PMP Master Quiz - 2018 - Questions

Lesson 2 & 3 – Project Management Framework and Processes
2/3-1 The processes in project management have been classified into knowledge areas and
_______________.
a) Methods
b) Process Groups
c) Categories
d) Best practices
2/3-2 The application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet the
project requirements is referred to as:
a) Project initiation
b) Project coordination
c) Project administration
d) Project management
2/3-3 Which of the following is NOT an Enterprise Environmental Factor?
a) Organizational culture
b) Political climate
c) Performance measurement criteria
d) Existing facilities and infrastructure
2/3-4 The person or organization that provides the funding or financial resources for the project is
referred to as the:
a) Customer
b) Sponsor
c) Steering committee
d) Project Management Office
2/3-5 During the project lifecycle, stakeholder identification is expected to be:
a) A continuous and sometimes difficult process

b) The responsibility of the project sponsor
c) Completed prior to the approval of the project charter
d) Focused only on stakeholders who will be impacted favorably as a result of the project
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2/3-6 The end of a project phase is generally considered to be:
a) The formal authorization to begin the next project phase

b) A natural point to assess project performance and determine if the project should continue
c) The point in the project life cycle where risk is at its lowest level
d) The point where formal control procedures of the project are generally enforced
2/3-7 Which of the following statements about the project life cycle is false?
a) Cost and staffing are at the highest levels during the start of the project
b) Risk is at the highest level of uncertainty at the start of the project
c) The control needs of the organization will determine how many phases will be included in the
project life cycle
d) Project phases are typically completed sequentially but can be overlapped to accelerate
completion of a project
2/3-8 You are defining the project in more detail and moving through the phases of the project. You
are engaged in:
a) Progressive elaboration
b) Project selection
c) Monitoring and Controlling
d) Decomposition
2/3-9 Which of the following is NOT generally considered a characteristic of a project?
a) Unique undertaking
b) A temporary endeavor with specific starting and ending dates
c) Ongoing and continually supporting organizational operations
d) Completed when all objectives are achieved or terminated when the project objectives are no
longer viable
2/3-10 Your company is introducing a new product to be available in the first quarter of the next
business cycle. The product will support an existing product as an add-on optional feature.
Which of the following is true?
a) This is an ongoing operation because the previous product is already in use by customers
b) This is a project because it involves a new product that has not been previously developed
c) This is an operation because it adds a feature that will be part of an ongoing sales effort
d) This is a program that supports the operations of the company

2/3-11 Generally, a project manager’s level of authority during the project assignment can be directly
related to:
a) The project manager’s relationship with the project sponsor

b) The organizational structure
c) The project manager’s communication skills
d) The project manager’s technical competency
2/3-12 A significant advantage of the functional organizational structure is:
a) All employees are grouped by expertise and assigned to one clear manager
b) Communication between the elements of each functional group is fast and efficient
c) Project work is considered to be priority work in all functional groups
d) Resources are easily shared across functional groups
2/3-13 You have been assigned as project manager in a balanced matrix organizational structure. This
presents a challenge to you in obtaining and assigning project resources because:
a) The project manager has extremely low authority in a balanced matrix

b) The project manager has an equal level of authority with the functional managers
c) In a balanced matrix, the project budget is controlled by the functional managers
d) The project manager is assigned to the project on a part-time basis.
2/3-14 The initiating process group does NOT include:
a) Stakeholder identification
b) Business case development and review
c) A contract or statement of work
d) Project scope statement
2/3-15 Which of the following process groups is specifically targeted to complete the project work and
to satisfy project requirements?
a) Planning process group

b) Executing process group
c) Monitoring and Controlling process group
d) Closing process group
2/3-16 The project manager should communicate the need for a change control process mainly
because:

a) The cost of project changes will not change significantly as the project progresses, but it is
important to maintain a record of all changes for budget tracking purposes.
b) The cost of project changes will likely increase through the project lifecycle, and a process
should be in place to ensure that only necessary changes are considered and implemented.
c) This will minimize the number of changes that can be introduced into the project, which will
result in better quality, higher customer satisfaction, and reduced rejects.
d) The change control process will ensure that only stakeholders with significant authority can
submit change requests.
2/3-17 Success in portfolio management is generally defined as:
a) Compliance with schedule, budget, and specifications requirements

b) Realization of the business benefits and financial objectives
c) Aggregate investment performance and benefit realization
d) Control of changes to specific products and services

Lesson 4: Project Integration Management
4-1 The set of combined processes implemented by the project manager to ensure all the elements
of the project are effectively coordinated is known as:
a) Project execution
b) Inputs, Tools and Techniques, Outputs
c) Project Integration Management
d) Project Monitoring and Control
4-2 The document that assigns a project manager and officially authorizes a project to use
organizational resources for the purpose of planning, executing, and controlling a project is
the:
a) Project Charter
b) Project Plan
c) Scope Statement
d) Work Authorization Form
4-3 A project manager schedules meetings for many different reasons. Status review meetings are
typically held:
a) To provide all stakeholders with critical project information

b) To exchange information about the project between project team members
c) To update departmental staff of project status
d) Only when there is a need for a workaround
4-4 _____________________ is any documented procedure used to apply technical and

administrative direction and surveillance for the purpose of identifying, recording, and
controlling any changes to product characteristics.
a) Scope Change Control

b) Schedule Change Control
c) Quality Control
d) Configuration Management
4-5 A _________________ consists of the data sources and tools and techniques used to gather,
integrate, analyze, and disseminate the results of the combined outputs of the project
management processes.
a) Project management planning system

b) Project controls system
c) Project communication system

d) Project management information system
4-6 Assumptions are factors used for planning purposes and may be communicated to a project
team by several different stakeholders. These factors, when stated, are generally considered to
be true, real, or certain and are:
a) Absolute and non-negotiable

b) Not always based on factual information
c) Estimates
d) Easy to understand and communicate
4-7 The project management plan is used to:
a) Provide project inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs to be used on the project for the
purpose of managing the product of the project
b) Guide project execution, document project planning assumptions, and facilitate
communication among stakeholders
c) Provide general management, product quality, and project management information, which is
communicated to all stakeholders
d) Create organized policies using stakeholders’ skills and knowledge, which is then itemized and
catalogued in the corporate knowledge base
4-8 ______________ are usually included to support the overall project management plan and are
developed to provide more detailed information, guidelines, and control processes for
specifically defined project elements or planning components.
a) Change request forms

b) Performance reports
c) Subsidiary plans
d) Statements of work
4-9 During the planning process, the project manager should be aware that assumptions generally
involve:
a) A degree of risk
b) Direction from the Sponsor
c) Financial controls
d) Detailed, factual information
4-10 _________________ are applicable restrictions that will affect project performance
a) Organizational policies
b) Performance guidelines

c) Constraints
d) Additional planning requirements
4-11 __________________ is a formal, approved document that includes the collection of outputs of
the planning process and is used to manage and control project execution.
a) The project management plan

b) The organizational process asset document
c) The organizational procedures document
d) The work authorization system
4-12 Risk plans, quality plans, and change control plans are all ______________ to the project plan.
a) Constraints
b) Appendixes
c) Additions
d) Subsidiaries
4-13 _________________ is the primary process for carrying out the project plan.
a) Configuration management
b) Direct and Manage Project Work
c) Administrative management
d) Monitor and Control Project Work
4-14 As a project manager, you must ensure that changes are coordinated across the entire project
life cycle, from conception to completion. Which process focuses on this requirement?
a) Managing the Triple Constraint

b) Change management integration
c) Perform integrated change control
d) Configuration management
4-15 A project is being executed and is progressing through its life cycle. You notice that a
significantly large percentage of project changes occurring on the project have been initiated
by the research department. What should you do?
a) Assign a team member to work solely with the research department

b) Change your communication plan to ensure that you, as the project manager, are the only
person assigned to interface with the research department
c) Ask the research department to assign one person to be your liaison

d) Schedule a meeting with the research department to review the change process and
determine the causes of the changes
4-16 You are managing an information technology project. A technical specialist on your team, after
having an informal meeting with a low-ranking customer representative working on the
project, determines that a simple alteration would be a great addition to the project. You and
the project sponsor have already signed off on the scope, and a change control process is in
place. The technical specialist installs the change with no negative effect to the project
schedule and at no additional cost. What management action should be taken?
a) The technical specialist should be recognized for exceeding customer expectations without
affecting project cost or schedule
b) The project manager should add a task to the project plan with no additional scheduled time
and note that there was no increased budget
c) The technical specialist should be informed that the actions were not authorized and were
inconsistent with the change management plan
d) The project manager should create a change control form and get the customer sign-off since
the change has already been made
4-17 Two months into a design project, the customer requested a modification to the product
specifications. The change was immediately implemented by the project team without
notifying the project manager. During the final testing phase, results were different from what
was planned. This scenario is an example of:
a) Poor adherence to the change control process

b) Poor adherence to the communication plan
c) Poor development of the quality management plan
d) Poor definition of the test plan
Lesson 5: Project Scope Management

5-1 Determining if the project scope has been completed relies mostly upon the use of:
a) Project Charter
b) Project Scope Statement
c) Statement of Work
d) Project Plan

5-2 You have been selected as the project manager for a major infrastructure upgrade at your
company headquarters. This means that:
a) A project charter has been approved and signed by management

b) Project selection processes have been initiated
c) The project plan will be progressively elaborated
d) The scope of the project has been verified
5-3 As a project manager, you should become familiar with the description of the product that will
be delivered to ensure that:
a) A relationship exists between the product and the business need

b) No changes to the product scope will occur
c) The project scope can be changed without detailed analysis
d) All constraints have been removed
5-4 The process of planning in increments and adding detail as the plan is developed is known as:
a) Scope definition
b) Decomposition
c) Progressive elaboration
d) Rolling Wave Planning
5-5 The scope statement does NOT include:
a) Project business objectives

b) Project deliverables
c) Detailed work breakdown structure
d) Product summary
5-6 You and your team are working together to divide the major deliverables of the project into
smaller components. You are involved in the process of:
a) Scope Planning
b) Decomposition
c) Initiation
d) Scope statement development
5-7 ________ process will help to improve the reliability of cost, duration, and resource estimates
is.
a) Define scope

b) Product analysis
c) Cost/Benefit analysis
d) Initiation
5-8 The document that describes the objectives, project work, deliverables, and product of a
project in detail is the:
a) Scope statement
b) Project Charter
c) Work breakdown structure
d) Work breakdown structure dictionary
5-9 Completion of the product scope is measured against:
a) Product requirements
b) Project requirements
c) Project objectives
d) Scope statement
5-10 A work package is:
a) A task with a unique identifier

b) The first level of the work breakdown structure
c) A deliverable-oriented grouping of project components
d) The lowest level of the WBS
structure is a deliverable-oriented grouping of components, but the work package is the lowest
level deli
5-11 You receive a verbal change request from your client that will impact the agreed upon scope of
work. You should:
a) Accept the change, document the request, and then assign someone to oversee it
b) Advise the customer that changes to the scope are not acceptable
c) Review the change control process with the client
d) Accept the change only after ensuring you are not held accountable for additional work.
5-12 Which of the following is NOT included in scope change control?
a) Influencing factors that create scope changes

b) Determining that a change has occurred
c) Verifying the correctness of work results
d) Managing the actual changes when and if they occur

5-13 A term used to describe the magnitude of unauthorized variations to the scope of work is:
a) Re-planning
b) Feasibility analysis
c) Scope creep
d) Performance measurement
5-14 Reviews, audits, and walk-throughs are examples of:
a) Formal acceptance
b) Inspection
c) Additional planning
d) Internal failure
5-15 _____________ aids in creating a more detailed definition of the scope of the project and can
be used to validate the work of the project.
a) Scope baseline
b) Work breakdown structure
c) Project charter
d) Alternatives identification
5-16 The scope baseline is defined as the:
a) Project Scope statement, work breakdown structure, and work breakdown structure
Dictionary
b) Approved project scope statement and charter
c) Approved project scope, schedule, and budget
d) Validated measurements and approved changes
5-17 The _________ contains detailed descriptions of work packages.
a) Work breakdown structure dictionary

b) Scope of work statement
c) Task-level budget estimates
d) Activity cost estimates
5-18 A scope statement is important because it:
a) Provides an executive summary of the project for sponsors

b) Documents authorization of the project for the stakeholders

c) Provides criteria for determining total project cost
d) Defines the product, the project deliverables, and user acceptance criteria
5-19 A stakeholder wants to make a change to the work breakdown structure that does not affect
the time or cost of the project. What is the BEST thing to do?
a) Tell the stakeholder that the change cannot be made without revising the project plan
b) Make the change since it does not affect the schedule or the project budget
c) Meet with management to discuss the change control processes
d) Have a change request initiated and look for other impacts on the project

Lesson 6: Project Time Management
6-1 Determining activity sequences, developing activity duration estimates, and estimating
resource requirements are necessary to:
a) Define the project

b) Develop the work breakdown structure
c) Develop the schedule
d) Initiate the project
6-2 Which of the following is NOT an input to the “define activities” process?
a) Scope baseline
b) Organizational process assets
c) Enterprise environmental factors
d) Decomposition
6-3 The software cannot be tested until coding is completed. This is an example of:
a) Discretionary dependency
b) Soft logic
c) Preferential logic
d) Mandatory dependency
6-4 You have been asked to reduce the schedule duration of a major project. Your team suggests
overlapping several project activities to reduce the overall duration. This process is known as:
a) Crashing
b) Fast tracking
c) Leveling
d) Monte Carlo technique
6-5 A functional manager for the engineering team has provided you with this information: A work
package for engineering activities will most likely require 12 weeks to complete. If everything
goes well, it could take 8 weeks, but there have been times when this work has taken 24 weeks
to be completed. Based on this information, what is the expected duration of the work
package?
a) 13.33
b) 14.27
c) 44
d) 12

{8 + 4(12) + 24} / 6 = 13.33
6-6 A work package is behind schedule. You decide to add more resources to the activities and use
overtime to correct the schedule slippage. This is an example of the technique known as:
a) Resource leveling
b) Heuristics
c) Crashing
d) CPM
6-7 The start of an activity must be delayed until 5 days after the finish of its preceding activity.
The correct term for this modification of the logical relationship is:
a) Lead
b) Lag
c) Slack
d) Float
6-8 The most common type of relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is the:
a) Start to Finish
b) Finish to Finish
c) Finish to Start
d) Start to Start
6-9 Which of the following is not a tool or technique in the Control Schedule process?
a) Schedule compression
b) Performance review
c) Resource optimization technique
d) Change request
6-10 The technique used to modify the project schedule to account for limited resources or to
develop a “resource-limited” schedule is known as:
a) Precedence Diagram Method

b) Critical Path Method
c) Critical Chain Method
d) Schedule Network Analysis

6-11 What kind of dependencies can be shown by the Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)?
a) Finish to Start
b) Start to Finish
c) Start to Start
d) Finish to Finish
6-12 You are in the process of calculating the early and late start and finish dates for your project
activities. This form of mathematical analysis is known as:
a) Critical Path Method

b) Monte Carlo simulation
c) Program Evaluation Review Technique
d) Activity duration estimating
6-13 Your sponsor has informed you that a major project activity must be scheduled to start no
earlier than June 1. This is an example of:
a) A major milestone
b) A lag
c) A constraint
d) An activity duration estimate
6-14 Your project sponsor contacts you and asks you to provide an estimate of the total duration of
a newly approved project. He wants the estimate to be available for a meeting with project
stakeholders that has been scheduled for later in the afternoon. The most appropriate
estimating technique to meet this need would be:
a) A bottom-up estimate
b) A definitive estimate
c) A PERT estimate
d) An analogous estimate
6-15 How does Free Float differ from Total Float?
a) Total Float is the accumulated amount of Free Float

b) There is no real difference – the two terms are functionally equivalent
c) Activity free float is calculated by subtracting Total Float from the critical path Total Float
d) Free Float affects only the early start of activities that will follow immediately

6-16 You are working on a software development project and are about to enter the testing phase.
The project requires the installation of specific hardware, which is associated with another
project that has been delayed. This is an example of:
a) Mandatory dependency
b) External dependency
c) Internal dependency
d) Discretionary dependency
6-17 Which of the following is not a tool and technique of the “Define Activities” process?
a) Decomposition
b) Rolling wave planning
c) Scope baseline
d) Expert judgment
6-18 You have been asked to develop a schematic display of the logical relationships of your
project’s activities. The result of your efforts is the:
a) Project network diagram

b) Resource breakdown structure
c) Work breakdown structure
d) Schedule network template
Create a network diagram using the following information:
Activity Duration Predecessor

A 2 -
B 3 A
C 1 A
D 4 B,C
E 1 D
F 2 E
G 3 E
H 2 F,G
6-19 What is the duration of this project?
a) 12
b) 13
c) 14
d) 15

6-20 What is the critical path for this project?
a) ABCDEH
b) ACDEGH
c) ABDEGH
d) ABDEFH
6-21 When is the earliest that activity G can start?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 13
d) 15
6-22 Typically, during the project planning process, a detailed project network schedule can be
created after:
a) A scope statement is approved

b) The work breakdown structure is created
c) An escalation process is agreed upon
d) A project control plan is created
6-23 Generally, projects are planned by developing phases that are performed sequentially. In some
cases, it is necessary to accelerate the project life cycle by overlapping project phases. Which of
the following best describes this technique?
a) The technique of overlapping requires the elimination of minor project activities, which results
in higher quality
b) Overlapping project phases will compress the schedule but will not generally have an effect on
project risk
c) This technique is known as fast tracking and the risk level should be acceptable before it is
implemented
d) This technique is known as crashing and can increase the cost of the project but will not affect
project risk

Lesson 7: Project Cost Management
7-1 Which of the following is NOT an input to the Determine Budget process?
a) Scope Baseline
b) Project Schedule
c) Activity cost estimates
d) Human Resource Plan
7-2 Your project’s earned value (EV) = 350, its actual cost (AC) = 400, and its planned value (PV) =
325. What is the cost variance (CV)?
a) +350
b) -75
c) +400
d) -50
7-3 Measuring the square footage of a building and then multiplying that figure by a set cost factor
for construction is an example of:
a) Analogous estimating
b) Parametric estimating
c) SWAG
d) Bottom-up estimating
7-4 Your team is in the process of finalizing and producing the cost baseline for the project you are
working on. Your team is involved in:
a) Cost Estimating
b) Determining Budget
c) Resource leveling
d) Bottom-up estimating
7-5 You are involved in the process of developing an assessment of the likely quantitative amount
of funding that will be required to complete the project. You are involved in:
a) Pricing/Costing
b) Alternatives analysis
c) Estimating costs
d) Risk assessment

7-6 Which of the following is not generally an example of direct cost?
a) Materials
b) Subcontractor expenses
c) Employee benefits
d) Project manager salary
7-7 Your project’s actual cost has been reported at $200.000. This is equal to the Earned Value. The
Budget at completion for your project is $400.000. It is assumed that all future work will be
accomplished at the budgeted rate. The EAC (Estimate At Completion) is:
a) $200,000
b) $600,000
c) $400,000
d) Cannot be determined with the information provided
7-8 You are requested to produce the estimated cost of the project as closely and as accurately as
possible. Which of the following techniques would you use?
a) Bottom-up estimating
b) Order of Magnitude
c) Parametric
d) Analogous
7-9 Doubling the number of resources will not necessarily halve the time taken on a project. This is
an example of:
a) Marginal analysis
b) Pareto rule
c) Parkinson's law
d) Law of diminishing returns
7-10 Opportunity cost is associated with:
a) Project selection, when one project is selected over another

b) Selecting one project and taking it through completion
c) Careful and detailed estimation of project benefits
d) Definitive estimating to realize project profits

7-11 You have allocated the project costs over the life cycle of the project. The main output of this
process is a (an):
a) Project schedule
b) Cost control plan
c) Time-phased budget
d) Estimate At Completion
7-12 Earned value management is a tool and technique that can be used in:
a) Developing cost baseline

b) Controlling costs
c) Parametric estimating
d) Cost budgeting
7-13 You are reviewing an earned value report and observe that the CPI is 1.2 and the SPI is 1. You
will report to your sponsor that the project is:
a) Right on plan according to schedule and budget baselines

b) Ahead of schedule and over budget
c) On schedule and under budget
d) There is not enough information to determine the project condition
7-14 Your earned value analysis report is due. Project information indicates the following: EV =
150,000, PV = 140,000, AC = 160,000. You will report to your project sponsor that the project is:
a) The project is ahead of schedule and under budget

b) The project is ahead of schedule and over budget
c) The project is behind schedule and over budget
d) The project is behind schedule and under budget
7-15 As projects progress through their lifecycles, a graph of project cost expenditures will follow a
characteristic “S” shape. Typically, the information provided in this type of graph indicates
that:
a) Projects run in “cycles”

b) Problems often occur near the beginning and the end of projects
c) Projects inherently are prone to experiencing “ups and downs”
d) Project costs start at low levels, rapidly increase, plateau, and then decline
7-16 If the cumulative CPI falls below the baseline plan, all future work must be performed at:

a) The TCPI to achieve the planned BAC
b) Below the TCPI to achieve the planned BAC
c) The planned CPI to achieve the planned BAC
d) The planned ETC to achieve the planned BAC
7-17 The average cost of a 6-year project is estimated to be $6 million per year and the estimated
total profit is expected to be $12 million. The annual ROI for this project is:
a) 33%
b) 0%
c) 50%
d) 25%
7-18 Generally, Earned Value Management is a technique used for measuring variance on:
a) Small, short duration projects

b) Large, complex projects
c) Only projects external to an organization
d) Only Government projects

Lesson 8: Project Quality Management
8-1 A product that is produced at a high level of quality but does not include many of the features
of similar products is referred to as:
a) Inaccurate
b) Imprecise
c) Low grade
d) Non-conforming
8-2 Quality planning involves documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance in
meeting requirements. It should be performed:
a) In parallel with the other planning processes

b) During the initial phase of the project
c) After the work breakdown structure has been developed
d) Prior to the approval of the project charter
8-3 To ensure that a product has been properly prepared for safe use, which of the following
should be used by the inspector operating the product?
a) Checklist
b) Quality control plan
c) Cause and effect process
d) Work breakdown structure
8-4 Your team is analyzing defects and attempting to isolate the root cause of a problem. Two
variables have been isolated through analysis of the data that is available. There is a concern
that one of the two variables is compounding the problem by causing an effect on the other.
Which of the following tools or techniques will assist in identifying the relationship between
variables?
a) Flow chart
b) Pareto diagram
c) Scatter diagram
d) Run chart
8-5 According to technical characteristics, a classification for items that have the same functional
use is:
a) Grade
b) Quality
c) Accuracy

d) Precision
8-6 Which of the following is not a tool and technique used in Control Quality?
a) Pareto diagram
b) Quality metrics
c) Control charts
d) Scatter diagram
8-7 You are managing a project and have discovered during a walkthrough inspection that a large
amount of scrap material has been generated by a team of newly hired workers. The scrap
material is an example of:
a) Internal failure
b) External failure
c) Cost of conformance
d) Appraisal costs
8-8 You have been asked to identify the primary reasons for the high percentage of product
returns your company is experiencing. Which of the following tools will most effectively assist
you in further identifying the reasons for the failures?
a) Pareto chart
b) Fishbone or Ishikawa diagram
c) Scatter Diagram
d) Attribute sampling
8-9 The total cost of all efforts, including prevention, appraisal, and defect repair, to achieve
product or service quality is known as:
a) Quality Plan
b) Cost of quality
c) Cost baseline
d) Total Quality Management
8-10 A project team is inspecting specific outputs based on defined criteria and rejecting the
defective outputs. Which process group is the team working on?
a) Execution
b) Planning
c) Monitoring and Controlling
d) Closing

8-11 You have contracted a team of experts to define the right mix of ingredients that will produce
the desired product, ensuring optimization of the process while reducing the sensitivity of the
product performance. Which of the following techniques is being used?
a) Statistical sampling
b) Brainstorming
c) Nominal group technique
d) Design of experiments
8-12 You have developed a graphical display of process results gathered over time and have used
the information to determine that the process is not performing within expected parameters.
You have identified eight consecutive data points that are above the process average. This is an
indication of ________________.
a) A trend
b) Process out of control
c) A random cause
d) An alpha risk
8-13 Inspections are utilized by the project manager to assess the quality of deliverables produced
during the project life cycle. The costs incurred during the inspection process are associated
with:
a) Prevention cost
b) Cost of non-conformance
c) Cost benefit analysis
d) Appraisal costs
8-14 The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant
quality standards is referred to as:
a) Quality control
b) Quality assurance
c) Quality planning
d) Earned Value Management
8-15 Fitness for use and the legal aspects of quality are key items emphasized by:
a) Crosby
b) Juran
c) Kerzner
d) Heerkens

8-16 You have gathered information about product defects through analysis and have compiled a
list of defects that have been repeated over a period of time. You notice that some of the
defects are appearing more frequently than others. You want to address the defects that occur
most often. Which tool would you use to display and prioritize the frequency of defects?
a) Pareto diagram
b) Run chart
c) Control chart
d) Scatter diagram
8-17 You are performing root cause analysis to figure out the reason behind a problem that was
discovered during testing. Which process are you performing?
a) Perform Quality Assurance

b) Inspection
c) Process analysis
d) Control Quality
8-18 Which of the following is NOT a tool and technique in the Control Quality process?
a) Cause and effect diagram

b) Histogram
c) Expert Judgment
d) Run chart
8-19 As the project manager for a product, you contract with a subject matter expert to determine if
the project activities comply with organizational and project policies and procedures. The SME
is specifically interested in identifying gaps and shortcomings in your processes. You have
initiated:
a) Quality plan review

b) Develop quality control measurements
c) Prevention process
d) Quality audit
8-20 Comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for
improvement is known as:
a) Benchmarking
b) Benefit/cost analysis
c) Flowcharting

d) Pareto diagram

Lesson 9: Project Human Resource Management
9-1 A project manager has the least amount of authority in the_________ organizational structure.
a) Matrix
b) Strong Matrix
c) Projectized
d) Functional
9-2 Choose the right sequence of stages during team formation:
a) Forming, Storming, Developing, Performing

b) Forming, Norming, Performing, Storming
c) Forming, Performing, Norming, Storming
d) Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing
9-3 Project managers must develop skills to ensure that work is completed and deliverables are
produced. This means developing an understanding of formal and informal structures of all
organizations involved in the project, plus an understanding of power and politics.
Understanding all of these elements will assist in improving the project manager’s:
a) Formal reporting process

b) Upward communication
c) Influencing skills
d) Writing style
9-4 A project manager realizes that more IT system administrators are urgently needed to manage
the IT systems on a project. Who is responsible for providing these resources?
a) The head of the IT department

b) The project manager
c) HR department
d) Senior management
9-5 In the balanced organization matrix, the project manager generally shares authority with or
has relatively the same authority as the:
a) Sponsor
b) Customer
c) Functional manager
d) Executive staff

9-6 A project manager's authority is lowest in a _______ organization.
a) Projectized
b) Strong matrix
c) Weak matrix
d) Balanced matrix
9-7 You have just completed negotiations to acquire additional resources for your project. During
the negotiations, there was considerable conflict about which resources would be provided by
the functional group. A solution was reached in which you were able to obtain most of the
resources you needed, but you had to agree to give up some of those resources at an earlier
date than you had planned. This conflict was resolved using which type of conflict handling?
a) Forcing
b) Collaboration
c) Compromise
d) Smoothing
9-8 You have just joined an informal group of people who meet to discuss new trends and issues in
project management. The satisfaction that you gain from associating with that group is most
closely aligned with:
a) The first level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

b) The 5th level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
c) The 3rd level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
d) Herzberg’s Hygiene Theory
9-9 Which tool is used to specify the roles played by the team members on various activities of a
project?
a) Resource pool description

b) Responsibility assignment matrix
c) Work package
d) Cost account code
9-10 The project manager is likely to be most successful in developing a strong and supportive high-
performing team in _______ structure.
a) Projectized
b) Strong matrix
c) Balanced matrix
d) Functional

9-11 Collective bargaining agreements are an example of a(an) ____________ during organizational
planning.
a) Assumption
b) Constraint
c) Pre-determined project team selection
d) Expected staff assignment
9-12 You have decided that your best approach to keep your team working effectively is to monitor
team members’ performance very closely and to carefully analyze their work output. This style
of management is referred to as:
a) Theory Y
b) Hygienic motivation
c) Theory Z
d) Theory X
9-13 Which of the following is NOT a tool and technique for team development?
a) Reward and recognition

b) Collocation
c) Acquisition
d) Training
9-14 According to the Tuckman Ladder, the greatest level of conflict in team building is most likely
to appear in the____________ phase.
a) Forming
b) Adjourning
c) Mourning
d) Storming
9-15 You are reviewing previous work experience, personal interests, and personal characteristics of
a potentially available group of people and preparing to negotiate for the resources you need.
You are engaged in the process of:
a) Organizational Planning
b) Acquiring Project Team
c) Team development
d) Pre-assignment

9-16 A project manager has the greatest amount of authority in the_________ organizational
structure:
a) Strong Matrix
b) Projectized
c) Functional
d) Departmentalized
9-17 The project manager and the functional manager cannot reach agreement about the
assignment of resources for a project. The functional manager insists that the resources are not
available due to other priorities. In this case, the conflict will require the assistance of
the___________ to reach a solution.
a) Customer
b) Project Sponsor
c) A new project manager
d) Contractor
9-18 The motivational theory in which the manager thinks he/she needs to watch the employees
every minute is called:
a) Theory X
b) Theory Y
c) Theory Z
d) Hygiene Theory
9-19 The project manager of a project remains distant from his team and often places one of his
team members in charge for days at a time. This style of management is generally considered
to be:
a) Motivational
b) Participatory
c) Laissez Faire
d) Conciliatory
9-20 A project manager relies on personal charisma and charm to get the project work done. What
form of authority is being used?
a) Coercive
b) Referent
c) Formal
d) Penalty

Lesson 10: Project Communications Management
10-1 The sender–receiver model is designed to assist project managers and team members improve
their communication skills by emphasizing:
a) The need for the project manager to engage in downward communication

b) The importance of horizontal communication during project execution
c) Potential communication barriers and the importance of feedback loops
d) The need to communicate information verbally
10-2 You have been asked to provide a report about the cost and schedule variances. The report
must also indicate forecast for actuals at the end of the project. Which report will help you to
get this information?
a) Progress report
b) Earned Value Analysis report
c) Jeopardy report
d) Status report
10-3 There are 15 people in a team. An addition of one person was made. How many
communication channels are present in the team now?
a) 16
b) 105
c) 120
d) 56
10-4 As a project manager for a new and highly complex project, when is it important for you to
develop your communications plan?
a) During execution
b) At the earliest stages of the project
c) Upon completion of the project plan
d) Evenly throughout each project phase
10-5 Project resources should be expended only on communicating information that:
a) Contributes to project success or prevents failure.

b) Originates from the sponsor or the project management office
c) Has been generated internally by the organization’s executive team
d) Is developed by the project team

10-6 Which of the following roles of the Project Manager best explains the fact that project
managers spend 90% of their time on communication?
a) Servant Leader
b) Integrator
c) Single point of contact
d) Customer management
10-7 The collecting, storing, analysis, and distribution of project information is accomplished most
effectively using:
a) Information management systems

b) The communications management plan
c) The scope statement
d) The project change control plan
10-8 During project execution, the project manager is required to submit several reports that will
communicate information about the project. Which of the following describes the project
conditions at the present moment in relationship to schedule and other metrics?
a) Status report
b) Progress report
c) Project Forecast
d) Quality report
10-9 A project team has 10 members. An eleventh member has just been added. How many
communication channels does the team have?
a) 11
b) 55
c) 45
d) 355
10-10 The cost performance index (CPI) is used to indicate:
a) The sum of individual earned value budgets

b) Cost efficiency
c) The variance between EV and PV
d) The variance between actual cost and budgeted cost

10-11 Your project currently has ten people assigned to the project team, including yourself. At the
end of the month, you will be adding three additional team members to your project. What is
the change in the number of communication channels after you add the new team members?
a) 13
b) 45
c) 33
d) 78
10-12 In the communications model, the sender transmits information to the receiver.
Communication is most effective between sender and receiver when the _________ between
the sender and receiver overlaps.
a) Area of responsibility
b) Personality screen
c) Region of experience
d) Perception screen
10-13 Which of the following is NOT a best practice for project meetings?
a) Send the agenda in advance

b) Note the minutes of the meeting and follow up
c) Summarize the outcome at the end of the meeting
d) Get the widest possible audience
10-14 In the communication process, which of the following is NOT included in the basic
communications model?
a) Noise
b) Medium
c) Urgency
d) Message
10-15 Which of the following is NOT an output of the Manage communications process?
a) Communication technology
b) Project communications
c) Project management plan updates
d) Project document updates
10-16 Which of the following does NOT represent "noise"?

a) Distance
b) Cultural differences
c) Body language
d) Accent
interpretation of the message.
10-17 Which of the following is most closely linked to the Plan Communications Management
process?
a) Project Performance Reports

b) Reporting systems
c) Interpersonal skills
d) Enterprise environmental factors
Lesson 11: Project Risk Management

11-1 Which of the following is NOT an input to the process of Plan Risk Management?
a) Project Charter
b) Project Management Plan
c) Organizational Process Assets
d) Risk Register

11-2 Which of the following is not an output of Control Risks process?
a) Change requests
b) Project documents
c) Risk register
d) Organizational process assets updates
11-3 You are managing a project and have a major decision to make about a change in the plan. You
decide to contact several subject matter experts to obtain their opinions before making a
decision. Each expert is unaware of the participation of the other experts you have contacted.
The process being used is:
a) Nominal group technique

b) Delphi technique
c) Brainstorming
d) SWOT analysis
11-4 You have just completed an analysis of project risks and have prioritized them using a
probability and impact matrix. The approach you used to prioritize the risks is:
a) Qualitative analysis
b) Quantitative analysis
c) Sensitivity analysis
d) Earned value analysis
11-5 Defining _____________ will provide a structure for systematically identifying risks to a
consistent level of detail during the project planning process. The areas defined in this process
should reflect common sources of risk for the industry or application area.
a) Assumptions
b) Constraints
c) The product description
d) Risk categories
11-6 Which of the following is NOT a tool and technique of risk identification process?
a) Monte Carlo simulation

b) Interviewing
c) SWOT analysis
d) Delphi technique

11-7 A team implemented planned responses for some of the identified risks, but some risks
remained. What are these risks called?
a) Risk events
b) Risk triggers
c) Primary risks
d) Residual risks
11-8 The Ishikawa or fishbone diagram is used to display:
a) System flows
b) Predecessor and successor tasks
c) Causes and effects
d) Casual influences and relationships between activities
11-9 Which of the following is NOT an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the
“Identify Risk process”?
a) Assumptions analysis
b) Risk attitudes
c) Industry studies
d) Commercial data bases
11-10 Your team is using a probability impact matrix. The scales on each axis of the matrix are labeled
Very High, High, Moderate, Low, and Very Low. Which process is your team performing?
a) A cardinal scale
b) An ordinal scale
c) SWOT analysis
d) Quantitative risk analysis
11-11 The two dimensions of risk used to determine expected value are:
a) Consequence and contingency

b) Probability and assumptions analysis
c) Probability and consequence
d) Probability and data precision
11-12 Your team is using a model that translates the uncertainties specified at a detailed level into
their potential impact on project objectives at the level of the whole project. The technique
being used is:

a) Modeling and Simulation
b) Data precision analysis
c) Decision tree analysis
d) Quantitative trends
11-13 You believe the project’s product design effort would be a major challenge to the team’s
abilities and you do not have the tools or material to manage it effectively. You decide to seek
a supplier who specializes in the specific technical area. You sign a fixed-price contract to
execute this piece of the project work. This is an example of:
a) Risk avoidance
b) Risk transfer
c) Risk mitigation
d) Risk acceptance
11-14 Your team has utilized all of the appropriate tools and techniques for responding to identified
project risks and has discovered that some risks have been reduced in impact but remain a
potential threat. These risks require further monitoring and are referred to as:
a) Secondary risks
b) Primary risks
c) Cumulative risks
d) Residual risks
11-15 Which of the following is NOT a tool and technique of the Monitor Risks process?
a) Reserve Analysis
b) Project risk audit
c) Technical performance measurement
d) Exploitation
11-16 Project risk is typically characterized by:
a) Severity of impact, duration of impact, and cost of impact

b) Identification, type of risk category, and probability of impact
c) Risk, probability, and impact
d) Occurrence, frequency, and cost
11-17 Purchasing insurance is considered an example of risk:
a) Mitigation
b) Transfer

c) Acceptance
d) Avoidance
11-18 You are the project manager assigned to a critical project, which requires that you handle
project risk intentionally and methodically. You have assembled only the project team. They
have identified 32 potential project risks, determined what would trigger the risks, and rated
and ranked each risk using a risk rating matrix. You have also reviewed and verified all
documented assumptions from the project team and verified the sources of data used in the
process of identifying and rating the risks. You are continuing to move through the risk
management process. What have you forgotten to do?
a) Conduct a Monte Carlo simulation

b) Determine which risks are transferable
c) Determine the overall riskiness of the project
d) Involve other stakeholders
11-19 A project manager is faced with a product design risk issue. It has been determined that a
critical component of the product may face significant corrosion as a result of exposure to the
typical work environment. The project team decides to modify the design of this component
using very expensive corrosion-resistant materials, which will basically eliminate the risk. The
technique used by the team is:
a) Risk avoidance
b) Risk acceptance
c) Risk transference
d) Risk deflection
11-20 Using the following information and a normal distribution curve, what is the probability that
the project will be completed in 64 days?
Optimistic time is 48 days. Pessimistic time is 72 days. Most likely time is 60 days
a) 16%
b) 84%
c) 50%
d) 100%
Answer: B – To Determine the probability of completing in 64 days, the following steps are required:
1. Determine the weighted average using the formula {Optimistic + 4(Most Likely) + Pessimistic}/6.

Lesson 12: Project Procurement Management
12-1 When you decide to give up your rights under contract to expedite an activity by circumventing
a process, you have decided to:
a) Enter into contract default

b) Terminate the contract
c) Execute a waiver
d) Submit an informal change request
12-2 Which of the following is NOT a tool and technique of the Control Procurements process?
a) Performance reporting
b) Payment systems
c) Inspections and audits
d) Change requests
12-3 The ________ process ensures that each party meets their contractual obligations and that
their legal rights are protected.
a) Control procurements
b) Contract payment systems
c) Claims administration
d) Contract change control
12-4 Ending a contract before all contractual objectives have been reached due to a buyer’s decision
to change business direction is an example of:
a) Breach of contract
b) Contract close out
c) Termination for convenience
d) Letter of intent
12-5 As the buyer during the contract negotiation process, you are interested in a contract that
would have the least amount of risk to your organization. Which of the following contracts
would meet your risk-averse needs?
a) Firm Fixed Price

b) Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
c) Cost Plus Incentive Fee
d) Cost Plus Fixed Fee

12-6 The buyer has negotiated a cost plus incentive fee contract with the seller. The contract has a
target cost $300,000, a target fee of $40,000, a sharing ratio of 80/20, a maximum fee of
$60,000 and a minimum fee of $10,000. If the actual cost of the project is $380,000, how much
will the buyer pay as a fee to the seller?
a) $56,000
b) $104,000
c) $30,000
d) $24,000
12-7 You are involved in finalizing contract negotiations. The definitive contract has not yet been
signed and may take an additional two weeks, but it is critical to start several work packages
within three days to avoid schedule problems later. You should utilize a:
a) Verbal agreement to get started

b) Letter of intent or letter contract
c) A project charter
d) A statement of work update
12-8 A contract can be described as:
a) An informal agreement between two parties

b) A mutually binding agreement involving an offer and an acceptance
c) A type of project scope statement
d) A document approved by the sponsor that defines project manager authority
12-9 Buyers may wish to review the qualifications of potential sellers before they actually meet with
them. This process is known as:
a) Obtaining independent estimates

b) Screening
c) A weighting system
d) Contract negotiation
12-10 As the project manager for a new project, you have been given the responsibility to provide all
potential contractors with the information they need to determine if they would like to
continue with the contracting process. To accomplish this, you may want to schedule a:
a) Project stakeholder meeting

b) Bidder’s conference
c) Make or buy analysis conference
d) Project kickoff meeting

12-11 Which of the following is not an example of procurement document?
a) Request for Information

b) Request for Proposal
c) Project Scope Statement
d) Request for Quote
12-12 A cost reimbursable contract introduces greater risk to the:
a) Buyer
b) Seller
c) Project team
d) Functional managers
12-13 The seller is protected from liabilities and penalties when a project is impacted by a natural
disaster through the:
a) Liquidated damages clause

b) Penalty clause
c) Force Majeure clause
d) Statement of work
12-14 A high-level description of the scope issued by the buyer that specifies the work expected to be
completed by the seller is called:
a) Statements of work
b) Acceptance criteria
c) Considerations
d) Teaming agreements
12-15 The legal contractual relationship that exists between a buyer and a seller after the contract is
signed is known as:
a) Privity
b) Obligation
c) Bilateral agreement
d) Legally bonded relationship
12-16 In a cost reimbursable contract, the risk of cost escalation is borne by the:

a) Buyer
b) Seller
c) Project manager
d) Seller and buyer
12-17 A cost-plus-incentive-fee (CPIF) contract has an estimated cost of $150,000 with a

predetermined fee of $15,000 and a share ratio of 80/20. The actual cost of the project is
$130,000. What is the total fee that will be awarded to the seller?
a) $31,000
b) $19,000
c) $15,000
d) None of the above
12-18 Under which type of contract does the seller accept all liability for poor workmanship,
engineering errors, and consequential damages?
a) Incentive fee
b) Fixed price
c) Cost plus
d) Cost plus fixed fee
12-19 Contractual language does not preclude the possibility of misunderstandings and situations
that could adversely affect project progress. Therefore, it is considered a best practice to have
a ______ committee established as a means of removing the obstacles and managing conflicts.
a) Top management
b) Disputes resolution
c) Steering
d) Engagement
12-20 Which of the following contract types does not encourage the seller to control costs and places
the greatest risk on the buyer?
a) Cost exclusive
b) Cost Plus Fixed Fee
c) Cost Plus Incentive Fee
d) Cost Plus Percentage of Cost

Lesson 13: Project Stakeholder Management
13-1 Project information has been distributed according to the communications plan. Some project
deliverables have been changed according to the change control plan. One stakeholder
expressed surprise upon being informed of a previously published change to a project
deliverable. All other stakeholders received notification of the change. What should the project
manager do?
a) Inform the stakeholder of the date when the change was approved
b) Review the communications plan with the stakeholder and explain his responsibility
c) Review the communications plan and make revisions if necessary
d) Address the situation in the next steering committee meeting so others do not miss publish
changes
Answer: C – In this case, the communications plan and the communications requirements analysis may
not have included all Key stakeholders. Informing the stakeholder of the date of the change does not
13-2 During stakeholder analysis, the project manager and team may use many different models to
classify stakeholders. The model that helps to analyze a stakeholder’s ability to impose his or
her power and influence the need for immediate attention from the project team, along with
the legitimacy of the stakeholder’s involvement, is the:
a) Power/interest grid
b) RAM
c) Salience model
d) Stakeholder register
13-3 Which of the following may NOT be a stakeholder to a project?
a) Project Manager
b) Project Team
c) Everybody in the customer organization
d) Suppliers to the project
13-4 Stakeholder management does NOT involve:
a) Identifying the stakeholders

b) Keeping all stakeholders happy
c) Analyzing stakeholder expectations
d) Managing stakeholder engagement
13-5 Which of the following should you be most concerned about during stakeholder analysis?
a) Their interest in the project

b) Their influence on the project
c) Both A and B

d) Neither A nor B
13-6 What is the best way to manage stakeholders who are low on power and interest?
a) Monitor them
b) Ignore them
c) Treat all stakeholders as equal
d) Keep them informed
13-7 Which of the following is a tool to assess the current and desired state of engagement of a
stakeholder on the project?
a) Stakeholder register
b) Stakeholder management plan
c) Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
d) Stakeholder issue log
13-8 Which of the following is an input to the plan stakeholder management process?
a) Stakeholder register
b) Stakeholder management plan
c) Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
d) Impact/Power grid
13-9 Which conflict resolution technique is most likely to result in a permanent resolution?
a) Compromise
b) Negotiation
c) Confrontation
d) Smoothing
n
13-10 Which of the following is NOT true about critical path activities?
a) They have zero float

b) Any delay in these will delay the project
c) They have the shortest possible path from start to finish
d) There may be more than one critical path on a project
13-11 An important stakeholder in a project is at an “unaware” state at present, i.e., he does not
know what is going on in the project. You know that his support could be very important.
Which of the following is the BEST way to get him to a “supportive” state?

a) Send him regular reports about the project and its benefits
b) Assign some work or a review activity to him
c) Send him tickets to his favorite opera show
d) Give topmost priority to the issues that he has raised
13-12 Which of the following is a tool and technique used in manage stakeholder
engagements process?
a) Communication management plan

b) Change log
c) Issue log
d) Inter-personal skills
13-13 A project manager is reviewing the stakeholder management plan and

communications management plan and sending appropriate information to the stakeholders.
She sets up meetings with the stakeholders and ensures that their expectations are being
realized. She makes sure that any issues that get raised are addressed promptly as far as
possible. Which process in stakeholder management is being worked on here?
a) Plan stakeholder management

b) Manage stakeholder engagement
c) Control stakeholder engagement
d) Close stakeholder engagement
13-14 One of the important inputs to the Control stakeholder engagements is:
a) Change request
b) Issue log
c) Information management system
d) Work performance information
13-15 During the execution of a construction project, excavation activities unearth some artifacts
that seem to have some archaeological importance. What should the project manager do?
a) Ignore the findings and continue work as scheduled

b) Inform senior management and continue work as scheduled
c) Stop excavation work and call up the archaeological department to quickly research the
findings
d) Raise a change request
PMBOK is a registered mark of the Project Management Institute, Inc.

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Lesson 2 & 3 – Project Management Framework and Processes

2/3-3 Which of the following is NOT an Enterprise Environmental Factor?

2/3-5 During the project lifecycle, stakeholder identification is expected to be:

a) A continuous and sometimes difficult process

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 1

a) The formal authorization to begin the next project phase

2/3-9 Which of the following is NOT generally considered a characteristic of a project?

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 2

a) The project manager’s relationship with the project sponsor

2/3-12 A significant advantage of the functional organizational structure is:

a) The project manager has extremely low authority in a balanced matrix

2/3-14 The initiating process group does NOT include:

a) Planning process group

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 3

2/3-17 Success in portfolio management is generally defined as:

a) Compliance with schedule, budget, and specifications requirements

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 4

a) To provide all stakeholders with critical project information

4-4 _____________________ is any documented procedure used to apply technical and

a) Scope Change Control

a) Project management planning system

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 5

a) Absolute and non-negotiable

4-7 The project management plan is used to:

a) Change request forms

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 6

a) The project management plan

a) Managing the Triple Constraint

a) Assign a team member to work solely with the research department

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 7

a) Poor adherence to the change control process

Lesson 5: Project Scope Management

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 8

a) A project charter has been approved and signed by management

a) A relationship exists between the product and the business need

5-5 The scope statement does NOT include:

a) Project business objectives

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 9

5-9 Completion of the product scope is measured against:

5-10 A work package is:

a) A task with a unique identifier

5-12 Which of the following is NOT included in scope change control?

a) Influencing factors that create scope changes

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 10

5-14 Reviews, audits, and walk-throughs are examples of:

5-16 The scope baseline is defined as the:

5-17 The _________ contains detailed descriptions of work packages.

a) Work breakdown structure dictionary

5-18 A scope statement is important because it:

a) Provides an executive summary of the project for sponsors

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 11

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 12

a) Define the project

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 13

a) Precedence Diagram Method

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 14

a) Critical Path Method

6-15 How does Free Float differ from Total Float?

a) Total Float is the accumulated amount of Free Float

© Copyright 2017, Simplilearn. All rights reserved. 15

a) Project network diagram

Create a network diagram using the following information:

Activity Duration Predecessor