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Test Booklet Code A
Stage-II
NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test
TEST PAPER-20
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE
Time : 3 Hours
TEST-20 M.M. : 200
Complete Syllabus Test
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
1. There are 200 questions in this test. All are compulsory.
2. The question paper consists of two sections (Section-A : Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Section-B :
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT))
3. Section A (MAT) contains 50 questions and Section B (SAT) contains 150 questions in two parts.
(Part-I : Language Test : 50 questions and Part-II : Aptitude Test : divided into three sections. Section-I is
having 40 questions of Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology), Section-II is having 20 questions from
Mathematics and Section-III is having 40 questions of Social Science.
4. Use only a ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
5. The mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
6. Darken only one circle for each question.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.
8. Each question carries 1 mark. There is 0.333 marks negative marking for every wrong answer.
Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)
Choose the correct answer :

1. 145 : 29 : : 255 : 51 : : 485 : 97 : : 345 : ? 4. If Ist October, 1999 will be Friday then which will be
(1) 29 (2) 69 the day on 16th November, 2003?
(3) 37 (4) 57 (1) Monday
2. 429 : 30 : : 152 : 16 : : 158 : 28 : : 175 : ?
(2) Tuesday
(1) 20 (2) 26
(3) Saturday
(3) 32 (4) 18
3. Which of the following groups given in the option is (4) Sunday
best represented by the given Venn diagram? Directions (Q5 & Q6) : Find the missing number in the
following questions.
14 22 45
5. 12 9 5 3 12 8
8 6 39
(1) Mango, Guava, Apple
18 36 ?
(2) Pen, Pencil, Notebook
(1) 46 (2) 24
(3) Box, Pencil, Sky
(4) Cat, Kitten, Dog (3) 20 (4) 36
(1)
Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-20 (Code-A)
6. 12. What represents players who are dancers?

125 32 25
(1) a (2) c
490 52 ?
(3) e (4) f
216 36 81 13. What represents sportsmen who are not players
and dancers?
(1) 26 (2) 27
(1) a (2) d
(3) 30 (4) 49
(3) e (4) b
14. What represents non-dancers and non-sports
125 812 106 person?
7. : :: :?
343 (1) a (2) b
512 1331
(3) d (4) e
15. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
121 512
(1) 8 (2) 18
612 343
(3) 729 (4) 1000
2 8 22 68 (1) 6 (2) 7
8. , , , ,?
9 15 33 63 (3) 8 (4) 9
169 206 16. If ‘A – B’ means ‘A is son of B’
(1) (2)
129 123
‘A + B’ means ‘A is father of B’
139 202
(3) (4) ‘A × B’ means ‘A is mother of B’
130 129
‘A  B’ means ‘A is sister of B’.
9. 5, 6, 11, 22, 44, 88, ?
Answer the question based on given conditions.
(1) 132 (2) 99
Which of the following means “P is mother of R”.
(3) 89 (4) 176
(1) R  Q × P – T (2) R – T + Q × P
10. 6, 19, 60, 189, ?, 1863
(3) R  Q – P × T (4) P × Q  R – T
(1) 646 (2) 594
2
(3) 624 (4) 784 17. Puja has as much money as Sam has and
3
Directions (Q11 to Q14) : In the given diagram, circle
1
represents sports person, rectangle represents players Sam has 2 times as much money as Pravin
2
and triangle represents dancers. Answer the questions
has. Puja has ` 250, how much money Pravin
based on given diagram.
has?
(1) ` 250 (2) ` 200
a b g (3) ` 150 (4) ` 100
c 18. If x% of 5x is 20 then (x + 8) will be

d
e f (1) 20 (2) 15
(3) 28 (4) 18
11. What represents dancers but not sportsmen?
19. If 2n – 1 + 2n + 1 = 40, then the value of n is
(1) a (2) b (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) c (4) g (3) 6 (4) 8
(2)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-20 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test
20. A person climbs up a pole of 50 m, in every one Directions (Q27 & Q28) : Complete the following
minute he climbs 5 m but in another one minute figures.
slips down 3 m. How much will he take to reach
27.
at the top?
(1) 51 minutes (2) 90 minutes
(3) 91 minutes (4) 92 minutes
21. What number is opposite to number 4?
2 2 2
3 4 3 5 4 6
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 5 (1) (2) (3) (4)
22.
22 9 29 28.
14 8 23
30 4 ?
(1) 23 (2) 20
(3) 18 (4) 17
23. If TAPE stands for ‘plmh’, SOUP stands for ‘mosj’,
TIE stands for ‘hrp’, then coding for TIA is
(1) prh (2) lrm (1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) mrh (4) mpp Directions (Q29 & Q30) : Choose an option which has
similar relation as figure (a) and (b) have.
24. Find the odd one from the following.
29.
(1) Carrot (2) Radish
×  +  @ $
(3) Potato (4) Sweet Potato
+  + × $
25. Choose the correct alternative to complete the
series (a) (b) (c) (d)
pp _ q _ q _ rrss _ ttt
(1) prqs (2) qrsp $ $ @ @
(3) pqrs (4) rspp @ $ @ $
26. Find the mirror image of the following figure.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
30.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3)
Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-20 (Code-A)
Directions (Q31 to Q35) : Read the given information Directions (Q36 & Q37) : Find the odd one figure.
carefully and answer the following questions. 36.
There are four friends Anil, Bunny, Chandu and
Don. They drink two soft drinks Choke and Tepsi.
Their favourite heroes are Mahir Khan and Farukh
Khan. They drive a Car and a Bike. (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) Anil drives a Bike but not a car, drinks Choke
37.
and Tepsi and likes Mahir khan.
(2) Bunny drives both and drinks Tepsi and likes
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Farukh Khan.
Directions (Q38 to Q40) : Choose an option in which
(3) Chandu drives car and drinks nothing but likes given figure (X) embedded.
both Mahir and Farukh Khan. 38.
(4) Don drives nothing drinks nothing but likes both
Mahir and Farukh Khan.
Answer the question based on above information. (X)
31. Anil and Don always go together so they watch
_______ movies and go by ________.
(1) Farukh, Car (2) Mahir, Bike
(3) Farukh, Mahir, Car (4) Farukh, Bike
(1) (2) (3) (4)
32. If Chandu goes for Mahir movie on Bike then he 39.
goes with
(1) Anil (2) Bunny
(3) Don (4) Both (1) & (3) (X)
33. If Don has to watch a Farukh movie and has a
bike, who does he go with?
(1) Chandu (2) Anil
(3) Bunny (4) Both (2) & (3) (1) (2) (3) (4)
34. Which of the following is/are true? 40.
I. The person driving a car drinks Tepsi.

II. The person who likes Farukh drives a bike.
(X)
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) Both I & II (4) Neither I nor II
35. Which of the following is/are true?
I. Anil drinks Chokes because he likes Mahir. (1) (2) (3) (4)
II. Among the four friends, those who love Farukh Directions (Q41 to Q44) : Read the given information
and answer the following questions.
drink Tepsi.
If A,B,C,D,E and F are six members in the family.
III. Among the four friends, those who drink Tepsi Out of six members, three are male members.
drive a bike.
(a) There are two married couples among them.
(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (b) C is father of A and F, E is mother of C.
(3) Only III is true (4) I & II are true (c) A is grand daughter shift of B.
(4)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-20 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test
41. Which of the following pairs is one of the married Conclusion : I. Some brasses are grasses.
couples? II. Some boxes are grasses.
(1) AB (2) CD III. Some grasses are not boxes.
(3) DE (4) EF IV. All boxes are brasses.
42. Who is the husband of E ? (1) Only I & II follow (2) Only II & III follow
(1) A (2) B (3) Only I & III follow (4) Only I & IV follow
(3) C (4) D 47. Tinku ranks 5th
in a class of 53. What is her rank
43. How is F related to A? from the bottom in the class?
(1) Father (1) 49th (2) 48th
(2) Brother (3) 47th (4) 50th
(3) Son 48. How many pairs of letters in the word ENGLISH
have as many alphabets between them as in
(4) Grandson
English alphabets?
44. How is B related to F ?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) Grandfather (2) Father
(3) 4 (4) None
(3) Brother (4) Son 49. If x + y = x2 + y2 and x – y = x × y then the value
45. Which of following is a group of male members? of (4 + 3) –2 is
(1) B,C,E (2) A,B,D (1) 5 (2) 50
(3) B,C,F (4) C,D,F (3) 52 (4) 14
Direction (Q46) : Read the given statements and 50. HGJI LK : IJKLMN : ? : RSTUVW
choose correct conclusion (s) and then answer it. I II III IV
46. Statements : All grasses are brasses. (1) QPSRUT (2) PQRSTU
All brasses are boxes. (3) QPSRTU (4) QPRSTU
Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-I : Language Test)
Directions (Q51 to Q60) : Read the given passages Under section 30, if you make a payment of more
carefully and answer the following questions by choosing than Rs. 5000/- to any other, then you can insist
on getting a stamped receipt with Re 1/- revenue
the most suitable option.
stamp. In this case if the payee refuses to give a
A. Most of us think that if there is a revenue stamp receipt with a revenue stamp, then he can be
on any paper, then it is genuine. Actually this is punished with a fine of Rs. 100/- under section 65.
not the case. Actually revenue stamp is not used For every legally permitted transaction a certain
for the purpose of authentication; it is used to amount of revenue is needed to be given to the
government. Stamping of receipts or main
generate revenue. It was first implemented by the
documents evidencing giving and taking of money
British for the East India Company. Stamp duty also need such revenue and the revenue stamp is
was first introduced during the year 1797. In the affixed in proof of that. A properly stamped receipt
beginning, it was limited to only a few areas like or debt document or note gets a prima facie
Bengal, Banaras, Bihar and Orissa. priority as an acceptable legal proof over a plain
paper receipt.
Revenue stamps are used to collect fees or
In sale transactions deeds, payment of
revenue for maintaining courts. There was a law consideration is established by annexing to the
called e Indian Stamp Act 1899. This law was deed a revenue stamp affixed receipt only (of
amended for 51 times since 1899 to 2004. advance payment(s) or final payments).
(5)
Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-20 (Code-A)
In case of a dispute arising, this stamped receipt B. There are various advantages of division of labour.
can be produced as the prime proof of the money Every worker is assigned the task for which he is
being given and received. In such cases this plays best suited. This helps to provide opportunities for
a vital role. Those which are not properly stamped the best utilisation of natural talents because when
can be rejected also depending on many other a person performs the job which he likes, he gets
factors. The stamping also falls under the time to pleasure in work.
time guidelines regarding value and slab of the Division of labour helps to increase the efficiency
amount of transaction. of workers due to two reasons. First, every worker
is assigned a job that suits his skills, experience,
51. The authors main concern is to give reason as to
training and aptitude. Right man in the right job
(1) Why revenue stamps are essential for our leads to higher output. Secondly, due to division of
growth? labour, a worker continuously repeats his work. He
becomes an expert in performing the job.
(2) Why should we never forget the revenue
Repetition of the same work improves his dexterity
stamp?
and skills.
(3) Why people misunderstand the need of revenue Division of labour not only increases the quantity of
stamps? work it also improves the quality of production.
(4) Why revenue stamp of Re.1 is pasted to Better and modern machines and equipment are
important documents above Rs.5000/- value? used. Better quality products help to increase the
goodwill and profits of business.
52. A revenue stamp is not a proof of
Division of labour helps to avoid waste of time and
(1) Completion (2) Articulation effort caused by changes from one type of work to
(3) Propriety (4) Legitimacy another. The worker does not have to shift from one
process to another.
53. With the help of revenue stamp
Division of labour facilitates mass production. Large
(1) The economic standing of a country is scale production provides economies in the use of
improved resources, such as raw materials, labour, tools etc.
(2) Payment of valid transactions becomes easy Optimum use of means of production helps to
reduce cost of production.
(3) The government gets its authorized share in
Under division of labour a worker needs to learn
every legal transaction
only a part of the whole task. Therefore, lesser time
(4) The official documentation is a flexible job and expenditure is involved in training workers.
54. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to A worker doing the same task again and again tries
the word 'vital'? to find new and better ways of doing the job.
Small and simple parts of a task can easily be
(1) Consequential (2) Dispensable done by machines. Thus, division of labour
(3) Regardless (4) Perdition increases scope for inventions and innovations.
55. Which of the following can be inferred from the Division of labour makes tasks small and simple.
passage? Workers can perform them without much strain
and physical tiredness is reduced. Less skilled
(1) The passage is an analysis of existence and labour is required to perform the divided and sub-
significance of revenue stamps divided tasks.
(2) The passage clears out readers' Division of labour makes available cheaper goods
misconceptions regarding the role of a revenue of a wide variety. As a result demand for goods
stamp and services increases.
(3) The passage outlines a different role for Society is benefited due to (a) reduced cost on
revenue stamps account of large scale production, (b) higher
productivity which leads to economic growth, (c)
(4) The passage gives a noteworthy account of our employment of unskilled workers and (d) better
government's financial condition quality of goods and services for consumers.
(6)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-20 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)
56. The most suitable title for the given passage would 62. Socialism is a social and economic system
be characterized ________ social ownership of the
means of production and co-operative management
(1) The role of labour
of the economy.
(2) The characteristics of labour
(1) by (2) in
(3) The role and importance of labour
(3) for (4) to
(4) The advantages of division of labour
63. The private sector is a key partner in ________ to
57. The main idea of the second paragraph is advance gender equality and empower women.
(1) To point out the importance of efficient workers (1) effort (2) care
(2) To highlight that division of labour ensures (3) cares (4) efforts
greater efficiency
64. The weather is ______ the state of the atmosphere
(3) To focus on hiring right man for the right job at anytime; including things such as temperature,
precipitation, air pressure and cloud cover.
(4) That organisations should reduce repetitive
work patterns (1) just (2) only
58. Which of the following is FALSE w.r.t the passage? (3) often (4) quite
(1) Division of labour proposes laborious working 65. The casting director and editor of the movie
hours ________ felicitated at the award function.
(2) Division of labour is beneficial for both society (1) have been (2) are
and economy
(3) were (4) was
(3) Due to division of labour, it's cheaper to train
Directions (Q66 to Q70) : The following sentences have
personnel in organisations
few parts underlined and labelled as (1), (2) and (3),
(4) Division of labour helps in increasing production respectively. Identify which underlined part is
at reduced costs unacceptable in Standard English Usage. If no part has
any mistake, then mark option (4).
59. By identifying new ways of working, a worker
66. Bramhos supersonic cruise missile was test fired
(1) Improves his work culture
(1)
(2) Tries to find easier ways to do work
on Sunday from onboard guided missile destroyer
(3) Improves his methods of doing work
(2) (3)
(4) Values the importance of innovation
INS Kochi. No Error
60. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the
word 'strain'? (4)
(1) Injury 67. A municipal corporator was shot by unidentified
(2) Demands (1)
(3) Overwhelming assailants while he was taking his regular morning
(4) Weariness (2) (3)
Directions (Q61 to Q65) : Fill in the blanks with the walk. No Error
most appropriate option.
(4)
61. To acquire the habit of reading is to ________
68. The fourth phase of Bihar elections had seen polling
yourself a refuge from almost all the miseries of
life. (1) (2)
(1) redeem for (2) construe about at its most aggressive yet. No Error
(3) construct for (4) consecrate for (3) (4)
(7)
69. The RBI announced several change in its credit Directions (Q76 to Q79) : Identify the odd one out from
the given options.
(1)
76. (1) Pump
policy, which somewhat liberalised commercial
(2) Force
(2)
(3) Push
bank credit investments in industries. No Error
(4) Stuck
(3) (4)
77. (1) Nostalgia
70. Centre is moving towards the elimination (2) Sympathetic
(1) (3) Reminiscence
of corruption, delays and exploitation in government (4) Remembrance
(2) (3) 78. (1) Averse
schemes. No Error (2) Keen
(4) (3) Reluctant
Directions (Q71 to Q75) : Fill in the blanks with the (4) Unwilling
most appropriate option to complete the passage. 79. (1) Purity
Socrates (469-399 B.C.) was a classical Greek (2) Sterilize
philosopher 71 with laying the (3) Fumigate
fundamentals of modern Western philosophy. He is (4) Cleanse
72 creating Socratic irony and the Directions (Q80 to Q82) : Five parts of a paragraph are
Socratic method. He is best recognized for given. You are provided with the beginning (S1) and the
ending (S5) of this paragraph and other parts are
inventing the teaching 73 of pedagogy, jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the jumbled
wherein a teacher questions a student in a parts (P, Q and R) to create a meaningful and logical
74 paragraph.
manner that the correct response. He
has had a profound influence on Western 80. S1 : Acting, by nature, can be very repetitive: say
philosophy, along with his students Plato and the same lines, stand in the same places,
and find the same emotional notes
Aristotle. 75 much of Socrates'
S2 : ______________________
contribution is to the field of ethics, his input to the
field of epistemology and logic is also noteworthy. S3 : ______________________
71. (1) whom is credited (2) with who's credit S4 : ______________________

S5 : Without disturbing the framework of the play
(3) credit (4) who is credited
that create the “illusion” of the first time
72. (1) known for (2) known as
P : Why do we find their performances so
(3) known (4) known to engaging and moving?
73. (1) aspect (2) methodic Q : So what is it that makes some actors so
brilliant?
(3) practice (4) means
R : The secret is spontaneity - the minute
74. (1) drew (2) draws out improvisations that happen within each line
(3) infer out (4) inferred Choose the correct option.
75. (1) Though (2) But (1) QPR (2) RQP
(3) As well as (4) Despite (3) RPQ (4) QRP
(8)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-20 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)
81. S1 : Contrary to popular belief, smoking is often Directions (Q83 & Q84) : The last part of each
not just a habit but an addiction paragraph is missing. Choose the most appropriate
S2 : _________________________ option to complete the paragraph.
S3 : _________________________ 83. A : People say in old age sons come in handy.

Had that been true, so many old age homes
S4 : _________________________
would not have opened.
S5 : A smoker can overcome this addiction
B : Sons have cars and bungalows and yet,
P : More so if you are a young person many times, parents remain in old age
homes. On the other hand, there are
Q : However, with persistence and professional
help, innumerable daughters who work hard to
keep their parents happy.
R : It is easy to become dependent on tobacco
products and be controlled by cravings for C : ___________________________________.
them, (1) It is our responsibility to wake up the society
Choose the correct option.
(2) If girls get the chance, they perform better than
(1) PQR boys
(2) QPR (3) It is due to family and societal pressure that

girls are killed in the womb
(3) RPQ
(4) QRP (4) Have we ever imagined that if present gender
imbalance continued, then what would be the
82. S1 : India has an extraordinary, vast and diverse repercussions?
pool of cultural heritage and ancient
monuments in the form of buildings and other 84. A : Junk food is any food that provides too much
archaeological sites and remains fat and calories and not enough nutrients.
S2 : _________________________ B : You may have trouble resisting the urge to

indulge when commercials, grocery store
S3 : _________________________
shelves and fast food restaurants are packed
S4 : _________________________ with treats. Consuming small amounts of
S5 : They are the epitome of courage, stand junk food can be part of a healthy lifestyle,
testimony to the evolution and are a symbol C : ___________________________________.
of cultural expressions
(1) But they are known to increase your levels of
P : And the fact that these monuments are the "bad" cholesterol and decrease your levels of
reminiscence of the living witnesses of the
"good cholesterol"
golden historic era of over a thousand years
and of the pre-independence battles, (2) But it can also be monitored easily
Q : The sheer number of these historic heritages (3) But life is more precious than just living for junk
is astounding food
R : They carry a special and a well-deserved (4) But your body is at risk of serious harm if you
respect in the eyes of the Indians don't monitor your intake
Choose the correct option. Directions (Q85 to Q87) : Identify the synonym of the
(1) PQR given capitalized word.
(2) PRQ 85. BUFFETED
(3) RPQ (1) Armed (2) Pondered

(4) QPR (3) Distressed (4) Forged
(9)
86. FACTION 92. Back-seat driver

(1) Dissension (1) Someone who is not the leader
(2) Conditional (2) Someone who criticizes from the sidelines
(3) Dividend (3) Someone who is considered to be an outsider

(4) Someone who is unreliable
(4) Preliminary
93. Beat a hasty retreat
87. DIGRESS
(1) Offer an insight
(1) Position
(2) Propose a deal
(2) Deviate
(3) Withdraw rapidly
(3) Optimum
(4) Reject a plea
(4) Avenge 94. As different as chalk and cheese
Directions (Q88 & Q89) : Identify the most appropriate (1) Two undefined things
one word substitution for the given definition.
(2) Two things that are very different from each
88. A strong feeling that something is about to happen, other
especially something unpleasant
(3) Two unequal elements
(1) Procrastination (4) Two ordinary things of no relevance
(2) Premonition Directions (Q95 to Q97) : Choose the most appropriate
(3) Preclude antonym of the given capitalized word.
(4) Foresight 95. SHREWD

(1) Ingenious
89. A mild or indirect expression substituted for one
considered to be too harsh or blunt when referring (2) Intelligent
to something unpleasant or embarrassing (3) Ingenuous
(1) Odious (4) Calculative
(2) Conundrum 96. ORNATE
(3) Subtle (1) Austere
(4) Euphemism (2) Visible
Directions (Q90 to Q94) : Identify the most appropriate (3) Unbelievable

meaning of the given idiom/phrase. (4) Disbelieving
90. An ill wind 97. TORPID
(1) An unreal presentation (1) Unattended (2) Lively
(2) An illusion (3) Precarious (4) Defiant
(3) A state of uncertainty Directions (Q98 to Q100) : Identify the correctly spelt
word.
(4) A negative effect
98. (1) Misconstrued (2) Divinnation
91. As the crow flies
(3) Proprietery (4) Knowledgable
(1) In a predetermined manner 99. (1) Fraudulent (2) Impromtu
(2) In a direct line, without any of the detours (3) Abjudicate (4) Incorigible
(3) In a random order 100. (1) Benefactery (2) Referral
(4) A state of misunderstanding (3) Somniloqouy (4) Duplicitty
(10)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-20 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)
SECTION-I
101. A goods train has three compartments each of 105. A force of 100 N is required to just move a mass
mass m, pulled by an engine with force F. The of 5 kg with a constant speed on a level road. If
track is smooth. The net force on the middle force of 500 N is applied, the acceleration of mass
compartment is will be
F 2F (1) 80 m/s2 (2) 100 m/s2
(1) (2)
3 3
(3) 120 m/s2 (4) 50 m/s2
F 3
(3) (4) F
2 2 106. A satellite of mass m is revolving around the earth
at a height R above the surface of the earth. If g
102. A block of mass 5 kg is released from the top of
an inclined smooth surface as shown in the figure. be the gravitational field intensity at the earth's
If horizontal surface offers a constant resistance of surface and R is the radius, the kinetic energy of
20 N, then the total distance travelled by it before the satellite will be
coming to rest will be [g = 10 m/s2]
1 3
(1) mgR (2) mgR
g C
5k 4 4
1
(3) mgR (4) mgR
2
5m
m
107. Two wires A and B of same material having lengths

5
7.
in the ratio LA/LB of 1 : 2 and their respective area

of cross-section (aA/aB) in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio
A B of their resistances (RA/RB) is
(1) 12.5 m (2) 6 m
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 4
(3) 37 m (4) 20 m
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
103. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
108. In the circuit shown below, the value of potential
(1) The force of tension on a body always acts drop across 2  resistor is about
away from the body
2
(2) The SI unit of force is newton
A 4 B
(3) If a body is at rest it means there is no force 3A 3A
6
acting on the body
(4) Mass is the measure of inertia of a body (1) 6 V (2) 2 V
104. A spacecraft of mass M, moving with velocity v (3) 3 V (4) 1 V

suddenly explodes in two pieces of mass m and
109. Two appliances of power rating (P 1, V 1) and
(M – m). After the explosion one of the mass
(P2, V1) can be connected with source V1 in a way
(M – m) becomes stationary. What is the velocity
to have minimum power consumption of
of the other part?
P1  P2 P1P2
Mv (1) (2) P  P
(1) (2) v P1P2 1 2
M–m
Mv M–m 1
(3) (4) v (3) P1 + P2 (4) P  P
m m 1 2
(11)
Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-20 (Code-A)
110. A virtual image of magnification 2 is formed by a (1) Gas; interparticle force of attraction is very
concave mirror, for a real object placed 8 cm infront strong
of it. The magnitude of radius of curvature of the
(2) Liquid; particles do not fill the container.
mirror is
(3) Gas; particles are highly compressible
(1) 8 cm (2) 16 cm
(4) Solid; particles melt on heating
32
(3) 32 cm (4) cm 115. Forensic science detects and identifies the trace
3
amount of drugs in the content of bladder or
111. If light travels at speed 2 × 108 m/s in glass and stomach through
2.25 × 108 m/s in water, then the refractive index
of glass with respect to water is (1) Chromatography
(2) Distillation
8 9
(1) (2)
9 8 (3) Centrifugation
4 3 (4) Separating funnel
(3) (4)
3 4 116. Consider the following statements,
112. A coil carries electric current as shown below. The Statement I : Atom is the smallest particle of an
direction of magnetic field due to current in the element which exists in free state.
loop is same at the points
Statement II : Atom can be subdivided into
2 subatomic particles.
1 Choose the correct option

A 3 C
(1) Both the statements are correct
4
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
B
(3) Only statement I is correct
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 1 and 3
(4) Only statement II is correct
(3) 2 and 3 (4) 3 and 4
117. Which of the following does not possess the same
113. Which of the following does not represent the
number of neutrons and protons?
magnification produced by a spherical mirror?
(1) Carbon-12 (2) Chlorine-35
[where the symbols have usual meaning]
(3) Deuterium (4) Oxygen-16
v hI
(1) 1– (2) h 118. Denaturation of alcohol is carried out by adding any
f O
of the following compounds, except
hO –v
(3) (4) (1) Methanol (2) Copper sulphate
hI u
(3) Petrol (4) Pyridine
114. Consider the given figure.
119. Which of the following properties increases along
the period in the Modern Periodic Table?
Piston
P - Atomic radii
Q - Acidic nature of oxide
Particles of
state R - Metallic character
X
S - Ionisation energy
(1) Both R and S
(2) Both Q and S
Cork
(3) P, Q and R
According to the given figure, state ‘X’ and the
property shown by its particles respectively are (4) P, R and S
(12)
120. C6H6 + 15O2  6CO2 + 3H2O 125. Number of spectral lines observed when an electron
returns from 5th orbit to 1st orbit of hydrogen atom
Choose the incorrect option with respect to the
is
given equation
(1) 10 (2) 5
(1) Reaction is possible to carry out
(3) 4 (4) 6
(2) Oxygen is represented in its molecular form
126. Dipole moment of carbon dioxide molecule is
(3) Reaction is balanced
(1) 2.3 D (2) 1.85 D
(4) Reaction is accompanied by change in
temperature. (3) Zero (4) – 1.23 D
121. Decomposition of calcium carbonate is a reversible 127. Albinism, which is an autosomal recessive disorder
process. To stop the backward/reverse process is caused due to absence of enzyme
(1) Valine (2) Tyrosinase
(1) CO2 is removed from the reaction mixture
(3) Glucocerebrosidase (4) Hexosaminidase
(2) More CO2 is added in the reaction mixture
128. How many of the following animals are key industry
(3) Quick lime is added in the reaction mixture
animals?
(4) Increase the temperature of the reaction
(i) Tadpoles (ii) Jackal
122. Ore of metal A + Mercury  Amalgam (iii) Rabbit (iv) Goat
C
Process B (v) Hawk (vi) Lion
Amalgam
A (1) Two (2) Three
‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ respectively are (3) Four (4) Five
A B C 129. Select the odd one out.

(1) Silver Mercury liquid (1) Hippocampus (2) Betta
(2) Arsenic Distillation Slag (3) Exocoetus (4) Necturus
(3) Gold Distillation Mercury vapours
130. Which of the following improved breeds of dairy
(4)
Chromium Smelting Impurities cows have been developed at NDRI, Haryana?
123. The non-reducing carbohydrate is (1) Brown Swiss (2) Jersey
(1) Glucose (2) Maltose (3) Karan Swiss (4) Holstein-Friesian
(3) Lactose (4) Sucrose 131. Shakti, Navjot and Vikram are high yielding varieties
of
124. Match the following.
(1) Wheat (2) Mustard
Column-I Column-II
(3) Rice (4) Maize
a. Polystyrene (i) Cl
132. In a dihybrid cross between two pea plants
(CH2 – CH)n heterozygous for green and inflated pea pods, how
b. PVC (ii) ( NH- CO - NH- CH2 ) n many offspring having yellow and inflated pea pods
will be produced in F 2 generation? [The total
c. Glyptal (iii) C6H5 number of offspring produced was 256]
(CH2 – CH)n (1) 48 (2) 16
d. Urea-formaldehyde (3) 147 (4) 60
resin (iv) (OCH2–CH2OOC CO)n 133. Which of the following pills contains spermicides
that kill sperms?
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (1) Saheli pill (2) Mala-D
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (3) Vaginal pill (4) Mala-N
(13)
134. Approximately what amount of energy is released 137. Which of the following does not take place during
when the terminal phosphate linkage in ATP is ovulatory phase?
hydrolysed? (1) Concentration of estrogen in blood becomes
(1) 30.5 kJ/mol (2) 3000 kJ/mol high
(3) 3.05 kJ/mol (4) 305 kJ/mol (2) Uterine glands become secretory
135. Which of the following is not a characteristic of (3) Ovulation occurs

meristematic tissue? (4) Both LH & FSH attain a peak level
(1) Cells are metabolically active 138. The largest cranial nerve which arises from the
ventral surface of the pons varoli is
(2) Cells have large intercellular spaces
(1) Trochlear nerve (2) Mandibular nerve
(3) Cells grow and divide repeatedly
(3) Vagus nerve (4) Trigeminal nerve
(4) Cells have abundant cytoplasm and a large
nucleus 139. All of the following are pyrimidine bases, except
136. Richa is suffering from fever and body ache. Her (1) Thymine (2) Uracil
mother observed dew drop like rashes on her body. (3) Adenine (4) Cytosine
Which of the following causal organisms is 140. Cell wall of which of the following organisms is
probably responsible for this? made up of chitin?
(1) Varicella zoster virus (2) Rubeola virus (1) Dinoflagellates (2) Agaricus
(3) Entero virus (4) Salmonella typhi (3) Ulothrix (4) Mycoplasma
SECTION-II
141. In an octahedron, the number of faces that meet 144. If a, b and c are positive integers satisfying
c a b
at each vertex is a b .bc .c a  3abc , then the value of (a + b + c) is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) 18 (4) 12
142. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and 145. The roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 2009x +
ABOC is a parallelogram. The measure of CBD is 2008 = 0 are
always equal to
(1) 1, 2009 (2) 1, 2008
(1) 2x B
(3) 2008, 2009 (4) 1004, 1004
(2) 180° – x O x A
146. In ABC, BE and CF are the medians intersecting
(3) 90° – x C at point O. If the area of BOC is 19 cm2, then the
D area of quadrilateral AEOF is
(4) x
(1) 15 cm2 (2) 19 cm2
143. In the given figure, if a circle is inscribed in a
regular hexagon, then the circumference of the (3) 20 cm2 (4) 24 cm2
inscribed circle is
147. The probability of the occurrence of a certain event
(1) 2a in standard form is p . If the odds in favour of the
q
(2) 3a event is 5 , then the value of (p + q) is equal to
11
(3) 3a (1) 11 (2) 16
a
(4) 2 3a (3) 21 (4) 18
(14)
148. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, then the number of subsets of 2

155. A man first sold rd of his total amount of rice
A containing 1 but not 4 is 3
1
(1) 2 (2) 3 and 100 kg. Again he sold of the remaining
2
(3) 4 (4) 5 quantity and 100 kg. If the total remaining quantity
of the stock is 150 kg, then the original stock of
149. The distance between the points ( 2, 3) and the rice is
( 3,– 2) is (1) 2100 kg (2) 1800 kg

(3) 2400 kg (4) 2000 kg
(1) 5 units (2) 10 units
156. In the given figure, ABC is right angled at B. If
(3) 2 6 units (4) 3 5 units BD  AC, then CD(AC + AD) is always equal to
150. The nth term of the sequence 4, 10, 18, 28, 40, (1) AB2 + BD2 C
…… is
(2) AD2 + BC2 D
(1) n2 + 4n (2) n2 + 5n + 1
(3) 2BD2
(3) n2 – 3n + 1 (4) n2 + 3n
(4) BC2 + BD 2 B A
151. If (1, 1) is the solution of the pair of linear equations 157. If every side of a triangle is increased by 100%,
ax + by + p – q = 0 and bx + ay + p + q = 0, where then the increase in the area of the triangle is
a, b, p and q are integers, then which of the
following is not correct? (1) 400%
(1) p + a + b = 0 (2) q = p + a + b (2) 300%
(3) q = 0 (4) q = a – b (3) 200%

(4) 100%
152. A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and
is surmounted by a vertical flagstaff of height h. At 158. The HCF and the LCM of two numbers x and y are
a point on the plane, the angle of elevation of the 6 and 210 respectively. If x + y = 72, then which
bottom and the top of the flagstaff are  and  of the following relations is correct?
respectively. The height of the tower is
1 1 3
(1)  
h cot  h cot  x y 35
(1) (2)
cot  – cot  cot  – cot 
1 1 2
(2)  
h cot  h cot  x y 35
(3) (4)
cot  – cot  cot  – cot  1 1 35
(3)  
153. The mean of n observation is x . If the first x y 2
observation is increased by 12, second by 22 and 1 1 2
so on, then the new mean is (4)  
x y 105
n2 159. The value of [(cosec – sin)(tan + cot)
(1) x  n 2 (2) x 
4 (sec– cos)] is equal to
n  n  1 2n  1  n  1 2n  1 (1) 1 (2) 0

(3) x  (4) x 
6 6 1
(3) (4) 2
154. If the external and internal radii of a hollow cylinder 2
of height 7 cm are 14 cm and 7 cm respectively, 160. If log1224 = x, then the value of log1254 in terms of
then the total surface area of the hollow cylinder is x is
(1) 1848 cm2 (2) 924 cm2 (1) 8 + 5x (2) 8 – 5x
(3) 2772 cm2 (4) 1896 cm2 (3) – 8 + 5x (4) – 8 – 5x
(15)
SECTION-III
161. The main reason of the entry of US in second 166. Assertion (A) : In the late nineteenth century,
World War was Indians were attracted to Africa.
(1) Invasion of Germany of Poland Reason (R) : Africa had vast reserves of land and
minerals that attracted Europeans to Africa in the
(2) Tripartite Pact
late nineteenth century.
(3) To make USSR the super power
(1) A is true but R is false
(4) The attack of Japan US base as Pearl Harbor
(2) A is false but R is true
162. Which country was not the part of axis power?
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(1) Germany (2) Italy explanation of A
(3) Japan (4) USSR (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
163. Assertion (A) : In 1804, Napoleon Bonaparte explanation of A
crowned himself emperor of Germany. 167. Who improved the steam engine produced by
Newcomen and patented the new engine in 1781?
Reason (R) : He was finally defeated at waterloo.
(1) M. Jackson (2) Matthew Boulton
(3) C.E. Turner (4) James Watt
168. Assertion (A) : The London tube railway led to a
massive displacement of the London poor,
explanation of A
especially between the two world wars.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Reason (R) : Better-planned suburbs and a good
explanation of A
railway network enabled large numbers to live
164. In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organized a satyagraha outside central London and travel to work.
(1) To support the peasants of the Kheda district (1) A is true but R is false
of Gujarat (2) A is false but R is true
(2) To help the peasants of Champaran in Bihar (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(3) To help the cotton mill workers of Ahmedabad explanation of A
(4) To help Indian workers in South Africa (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
165. According to the 'Doctrine of Lapse', one kingdom
after another was annexed. Match those states 169. Who developed the first-known printing press in the
with their year of annexation as given Column-I 1430s?
and Column-II and choose the correct response (1) Johann Gutenberg (2) Marco Polo
from the option given thereafter.
(3) Shunman Kobo (4) Kitagawa
Column-I Column-II
170. Henry Fielding wrote :
A. Satara (I) 1856
(1) Pickwick Papers (2) Germinal
B. Nagpur (II) 1854
(3) Hard Times (4) Tom Jones
C. Jhansi (III) 1853
171. Which of the following authors wrote novels that
D. Awadh (IV) 1848 showed the darker side of colonial occupation?
(1) A(IV), B(III), C(I), D(II) (1) Joseph Conred
(2) A(I), B(II), C(II), D(IV) (2) Daniel Defoe
(3) A(IV), B(III), C(II), D(I) (3) Chouncey Woolsey
(4) A(I), B(III), C(IV), D(II) (4) Hunt Juckson
(16)
172. Assertion (A) : Countries like China became 179. According to India state of forest report 2011, the
attractive destinations for investment by foreign forest cover in India is
MNCs competing to capture world markets. (1) 19.5% (2) 21.05%
Reason (R) : Wages are relatively low in countries
(3) 33% (4) 40%
like China.
180. Golden fibre refers to
(1) Tea (2) Cotton
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (3) Sun flower (4) Jute
explanation of A 181. Assertion (A) : Rice is a commercial crop in
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Haryana and Punjab but in Odisha, it is a
explanation of A subsistence crop.
173. The first Indian community to start playing the Reason (R) : The degree of commercialisation of
agriculture is same in all the regions of India.
cricket was the small community of the
(1) Hindus (2) Muslims
(3) Parsis (4) Sikhs
174. Busk was (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(1) Anything essential to maintain life and growth
(2) A strip of wood, whalebone or steel in front of
explanation of A
the corset to stiffen and support it
182. The percentage of iron in Hematite ore is
(3) A closely fitting and stiff inner bodice
(4) The right to vote (1) Upto 40 percent
175. To which one of the following types of vegetation (2) 50-60 percent
does rubber belong to? (3) 70-80 percent
(1) Tundra (2) Himalayan (4) Upto 20 percent
(3) Tidal (4) Tropical Evergren 183. Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt lies in
176. Which is the only country in the world that has (1) Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra
both tigers and lions?
(2) Karnataka
(1) India (2) America
(3) Odisha and Jharkhand
(3) Canada (4) Australia
(4) Goa and Ratnagiri district
177. Assertion (A) : Himalayan brown bear is a rare
species. 184. Assertion (A) : The key to decision of the factory
location is the minimum cost.
Reason (B) : Rare species are found in some
particular areas usually isolated by natural or Reason (R) : Government policies and
geographical barriers. specialised labour also influence the location of
(1) A is true but R is false industry.
(2) A is false but R is true (1) A is true but R is false

(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (2) A is false but R is true
explanation of A (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
explanation of A (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
178. Jhum is a explanation of A
(1) Plantation 185. The length of road per 100 sq. km of area is
(2) Shifting cultivation known as
(3) Commercial agriculture (1) Area of roads (2) Distribution of roads
(4) Labour intensive cultivation (3) Width of roads (4) Density of roads
(17)
186. Assertion (A) : The northern plains of India with 194. In India, seats are reserved for women in
their vast level land, high population density and (1) Lok Sabh
rich agricultural resources provided the most
favourable condition for the growth of Railways. (2) State legislative assemblies
Reason (R) : The distribution pattern of the (3) Cabinets

Railway network in India has been largely (4) Panchayati raj bodies
influenced by physiographic, economic and 195. The system of ‘Apartheid’ divided the people and
administrative factors. labelled them on the basis of their
(1) Origin (2) Caste
(3) Heights (4) Skin colour
196. A Famine is characterised by wide spread deaths
explanation of A
due to
(1) Starvation (2) Epidemics
explanation of A
187. Which port was developed soon after Independence (3) Old age (4) Both (1) & (2)
to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port? 197. Assertion (A) : The accepted average caloric
(1) Kandla port (2) Marmagoa port requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per
day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person
(3) Chennai port (4) Vishakhapatnam port
per day in urban areas.
188. Which of the following is not a human farm input?
Reason (R) : People living in rural areas engage
(1) Labour (2) Machinery themselves in more physical work than people of
(3) Rainfall (4) Chemicals urban areas.
189. Size of an industry depends on the (1) A is true but R is false
(1) Amount of capital invested (2) A is false but R is true
(2) Number of people employed (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(3) Volume of production explanation of A
(4) All of these (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
190. In which of the following states is the Simlipal
bioreserve located? 198. The magnitude of population growth refers to
(1) Punjab (2) Delhi (1) The total population of an area
(3) Odisha (4) West Bengal (2) The number of persons added each year
191. Mansoon arrives in India approximately in (3) The rate at which the population increases
(1) Early March (2) Early April (4) The number of females per thousand males
(3) Early June (4) Early August 199. Countries can be connected by
192. Which of the following countries does not have (1) The movements of goods and services
federalism?
(2) Investments and technology
(1) Belgium (2) Russia
(3) The movement of people between countries
(3) Australia (4) Sri Lanka
(4) All of these
193. Atheists
200. Which among is a law(LAW) which ensures its
(1) Believe in God citizen to have all the information about the
(2) Do not believe in God functions of government departments?
(3) Believe in many Gods (1) COPRA (2) RTI
(4) Believe in unity of all religions (3) MRP (4) VAT

(18)

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Test Booklet Code A
Stage-II
NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test
TEST PAPER-20
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
Time : 3 Hours
TEST-20 M.M. : 200
ANSWERS
1. (2) 41. (2) 81. (3) 121. (1) 161. (4)
2. (2) 42. (2) 82. (4) 122. (3) 162. (4)
3. (4) 43. (2) 83. (2) 123. (4) 163. (2)
4. (4) 44. (1) 84. (4) 124. (2) 164. (2)
5. (3) 45. (3) 85. (3) 125. (1) 165. (3)
6. (4) 46. (1) 86. (1) 126. (3) 166. (2)
7. (4) 47. (1) 87. (2) 127. (2) 167. (4)
8. (4) 48. (3) 88. (2) 128. (2) 168. (3)
9. (4) 49. (2) 89. (4) 129. (4) 169. (1)
10. (2) 50. (1) 90. (4) 130. (3) 170. (4)
11. (4) 51. (4) 91. (2) 131. (4) 171. (1)
12. (2) 52. (4) 92. (2) 132. (1) 172. (4)
13. (1) 53. (3) 93. (3) 133. (3) 173. (3)
14. (4) 54. (2) 94. (2) 134. (1) 174. (2)
15. (4) 55. (2) 95. (3) 135. (2) 175. (4)
16. (4) 56. (4) 96. (1) 136. (1) 176. (1)
17. (3) 57. (2) 97. (2) 137. (2) 177. (1)
18. (3) 58. (1) 98. (1) 138. (4) 178. (2)
19. (2) 59. (3) 99. (1) 139. (3) 179. (2)
20. (3) 60. (4) 100. (2) 140. (2) 180. (4)
21. (4) 61. (3) 101. (1) 141. (2) 181. (1)
22. (1) 62. (1) 102. (4) 142. (3) 182. (2)
23. (2) 63. (4) 103. (3) 143. (2) 183. (1)
24. (3) 64. (1) 104. (3) 144. (1) 184. (3)
25. (3) 65. (4) 105. (1) 145. (2) 185. (4)
26. (4) 66. (4) 106. (1) 146. (2) 186. (4)
27. (4) 67. (1) 107. (2) 147. (3) 187. (1)
28. (1) 68. (2) 108. (3) 148. (3) 188. (3)
29. (1) 69. (1) 109. (2) 149. (2) 189. (4)
30. (1) 70. (1) 110. (3) 150. (4) 190. (3)
31. (2) 71. (4) 111. (2) 151. (4) 191. (3)
32. (1) 72. (1) 112. (1) 152. (2) 192. (4)
33. (3) 73. (3) 113. (3) 153. (4) 193. (2)
34. (4) 74. (2) 114. (3) 154. (1) 194. (4)
35. (3) 75. (1) 115. (1) 155. (2) 195. (4)
36. (4) 76. (4) 116. (4) 156. (4) 196. (4)
37. (4) 77. (2) 117. (2) 157. (2) 197. (4)
38. (4) 78. (2) 118. (3) 158. (2) 198. (2)
39. (2) 79. (1) 119. (2) 159. (1) 199. (4)
40. (2) 80. (1) 120. (3) 160. (2) 200. (2)
(1)
TEST-20
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)
1. Answer (2)
a : b then a = 5b
2. Answer (2)
abc : d
d = 2(a + b + c)
3. Answer (4)
4. Answer (4)
5. Answer (3)
b
a c (a + b) – (d + c) = k  2k = e
d
e
6. Answer (4)
2
abc (a + b + c) × 4 = de (d + e)
7. Answer (4)
8. Answer (4)
9. Answer (4)
10. Answer (2)
11. Answer (4)
12. Answer (2)
13. Answer (1)
14. Answer (4)
15. Answer (4)
16. Answer (4)
17. Answer (3)
(2)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-20 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions
18. Answer (3)

19. Answer (2)
20. Answer (3)
21. Answer (4)
22. Answer (1)
22 = 11 × 2  2×9
18
11 = 29
14  7 × 2 × 8 = 16
7
23
23. Answer (2)
24. Answer (3)
25. Answer (3)
26. Answer (4)
27. Answer (4)
28. Answer (1)
29. Answer (1)
30. Answer (1)
31. Answer (2)
32. Answer (1)
33. Answer (3)
34. Answer (4)
35. Answer (3)
Choke Tepsi M.K. S.K. Bike Car

A
B
C
D
36. Answer (4)

37. Answer (4)
38. Answer (4)
39. Answer (2)
40. Answer (2)
41. Answer (2)
42. Answer (2)
43. Answer (2)
44. Answer (1)
(3)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-20 (Code-A)
45. Answer (3)

+ –
B–E Husband = Wife
– +
DC Husband = Wife
– +
A F Brother = Sister
46. Answer (1)

47. Answer (1)
48. Answer (3)
49. Answer (2)
50. Answer (1)

(4)

(Part-I : Language Test)
51. Answer (4)

52. Answer (4)
53. Answer (3)
54. Answer (2)
55. Answer (2)
56. Answer (4)
57. Answer (2)
58. Answer (1)
59. Answer (3)
60. Answer (4)
61. Answer (3)
62. Answer (1)
63. Answer (4)
64. Answer (1)
65. Answer (4)
66. Answer (4)
67. Answer (1)
‘shot at’ is the correct phrase.
68. Answer (2)
‘saw’ in place of ‘had seen’
69. Answer (1)
‘changes’ in place of ‘change’
70. Answer (1)
‘The Centre’ is the correct usage.
71. Answer (4)
72. Answer (1)
73. Answer (3)
74. Answer (2)
75. Answer (1)
76. Answer (4)
The other three are synonymous.
77. Answer (2)
78. Answer (2)
(5)
79. Answer (1)

80. Answer (1)
81. Answer (3)
82. Answer (4)
83. Answer (2)
84. Answer (4)
85. Answer (3)
86. Answer (1)
87. Answer (2)
88. Answer (2)
89. Answer (4)
90. Answer (4)
91. Answer (2)
92. Answer (2)
93. Answer (3)
94. Answer (2)
95. Answer (3)
96. Answer (1)
97. Answer (2)
98. Answer (1)
99. Answer (1)
100. Answer (2)

(6)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)
SECTION-I
101. Answer (1)

a
N2 N1
3 2 1 F
Let the compartments move with same acceleration ‘a’

and the force across middle compartment be N1 and N2.
F
∵ Acceleration of the system  a  
3m
∵ For first compartment, F – N1 = ma …(i)

For middle compartment, N1 – N2 = ma …(ii)
F F
= m 
3m 3
102. Answer (4)
Let the speed of block (5 kg) at A be v,
1
mgh  mv 2
2
v  2gh
 2  10  5
= 10 m/s
Applying, v2 – u2 = 2as
⎛ –20 ⎞
02 – 102  2 ⎜ ⎟s
⎝ 5 ⎠
s = 12.5 m
 Total distance = 7.5 + 12.5
= 20 m
103. Answer (3)
104. Answer (3)
Applying conservation of linear momentum,
Mv = (M – m) × 0 + mv [Let v be the velocity of other part]
Mv
 v 
m
(7)
105. Answer (1)
 force applied – frictional force 

∵ Acceleration of mass =
mass
500 – 100
=
5
= 80 m/s2
106. Answer (1)
Gm
∵ v
2R
1 ⎛ Gm ⎞
∵ KE  m⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝ 2R ⎠
1 Gm
 m R
2 2R 2
1
 mgR
4
107. Answer (2)
LA 1
∵ 
LB 2
aA 2

aB 3
L
∵ R 
a
RA LA a
   A
RB LB aB
1 2
 
2 3
3
=
4
108. Answer (3)
∵ Current I2 through 2  resistor,
I  R2 ⎡ 46 ⎤
∵ I2  ∵ ⎢R2   2.4  ⎥
R1  R2 ⎣ 46 ⎦
3  2.4

2  2.4
18
 A
11
18
Potential drop across 2  resistor is  2
11
3V
(8)
109. Answer (2)

For minimum power consumption the appliances should be connected in series,
V12 V2
∵ R1  , R2  1
P1 P2
V12
 Pmin 
R1  R2
V12 P1P2
 
⎛ V12 V12
⎞ P1  P2
⎜⎜  ⎟⎟
⎝ P1 P2 ⎠
110. Answer (3)
IInd method
f
m
f –u
f
2
f 8
2f + 16 = f
f = – 16
 R = 2f = 2 × –16 = – 32 cm
111. Answer (2)
vw
∵ w g 
vg
2.25  108

2  108
225 9
 
200 8
112. Answer (1)
The magnetic field due to the current loop is outward inside the loop and inward outside the loop.
113. Answer (3)
114. Answer (3)
115. Answer (1)
116. Answer (4)
117. Answer (2)
118. Answer (3)
119. Answer (2)
120. Answer (3)
121. Answer (1)
122. Answer (3)
123. Answer (4)
124. Answer (2)
(9)
125. Answer (1)

n  n – 1 5 4
Number of spectral lines =   10 lines
2 2
126. Answer (3)
127. Answer (2)
Enzyme tyrosinase is essential for the synthesis of melanin pigment.
128. Answer (2)
Herbivores convert plant matter into animal matter and therefore, they are called key industry animals.
129. Answer (4)
Necturus is an amphibian.
130. Answer (3)
Karan Swiss is a cross breed of Brown Swiss and Sahiwal.
131. Answer (4)
132. Answer (1)
Parents : GgFf × GgFf
Phenotypic ratio : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Green Green Yellow Yellow
and and and and
inflated constricted inflated constricted
133. Answer (3)
134. Answer (1)
135. Answer (2)
Cells of meristematic tissue are compactly arranged with no intercellular spaces between them.
136. Answer (1)
Richa is suffering from chicken pox.
137. Answer (2)
138. Answer (4)
Trigeminal nerve is the largest cranial nerve.
139. Answer (3)
Adenine and guanine are purine bases.
140. Answer (2)
Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin.
SECTION-II
141. Answer (2)
142. Answer (3)
Since ABOC is a parallelogram, B
 AB = OC, AC = BO and AC || BO.
∵ OC = OB [Radii of the same circle] O x x A
90°- x
2
So, ABOC is a rhombus. x
x
2
C
x
 BOC = x and BCO  90 
2 D
(10)
∵ OB || CA
 OB || DA
 BOC = OCD = x [Alternate interior angles]
1 x
Also, BDC  BOC  [The angle subtended by an arc of a circle at the centre is double the anlge
2 2
subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of the circle]
Now, in BCD,
DBC + BCD + CDB = 180° [Sum of the interior angles of a triangle is 180°]
⎛ x⎞ x
 DBC  180  ⎜⎝ x  90  ⎟⎠   90  x
2 2
143. Answer (2)
144. Answer (1)
c a b
a b .bc .c a  3abc
c a b
 ab –1
.bc –1
.c a –1
3
Since a, b, c are positive integers and 3 is a prime number, therefore, it follows that
c a b
either : a b –1
 3, bc –1
 1, c a –1
1
 a = 3, b = 2 and c = 1
c a b
or ab –1
 1, bc –1
 3, c a –1
1
 a = 1, b = 3 and c = 2
c a b
or ab –1
 1, bc –1
 1, c a –1
3
 a = 2, b = 1 and c = 3
In all cases, we get a + b + c = 6
145. Answer (2)
Since sum of coefficients = 0,
 Roots are 1, c/a
Hence, the roots are 1 and 2008.
146. Answer (2)
147. Answer (3)
148. Answer (3)
Number of subsets of {1, 2, 3, 4} is 24 = 16 and they are { }, {1}, {2}, {3}, {4}, {1, 2}, {1, 3}, {1, 4}, {2, 3}, {3,
4}, {2, 4}, {1, 2, 3}, {1, 2, 4}, {2, 3, 4}, {1, 3, 4}, {1, 2, 3, 4}
Hence, the required subsets are {1}, {1, 2}, {1, 3} and {1, 2, 3}.
149. Answer (2)
150. Answer (4)
Let Sn = 4 + 10 + 18 + 28 + 40 + ......... + an – 1 + an (i)
Or Sn = 4 + 10 + 18 + ....... + an – 2 + an – 1 + an (ii)
(11)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get

0 = 4 + [6 + 8 + 10 + 12 + .........(n – 1) terms] – an
4  (n  1) 12  (n  2)  2
 an 
2
= 4 + (n – 1)(n + 4)
= 4 + n2 – n + 4n – 4
= n2 + 3n
151. Answer (4)
152. Answer (2)
153. Answer (4)
154. Answer (1)
155. Answer (2)
156. Answer (4)
Let BCD = 
So, BAC = 90° – , ABD =  and DBC = 90° –  [BDC, ADB and ABC are right angled triangles]
 BCD = ABD =  and CBD = BAC = 90° – 
In BDC and ABC, C
BDC = ABC = 90°
D
BCD = BCA [Common angles]
So, BDC ~ ABC [Using AA similarity criterion]
B A
CD BC
 
BC AC
 AC × CD = BC2 (1)
Now, in BDC and ADB,
BDC = ADB = 90°
BCD = ABD = 
So, BDC ~ ADB [Using AA similarity criterion]
CD BD
 
BD AD
 CD × AD = BD2 (2)
Adding equations (1) and (2), we get
AC × CD + CD × AD = BC2 + BD2
 CD(AC + AD) = BC2 + BD2
157. Answer (2)
158. Answer (2)
(12)
159. Answer (1)

(cosec – sin)(tan + cot)(sec – cos)
⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞
⎜ – sin ⎟ ⎜  cot ⎟ ⎜ – cos ⎟
⎝ sin  ⎠ ⎝ cot  ⎠ ⎝ cos  ⎠
⎛ 1– sin2  ⎞ ⎛ 1  cot 2  ⎞ ⎛ 1– cos2  ⎞

⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟
⎝ sin  ⎠ ⎝ cot  ⎠ ⎝ cos  ⎠
cos2  cosec 2  sin2 

 . . [∵ 1 – sin2 = cos2, 1 + cot2 = cosec2 and 1 – cos2 = sin2]
sin  cot  cos 
cosec 2 
 cos .sin .
cot 
=1
160. Answer (2)
log1224 = x
 log12(12 × 2) = x
 log1212 + log122 = x [∵ log (m × n) = logm + logn]
log2 ⎡ log b ⎤
 1  log12  x ⎢∵ loga b  ⎥
⎣ log a ⎦
log2
  x –1 …(i)
log12
log2
  x –1
log22  log3
 log2 = (x – 1) (2log2 + log3) [∵ log ba = a log b]
 log2 = 2xlog2 + xlog3 – 2log2 – log3
 (–2x + 3)log2 = (x – 1)log3 …(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get
log3
 ( 2 x  3) …(iii)
log12
Now, log1254
log33  2 3log3 log2

=  
log12 log12 log12
= 3(– 2x + 3) + x – 1 [Using (i) and (iii)]
= – 6x + 9 + x – 1
= 8 – 5x
SECTION-III
161. Answer (4)
162. Answer (4)
163. Answer (2)
164. Answer (2)
(13)
165. Answer (3)

166. Answer (2)
167. Answer (4)
168. Answer (3)
169. Answer (1)
170. Answer (4)
171. Answer (1)
172. Answer (4)
173. Answer (3)
174. Answer (2)
175. Answer (4)
176. Answer (1)
177. Answer (1)
178. Answer (2)
179. Answer (2)
180. Answer (4)
181. Answer (1)
182. Answer (2)
183. Answer (1)
184. Answer (3)
185. Answer (4)
186. Answer (4)
187. Answer (1)
188. Answer (3)
189. Answer (4)
190. Answer (3)
191. Answer (3)
192. Answer (4)
193. Answer (2)
194. Answer (4)
195. Answer (4)
196. Answer (4)
197. Answer (4)
198. Answer (2)
199. Answer (4)
200. Answer (2)

(14)

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NTSE TEST SERIES

Complete Syllabus Test

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

Choose the correct answer :

6. 12. What represents players who are dancers?

c 18. If x% of 5x is 20 then (x + 8) will be

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

I. The person driving a car drinks Tepsi.

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(4) (3) Reluctant

71. (1) whom is credited (2) with who's credit S4 : ______________________

S3 : _________________________ 83. A : People say in old age sons come in handy.

(2) QPR (3) It is due to family and societal pressure that

S2 : _________________________ B : You may have trouble resisting the urge to

(2) PRQ 85. BUFFETED

(3) RPQ (1) Armed (2) Pondered

86. FACTION 92. Back-seat driver

(2) Conditional (2) Someone who criticizes from the sidelines

(3) Dividend (3) Someone who is considered to be an outsider

(4) Foresight 95. SHREWD

(4) Euphemism (2) Visible

Directions (Q90 to Q94) : Identify the most appropriate (3) Unbelievable

(2) An illusion (3) Precarious (4) Defiant

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

107. Two wires A and B of same material having lengths

in the ratio LA/LB of 1 : 2 and their respective area

104. A spacecraft of mass M, moving with velocity v (3) 3 V (4) 1 V

1 Choose the correct option

A B C 129. Select the odd one out.

135. Which of the following is not a characteristic of (3) Ovulation occurs

148. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, then the number of subsets of 2

( 3,– 2) is (1) 2100 kg (2) 1800 kg

(1) p + a + b = 0 (2) q = p + a + b (2) 300%

(3) q = 0 (4) q = a – b (3) 200%

n  n  1 2n  1  n  1 2n  1 (1) 1 (2) 0

(2) A is false but R is true (1) A is true but R is false

Reason (R) : The distribution pattern of the (3) Cabinets

 #$ %  "  !"

     

NTSE TEST SERIES

ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

18. Answer (3)

Choke Tepsi M.K. S.K. Bike Car

36. Answer (4)

45. Answer (3)

46. Answer (1)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

51. Answer (4)

79. Answer (1)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

101. Answer (1)

Let the compartments move with same acceleration ‘a’

∵ For first compartment, F – N1 = ma …(i)

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