Cluster II:General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral

Pathology; Microbiology
General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral Pathology;
Microbiology
1. A structure that lines the lumen of the 6. Which area of the oral cavity has mucosa
entire vascular system: that is lined with keratinized epithelium?
a. Mesothelium a. Soft palate
b. Uroepithelium b. Gingiva
c. Endothelium c. Sublingual regions
d. Elastic membrane d. Buccal regions
e. Both C & D
7. Mucosal areas of the oral cavity that are
2. Which of the following layers is thickest in not keratinized;
veins: 1. Soft palate
a. Tunica intima 2. Sublingual
b. Tunica media 3. Buccal
c. Tunica adventitia 4. Hard palate
d. Vasa vasorum a. 1 & 2
e. Nervi vasorum b. 2 & 3
c. 3 & 4
3. In the digestive tract, glands in the d. 1,2 & 3 4 only
submucosa are found only in:
a. Duodenum & jejunum 8. Type of the epithelium that lines the
b. Liver and gall bladder mucous membrane of the nasopharynx:
c. Stomach and esophagus a. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Esophagus and duodenum b. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Liver and pancreas c. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
epithelium
4. The oral epithelium is covered by the layer d. Transitional epithelium
of:
a. Stratified cuboidal epithelium 9. Fertilization occurs in the:
b. Stratified squamous epithelium a. Upper third of the fallopian tube
c. Stratified columnar epithelium b. Posterior wall of uterus
d. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium c. Cervix of the uterus
d. Fimbriated fold of the fallopian tube
5. A belt-like junction that completely e. None of the above
encircles the epithelial cell, binding it to
all its neighbors 10. Macula adherens is found mainly in
a. Tight junctions (zonula occludens) between cells of:
b. Intermediate junction (zonula adherens) a. Stratified epithelium
c. Desmosomes (macula adherens) b. Linings of the intestinal tract
d. None of the above c. Muscles of the heart
d. Endothelium
e. Any of the above

1
Cluster II:General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral
Pathology; Microbiology
11. The apical cytoplasm of active serous 16. Glycocalyx is located:
glandular cells is typically filled with which a. External to nucleolemma
of the following? b. Internal to nucleolemma
a. Large amount of DNA c. Wthin the plasma membrane
b. Abundant of ribosomes d. External to plasma lemma
c. Abundant of mitochondria e. None of the above
d. Abundance of lipid droplets
e. Abundance of zymogen granules 17. Cleavage is characterized by:
a. Union of sperm and ovum
12. The cerebellar cortex is characterized b. Implantation of the fetus
histogically by which of the following of c. Formation of corona radiate
cells? d. Series of mitotic cell divisions
a. Basket e. e. All of the above
b. Purkinje
c. Pyramidal 18. It is possible to distiquish histogically
d. Martinotti between the stomach and the duodenum
e. Horizontal because of the presence of:
a. Mucosal glands in the stomach only
13. Which of the following are pure serous b. Submucosal glands in the duodenum
glands? only
a. Sublingual glands c. Simple columnar epithelium lining the
b. Galands of Brunner stomach only
c. Submandibular glands d. Muscularis mucosa in the stomach only
d. Glands of von Ebner e. Smooth muscle in the external
e. Glands of Blandin-Nuhn musculature of the duodenum only

14. Anaphase stage is mainly characterized 19. Which of the following represents the
by: main support of the wall of a bronchus?
a. Alignment of chromosomes along the a. Smooth muscle
equatorial plane b. Hyaline cartilage
b. Chromosomes split and are pulled c. Elastic membrane
towards oposite poles d. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. Prominent cleavage furrow e. Elastic and collageneous connective tissue
d. Cytokinesis occurs
e. Chromosomes are uncoiled 20. Which of the following explains why the
Barr body found in the certain epithelial
15. The biologic purpose of meiosis is to cells is significant?
maintain in somatic cells: a. It suggests mitotic activity
a. 46 pairs of chromosomes b. It indicates protein systhesis
b. Haploid number of chromosomes c. It indicates a metaplasmic change
c. Diploid number of chromosomes d. It is a symptom of nuclear disintegration
d. 23 chromosomes e. It assists in differentiating between the
e. None of the above sexes

2
Cluster II:General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral
Pathology; Microbiology
21. Which of the following characteristics 26. A cleft lip occurs following the failure of
most readily distiguishes amelogenesis permanent union between which of the
imperfecta from dentinogenesis following?
imperfecta? a. The palatine processes
a. Radiographic appearance b. The maxilary processes
b. Hereditary background c. The palatine process with the frontonasal
c. Presence of blue sclera process
d. Color of the teeth d. The maxillary process with the palatine
e. Associated hair loss process
e. The maxillary process with the
22. During which of the following stages of frontonasal process
tooth development does fused or
germinated teeth occur? 27. A child has a history of generalized
a. Apposition growth failure (failure to thrive) during
b. Calcification the first six months of his life. Which of
c. Eruption and exfoliation the following sequela is likely in this
d. Initiation and proliferation child?
a. Enamel hypoplasia
23. The thhickness of coronal dentin in b. Retrusive midface
primary teeth, compared with that in c. Retrusive mandible
corresponding permanent teeth, is d. Small permanent teeth
approximately: e. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
a. One-fourth
b. One-third 28. During which trimester of pregnancy
c. One-half does calcification of teeth begin?
d. One-fifth a. First
e. Same thickness b. Second
c. Third
24. In the normal dental pulp, which of the d. Fourth
followinf histologic features is (are) the e. Fifth
least likely to appear?
a. Cell-free zone of Well 29. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath is
b. Pallasade odontoblastic layer derived from which of the following?
c. Lymphocytes and plasma cells a. Inner dental epithelium and stellate
d. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells reticulum
b. Inner dental epithelium and stratum
25. Which of the following anomalies can intermedium
occur with a disturbance during the c. Outer dental epithelium and stellate
initiation and proliferation stages in tooth reticulum
development? d. Outer dental epithelium and stratum
a. Size intermedium
b. Shape e. Inner dental epithelium and outer dental
c. Number epithelium
d. Calcification

3
Cluster II:General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral
Pathology; Microbiology

30. Dentinal tubules are S-shaped in the 35. Which of the following is necessary for
crown of the tooth due to the: cementum to be deposited during tooth
a. Incremental pattern development?
b. Epithelial diaphragm a. The tooth must be erupting
c. Crowding of odontoblasts b. A bony socket must develop
d. Formation of peritubular dentin c. An apical vascular plexus must be present
e. Calcification pattern of maturing dentin d. The continuity of the root sheath
(Hertwig) must be broken
31. Which of the following represents
fan-shaped, hypocalcified areas that 36. What is the usual sequence of events in
originates at the DEJ and extend into the histogenesis of the tooth?
enamel for part of its thickness? 1. Deposition of the first layer of enamel
a. Tufts 2. Deposition of the first layer of dentin
b. Spindles 3. Elongation of inner enamel epithelial
c. Lamellae cells
d. Hunter-Schreger bands 4. Differentiation of odontoblasts
e. Contour lines of owen a. 1,2,3,4
b. 3,4,1,2
32. Compared with intertubular dentin, c. 3,4,2,1
peritubular dentin is characterized by d. 4,1,2,3
which of the following? e. 4,3,2,1
a. Greater stainability
b. Higher quantity of fluids 37. Which of the following is the embryonic
c. Lesser content of inorganic salts precursor of cementoblasts?
d. Greater content of inorganic salts a. Dental sac
e. Greater content of large collagen fibers b. Dental papilla
c. Inner enamel epithelium
33. Which of the following dental entities is d. Outer enamel epithelium
derived from the mesoderm? e. Epithelial root sheath
a. Dental lamina
b. Vestibular lamina 38. Maxillary teeth are developed from
c. Enamel spindle which of the following embryonic
d. Permanent anlage structures?
e. Lamina propia 1. Arch 1
2. Arch II
34. Enamel spindle are formed by 3. Globular process
a. Cracks 4. Lateral nasal process
b. Ameloblasts a. 1 & 2
c. Odontoblasts b. 1 & 3
d. d. Hypoplastic rods c. 2 & 3
e. e. Hypocalcified rods d. 2 & 4
e. 3 & 4

4
Cluster II:General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral
Pathology; Microbiology

39. The thinnest epithelium of the oral 43. A cigarete-smoking patient notice a
cavity is found on the: gradual onset of progressive, labored
a. Soft palate breathing characterized by prolonged,
b. Buccal palate expiratory effort. The most likely diagnosis
c. Lingual gingiva is:
d. Sublingual mucosa a. Bronchopneumonia
e. Oral surface of the lip b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Pulmonary emphysema
40. Development of the body ot the d. Carcinoma of the lung
mandible involves: e. Left sided heart failure with pulmonary
a. Reichert’s cartilage congestion and edema
b. A complete cartilage model
c. Intramembranous bone development 44. Hypertensive heart disease is
d. Both B & C consistently associated with which of the
e. None of these following anatomic findings?
a. Aortic stenosis
41. For the majority of individuals, the b. Tricuspid stenosis
initial infection with herpes simplex virus c. Pericardial effusion
result in: d. Left ventricular hypertrophy
a. Genital herpes e. Right ventricular hypertrophy
b. A subclinical disease
c. Herpes labialis in puberty 45. The most aggressive type of
d. A dermal rash in childhood bronchogenic carcinoma?
e. Encephalitis as a young adult a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
42. A child that has blood taken and c. Small cell carcinoma
analyzed reveals a high IgM titer for the d. Large cell carcinoma
mumps antigen. The presence of this
antigen indicates which of the following? 46. Differentiation is a measure of a tumor’s
a. The child has developed an immunity to resemblance to normal tissue. Anaplasia
mumps is:no
b. The child has recovered from the mumps a. High degree of differentiation
c. The child is about to develop the mumps b. A moderate degree of differentiation
d. The child is allergic to mumps c. The absence of differentiation
e. The chils is not able to “spread” the d. Total differentiation
mumps to anyone else
47. Type of shock that is most often
associated with severe trauma to CNS?
a. Hypovolemic shock
b. Cardiogenic shock
c. Septic shock
d. Neurogenic shock

5
Cluster II:General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral
Pathology; Microbiology
e. Anaphylactic shock
53. An individual that presents with
48. Most common bone lesion is a/an: keratoconjunctivitis, parotid gland
a. Osteochrondroma enlargement and a positive Rh factor is most
b. Fracture likely to be diagnosed with:
c. Osteoma a. Polyartenitis nodosa
d. Osteoblastoma b. Reiter’s syndrome
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
49. A nuclear change the involves the d. Sjogerns syndrome
condensation and shinking the cell nucleus e. Systemic Lupus Erythematous
with chromatin clumping is known as:
a. Pyknosis 54. Proud flesh or exurberant growth of
b. Karyopyknosis cells are also known as:
c. Karyolysis a. Cicatrix
b. Massive elastin
50. A neoplasm derived from all three germ c. Keloid
cell layers: d. Granulation tissue
a. Carcinoma e. All of them
b. Sarcoma
c. Teratoma 55. Humans may acquire Toxoplasma gondii
d. Apudoma by:
a. Swimming in contaminated water
51. Reddish-purple discoloration of the skin, b. Sustaining a dog bite
about 2-3 hours after death is c. Ingestion of cysts in poorly cooked meat
a. Autolysis d. Airborne conidia
b. Rigor mortis
c. Algor mortis 56. The most serious immunodeficiency
d. Livor mortis disorder is:
e. All of these a. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
b. Severe combined Immunodeficiency
52. The most commonly involved organ in disease (SCID)
enzymatic fat necrosis is the: c. Ataxia- Telangiectasia
a. Brain d. Hyper-IgE syndrome
b. Skin
c. Pancreas 57. Kaposi’s sarcoma is frequently
d. Bone associated with:
e. Heart a. Diabetes
b. Chronic renal failure
c. AIDS
d. Hypertension

6
Cluster II:General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral
Pathology; Microbiology
d. Dermatitis herpitiformis
58. Almost all patient with a lung cancer
present with: 63. The oral vesicular lesions of herpangina
a. Diarrhea and hand-foot-mouth disease are caused by:
b. Malaise a. Coxsackievirus
c. Cough and fever b. Epstein-Barr virus syncytial virus
d. Weight loss c. Herpes simplex type 1
e. All of these d. Varicella-zoster virus
e. respiratory
59. Lymphomas principally involve which of
the following: 64. Which of the following syndromes is
1. Lymph nodes associated with predisposition to oral and
2. Spleen pharyngeal carcinoma?
3. Liver a. Gardner’s
4. Bone marrow b. Sjogern’s
a. 1 & 2 c. Cushing’s
b. 1,2 & 3 d. Peutz-Jeghers
c. 2,3 & 4 e. Plummer-Vinson
d. 1,2,3 & 4
e. 1 only 65. Which of the following tumors has the
best prognosis for patient survival?
60. Reed-Sternberg cell is characteristic of a. Hepatoma
which type of lymphoma? b. Melanoma of the gingival
a. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. Osteogenic sarcoma of the femur
b. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. Adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder
c. Hodgkin’s disease e. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lip
d. Mycosis fungoides
66. Examination of a 6-year old girl
61. Which of the following is the most discloses macroglossia on the left side of her
common malignancy found in bone? tongue. It displays a diffuse distribution of
a. Osteosarcoma 2-3mm elevated,gray-pink nodules, some of
b. Acute leukemia which contain fluid. The remainder of the
c. Multiple myeloma oral cavity is normal. The most likely
d. Squamous carcinoma diagnosis is:
e. Metastatic carcinoma a. Lymphangioma
b. Systoid hygroma
62. Which of the following vesiculobullous c. Neurofibromatosis
disorders features an autoantibody that d. Granular cell tumor
localizes in the intercellular cementing e. Sturge-Weber syndrome
substance of stratified squamous
epithelium?
a. Bullous pemphigoid
b. Pemphigus vulgaris
c. Erythema multiforme

7
Cluster II:General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral
Pathology; Microbiology
e. Weight gain
67. Bifid ribs, multiple radioluscent lesions 72. Biopsy of a smooth, red, protruding
of the maxilla and the mandible, multiple lesion at the tip of the tongue reveals a
skin lesions and calcification of the falx stratified squamous epithelium covering
cerebri are characteristics of: loose, fibrous connective tissue that
a. Horner’s syndrome contains many thin-walled, engorged,
b. Gardner’s syndrome vascular spaces. The diagnosis is:
c. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome a. Fibroma
d. Sturge-Weber syndrome b. Papilloma
e. Basal cell nevus syndrome c. Hemangioma
d. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
68. Which of the following is a soft tissue e. Granular cell tumor (myoblastoma)
cyst?
a. Nasolabial cyst 73. A patient complains of severe pain and
b. Nasopalatine cyst fever. A poorly circumscribed radioluscency
c. Incisive canal cyst of the body of the mandible with a central
d. Median alveolar cyst sclerotic nidus is detected. The disease is
e. Median palatine cyst probably:
a. Osteosarcoma
69. Which of the following has the potential b. Osteomyelitis
of undergoing “spontaneous” malignant c. Ameloblastoma
transformation? d. Fibrous dysplasia
a. Osteomalacia e. Ossifying fibroma
b. Albright’s syndrome
c. Paget’s disease of bone 74. Gustatory sweating is the chief
d. Osteogenesis imperfecta symptom in
e. Von Recklinghausen’s disease of bone a. Bell’s palsy
b. Meniere’s disease
70. Which of the following dental findings is c. Orolingual paresthesia
frequently observe in cases of Paget’s d. Auriculotemporal syndrome
disesase of bone? e. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
a. Hypercementosis
b. Internal resorption 75. A patient states that from almost a year
c. Apical root resorption now, she has had a rubbery, firm, painless
d. Widening of the periodontal ligament nodule within the substance of the parotid
space gland. The condition described is most likely
a:
71. An individual with Addison’s disease is a. Mucocele
most likely to experience which of the b. Lymph node
following? c. Benign mixed tumor
a. Decreased ACTH levels d. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Hypernatremia e. Sialolith with encapsulation
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Water retention

8
Cluster II:General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral
Pathology; Microbiology

76. Which of the following reactive lesion of 81. Electron microscope examination of the
the gingival tissue reveals bone formation bacterial flora of necrotizing ulcerative
microscopically? gingivitis indicates the presence of
a. Peripheral ossifying fibroma microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues
b. Traumatic neuroma in advance of other bacteria. The organisms
c. Pyogenic granuloma involved are:
d. Irritation fibroma a. Cocci
e. Osteoma b. Spirochetes
c. Bacteriophages
77. A patient has two or more of her teeth d. Filamentous rods
joined only by cementum. This
phenomenom is known as: 82. Which of the following is an early
a. Fusion colonizer of supragingival plaque?
b. Hypercementosis a. Streptococcus sanguis
c. Germination b. Streptococcous salivarius
d. Dilaceration c. Porphyromonas gingivalis
e. Concrescence d. Capnocytophage gingivalis

78. In which of the following do 83. Which of the following species is a usual
adenomatoid odontogenic tumors most constituent of floras that are associated with
often occurs? periodontal health?
a. Anterior maxilla a. Campylobacter recta
b. Posterior maxilla b. Porphyromonas gingivalis
c. Anterior mandible c. Eubacterium nodatum
d. Posterior mandible d. Streptococcus gordonii

79. Lymphangioma is most closely related 84. A dentist uses an unsaturated, chemical
to sterilizer for sterilizing dental instruments.
a. Hemangioma To effectively kill all microorganisms and
b. Angiosarcoma spores, the dentist must maintain a
c. Cystic hygroma temperature of 132 degree celcius at 20-40
d. Hemangiopericytoma psi for atleast how many minutes?
a. 10
80. Metastatic carcinoma to the jaws is b. 20
least likely to arise from the: c. 30
a. Brain d. 40
b. Breast
c. Kidney 85. The virus that causes acute herpetic
d. Prostate gingivostomatitis is closely related to the
e. Lung virus that causes
a. Mumps
b. Measles
c. Chickenpox

9
Cluster II:General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral
Pathology; Microbiology
d. Cat-scratch disease
91. Shock during infection with
86. Each of the following diseases has been gram-negative bacteria is most likely caused
associated with the Epstein-Barr virus by:
except: a. An exotoxin
a. Burkitt’s lymphoma b. An endotoxin
b. Oral hairy leukoplakia c. Ribonuclease
c. Infectious mononucleosis d. A capsular antigen
d. Adenoid cystic carcinoma e. A flagellar antigen

87. Which of the following microorganisms 92. Dry heat destroys microorganisms
is the most commonly associated with the primarily by:
root surface caries? a. Lysis
a. Actinomyces viscosus b. Oxidaton
b. Streptococcus mutans c. Precipitaton of salts
c. Streptococcus salivarius d. Coagulation of protein
d. Lactobacillus acidophilus e. Acceleration of enzyme metabolism

88. Which of the following compounds is 93. Mycotic organisms are

used as an antiviral agent? characteristically found microscopicallly
a. Amantadine (Symmetre) within reticuloendothelial cells in;
b. Miconazole (Monistat) a. Candidiasis
c. Novobiocin b. Aspergillosis
d. Amphotericin B c. Mucomycosis
d. Histoplasmosis
89. The Lancefield streptococcal group most e. All of the above
likely to contain strains pathogenic for man
is: 94. Hepatitis B surface antigen in a patient’s
a. Group A serim indicates that the patient is:
b. Group B a. Recovered
c. Group D b. Now an acceptable blood donor
d. Group E c. Potentially infectious
e. Group H d. Immune to subsequent exacerbations of
the disease
90. Production of a potent exotoxin is
characteristic of certain strains of: 95. Protection against encapsulated
a. Salmonella typhi bacterial pathogens is mediated mainly by:
b. Clostridium tetani a. Humoral Immunity
c. Hempphilus influenzae b. Cellular Immunity
d. Streptococcus faecalls c. Non-specific anatomic barriers
e. Neisseria meningetidis d. Non of these

10
Cluster II:General and Oral Microscopic Anatomy and Embryology; General and Oral
Pathology; Microbiology

96. Microorganisms of which the following

genera are most predominant in the normal
oral flora?
a. Bacillus
b. Streptococcus
c. Lactobacillus
d. Staphylococcus
e. Corynebacterium

97. Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently

caused by which of the following
microorganisms?
a. Gonococcus
b. Enterococcus
c. Streptococcus
d. Staphylococcus
e. All of them

98. Which of the following is most likely to

be cultured from chronic bilateral ulceration
at the corners of the mouth?
a. Mucos
b. Candida
c. Treponema
d. Brucella
e. Aspergillus

99. A high titer of serum heterophile

antibodies is found in patients with which of
the following conditions?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Actinomycosis
d. Herpes Zoster
e. Infectious mononucleosis

100. Which of the following is an example of

natural passive immunity?
a. Treatment with antibiotics
b. Infection of gamma globulin
c. Vaccination with dead organisms
d. Vacinnation with live organisms
e. Placental transfer of mother’s antibody

11