CHAPTER 10 ENDOCRINE
1. ______________ are released by cells that
have effects on other cell types near the
cells from which they were released.
 Neurotransmitters
 Paracrine chemical messengers
 Pheromones
 Endocrine chemical messengers
 Autocrine chemical messengers
2. Which of the following is not a regulatory
function of the endocrine system?
 Regulates the levels of nutrients such as glucose in
the blood
 Regulates water balance by controlling the solute
concentration of the blood
 Regulates skeletal muscle contraction strength
 Regulates the rate of metabolism
 Regulates satiation and the breakdown of food
into individual nutrients
3. _______________ are chemical signals
secreted into the blood where they travel
to distant target cells.
 Hormones
 Autocrine chemical messengers
 Neurotransmitters
 Pheromones
 Paracrine chemical messengers
4. Endocrine glands
 include the salivary glands.
 secrete their products into ducts.
 secrete chemical signals called neurotransmitters.
 secrete their chemical signals into the blood.
5. Exocrine glands differ from endocrine
glands in that exocrine glands
 secrete only into the bloodstream.
 only secrete salts.
 secrete only into the urine.
 secrete only local hormones.
 secrete through ducts or tubes to the body's
exterior.
6. Hormones
 are produced in large quantities by most cells.
 usually only affect cells close to those that
produce the hormone.
 bind only to cells that have receptors for that
specific hormone.
 are either lipid or polysaccharide molecules.
 All of the choices are correct.
7. Hormones can
 regulate metabolism.
 aid membrane transport.
 help regulate water and electrolyte balance and
blood pressure.
 have functions in growth, reproduction, and
development.
 All of the choices are correct.
8. A hormone may be
 inactivated by its target cell.
 activated by its target cell.
 inactivated by nontarget cells.
 excreted before it has a chance to act on a target
cell.
 All of the choices are correct.
9. Water-soluble hormones
 bind to cytoplasmic receptors in the cytoplasm of
the target cell.
 include hormones derived from lipids.
 include a class of hormones called eicosanoids.
 bind to receptors within the nucleus of the target
cell.
 bind to membrane bound receptors in the cell
membrane of the target cell.
10. Which of the following would increase the
likelihood of hormone X binding to cell Z?
 Increasing specificity of receptors of cell Z
 Decreasing the number of receptors on cell Z
 Increasing the concentration of hormone X in the
blood
 Increasing the rate at which hormone X is broken
down in the blood
 All of the answers are correct.
11. Most hormones are taken up and degraded
by the _____________ and _____________.
 bone marrow; spleen
 bone marrow; liver
 spleen; kidney
 liver; kidney
12. Secretion of hormones is controlled by
 the concentration of some chemicals in the blood.
 neural input.
 tropic hormones.
 All of the choices are correct.
13. Which of these statements is false
concerning regulation of hormone
secretion?
 The secretion of some hormones is directly
controlled by another hormone.
 The secretion of some hormones is controlled by
the nervous system.
 The secretion of some hormones is controlled by
negative feedback or positive feedback
mechanisms.
 Hypothalamic inhibiting hormones stimulate the
release of some tropic hormones from the
anterior pituitary gland.
 The secretion of some hormones is directly
controlled by the blood levels of chemicals.
14. The hypothalamus secretes __________,
which are classified as _________
hormones, whereby they increase the
secretion of an anterior pituitary hormone,
or ____________ hormones, whereby they
decrease the secretion of an anterior
pituitary hormone.
 regulatory hormones; releasing; transferring
 neurohormones; releasing; inhibitory
 hormones; inhibiting; releasing
 stimulatory hormones; secretory; inhibitory
15. Testosterone
 is secreted by the hypothalamus.
 stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce adrenal
androgens.
 secretion is stimulated by hormones from the
posterior pituitary.
 has a negative feedback effect on the
hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.
16. Most hormones are regulated by
 positive-feedback mechanisms.
 hormonal-feedback mechanisms.
 neural-feedback mechanisms.
 negative-feedback mechanisms.
17. Whether or not a cell responds to a
particular hormone is determined by
 how many ion channels the cell has.
 the quantity of the hormone circulating in the
blood.
 the amount of paracrine factors the cell produces.
 the presence of appropriate receptor for that
hormone.
 All of the choices are correct.
18. The tendency for each type of hormone to
bind to one type of receptor and not to
others is called
 antagonism.
 specificity.
 agonism.
 Complementarity.
19. Receptors for steroid hormones
 are found in the nucleus or cytoplasm.
 are also called nuclear receptors.
 regulate gene transcription.
 All of the choices are correct.
20. Typically, chemical signals that bind to
___________ receptors produce rapid
responses, while those that bind to ______
receptors takes longer.
 nuclear; membrane-bound
 membrane-bound; nuclear
21. Which of these statements concerning
membrane-bound receptors is true?
 Water-soluble molecules bind to
membrane-bound receptors.
 Membrane-bound receptors increase lipid
synthesis in the cell.
 Membrane-bound receptors are sometimes
located in the nucleus of the cell.
 When intercellular chemical signals bind to
membrane-bound receptors, the response usually
requires several hours.
 Membrane-bound receptors must be able to
rapidly diffuse through the cell membrane.
22. Which of these statements concerning
thyroid hormones is false?
 Thyroid hormones are produced in thyroid
follicles.
 Thyroid hormones include T3 and T4 (thyroxine).
 Thyroid hormone secretion is stimulated by TSH.
 Increased thyroid hormone secretion causes a
decrease in TSH secretion.
 Insufficient iodine in the diet causes the thyroid
gland to decrease in size.
23. Which of these would not be a major effect
of adrenal medulla hormones?
 Breakdown of glycogen to glucose
 Decreased blood flow through skeletal muscles
 Dilation of bronchioles
 Increased heart rate
 Release of fatty acids from fat cells
24. Which of these statements about insulin
shock is false?
 Insulin shock results from too much glucose in
the blood.
 Insulin shock may result from too much insulin, or
from not eating after being injected with insulin.
 Insulin shock causes the brain to malfunction.
 Insulin shock can result in disorientation,
convulsions, and loss of consciousness.
 All of these are true statements.
25. Glucocorticoids are secreted by the
 beta cells of the pancreatic islets.
 adrenal cortex.
 adrenal medulla.
 posterior pituitary gland.
 anterior pituitary gland.
26. A woman with an abnormally low level of
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) would
exhibit which of the following symptoms?
 Reduced oocyte production or ovulation events
 Hyperglycemia
 Darkening of the skin
 Increased fertility
 Constant thirst
27. A woman with a newborn baby noticed that
when she nursed the baby, she felt
"cramps" in her abdomen. How might this
be explained?
 Nursing often causes digestive upset.
 Nursing increases parasympathetic stimulation of
the uterus.
 Nursing stimulates the posterior pituitary to
release oxytocin.
 Nursing increases ADH release from the posterior
pituitary.
 Nursing stimulates the ovaries to release
estrogen.
28. A function of the axons that run from the
hypothalamus to the pituitary gland is to
 move ADH from the hypothalamus to the anterior
pituitary.
 carry action potentials to the posterior pituitary
causing the release of oxytocin.
 cause the release of insulin from the anterior
pituitary.
 move releasing hormones from the hypothalamus
to the posterior pituitary.
 form a vascular connection from the
hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary.
29. The anterior pituitary
 receives signals from the hypothalamus via the
hypothalamo-hypophysial portal system.
 is controlled by releasing hormones produced in
the hypothalamus.
 controls the functions of other glands such as the
ovaries, testes, and thyroid gland.
 All of the choices are correct.
30. The posterior pituitary gland is stimulated
to secrete hormones by
 stimulation of neurons within the hypothalamus.
 stimulation of glandular cells within the posterior
pituitary.
 stimulation of the cells of the infundibulum.
 stimulation of neurons within the anterior
pituitary.
31. The ____________ produce(s) the hormone
erythropoietin.
 stomach
 adrenal glands
 liver
 pancreas
 Kidney
32. A doctor might not want a pregnant woman
to take aspirin late in pregnancy because
 aspirin inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and
prostaglandins stimulate uterine contractions.
 aspirin stimulates prostaglandin synthesis.
 prostaglandins stimulate uterine contractions.
 aspirin inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
 prostaglandins cause blood vessel dilation,
swelling, and pain.
33. How does aging affect the endocrine
system?
 Secretory activity of endocrine glands decreases.
 Normal levels of hormones, particularly growth
hormone and sex hormones, often decrease.
 Aging reduces the efficiency of endocrine system
functions.
 Endocrine system imbalances can lead to weight
gain or muscle loss.
 All of the choices are correct.
34. Which of the following hormones does not
decrease in its production as you age?
 Insulin
 Melatonin
 Renin
 Thymosin
 Testosterone
35. Stress
 influences the hypothalamus.
 activates a sympathetic nervous system response.
 causes the release of ACTH.
 causes an increase in blood glucose levels.
 All of the choices are correct.
36. In persons with diabetes mellitus,
 the blood glucose level becomes very low.
 tissues cannot take up glucose effectively.
 proteins are synthesized in body cells.
 alkalosis may result from rapid fat breakdown.
37. Hyperthyroidism
 can cause cretinism in infants.
 results in a decreased rate of metabolism.
 can cause extreme nervousness and chronic
fatigue.
 would cause an increase in TSH secretion.
38. Graves disease
 decreases the size of the thyroid gland.
 is an example of hypothyroidism.
 is affectively treated by injection of thyroid
hormones daily.
 results from the production of an abnormal
thyroid-stimulating antibody.
 leads to dramatic weight gain before treatment.
39. A patient presents with poor appetite,
weakness, and fatigue. His lab blood work
shows normal thyroid and adrenal levels,
normal calcium and glucose, high sodium. His
urinalysis demonstrates very concentrated
urine and elevated sodium levels. What is a
possible diagnosis?
 Goiter
 Diabetes mellitus
 Diabetes insipidus
 Hypothyroidism
40. A patient has had both adrenal glands removed.
Which hormone is necessary to replace for the
patient to be able to deal with long-term stress?
 Epinephrine
 Thyroid hormone
 Androgens
 Glucocorticoids
41. Camden has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Although
Camden exhibited all of the following
symptoms, which one should have been the
‘red-flag’ to alert him to this condition?
 Increased hunger
 Vision changes
 Fatigue
42. One hormone molecule can cause the
activation of many enzyme molecules. This
is known as _________.
 amplification
 negative feedback
 specificity
 exophthalmia
CHAPTER 12 HEART
1. Which of the following is not a function of the
heart?
a. Adjustment of blood pH levels
b. Regulating blood supply to tissues depending on
need
c. Generating blood pressure through contraction
d. Routing blood to either the pulmonary or systemic
circulations
2. Which of the following is false regarding heart
location and gross anatomy?
a. The heart is about the size of a closed fist.
b. The heart is located in the mediastinum.
c. The apex of the heart is directed superiorly and to
the left.
d.The heart is surrounded by a pericardium.
3. The pericardial sac is lined with an inner layer called
the _____.
a. fibrous pericardium.
b. parietal pericardium.
c. visceral pericardium.
d. myocardium.
e. epicardium.
4. What areas of the heart are supplied by the left
coronary artery?
a. Right atrium and most of right ventricle
b. Anterior wall of heart and most of left ventricle
c. Posterior wall of heart and most of left ventricle
d. Left atrium and most of right ventricle
5. The valve located between the right ventricle and the
pulmonary trunk is the _____.
a. aortic semilunar valve.
b. pulmonary semilunar valve.
c. tricuspid valve.
d. mitral valve.
e. bicuspid valve.
6. Which of the following layers forms the majority of
the thickness of the heart wall?
a. Epicardium
b. Pericardium
c. Endocardium
d. Myocardium
e. Visceral pericardium
7. During the repolarization phase of an action potential
in cardiac muscle, ___________.
a. voltage-gated sodium channels are open.
b. voltage-gate potassium channels are open.
c. voltage-gated calcium channels are open.
8. Which of the following represents the correct
sequence for the generation and conduction of an
action potential through the conduction system?
a. AV node, AV bundle, SA node, Purkinje fibers, bundle
branches
b. Purkinje fibers, bundle branches, AV node, AV
bundle, SA node
c. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches,
Purkinje fibers
d. SA node, AV bundle, AV node, bundle branches,
Purkinje fibers
e. AV node, SA node, bundle branches, AV bundle,
Purkinje fibers
9. What event(s) occur during the QRS complex of an
ECG?
a. Depolarization of the atria
b. Repolarization of the ventricles
c. Depolarization of the atria and repolarization of the
ventricles
d. Depolarization of the ventricles and repolarization
of the atria
10. When left atrial pressure exceeds left ventricular
pressure, __________.
a. left ventricular ejection begins.
b. aortic blood pressure begins to rise.
c. the bicuspid (mitral) valve opens.
d. ventricular volume decreases.
e. the tricuspid valve opens.
11. Which of the following is correct regarding heart
sounds?
a. The first heart sound occurs at the beginning of
ventricular systole.
b. The second heart sound is heard when the AV valves
are closing.
c. The first heart sound is the sound of the semilunar
valves closing.
d. The second heart sound occurs when blood flows
into the superior vena cava.
e. The first heart sound occurs at the beginning of
ventricular diastole.
12. Which of the following statements regarding
intrinsic regulation of the heart is true?
a. Stretching the SA node will decrease generation of
action potentials in the node.
b. Decreased venous return increases cardiac output.
c. The heart's pumping effectiveness is greatly
influenced by small changes in afterload.
d. If cardiac muscle fibers are slightly stretched, they
have a stronger contraction force.
13. Fred was admitted to the cardiac unit with chest
pains. No arrhythmias and no large changes in the heart
rate were observable. Blood samples taken over the
next few days showed no increase in enzymes such as
creatine phosphokinase. A possible treatment of the
condition is __________.
a. beta adrenergic blocking agents.
b. nitroglycerin.
c. calcium channel blocking agents.
d. aspirin.
e. exercise.
14. Which one of the following is a change in the heart
that is associated with age?
a. Hypertrophy of the heart
b. Increased maximum heart rate
c. Increased cardiac output
d.All of the choices are correct.
15. In the heart, an action potential originates in the
_____.
a. Purkinje fibers.
b. bundle branches.
c. atrioventricular bundle.
d. atrioventricular node.
e. sinoatrial node.
16. The sequence of travel by an action potential
through the heart is __________.
a. sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node,
atrioventricular bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje
fibers.
b. atrioventricular node, sinoatrial node,
atrioventricular bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje
fibers.
c. atrioventricular bundle, atrioventricular node,
sinoatrial node, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers.
d. Purkinje fibers, atrioventricular bundle,
atrioventricular node, sinoatrial node, bundle branches.
e. atrioventricular node, sinoatrial bundle,
atrioventricular node, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers.
17. Which of the following is true concerning the heart
conduction system?
a. Action potentials pass slowly through the
atrioventricular node.
b. Action potentials pass slowly through the
atrioventricular bundle.
c. Action potentials pass slowly through the Purkinje
fibers.
d. Action potentials pass slowly through the ventricle
wall.
e. Action potentials pass slowly through the bundle
branches.
18. Which of the following is false regarding ventricular
systole?
a. The atrioventricular valves close.
b. The semilunar valves open.
c. The ventricles relax.
d. Blood flows through the aorta and the pulmonary
trunk.
19. The semilunar valves close during _____.
a. ventricular systole.
b. ventricular diastole.
c. atrial systole.
d. atrial diastole.
e. both atrial and ventricular systole.
20. The atrioventricular valves open during _____.
a. ventricular systole.
b. ventricular diastole.
c. atrial systole.
d. atrial diastole.
e. both atrial and ventricular systole.
21. When the pressure in the ventricles becomes lower
than the pressure in the atria _________.
a. the ventricles contract.
b. blood flows into the pulmonary trunk.
c. blood flows into the aorta.
d. the atrioventricular valves open.
e. the semilunar valves open.
22. Ventricular systole causes __________.
a. blood to flow into the ventricles.
b. blood to flow out of the atria.
c. the atrioventricular valves to close, and then the
semilunar valves to open.
d. the semilunar valves to close, and then the
atrioventricular valves to open.
e. pressure to become greater in the aorta and
pulmonary trunk than in the ventricles.
23. Inflammation of the serous pericardium is called
_____.
a. an angioplasty.
b. angina pectoris.
c. an infarct.
d. pericarditis.
e. cardiac tamponade.
24. In the case of __________, fluid or blood
accumulates in the pericardial sac, causing a potentially
fatal condition.
a. angioplasty
b. angina pectoris
c. an infarct
d. pericarditis
e. cardiac tamponade.
25. Fibrillation of the heart ventricles _________.
a. reduces the cardiac output.
b. is caused by a malfunction or fluttering of the valves.
c. is typified by a reduction in the numbers of action
potentials in the heart muscle.
d. causes a decrease in heart rate or bradycardia.
e. occurs when the SA node recovers from defibrillation
faster than any other conducting part of the heart.
26. Pain in the area of the chest and left arm that
appears with minimal exertion is called _____.
a. an angioplasty.
b. angina pectoris.
c. an infarct.
d. pericarditis.
e. cardiac tamponade.
27. What cardiac arrhythmia will result in an ECG with
no P waves, but normal QRS and T waves?
a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Ventricular tachycardia
c. Bradycardia
d. Atrial flutter
28. Obstruction of the ___________ will cause more
widespread damage to the heart as compared to
obstruction of the other, smaller vessels.
a. Left marginal vein
b. Left coronary artery
c. Posterior interventricular vein
d. Anterior interventricular artery
e. Circumflex artery
CHAPTER 13 BLOOD VESSELS
1.Blood is moved through the vascular system by
a. valves in the wall of the blood vessels.
b. rhythmic contractions of smooth muscle in
vessel walls.
c. pressure gradients created by the heart.
d. osmotic pressure.
e. viscosity of the blood.
2.Systemic blood vessels transport blood
a. from the left ventricle through the body to the
left atrium.
 b. from the left ventricle through the body to the
right atrium. a. Tunica intima
c. from the right ventricle through the body to the b. Tunica media
left atrium. c. Tunica adventitia
d. from the right ventricle through the body to the
right atrium. 8.Which statement is true regarding when comparing
e. from the left ventricle to the lungs. arteries and veins?

3.Which of the following is not a function of the a. For an artery and vein of the same diameter,
circulatory system? the vein would have a thicker wall.
b. Veins contain valves and arteries do not.
a. Helps regulate blood pressure c. Blood pressure is lower in arteries than in veins.
b. Directs blood flow to the tissues d. When empty, an artery is more likely to be
c. Regulates growth and metabolism collapsed (flattened) than a vein.
d. Exchanges nutrients, waste products, and gases
with tissues 9.Which of the following is not normally able to pass
e. Carries blood through capillary walls?
f. Transports substances
a. Oxygen
4.What is the order of the blood vessel types that a red b. Electrolytes
blood cell would pass through as the blood leaves the c. Glucose
heart, travels to a tissue, and then returns to the heart? d. Proteins
e. Carbon dioxide
a. Arteriole, artery, capillary, vein, venule
b. Capillary, arteriole, artery, vein, venule 10.In the pulmonary circulation, the ________ carry
c. Artery, arteriole, capillary, venule, vein blood to the lungs.
d. Vein, capillary, artery, arteriole, venule
e. Artery, venule, capillary, arteriole, vein a. pulmonary arteries
b. coronary arteries
5.Arteriosclerosis is characterized by c. pulmonary veins
d. coronary veins
a. a low pulse pressure.
b. decreased elasticity of arteries. 11.The abdominal aorta descends through the abdomen
c. decreased resistance to blood flow. and then divides into
d. increased length of arteries.
a. inferior mesenteric arteries.
6.The structure of a capillary wall differs from that of a b. common iliac arteries.
vein or artery in that c. superior mesenteric arteries.
d. femoral arteries.
a. the capillary wall has only two tunics. e. renal arteries.
b. capillaries have more smooth muscle.
c. capillary walls are much thinner. 12.The popliteal artery branches inferiorly to form the
d. capillaries can constrict or dilate.
e. nothing can pass through the capillary walls. a. inferior mesenteric arteries.
b. common iliac arteries.
7.Which tunic of an artery contains an endothelium? c. tibial arteries.
 d. renal arteries.
a. superior vena cava.
13.Which of the following blood vessels carries blood to b. inferior vena cava.
the brain? c. hepatic portal vein.
d. great saphenous vein.
a. Radial artery e. femoral vein.
b. Cephalic artery
c. Internal carotid artery 19.The hepatic portal vein carries blood draining from
d. External jugular vein all of the following organs except the
e. Axillary artery
a. stomach.
14.Which of the following arteries branches directly b. small intestine.
from the aortic arch? c. spleen.
d. urinary bladder.
a. Brachiocephalic artery e. large intestine.
b. Brachial artery
c. Pulmonary artery 20.Which vessel is often used to draw blood from a
d. Right subclavian artery patient?
e. Left common iliac artery
a. Radial vein
15.What artery supplies the small intestine and a b. Brachial artery
portion of the large intestine? c. Median cubital vein
d. Cephalic vein
a. Inferior phrenic artery
b. Lumbar artery 21.The internal jugular veins join the subclavian veins to
c. Superior mesenteric artery form the
d. Celiac trunk
a. superior vena cavae.
16.As the popliteal vein ascends past the knee and into b. axillary veins.
the thigh, it becomes the c. brachiocephalic veins.
d. azygos veins.
a. small saphenous vein. e. external jugular veins.
b. fibular vein.
c. femoral vein. 22.An example of a vein that returns blood directly to a
d. great saphenous vein. heart chamber is the

17.The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the a. brachiocephalic vein.
splenic vein and the b. superior vena cava.
c. hepatic portal vein.
a. superior mesenteric vein. d. azygos vein.
b. inferior mesenteric vein. e. renal vein.
c. hepatic vein.
d. renal vein. 23.As blood flows away from the heart and through the
e. gastric vein. systemic circuit, the most rapid decline in blood
pressure occurs in
18.The longest vein in the body is the
 a. the aorta. b. measure of force blood exerts against blood
b. arterioles and capillaries. vessel walls.
c. venules and medium-sized veins. c. resistance to blood flow.
d. the vena cavae. d. measure of the total volume of blood circulating
throughout the body.
24.A force that moves fluid from interstitial space into
the capillary is 30.During capillary exchange, __________ drives fluid
out of the capillary while __________ moves fluid into
a. blood pressure. the capillary.
b. pulse pressure.
c. osmosis. a. osmosis; blood pressure
d. edema. b. blood pressure; osmosis

25.A force that moves fluid out of a capillary and into 31.Which of the following statements is true regarding
the interstitial space is capillary exchange?

a. blood pressure. a. Most of the volume of fluid that leaves the

b. osmosis. arterial end of a capillary reenters the venous
c. pulse pressure. end of a capillary.
d. edema. b. Interstitial fluid normally has a higher osmotic
pressure than blood plasma.
26.Resistance to blood flow is lowest in c. Constriction of a precapillary sphincter will
increase blood flow though the capillary.
a. arteries. d. Interstitial protein concentration is normally
b. arterioles. higher than plasma protein concentration.
c. venules.
d. veins. 32.Which of the following controls blood pressure on a
e. capillaries. short-term basis?

27.Resistance to blood flow increases as a. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism

b. Antidiuretic hormone
a. blood vessels constrict. c. Atrial natriuretic pepetide
b. blood vessels dilate. d. Baroreflex

28.A blood pressure reading of 120/80 mm Hg would 33.Which of the following statements regarding
indicate a regulation of local blood flow is true?

a. diastolic pressure of 120 mm Hg. a. Increased metabolic rate in a tissue increases

b. systolic pressure of 120 mm Hg. capillary blood flow into the tissue.
c. systolic pressure of 80 mm Hg. b. Contraction of precapillary sphincters will
d. diastolic pressure of 40 mm Hg. increase blood flow to a capillary bed.
c. Increased tissue levels of carbon dioxide
29.Blood pressure is the increase the contraction of precapillary
sphincters.
a. product of the stroke volume multiplied by d. Low tissue levels of oxygen and amino acids will
heart rate. cause precapillary sphincters to contract.
 a. Pons and medulla oblongata
34.Which of the following would lead to relaxation of b. Pons and midbrain
the precapillary sphincter? c. Cerebrum and medulla oblongata
d. Medulla oblongata
a. Decreased tissue metabolism
b. Decreased oxygen levels in tissue cells served 39.Hormones from the adrenal medulla
by the capillary
c. Decreased carbon dioxide concentration in the a. are released in response to parasympathetic
capillary bed stimulation.
d. Increased pH in the capillary bed b. cause vasodilation in blood vessels of the skin.
c. decrease the heart rate.
35.Which of the following factors assists in the return of d. cause an increase in stroke volume.
venous blood to the heart?
1. Arterial dilation 40.In which of the following would you detect a weak
2. Valves in the veins pulse?
3. Sympathetic stimulation
4. Compression of veins by muscular movements a. Hypertension
b. Hemorrhagic shock
a. 1 and 2 c. High blood volume
b. 1, 2, 3 d. Increased stroke volume
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4 41.Which of the following would occur as a result of
e. 1, 3, 4 increased renin release by the kidneys?

36.Local control of blood flow of the tissues is achieved a. An increase in urine output
by the periodic relaxation and contraction of the b. An increase in blood volume
_______. c. A decrease in aldosterone
d. A decrease in blood pressure
a. elastic arteries
b. large veins 42.Which of the following is a short-term regulator of
c. muscular arteries blood pressure?
d. precapillary sphincters
e. small and medium veins a. Aldosterone
f. venules b. Atrial natriuretic hormone
c. Antidiuretic hormone
37.Chemoreceptors d. Epinephrine

a. are located in the aortic and carotid bodies. 43.Which of the following is a long-term regulator of
b. are sensitive to small changes in oxygen levels blood pressure?
in the blood.
c. monitor blood pressure. a. Baroreceptor reflex
d. are sensitive to small changes in carbon dioxide b. Adrenal medullary mechanism
levels in the blood. c. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism
d. Chemoreceptor mechanism
38.Where is the vasomotor center located?
44.Older individuals are more likely to develop a 49.Chemoreceptors are also located in the
condition called a(n) _____________, where part of the
arterial wall thins and balloons out. a. medulla oblongata.
b. pons.
a. clot c. hypothalamus.
b. aneurysm d. thalamus.
c. plaques e. spinal cord.
d. stroke
50.Which of the following will not increase the heart
45.Baroreceptors are located in the rate?

a. aorta and subclavian arteries. a. Decreased blood oxygen

b. aorta and carotid arteries. b. Increased blood carbon dioxide
c. aorta and carotid veins. c. Increased blood pressure
d. aorta and subclavian veins. d. Decreased blood pH
e. aorta and common iliac arteries.
51.The fluids leave the capillaries at the arterial end
46.Action potentials are conducted from the because
baroreceptors to the brain via
a. the net filtration pressure of the blood is
a. the vagus nerve. higher at the arterial end than it is at the
b. the vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves. venous end.
c. the vagus and phrenic nerves. b. the net filtration pressure of the blood is higher
d. the phrenic and glossopharyngeal nerves. at the venous end than it is at the arterial end.
e. the phrenic nerve. c. the net osmotic pressure is higher at the arterial
end than it is at the venous end.
47.The action potential from the brain to the heart d. the net osmotic pressure is higher at the venous
travels along end than it is at the arterial end.
e. the net hydrostatic pressure is lower at the
a. the vagus nerve. arterial end than it is as the venous end.
b. the vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves.
c. the vagus and phrenic nerves. 52.The fluids reenter the capillaries at the venous end
d. the phrenic and glossopharyngeal nerves. because
e. the phrenic nerve.
a. the net hydrostatic pressure of the blood is
48.Chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies higher at the venous end than it is at the
detect all of the following except arterial end.
b. the net filtration pressure of the blood is higher
a. oxygen levels. at the venous end than it is at the arterial end.
b. blood pressure. c. the net osmotic pressure is higher at the arterial
c. pH. end than it is at the venous end.
d. carbon dioxide. d. the net hydrostatic pressure of the blood is
e. oxygen levels and carbon dioxide. lower at the venous end than it is at the
arterial end.
e. the net osmotic pressure is higher at the venous
end than it is at the arterial end.
 3.Lymph
53.Approximately what percent of fluid that exits the
capillaries at the arterial end reenters the capillaries at a. is found only when there is a pathological
the venous end? condition that allows it to leak from capillaries.
b. is excess interstitial fluid.
a. 60% c. is filtered by the spleen.
b. 70% d. is synthesized by the lymphatic organs.
c. 80% e. All of the choices are correct.
d. 90%
e. 100% 4.What structural feature of lymphatic vessels is
responsible for preventing lymph from flowing
54.Blood ejected by the right ventricle and returned to backward?
the left atrium flows through the ______ circulation.
a. Overlapping endothelial cells
a. pulmonary b. Valves
b. systemic c. Lack of a basement membrane
d. Thin walls
55.Pulmonary arteries carry ______ blood and
pulmonary veins carry ______ blood. 5.Germinal centers are the sites of

a. deoxygenated; oxygenated a. increased blood flow to the lymph nodes.

b. oxygenated; deoxygenated b. fluid production.
c. increased flow of lymph from infected tissues.
CHAPTER 14 LYMPHATIC d. entrance of lymph into lymph nodes.
e. proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph
1.The lymphatic system plays a role in maintaining fluid nodes.
balance within the body by
a. adding lymph to GI tract secretions. 6.Which of the following is the molecule that displays
b. returning interstitial fluid to the plasma. an antigen on the surface of cells?
c. transporting lymph from tissues to the liver.
d. carrying excess fluid to the kidneys to be a. T-cell receptor
excreted. b. Antibody
e. actively absorbing fluid from the blood. c. Antigen receptor
d. Major histocompatibility complex
2.Which of the following are functions of the lymphatic
system? 7.Which of the following is a lymphocyte that is part of
1. Defense the innate immune system and functions to kill tumor
2. Fluid equilibrium cells and infected cells?
3. Fat absorption
a. Macrophages
a. 1 b. Natural killer cells
b. 1,2 c. Eosinophils
c. 1,3 d. Basophils
d. 2,3
e. 1,2,3 8.Tonsils
 a. increase in size in adults.
b. are located in both the oral and abdominal 13.Cytotoxic T cells interact with target cells by
cavities. recognizing
c. protect against bacteria entering the oral and
nasal cavities. a. antigens only.
d. contain red pulp and white pulp. b. MHC proteins only.
e. are not functional in children. c. antigen-MHC protein complexes.
d. either antigens or MHC proteins.
9.A ________________ stimulates a B cell to divide and e. neither antigens nor MHC proteins.
produce _________________.
14.Active natural immunity occurs when
a. natural killer cell; cytokines
b. natural killer cell; plasma cells a. antibodies pass from a pregnant mother to her
c. natural killer cell; antibodies fetus.
d. helper T cell; cytokines b. antibodies are injected into a host.
e. helper T cell; plasma cells c. an individual develops a disease.
d. a person is vaccinated.
10.Which is the proper order of events in cell-mediated e. antibodies are passed in breast milk.
immunity?
1) Cloning of cytotoxic T cells and memory cytotoxic T 15.Cell-mediated immunity is effective
cells
2) Antigen presented to cytotoxic T cell a. in eliminating virus-infected cells.
3) Activation of cytotoxic T cell b. in preventing allergic reactions.
4) Target cells attacked by cytotoxic T cells c. at inducing B cells to become plasma cells.
d. All of the choices are correct.
a. 2, 3, 4, 1
b. 1, 4, 2, 3 16.Which of the following effects is seen in
c. 2, 3, 1, 4 immunotherapy treatment of diseases?
d. 3, 2, 4, 1
e. 1, 2, 3, 4, a. Directly attacking harmful cells
b. Inhibiting the immune system against
11.Which of the following is correctly matched? self-antigens
c. Monoclonal antibody therapy against specific
a. IgA - found in saliva and tears antigens
b. IgD - can cross the placenta d. All of the choices are correct.
c. IgG - first to challenge the antigen
d. IgM - antigen-binding receptor on B cells 17.With advancing age, the lymphatic system
e. IgE - transfusion reactions
a. becomes less efficient at absorbing dietary
12.What is the cell that is responsible for a secondary lipids.
response to an antigen? b. ceases to transport lymph.
c. produces an increasing number and variety of
a. Memory B cell B-lymphocytes.
b. Plasma cell d. is less responsive to antigens.
c. Cytotoxic T cell
d. All of the choices are correct. 18.Foreign antigens presented on class I MHC molecules
 23.An antigen-presenting cell presents antigen to a T
a. stimulate antibody production from plasma helper cell
cells.
b. inhibit macrophage activity. a. inside a vesicle.
c. stimulate cell destruction by macrophages. b. on its surface, attached to an MHC class I
d. stimulate cell destruction by cytotoxic T-cells. molecule.
c. on its surface, attached to an MHC class II
19.Cytotoxic T-cells directly attack molecule.
a. viruses d. on its surface, attached to an antibody.
b. bacteria.
c. cells that display foreign proteins on their 24.A helper T cell becomes activated by a(n)
surface. __________.
d. cells that display normal proteins on their
surface. a. cytotoxic T cell
b. antigen-presenting cell
20.Cytotoxic T-cells produce _______ which creates c. plasma cell
holes in the cell membranes of target cells. d. memory B cell

a. antibody 25.A __________ must become activated before it can

b. perforin stimulate a B cell to produce antibody.
c. cytokinin
d. lysozyme a. helper T cell
e. complement b. cytotoxic T cell
c. plasma cell
21.Cytotoxic T-cells interact with target cells by d. neutrophil
recognizing
26.Protein is usually a T-cell dependent antigen.
a. foreign proteins only.
b. MHC proteins only. a. True
c. foreign protein-MHC protein complexes. b. False
d. None of the choices is correct.
27.Foreign substances that elicit an immune response
22.Which of the following are needed for antibody are termed
production to occur with T-cell dependent antigens?
a. antigens.
1. Helper T-cell b. antibodies.
2. Cytotoxic T-cell c. viruses.
3. B cell d. bacteria.
4. Cytokines
28.Macrophages secrete __________ which then
a. 1, 3, 4 activates __________.
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 3 a. antibodies; helper T cells
d. 2, 3, 4 b. interleukin-1; cytotoxic T cells
c. interleukin-1; helper T cells
d. interleukin-2; cytotoxic T cells
 e. interleukin-2; helper T cells
34.An infected cell displaying MHC class I/antigen
29.The ability for adaptive immunity to improve the complexes on its surface can activate ________ cells,
immune response to a particular pathogen over leading to destruction of the infected cell.
subsequent exposures is referred to as
a. cytotoxic T
a. specificity. b. helper T
b. memory. c. B
c. resistance. d. natural killer
d. adaptability. e. plasma
e. hypersensitivity. CHAPTER 15 RESPIRATORY

30.Substances that stimulate an adaptive immune 1.The direction of gas movement is determined by
response are called
a. temperature.
a. foreign bodies. b. size of the gas molecule.
b. antibodies. c. solubility of the gas in blood.
c. antigens. d. partial pressure differences.
d. agglutinins. e. pH.

31.A cytokine released by macrophages that can 2.Which of the following statements about partial
stimulate helper T cells is pressures of gases in the blood and lungs is true?

a. interleukin-1. a. PO2 in lung is greater than PO2 in blood; PCO2

b. interleukin-2. in lung is greater than PCO2 in blood
c. MHC class I. b. PO2 in lung is greater than PO2 in blood; PCO2
d. MHC class II. in lung is less than PCO2 in blood
e. immunoglobulin c. PO2 in lung is greater than PO2 in blood; PCO2
in lung = PCO2 in blood
32.All of the following can be caused by enlarged tonsils d. PO2 in lung is less than PO2 in blood; PCO2 in
except lung is less than PCO2 in blood
e. PO2 in lung is less than PO2 in blood; PCO2 in
a. difficulty swallowing. lung is greater than PCO2 in blood
b. a sore throat.
c. headaches. 3.Which of the following statements about partial
d. snoring. pressures of gases in the blood and tissues is true?
e. middle ear infections.
a. PO2 in blood is greater than PO2 in tissues;
33.What specific cell type is the effector cell for PCO2 in blood is greater than PCO2 in tissues
cell-mediated immunity (i.e., the cell type that destroys b. PO2 in blood is greater than PO2 in tissues;
the antigen-containing cell)? PCO2 in blood is less than PCO2 in tissues
c. PO2 in blood is greater than PO2 in tissues;
a. Cytotoxic T cell PCO2 in blood = PCO2 in tissues
b. Helper T cell d. PO2 in blood is less than PO2 in tissues; PCO2 in
c. B cell blood is less than PCO2 in tissues
d. Natural killer cell
 e. PO2 in blood is less than PO2 in tissues; PCO2 in
blood is greater than PCO2 in tissues a. the PCO2 is higher in the capillaries than in the
alveoli.
4.Inspiration begins as b. the PCO2 is lower in the capillaries than in the
alveoli.
a. lobar bronchi relax. c. the PCO2 is equal in the capillaries and in the
b. the diaphragm contracts. alveoli.
c. bronchioles contract.
d. lung tissue contracts. 9.For structures at the arterial ends of tissue capillaries,
select the correct order of highest PO2 to lowest PO2
5.During inspiration there is values.

a. increased alveolar volume causes increased a. Capillaries, tissue fluid, cells

alveolar pressure. b. Cells, tissue fluid, capillaries
b. increased alveolar volume causes decreased c. Cells, capillaries, tissue fluid
alveolar pressure. d. Tissue fluid, capillaries, cells
c. decreased alveolar volume causes increased
alveolar pressure. 10.The direction of gas movement is determined by
d. decreased alveolar volume causes decreased
alveolar pressure. a. temperature.
e. increased alveolar pressure caused decreased b. size of the gas molecule.
alveolar volume. c. solubility of the gas in blood.
d. partial pressure differences.
6.During expiration there is e. pH.

a. increased alveolar volume causes increased
alveolar pressure.
b. increased alveolar volume causes decreased
alveolar pressure.
c. decreased alveolar volume causes increased
alveolar pressure.
d. decreased alveolar volume causes decreased
alveolar pressure.
e. decreased alveolar pressure caused increased
alveolar volume.
7.At the arterial ends of the pulmonary capillaries
a. the PO2 is higher in the capillaries than in the
alveoli.
b. the PO2 is lower in the capillaries than in the
alveoli.
c. the PO2 is equal in the capillaries and in the
alveoli.
8.At the venous ends of the pulmonary capillaries
11.At the arterial end of the pulmonary capillaries,
a. O2 diffuses from the alveoli into the blood,
while CO2 diffuses from the blood into the
alveoli.
b. O2 diffuses from the blood into the alveoli,
while CO2 diffuses from the alveoli into the
blood.
c. both O2 and CO2 diffuse from the blood into
the alveoli.
d. both O2 and CO2 diffuse from the alveoli into
the blood.
e. O2 diffuses from the alveoli into the blood, but
there is no net movement of CO2.
12.At the arterial end of the tissue capillaries,
a. O2 diffuses from tissue cells into the blood,
while CO2 diffuses from the blood into tissue
cells.
 b. O2 diffuses from the blood into tissue cells, c. is due to contraction of the diaphragm and
while CO2 diffuses from tissue cells into the elevation of the ribs.
blood. d. occurs when the diaphragm and external
c. both O2 and CO2 diffuse from the blood into intercostal muscles relax.
tissue cells.
d. both O2 and CO2 diffuse from tissue cells into 17.For air to flow into or out of the lungs, there must be
the blood.
e. O2 diffuses from the blood into tissue cells, but a. a volume gradient established between the
there is no net movement of CO2. atmosphere and the alveoli.
b. a temperature gradient between the
13.Which of the following is not a function of the atmosphere and the alveoli.
respiratory system? c. a pressure gradient established between the
atmosphere and the alveoli.
a. Olfaction d. a diffusion gradient between the atmosphere
b. Taste and the alveoli.
c. Innate immunity e. None of the choices are correct.
d. Voice production
e. Regulation of blood pH 18.What type of alveolar cells produce surfactant?

14.Arrange the following structures in the order air a. Goblet cells

passes through them during inhalation. b. Type I pneumocytes
(1) alveolar ducts c. Type II pneumocytes
(2) alveolus d. Macrophages
(3) respiratory bronchiole
(4) terminal bronchiole 19.Calculate the vital capacity of an individual with an
inspiratory reserve volume of 3200 mL, a tidal volume
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 of 525 mL, and an expiratory reserve volume of 900 mL.
b. 2, 1, 3, 4
c. 4, 3, 1, 2 a. 1215 mL
d. 3, 2, 1, 4 b. 1825 mL
e. 4, 3, 2, 1 c. 4625 mL
d. 6050 mL
15.Gas exchange between the air in the lungs and the e. 7200 mL
blood takes place across the walls of the
20.A decrease in the surface area of the respiratory
a. alveoli. membrane will cause the rate of gas diffusion to
b. primary bronchi.
c. terminal bronchioles. a. increase.
d. trachea. b. decrease.
c. remain unchanged.
16.Expiration during quiet breathing
21.Arrange the following in order from highest to
a. is an active process. lowest PO2.
b. requires more muscle contractions than (1) PO2 of pulmonary veins
inspiration. (2) PO2 of pulmonary artery
(3) PO2 of alveolar air
 26.Which of the following is not a respiratory
a. 1, 2, 3 adaptation to exercise training?
b. 2, 1, 3
c. 2, 3, 1 a. Vital capacity increases
d. 3, 1, 2 b. Tidal volume at maximal exercise will increase
e. 3, 2, 1 c. Increased minute ventilation after training
d. After training, respiratory rate at rest is lower
22.Most oxygen is carried in the blood ______, whereas
most carbon dioxide is ________. 27.Which of the following is an effect of aging on the
respiratory system?
a. dissolved in plasma; bound to hemoglobin
b. bound to hemoglobin; transported as a. Vital capacity increases.
bicarbonate b. Minute ventilation rates increase.
c. combined with albumin; transported as c. Residual volume increases.
carbonic acid d. Lungs increase in their elasticity.
d. bound to hemoglobin; bound to albumin
e. bound to plasma proteins; dissolved in the 28.At the lungs, carbon dioxide travels _____ the blood
plasma ____ the alveoli.

23.Rhythmicity of breathing involves a. from; to

b. to; from
a. conscious effort and control.
b. stimulation of expiration; inspiration is a passive 29.Most oxygen transported in the blood is bound to
process. __________.
c. the pontine respiratory group.
d. the pre-Bötzinger complex of the ventral a. bicarbonate
respiratory group. b. carbon dioxide
c. hemoglobin
24.The Hering-Breuer reflex d. plasma proteins

a. is a sneeze reflex. 30.The part of the ventral respiratory group that

b. helps prevent overinflation of the lungs. establishes the basic breathing pattern is called the
c. is a normal response to increased oxygen _____________.
content in the blood.
d. limits how much air a person can expire. a. pre-Bötzinger complex
b. pontine respiratory group
25.A(n) ________ in blood CO2 levels causes a(n) c. inspiratory respiratory group
_________ in blood pH, resulting in a(n) __________ in d. respiratory center
breathing rate.
CHAPTER 16 DIGESTIVE
a. decrease; decrease; increase
b. increase; decrease; increase 1. Which of the following is not a function of
c. decrease; increase; decrease
the digestive system?
d. increase; increase; decrease 1. Absorb nutrients
2. Eliminate wastes
3. Ingest food
4. Regulate blood pH  Intestinal phase
 Cephalic phase
2. Which of the following tunics contains  Gastrointestinal phase
blood vessels, nerves, and small glands?
 Muscularis 9. Which of the following increases the
 Serosa or adventitia surface area of the individual columnar
 Submucosa epithelial cells within the small intestine?
 Mucosa  Circular folds
 Villi
3. Which of the following correctly lists the  Microvilli
three layers of the tooth?  All of the choices are correct.
 Enamel, bone, root canal
 Enamel, dentin, pulp 10. Which of the following is responsible for
 Bone, dentin, root canal movement of chyme in the small intestine?
 Bone, dentin, pulp  Peristaltic contractions
 Segmental contractions
4. Which of the following are salivary glands  Mass movements
located just anterior to each ear?  All of the choices are correct.
 Sebaceous glands
 Parotid glands 11. Which of the following describes the blood
 Sublingual glands in the hepatic portal vein?
 Submandibular glands  Carries deoxygenated blood away from liver
 Carries oxygenated blood to liver
5. Which of the following is a phase of  Carries blood rich in nutrients from digestive
swallowing that involves the epiglottis organs to liver
covering the opening of the larynx?  Carries blood rich in nutrients from liver to other
 Voluntary phase digestive organs
 Esophageal phase
 Pharyngeal phase 12. Which of the following an effect of secretin
 Gastric phase on the pancreas?
 The pancreas is inhibited from releasing
6. Which of the following stomach parts pancreatic juice.
connects with the small intestine?  The pancreas releases more enzymes in the
 Body pancreatic juice.
 Pyloric part  The pancreas releases more bicarbonate in the
 Cardiac part pancreatic juice.
 Fundus  The pancreas releases more hydrochloric acid in
the pancreatic juice.
7. What is the substance secreted by the chief
13. Which of the following is where the small
cells of the gastric glands?
 Pepsinogen
and large intestine meet?
 Hydrochloric acid  Pyloric sphincter
 Mucus  Esophageal sphincter
 Gastrin  Ileocecal junction
 Duodenal papilla
8. Which phase of gastric secretion is
14. Which of the following causes the release of
stimulated by distention of the stomach?
 Gastric phase
fecal material?
 Gastrocolic reflex
 Defecation reflex 21. Most nutrient absorption occurs in the
 Duodenocolic reflex  esophagus.
 Pyloric reflex  stomach.
 small intestine.
15. Most glucose is absorbed in the epithelial  large intestine.
cells of the small intestine by
 simple diffusion. 22. What organ produces bile?
 cotransport with Na+.  Liver
 osmosis.  Small intestine
 Phagocytosis.  Pancreas
 Stomach
16. Emulsification
 describes the unfolding of ingested proteins in the 23. Which of the following is the correct order
stomach. for the major regions of the gastrointestinal
 causes small lipid droplets to combine into larger tract?
droplets.  Mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small
 describes the formation of chylomicrons. intestine
 increases surface area of lipid droplets for lipid  Mouth, stomach, esophagus, large intestine, small
digestion. intestine
 Mouth, small intestine, stomach, esophagus, large
17. Movement of water out of the large intestine
intestine occurs by  Mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine,
 active transport. large intestine
 the sodium-potassium pump.
 osmosis. 24. Which of the following hormones
 All of the choices are correct. stimulates gastric gland secretions?
 Secretin
18. Which is a change in the digestive system  Gastrin
associated with aging?  Gastric inhibitory peptide
 Decreased mucin secretion  Cholecystokinin
 Thinning of the tunica muscularis
 Decreased enzyme secretion 25. Which of the following occurs during the
 Decreased replacement of epithelial cells intestinal phase of gastric secretion?
 All of the choices are correct.  Gastrin begins to be secreted by the lower part of
the stomach.
19. Chyme moves through the small intestine is  Hydrochloric acid and pepsin secretion is
due to _______, which includes waves of stimulated in the upper and middle parts of the
involuntary muscle contractions. stomach.
 mastication  Tactile sensation of food in the mouth sends
 peristalsis nervous impulses to the medulla oblongata.
 defecation  None of the choices are correct.
 Mixing
26. Which of the following inhibits secretion
20. Hydrochloric acid is secreted in the from the gastric glands?
 esophagus.  Low pH in the duodenum
 stomach.  Proteins in the stomach
 small intestine.  Gastrin
 large intestine.  Stretching of the stomach wall
 27. Mass movements of the colon are 2. Excretion
controlled by 3. Regulation of red blood cell synthesis
 the enteric plexus. 4. Regulation of the concentration of solutes in the
 parasympathetic reflexes.
blood
 local reflexes.
5. Regulation of blood volume and pressure
28. Defecation is stimulated by 6. Chemical digestion
 the hypothalamus.  . 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
 secretion of bile.
 the enteric plexus and parasympathetic reflexes. Which is not a function of the urinary system?
 parasympathetic reflexes and local reflexes.  Regulation of lymphocyte production

29. Mass movements in the colon are Which of the following is the first structure in the
stimulated by kidney to collect newly formed urine?
 feces in the rectum.
 Calyx
 food in the stomach and chyme in the
duodenum.
 food in the stomach, chyme in the duodenum, Order the following structures that filtrate passes
and feces in the rectum. through as it is formed and modified to become
urine.
30. Chemical digestion of disaccharides occurs a. Capsular space of glomerulus
in the ________. b. Loop of Henle
 small intestine
c. Collecting duct
 large intestine
 stomach
d. Distal convoluted tubule
 Mouth e. Proximal convoluted tubule
 a, e, b, d, c
31. Amylase promotes the partial digestion of
______. Which portion of the renal tubule is the primary
 carbohydrates site for absorption of nutrients and water?
 proteins  Proximal convoluted tubule
 lipids
 nucleic acids Na+ reabsorption is a(n) __________ process, while
CHAPTER 18 URINARY SYSTEMS Cl- reabsoprtion is a(n) __________ process.
 active; passive
Arrange the following structures in correct
sequence through which urine flows. An increase of ADH causes the kidneys to ________
1. Ureter the reabsorption of water, resulting in the
2. Renal pelvis production of _______ urine.
3. Calyx  increase; less
4. Urinary bladder
5. Urethra Order the structures through which urine passes.
 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 a. Trigone of urinary bladder
b. Urethra
Which of the following are functions of the urinary c. Ureter
system? d. Urinary bladder
1. Vitamin D synthesis  c, d, a, b

Where is the micturition reflex initiated ?
 Urinary bladder
The ____________ fluid compartment of the body
consists of all of the fluid inside the cells, while the
______________ fluid compartment consists of
fluid outside the cells, such as interstitial fluid and
plasma.
 .intracellular; extracellular
The movement of water and electrolytes between
fluid compartments is regulated primarily by
 hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure.
The kidneys help to regulate the pH of body fluids
by controlling the
 excretion of hydrogen ions.
Potassium levels in the body are regulated by
 . aldosterone.
An increase in blood CO2 levels is followed by a(n)
____ in H+ ions and a(n) ____ in blood pH.
 increase; decrease
When urination is desired, relaxation of the eternal
urethral sphincter is caused by decreased action
potentials along which of the following?
 Somatic motor neurons
When the urinary bladder becomes stretched,
there is an increase in the frequency of action
potentials traveling from
 the urinary bladder to the sacral region of the
spinal cord.
In response to impulses from the urinary bladder,
which of the following cause the smooth muscle on
the urinary bladder to contract?
 Parasympathetic neurons from the spinal cord to
the urinary bladder
An ultrasound technique that pulverizes kidney
stones into small particles is referred to as
 Lithotripsy
When blood pH decreases, which of the following
occurs to correct the imbalance?
 .The respiratory center increases the breathing
rate.
If the blood pH level decreases, the kidneys
increase the rate of ______ to help maintain
proper pH balance.
 .bicarbonate reabsorption
CHAPTER 19 REPRODUCTIVE
The hormone _______ is an ovarian hormone
involved in a positive feedback loop with the
hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary.
 Estrogen
Which of the following hormones is released by the
anterior pituitary as a part of that positive feedback
loop between it and the ovary?
 LH
Which of the following hormones is released by the
corpus luteum after ovulation and is then part of a
negative feedback loop with the hypothalamus and
the anterior pituitary?
 Progesterone
Before ovulation, small amounts of estrogen are
released by
 the ovaries.
The release of estrogen from the ovaries stimulates
the release of GnRH from
 the hypothalamus.
After ovulation, progesterone is produced by
 the corpus luteum.
Centromeres divide in
 mitosis and meiosis II.
Which of the following describes meiosis II in
humans?
 1N -> 1N
Arrange the following events in the proper order in
which they occur during meiosis I.
1. Separation of homologous chromosomes
2. Synapsis
3. Crossing-over Trace the pathway of an egg as it passes through
4. Independent assortment the uterine tube.
 2, 3, 4, 1 (1) ampulla
Spermatogenesis occurs in the. (2) fimbriae
 seminiferous tubules. (3) infundibulum
Which of the following shows a correct sequence of (4) isthmus
cell types during spermatogenesis?  2, 3, 1, 4
 Spermatogonium -> primary spermatocyte -> Which of the following is solely a function of the
secondary spermatocyte
female reproductive system?
During spermatogenesis, which of the following
 Location of fertilization
cells is the first to become haploid? Which of the following cell types is formed at the
 Secondary spermatocyte
end of the first meiotic division?
A spermatogonium
 Secondary spermatocyte
 divides by mitosis to produce a spermatogonium
Interstitial cells
and a primary spermatocyte.
 secrete testosterone.
A primary spermatocyte
 divides by meiosis to produce two secondary
Arrange the following structures in the order sperm
spermatocytes. would pass.
Each spermatid (1) ductus deferens (vas deferens)
 differentiates into a sperm cell. (2) efferent ductules
When a primary follicle enlarges and there are (3) epididymis
several layers of granulosa cells, the resulting (4) ejaculatory duct
structure is called a (5) rete testis
 secondary follicle.  5, 2, 3, 1, 4
Which of the following has an antrum? Which of the following glands is correctly matched
 Mature follicle with its function?
A ________ releases its oocyte during ovulation.  Seminal vesicles - provide nutrients for sperm
 mature follicle During the female sex act,
Luteinizing hormone (LH) binds to interstitial  the clitoris becomes engorged with blood.
(Leydig) cells and The midlife change in estrogen and progesterone is
 increases testosterone production by the Leydig called ___________, whereas the cessation of
cells.
menstruation is called ______________.
The major factor controlling the onset of puberty in
 climacteric; menopause
males is Which of the following is not an age-related change
 the hypothalamus becoming less sensitive to the
of the female reproductive system?
inhibitory effects of androgens.
 Decreased incidence of breast cancer
Which of the following events in the male sex act
Shortly after ovulation,
occurs last and results in ejaculation?
 the granulosa cells become the corpus luteum.
 Contractions of skeletal muscle at the base of the
The location of the testes and epididymides in the
penis
scrotum
The ovary is attached to the superior margin of the
 provides a temperature that is suitable for
uterus by the
normal sperm development.
 ovarian ligament.
Which of the following events happens after
Which of the following is produced within the
ovulation?
ovary prior to its release from the ovary?
 Formation of a corpus luteum
 Secondary oocyte
The number of cells produced by meiosis is
________ the number of cells produced by mitosis.
 twice
The majority of the uterine wall is composed of
 smooth muscle.
All of the following are male secondary sex characteristics
except
 enlargement of the genitalia.
A pap smear is a diagnostic test to determine if a woman
has cancer of the
 cervix.
Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac is
called
 cryptorchidism.
A primary oocyte surrounded by a single layer of
granulosa cells is called a ______.
 primordial follicle
A clear layer of material surrounding a primary
oocyte is called the ______.
 zona pellucida
Luteinizing hormone (LH) binds to interstitial
(Leydig) cells and
 increases testosterone production by the Leydig
cells.
The major factor controlling the onset of puberty in
males is
 the hypothalamus becoming less sensitive to the
inhibitory effects of androgens.
Which of the following events in the male sex act
occurs last and results in ejaculation?
 Contractions of skeletal muscle at the base of the
penis