PHARMACOLOGY

15. Most important unwanted effect of anti-

Basic & Clinical Pharmacology by Katzung 8 th psychotics secondary to relative choline
Edition) deficiency.(p. 488)
A. Akathisia C.
1. This measure relates the dose of the drug required to Tardive dyskinesia****
produce a desired effect to that which produces an B. Parkinsonian syndrome D. Perioral
undesired effect. (p. 8) rabbit syndrome
A. therapeutic index*** B. Idiosyncratic effect C.
Tolerance D. Potency 16. Blocks norepinephrine & serotonin reuptake
pumps-the “the off switches” of amine
2. This is the fraction of unchanged drug reaching the transmission (p. 503)
systemic circulation following administration by any A. MAO inhibitors B. tricyclics*** C. SSRI D.
route:(p. 41) heterocyclics
A. Absorption B. First Pass Effect C.
Bioavailability*** D. Bioequivalence 17. Drug interaction of older MAO inhibitor with
tyramine ingested in food:(p. 505)
3. In this clinical phase of drug development, the drug is A. depression B. Hypertensive
studied in patients with the target disease to reactions*** C. hypotension D. mania
determine its efficacy. (p. 72)
A. Phase 1 B. phase 2*** C. phase 3 18. The following are sites of the major classes of
D. phase 4 anti-hypertensive drugs, except:(p.158 )
A. Sympathetic nerve terminals
4. In this clinical phase of drug development, the B. ß-receptors of juxtaglomerular cells that
drug is studied in patients with the target disease to release rennin
determine its efficacy. (p. 72) C. Hypothalamus
A. Phase 1 B. phase 2*** C. phase 3 D. Vasomotor center
D. phase 4
19. The following statements regarding selection of
5. This is an irreversible inhibitor of GABA anti-hypertensive drugs are correct, except: (p.
aminotransferase and is useful in the treatment of 179)
partial seizures and WEST syndrome: (p. 404) A. ACE inhibitors are particularly useful in
A. vigabatrin **** C. lamotrigine diabetic patients with evidence of renal
disease.
B. tiagabine D. gabapentin B. White race responds better to diuretics
and calcium channel blockers than to ß-
6. Action of Insulin in the liver: (p. 717) blockers and ACE inhibitors.
A, increase storage of glucose as glycogen** C. Beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers
B. increase glycogenolysis are useful in patients who have angina.
C.Increase ketogenesis D. Diuretics or ACE inhibitors are useful who
D.increase gluconeogenesis also have CHF

7. Most common adverse effect of insulin: (p. 721) 20. The following are the determinants of vascular
A. hypoglycemia C. tone, except:(p. 182)
lipodystrophy a.Increasing cGMP
B. allergy D. bleeding b.Increasing cAMP in the vascular cells
c.Decreasing intracellular calcium
8. Effect of digitalis in the AV node during arrythmias: d.Stabilizing or preventing depolarization of
(p. 207) the vascular smooth muscle cell membrane
A. prolonged PR interval B. AV blockade C.
bradycardia D. prolonged QT interval
21. The following are the pharmacodynamics of
9. Immediate metabolic precursor of dopamine that nitroglycerine, except: (p. 184-185)
penetrates the blood-brain barrier: (p.464) A. Smooth muscle relaxation
A. carbidopa B. levodopa B. Decreased ventricular preload
C. selegiline D. ropinorole C. Responsible for a decrease in platelet
aggregation
10. The following are true of phenoxybenzamine: (p. D. Increased cardiac output
141)
A. causes reversible blockade of alpha receptors 22. The following are the pharmacodynamics of
B. blocks catecholamine-induced vasoconstriction NSAIDs, except: (p. 598-599)
C. significantly reduces blood pressure in supine A. Mediated chiefly through inhibition of
individuals biosynthesis of prostaglandins
D. stimulates histamine (H1) acetylcholine and B. All NSAIDs inhibit platelet aggregation
serotonin receptors C. All NSAIDs are anagesic, anti-
inflammatory and antipyretic
11. Antiarrhythmic drugs that prolong effective refractory D. They are all gastric irritants as well
period by prolonging action potential duration: (p.
239)
A. Bepridil B. Bretylium C. 23. The following are disease-modifying
Esmolol D. Lidocaine antirheumatic drugs, except: (p. 608)
a. Methotrexate
12. Antiarrhytmic of choice for suppression of recurrences b. Cyclosporins
of ventricular tachycardia & fibrillation after c. Corticosteroids
termination of the arrhythmia by cardioversion: (p. d. Azathioprine
240)
A. Adenosine B. Esmolol C.
Lidocaine 24. This agent inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding
D. Procainamide firmly to the D-Ala-D-Ala terminus of nascent
peptidoglycan pentapeptide. It inhibits the
13. The most serious toxic reaction to local anesthetics transglycosylase, preventing further elongation of
is: (p. 441) peptidoglycan and cross-linking. ( p. 768 )
A. circumoral numbness C. nystagmus A. Cycloserine B. Vancomycin C.
B. metabolic acidosis D. tonic-clonic Teicoplanin
convulsions D. Bacitracin

14. Lithium’s most common side effect/s (p. 491) 25. This agent is a potent inhibitor of microbial
A.polyuria and subclinical hypothyrodism*** protein synthesis. It binds reversibly to the 50 S
C.polyuria and polydipsia subunit of the bacterial ribosome and inhibits
B.polydipsia and subclinical hypothyroidism D. peptidyl transferase step of protein synthesis.
Polyuria and polyphagia
1
 This agent is active against rickettsiae but not platelet aggregation & thrombus formation: (p.
chlamydiae: ( p. 774) 574)
A. Chloramphenicol B. Chlortetracycline A. Clopidogel
C. Amikacin D. Penicillins B. Ticlopidine
C. Aspirin – ans
26. These agents readily bound to calcium deposited D. Dipyridamole
in newly formed bone or teeth in young children.
When drug is given during pregnancy, it can be 39. Among the thioamide antithyroid drug, which one
deposited in the fetal teeth, leading to is preferred for pregnant women because it
fluorescence, discoloration, and enamel crosses the placental barrier less readily thus will
dysplasia: ( p. 778 ) not affect the fetus?( p. 651)
A. Azithromycin B. Linezolid A. Methimazole
C. Tetracyclines B. Carbimazole
D. Aminoglycosides C. Propylthiouracil – ans
D. Ipodate
27. This drug is split by intestinal microflora to yiels
sulfapyridine and 5 aminosalicylate and is widely 40. Which beta blocker is most widely used to control
used in ulcerative colitis, enteritis and other the symptom of hyperthyroidism? (p. 653)
inflammatory bowel diseases. (p. 794-795) A. Propranolol – ans
A. Sulfadoxine B. Sulfamethoxazole B. Metoprolol
C. Sulfasalazine C. Labetalol
D. Sulfadiazine D. Guanithidine

28. Blocks the conversion of cholesterol to 41. Drugs that competitively inhibit CYP enzymes
pregnanolone and causes reduction in the cause
synthesis of all hormonally active steroids; used a. Decrease in concentration of the object
in pts. with breast Ca (page 674) drug
A. metyrapone B. trilostane C. b. Increase in concentration of object
aminoglutethimide D. spirinolactone drug
c. Decrease efficacy of object drug
29. A glucocoorticoid antagonist that is an antifungal d. Irreversible inactivation of the enzyme
imidazole derivative, that is potent and rather
nonselective inhibitor of adrenal and gonadal 42. The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is
steroid synthesis: (page 674) explained by:
A. aminogluthetimide B. ketoconazole C. a. Substitution for GABA
trilostane D. mitotane b. Direct activation of GABA receptors
c. Increase duration of GABA – gated
30. The most widely used mineralocorticoid, with chloride channel opening
both mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid activity: d. Increase frequency of GABA – gated
(page 672) chloride channel opening
A. aldosterone B. deoxycortisone C.
fludrocortisone D. cortisone 43. The use of benzodiazepines in the chronic
treatment of seizures is limited because of their
31. Act as a partial agonist at estrogen receptors in a. high toxicity effects
the pituitary, to treat infertility in women by c. tolerance
stimulating ovulation: (page 699) b. slow absorption d.
A. tamoxifen B. clomiphene C. danazol D. low therapeutic index
mifepristone
44. Which should be observed to minimize adverse
32. An antiandrogen that prevents synthesis of effects of sedative hypnotics?
dihydrotestosterone by inhibiting the activity of a. Always give a very low dose.
5-α reductase: (page 705) b. Doses should be given at daytime.
A. spirinolactone B. cyproterone C. finasteride c. Combine two drugs with different
D. flutamide toxicities
d. Efficacy of therapy is based on
33. Effects of progesterone: (page 690) patient’s subjective response
A. increase basal insulin levels C. promotes
breast development 45. A 50 y/o male coca cola executive was using
B. promotes blood coaguability D. affects fluoxetine for depression but decided to stop
protein metabolism taking the drug for it affects his sexual
performance and even said “he is getting
34. Mazzoti reaction, as an adverse effect is seen older”. He is also a tobacco user. What is the next
with the use of this agent, characterized as best drug to use?
eosinophilia, rashes due to the release of foreign a. Bupropion
particles from the dying microfilariae: : (page c. citalopram
908) b. Sertraline d
A. niclosamide B. diethylcarbamazine C. venlafaxine
piperazine D. chloroquine

35. A depolarizing muscular blocking agent used as 46. A fly catching movement of the tongue commonly
an alternative to mebendazole in the treatment of observed as a drawback of all typical
ascariasis and enterobiasis: (page 917) antipsychotics is called
A. piperazine citrate B. pyrantel pamoate C. a. “lead pipe” rigidity c.
praziquantel D. primaquine tardive dyskinesia
b. “rabbit “ syndrome d.
36. Kills dormant liver forms in malaria: (page 889) akathisia
A. piperazine citrate B. pyrantel pamoate C.
praziquantel D. primaquine 47. The most hepatotoxic general inhalational
anesthetic
37. The drug that could accelerate antithrombin a. Nitrous oxide
activity resulting to blockade of the coagulation c. isoflurane
cascade at the at the thrombin level, thus b. Sevoflurane
preventing the formation of a clot is: (p. 567) d. halothane
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin – ans 48. A 55 – year old female has post-menopausal
C. Coumarin osteoporosis. Which is not a recommended drug?
D. Plasmin a. Estrogen
c. Biphosphonate
38. This is an antiplatelet drug whose mechanism of b. Calcium d.
action involves inhibition of thromboxane Calcitonin
synthesis, thus consequently, prevention of
2
49. Corticosteroid with most potent anti-inflammatory 60. Differences in the rate of acetylation of isoniazid
activity: among groups of individuals exemplifies.
a. Prednisone A. pharmacodynamics C.
c. Betamethasone pharmacogenetics
b. Dexamethasone d. B. posology D.
Cortisone biochemorphology

50. Drug of choice (DOC) for endometriosis in young Ans. C.

women Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 2 and 5.
a. danazol c. Pharmacogenetics
mifepristone
b. leuprolide 61. Absorption of most orally administered drugs
d. misoprostol occurs in the small intestine. This may be
enhanced by:
51. The effect of diethylstilbestrol intake taken during A. taking agents that accelerate gastric emptying
pregnancy on female infants: time
a. vaginal adenocarcinoma B. the presence of food
c. cervical polyp C. stimulation of hepatic microsomal CYP3A4
b. endometrial carcinoma d. enzymes
breast fibroadenoma D. increasing intestinal motility
Ans. A.
52. The most common adverse effect of clomiphene Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 41, 42, 53, and 56.
is Pharmacokinetics
a. hot flushes
c. constipation 62. The nicotinic acetylcholine receptors are
b. hair loss d. categorized as to which type?
headache A. G protein coupled C.
kinase-linked
53. A 65 – year old married man was found to have B. ion channel-linked D.
greatly enlarged prostate. Which one of the nuclear
following drug is MOST likely to suppress prostatic
growth without affecting libido? Ans. B
a. Spironolactone c. Katzung, 9th edition pp. 18-23
Ketoconazole Pharmacodynamics
b. Finasteride
d. Flutamide 63. If a drug has a high distribution volume, it
indicates:
54. Testosterone therapy may be indicated for the A. it is highly bound to plasma proteins
treatment of erectile dysfunction in which of the B. the drug is highly retained in the vascular
following situation? compartment
a. Aged patient C. the plasma drug concentration will increase
c. Alcoholism D. there is extensive tissue uptake
b. Hypogonadism d.
Depression Ans. D.
Katzung, pp. 35 and 47.
55. Major mechanism of action of aspirin as NSAID is Pharmacokinetics
a. Reversible COX inhibitor c.
Irreversible PG biosynthesis 64. The index of safety of a drug decreases as the
inhibition median toxic dose :
b. Chemotaxis inhibition A. decreases and the median effective dose
d. Down – regulation of IL-1 increases
B. increases and the median effective dose
56. Which of the following is the drug of choice for decreases
inducing labor C. and the median effective dose decrease
a. Oxytocin D. and the median effective dose increase
c. Methyl ergonovine
b. Misoprostol Ans. A.
d. Dinoprostone Katzung, 9th edition, p. 30.
Pharmacodynamics
57. The primary consideration in all clinical trials is to
a. Determine the safety of the drug 65. What is the major second messenger of beta
b. Determine the efficacy of the drug receptor activation that participates in signal
c. Ensure that there is no risk to the transduction?
subject A. inositol triphosphates C.
d. Provide for the welfare of the calcium
subject B. cAMP D.
adenylyl cyclase
58. According to the Philippine National Drug
Formulary (PNDF), complementary drugs are: Ans. B.
A. those drugs italicized in the guide Katzung, 9th edition, p. 25-27.
B. drugs that satisfy the health care needs of Pharmacodynamics
majority of population
C. drugs with special pharmacological properties 66. In what condition are the drugs
D. not to be used as an alternative to core drugs phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine useful?
A. pheochromocytoma C.
Ans. C. essential hypertension
Philippine National Drug Formulary, 2000 edition, p. B. migraine attacks D.
109. benign prostatic hyperplasia
Essential Drugs Concept
Ans. A.
59. Which of the following is considered a regulated Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 144-146.
drug? Adrenergic Receptor Blockers
A. pseudoephedrine C.
lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) 67. Acetylcholine acts by:
B. meperidine D. A. increasing adenylyl cyclase activity
cocaine B. decreasing cGMP concentrations
C. activating the IP3, diacylglycerol pathway
Ans. A. D. all of the above
Dangerous Drug Board Info – Republic Act 6425
Dangerous Drugs Ans. C
Katzung, 9th edition, p.97
3
Cholinergic Agonists 75. Which drug is used as an antiretroviral agent?
A. oseltamivir C.
68. Which of the following antihypertensive agents indinavir
has the best documented evidence for B. famciclovir D.
prophylaxis against migraine attacks? ribavirin
A. pindolol C.
clonidine Ans. C.
B. propranolol D. Katzung, 9th edition, p. 820
prazosin Anti-viral Agents

Ans. B. 76. Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by

Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 148 and 156 the binding of a beta lactam antimicrobial with
Adrenoceptor Antagonists penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)?
A. beta-lactamase C.
69. Which is a direct effect of nitrates when given in peptidyl tranferase
the usual doses for the management of angina? B. transpeptidase
A. increased preload C. D. acetylase
increased cardiac contractility
B. increased afterload D. Ans. B.
smooth muscle relaxation Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 734-735 and 764.
Beta-lactams / Antimicrobials
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 190. 77. A poor farm helper from Palawan was diagnosed
Vasodilators / CVS Drugs to have falciparum malaria by blood smear. The
safe, cost-effective, and readily available agent to
prescribe if this farmer has an allergy to
70. A college friend consults you regarding the sulfonamides is:
suitability of the therapy his doctor has A. Fansidar C.
prescribed for severe hypertension. He chloroquine
complains of postural and exercise hypotension B. quinine
("dizziness"), some diarrhea, and problems with D. mefloquine
ejaculation during sex. Which of the following is
most likely to produce the effects that your friend Ans. B.
has described? Katzung, 9th edition, p. 869
A. propranolol C. Anti-malarial Drugs / Antiprotozoals
hydralazine
B. guanethidine D. 78. Radical cure for malaria is achieved by giving:
captopril A. chloroquine C.
mefloquine
Ans. B. B. quinine D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 166. primaquine
Antihypertensive / CVS Drugs Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p.871
71. The most important pharmacologic action of Anti-malarial Drug
digitalis in the treatment of heart failure is its
ability to: 79. There is a sudden increase of atypical pneumonia
A. reduce venous pressure C. secondary to Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, and
produce diuresis in edematous patients Rickettsia in the Pneumonia Ward of a tertiary
B. increase heart rate D. hospital. Majority of patients were treated with
increase myocardial contractile force doxycycline. All of the following ADRs are to be
watched out for in these patients EXCEPT:
Ans. D. A. photosensitivity C.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 205. superinfection
Cardiac Glycosides / CVS Drugs B. fetal bone defects D.
renal failure
72. Side effects of oxytocin use in a woman in labor
includes the following, EXCEPT: Ans. D.
A. increase in BP C. Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 758
fetal death Tetracyclines / Antimicrobials
B. uterine rupture
D. diuresis 80. Which of the following agents may predispose to
the development of pseudomembranous
Ans. D. colitis?
Katzung 9th edition, p. 621 A. erythromycin C.
Hormones and Pituitary glands / Drugs used for vancomycin
Endocrine Disorders B. metronidazole D.
clidamycin
73. An antithyroid drug which may be given to reduce
the vascularity of the thyroid gland prior to Ans. D.
thyroidectomy: Katzung, 9th edition, p. 761
A. RAI C. Antimicrobials
methimazole
B. PTU D. 81. A patient with persistent chronic cough and fever
Lugol's iodine had no response to adequate doses of oral
penicillin. The PE showed normal chest findings.
Ans. D. Further PE showed bullous myringitis. A chest
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 633 Xray showed infiltrates in the right lower lobe.
Thyroid & Antithyroid Drugs / Drugs used for Which of the following antimicrobials would be
Endocrine Disorders effective?
A. parenteral penicillin G C.
74. Drugs that decrease bone resorption include the vancomycin
following, EXCEPT: B. chlarithromycin D.
A. calcitonin C. gentamicin
alendronate
B. estrogen D. Ans. B.
fluoride Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 760
Macrolides / Antimicrobials
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 719 82. A 4 year old boy that has diarrhea and
Agents that affects bone mineral homeostasis malnutrition was noted to have a mixed parasitic
infection of Ascaris, Capillaria philippinensis, and
4
 Trichiuris trichiura. The single agent that could be Agents which controls prostaglandin effect / CNS
effective for this patient is: Drugs
A. pyrantel pamoate C.
diethylcarbamazine 89. The primary reason why aspirin has been
B. mebendazole D. displaced by NSAIDs as first choice drug of
niclosamide pediatric rheumatologists is because:
A. poor inflammatory effect and gastric irritation
Ans. B. B. poor inflammatory effect and Reye’s
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 889-895. Harrison, 15th syndrome
edtition, p. 1249. C. lack of liquid preparation and high toxicity
Anti-helmintic Drugs effect
D. need for frequent administration and
83. Activated charcoal may be used to treat association with Reye’s syndrome
poisoning due to the following EXCEPT:
A. primaquine C. Answer D.
propoxyphene Katzung, 9th edition, p. 579-581. Goodman and
B. aspirin Gilman, 10th edition, p. 698.
D. iron overdose Agents which control prostaglandin effect / CNS Drugs

Ans. D. 90. The intravenous anesthetic producing the so-

Katzung, 9th edition, p. 989 called "dissociative anesthesia" is:
Management of Poisoned Patient A. fentanyl C. ketamine
B. thiopental D. propofol
84. This herbal plant endorsed by the DOH is useful
for the relief of muscle pain: Answer: C.
A. Yerba Buena C. Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 413-414. Goodman and
Tsaang gubat Gilman, 10th edition,
B. Akapulko D. pp. 346-347.
Sambong General Anesthetic / CNS Drugs

Ans. A. 91. Your patient requests you to give her a sedative-

DOH Manuals. hypnotic that not will not only calm her down or
Herbal Medicines put her to sleep but will make her forget the
whole operating room experience as well. To
85. On regular follow-up for tuberculosis, you noticed facilitate this request your drug regimen should
that the visual acuity of Vilma worsened from include:
20/20 to 20/50 in both eyes after only three A. midazolam C.
weeks of HRPE. Your approach in management phenobarbital
would be to discontinue: B. succinylcholine D. etomidate
A. all of the 4 drugs and reintroduce one drug at
a time Answer: A.
B. ethambutol and refer to an ophthalmologist Katzung, 9th edition, p. 413-415.
C. pyrazinamide and refer to an General Anesthetic / CNS Drugs
ophthalmologist
D. ethambutol, reintroduce it after 1 week, and B 92. The process by which the amount of
refer to an ophthalmologist drug in the body is reduced after
administration but before entering the
Ans. . systemic circulation is called
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 786. A. Excretion
Anti-tuberculosis Drugs
B. First-pass Effect
86. Phenytoin is administered intravenously for acute
management of seizure, but when given at a C. Metabolism
rapid rated can cause D. First-order elimination
A. generalized seizure C. cardiac MPL: 0.33
arrhythmia Page 43
B. gingival hyperplasia D.
gastrointestinal disturbances C 93. Which of the following terms best describes
an antagonist that interacts directly
Answer C. with the antagonist and not at all, or only incidentally, with
Goodman and Gilman, 10th edition, p. 530. the receptor?
Anti-epileptic drugs / CNS Drugs A. Pharmacologic antagonist
B. Partial agonist
87. Which anticonvulsant is safe in pregnancy?
A. hydantoin C. C. Chemical antagonist
valproic acid D. Physiologic antagonist
B. trimethadione D. none MPL: 0.33
of the above Page 16

Answer D. B 94. A child has swallowed the contents of 2

Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 398. bottles of a nasal decongestant whose
Anti-epileptic drugs / CNS Drugs primary ingredient is a potent, selective 
adrenoceptor agonist drug. The signs
of alpha activation that may occur in this
patient include
88. Which of the following is a common mechanism A. Bronchodilation
of action shared by all NSAIDs?
A. inhibition of arachidonate release from B. Cardioacceleration (tachycardia)
the plasma membrane by ihibiting
phospholipase C. Vasodilation
B. Inhibition of histamine release by D. Pupillary dilation (mydriasis)
inhibiting mast cell degranulation MPL: 0.33
C. Inhibition of the production of Page 127
prostaglandin and thromboxane from
arachidonic acid through inhibition of A 95. Ms. Green has severe hypertension and
prostaglandin H synthesis is to receive minoxidil. Minoxidil is a
D. Inhibition of the the formation of powerful arteriolar vasodilator that does not act on
leukotrienes by inhibiting lipoxygenase autonomic receptors. When
used in severe hypertension, its effects
Answer: C. would probably include
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 263, 306, 577, and 581
5
 A. Tachycardia and increased cardiac
contractility
B. Tachycardia and decreased cardiac
output
C. Decreased mean arterial pressure
and decreased cardiac contractility
D. Decreased mean arterial pressure
and increased salt and water
excretion by the kidney
MPL: 0.25
Page 170

B 96. Several children at a summer camp were

hospitalized with symptoms thought to
be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum
toxin. The effects of botulinum
toxin are likely to include
A. Bronchospasm

B. Cycloplegia

C. Diarrhea
D. Skeletal muscle spasms
MPL: 1.0
Page 89

D 97. Parathion has which one of the following

characteristics?
A. It is less toxic to humans than
malathion
B. It is more persistent in the
environment than DDT
C. It is poorly absorbed through skin
and lungs
D. Its toxicity, if treated early, may be
partly reversed by pralidoxime
MPL: 0.5
Page 1029
B 98. Ms. Brown has had myasthenia gravis for
several years. She reports to the
emergency department complaining of rapid
onset of weakness of her hands,
diplopia, and difficulty swallowing. She
may be suffering from a change in
response to her myasthenia therapy, ie,
a cholinergic or a myasthenic crisis.
The best drug for distinguishing between
myasthenic crisis (insufficient therapy)
and cholinergic crisis (excessive
therapy) is
A. Atropine

B. Edrophonium

C. Physostigmine
D. Pralidoxime
MPL: 0.25
Page 103

D 99. A 30-year-old man has been treated with

several autonomic drugs for 4 weeks. He is
now admitted to the emergency department showing
signs of drug toxicity.
Which of the following signs would
distinguish between an overdose of a
ganglion blocker versus a muscarinic
blocker?
A. Blurred vision

B. Dry mouth, constipation

C. Physostigmine
D. Postural hypotension
MPL: 0.33
Page 116

6
 B 107. A patient is admitted to the emergency
B 100. Dilation of vessels in muscle, department following a drug overdose. He is noted to
constriction of cutaneous vessels, and positive have a severe tachycardia. He has been receiving
inotropic and chronotropic effects on the therapy for hypertension and angina. A drug that
heart are all actions of often causes tachycardia is
A. Acetylcholine A. Diltiazem

B. Epinephrine B. Isosorbide dinitrate

C. Isoproterenol C. Propranolol
D. Metaproterenol D. Verapamil
MPL: 0.5 MPL: 0.33
Page 130 Page 185

A 101. Adverse effects that limit the use of B 108. Drugs that have been found to be useful
adrenoceptor blockers include in one or more types of heart failure
Heart failure exacerbation from - include all of the following, EXCEPT
blockers A. Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitors
A. Impaired blood sugar response with
-blockers B. Alpha-adrenoceptors agonist
B. Increased intraocular pressure with
-blockers C. Beta-adrenoceptors antagonists
C. Sleep disturbances from -blocking D. ACE inhibitors
drugs MPL: 1.0
MPL: 0.5 Page 127
Page 145
D 109. The mechanism of action of digitalis is
associated with
C 102. Which of the following binds covalently
to the site specified?
A. A decrease in calcium uptake by the
A. Atenolol -  receptor sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Carvedilol – cardiac  receptors B. An increase in ATP synthesis
C. Phenoxybenzamine- receptor C. A modification of the acting
D. Pindolol -  receptors molecule
MPL: 1.0 D. An increase in systolic intracellular
Page 141 calcium levels
MPL: 0.33
B 103 Which one of the following is Page 205
characteristics of enalapril treatment in patients
with essential hypertension? B 110. A patient with long-standing diabetic
A. Competitively blocks angiotensin II renal disease and hyperkalemia and
at its receptor recent-onset heart failure requires a diuretic.
B. Decreases angiotensin II Which of the following agents
concentration in the blood would be LEAST harmful in a patient with
C. Decreases renin concentration in severe hyperkalemia? (pp.256)
the blood A. Amiloride
D. Increases sodium and decreases
potassium in the blood B. Hydrochlorothiazide
MPL: 0.5
Page 173 C. Spironolactone
D. Triamterene
A 104 A visitor from another city comes to your MPL: 1.0
office complaining of incessant cough. Page 256
He has diabetes and hypertension and has
recently started taking a different B 111. Inflammation is a complex tissue
antihypertensive medication. The most reaction that includes the release of cytokines,
likely cause of his cough is leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and peptides.
A. Captopril Prostaglandins involved in inflammatory
processes are produced from arachidonic acid by
B. Losartan A. Cyclooxygenase -1

C. Propranolol B. Cyclooxygenase-2
D. Verapamil
MPL: 0.5 C. Lipoxygenase
Page 172 D. Phospholipase A2
MPL: 0.5
B 105. Verapamil is associated with all of the Page 312
following, EXCEPT:
A. Bradycardia B 112. Which of the following situations
constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity?
B. Hyperglycemia
A. Administration of captopril
C. Increased PR interval
D. Pretibial edema
B. Adminstration of quinidine
MPL: 0.2
Page 172
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hyperkalemia
A 106. The antianginal effect of propranolol
MPL: 0.33
may be attributed to which one of the
Page 230
following?
A. Block of exercise-induced
A 113. Successful therapy of heart failure with
tachycardia
digoxin will result in which one of
B. Decreased end-diastolic ventricular
the following?
volume
A. Decreased heart rate
C. Dilation of constricted coronary
vessels
B. Increased afterload
D. Increased cardiac force
MPL: 0.5
C. Increased aldosterone
Page 195
D. Increased renin secretion

7
 MPL: 1.0 D. Indomethacin closure of patent
Page 206 ductus arteriosus: blocks
prostaglandin E
D 114. When used as an antiarrhythmic drug, production in the ductus arteriosis
lidocaine typically of the newborn
A. increases action potential duration MPL: 0.4
Page 605
B. Increases contractility

C. Increases PR interval
D. Reduces abnormal automaticity B 121. A 52-year-old woman presented with
MPL: 0.25 intense pain, warmth, and redness in the
Page 235 first toe on her left foot. Examination of
fluid withdrawn from the inflamed joint
D 115. Which of the following is a recognized revealed crystals of uric acid. In the
effect of nitric oxide (NO)? treatment of this woman’s acute attack of
A. Arrhythmia gout, the advantage of using
indomethacin instead of colchicines is
B. Bronchoconstriction that indomethacin is
A. Less likely to cause acute renal
C. Constipation failure
D. Pulmonary vasodilation B. Less likely to cause severe diarrhea
MPL: 1.0 C. Less likely to precipitate sudden
Page 329 gastrointestinal bleeding
D. More likely to prevent another acute
C 116. One effect that theophylline, attack
nitroglycerin, isoproterenol, and histamine have MPL: 0.6
in common is Page 605
A. Increased gastric acid secretion
B. Direct stimulation of cardiac A 122. A 27-year-old woman with amenorrhea,
contractile force infertility, and galactorrhea was
C. Tachycardia treated with a drug that successfully
D. Postural hypotension restored ovulation and menstruation.
MPL: 0.25 Before being given the drug, the woman
Page 1023 was carefully questioned about
previous mental health problems, which
B 117. Nedocromil has as its major action she did not have. She was advised
to take the drug orally. The drug used to
treat this patient was probably
A. Block of calcium channels in
A. Bromocriptine
lymphocytes
B. Block of mediator release from mast
B. Desmopressin
cells
C. Block of phosphodiesterase in mast
C. Leuprolide
cells and basophils
D. Human gonadotropin hormone
D. Smooth muscle relaxation in the
MPL: 0.5
bronchi
Page 468
MPL: 0.5
Page 337
D 123. Methimazole reduces serum
concentration of T3 primarily by
C 118 You are on your way to take an
examination and you suddenly get an attack of
diarrhea. If you stop at a nearby A. Accelerating the peripheral
drugstore for an over-the-counter opioid with metabolism of T3
antidiarrheal action, you will be asking B. Inhibiting the proteolysis of thyroid-
for binding globulin
A. Codeine C. Inhibiting the secretion of TSH
D. Preventing the addition of iodine to
B. Dextromethorphan tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin
MPL: 0.6
C. Loperamide Page 651
D. Diphenoxylate
MPL: 1.0 C 124. Pharmacologic effects of exogenous
Page 527 glucocorticoids include

C 119. Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin is A. Increased muscle mass

brought about by
A. Aminocaproic acid B. Hypoglycemia

B. Heparin C. Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis

D. Improved wound healing
C. Reteplase MPL: 0.33
D. Warfarin Page 665
MPL: 0.2
Page 572 D 125. Toxic effects of long-term administration
of a glucocorticoid include
D 120. Which of the following pairs of a drug A. A “lupus-like” syndrome
effect and mechanism of action is
accurate? B. Adrenal gland neoplasm
A. Allopurinol action in gout: inhibits C. Hepatotoxicity
reuptake of uric acid from renal D. Osteoporosis
tubular fluid MPL: 0.33
B. Etanercept antirheumatic action: Page 670
inhibits dihydroorotate
dehydrogenase, the D 126. For patients who have been on long-term
enzyme in lymphocytes that is therapy with a glucocorticoid and
required for pyrimidine synthesis who now wish to discontinue the drug, gradual
C. Hydroxychloroquine antirheumatic tapering of the glucocorticoid
action: a cytotoxic drug that kills is needed to allow recovery of
rapidly A. Depressed release of insulin from
dividing lymphocytes pancreatic B cells

8
 B. Hematopoiesis in the bone marrow A. Clarithromycin
C. Normal osteoblast function
D. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal B. Erythromycin
system
MPL: 0.6 C. Minocycline
Page 671 D. Linezolid
MPL: 1.0
B 127. The estrogen that is used in most Page 782
combined hormonal contraceptives is
A. Clomiphene D 134. Which of the following adverse effects is
most likely to occur with sulfonamides?
B. Ethinyl estradiol
A. Neurologic effects, including
C. DES headache, dizziness, and lethargy
D. Norgestrel B. Hematuria
MPL: 1.0 C. Fanconi’s aminoaciduria syndrome
Page 682 D. Skin reactions
MPL: 0.2
B 128. The most likely complication of insulin Page 793
therapy in this patient is
C 135. On her release from hospital, the patient
A. Dilutional hyponatremia is advised not to rely solely on oral
contraceptives to avoid pregnancy because they
B. Hypoglycemia may be less effective while
she is being maintained on
C. Pancreatitis antimycobacterial drugs. The agent most likely
D. Severe hypertension to
MPL: 1.0 interfere with the action of oral
Page 721 contraceptives is
A. Ethambutol
C 129. A 54-year-old obese patient with type 2
diabetes and a history of alcoholism B. Isoniazid
probably should not receive metformin because it
can increase the risk of C. Rifampin
A. A disulfiram-like reaction D. Pyrazinamide
MPL: 1.0
B. Excessive weight gain Page 806

C. Lactic acidosis C 136. Chemical interactions between this drug

D. Hypoglycemia and cell membrane components
MPL: 0.5 can result in the formation of pores lined by
Page 728 hydrophilic groups present in the
drug molecule
B 130. Which of the following drugs is MOST A. Caspofungin
likely to cause hypoglycemia when used
as monotherapy in the treatment of type B. Griseofulvin
2 diabetes?
A. Acarbose C. Nystatin
D. Fluconazole
B. Glyburide MPL: 0.25
Page 1049
C. Miglitol
D. Rosiglitazone D 137. Which of the following statements about
MPL: 0.4 fluconazole is most accurate?
Page 726 A. it is highly effective in treatment of
aspergillosis
D 131. A patient needs antibiotic treatement for B. It does not penetrate the blood-
native valve, culture-positive infective brain barrier
entericoccal endocarditis. His medical history C. Its oral bioavailability is less than
includes a severe anaphylactic that of ketoconazole
reaction to penicillin G during the past D. It inhibits demethylation of
year. The best approach would be lanosterol
treatment with MP[L: 0.25
A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate Page 819

B. Aztreonam D 138. Which of the following drugs binds to a

viral envelope protein preventing the
C. Meropenem conformational changes required for the
D. Vancomycin fusion of viral and cellular membranes?
MPL: 0.4 A. Abacavir
Page 768
B. Adenavir
C 132. The mechanism of antibacterial action of
tetracyclines involves C. Oseltamivir
D. Enfuvirtide
A. Binding to a component of the 50S MPL: 0.33
ribosomal subunit Page 820
B. Inhibition of translocase activity No Question
C. Blockade of binding of aminoacyl- 139. Which of the following is NOT an expected effect of muscarinic
tRNA to bacterial ribosomes instilled into the conjunctival sac?
D. Selective inhibition of ribosomal a. Contraction of the smooth muscle of the iris sphincter
peptidyl transferases b. Contraction of the ciliary muscle
MPL: 0.33 c. Mydriasis
Page 776 d. Improves aqueous humor outflow in the canal of Schle
140. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urinary urgency, salivation, s
D 133. In patient with culture-positive cutaneous vasodilation and bronchial constriction are cause
enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to overdose of:
respond to vancomycin because of a. Ipratropium
resistance, the treatment most likely to b. Pirenzepine
be effective is c. Benztropine
d. Pilocarpine
9
141. In normal individuals and more so in patients with airway disease, most
the common adverse effects of this drug is:
administration of this agent causes cause some bronchodilation and a. hepatotoxicity
reduction in secretion. b. hypersensitivity lung reaction
a. Atropine c. nausea and mucosal ulcers
b. Metacholine d. pseudolymphomatous reactions
c. Carbachol 152. This antihypertensive drug is approximately equipotent to pro
d. Bethanechol in inhibition stimulation of 1-adrenoceptors but 50- to 100-
potent than propranolol in blocking 2-adrenoceptors.
a. Nadolol,
142. This agent relieves motion sickness and is as effective as any more b. Carteolol
recently introduced agent but causes significant sedation and dry c. Pindolol
mouth. d. Metoprolol
a. Oxybutinin 153. This antihypertensive agent illustrates how one person’s toxic
b. Scopolamine be another person’s therapy in that it causes hirsutism, w
c. Tolterodine bothersome in women but a topical formulation is used to s
d. Darifenacin hair growth, which is beneficial for many men.
143. AL, 25y.o. male patient is brought to the emergency room suffering a. Diltiazem
from bronchospasm, mucous membrane congestion, angioedema, and b. Hydralazine
severe hypotension. The appropriate drug is: c. Minoxidil
a. Phenylephrine d. Methyldopa
b. Ephedrine
c. Amphetamine
d. Epinephrine
144. BM, 50 yo female is asthmatic and hypertensive. The following class of
drugs should be avoided as maintenance treatment for her
hypertension.
a. ACE inhibitors 154. This antihypertensive drug may cause severe hypoten
b. Calcium channel blockers hypovolemic patients, acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia, dr
c. Beta-blockers sometime accompanied by wheezing, and angioedema.
d. Diuretics a. Captopril
145. Which of the following CNS neurotransmitters has only an inhibitory b. Methyldopa
mechanism of action? c. Reserpine
a. GABA d. Sodium nitroprusside
b. Acetylcholine 155. MF, 45 yo female with evidence of chronic kidney disease w
c. Glutamate diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following drugs
d. 5-Hydroxttryptamine helpful for both of her conditions>
146. Which among the following sedative-hypnotic drugs has the longest a. Metoprolol
elimination half-life and is ingested as a prodrug that is hydrolyzed to b. Hydrochlorothiazide
its active form in the stomach? c. Captopril
a. Alprazolam d. Nifedipine
b. Lorazepam 156. GG, 68 yo female teacher has chronic heart failure with left ve
c. Oxazepam dysfunction but no edema. The first drug to be used for her are
d. Clorazepate a. - blockers
147. This drug is a novel hypnotic drug prescribed for patients who have b. Diuretics
difficulty in falling asleep. In polysomnography studies of patients with c. Calcium blockers
chronic insomnia, this drug reportedly reduced the latency to persistent d. ACE inhibitors
sleep with no rebound insomnia or withdrawal symptoms. 157. Chloroquine is effective in the treatment of nonfalciparum and s
a. Remelteon falciparum malaria but it causes which of the following comm
b. Buspirone effects?
c. Diazempam a. pruritus
d. Triazolam b. hemolysis
147. EJ, 35 yo executive often awakens early in the sleep cycle and could c. alopecia
hardly go to sleep again. He may probably benefit from which of the d. hypotension
following drugs? 158. The common adverse effects of Quinine in treating falciparum
a. Flurazepam include the following, except
b. Clorazepate a. tinnitus
c. Zolpidem b. hemoglobinuria
d. None of the above c. flushing
d. visual disturbances
159. TT, 7yo male public elementary school student develops mi
transmitted helminthic infections. Which of the following
appropriate?
a. Pyrantel pamoate
b. Praziquantel
148. GM, 30 yo female experiences visual scotomas followed after around c. Mebendazole
30 minutes by a severe throbbing right-sided headache that would last d. Metronidazole
4 – 8 hours if untreated. Which group of drugs isalmost160. exclusively
This group of antimicrobials kills bacterial cells interfering
used for this condition? transpeptidation reaction of bacterial cell wall synthesis
a. Triptans a. Tetracyclines
b. Propranolol b. -lactam antibiotics
c. Topiramate
c. Macrolides
d. Valproate
d. All of the above
149. This drug is effective in reducing pain of mild to moderate intensity
through its effects on inflammation and because it probably inhibits
161. The following penicillins are resistant to Staphylococc
pain stimuli at a subcortical site.
lactamases, except
a. Paracetamol
a. Methicicillin
b. Tramadol
b. Amoxicillin
c. Aspirin
c. Nafcillin
d. All of the above
d. Cloxacillin
150. IT, 60 yo male suffers from excruciatingly painful inflammation of the
162. Which of the following drugs is more stable to bacterial -lactam
big toe after binge eating. The following agents may be helpful except?
a. Indomethacin a. Penicillin G
b. Colchicine b. Amoxicillin
c. Tolmetin c. Cephalexin
d. None of the above d. None of the above
151. YH, 62 yo female is suffering from rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician
strongly believes that this condition causes significant systemic effects
163.mobility
which shorten life in addition to the joint disease that reduces The class of cephalosporins with expanded gram-negative c
with some agents being able to cross the blood-brain barrier, bu
and quality of life. He decides to give her metothrexate, the disease-
modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) of choice for her condition. Theagents effective vs. P aeruginosa.
a. First generation
10
 b. Second generation A. Bioavailability
c. Third generation C. Cmax
d. Fourth generation B. Clearance
164. ME, 33 yo male develops pneumonia and was given penicillin but D. half-life
develops allergy. He was given an alternative drug which had to be
discontinued because of gastrointestinal intolerance due to direct ANS A p. 40
stimulation of gut motility. This drug is most probably.
a. Cefalexin _____ 174. A laboratory experiment is being conducted
b. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid in which an animal is injected with a non-
c. Minocycline competitive antagonist to the histamine receptor.
d. Erythromycin Which of the following best describes this drug?
165. This agent participates in conversion of diatary folate A.to The drug binds to the histamine receptor and
tetrahydrofolate and isomerization of methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl partially activates it.
CoA and is effective in the treatment of megaloblastic anemia. B. The drug binds to the histamine receptor but
a. Vitamin B12 does not activate it.
b. Iron C. The drug binds to the receptor, but not
c. Erythropoietin where histamine binds and prevents the
d. None of these receptor from being activated.
166. BV, 45 year old female suffers from chronic kidney disease dueD.to The drug irreversibly binds to the histamine
diabetic nephropathy leading to recurring anemia. Which of the receptor and renders it ineffective.
following agents is most useful for this patient?
a. Iron ANS C p. 16
b. Folate
c. Erythropoietin _____ 175. The rate and extent of absorption of a drug
d. Interleukin is decreased by:
A. inhibition of P-glycoprotein transporter
167. TU, 3 yo male has manifest slowing down of bodily functions leadingB.to addition of carbon-nitrogen bond
striking retaration of growth and development leading to very slow ( quaternary amine )
growth and some degree of mental retardation. The most satisfactory C. inhibition of gut wall metabolism
preparation for replacement therapy in this case is. D. low ionization constant
a. Liothyronine
b. Levothyroxine ANS B p. 41
c. Methimazole
d. Propylthiouracil _____ 176. At low doses, dobutamine receptor
selectivity and activity will primarily result to:
A. bronchodilation
C. uterine contraction
B. dilatation of renal bladder vessels
D. increase in cardiac
con
trac
168. GF, 25 yo female manifests with warm moist skin, sweating, heat tilit
intolerance, periorbital edema, retraction of upper lid with wide stare, y
exopthalmos an diplopia. The management of this condition involves ANS D p.133
the following, except:
a. Methimazole _____ 177. Antiarrythmic with the most marked K-
b. Thyroidectomy blocking effect
c. 131 Iodine A. lidocaine
d. None of the above C. quinidine
169. This agent is a prohormone that serves as a precursor to a numberB.of amiodarone
D. verapamil
biologically active metabolites, including calcitriol.
a. Calcimimetics
ANS B pp 228
b. Vitamin D
c. Calcitonin
_____ 178. Blocks the final common pathway of
d. None of these
platelet aggregation:
170. Which of the following is an inscription and translation of a violative
A. ticlopidine
prescription based on the Generics Act of 1988?
C. abciximab
a. Paracetamol 500mg tabs ----------------#20
B. clopidogrel
b. Amoxil 500 mg caps ---------------------#21
D. ASA
c. Ponstan (Mefenamic Acid) 500 mg ---#12
d. B an C are violative prescriptions
_____ 179. Drug interaction seen with concomitant
spironolactone and ACE inhibitor use
Basic and Clinical Pharmacology by: Bertram G.
th A. ACE inhibitors may decrease renal perfusion
Katzung, 10 edition, 2007
decreasing the action of spironolactone in
the collecting tubules
_____ 171. All of the following factors can affect the
B. Additive afterloader effect
rate and extent of drug absorption EXCEPT
C. Enhanced hyperkalemia*
A. lipophilicity
D. Enhanced vasodilating effect of ACE
C. protein binding
inhibitors because of inhibition of
B. intestinal motility
metabolism by spironolactone
D. presence of P glycoprotein transporter
ANS C p. 177
ANS C p.41

_____ 172. Which of the following factors is TRUE

_____ 180. The following anti-hypertensive drug should
regarding drug distribution?
be used with caution in patients on potassium-
A. All drugs distribute to the same degree in all
sparing diuretics
tissues.
A. losartan*
B. The binding of drugs to tissues has no
C. hydrochlorthiazide
relationship to the distribution of drug in the
B. verapamil
body.
D. methyldopa
C. In general, a drug with a higher degree of
plasma protein binding will have a lower Vd.
ANS A p. 177
D. In general, lipophilic drugs distribute to a
lesser extent than hydrophilic drugs
_____ 181. Accumulation of bradykinin due to ACE
inhibition is responsible for these adverse effects
ANS C p. 34
EXCEPT one:
A. cough
_____ 173. The amount of a drug dose that reaches the
C. angioedema
systemic circulation in the unchanged form is:

11
 B. hypotension ANS C p. 199-202
D. hyperkalemia

ANS D p. 177
_____ 191. A patient in CHF has developed oliguria
_____ 182. The absence of reflex tachycardia with the because of low cardiac output. To improve renal
use of ACE inhibitors is due to perfusion, dopamine must be given at this dose in
A. downward resetting of the baroreceptor ug/kg/min
B. mild decrease in peripheral vascular A. 2*
resistance C. 15
C. enhanced sympathetic activity B. 10
D. inhibition of RAA system D. 20

ANS A p. 176 ANS A p. 133

_____ 183. This adverse effect of nitrates can be _____ 192. A.M. a 55 year old known hypertensive was
prevented by providing nitrate-free interval found to have heart block on ECG. Which of the
between administration drugs below should not be given?
A. dependence C. A. Spironolactone
tolerance C. captopril
B. hypotension B. Verapamil*
D. tachycardia D. prazosin

ANS D p. 186 ANS A p. 175; 230

_____ 184. Which of the following drug combinations

will give the best hemodynamic effects of _____ 193. Rapid intravenous administration of this
decreasing filling pressure and increasing cardiac drug may cause respiratory depression:
output in CHF patients? A. phenytoin
A. furosemide and dopamine C. phenobarbital
C. captopril and digoxin B. lamotrigine
B. digoxin and verapamil D. D. carbamazepine
furosemide and digoxin
ANS C p.359
ANS A p. 208
_____ 194. This drug increases free phenytoin levels
_____ 185. The drug of choice for converting due to protein binding displacement.
paroxysmal atrial tachycardia to normal sinus A. Cimetidine
rhythm C. chloramphenicol
A. propranolol B. salicylates
C. quinidine D. isoniazid
B. adenosine
D. flecainide ANS B p.377

ANS B p. 231 _____ 195. Which of the following antidepressants will

produce a life-threatening syndrome of
_____ 186. This class I antiarrhythmic drug has marked hyperthermia, muscle rigidity and myoclonus
negative inotropic action and therefore should not when administered with MAO?
be used in patient with heart failure A. Fluoxetine
A. quinidine C. imipramine
C. disopyramide B. trazodone
B. procainamide D. clomipramine
D. lidocaine
ANS A p. 486
ANS D p.225
_____ 196. Ideally, baseline liver function tests are done
_____ 187. The risk of Torsades des pointes is highest prior to giving this anticonvulsant
with the use of A. topiramate
A. sotalol C. valproic acid
C. bretylium B. levetiracetam
B. flecainide D. gabapentin
D. amiodarone
ANS C p. 387
ANS D p. 223
_____ 197. Elimination of this anticonvulsant is
_____ 188. Drug-induced lupus is an adverse effect of enhanced significantly by alkalinization of the
A. procainamide urine
C. disopyramide A. Phenobarbital
B. amiodarone C. valproic acid
D. amiloride B. Carbamazepine
D. phenytoin
_____ 189. A 60 year old male has dilated
cardiomyopathy and is on digoxin. He complains ANS A p.380
of nausea and vomiting and you think he has
digitalis toxicity. Which of the following drugs he _____ 198. Orthostatic hypotension is most common
is taking most likely enhanced this? with which of the following antipsychotic agents:
A. Furosemide* C. A. Perphenazine
spironolactone C. chlorpromazine
B. Carvedilol B. Haloperidol
D. captopril D. olanzapine

ANS A p. 204 ANS C p.461

_____ 190. The positive inotropic action of cardiac

glycosides is associated with
A. an increase in ATP synthesis
B. a modification in actin molecule _____ 199. Carbamazepine exerts its antiepileptic effect
C. decreased outward flow of calcium* through
D. a decrease in calcium uptake by the A. inhibition of low threshold transient Ca++
sarcoplasmic reticulum current

12
 B. inhibition of neurotransmission by NMDA and B. rifampicin + pyrazinamide
non-NMDA receptors D. ethambutol + INH
C. reduction of Na+ current
D. enhancement of post-synaptic GABA receptor ANS A pp. 774-775
current
ANS C p. 378 _____ 209. Of the following, the mechanism of actions
of this antifungal does not involve inhibition of
_____ 200. Based on the mechanism of action, the cell membrane synthesis
following antimicrobial is NOT selectively toxic: A. Terbinafine
A. piperacillin C. flucytosine
C. amphotericin B B. Fluconazole
B. cotrimoxazole D. D. griseofulvin
gentamicin
ANS C p. 784
ANS B p. 763
_____ 210. Aromatase inhibitor used in the treatment of
_____ 201. Which of the following antibiotics is breast cancer
effective against both aerobes and anaerobes? A. Tamoxifen
A. metronidazole C. C. anastrazole
aztreonam B. Danazol
B. gentamicin D. leuprolide
D. chloramphenicol
ANS C p. 673
ANS D p. 752
_____ 211. Which of the following statements is TRUE
_____ 202. This antibiotic is frequently associated with regarding the direct genomic pharmacodynamic
8th nerve damage in the offspring if given to action of glucocorticoids (GC)?
pregnant women, thus classified under pregnancy A. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm and into
risk category D nucleus where it binds to glucocorticoid
A. Clarithromycin response element (GRE) and act as
C. ciprofloxacin transcription factor, upregulating gene
B. Tetracycline transcription
D. streptomycin B. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm and bind to
ANS D p. 759 steroid receptors leading to release of heat
shock proteins and dimerization of steroid –
_____ 203. Maculopapular rash with this antibiotic is receptor complexes which translocate into
non-immunologic in nature and does not preclude nucleus and bind to GRE, inducing or
the use of chemically related antibiotics in the inhibiting gene transcription
future C. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm, binding to
A. Erythromycin C. steroid receptors, the steroid-receptor
amoxicillin complexes then bind to transcription factor
B. Cefalexin inhibiting synthesis of pro-inflammatory
D. cotrimoxazole cytokines
ANS C p. 733 D. GCs activate cell membrane enzymes
leading to formation 2nd messenger
_____ 204. A 15 year old college student came in ANS B p. 639
because of headache, fever, chills and
photophobia. Thick and thin smears showed P. _____ 212. The main mechanism of action is to lower
vivax. The oral drug of choice to rid the blood of post meal glycemic excursion:
plasmodia is A. metformin
A. Quinine C. acarbose
C. mefloquine B. glipizide
B. Primaquine D. nateglinide
D. chloroquine
ANS D p.846 ANS C p. 700

_____ 205. Mebendazole is effective against the _____ 213. This drug is an estrogen agonist in the bone
following parasites EXCEPT but an estrogen antagonist in breast tissue:
A. capillaria philippinensis A. raloxifene
C. necator americanus C. tamoxifen
B. ascaris lumbricoides B. alendronate
D. trichuris trichiuria D. calcitonin
ANS A p. 672
ANS A p. 872
_____ 214. This is essential for the antithyroid activity of
_____ 206. The following antiviral agents DOES NOT thioamides:
require activation by phosphorylation and it A. phenyl group C.
directly inhibits DNA and RNA polymerases as thiocarbamide group
well as HIV reverse transcriptase B. methyl group at 3’
A. penciclovir D. iodide substituent at 3’
C. cidofovir ANS C p.625
B. acyclovir
D. foscarnet _____ 215. The main mechanism for its effectiveness in
diabetics is the release of endogenous insulin
ANS D p. 797 A. sulfonylurea
C. biguanide
_____ 207. The following adverse reaction to isoniazid is B. thiazolidinedione
age-related D. alpha glucosidase inhibitor
A. SLE like syndrome ANS A p. 694
C. neuropathy
B. Hemolysis _____ 216. The main action as anti-diabetic agent is to
D. hepatitis stimulate the nuclear receptors that regulate the
transcription of genes encoding proteins involved
ANS D p. 773 in protein and carbohydrate metabolism
A. insulin
_____ 208. A 50 year old male receiving anti-TB C. sulfonylurea
treatment develops mono-articular arthritis. B. thiazolidinedione
Which of the following could have caused it? D. biguanide
A. pyrazinamide and ethambutol C.
ethambutol + streptomycin ANS A p. 686

13
_____ 217. Which of the following glucocorticoids has 224.Sedative-Hypnotic with low solubility and
the least mineralocorticoid effect and is best for penetrate the brain slowly includes:
decreasing cerebral edema associated with A. Phenobarbital
increased intracranial pressure? B. Flumazenil
A. Prednisone C. Trimethadione
C. dexamethasone D. Valproic acid
B. Hydrocortisone
D. prednisolone Application
Answer: A
ANS C p. 641-644 Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth
edition, p. 354
_____ 218. Organophosphate toxicity results from its
ability to
A. interrupt heme synthesis 225.The following drugs/substance of abuse are CNS
B. inhibit acetycholinesterase stimulants, EXCEPT:
C. compete with brain pyridoxal phosphate A. Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB)
D. react with sulfhydryl groups binding to B. Cocaine
protein and other enzymes C. Amphetamine
D. Methylenedioxy-Methamphetamine
ANS B p 968 (MDMA, Ecstasy)

219.A class of proteins that functions as drug Recall

receptors that mediate the actions of Answer: A
endogenous chemical signals such as Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth
neurotransmitters and hormones: edition, p. 520
A. enzymes
B. regulatory proteins 226.Characteristic physiologic sign of Cannabis
C. structural proteins intoxication includes:
D. transport proteins A. increased pulse rate
B. pale conjunctivae
Application C. miotic pupil
Answer: B D. high blood pressure
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 11 Application
Answer: A
220.Receptor/s coupled to G protein that Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth
modulate the production of intracellular edition, p. 526
second messengers include/s
A. muscarinic receptor
B. alpha adrenergic receptor
C. leukotriene receptor 227. Which among these intravenous general
D. all of the above anesthetics produces a dissociative type of
anesthesia?
Application A. Propofol
Answer: C B. Ketamine
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, C. Thiopental
ninth edition, p. 22 D. Midazolam

221.The neuromuscular blocker succinylcholine Application

acts by: Answer: B
A. Depolarizing muscle endplate Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
receptors ninth edition, p. 415
B. Repolarizing muscle endplate
receptors 228.Painless digital vasospasm is a dose-related
C. Inhibiting the release of acetylcholine complication of long term
from the nerve ending treatment with:
D. Blocking the access of acetylcholine A. Levodopa
at the myoneural junction B. Bromocriptine
C. Selegiline
Recall D. Tolcapone
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, Recall
ninth edition, p. 437 Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 453
222.Therapeutic benefit/s of 2 receptor agonists
include: 229.The peripheral metabolism to Levodopa can be
A. antihypertensive prevented if it is given
B. antiglaucoma concomitantly with:
C. antidiarrheal A. Carbidopa
D. all of the above B. Amantadine
C. Biperiden
Application D. Bromocriptine
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth Application
edition, pp. 130 - 131 Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical
Pharmacology, ninth edition,
223.Non-benzodiazepine that has affinity for the p. 449, p. 454
Benzodiazepine receptors:
A. Zolpidem 230.An overdose of this opioid causes mydriasis
B. Midazolam instead of the characteristic miosis of opioid
C. Alprazolam toxicity:
D. All of the above A. Hydromorphone
B. Meperidine
Recall C. Methadone
Answer: A D. Morphine
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 360 Application
Answer: B

14
 Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 511 ninth edition, p. 652

231.Which of these group of tissues would be the 238.The most common adverse effect of Aspirin
first to take up appreciable amounts of is
inhalational anesthetics? A. gastric upset and ulcers
A. Fat B. renal toxicity
B. Muscle C. asthma
C. Vessel-rich D. hepatotoxicity
D. Vessel-poor
Recall
Recall Answer: A
Answer: C Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical edition, p. 581
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 405
239.A uricosuric drug that decreases body pool of
232.A narcotic-addicted patient is given this drug urate in patients with
as a “substitute” to be able to control the tophaceous gout is
withdrawal symptoms: A. Allopurinol
A. Hydromorphone B. Colchicine
B. Meperidine C. Probenecid
C. Methadone D. Meloxicam
D. Disulfiram
Recall
Recall Answer: C
Answer: C Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical ninth edition, p. 598
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.510, p. 520
240.Sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodal tissue
233.The duration of action of the intravenous are affected markedly by
barbiturate anesthetic thiopental is largely A. Diltiazem
determined by: B. Verapamil
A. Spontaneous degradation C. Nifedipine
B. Hepatic extraction D. Amlodipine
C. Renal clearance
D. Redistribution Recall
Answer: B
Application Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
Answer: D ninth edition, p. 196
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 412 241.The beneficial effect of Captopril in patients with
heart failure is attributed to:
234.This drug inhibits binding of leukotriene D4 to A. reduction in afterload
its receptor on target tissues B. increased preload
A. Montelukast C. increased myocardial contractility
B. Zilenton D. all of the above
C. Ipratropium bromide
D. Omalizumab Application
Answer: A
Recall Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical
Answer: A Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 209
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 330

235.The mechanism of action of corticosteroids in 242.Beta blockers with membrane-stabilizing action,

the treatment of bronchial asthma includes useful as anti-arrhythmics include:
A. directly relax airway smooth muscle A. Metoprolol
B. enhance bronchial reactivity B. Propranolol
C. inhibit airway mucosal inflammation C. Acebutolol
D. prevent release of chemotactic D. All of the above
agents
Recall
Application Answer: D
Answer: C Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth
ninth edition, p. 151
edition, p. 328
243.Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs
act by blocking sodium channel?
236.A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that A. Lidocaine
irreversibly acetylates and blocks platelet B. Verapamil
cycloocygenase is C. Sotalol
A. Naproxen D. Adenosine
B. Mefenamic acid
C. Aspirin Application
D. Ibuprofen Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical
Recall Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 226
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, 244.Antibiotic/s shown to be effective when
ninth edition, p. 577 applied topically in the treatment of acne
vulgaris include/s:
237.Corticosteroids must be used with great A. Clindamycin
caution in patients with B. Erythromycin
A. osteoporosis C. Metronidazole
B. varicella D. All of the above
C. peptic ulcer Application
D. all of the above Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
Application ninth edition, p. 1017
Answer: D
15
 245.This organophosphate compound is thought patients whose gonococci are resistant to
to have a cholinesterase inhibitory action other drugs is:
which temporarily paralyzes the adult A. Ofloxacin
Schistosoma haematobium worms. B. Tetracycline
A. Metrifonate C. Doxycycline
B. Niclosamide D. Spectinomycin
C. Mebendazole
D. Pyrantel pamoate Recall
Recall Answer: D
Answer: A Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 771
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 891
253.Excessive anticoagulant effect results in
246.Which of these drugs selectively inhibits bleeding from Warfarin can be reversed by:
microtubule synthesis and glucose uptake in A. discontinuance of the drug
nematodes? B. administration of Vitamin K
A. Piperazine C. administration of fresh frozen plasma
B. Mebendazole D. all of the above
C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Diethylcarbamazine citrate Application
Answer: D
Application Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical
Answer: B Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 552
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 891 254.The amount of elemental iron per 325 mg
tablet of hydrated ferrous sulfate is ___ mg:
247.For onchocerciasis and strongyloidiasis, this A. 36
drug is the first choice because it causes B. 65
fewer systemic and ocular reactions: C. 80
A. Diethylcarbamazine citrate D. 106
B. Metrifonate
C. Ivermectin Application
D. Bithionol Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical
Application Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 531
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical 255.The preparation of choice for thyroid
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 890 replacement and suppression therapy is:
A. Liothyronine
248.Most of the serious adverse effects of B. Levothyroxine
Penicllins are due to: C. Dessicated thyroid
A. Blood dyscrasias D. Thyrogloculin
B. Hypersensitivity reactions
C. CNS reactions Recall
D. Hepatic impariment Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical
Application Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 630
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical 256.The combination of estrogens and progestins
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 741 exert their contraceptive effect largely
through
249.The following anti-TB drugs are potentially A. inhibition of pituitary function
hepatotoxic, EXCEPT: B. production of a mucoid cervical
A. RIfampin secretion
B. Isoniazid C. alteration in the motility of the
C. Pyrazinamide uterine tubes
D. Streptomycin D. enhancement of the rupture of the
ovarian follicle
Recall Application
Answer: D Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
edition, p. 784-786 ninth edition, p. 673

250.This Anti-TB is relatively contraindicated in young 257.The most dangerous complication of

children whose visual acuity and red-green color Thioamides is:
assessment can not be adequately assessed: A. lupus-like reaction
A. Isoniazid B. hepatitis
B. Rifampin C. agranulocytosis
C. Ethmabutol D. exfoliative dermatitis
D. Pyrazinamide
Recall
Recall Answer: C
Answer: C Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 633
ninth edition, p. 785
258.The major use of this drug is in the treatment
251.This antibacterial is available as a nasal of endometriosis
ointment useful in the elimination of nasal A. Nifepristone
carriage of Staphylococcus aureus: B. Danazol
A. Neomycin C. Tamoxifen
B. Muprocin D. Clomiphine
C. Polymycin B sulfate
D. Bacitracin Recall
Answer: B
Application Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical
Answer: B Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 680
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology,
ninth edition, p. 1016 259.The best treatment option for an obese
patient with NIDDM with associated insulin
252.A drug that is used almost solely as an resistance syndrome is:
alternative treatment for gonorrhea in A. Glibenclamide
16
 B. Metformin 268.Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from
C. Repaglimide nonselective COX inhibitors in that selective
D. Acarbose COX-2 inhibitors have no:
A. analgesic-antipyretic and anti-
Application inflammatory effects
Answer: B B. gastrointestinal side effects
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical C. effects on platelet aggregation
Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 708 D. renal toxicities
Ans. B p. 582
260.Treatment Regimen III as indicated in the
National Tuberculosis Control Program 269.Pharmacologic effects of alcohol include
consists of: stimulation of the:
A. 2 HRZES A. central nervous system
B. 2HRZ / 4HR B. heart
C. 2HRZE / 4HR C. smooth muscles of the blood vessels
D. 2HRZES / 1 HREZ / 5HRE D. secretion of gastric acid
Ans. D p. 368
Application
Answer: B 270.One of the following general anesthetics with
Reference: National TB Control Program, their respective blood:gas partition
Treatment Regimens coefficients is most soluble in blood:
A.Nitrous oxide 0.47
261.The study of the absorption, distribution, B. Enflurane 1.40
metabolism and excretion of drug is known as: C. Halothane 2.30
A. Pharmacodynamics D. Methoxyflurane 12.0
B. Pharmacokinetics Ans. D p. 403
C. Phamacotherapeutics
D. Pharmacology 271.Reserpine blocks this step in adrenergic
Ans. transmission:
B p. 5 A. synthesis of the transmitter
B. incorporation of norepinephrine into
the vesicle
C. release of the neurotransmitter
D. reuptake into presynaptic neuron
Ans.
262.First – pass effect is more likely to occur with B p. 169
this route of administration :
A.Oral 272.A 24 year old male was brought to the
B.Buccal emergency room after having allegedly
C.Sublingual drank poison. He had constricted pupils, was
D.Rectal noted to have salivation and sweating,
Ans. A p. 43 wheezing, vomiting and diarrhea: The poison
263.Inert binding sites bind a drug without must have been:
initiating events leading to a drug effect. A. atropine
They are located in: B. organophosphate
A.True receptors C. opiate
B.Spare receptors D. ephedrine
C.Plasma proteins Ans. B p. 101
D.Ttissue proteins
Ans. 273.Therapeutic applications of atropine
C p. 5 include/s:
A. peptic ulcer
264.Drug A at a dose of 100 mg. produces the B. bradycardia caused by myocardial
same effect as drug B at a dose of 1000 mg. infarction
One of the following statements is correct C. urinary retention
regarding the two drugs: D. constipation
A. Drug A has a greater efficacy than Ans. B p. 115
Drug B
B. Drug B has a greater efficacy than 274.Mechanism of action of pralidoxime:
Drug A A. competitive antagonism
C. Drug A is more potent than Drug B B. noncompetitive antagonism
D. Drug B is more potent than Drug A C. physiologic antagonism
Ans. C p.28 D. regeneration of the enzyme
265.Drugs with very high volume of distribution: Ans. D p. 117
A. are completely retained within the
vascular compartment 275.Compared to norepinephrine, epinephrine
B. have higher concentrations in has more effects on:
extravascular tissue A. alpha 1 receptors
C. are homogeneously distributed in B. alpha 2 receptors
blood C. beta 1 receptors
D. have minimum possible volume of D. beta 2 receptors
distribution Ans.B p.34 Ans. D p.
133
266.Bioavailability of a drug is 100% following
this route of administration: 276.Drugs like quinidine, procainamide and
A. subcutaneous disopyramide are useful in the treatment of:
B. intramuscular A. congestive heart failure
C. transdermal C. status asthmaticus
D. intravenous B. thyrotoxicosis
Ans. D p.41 D. arrhythmia

267.Drug biotransformation may result in Ans. D. pp. 227-229

formation of: 277.A 65-year old male was admitted at the
A. inactive metabolites intensive care unit disoriented with a blood
B. reactive intermediates that are toxic pressure of 220/120. Which of the following
to various organs drugs will be most appropriate:
C. an active substance from a prodrug A. Sodium nitroprusside
D. all of the above C. Methyldopa
Ans. D p. 55- B. Clonidine
56 D. Aldactone

17
 C. Tetracycline and
Ans. A p. 175 chloramphenicol
278.Propranolol and other beta-adrenergic D. Tetracycline and streptomycin
receptor antagonist have the following Ans. B p. 846
effect/s on the heart that makes them useful
as antiarryhthmic agents: 287.This antimicrobial drug may provoke acute
A. Depress automaticity gouty arthritis:
C. Reduce heart rate A. Pyrazinamide
B. Prolong A-V conduction B. Ethambutol
D. All of the above C. INH
D. PAS
Ans. D. p. 232 Ans.
279.All of the following are true of sodium A p. 786
nitroprusside EXCEPT:
A. The gold standard for use in 288.This agent is proven effects for influenza A:
hypertensive crisis A. Riboxinin
B. Mechanism of vasodilating effects B. Acyclovir
similar to nitrates C. Zidoxcedine
C. Sensitive to light D. Amantadine
D. Metabolite is pharmacologically inert Ans.
Ans. D. p.175 D p. 824
280.In patients with congestive heart failure, the
use of angiotensin converting enzyme
inhibitors will increase
A. peripheral resistance
C. salt and water excretion 289.This agent apparently acts as a GABA agonist
B. preload at the neuromuscular junction and causes
D. sympathetic activity flaccid paralysis of the nematode:
A. Mebendazole
Ans. C p. 209 B. Piperazine
C. Bephenrium
281.One of the following antianginal agents is D. Pyrantel
contraindicated in patients with vasospastic Ans.
angina: B p. 861
A. Propranolol
C. Diltiazem 290.This antimicrobial agent is also effective for
B. Verapamil amebic abscesses that fail initial therapy
D. Isosorbide dinitrate with metronoidazole:
A. Chloroquine
Ans. A. p. 198 B. Amodiaquine
C. Mefloquine
282.Methyldopa as antihyperatensive agent D. Primaquine
exerts its effect by conversion to alpha- Ans.
methylnorepinephrine which stimulates A p. 867
centrally this receptor:
A. alpha-1 291.Adverse effects of aminoglycosides include
C. alpha-2 all, EXCEPT:
B. Beta-1 A. Nephrotoxicity
D. Beta-2 B. Cardiotoxicity
C. Neuromuscular blockade
Ans. C. p. 166 D. Ototoxicity
283.Aminopenicillins, Carboxypenicillins and Ans.
Ureidopenicillins compared to Penicillin G: B p. 767
A. Are not effective for oral
adminsitration 292.The most common use of estrogen in
B. Have lesser tendency to cause therpeutics is:
hypersensitivity reaction A. Dysfunctional uterine
C. Have greater activity against gram- bleeding
negative bacteria B. Chemotherapy in prostatic
D. Are resistant to B-lactamse malignancy
A C. Replacement therapy in
ns. menopause
C. p. D. Component of contraceptice
741 pills Ans. D
284.Clavulanic acid is added to Ampicillin in order
to: 293.This is a partial agonist inhibitor of estradiol
A. Prevent occurrence of diarrhea at the estrogen receptor and used in the
B. Protect the beta-lactam ring from palliative treatment of advanced breast
destruction cancer:
C. Increase the bioavailability by A. Donazol
increasing absorption B. Diathylstilbesterol
D. Increase the pH of gastrointestinal C. Tamoxifen
tract D. Mefepristone
Ans Ans.
. B. C p. 679
p.
741 294.Clomiphone enhanced pregnancy by:
A. Preparing the uterus for
285.The most common side effect of implantation
erythromycin is: B. Inhibiting estradiol’s negative
A. Gastroinetstinal upset feedback
C. Increasing sperm motility
B. “red neck” syndrome D. Inhibiting ovulation
C. Pseudomembranous colitis
D. Nephrotoxicity Ans. B p. 681
Ans. A p. 759 295.The most common side effect of insulin is:
286.Bacterial synergism is produced by the A. Lipid deposition
following drug combination: B. Renal dystrophy
A. Tetracycline and penicillin G C. Insulin allergy
B. Cephalexin and gentamycin

18
 D. Hypoglycemia
Ans.
D p. 703

296.Actions of Vit. D include:

A. Antagonism oof parathyroid
hormone
B. Promote absorption of
calcium and phosphate from
the intestine
C. Hasten calcium excretion in
the kidney
D. Promotes water excretion

Ans. B p. 718

19