleration and deceleration
of the wheel?
a) Valves
b) ECU
c) Speed sensors
d) Pumps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: We can sense the speed of the vehicle and find the acceleration and
deceleration through the speed sensors. The Electronic control unit detects if the speed
of any wheel is faster than the speed of another wheel and accordingly the pressure on
the hydraulic brake is increased or decreased. Valves are used to pass pressure from
hydraulic cylinder towards brakes and Pumps are used to restore pressure. The electronic
control unit constantly monitors the rotational speed of each wheel.
8. Which device is used to pass the pressure from hydraulic cylinder towards brake?
a) Valves
b) Pumps
c) Sensors
d) ECU
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Valves are used to pass the pressure from hydraulic cylinder towards brake.
When the valve is closed, then it isolates the break from the hydraulic cylinder. Thus, they
control the pressure supplied to the brakes. The function of Pump in the automatic brake
system is to restore pressure to the hydraulic brake after the valves have released it.
9. What is the function of Pump in an automatic brake system?
a) For fault detection
b) To sense the speed of the vehicle
c) To restore pressure
d) To find the acceleration and deceleration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The function of Pump in the automatic brake system is to restore pressure to
the hydraulic brake after the valves have released it. The controller sends the signals to
the pump to start or stop depending upon the pressure in Hydraulic cylinders.
10. The breaking valves are actuated and turned on and off through ___________
a) pumps
b) valves
c) sensors
d) modulator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The breaking valves are actuated and turned on and off through Modulator.
Electronic control unit decides the brake force and activates automatic brake system
modulator which actuates the breaking valves on and off.
1. Which is the first robot to ride bicycle like humans?

a) Eskimo
b) Ansino
c) Asimo
d) Primer V2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Primer V2 is the first robot to ride bicycle like humans. It is developed by a
Japanese robotics engineer, “Masahiko Yamaguchi”. It is a miniature robot that replicated
the exact human style of riding a bicycle.
2. When was the term “Mechatronics” first coined?
a) 2010
b) 1871
c) 1971
d) 2001
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The term “Mechatronics” first coined in the year 1971. It was coined by
“Tetsuro Mori”. It was also the trademark of the “Yasakawa Electric Corporation” for few
years. Mechatronics is an interdisciplinary branch which is compiled of mechanical,
electrical, robotics and many other branches.
3. Who made the first vehicle application of eddy current braking system?
a) Vishwas Rai
b) Paul Hemelton
c) Derulo Sarazin
d) Raoul Sarazin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Raoul Sarazin made the first vehicle which used eddy current braking
system. They are also referred as “Electromechanical brakes”. They apply
electromagnetic force to provide mechanical resistance and stop or slow down the vehicle.
4. Electromagnetic brakes do not wear and tear.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electromagnetic brakes do not wear and tear. These brakes can be thought
of as future of braking system as they don’t rely on any shoe brakes rather they use
electromagnetic force for slowing down the vehicle. This reduces the disadvantage of
wearing out of the traditional braking surfaces.
5. Electromagnetic brakes do not work if power supply gets interrupted.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Electromagnetic brakes do not work if power supply gets interrupted. These
brakes can be thought of as future of braking system but they come with huge
disadvantages. These brakes cannot carry out its functions properly if the temperature
increases as permanent magnets loses its magnetic property at higher temperatures.
6. “Alexa Echo” made by the company “Amazon” has artificial intelligence.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: “Alexa Echo” made by the company “Amazon” has artificial intelligence. It is
an assistant that can help you out with your daily routines. These assistants are made
with machine learning models that can learn from its past experiences.
7. Who invented the robot “primer V2”?
a) Vishwas Rai
b) Paul Hemelton
c) Masahiko Yamaguchi
d) Raoul Sarazin
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: “Masahiko Yamaguchi” invented the robot “primer V2”. Primer V2 is a
miniature robot that can ride a mini bicycle. This robot mimics the human style of riding a
bicycle. It paddles the bicycle itself instead of using any motor for the movement.
8. Which braking system is called as vacuum assisted braking system?
a) Electromagnetic braking system
b) Servo braking system
c) Disc brakes
d) Elevator braking system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Servo braking system is called as vacuum assisted braking system. These
types of brakes are used in most of the cars today. They have almost replaced the use of
traditional drum brakes in cars. These vacuum assisted brakes work when engine of the
car is turned ON.
9. What is the full form of “ABS” in terms of modern vehicle brakes?
a) Advanced Braking System
b) Anti-Lock Braking System
c) Assisted Braking System
d) Advanced Backing System
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of “ABS” in terms of modern vehicle brakes is Anti-Lock Braking
System. These are modern type of braking system that prevents the vehicle from skidding.
This system smoothens the process of braking and reduces sudden locking of wheels.
10. Google maps do not use artificial intelligence.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Google maps do use artificial intelligence. It is a smart map that can help the
user by finding the shortest and easiest route possible to reach at the destination. They
analyses different routes its traffic, its shortest path, and then calculates the expected time
it will take to reach the destination.

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This set of Mechatronics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on

“Elements of Mechatronics System”.

1. Where and when was the word Mechatronics invented?

1. What are Dashpots?

1. What is the sequence followed by the automatic washing machine?

1. In the mechatronics design process, what is the role of modelling?

1. What is the full form of CNC?

1. Who developed FMS (Flexible manufacturing system)?

1. Which organization has developed the humanoid robot “Sophia”?

1. Which among the following is a false statement regarding “Mechatronic system”?

1. What are transducers?

1. What is the relative error percentage of an observation taken by an ultrasonic sensor

1. Which error is also termed as measurement error?

This set of Mechatronics Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on “Displacement

1. Which type of position can be determined by a position sensor?

1. Which type of material can be sensed by inductive proximity sensor?

1. Which type of lens is generally used in the PIR sensors?

. What will be the value measured by an accelerometer in free fall?

1. How is pressure (p) defined in terms of force(F) and area(A)?

Velocity of the liquid=0.5 m/s

Velocity of the liquid=0.5 m/s

1. Which is not a solid state device?

1. How many PN junctions is/are present in a bipolar junction transistor?

1. Which is the majority charge carrier in N-channel JFET?

1. How many layers and junctions does an SCR have?

1. How many minimum thyristors make up a TRIAC (Triode alternating current)?

1. Who developed the first Light emitting diode?

1. What is the slew rate of an ideal operational amplifier?

1. Which noise is also termed as multiplicative noise?

a) Light will flicker

1. Which law or equation gives a relationship between voltage and current?

1. What is the frequency of the supplied alternating current in India?

1. Which type of mechanical device is used to give energy to the liquid?

1. Which type of mechanical device is used to give energy to the liquid?

1. What is the function of a pressure control valve?

1. What is the function of the air compressor?

1. Which is not an output device?

1. Which is an electro-pneumatic device?

1. Duplex cylinders contain more than one piston.

Area of cross section = 3.14*(0.05)2=7.85*10-3 m2

1. What is Degree of freedom?

1. Which Equation can be used to determine the “degree of freedom” of a system?

1. Who invented Abalakov Cam?

1. Who patented the first ball bearing?

1. Which type of coil is a solenoid?

1. What does this symbol represent in an electric circuit?

a) N channel enhancement type MOSFET

a) N channel enhancement type MOSFET

a) N channel enhancement type MOSFET

a) N channel enhancement type MOSFET

1. Who discovered the magnetic effect of electric current?

1. Which type of device is a stepper motor?

1. Who invented LabVIEW?

1. What is the name of Intel’s first microprocessor?

1. What is the nyquist frequency for a bandwidth of span “X”?

Number of intervals => 2 =4

Resolution=Full scale voltage range/ number of intervals

Number of intervals => 2 =8

Resolution=Full scale voltage range/number of intervals

Number of intervals => 2 =4

Resolution=Full scale voltage range/number of intervals

Number of intervals => 2 =4

Resolution=Full scale voltage range/ number of intervals

Number of intervals => 2 =42

Area of cross section = 3.14(0.05)2=7.8510-3 m2