DELHI NURSING COMPETITION CLASSE

Marks -100
Time- 90 min.
MODEL TEST PAPER – AIIMS

INSTRUCTIONS
For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble Corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In Case of bubbling of
incorrect answer,

This section contains 100 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 100. Each question has
4choices (a), (b), (c), and (d), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Negative marking is ¼ each wrong answer

(1.) The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched on …………. by the
Government of India
(a.) 5TH April 2003
(b.) 12th April 2005
(c.) 5th march 2005
(d.) 5th march 2006
Ans. b
Exp. the government of India to address the health needs of under-served rural areas. Launched
on 12th April 2005 by Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh, the NRHM was initially tasked
with addressing the health needs of 18 states that had been identified as having weak public
health indicators. The Union Cabinet headed by Dr.Manmohan Singh vide its decision dated 1
May 2013, has approved the launch of National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) as a Sub-
mission of an overarching National Health Mission (NHM), with National Rural Health Mission
(NRHM) being the other Sub-mission of National Health Mission.

(2.) Electrolyte need to be replaced in diabetic ketoacidosis is

(a.) Calcium
(b.) Magnesium
(c.) Sodium
(d.) Potassium
Ans. c
Exp. On average, patients with DKA may have the following deficit of water and key
electrolytes per kg of body weight: free water 100 mL/kg; sodium 7–10 mEq/kg; ... DKA. The
goal is to replace the total volume loss within 24–36 hours with 50% of resuscitation fluid being
administered during the first 8–12 hours.

(3.) Full from of ASHA is

(a.) Accredited social heath activist
(b.) Accredited social heath assistant
(c.) Assistant social health activist
(d.) Accredited senior health assistant
Ans. a
Exp. Accredited social health activists (ASHAs) are community health workers instituted by
the government of India's Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) as a part of the
National Rural Health Mission (NRHM).[1] The mission began in 2005; full implementation was
targeted for 2012. Once fully implemented, there is to be "an ASHA in every village" in India,

(4.) Normal range of population covered by PHC in plan area

(a.) 15,000
(b.) 30,000
(c.) 40,000
(d.) 50,000
Ans. b
Exp.

(5.) Which among the following vaccine is stored in the freezer compartment?
(a.) TT
(b.) DPT
(c.) Typhoid
(d.) Measles
Ans. d
Exp. In the refrigerator, OPV vails are stored in the freezer compartment
(0-4°C ) in the main compartment (4-10°c) BCG, measles and MMR are kept in the top
rack (below the freezer ) other vaccine like DPT, DT,TT, hepatitis A and typhoid are stored
in the middle racks while hepatitis A and typhoid are stored in the middle racks; while
hepatitis B, varicella and diluents are stored in the lower racks

(6.) Most preferred site of I/M injection in children is

(a.) Gluteal muscle
(b.) Deltoid
(c.) Lateral aspect of mid – thigh
(d.) Ventrerogluteal
Ans. c
Exp. There are generally four sites that can be used to give an intramuscular injection. These are
the ... The best muscle to use for infants and small children is the vastus laterals muscle in the
thigh

(7.) The blood groups referred as ‘’universal’’ donor’ is:

(a.) O
(b.) AB
(c.) A
(d.) B
Ans. a
Exp. At one time, type O negative blood was considered the universal blood donor type. This
implied that anyone — regardless of blood type — could receive type O negative blood without
risking a transfusion reaction. But it's now known that even type O negative blood may have
antibodies that cause serious reactions during a transfusion. And blood transfusions in general
carry some risk of complications.

(8.) During pregnancy complication of an infant delivered by cesarean section is:

(a.) Respiratory distress
(b.) hypothermia
(c.) hyperthermia
(d.) anemia
Ans. a
Exp. One of the biggest challenges a newborn faces after birth is the task of making a smooth
transition to air breathing. This task is complicated by the fact that fetal lungs are full of fluid
which must be cleared rapidly to allow for gas exchange. Respiratory morbidity as a result of
failure to clear fetal lung fluid is not uncommon, and can be particularly problematic in some
infants delivered by elective cesarean delivery (ECS).

(9.) ICDS programmers was initiated related to mother and child is :

(a.) 1965
(b.) 1975
(c.) 1985
(d.) 1981
Ans. b
Exp. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme is world's largest community based
programme. The scheme is targeted at children upto the age of 6 years, pregnant and lactating
mothers and women 16–44 years of age. The scheme is aimed to improve the health, nutrition
and education (KAP) of the target community. Launched on 2 October 1975, the scheme has
completed 25 years of its operational age. The article describes in brief, the organisation,
achievements and drawbacks of this national programme. It also suggests various thrust areas for
its betterment and further improvement.

(10.) The national health programmes related to mother and child is:
(a.) Maternal and child health programme
(b.) child survival and safe motherhood programme (CSSM)
(c.) Reproductive and child health
(d.) All of the above
Ans. d
Exp. All programme is related to mother and child

(11.) Which formula is used for calculating The estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
(a.) Naegele’s rule
(b.) infant formula
(c.) labor rule
(d.) rule of nine
Ans. a
Exp. Naegele's rule is a standard way of calculating the due date for a pregnancy. The rule
estimates the expected date of delivery (EDD) by adding one year, subtracting three months, and
adding seven days to the first day of a woman's last menstrual period (LMP). The result is
approximately 280 days (40 weeks) from the start of the last menstrual period. Another method
is by adding 9 months and 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period.

(12.) Total Number of bones in your body is :

(a.) 208
(b.) 206
(c.) 204
(d.) 200
Ans. b
Exp. The skeleton of an adult human consists of 206 bones. It is composed of 300 bones at birth,
which decreases to 80 bones in the axial skeleton (29 in the skull and 52 in the torso) and 126
bones in the appendicular skeleton (32 × 2 in the upper extremities including both arms and 31 ×
2 in the lower extremities including both legs). Many small and variable supernumerary bones,
such as some sesamoid bones, are not included in this count.
(13.) Total number of chromosomes in your body is:
(a.) 47
(b.) 44
(c.) 46
(d.) 45
Ans. 46
Exp. n humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty-
two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both males and females. The 23rd pair, the
sex chromosomes, differ between males and females. Females have two copies of the X
chromosome, while males have one X and one Y chromosome.

(14.) Bluish discoloration of the vagina is called :

(a.) Hegar’ s sing
(b.) Goodell’s sing
(c.) Chadwick sing
(d.) Rovsign’s sign
Ans. c
Exp. Chadwick’s sign. The vaginal walls have taken on a deeper color caused by the increased
vascularity because of increased hormones. It is noted at the sixth week when associated with
pregnancy. It may also be noted with a rapidly growing uterine tumor or any cause of pelvic
congestion.

(15.) Immunity transferred to fetus from mother through placenta is:

(a.) Active natural immunity
(b.) passive artificial immunity
(c.) Passive natural immunity
(d.) Active artificial immunity
Ans. c
Exp. Passive immunity is the transfer of active humoral immunity in the form of ready- made
antibodies. Passive immunity can occur naturally, when maternal antibodies are transferred to
the fetus through the placenta, and it can also be induced artificially, when high levels of
antibodies specific to a pathogen or toxin

(16.) .The drug of choice for eclampsia is:

(a.) MgSo4
(b.) prostodin
(c.) Timplol
(d.) Beta adrenergic blocker
Ans. a
Exp. “Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for preventing and treating convulsions in severe
pre-eclampsia and eclampsia.” Maintenance dose: “Give 5 g of 50% magnesium sulfate solution
with 1 mL of 2% lignocaine in the same syringe by deep IM injection into alternate buttocks
every four hours. Continue treatment for 24 hours after delivery or the last convulsion,
whichever occurs last.”

(17.) The duration of puerperal period is:

(a.) from delivery to 1 week
(b.) Delivery to 4 weeks
(c.) delivery to 6 weeks
(d.) Delivery to 10 weeks
Ans. c
Exp. Puerperium is defined as the time from the delivery of the placenta through the first few
weeks after the delivery. This period is usually considered to be 6 weeks in duration. By 6 weeks
after delivery, most of the changes of pregnancy, labor, and delivery have resolved and the body
has reverted to the nonpregnant state.

(18.) First fetal movement felt by the mother is called:

(a.) ballottement
(b.) Quickening
(c.) Lightening
(d.) Kicking
Ans. b
Exp. In pregnancy terms, quickening is the moment in pregnancy when the pregnant woman
starts to feel or perceive fetal movements in the uterus.

(19.) As per the latest WHO guidelines which dehydration status required ORS
(a.) mild dehydration
(b.) Moderate dehydration
(c.) severe dehydration
(d.) Any form of dehydration
Ans. d
Exp. ORS is required any form of dehydration

(20.) Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

(a.) Rubella
(b.) OPV
(c.) BCG
(d.) Hepatitis
Ans. a
Exp. Rubella vaccination is contraindicated during pregnancy. During mass immunization of
women of childbearing age against rubella, women unknowingly pregnant may be vaccinated.
To evaluate the effects of rubella vaccination during pregnancy,

(21.) The procedure of removal and ligation of fallopian tube is referred as:
(a.) Mastectomy
(b.) Vasectomy
(c.) Appendectomy
(d.) Tubectomy
Ans. d
Exp. Tubal ligation or tubectomy is a surgical procedure for sterilization in which a woman's
fallopian tubes are clamped and blocked or severed and sealed, either of which prevents eggs
from reaching the uterus for implantation. Tubal ligation is considered a permanent method of
sterilization and birth control.

(22.) .The system of storing and transporting vaccines is termed:

(a.) cold chain
(b.) freezer chain
(c.) Cool chain
(d.) Vaccination
Ans. a
Exp. The purpose of the vaccine “cold chain” is to maintain product quality from the time of
manufacture until the point of administration by ensuring that vaccines are stored and transported
within WHO-recommended temperature ranges. This module provides guidance for workers at
health facility level.

(23.) What is the normal dilation of cervix?

(a.) 20 cm
(b.) 50 CM
(c.) 7 CM
(d.) 10 CM
Ans. d
Exp. The time of the onset of true labor until the cervix is completely dilated to 10
cm.

(24.) The inflammation and degeneration of liver parenchyma is referred as:

(a.) Cirrhosis
(b.) Jaundice
(c.) Colitis
(d.) cystitis
Ans. c
Exp. The inflammation and degeneration of liver parenchyma is referred as cirrhosis

(25.) The natural pacemaker of the heart is:

(a.) AV node
(b.) SA Node
(c.) Purkinje fiber
Ans. b
Exp. Electrical impulses from the heart muscle cause your heart to beat (contract). This
electrical signal begins in the sinoatrial (SA) node, located at the top of the heart's upper-right
chamber (the right atrium). The SA node is sometimes called the heart's “natural pacemaker.”

(26.) The 10th cranial nerve is:

(a.) Abducent
(b.) Vagus
(c.) Facial
(d.) hypolossal
Ans. b
Exp. Vagus nerve, also called X cranial nerve or 10th cranial nerve, longest and most complex
of the cranial nerves.

(27.) In lumbar puncture the needle is inserted between:

(a.) L3-L4
(b.) L1-L2
(c.) L4-L5
(d.) L2-L3
Ans. c
Exp. lumbar puncture the needle is inserted between L4-L5

(28.) The fasting blood sugar value is:

(a.) 70-110 mg%
(b.) 50-90 mg%
(c.) 120-180 mg%
(d.) 180-200 mg%
Ans. a
Exp. 70-110MG%

(29.) The color of bag in which the infectious solid wastes are disposed is :
(a.) Red
(b.) black
(c.) Blue
(d.) Yellow
Ans. d
Exp. the infectious solid wastes are disposed is yellow bag

(30.) The compression to ventilation ratio in CPR in case of single rescuer is ;

(a.) 5:2
(b.) 15:2
(c.) 30:2
(d.) 2:30
Ans. c
Exp. A compression-ventilation ratio (external cardiac compression [ECM] + rescue breathing)
of 30:2 for basic (one-rescuer) CPR was chosen in the Consensus on Science and Treatment
Recommendations for all infants (except newborns, i.e. at birth) children and adults, but a ratio
of 15:2 chosen for CPR performed by two healthcare rescuers for infants (except the newly-born)
and children whenever a pause is required between compressions to deliver breaths 1,2. These
recommendations replace the previous recommendations of 5:1 for two-person rescue of adults,
children and infants.

(31.) In triage yellow color indicates:

(a.) Emergent
(b.) Urgent
(c.) Dead
(d.) Nonurgent
Ans. a
Exp. Triage is also commonly used in crowded emergency rooms and walk-in clinics to
determine which patients should be seen and treated immediately.

(32.) the most common cause of urinary Tract infection (UTI) in community is :
(a.) E.coli
(b.) Kibsiella
(c.) Citrobacter
(d.) Proteus Vulgaris
Ans. a
Exp. Infection of the bladder (cystitis). This type of UTI is usually caused by Escherichia coli
(E. coli), a type of bacteria commonly found in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. However,
sometimes other bacteria are responsible.

(33.) The immunoglobulin found in mother‘s breast milk is:

(a.) IgA
(b.) IgM
(c.) Ig D
(d.) Ig E
Ans. a
Exp. Ig A immunoglobulin found in mother‘s breast milk

(34.) Schick’s test indicates the infections of :

(a.) Measles
(b.) Mumps
(c.) Diphtheria
(d.) Rubella
Ans. c
Exp. The Schick test, invented between 1910 and 1911 is a test used to determine whether or not
a person is susceptible to diphtheria. It was named after its inventor, Béla Schick (1877–1967), a
Hungarian-born American pediatrician.

(35.) The average tidal volume is:

(a.) 500 ML
(b.) 250 ML
(c.) 150 ML
(d.) 600 ML
Ans. a
Exp. Tidal volume (symbol VT or TV) is the lung volume representing the normal volume of
air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation when extra effort is not applied. In a
healthy, young human adult, tidal volume is approximately 500 mL per inspiration or 7 mL/kg of
body mass.

(36.) Moon face with central obesity is noticed is

(a.) Addison’s disease
(b.) Cushing’s syndrome
(c.) Down’s syndrome
(d.) Turner’s syndrome
Ans. b
Exp. The signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome can vary depending on the levels of excess
cortisol. Common signs and symptoms involve progressive obesity and skin changes, such as:
• Weight gain and fatty tissue deposits, particularly around the midsection and upper back, in
the face (moon face), and between the shoulders (buffalo hump)
• Pink or purple stretch marks (striae) on the skin of the abdomen, thighs, breasts and arms
• Thinning, fragile skin that bruises easily
• Slow healing of cuts, insect bites and infections
• Acne

(37.) Blood and debris discharge from the uterus after delivery is termed:
(a.) Septic shock
(b.) Lochia
(c.) Pyuria
(d.) Hematuria
Ans. b
Exp. Blood and debris discharge from the uterus after delivery is termed is called lochia

(38.) Bell’s palsy is due to the injury of which cranial nerve?

(a.) trigeminal
(b.) facial
(c.) Trochlear
(d.) Hypoglossal
Ans. b
Exp. Bell palsy (a type of facial nerve palsy) is sudden weakness or paralysis of muscles on
one side of the face due to malfunction of the 7th cranial nerve (facial nerve). This nerve
moves the facial muscles, stimulates the salivary and tear glands, enables the front two
thirds of the tongue to detect tastes, and controls a muscle involved in hearing.

(39.) Ego works based on the:

(a.) Reality
(b.) Pleasure
(c.) Perfection
(d.) Conscience
Ans. a
Exp. Ego works based on the reality

(40.) Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by blocking the synthesis of:

(a.) RBC’s
(b.) vitamin K
(c.) Hemoglobin
(d.) vitamin E
Ans. d
Exp. Warfarin exhibits its anticoagulation effects via the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways in the
clotting cascade. This occurs by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
(II, VII, IX, and X) and the anticoagulant proteins C and S. Warfarin interferes with the synthesis
of clotting factors by blocking the vitamin K oxidation-reduction cycle needed for the
carboxylation of clotting factors. This ultimately lessens the amount of active vitamin K reserves
available to act as a cofactor in the formation of glutamic acid residues within the
aforementioned clotting factors.

(41.) The function of gland which is affected in lithium toxicity is :

(a.) Parathyroid
(b.) flooding
(c.) Desensitization
(d.) Response prevention
Ans. d
Exp. Response prevention is affected in lithium toxicity

(42.) The voltage needed to produce seizures while giving ECT is:
(a.) 180 to 220 volts
(b.) 40 to 70 volts
(c.) 150 to 180 volts
(d.) 70 to 150 volts
Ans. d
Exp. The usual dose of electricity is 70–150 volts for 0.1–0.5 seconds. In the first stage of the
seizure (tonic phase), the muscles in the body that have not been paralyzed by medication
contract for a period of 5–15 seconds

(43.) Father of intelligence test is:

(a.) Alfred Binet
(b.) Erick Erickson
(c.) Alfred Adler
(d.) Carl Jung
Ans. a
Exp. Alfred Binet is the father of the IQ test.

(44.) Identify the calcium channel blocker from the following :

(a.) Nifedipine
(b.) Atenolol
(c.) Lasix
(d.) Mannitol
Ans. a
Exp. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker

(45.) The metal which is commonly used for family planning is:
(a.) Copper
(b.) Aluminum
(c.) Iron
(d.) Silver
Ans. a
Exp. Copper T
(46.) Hookworm penetrates into the body by penetrating the skin of
(a.) Hand
(b.) Foot
(c.) Ear
(d.) Head
Ans. b
Exp. Foot

(47.) Kernig’s sign is a striking feature of:

(a.) Meningitis
(b.) Nephritis
(c.) Neuritis
(d.) Dendritis
Ans. a
Exp. Meningitis
Kernig's sign
An indication of irritation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord (the
meninges) asin meningitis. Attempts to bend the hip with the knee straight (straight leg raising)
cause pain and are strongly opposed byirritative spasm in the hamstring muscles that extend the
hip and bend the knee. (Vladimir Michailovich Kernig, 1840–1917,Russian physician).

(48.) The paralysis of both upper and lower extremities is known as :

(a.) Hemiplegia
(b.) Paraplegia
(c.) Monoplegia
(d.) Quadriplegia
Ans. d
Exp. Quadriplegia

paralysis of all four limbs; motor and/or sensory function in the cervical spinal segments is
impaired or lost due to damage tothat part of the spinal cord, resulting in impaired function in the
upper limbs, lower limbs, trunk, and pelvic organs.

(49.) The Micro- organism which causes vaginitis commonly is:

(a.) Candida Albicans
(b.) Streptococci
(c.) E.coli
(d.) Lactocalilus
Ans. a
Exp. Candida albicans main cause of vaginitis
(50.) Increases level of HCG hormone is indication of :
(a.) Placenta Previa
(b.) Hydatid form mole
(c.) Polyhydramnios
(d.) PIH
Ans. b
Exp. Hydatid form mole

(51.) I.C.D.S scheme was started in which year :

(a.) 1965
(b.) 1970
(c.) 1975
(d.) 1985
Ans. c
Exp. The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme is the largest program for
promotion of maternal and child health and nutrition not only in India but in the whole world.
The scheme was launched in 1975 in pursuance of the National Policy for Children.

(52.) The amount of protein intake to be maintained during renal failure is :

(a.) 40 to 60 g/days
(b.) 60 to 80 g/day
(c.) 20 to 40 g/day
(d.) 80 to 100 g/day
Ans. a
Exp. 40 to 60 g/ days

(53.) Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse prepares to administer the

medication in which muscle site?
(a.) deltoid
(b.) Triceps
(c.) Vastus lateralis
(d.) Biceps
Ans. c
Exp. The vastus lateralis muscle is on the side of the thigh. This muscle is the largest of the
quadriceps group (often called quads) which also includes the rectus femoris, the vastus
intermedius, and the vastus medialis.

(54.) When teaching umbilical cord care to a new mother, the nurse would include which
information?
(a.) Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change
(b.) Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after bathing
(c.) Keep the cord dry and open to air
(d.) Wash the cord with soap and water each day during a tub bath
Ans. c
Exp. Keeping the cord dry and open to air helps reduce infection and hastens drying.

(55.) Soon after delivery a neonate is admitted to the central nursery. The nursery nurse
begins the initial assessment by
(a.) auscultate bowel sounds.
(b.) determining chest circumference.
(c.) inspecting the posture, color, and respiratory effort.
(d.) checking for identifying birthmarks.
Ans. c
Exp. inspecting the posture, color, and respiratory effort.

(56.) Which neonatal behavior is most commonly associated with fetal alcohol syndrome
(FAS)?
(a.) Hypoactivity
(b.) High birth weight
(c.) Poor wake and sleep patterns
(d.) High threshold of stimulation
Ans. c
Exp. Altered sleep patterns are caused by disturbances in the CNS from alcohol exposure in
utero. Hyperactivity is a characteristic generally noted. Low birth weight is a physical defect
seen in neonates with FAS. Neonates with FAS generally have a low threshold for stimulation.

(57.) The nurse is Positioning the female client with increased intracranial pressure.
Which of the following positions would the nurse avoid?
(a.) Head midline
(b.) Head turned to the side
(c.) Neck in neutral position
(d.) Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees
Ans. b
Exp. The head of the client with increased intracranial pressure should be positioned so the head
is in a neutral midline position. The nurse should avoid flexing or extending the client’s neck or
turning the head side to side. The head of the bed should be raised to 30 to 45 degrees. Use of
proper positions promotes venous drainage from the Cranium to keep intracranial pressure down.

(58.) A male client is having a lumbar puncture performed. The nurse would plan to
place the client in which position?
(a.) Side-lying, with a pillow under the hip
(b.) Prone, with a pillow under the abdomen
(c.) prone, in slight- Trendelenburg’s position
(d.) Side-lying, with the legs, pulled up and head bent down onto the chest.
Ans. d
Exp. The client undergoing lumbar puncture is positioned lying on the side, with the legs pulled
up to the abdomen and the head bent down onto the chest. This position helps open the spaces
between the vertebrae.

(59.) Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening
rounds, nurse Tina assesses the client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 105° F (40.5°
C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?
(a.) Diabetic ketoacidosis
(b.) Thyroid crisis
(c.) Hypoglycemia
(d.) Tetany
Ans. b
Exp. Thyroid crisis usually occurs in the first 12 hours after thyroidectomy and causes
exaggerated signs of hyperthyroidism, such as high fever, tachycardia, and extreme restlessness.
Diabetic ketoacidosis is more likely to produce polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia;
hypoglycemia, to produce weakness, tremors, profuse perspiration, and hunger. Tetany typically
causes uncontrollable muscle spasms, stridor, cyanosis, and possibly asphyxia.

(60.) In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing’s syndrome,
nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:
(a.) Serum glucose level.
(b.) Hair loss.
(c.) Bone mineralization.
(d.) Menstrual flow.
Ans. a
Exp. Hyperglycemia, which develops from glucocorticoid excess, is a manifestation of
Cushing’s syndrome. With successful treatment of the disorder, serum glucose levels decline.
Hirsutism is common in Cushing’s syndrome; therefore, with successful treatment, abnormal
hair growth also declines. Osteoporosis occurs in Cushing’s syndrome; therefore, with successful
treatment, bone mineralization increases. Amenorrhea develops in Cushing’s syndrome. With
successful treatment, the client experiences a return of menstrual flow, not a decline in it.

(61.) A female client requires hemodialysis. Which of the following drugs should be withheld
before this procedure?
(a.) Phosphate binders
(b.) Insulin
(c.) Antibiotics
(d.) Cardiac glycosides
Ans. d
Exp. Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin should be withheld before hemodialysis. Hypokalemia
is one of the electrolyte shifts that occur during dialysis, and a hypokalemic client is at risk for
arrhythmias secondary to digitalis toxicity.
• Option A: Phosphate binders and insulin can be administered because they aren’t removed
from the blood by dialysis.
• Option C: Some antibiotics are removed by dialysis and should be administered after the
procedure to ensure their therapeutic effects. The nurse should check a formulary to
determine whether a particular antibiotic should be administered before or after dialysis.

(62.) Sodium levels are affected by the secretion of which of the following hormones?
(a.) progesterone and aldosterone
(b.) ADH and ACTH
(c.) antidiuretic hormone and FSH
(d.) 0 ECF and aldosterone
Ans. b
Exp. The endocrine system secretes aldosterone and ADH to help regulate sodium levels. The
pituitary secretes adrenocorticotropin hormone to help regulate sodium. A and C are
reproductive hormones. ECF is not a hormone.

(63.) The majority of the body’s water is contained in which of the following fluid
compartments?
(a.) intracellular
(b.) Interstitial
(c.) Intravascular
(d.) Extracellular
Ans. a
Exp. The intracellular compartment holds two-thirds of total body water. The extracellular
compartment is the interstitial space plus the intravascular space. The extracellular compartment
accounts for one-third of total body water.

(64.) Bicarbonate is lost during which of the following clinical conditions?

(a.) diarrhea
(b.) diuresis
(c.) diaphoresis
(d.) vomiting
Ans. a
Exp. Bicarbonate is lost in diarrhea because the lower intestinal tract contains fluids rich in
bicarbonate.

(65.) APGAR score 9 means the newborn is:

(a.) normal
(b.) Distressed
(c.) Cyanotic
(d.) hypoxic
Ans. a
Exp.

(66.) Normal prothrombine time ?

(a.) 8 to 10 second
(b.) 11 to 13.5 seconds
(c.) 12.5 to 15 seconds
(d.) 15 to 30 second
Ans. b
Exp.

(67.) Z track method is used while giving I/M injection because to …………
(a.) seal medication
(b.) To reduce pain
(c.) Easy administration
(d.) Fast action
Ans. a
Exp.

(68.) Patient with o + blood wait for transfusion. but in the blood bank following blood groups
are available . Which is the most appropriate one for the patient ?
(a.) O-
(b.) A+
(c.) AB+
(d.) Any blood group
Ans. O-
Exp.

(69.) Which of the following is a sign of severe dehydration in infants ?

(a.) Sunken fontanels
(b.) Warm skin
(c.) Moist tongue
(d.) Decreased tears
Ans. c
Exp. Moist tongue

(70.) Which among the following solution is hypotonic ?

(a.) 0.45% NS
(b.) 0.95 NS
(c.) 3%NS
(d.) 5% DEX.
Ans. a
Exp.

(71.) Bitot spots and xerophtalmia is due to the deficiency of …………

(a.) VIT- A
(b.) VIT –D
(c.) VIT-E
(d.) VIT.K
Ans. a
Exp.

(72.) Gout is a condition occur because of the accumulation of

(a.) Ammonia
(b.) Creatinine
(c.) Uric acid
(d.) Bilirubin
Ans. c
Exp.

(73.) Dumping syndrome is a complication of

(a.) Nephrectomy
(b.) Subtotal gastrectomy
(c.) Ileostomy
(d.) Hysterectomy
Ans. b
Exp. Dumping syndrome is a complication of stomach bypass or stomach reduction surgery.
(Gastric surgery) Other complications related to this surgery include:
• poor nutrient absorption
• weakened bones, called osteoporosis, from poor calcium absorption
• anemia, or a low red blood cell count, from poor absorption of vitamins or iron

(74.) Cardinal movement occur before expulsion is

(a.) Engagement
(b.) Crowning
(c.) Internal rotation
(d.) External rotation
Ans. d
Exp. External rotation is the cardinal movement occur just before the expulsion

(75.) The nurse is aware that the following solutions is routinely used to flush an IV
device before and after the administration of blood to a patient is:
(a.) 0.9 percent sodium chloride
(b.) 5 percent dextrose in water solution
(c.) Sterile water
(d.) Heparin sodium
Ans. a
Exp. 0.9 percent sodium chloride
0.9 percent sodium chloride is normal saline. This solution has the same osmolarity as blood. Its
use prevents red cell lysis. The solutions given in options 2 and 3 are hypotonic solutions and can
cause red cell lysis. The solution in option 4 may anticoagulate the patient and result in bleeding.

(76.) Doctor’s Order: Kantamycin 7.5 mg/kg IM q 12 hr; Available: Kantamycin 0.35
Gm/mL. How many mL will you administer for each dose to a 157 lb patient?
(a.) 2 ml
(b.) 1 ml
(c.) 2.5 ml
(d.) 1.5 ml
Ans. d
Exp. 157 lbs = 71.36 kg or 71 kg
7.5 mg/kg x 71 kg = 532.5 mg

(77.) Which of the following parameters should be checked when assessing respirations?
(a.) Rate
(b.) Rhythm
(c.) Symmetry
(d.) All of the above
Ans. d
Exp. The quality and efficiency of the respiratory process can be determined by appraising the
rate, rhythm, depth, ease, sound, and symmetry of respirations.

(78.) A patient is admitted to the hospital with complaints of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea,
and severe abdominal pain. Which of the following would immediately alert the nurse that
the patient has bleeding from the GI tract?
(a.) Complete blood count
(b.) Guaiac test
(c.) Vital signs
(d.) Abdominal girth
Ans. b
Exp. Option B: To assess for GI tract bleeding when frank blood is absent, the nurse has two
options: She can test for occult blood in vomitus, if present, or in stool – through guaiac
(Hemoccult) test.
• Option A: A complete blood count does not provide immediate results and does not always
immediately reflect blood loss.
• Option C: Changes in vital signs may be caused by factors other than blood loss.
• Option D: Abdominal girth is unrelated to blood loss.

(79.) A neuromuscular blocking agent is administered to a client before ECT therapy. The
Nurse should carefully observe the client for…
(a.) Respiratory difficulties
(b.) Nausea and vomiting
(c.) Dizziness
(d.) Seizures
Ans. a
Exp. Neuromuscular Blocker, such as SUCCINYLCHOLINE (Anectine) produces respiratory
depression because it inhibits contractions of respiratory muscles.

(80.) A 60-year-old female client who lives alone tells the nurse at the community health
center “I really don’t need anyone to talk to”. The TV is my best friend. The nurse recognizes
that the client is using the defense mechanism known as?
(a.) Displacement
(b.) Projection
(c.) Sublimation
(d.) Denial
Ans. d
Exp. The client statement is an example of the use of denial, a defense that blocks problem by
unconscious refusing to admit they exist

(81.) A 23-year-old client has been admitted with a diagnosis of schizophrenia says to the
nurse “Yes, its march, March is little woman”. That’s literal you know”. These statements
illustrate:
(a.) Neologisms
(b.) Echolalia
(c.) Flight of ideas
(d.) Loosening of association
Ans. d
Exp. Loose associations are thoughts that are presented without the logical connections usually
necessary for the listening to interpret the message.

(82.) A 38-year-old client is admitted for alcohol withdrawal. The most common early
sign or symptom that this client is likely to experience is:
(a.) impending coma.
(b.) manipulating behavior.
(c.) suppression.
(d.) perceptual disorders.
Ans. d
Exp. Option D: Perceptual disorders, especially frightening visual hallucinations, are very
common with alcohol withdrawal.
• Option A: Coma isn’t an immediate consequence.
• Option B: Manipulative behaviors are part of the alcoholic client’s personality but aren’t
signs of alcohol withdrawal.
• Option C: Suppression is a conscious effort to conceal unacceptable thoughts, feelings,
impulses, or acts and serves as a coping mechanism for most alcoholics.

(83.) Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms that occur in the lung
parenchyma allows pneumonia to develop?
(a.) Atelectasis
(b.) Bronchiectasis
(c.) Effusion
(d.) Inflammation
Ans. d
Exp. The most common feature of all types of pneumonia is an inflammatory pulmonary
response to the offending organism or agent. Atelectasis and bronchiectasis indicate a collapse of
a portion of the airway that doesn’t occur with pneumonia. An effusion is an accumulation of
excess pleural fluid in the pleural space, which may be a secondary response to pneumonia.

(84.) A nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of COPD. Which of
the following would the nurse expect to note on assessment of this client?
(a.) Increased oxygen saturation with exercise
(b.) Hypocapnia
(c.) A hyperinflated chest on x-ray film
(d.) A widened diaphragm noted on chest x-ray film
Ans. c
Exp. Clinical manifestations of COPD include hypoxemia, hypercapnia, dyspnea on exertion and
at rest, oxygen desaturation with exercise, and the use of accessory muscles of respiration. Chest
x-ray films reveal a hyperinflated chest and a flattened diaphragmis the disease is advanced.
(85.) One leadership theory states that “leaders are born and not made,” which refers to which
of the following theories?
(a.) Trait
(b.) Charismatic
(c.) Great Man
(d.) Situational
Ans. c
Exp. Great Man . Leaders become leaders because of their birth right. This is also called Genetic
theory or the Aristotelian theory

(86.) What is a characteristic of an audio recording of an unpublished research study

reported at a professional conference?
(a.) Databased literature
(b.) Secondary Sources
(c.) Are more difficult to analyze than written reports.
(d.) Are not useful because they are not published
Ans. a
Exp. Audio and video recordings of research presentations are examples of databased literature.

(87.) As a manager, she focuses her energy on both the quality of services rendered to the
patients as well as the welfare of the staff of her unit. Which of the following management styles
does she adopt?
(a.) Country club management
(b.) Organization man management
(c.) Team management
(d.) Authority-obedience management
Ans. c
Exp. Team management . Team management has a high concern for services and high concern
for staff.

(88.) She plans of assigning competent people to fill the roles designed in the hierarchy.
Which process refers to this?
(a.) Staffing
(b.) Scheduling
(c.) Recruitment
(d.) Induction
Ans. a
Exp. Staffing is a management function involving putting the best people to accomplish tasks
and activities to attain the goals of the organization.
(89.) One leadership theory states that “leaders are born and not made,”
which refers to which of the following theories?
(a.) Trait
(b.) Charismatic
(c.) Great Man
(d.) Situational
Ans. c
Exp. Leaders become leaders because of their birth right. This is also called Genetic theory or the
Aristotelian theory

(90.) What is the first step in the qualitative research process?

(a.) Data analysis
(b.) Sample
(c.) Review of literature
(d.) Study design
Ans. c
Exp. Review of literature is the 1st step in the qualitative research process. Data analysis is the
sixth step in the qualitative research process. Sampling is the third step in the qualitative research
process. The study design is the second step in the qualitative research process.

(91.) Which of the following is an example of a primary source in a research study?

(a.) A published commentary on the findings of another study
(b.) A doctoral dissertation that critiques all research in the area of attention deficit disorder
(c.) A textbook of medical-surgical nursing
(d.) A journal article about a study that used large, previously unpublished databases generated
by the United States census
Ans. d
Exp. A journal article about a study that used large, previously unpublished databases generated
by the United States census

(92.) A vaginal exam reveals a footling breech presentation. The nurse should take which of
the following actions at this time?
(a.) Anticipate the need for a Caesarean section
(b.) Apply the fetal heart monitor
(c.) Place the client in Genupectoral position
(d.) Perform an ultrasound exam
Ans. b
Exp. Applying a fetal heart monitor is the correct action at this time.
• Options A and C: There is no need to prepare for a Caesarean section or to place the client
in Genupectoral position (knee-chest).
• Option D: There is no need for an ultrasound based on the finding.

(93.) While assessing a primipara during the immediate postpartum period,

the nurse in charge plans to use both hands to assess the client’s fundus to:
(a.) Prevent uterine inversion
(b.) Promote uterine involution
(c.) Hasten the puerperium period
(d.) Determine the size of the fundus

Ans. a

Exp. Using both hands to assess the fundus is useful for preventing uterine inversion.

(94.) The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot. You may see Koplik’s spot by
inspecting the:
(a.) Nasal Mucosa
(b.) Buccal mucosa
(c.) Skin on the abdomen
(d.) Skin on the antecubital surface
Ans. b
Exp. Koplik’s spot may be seen on the mucosa of the mouth or the throat.

(95.) Among the following diseases, which is airborne?

(a.) Viral conjunctivitis
(b.) Acute poliomyelitis
(c.) Diphtheria
(d.) Measles
Ans. d
Exp. Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect contact with discharges from infected
eyes. Acute poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route and contact with throat
secretions, whereas diphtheria is through direct and indirect contact with respiratory secretions.

(96.) Atropine sulfate (Atropine) is indicated in all but one of the following client?
(a.) A client with high blood
(b.) A client with bowel obstruction
(c.) A client with glaucoma
(d.) A client with U.T.I.
Ans. c
Exp. Atropine sulfate is contraindicated with glaucoma patients because it increases intraocular
pressure.

(97.) The nurse in charge is caring for a patient who is in the first stage of labor. What is the
shortest but most difficult part of this stage?
(a.) Active phase
(b.) Complete phase
(c.) Latent phase
(d.) Transitional phase
Ans. d
Ans. he transitional phase, which lasts 1 to 3 hours, is the shortest but most difficult part of the
first stage of labor. This phase is characterized by intense uterine contractions that occur every 1
½ to 2 minutes and last 45 to 90 seconds.

(98.) When caring for a 3-day-old neonate who is receiving phototherapy to treat jaundice, the
nurse in charge would expect to do which of the following?
(a.) Turn the neonate every 6 hours
(b.) Encourage the mother to discontinue breastfeeding
(c.) Notify the physician if the skin becomes bronze in color
(d.) Check the vital signs every 2 to 4 hours
Ans. d
Exp. While caring for an infant receiving phototherapy for treatment of jaundice, vital signs are
checked every 2 to 4 hours because hyperthermia can occur due to the phototherapy lights.

(99.) Five hours after birth, a neonate is transferred to the nursery, where the nurse
intervenes to prevent hypothermia. What is a common source of radiant heat loss?
(a.) Low room humidity
(b.) Cold weight scale
(c.) Cool incubator walls
(d.) Cool room temperature
Ans. c
Exp. A common source of radiant heat loss includes cool incubator walls and windows.
• Option A: Low room humidity promotes evaporative heat loss.
• Option B: When the skin directly contacts a cooler object, such as a cold weight scale,
conductive heat loss may occur.
• Option D: A cool room temperature may lead to convective heat loss.

(100.) what is the ultimate purpose and goal of performance improvement activities?
(a.) To increase efficiency
(b.) To contain costs
(c.) To improve processes
(d.) To improve policies
Ans. c
Exp. The ultimate purpose of quality improvement activities is to identify process flaws and then
to change the process so that it is fail proof. Fail proof processes prevent human error and
possible patient harm. Although these process improvements and changes may also increase
efficiency and decrease costs, the ultimate goal of quality improvement activities is to prevent
future occurrences with process changes and not costs and efficiency. Lastly, it is known that
processes, not policies, are the root cause of many medical errors.