NA Objective Questions for CVV

1. Resistivity of a wire depends on

(A) length (B) material (C) cross section area (D) none of the above.
2. Kirchhoff's second law is based on law of conservation of
(A) charge (B) energy (C) momentum (D) mass.
3. A circuit contains two un-equal resistances in parallel
(A) current is same in both (B) large current flows in larger resistor
(C) potential difference across each is same (D) smaller resistance has smaller conductance.
4. Four identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant resistance of the first combination to the
second will be
(A) 1 / 16 times (B) 1 / 4 times (C) 4 times (D) 16 times.
5. Five resistances are connected as shown in figure below. The equivalent resistance between the points A and B will be

(A) 35 ohms (B) 25 ohms (C) 15 ohms (D) 5 ohms.

6. Ohm's law is not applicable to
(A) DC circuits (B) high currents (C) small resistors (D) semi-conductors.
7. For the same peak value, which of the following waves will have the highest rms value
(A) Sine Wave(B) Square Wave(C) Triangular Wave(D) Half wave Rectified Sine Wave
8. Tesla is a unit of
(A) Field Strength(B) Flux Density(C) mmf(D) Magnetic Field Intensity
9. What is the Phase Angle of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
(A) Zero Degrees(B) 90 Degrees(C) 45 Degrees(D) 30 Degrees
10. What is the impedance of an ideal parallel resonant circuit without resistance in either branch?
(A) Zero(B) Inductive(C) Capacitive(D) Infinite
11. Wattmeter deflection in ac circuit is proportional to the
(A) Maximum power in the circuit(B) Instantaneous power in the circuit
(C) Average power in the circuit(D) Magneto static power
12. If the Q Factor of a series circuit is high, then
(A) the pass band is narrow(B) band width is more(C) the pass band is wide(D) band width is less
13. In a parallel circuit, under the resonant condition
(A) Current is maximum and impedance is minimum(B) Both current and impedance are minimum
(C) Current is minimum and impedance is maximum(D) Both current and impedance are maximum
14. Voltage Magnification occurs in
(A) Series resonant circuit(B) Parallel resonant circuit
(C) Non Resonant Circuit(D) Both series and parallel resonant circuit
15. The impedance of a parallel resonance circuit at frequencies above resonance is
(A) Predominantly inductive(B) Predominantly capacitive
(C) Pure resistive(D) Zero
16. The number of branches in a tree is __________ the number of branches in a graph
(A) less than(B) more than(C) equal to(D) none of the above
17. The tie-set schedule gives the relation between
(A) branch currents and link currents(B) branch voltages and link voltages
(C) branch currents and link voltages(D) none of the above
18. If a network contains B branches and n nodes, then number of mesh current equations would be
(A) B-(N-1)(B) N-(B-1)(C) B-N-1(D) B+N-1
19. Superposition theorem is valid only for
(A) linear circuits(B) non-linear circuits(C) both linear and non-linear(D) neither of the two
20. Norton’s equivalent circuit consists of
(A) voltage source in parallel with resistance(B) voltage source in series with resistance
(C) current source in series with resistance(D) current source in parallel with resistance
21. The reciprocity theorem is applicable to
(A) linear networks only(B) bilateral networks only(C) linera and bilateral networka only(D) neither of the two
22. The maximum power transfer theorem can be applied
(A) only to dc circuits(B) only to ac circuits(C) to both ac and dc circuits(D) neither of the two
23. A two-port network is simply a network inside a black box, and the network has only
(A) two terminals(B) two pairs of accessible terminals(C) two pairs of ports(D) none of the above
24. For a two-port bilateral network, the three transmission parameters are given by A=6/5; B=17/5; C=1/5; what is the value of
D?
(A) 1(B) 1/5(C) 7/5(D) 8/5
25. For a two-port network to be reciprocal
(A) Z11=Z22(B) y11=y22(C) h21= -h12(D) AD-BC=0
26. Which parameters are widely used in transmission line theory
(A) Z parameters(B) y parameters(C) ABCD parameters(D) h parameters
27. Transient behavior occurs in any circuit when
(A) there are sudden changes in applied voltage(B) the voltage source is shorted
(C) the circuit is connected or disconnected from the supply(D) all of the above happen
28. Inductor does not allow sudden changes
(A) in currents(B) in voltages(C) in both(D) none of the above
29. The Laplace transform of the integral of function f(t) is
(A) F(s) / s(B) s.F(s) – f(0)(C) F(s) – f(0)(D) f’(0)
30. The final value theorem is used to find the
(A) steady state value of the system output(B) initial value of the system output
(C) transient behavior of the system output(D) none of the above
31. An inductor in the s-domain consists of
(A) Current source in series with an inductor(B) voltage source in parallel with an inductor
(C) voltage source of LIo in series with an inductor(D) Current source Io/s in series with an inductor
32. The circuit is driven by an unit impulse source, then the response equals to
(A) transfer function(B) one (C) zero(D) inverse of transfer function
33. The instantaneous current in an inductor when an impulse voltage Vo applied to the terminals of an inductor
(A) zero(B) unity(C) Vo/L(D) (Vo/L)δ (t)
34. A low pass filter is one which
(A) passes all low frequencies(B) attenuates all high frequencies
(C) passes all frequencies up to cut-off frequency and attenuates all other frequencies
(D) attenuates all frequencies up to cut-off frequency and passes all other frequencies
35. An ideal filter should have
(A) zero attenuation in the pass band(B) infinite attenuation in the pass band
(C) zero attenuation in the attenuation band(D) infinite attenuation in the attenuation band
36. A band elimination filter is one
(A) which attenuates all frequencies less than lower cut –off frequency f1
(B) which attenuates all frequencies greater than upper cut-off frequency f2
(C) frequencies lying between f1 and f2 are attenuated and all other frequencies are passed
(D) frequencies lying between f1 and f2 are passed and all other frequencies are attenuated
37. The voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform. The waveform of the current is
(A) tiangular(B)trapezoidal(C) sinusoidal(D) rectangular
38. A network contains only independent current sources and resistors. If the values of all resistors are doubled, the values of the
node voltages
(A)will become half(B) will remain unchanged(C) will become double(D) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration
and the values of the resistors are known
39.The graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches. The minimum number of equations required for the solution
of the network is
(A) 2(B)3(C) 4(D) 5
40. The impulse response of an R-L Circuit is a
(A)Rising exponential function(B)decaying exponential function(C) step function(D) parabolic function
41. The impulse response of an initially relaxed system to a unit ramp excitation is (t + e-t). Its step response will be
(A) 0.5t2 – e-t(B)1 – e-t(C) –e-t(D) t
42. The number of turns of a coil having a time constant T are doubled. Then the new time constant will be
(A) T(B) 2T(C) 4T(D) 0.5T
43. Double integration of a unit step function would lead to
(A) an impilse (B) a parabola (C) a ramp(D) a doublet
44. A capacitor used for power factor correction in single-phase circuit decreases
(A) the power factor(B) the line current (C) both the line current and the power factor
(D) the line current and increases the power factor
45. In a parallel RLC circuit, if L=4H, C=0.25F, and R=4Ω then the value of Q at resonance will be
(A) 1(B) 10 (C) 20(D) 40
46. The coupling between two magnetically coupled coils is said to be ideal if the coefficient of coupling is
(A) zero (B) 0.5(C) 1(D) 2
47. Two coupled coils with L1 = L2 = 0.6H have a coefficient of coupling of K = 0.8. The turns ratio N1 / N2 is
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1(D) 0.5
48. The mutual inductance between two coupled coils is 10mH. If the turns in one coil are doubled and that in the other are
halved, then th mutual inductance will be
(A) 5mH (B) 10mH (C) 14mH(D) 20mH
49. A delta connection contains three equal impedances of 60 ohms. The impedances of the equivalent star connection will be
(A) 15Ω each(B) 20Ω each(C) 30Ω each(D) 40Ω each
50. Ideal transformer cannot be described by
(A) h Parameters(B) ABCD Parameters(C) G Parameters(D) Z Parameters

EDC Objective Questions for CVV

1.Mass action law is given by
a)np=ni2 b)n.p=ni c)n=ppi d)n/ni
2. an ideal current amplifier should have
a)Ri=0,Ro=0 b) Ri =0,Ro=∞ c) Ri =∞,Ro=0 d) Ri =∞,Ro=∞
3. The darlington pair consists of the following 2 stages
a)CE &CC ,b)bothCE, c)bothCC, d)CE& CB
4. An voltage amplifier should have
a)Ri=0,Ro=0 b)Ri=0,Ro=∞, c)Ri=∞, Ro=0 d)Ri=Ro=∞

5. when VN is the no load voltage &VL is the voltage on load then regulation is given by
a)(VN-VL/VN+VL)*100 b)VN-VL/VN*100 C)VN-VL/VL*100 D)(VN+VL/VN-VL)*100

6. In a CRT,which electrode has the highest positive Voltage is

a) cathode b) Anode c) Heater d) Control grid
7. For is amplifier, the coupling method which gives the highest gain is
a) Transformer couplig b) Resistance coupling c) Impendence coupling d) capacitance coupling
8.which of the following unipolar device?
a)FET b)PN diode c)ZENER diode d)None
9.Pinch of voltage in a FET is
a)The drain voltage that gives zero drain currentb)The VGS that gives unity drain current
c)The VGS(gate to source voltage ) that gives zero drain current.
d) The drain voltage that gives infinite drain current
10. In LED, light is emitted because
a) We make the light falls on LED b)Recombination of charge carriers takes place
c)Diode emits light when heated d)None
11. VI characteristics at room temperature changes at a rate of
a)dv/dt=2.5mv/c b)dv/dt= -2.5mv/cc) dv/dt=2.5v/cd)dv/dt= -2.5v/c
12.The hall coefficient R H is defined by
a)RH=VH.W/B b) RH=LH B/IW C) RH=VH.B/W d) RH=VH.W/BI
`13. An oscillator circuit is mainly
a) dc to ac convertor b)dc to dc convertor c)ac to dc convertor d)ac to ac convertor
14.Barkhausen criteroion for oscillator stability is
a)AB=0 b)AB=1 c)-AB=1 d)A=1/B
15. Bridge rectifiers are preferred because
a) they require small transformer b)less peak inverse voltage c) both d)none

16 .In avalanche multiplication

a)disruption of covalent bond occur by collisionb)direct rupture of bondas
c)both d)none
17. The condition to prevent thermal run away is given by …………………
18. The forward current gain,hfeis defind as …………………………
19. The velocity of an electron is represented by ………………………..

20The peak inverse voltage of a bridge rectifier is

a)Vm b) 2Vm c) Vm/2 d)3 Vm
21.The efficiency of full wave rectifier is
a)81.2% b)40.6% c)45% d)48.2%
22.In negative feed back amplifier the phase diff between an input and a feed back signal is
a)0 deg b)180 deg c)270 deg d)360 deg
23. In zener diode
a)only the p region is heavily doped b)only the n region is heavily doped
c) both p&n regions are heavily doped d) both p&n regions are highly doped
24.The noise figure F of an amplifier is defined as
a)F=10 loge (N0.Ni)b) F=10 loge (S0/Si)C) F=10 loge (S0/N0)/Si/Ni)d) F=10 loge (Si/Ni)/S0/N0
25.The barrier capacitance CT
a) increases with the width of the space charge layer
b) increases with increasing reverse voltage
c) is due to the immobile charges at the junction varying with the applied voltage
d) can be defined as Q/V

26. The unit of electron mobility (u) is

a) m/v – sec b) m2/v – sec c) m2/sec d) v/m
27. MOS FET can be used as a
a) current controlled capacitor b) Voltage controlled capacitor
c)Current controlled inductor d)Voltage controlled inductor
28.The ideal OP-AMP has ------------- characteristics
29.The current gain of a BJT is
a)gm.r0 b)gm/r0 c)gm. r π d)gm/r π
30.In a negative feed back amplifier using voltage series feed back
a)Ri increases and R0 decreases b)Ri,R0 increases
c) Ri decreases R0 increases d)Both are decreases
31.The depletion capacitance, Cj of an abrupt P-N_Junction with constant doping on either side varies with reverse bias, Vr,
as----------------------
32.The Ebers_Moll is applicable to
a)BJT b) NMOS transistors c)UJT d)JFET
33.Match list 1 with list 2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List1 List 2
A.LED 1.Forward bias
B. Zener 2.Reverse Bias
C. Varactor
D.SCR
Codes: A-B-C-D
a) 1-1-2-2
b) 1-2-1-2
c) 1-2-2-1
d) 2-2-1-1

34.Cascading two amplifiers will result in

a)reduction in over all gain and increase in the over all band with
b) reduction in over all gain and reduction in the over all band with
c) increase in over all gain and increase in the over all band with
d) increase in over all gain and reduction in the over all band with
35.Temparature coefficient of resistivity in an intrinsic semi conductor is
a) positive and has a large value b)Negative and has a large value
c)positive and has a small value d)negative and has a small value
36.For a Ptype Semiconductor , Fermi level lies
a)In the middle of the energy gap
b)Close to the bottom of the conduction band
C)Close to the top of the conduction band
d)Close to the top of the valance band
37.Energy gap Eg of the silicon material at 300K is
a)0.785ev b)1.21ev c)0.72ev d)1.1ev
38.The Einstein relation ship is ----------------------
39.The diffusion length for holes Lp is given by -------------------
40.A BJT is said to be operating in the saturation region if
a)Both the junctions are reverse biased
b)Base-Emitter junction is reverse biased and Base_Collector junction is Forward biased
c)Base-Emitter junction is Forward biased and Base_Collector junction is recverse biased
d) Both the junctions are forward biased
41.The Break down voltage of a transistor with its base open is BVceo and that with emiteer open is BVcbo then
a) BVceo= BVcbo b) BVceo> BVcbo
c) BVceo<BVcbo d)none
42.Zener diode works on the principle of
a)Tunneling of charge carriers across the junction b)Thermoionic emission
c) Diffusion of charge carriers across the junction d)Hopping of charge carriers across the junction
43.the phse shift introduced by an each RC network of an RC phase shift oscillator is
a)60 degrees b)90 degrees c)180 degrees d)360 degrees
44.The essential conditions for sustained oscillations are--------------------------
45.the di/dt effect in an SCR leads to the formation of
a)Local hot spots b)Conduction zone c)large spreading zone d)None.
46.The minimum value of current required to maintain conduction in an SCR is called its -------------------
a)Commutation b)holding c)gate trigger d)break over
47.The collector current for the CE circuit is given by Ic=βIb+(1+β)Ico.The three variables β,Ib and Ico
a)Increases with rise in temperature b)Increases with falling in temperature
c)decreases with rise in temperatured)decreases with fall in temperature
48.The ripple factor of an inductor filter is -----------------------
49.the early effect in a BJT is caused by
a)Fast turn on b)Fast turn off c)Large collector-Base reverse bias d)Large Emitter-Base forward bias
50.Negative feed back in an amplifier
a)reduces gain b)increases frequency and phase distortion c)reduces band width d)increases noise

AC Objective Questions for CVV

1. The Signal to Noise of Fm at modulation index = 5 is _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ factor of S/N of AM

a. 57 b. 70 c. 75 d. 81
2. S/N ratio improvement is proportional to the square of the bandwidth of transmission in
a. FM b. Conventional AM c. AM-DSB-SC d. AM-SSB-SC
3. The Signal to Noise ratio of DSB-SC Scheme is
a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. Zero
4. Which of the following demodulation methods exhibit threshold effect
a. Synchronous demodulation of AM b. Envelope detection of AM
c. Square law detector d. Balanced demodulator
5. Noise performance of conventional AM, when compared with that of suppressed carrier systems is
a. Superior b. Inferior c. Same d. Can’t be compared
6. The Signal to Noise ratio of SSB-SC scheme is
a.3 b. 2 c1 d. zero
7. The Signal to Noise ratio of VSB-SC scheme is
a.3 b.2 c.1 d. zero
8. Noise performance of AM-DSB-SC signal is same as that of AM-SSB-SC system due to
a. More i/p signal power b. More bandwidth c. less i/p signal power d. Less Noise power
9. The Signal to Noise ratio of FM demodulator is
a.3 Kf2 b.2 Kf2 c.Kf2
10. The S /N ratio of FM to S/N ratio of AM is
a. v3 modulation index of FM b.modulation index of FM / v3 c.v3 modulation index of AM 1
11. The transition point between NBFM and WBFM is for the value of modulation index
a.0.5 b.0.6 c.0.4 d.0.7
12. The pre-emphasis, de-emphasis arrangement in FM results in
a. Increase of BW b. Decrease of BW c. No effect of BW d. depends on frequency
13. In FM, the power spectral density of the O/P noise, varies with frequency as
a. Parabola b. Hyperbola c.Uniform d. circle
14. The SNR of PM over AM is _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ of BW of Transmission
a. Same b. double c. square d. quadruple
15. Pre-emphasis in FM is used at
 a. Receiving end b. Transmitting end c. In the Channel d. Before Demodulation
16. De-emphasis circuit resembles a
a. LPF b. HPF c. BPF d. BEF
17.A Buffer amplifier is placed in between
b. Two AF Amplifiers b. Crystal oscillator and harmonic generator c. Two RF amplifiers Modulated and
modulating amplifier
18.Harmonic generator is operated as a _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ amplifier
a. C b. A c. AB d. B
19. Broadcast transmitters are designed for transmitting
a. Coded signal b. Telephone signal c. Speech or music d. Continuous carrier
20. Long waves transmitter works in the frequency range
a. 300 KHz b.1MHz c.20 MHZ d.60 MHz
21. A Medium waves transmitter works in the frequency range
a. 2.5 to 7.5 MHz b.500 KHz to 1600 KHz c.7.5 to 30 MHz d.100 to 300 KHz
22. One of the following is used in radio telephone transmitters
a. Transistor b. Vacuum Tube c. VODAS d. FET
23. A Collector modulated transmitter has supply voltage of 12 Volts and collector current of 1 A. The modulated power
for 100 % modulation is
a.6W b.12 W c.18W d.24W
24. While switching on the transmitter anode voltages should not be applied with out
a. Staff on duty b. Charging feeder lines c. switching on the cooling system
d. signal from studio
25. The component to produce AM at RF frequencies is
a. Varactor b. Thermistor c. PIN diode d. Transistor
26. Boosting high frequency components in modulating signal is called
a. Echo suppressing b. Attenuating c. Tone forrection d. preemphasis
27. A device that reduces the gain of A. F. amplifier when the input exceeds predetermined value is called
a. Peak clipper b. Detector c. echo suppressor d. Discriminator
28. VHF transmitters use the follow the system of cooling
a. Forced air cooling b. water cooling c. Natural cooling d. Heat signals will be provided
29. A class C amplifier has supply voltage of 12 V and collector current of 1A. Its efficiency is 80 %. The RF output
power is
a.9.6W b.12W c.15W d.24W
30. The final carrier frequency of an amplitude modulated transmitter is obtained by the use of
a. Crystal Oscillator b. L C Oscillator c. Harmonic generators d. Frequency dividers
31. The frequency drift allowed in medium AM transmitters
a. 10 Hz b.15Hz c.1Hz d.100
32. The frequency tolerance of FM broadcast stations is
a.20Hz b.200Hz c.2000Hz d.20000Hz
33. A push pull power amplifier that is used for carrier suppression is called
a. Harmonic generator b. balanced modulator c. Frequency multiplier d. Frequency mixer
34. The disadvantage of low level modulation is
a. A.F. power required is low b. Class A.F. amplifiers can be used
c .Class B.R.F. amplifiers are to be used after modulation d. The system costs more
35. The range of F.M. transmitter working in the UHF range is
a. Small b. large c. very large d. line of sight distance
36. A PLL FM generator has Kf = 100 KHz/V and peak deviation of 75 KHz. The RMS modulating voltage required is
around
a.0.25V b.0.5V c.0.75V d.1.3V
37. The maximum deviation used in police FM radio is
a.3KHz b.5KHz c.15KHz d.20KHz
38. An RF amplifier is available at 40 MHz. To which of the following it can be employed
a. AM Broadcast b. FM broadcast c. UHF TV broadcast d. Radar
39. The ability of a receiver to respond to the weakest signal is called
a. Sensitivity b. selectivity c. fidelity d. Signal handling ability
40. The pre distorter in Armstrong F.M generation is nothing but
a. Differentiator b. Integrator c. Attenuator d. Rectifier
41. Straight receiver with only crystal detector and head phone will work
a. Any where b.10 Km from Tx c. areas of local Tx d.50 Km from
42. Good Adjacent channel selectivity can be obtained by the use of
a. High IF b. TRF amplifiers c. RF amplifiers d. Low I
43. All commercial receivers employ IF between
a. 200 to 300 KHz b.455 to 465 KHz c.740 to 840 KHz d.12 to 13 KH
44. One of the following is a special feature of communication receiver
a. Bandwidth b. on-off switch c. AFC d. volume control
45. The output from radio receiver varies abruptly many times with out notice. This is called
a. Hum b. Motor boating c. fading d. noise

PDC Objective Questions for CVV

1. The following circuit changes the DC level of input signal
a)clipper b)clamper c)both d)none
2. Which of the following known as slicer
a)clamper b)clipper c)bistable multi d)none
3. The emitter coupled clipper is
a) one level clipper b)two level clipper c)three level clipper d)four level clipper
4. In an ideal sampling gate during transmission
a)output same as input b)output inverse of input c)output half of input d)none of above

5.Synchronization with symmetrical signals is possible

a)Tp<To b)Tp>To c)Tp=To d)none
6.UJT is off when
a)Ve<Vp b)Ve>Vp c)Ve=Vp d)Ve>=Vp
7.A linearly varying current can be generated by applying a constant voltage across
a)resistor b)inductor c)capacitor d)none
8.The deviation from linearity is expressed as
a)sweep error b)transmission error c)displacement error d)all above
9.With increasing synch signal amplitude range of synchronization
a)increases b)decreases c)no effect d)remains same
10.The hfe of transistor ------ with temperature
a)increases b)decreases c)no effect d)remains same
11.DC restorer is
a)clipper b)clamper c)both d)none
12.The process of applying an external signal to induce transition from one state to another is
a)peaking b)triggering c)transition d)none
13.The smallest allowable interval between triggers in bistable multi is
 a)resolution time b)resolving time c)transition time d)transmission time
14.Irrespective of input signal DC level output signal DC level is ---- for HPF
a)high b)zero c)positive d)negative
15.For positive clamper output signal DC value is
a)high b)zero c)positive d)negative
16.Free running multi is
a)bistable multi b)astable multi c)monostable multi d)none
17.Bistable multi is called
a)flip flop b)DC restorer c)slicer d)none
18.In CE amplifier if transistor is in ON state output is
a)Vcc b)zero c)very high d)none
19.Relation between rise time and time constant
a)proportional b)inversely proportional c)equal d)no relation
20.HPF acts as differentiator when
a)RC>>T b)RC<<T c)RC=T d)none
21.The relation between rise time and 3db frequency
a)proportional b)inversely proportional c)equal d)no relation
22.In attenuator perfect compensation occurs when
a)R1C1=R2C2 b) R1C1>R2C2 c) R1C1<R2C2 d)none
23.The deviation from linearity is expressed in
a)sweep error b)transmission error c)displacment error d)all above
24. Attenuator application is
a)HPF b)LPF c)CRO probe d)Amplifier
25.Capacitor acts as ----- for sudden change in voltage
a)open circuit b)short circuit c)no reaction d)none
26.In LPF output signal DC value is
a)zero b)same as input signal c)high d)none

27.The series capacitor in RC HPF is called ------

28.Counting circuits are examples of synchronization with------- .
29.In Transistor clipping circuit,Transistor operates in -------- regions.
30.A threshold circuit means
a)series diode noise clillper b)slicing circuit c)clipping circuit with more than two diodes
d)clipping circuit with a capacitor across output terminals
31.The need for speedup capacitors is due to the
a)regenerative feedback b)presence of an un compensated attenuators at bases
c)uncertainty of the initial state d)simultaneous conduction of the two transistors
32.Bistable multi employs
a)regenerative feedback b)degenerative feedback c)both d)it operates in open loop
33.When a sin wave is transmitted through a linear wave shaping circuit the following feature
does not change
a)Timeconstant b)amplitude c)phase d)frequeny
34.clamping circuit theorem is ----------
35.In a semiconductor diode ------------ time is negligible
36.Zener break down is caused by
a)thermally generated minority carriers b)large external electric field
c)a strong electric field inside the semiconductor d)kinetic energy of minority carriers
37.Which device can be treated as self activated switch
a)diode b)transistor c)FET d)vaccumtube
38.Which device is not a controlled switch
a)diode b)BJT c)FET d)vaccumtube
39.A transistor swtch with inductive load functions more like a
a)Integrator b)differentiator c)wide band amplifier d)narrow band amplifier
40.The gain of a transistor switch is
a)unity b)not defined c)depends on location of operating point d)>1
41.The phase angle in a RC HPF at its lower cutoff frequency f1 is
a)zero b)90 deg c)45 deg d)180 deg
42.The phase angle in a LPF is
a)always lagging b)always leading c)always out of phase d)in the same phase
43.When RC>>T LPF acts ------------
44.When RC<<T HPF acts ------------
45.The gain of the RC HPF is always
a)around 1.414 b)lies in the range 0.707 and 1.414 c)around 0.707 d)<1
46.In an ideal attenuator the out put voltage
a)depends on freq b)remains constant
c)does not depend on freq d)depends on time constant
47.In an RLC circuit when K=1 the circuit is
a)over damped b)critically damped
c)under damped d)undamped
48.In the break region of a clipper a diode behaves as a
a)fully on b)it is difficult to decide c)fully off d)a or c

49.IGFET is ------------
50.Counters ,multiplexers ,comparators are related to --------

SS Objective Questions for CVV

I Choose the correct alternative:

1) Which of the following responses of an LTI system doesn’t depend on initial conditions ?[ ]
a) natural response b) free response c) forced response d) total response
2) Which of the following is a casual system ? [ ]
a) y(t)=x(t^2) b) y(t)=x(t)^2 c) y(t)=x(-t) d) y(t)=x(2t)
3) Fourier transform of signum function x(t)=sgn(t) is ? [ ]
a) 2/w b) 2/(jw) c) 2/((jw)^2) d) (-2)/(jw)
4) The unit step u(t) can be expressed as [ ]
a) 1+sgn(t) b) 2+sgn(t) c) (1/2)+(1/2)*sgn(t) d) 2*sgn(t)
5) Fourier transform of Gaussian pulse will be [ ]
a) another Gaussian pulse b) Squared sinc pulse c) Sinc pulse d) Impulse train
6) If a signal x(t) is differentiated ‘m’ times to produce an impulse, then the fourier coefficient will be proportional to [ ]
a)n^m b) 1/(n^(m-1)) c) n^(m-1) d) 1/(n^m)
7) The differentiation of a unit step signal is ? [ ]
a) ramp signal b)impulse signal c)exponential signal d)parabolic signal
8) Which of the following is a stable system ? [ ]
a) y(t)=t*x(t) b) y(t)=t^2*x(t) c) y(t)=(e^t)*x(t) d) y(t)=(e^(-t))*x(t)
9) If the function x(t) has odd and half wave symmetry, then the fourier series will have only[ ]
a) Odd harmonics of sine terms b) Even harmonics of cosine terms
c) Even harmonics of sine terms d) Odd harmonics of cosine terms
10) The fourier transform of x(t)=e^(7t)*u(-t) is [ ]
a) 1/(7+jw) b) 7/(1+jw) c) 7/(1-jw) d) 1/(7-jw)
11) .dt is [ ]
a) Step function b)Ramp unction c)Impulse function d)None of the above
12) The Nyquist rate of sinc(100pt) is [ ]
a)200Hz b)300Hz c)100Hz d)50 Hz
13) The ROC can not contain any [ ]
a)circles b)sequence c)zeros d)poles
14) The Z transform of an u(n) is [ ]
a) a b) az/(z-a)2 c) az d) z
15) Laplace transform of e-at sin.0t u(t) is [ ]
a).0/[(s+a)2+.02] b)0 c)1/2s d)1/s
16) Average power of a signal can be computed form [ ]
a)Auto correlation b) Energy spectral density c)Cross correlation d) None
17) Convolution is applicable for [ ]
a)Non linear systems only b) Linear systems only
c)Both non linear and linear systems d)None of the above

18) f(t)d(t-1) is equal to [ ]

a)f(0) b)f(1) c)f(t) d)None
19) The area enclosed by the power spectral density curve of a signal is given by [ ]
a)Rxx(0) b) Rxx(8) c) Rxx(t) d)none
20) Aliasing occurs due to the following [ ]
a)fs=2fm b)fs<2fm c)fs>2fm d)Ts=2fm
21) The sum of two periodic signals will also be periodic if the ratio of their fundamental periods is
a_____number
22) The fourier transform of impulse will be equal to____________
23) If X(t) is real and odd then X(jw) will be___________
24) When the signal exhibits anti symmetry with respect to t=0 it is called ________signal
25) When the sign of t is changed in x(t) the resultant signal is called___________
26) In fourier series representation of a signal,if w is the fundamental frequency then nw are
called__________frequencies
27) Fourier series is very useful for frequency domain analysis of__________signals
28) The plot of magnitude of Cn with respect to “n” is called___________
29) For a signal x(t) the condition to be satisfied for half wave symmetry is _________
30) For a signal X(t) the condition to be satisfied for quarter wave symmetry is __________and
_______
31) The impulse response function ,h(t) of a zero order hold circuit ___________ pulse.
32) The original signal x(t) can ideally be constructed from xp(t) using ideal low pass filter g(t)
mathematically ____________
33) Final value of X(s)=2222++ss is ___________
34) Laplace transform of cos.o(t) u(t)= ____________
35) The Z transform of u(k) is ____________
36) Z transform can be calculated for _____________ systems.
37) The signal v(t)=cos5.t+0.5cos10.t is sampled. The interval between samples is __________
38) In natural sampling ____________ is used as sampling signal .
39) a base band signal band limited to 5khz is to be reconstructed from its samples. The minimum pass
bandwidth of the reconstruction filter should be _____________
40) The Z transform of kak is _______________

CS Objective Questions for CVV

1. Which of the following is an open loop control system ?
(a) Meta dyne ( b ) Stroboscope ( c ) Field controlled d.c motor ( d ) Wardle nard control
2. In a feed back amplifier, the bandwidth
( a) Decrease by the same amount as the gain increase ( b ) increases by the same amount as the gain decrease ( c ) Remain
sun effected ( d ) Decrease by the same amount as the gain decrease
3. The transfer function of the system whose input are related by the fol lowing differential equation is given by d2y/dt2 +
3dy /d t + 2y = + d x/ d t
( a) ( s + 2) / (s 2 + 3s + 2 ) ( b ) 1 /( s 2 + 3s + 2 )
( c ) s / ( s 2 + 3s + 2 ) ( d ) ( s + 1) / (s 2 + 3s + 2 )
4. A unity feed back system has open - loop transfer function G ( s ) = 1 /( 1 +s ) . The pole of t h e closed loop system is located
on the real axis in the s - plane at
( a) - 2 ( b ) 2 ( c ) - 1 ( d ) - 5
5. T he transfer function is ( 1 +0 . 5 s ) /( 1+ s ) . It represents a
( a) proportion a l controller ( b ) lag- lead network ( c ) lead network ( d ) lag network
6. A node with only outgoing branches
( a) node ( b ) output nod e ( c ) input nod e ( d ) branch node
7. The damping ratio of characteristic equations 2 + 2 s +8 = 0 is
( a) 0 . 45 3 ( b ) 1 . 41 4 ( c ) 0 . 353 ( d ) 0 . 5
8.T he error signal produced in a control system is Qr =a + b t. if only proportional
action is used , the out put of the controller will be
( a) K ( a +b t ) ( b ) - / ( a+ b t ) ( c ) - K . b ( d ) - K (a + b t)
9. The break away poi nt s of the root locus occur at
( a) ( +) ve imaginary axis ( b ) real axi s ( c ) ( - ) ve imaginary axis ( d ) multiple
roots of characteristic equation
10. The band width of a control system can be increased by
( a) phase lead compensator ( b ) phase lag - lead compensator ( c ) phase oscillators ( d ) phase lag compensator
11.The laplace trans form of unit step function and ramp functions respectively are
( a) 1 /s 3 , 1 / s ( b ) 1 /s , 1/ s 2 ( c ) 1 /s , 1/ s 3 ( d ) 1 /s 2 , 1 / s
12.Two blocks having respective functions as G1 and G2 are connected in series cascade . Their resultant will be
( a) G 1 + G 2 ( b ) G 1 /G 2 ( c ) G 1 G 2 ( d ) G 2 /G 1
13 . A good control system has all the following features except
( a) good accuracy ( b ) good stability ( c ) sufficient power handling capacity ( d ) slow response
4. The type - 0 system has steady state error for unit step function equal to
( a) 1 /K a ( b ) 1 /K p ( c ) 1 /( 1 +K p ) ( d ) 1 /K v
1 5. the number of operational amplifier required to design an electric PID - controller is
( a) 4 ( b ) 1 ( c ) 3 ( d ) 2
1 6. G ( s ) H ( s ) = K /s (s +1 ) (s +2 ) (s +3 ) Then , the angle of asymptotes
ith real axis respectively are
( a) 3 4 0 , 4 5 0 ( b ) 4 5 0 , 1 35 0 , 2 25 0 ( c ) 4 5 0 , 1 35 0 , 2 25 0 , 3 1 5 0 ( d ) 4 5 0 , 1 35 0
17.the steady state error of a control system may be minimized by
a)Increasing the inertia of the system b) decreasing the inertia of the system
c)decreasing the torque of servomotor d)none
18.The transfer function of a system is 1-jὼt/ 1+jὼt the phase shift at ὼ=0 and ὼ=infinity will be
a)0 and 180 degrees b)0 and -90 degrees c)90 and 180 degrees d)none
19.which of the following system is stable
a)As2+Bs+c=0 b)As4+Bs2+Cs+D=0 c)-As2+BS-c=0 d)As2-Bs-c=0
20.The control components in a control system ideally draw----------------

21.The number of times the point A&B are encircled is

a)1,1 b)1,2 c)2,1 d)2,2

22. The system shown in the figure is

a)Stable b)Conditionally stable c)unstable d)None
23.In the root locus analysis the angle between adjacent asymptotes is
a)360/n+m b)360/n-m c)180/N+m d)180/n-m
24.The peak overshoot in a control system is a function of ------------------------
25.The pole factor 1/1+jwt has a slope of
a)-20dB/decade b)+20dB/decade c)6dB/decade d)-1dB/decade
26.Gain crossover frequency is the one at which |G(jὼ)H(jὼ)| is
A)<1 b)equal to 1 c)equal to -1 d)>-1
27.The form of the transfer used in the Bode plot
a)G(jὼ) b)G(s) c) a or b d)none
28.What will happen if the value of k(gain of the system) is zero
a)roots move away from the poles b)The roots coincide with the poles
c)The roots move away from the zero d)None
29.The transfer function of system is 5(1+0.1s)/(1+0.5s) the corner frequencies will be
a) 5&2 b)-0.2 & 0.5 c) 10 &2 d)0.1 &5
30.The open loop transfer function feedback control system is g(s)=K/s(s+1)(s+5)
The range of k for stable operation
a)0 to 30 b) 0 to 100 c)-30 to 30 d)-100 to 100
31.The transfer function of the signal flow graph shown below is given by

a)G(s)/1+g(s)H(s) b)unity c)G(s)/1-G(s)H(s) d)G(s)H(s)/1-G(s)H(s)

32.For stable feedback system the phase margin
a)Is always positive b)Is always negative c)May be positive or negative d)none
33.The system shown in fig is
a)stable b)unstable c)Conditionally stable d)oscillatory
34.Damping in a control system is a function if
a)gain b)√Gain c)1/√Gain d)1/Gain

35.In type ‘1’ system the steady state acceleration error is

a)zero b)infinite c)1 d)none
36.
Feed back control system show in figure ha k1 and k2 constants . The loop transfer function is
A)k1k2/s+p b)k1/k2(s+p) c)k2/k1(s+p) d)s+p/k1+k2
37.which of the following is not in frequency domain?
a)Nyquist criterion b)Bode plot c)Root locus plot d)All the above
-2t
38.The Laplace transform of e is
a)1/2s b)2/s c)2/s+1 d)1/s+2
39.A system having transfer function 16k/s3+2s2+16s for a unit step input applied will process the overshoot
a)40% b)20% c)10% d)60%
40.Frequency response is obtained directly from the ------------------function
41.The open loop transfer function of a system is H(s)G(s)=10/s(s+2)(s+5)
The system is of type
a)N=0 b)N=1 c)N=2 d)N=3
42.From the above equation the value of a ramp constant is
a)0.5 b)1.0 c)1.5 d)2.0
43.For |1-GH|>1 the system is -------------than the forward gain.
44.Intersection of root locus branches with the imaginary axis may be determined by the use of
a)Routh criterion b)Nyquist criterion
c)Polar plot d)None
45.The representation of c(s)/r(s)=a0/b0 (s+z1)/(s+p1) in static diagram will be-------------
46.The resonant peak is given by----------------
47.The following sequence is correct of a three term controller
a)DIP controller b)IDP Controller
C)PDI controller d)PID as well as PDI controller
48.Nyquist plot can be completely mapped on to
a)Root locus b)polar plot c)Routh Hurwitz d)Bode plot
49. The position and velocity errors of a type 2 system are
( a) Zero , constant ( b )constant , constant
( c )constant , infinity ( d ) Zero , zero
50.the root loci of system has four separate loci . The system can have
a)four poles and four zeros ( b ) two poles and two zeros ( c ) four poles or four zeros ( d ) five poles and four zeros

AWP Objective Questions for CVV

1. The relative permittivity of ionosphere is
(A) More than 1 (B) Equal to 1 (C) Equal to infinity (D) Less than 1
2. The skin depth of an ideal conductor is
(A) Infinity (B) Zero (C) Finite (D) None
3. If the dipole is tilted forward then the band with becomes
(A) Zero (B) One (C) Infinity (D) None
4. Gain of isotropic radiator is --------
(A) Infinity (B)<1 (C)>1 (D) 1
5. The induction field of short current element varies as
(A) 1/R^2 (B) 1/R (C) 1/R^3 (D) 1/R^4
6. Radar antenna is usually
(A) Dipole (B)Parabolic Dishes (C)Helical antenna (D) Conical
7. The gain of current element is
(A) 3db (B) 0db (C) 1.67db (D) 1.761db
8. Circular polarization is observed in
(A) Yagi-uda (B) Parabolic (C) Helical (D) Dipole
9. A horn antenna is used at
(A)Very low frequencies (B) Medium frequency (C) Ultra high frequency (D) Millimeter wave frequency
10. In an end fire array with antenna space of λ/2 the elements are fed
(A) In Phase (B) 90 degrees out of phase
(C) 180 degrees out of phase (D) 60 degrees of phase
11. The radiation resistance is related to power radiated and peak value of the current as
(A) Rr=2Wt/I2m ( B) Rr=Wt/Im (C) Rr=Wt/I2m (D) Rr=2Wt/Im
12. The beam width of an ideal parabolic antenna is
(A) Decreases with increases in dish diameter
(B) Increases with increases in dish diameter
(C) Decreases with decreases in dish diameter
(D) None
13. Which of the following antenna is best exited by a wave guide
(A)Helical (B)Discone (C)Horn (D)By conical
14. The electric field in far zone of an antenna
(A) Varies inversely proportional to radial distance
(B) Varies inversely proportional to square of radial distance
(C) varies directly proportional to radial distance
(D)None
15. Radiation resistance of quarter wave monopoly is
(A) 36.5 ohms (B) 73 ohms (C) 392 ohms (D) None
16. The ratio of maximum radiation intensity to the average radiation intensity is
(A) Gain (B) Directivity (C) Power gain (D) Effective area
17. MUF and Skip distance occur for
(A) Ground wave propagation (B) Troposphere propagation
(C) Ionosphere propagation (D) None
18 The vertical dipole antenna gives omni directional behavior in
(A)Vertical plane (B)Horizontal plane (C)Both (D) None
19. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its
(A)Broad band width (B)Good front to back ratio (C)Circular polarization (D) None
20. In Practice the length of center fed half wave dipole is
(A) Slightly more than a half wave length (B) Slightly less than a half wave length
(C) Exactly equal to half wave length (D) Nearly equal two half wave lengths
21. The D layer extends approximately from
(A) 0 to 50 km (B) 20 to 50 km (C) 50 to 90 km (D) 90 to 110 km
22. The polar diagram of a rectangular loop aerial is
a) Limacon b) Cardiod c) Figure of eight d) None
23. Broadcasting antennas are generally
a) omni-directional type b) Vertical C) horizontal d) None
24. Which antenna is frequency independent antenna
a) Folded dipole B) Log periodic antenna c) yagi-uda d) None
25. The simplest parasitic array consists of
A) 4 elements b) 3 elements c) Single elements d) None
26. Band width of an antenna is
a) Directly proportional to Q b) Inversely proportional to Q
c) Directly proportional to f d) Inversely proportional to f
27. TV broadcast generally uses
A) LOS propagation b) Ionosphere propagation c) Ground wave propagation d) None
28. Critical frequency of a layer is given by
A).fc=81Nm b) Fc=81N2m c) Fc=9sqrt (Nm) d) Fc=1/T
29. Standing waves doesn’t exist in
a) Resonant antenna b) long wire c) Non-resonant antenna d) all the above
30. Flaring is done only in one direction in
a) Sectorial horn b) Pyramidal horn c) Conical horn d) None
31. Polarization of inclined dipole is-----
A) Linear b) Elliptical c) Non-linear d) None
32. Antenna radiation efficiency is high if its length is
A) λ/2 b) λ c) 3λ/2 D) Infinity
33. The numerical value of the directive gain lie between
A) 0 and 1b) 0 and infinity C) 1 and infinity D) Infinity and 0
34. Radiation efficiency factor in G=KD lies between the values
A) 0 and 1 b) 0 and infinity C) 1 and infinity D) Infinity and 0
35 directivity lies between the values
A) 0 and 1 b) 0 and infinity C) 1 and infinity D) Infinity and 0
36. Units for directivity is
a) Dimensionless b) Ω/m c) Steriadians D) Radians
37 if zero mutual coupling exists between the antennas then the front-to-back ratio will be
A) Infinity b) 0 C) 1 d) None
38) Narrower the solid angle
a) Higher the directivity b) Lower the directivity c) Independent of the directivity d) none
39. Free space loss factor is given by
a) (λ/4ΠR) 2 b) (4 ΠR/ λ) 2 c) λ/4ΠR d) 4 ΠR/ λ
40.FRISS TRANSMISSION formula is given by -------------------
41. The normalized radiated power of a dipole is----------------
42. For an ideal antenna the radiation resistance is -----------------
43. The length of λ/2 antenna is calculated from the formula ----------------------\
44. The power gain of an optimum horn antenna approximately with a square aperture of 10 λ on a side is ------------------
45. The diameter of a paraboloidal reflector antenna required to produce a Nulls beam width of 10 degrees at 3GHz is
----------------------------------
46. Broad side array has maximum radiation-----------------to the line of array
47. The length of resonant antenna is --------------------------
48. Helical antenna can be operated in --------------- modes
49. In normal mode in case of helical antenna if axial ratio is equal to 1 then the elliptical polarization becomes----------------
polarization
50. Effective area of dipole is---------------

MPI Objective Questions for CVV

__________________________________________________________________________________________

01. The 8085 is a _____ bit microprocessor

( a ) 4 bit( b ) 8 bit( c ) 32 bit( d ) 16 bit
02. If EA is used to represent Effective address then what addressing mode does EA=[ 2000] represents ____________
03. Which of these is external to the program code .
( a ) Procedure( b ) Macro( c ) Library function( d ) Sub Routine
04. Given the program shown below, What is the expression evaluated by this program?
P db 5
Q db 6
R db 7
S db 6
MOV AL ,[P]
MOV BL, [Q]
ADD AL, BL
MUL AL
ADD AL , R
MOV CL, S
DIV CL

( a ) (P+Q+R)/ s( b ) ((P+Q)2+R/S( c ) (P+(Q+R)2)/S( d ) ((P+Q)2+R)/S

05. Which of these IC‘s is a 3 to 8 decoder used for decoding memory addresses
( a ) 74LS245/8286 ( b ) 8284A ( c ) 74LS138 ( d ) 74LS373
06. One of these is not the segment offset form of the absolute address 00417
( a ) 0040:0017( b ) 0000:0417( c ) 0041:0007( d ) 0417:0000
07. The depth of the instruction pipeline is ______
08 . If the effective address exceeds 65536 then the addressing mode is ________
09. Which of these signals indicates that an Interrupt Request is being acknowledge
( a ) INTRA( b ) HLDA( c ) M/IO( d ) DEN
10. The IC which provides Clock, Ready & Reset signals to the 8086 is _____
11. String operations autoincrement or decrement is indicated by
( a ) TF( b ) DF( c ) IF( d ) AC
12 . Which of the following is maskable?
( a ) NMI( b ) RESET( c ) Interrupt request( d ) HOLD
13. Which of these Directives will fix the address of memory location from where the assembling should start
( a ) START( b ) ORG( c ) LABEL( d ) LENGTH
14 . Mode 1 of 8255 is used for which of these I/O methods
( a ) Bi-Directional Handshake( b ) DMA I/O( c ) Strobed or Hand Shake mode( d ) Simple Input/Output
15 . The size of the vector interrupt table is _______
( a ) 256 bytes( b ) 65536 bytes( c ) 1024 bytes( d ) 1024 kbytes
16. Which of these values in AH perform input from keyboard ?
( a ) 02( b ) 09( c ) 17( d ) 01
17. The 8051 is a
( a ) 32 bit micro controller( b ) 24 bit micro controller( c ) 16 bit micro controller( d ) 8 bit micro controller
18. USB stands for ______________
19. The size of the ROM in 8051 is _____
20. The number of ports 8255 PPI has is
( a ) 1( b ) 3( c ) 2( d ) 4
21. Which of these is called when an NMI occurs?
( a ) INT3( b ) INT2( c ) INT0( d ) INT1
22. The DOS function AH=9 INT2 1H displays a message till which one of this character is reached
( a ) $( b ) ×( c ) #( d ) *
23. The USART used as Serial Communication controller is
( a ) 8259( b ) 8257( c ) 8250( d ) 8251
24. USART stands for which of the following ?
( a ) Unidirectional Synchronous Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter
( b ) Universal Synchronous Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter
( c ) Unidirectional Sequential Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter
( d ) Universal Serial Addressed Receiver Transmitter
25. Which one of these serial data transmission standards is single ended and does not use low impedance drivers?
( a ) RS449( b ) RS232C( c ) RS423A( d ) RS422A
26 . Which of these signals has the highest priority?
( a ) IRQ( b ) Hold( c ) NMI( d ) Reset
27 . What is the number of Software interrupts available in the Interrupt Vector Table?
( a ) 4096( b ) 256( c ) 1024( d ) 512
28 . DOS is an abbreviation which stands for ______________
29. The device from which data originates or terminates is called
( a ) DSR( b ) DTR( c ) DTE( d ) DCE
30. Which of these is called for doing Single Stepping?
( a ) INT0( b ) INT2( c ) INT3( d ) INT1
31. Which of these is called when a Divide Error occurs?
( a ) INT3( b ) INT1( c ) INT2( d ) INT0
32 . DOS Interrupts reside in the?
( a ) ROM( b ) Floppy Disk( c ) Hard Disk( d ) RAM
33. Which of these signals is used for enabling the external ROM?
( a ) ALE( b ) RESET( c ) EA( d ) PSEN
34. Which of these key switches is non mechanical contact type ?
( a ) MEMBRANE KEY SWITCHES( b ) HALL EFFECT KEY SWITCHES
( c ) MECHANICAL KEY SWITCHES( d ) MAGNETIC REED KEY SWITCHES
35. In the single character display using Interrupt 21H,DL is the register which contains the character to display. If DL contains 61
H which of these characters is displayed?
( a ) B( b ) a( c ) b( d ) A
36. Serial data is received by the DTE from the DCE through which one of these signals?
( a ) RTS( b ) CD( c ) CTS( d ) RxD
37. The Serial Interrupt is enabled by which of these bits?
( a ) ES( b ) EA( c ) ET( d ) EX
38. When an interrupt service is over, what is the instruction which makes 8086 continue executing the program it was executing
before the Interrupt occurred
( a ) JMP( b ) ESC( c ) IRET( d ) RET
39. What is the offset address of INT 20H in the vector interrupt table?
( a ) 0050D( b ) 0050H( c ) 0080D( d ) 0080H
40. Which of these is called Break Point Interrupt?
( a ) INT2( b ) INT1( c ) INT0( d ) INT3
41. Communications which take place in either direction between two systems, but can only occur in one direction at a time is
known as ___________
42. The size of the internal data RAM in 8051 is
( a ) 128 bytes( b ) 256 bytes( c ) 128 kbytes( d ) 1 K bytes
43. In the single character display using Interrupt 21H, DL is the register which contains the character to display. If DL contains
41H which of these characters is displayed?
( a ) A( b ) B( c ) b( d ) a
44. Which of these modes the timer is a 16 bit timer?
( a ) Mode 3( b ) Mode 0( c ) Mode 2( d ) Mode 1
45. Which one of the following is the 8051 architecture based upon ?
(a) Princeto Architecture(b) Von Neumann Architecture(c) Harvard Architecture(d) Param Architecture
46. Which one of these serial data transmission standards is single ended and does not use low impedance drivers?
(a) RS232C(b) RS423A(c) RS422A(d) RS449
47. The serial data transmission standards which uses differential Rx & Tx signals is which one of the following?
(a) RS232C (b) RS423A (c) RS422A (d) RS449

48. Which of these is an improvement on RS232C by using low impedance drivers ?

a. RS232Cb. RS423Ac. RS422Ad. RS449

49. A 37 pin connector is used by one of the following serial data transmission standards. Which one is it?
a. RS232Cb. RS423Ac. RS422Ad. RS449
50. The 8051 microcontroller does not have one of the following as its built in peripheral ?
a. Timersb. Countersc. DMA controllerd. UART

LINEAR IC APPLICATIONS

I Choose the correct alternative:

1. The simplest level shifter is [ ]
A) a Darlington circuit B) an emitter follower with a voltage divider
C) a current mirror D) a voltage divider
2. 741 Op amp is a chip of type _________. [ ]
A) industrial B) military C) commercial D) All
3. Frequency response of differentiator is same as that of [ ]
A) high pass filter B) low pass filter C) band pass filter D) None
4. The input Offset voltage must be [ ]
A) infinite B) large C) small D) zero
5. Which Multivibrator does not require a input (Clock pulse or other). [ ]
A) Monostable MV B) Bistable MV C) ASTABLE mv D) ALL
6. The dependence of the voltage gain of the differential amplifier on variations in re can be reduced
by using [ ]
A) emitter resistor B) swamping resistor
C) emitter capacitor D) swamping capacitor
7. Zero Crossing detector is a [ ]
A) square wave to Sine wave converter B) Sine wave to triangular wave converter
C) Sine wave to square wave converter D) square wave to triangular wave converter
8. Schmitt trigger uses [ ]
A) Negative feedback B) Positive feedback C) no feedback D) none
9. In the modified Precision rectifier [ ]
A) The Op amp goes in saturation B) The Op amp never goes in saturation
C) The Op amp never goes in linear D) None
10. The commercial temperature range of ICs is [ ]
A) 0 to 100 0 C B) 0 to 70 0 C C) 0 to 80 0 C D) 0 to 71200 0 C
II Fill in the blanks:
11. The circuit in which the output current is forced to be equal to input current is ______ .
12. _________ is included in the final stage to shift the output dc level at the second stage down to
zero volts.
13. Linear IC s are available in three basic types _, ____ and __________
14. ________ MultiVibrator is called as One shot.
15. The output of Log amplifier is _______
16. A triangular wave generator can be formed by connecting __________ to _______.
17. The frequency f in Astable MV is ___________.
18. In a cascaded differential amplifier the last dual input, unbalanced output stage is followed by a
_____________________ .
19. IC s used for only specific applications they are designed for are called _________
20. The Cascode amplifier is composed of _________
 DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING

I Choose the correct alternative:

1. Signal has finite energy and zero power then it classified as a ----- signal [ ]
(a) Energy (b) Power (c) Either energy or power (d) neither energy nor power

2. Unit step signal value at n=2, u (2) = [ ]

(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) u (-5) (d) 10
3. To compute the 4-point DFT using indirect method required additions are [ ]
(a) 256 (b) 12 (c) 32 (d) 16
4. x(n)=anu(n) at region of convergence |z| [ ]
(a) >a (b) <a (c) >1/a (d) <1/a
5. -------is the necessary condition for stability [ ]
(a) one pole inside the circle (b) all poles inside the unit circle
(c) all poles inside the circle (d) poles outside the unit circle
6. y(n) = n2 x(n) is --------system [ ]
(a) Time variant (b) Time invariant (c) shift invariant (d) linear
7. Impulse signal d(n) = ------- ( u(n) = unit step signal) [ ]
(a) u(n)+u(n-1) (b) u(n)+u(n+1) (c)
dnndu)( (d) u(n)-u(-n-1)
8. Z-1[z/z-a] = _ _ _ _ _ _ [ ]
(a) u(n) (b) a-nu(n) (c) anu(n-1) (d) an u(n)
9. --------- number of samples contain in circular convolution [ ]
(a) L+M-1 (b) Max(L,M) (c) L+M (d) N-M+1
10. Z-1[-z(dx(z)/dz)] = ----------- [ ]
(a) nx(n) (b) –nx(n) (c)ex(n) (d) x(n2)
11. For a better frequency response of the filter the transition band should be [ ]
a) Narrow b) Wide c) Infinite d) Close to infinite
12. FIR filter output depends on [ ]
a) past input b) past output c) present input and past input d) present output
13. The FIR filters have _____ group delay. [ ]
a) N-1 b) N c) Not constant d) Constant
14. Linear phase filters when impulse response is anti-symmetric and N is odd, the magnitude function is [ ]
a) Symmetric b) antisymmetric c) Linear d) Constant
15. Sampling rate conversion by any rational factor can be obtained with [ ]
a) Decimation b) Interpolation c) Both a&b d) extrapolation
16. Which of the processor is the fast among the following [ ]
a) Microprocessor b) Microcontroller c) DSP Processor d) Nanoprocessor
17. The relation between the analog and digital frequencies in impulse invariance [ ]
a) T=wO b) w=OT c) T=O/w d) O = wT
18. When the input sampling rate Fx is greater than the output sampling rate Fy in the sampling rate
conversion the lowpass filter acts as [ ]
a) antialiasing post filter b) antialiasing pre filter c) aliasing filter d) Imaging filter
19. The process of increasing the sampling rate by an integer factor I is known as [ ]
a) Up sampling b) Down sampling c) Both a & b d) sampling
20. Harvard architecture consists of [ ]
a) One address bus and One data bus b) Two address bus and one data bus
c) Two address bus and two data bus d) only data bus
II Fill in the blanks:
21. For a given h(k)={1,2,1,2}, Represent the h(-1-k) = _ _ _ _ _
22. To compute the N-point DFT using direct method required multiplications are------------
23. If x(n) = n2 u(n), then X(z) = -------------
24. The output of the system with zero input is called---------
25. If Z{x(n)}=x(z), then Z{x(n-k)}=------------
26. ------- response is useful in finding the stability and transient response of the system.
27. Impulse response h(n) is the response of the system to -------signal.
28. The fourier transform exists only for the signals that are _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
29. System obeys the super position principle and time invariant, it is ------ system.
30. The ROC must be a ____________________
31. The Gibb’s oscillations can be reduced by multiplying the impulse response by__________
32. ___________ filter has wide transition band

33. The relation between the analog and digital frequencies in bilinear transform ________________
34. The warping effect can be eliminated by ________________
35. The process of increasing the sampling rate by an integer factor I is known as ______________
36. The TM320C5X processor consists of ________________
37. The IIR filter is a ________________
38. The necessary and sufficient condition for a linear phase FIR filter ________________
39. In the up sampling process the frequency range of the input signal _______________
40. The process of converting a signal from a given rate to a different rate is called _____________