SR+LT BIPC PHASE-3 ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS

DAY – 18 (DT 13-06-2020)

SUBJECT: ZOOLOGY
Chapter: Evolution upto Hardy-Weinberg Principle (7.1 to 7.7)
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1. Basic idea of evolution is
(1) special creation (2) cosmic evolution
(3) spontaneous generation (4) descent with modification
Key : (4)
2. Process of evolution is
(1) continuous
(2) discontinuous
(3) continuous in the past but discontinuous presently
(4) discontinuous in the past but continuous presently
Key : (1)
3. Which theory attempts to explain orgin of universe
(1) Spontaneous generation theory (2) Bigbang theory
(3) Special creation theory (4) Naturalistic theory.
Key : (2)
4. Statement-I: The primitive atmosphere on earth was reducing type even after origin of photo autotrophs
Statement-II: The primitive photoautotrophs were anoxygenic.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
Key : (1)
5. Spontaneous generation theory was dismissed once and for all after experimental demonstration
given by
(1) Aristotle (2) Oparin (3) Miller (4) L.Pasteur
Key : (4)
6. Which of these is still a favourite idea for some astronomers regarding origin of life
(1) Panspermia (2) Abiogenesis (3) Biogenesis (4) Spontaneous Origin
Key : (1)
7. Spontaneous generation theory stated that life originated
(1) from non living matter (2) from protocells
(3) from pre existing living forms (4) after catastrophe
Key : (1)
8. The theory which explains the origin of life and is experimentally supported is
(1) Special creation theory (2) Catastrophism
(3) Chemosynthetic theory (4) Biogenesis
Key : (3)
9. Oparin and Haldane’s theory is also called
(1) Chemical theory of origin of life (2) Modern theory of origin of life
(3) Naturalistic theory (4) All of the above
Key : (4)
10. Select the wrong pair.
(1) Oparin – Protobiont (2) Spallanzani – Approved abiogenesis
(3) Haldane – Hot dilute soup (4) Fox – Microspheres
Key : (2)
11. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) The theory of Autogenesis was refuted by Louis Pasteur
(2) The primitive earth had reducing atmosphere compared to present oxidising one
(3) The first cells probably had DNA as their hereditary material
(4) Protobionts with chromophores became energy transducing devices
Key : (3)
12. Which of the following is not true about coacervates?
(1) They are formed when a mixture of large proteins and polysaccharide is shaken
(2) They exhibit simple metabolism
(3) Coacervates do not have outer membrane of lipid and could reproduce
(4) They were first proposed by Oparin
Key : (3)
13. Which of these is a true statement ?
(1) Eukaryotes evolved before prokaryotes (2) Prokaryotes evolved before eukaryotes
(3) The true cell evolved before the protocell (4) Prokaryotes did not evolve until 1.5 billion years ago
Key : (2)
14. From the point of view of early chemical evolution that preceded the origin of life on earth, the most
important simple organic molecules formed were
(1) sugars and amino acids (2) glycerol and fatty acids
(3) purines and pyrimidines (4) all of these
Key : (4)
15. Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have
originated spontaneously from non-living matter?
(1) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel
(2) Microbes appeared in meat stored in sterilised conditions
(3) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
(4) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter
Key : (1)
16. An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of
(1) homologous and analogous organs (2) homologous and vestigial organs
(3) analogous and vestigial organs (4) homologous organs only
Key : (2)
17. Which is incorrect?
(1) Wings of insects and bats are analogous
(2) Wings of sparrow and flippers of penguins are homologous
(3) Wings of insects and birds are analogous
(4) Wings of insects and birds are homologous
Key : (4)
18. Which of the following are not analogous organs?
(1) Eye of Octopus and Eye of mammals
(2) Wings of birds and Wings of butterfly
(3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendril of Cucurbita
(4) Tuberous root of sweet potato and stem tuber of potato
Key : (3)
19. Which of the following is a vestigial structure in man?
(1) Intestine (2) Ear pinna (3) Wisdom teeth (4) Muscle of glottis
Key : (3)
20. The theory of recapitulation means that
(1) Life history of an animal reflects its evolutionary history
(2) All animals have common ancestor
(3) Progeny of an organism resembles its parents
(4) Body parts once lost are regenerated
Key : (1)
21. Cervical fistula is an example of
(1) Atavism (2) Vestigeal organ (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Convergent evolution
Key : (1)
22. Which of the following is not a reptilian character of the fossil bird - Archaeopteryx?
1) fused cranial bones 2) free caudal vertebrae 3) Solid bones 4) Long tail
Key : (1)
23. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that
(1) Fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors (2) Frogs will have gills in future
(3) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors (4) Fishes were amphibious in the past
Key : (3)
24. Comparative anatomy and morphology shows …A…and ….B…. and organisms of today and those
that existed years ago. Such similarities can be interpreted to understand whether …C… ancestors
were shared or not. Choose the correct option for A, B and C.
(1) A-similarities, B-differences, C-common (2) A-similarities, B-differences, C-different
(3) A-complexities, B-differences, C-different (4) A-complexities, B-similarities, C-common
Key : (1)
25. Which of the following is an example of vestigeal structure?
(1) Your tail bone (2) Ear pinna
(3) Sixth finger found in some humans (4) Human knee cap
Key : (1)
26. Arrange the periods of Palaeozoic era in ascending order of a geological time scale.
(1) Cambrian  Ordovician  Silurian  Devonian  Carboniferous  Permian
(2) Cambrian  Devonian  Ordovician  Silurian  Carboniferous  Permian
(3) Cambrian  Ordovician  Devonian  Silurian  Carboniferous  Permian
(4) Silurian  Devonian  Cambrian  Ordovician  Permian  Carboniferous
Key : (1)
27. “Theory of Continuity of Germplasm” was propounded by
(1) Darwin (2) Lamarck (3) Gregor Mendel (4) August Weismann
Key : (4)
28. The idea of “Survival of Fittest” was originally introduced by
(1) Malthus (2) Lyell (3) Spencer (4) Darwin
Key : (3)
29. Statement-I: Primitive atmosphere was formed by the light elements
Statement-II: The primitive atmosphere was reducing in nature
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
Key : (1)
30. Which one of the following scientist’s name is incorrectly matched with the theory put forth by him?
(1) Darwin– Theory of Pangenesis (2) Weismann – Theory of continuity of germplasm
(3) Lamarck– Inheritance of acquired characters (4) Hugo de Vries – Natural selection
Key : (4)
31. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is known to be affected by gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic
recombination and
 (1) atavism (2) vestigeal organs (3) limiting factors (4) natural selection
Key : (4)
32. Darwin proposed that new species evolve from ancestral forms by
(1) The gradual accumulation of adaptations to changing environments
(2) The inheritance of acquired adaptations to the environment
(3) The struggle for limited resources
(4) The accumulation of mutations
Key : (1)
33. Which of the following is not included in Neo-Lamarckism ?
(1) Change in environment has direct effect on the organisms
(2) Acquired characters are passed from one generation to the next
(3) Use and disuse of organs plays a role in evolution
(4) Prodigality of production
Key : (4)
34. In a population of H.W eqilibrium there are 64% of non tasters of PTC which is the recessive trait.
What is the percentage of homozygous tasters in that population?
(1) 36% (2) 48% (3) 4% (4) 16%
Key : (3)
35. In a population of H.W eqilibrium the recessive individuals are 36%, find out the percentage of
heterozygous individuals in that population?
(1) 60% (2) 40% (3) 48% (4) 64%
Key : (3)
36. Statement-I:Adaptive radiation results in cladogenesis
Statement-II:Adaptive radiation results in convergent evolution
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
Key : (3)
37. Mutations explain
(1) Variations (2) Industrial melanism (3) Connecting links (4) Living fossils
Key : (1)
38. In a population of H.W eqilibrium the recessive allele frequency is 0.2 . What is the genotypic
frequency of homozygous dominant condition?
(1) 0.8 (2) 0.32 (3) 0.64 (4) 0.48
Key : (3)
39. In a population of 1600 individuals homozygous dominant genotypic frequency is 0.36, find out the
number of recessive individuals in that population?
(1) 768 (2) 576 (3) 256 (4) 108
Key : (3)
40. The best description of natural selection is
(1) The arrival of the fittest
(2) The struggle for existence
(3) The reproductive success of the members of a population best adapted to the environment
(4) The overproduction of offspring in environments with limited natural resources
Key : (3)
41. Modern synthetic theory is based on
(1) mutation (2) population (3) isolation (4) adaptation
Key : (1)
42. Change of population of lighter coloured variety of peppered moths (Biston betularia) to darker
variety occurred due to
(1) selection of darker variety for survival in smoke laden industrial environment
 (2) deletion of gene
(3) industrial carbon deposited on the wings
(4) translocation of gene
Key : (1)
43. The given figure shows an example of

Tendril

Thorn

Bougainvillea Cucurbita
(1) homologous organs (2) convergent evolution
(3) divergent evolution (4) both (1) and (3)
Key : (4)
44. Mark the wrong match
(1) Discontinuous distribution - Finches of Galapagos Island
(2) Restricted distribution -Platypus and kangaroo
(3) Parallel evolution - Deer and horse
(4) Convergent evolution - Spiny ant eater & Scalyant eater
Key : (1)
45. Darwinism explains all the following except
(1) offspring with better traits that overcome competition are best suited for the environment
(2) variations may or may not be inherited from parents to offspring through genes
(3) within each species, there are variations
(4) organisms tend to produce more number of offspring than can survive
Key : (2)
46. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures?
(1) Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
(2) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same function
(3) Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors
(4) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult
Key : (1)
47. Refer the given figure. What does it represents?

Flying bat
Arboreal
Swimming climbing squirrel
seal
Arboreal hanging
sloth

Arboreal gliding Flying squirrel

Walking elephant

Fossorial or burrowing mole

Leaping kangaroo

Running herbivore deer Running carnivore cheetah

(1) Convergent evolution (2) Adaptive radiation

 (3) Divergent evolution (4) Both (2) and (3)
Key : (4)
48. What can you infer about the structure shown in figure?

(1) They are homologous structures (2) They are vestigial structures
(3) They are analogous structures (4) They have nothing to do with each other
Key : (1)
49. Following diagram provides an example of
Tasmanian wolf
Flying phalanger Banded anteater

Australian
Marsupials
Marsupial rat

Koala
Kangaroo
(1) convergent evolution (2) parallel evolution
(3) recapitulation (4) divergent evolution
Key : (4)
50. Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution?
(1) Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection
(2) Variations, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection
(3) Overproduction, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection
(4) Variations, natural selection, overproduction, constancy of population size
Key : (3)
51. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters
then what shall be correct according to it
(1) Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become extinct
(2) Size of organs increase with ageing
(3) Development of organs is due to will power
(4) There should be some physical basis of inheritance
Key : (4)
52. Which of the following statements about Lamarck is true
(1) He was an English botanist who later became zoologist
(2) He was an English naturalist who gave theory of evolution
(3) He was a Polish scientist and gave law of inheritance
(4) He was a French scientist who gave “inheritance of acquired character”
Key : (4)
53. Darwin’s finches belong to the family
(1) Geospizidae (2) Ratitae (3) Carinatae (4) Impennae
Key : (1)
54. Match the scientists and their contributions in the field of evolution CBSE PMT 2007
(i) Charles Darwin (1) Mutation theory
(ii) Lamarck (2) Germ plasm theory
(iii) Hugo De Vries (3)Philosophic Zoologique
(iv) Ernst Haeckel (4) The Origin of species
 (v) August Weismann (5) Biogenetic law
(6) Essay on population
1) i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-5, v-2 2) i-4, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1, v-6
3) i-6, ii-4, iii-5, iv-3, v-1 4) i-2, ii, iii-1, iv-5, v-2
Key : (1)
55. Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by CBSE PMT 2008
(1) ability to defend itself (2) strategy to obtain food
(3) number of offsprings (4) dominance over other individuals.
Key : (3)
56. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of organs mentioned
against it? CBSE PMT 2008
(1) Nephridia of earthworm and malpighian tubules of cockroach - Excretory organs
(2) Wings of honeybee and wings of crow - Homologous organs
(3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita - Analogous organs
(4) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in human eye - Vestigial organs
Key : (1)
57. Industrial melanism is an example of CBSE PMT 2008
(1) defensive adaptation of skin against UV radiations
(2) drug resistance
(3) protective resemblance with the surrounding
(4) darkening of skin due to industries
Key : (3)
58. Which is not applicable to the Biological species concept? CBSE PMT 2009
(1) hybridization (2) natural population (3) reproductive isolation (4) gene pool
Key : (1)
59. Assertion: According to Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, the frequency of an allele remains the same
generation after generation.
Reason: The only way to bring about a change is by natural selection. CBSE PMT 2010
(1) A is correct and R is its explanation.
(2) A and R both are correct but R is not an explanation to A
(3) A is correct and R is false
(4) A is false and R is correct
Key : (3)
60. Darwin’s finches are a good example of CBSE PMT 2011
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Industrial melanism (3) Connecting link (4) Adaptive radiation
Key : (4)
61. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and
divergent evolution? CBSE PMT 2012
Convergent Divergent Evolution
Evolution

(1) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Wings of butterfiles and

tendrils of Cucurbita birds

(2) Bones of forelimbs of Wings of butterfiles and

vertebrates birds

(3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Eyes of Octopus and

tendrils of Cucurbita mammals

(4) Eyes of Octopus and Bones of forelimbs of

mammals vertebrates
Key : (4)
62. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other
geographical areas is known as NEET 2013
(1) Natural selection (2) Migration (3) Divergent evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
Key : (4)
63. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar
function. This is an example of NEET 2013
(1) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(2) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(3) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(4) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
Key : (2)
64. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic
adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called NEET 2013
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Non-random evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation (4) Natural selection
Key : (1)
65. Which one of the following are analogous structures? CBSE PMT 2014
(1) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse. (2) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon.
(3) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man. (4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita
Key : (3)
66. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect are: CBSE PMT 2015
(1) homologous structures and represent convergent evolution
(2) homologous structures and represent divergent evolution
(3) analogous structures and represent convergent evolution
(4) phylogenetic structures and represent divergent evolution
Key : (3)
67. A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium if: CBSE PMT 2015
(1) there is no migration (2) the population is large
(3) individuals mate selectively (4) there are no mutations
Key : (3)
68. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individuals is represented by NEET
2016 Phase-I
(1) p 2 (2) 2 pq (3) pq (4) q 2
Key : (2)
69. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life? NEET 2016 Phase-I
I. Formation of protobionts II. Synthesis of organic monomers
III. Synthesis of organic polymers IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, III, II, IV (3) II, III, I, IV (4) II, III, IV, I
Key : (3)
70. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life : NEET 2016 Phase-II
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non green and presumably
anaerobes.
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophic that never released oxygen. Of
the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
(1) (a) is correct but (b) is false (2) (b) is correct but (a) is false
(3) Both (a) and (b) are correct (4) Both (a) and (b) are false
Key : (3)
71. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is NEET 2018
1) Multiple step mutations 2) Phenotypic variations 3) Saltation 4) Minor mutations
Key : (3)
72. A gene locus has two alleles A and a. If the frequency of domianant allele (A) is 0.4, then what will
be the frequency of homozgyous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in
the population? NEET 2019
1) 0.36 (AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16 (aa) 2) 0.16 (AA); 0.24(Aa): 0.36 (aa)
3) 0.16 (AA): 0.48(Aa); 0.36 (aa) 4) 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)
Key : (3)
73. Which of the following is used as an atmospheric pollution indicator?
(1) Lepidoptera (2) Lichens (3) Lycopersicon (4) Lycopodium
Key : (2)
74. The theory of spontaneous generation stated that:
(1) life arose from living forms only
(2) life can arise from both living and non-living
(3) life can arise from non-living things only.
(4) life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living.
Key : (3)
75. Palaentological evidences for evolution refer to the:
(1) development of embryo (2) homologous organs
(3) fossils (4) analogous organs.
Key : (3)
2
76.  p  q  p 2  pq  q 2  1 represents an equation used in:
(1) population genetics (2) mendelian genetics (3) biometrics (4) molecular genetics
Key : (1)
77. Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because:
(1) the young ones are left on their own
(2) the young ones are protected by a thick shell
(3) the young ones are protected inside the mother’s body
(4) the embryo takes a long time to develop
Key : (3)
78. For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively.
The expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing individuals is likely to be
(1) 42% (2) 49% (3) 9% (4) 58%
Key : (1)
79. Choose the homologous organs from the given options.
I. Vertebrate hearts
II. Vertebrate brains
III. Thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita
IV. Sweet Potato & Potato
The correct combination is
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) III and IV (4) I, II and III
Key : (4)
80. Match the scientists listed under column ‘A’ with ideas listed column ‘B’.
Column 1 Column 2
i. Darwin M. Chemical evolution
ii. Oparin N. use and disuse of organs
iii. Lamarck O. continental drift theory
iv. Wagner P. evolution by natural selection
(1) i-M; ii-P; iii-N; iv-O (2) i-P; ii-M; iii-N; iv-O
(3) i-N; ii-P; iii-O; iv-M (4) i-p; ii-O; iii-N; iv-M
Key : (2)
81. Read the given statements and select the correct ones
(i) Swan-necked flask experiment was done by Louis Pasteur
(ii) The early belief of the spontaneous origin of life was disproved by Louis Pasteur
(iii) Louis Pasteur is famous for germ theory of diseases
(iv) The idea that life originates from pre-existing life is referred to as biogenesis theory
(v) Father Suarez was one of the greatest advocate of theory of special creation
(vi) Cosmozoic theory of the origin of life was proposed by Richter
(vii) The founder of ‘theory of catastrophism’ is Georges Cuvier.
 (1) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi) (2) (ii), (v) and (vii)
(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vii) (4) All of these
Key : (4)
82. Refer the given statements and select the correct ones
(i) Fossils are remains of hard parts of life forms in rocks
(ii) A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological period in which
they live.
(iii) Radio isotopes are often used to determine the age of the fossils
(iv) Study of fossils is called palaentology
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iv) (3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Key : (1)
83. Which of the following are necessary for evolution by natural selection to take place?
Column I Column II
A. Wallace (i) Essay on population
B. Malthus (ii) Biston betularia
C. Hardy Weinberg law (iii) P2+q2+2pq = 1
D. Industrial Melanism (iv) Co-proposer of Natural selection
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) (2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) (4) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
Key : (4)
84. In 1953 S. L. Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave experimental
evidence for origin of first form of life from preexisting non-living organic molecules. The primitive
earth conditions created include:
(1) low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere rich in oxygen
(2) low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
(3) high temperature, volcanic storms, non reducing atmosphere
(4) high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc.
Key : (4)
85. Which of the following statements would Darwin most likely disagree with?
(1) Individuals within a population vary in the characteristics they possess
(2) Evolution occurs due to large fluctuating variations
(3) Natural selection is the mechanism by which biological evolution takes place
(4) The fossil recored supports the view that biological evolution has occurred
Key : (2)
86. Which of the following is not true for a species?
(1) Variations occur among members of a species
(2) Gene flow does not occur between the population of a species
(3) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species
(4) Members of a species can interbreed
Key : (2)
87. Statement-I: Common struggle for existence is intraspecific
Statement-II:: All the members of a species have same food, shelter and mate
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
Key : (1)
88. In a population of H.W. equlibrium, % of recesive animals 36%, number of recessive animals is 216.
Calculate the total population?
1) 500 2) 700 3)600 4) 1500
Key : (3)
89. Assume, in a population of 200 homozygous dominant are 114 heterozygous dominant are 76 and 10 are
recessive individuals. Find out dominant allelic frequency.
1) 0.36 2) 0.24 3) 0.67 4) 0.76
Key : (4)
90. Statement-I:The first formed earth originally had reducing atmosphere.
Statement-II:Hydrogen was abundant and there was no free O2 .
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
Key : (1)