NTSE Practice Book-1

NUMBER SERIES
1. 9, 7, 14, 11, 33, 28, ?, 133, 931 18. 32, 63, 114, 185, 276, ?
(1) 64 (2) 46 (3) 140 (4) 123 (1) 359 (2) 387 (3) 367 (4) 396
2. 6, 12, 23, 44, 85, ? 19. 870, 342, 132, ?, 12, 2
(1) 166 (2) 174 (3) 165 (4) 168 (1) 90 (2) 42 (3) 64 (4) 48
3. 80, 62, 46, ?, 20 20. 2, 12, 80, ?, 1452
(1) 36 (2) 40 (3) 38 (4) 32 (1) 150 (2) 392 (3) 222 (4) 576
4. 92, 23, 27, 9, 12, 6, ? 21. 8, 20, 45, 96, 199, ?
(1) 20 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 10 (1) 420 (2) 406 (3) 408 (4) 326
5. 495, 270, 126, 45, 9, ? 22. 9, 19, 35, 75, 143, ?
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 0 (1) 287 (2) 285 (3) 196 (4) 295
6. 6, 7, 15, 46, 185, ? 23. 930, 812, 650, 420, 182, ?
(1) 920 (2) 924 (3) 830 (4) 926 (1) 42 (2) 20 (3) 6 (4) 64
7. 0, 5, 8, 17, 24, 37, 48, ? 24. 7, 9, 15, 33, 87, ?
(1) 65 (2) 67 (3) 56 (4) 71 (1) 195 (2) 149 (3) 294 (4) 249
8. 999, 730, 510, 345, 213, ? 25. 2, 20, 110, 380, ?
(1) 122 (2) 126 (3) 128 (4) 160 (1) 424 (2) 650 (3) 982 (4) 992
9. 2, 5, 14, 7, 3, 20, 10, 4, ?, 14 26. 41, 12, 163, 94, 365, 256, ?
(1) 26 (2) 30 (3) 22 (4) 28 (1) 647 (2) 547 (3) 497 (4) 367
10. 389, 338, 297, ?, 245 27. 4, 8, 28, 80, 244, ?
(1) 266 (2) 276 (3) 256 (4) 286 (1) 428 (2) 624 (3) 728 (4) 628
11. 41, 42, 45, 43, 54, 51, 79, 78, ?, 142 28. 1010, 738, 222, ?
(1) 138 (2) 108 (3) 128 (4) 98 (1) 68 (2) 30 (3) 10 (4) 2
12. 3, 7, 35, 47, ?, 119 29. 123, 135, 157, 1711, 11113, ?
(1) 99 (2) 98 (3) 89 (4) 72 (1) 1314 (2) 11316
13. 9, 25, 46, 73, 107, ? (3) 11317 (4) 11319
(1) 133 (2) 149 (3) 148 (4) 145 30. 256, 125, 60, ?, 12.5
14. 23, 27, 43, 79, 143, ? (1) 40 (2) 28 (3) 25 (4) 24
(1) 242 (2) 241 (3) 240 (4) 243 31. 4, 23, 122, 621, ?
15. 5, 6, 15, 50, 207, ? (1) 960 (2) 1296
(1) 936 (2) 944 (3) 2990 (4) 3120
(3) 1034 (4) 1044 32. –1, 35, 143, ?, 575
16. 901, 785, 577, 325, 101, ? (1) 223 (2) 323 (3) 313 (4) 296
(1) 24 (2) 48 (3) 63 (4) 1 33. 13, 34, 85, 142, 229, 322, ?
17. 20, 40, 60, 100, 220, 700, ? (1) 404 (2) 435 (3) 365 (4) 445
(1) 2620 (2) 1220 34. 1, 18, 75, ?, 405
(3) 3100 (4) 2200 (1) 186 (2) 196 (3) 204 (4) 216
35. 0, 1, 32, 81, ?, 25, 6 52. 300, 303, 294, 298, 282, 287, ?
(1) 46 (2) 36 (3) 44 (4) 64 (1) 262 (2) 272 (3) 312 (4) 302
36. 6, 15, 35, 77, 143, 221, 323, ? 53. 606, 201, 66, ?, 6, 1
(1) 437 (2) 427 (3) 384 (4) 365
(1) 21 (2) 60 (3) 36 (4) 24
37. 9, 9, 14, 34, 124, ?
54. 3, 14, 33, ?, 95, 138, 189
(1) 448 (2) 604 (3) 636 (4) 576
(1) 52 (2) 60 (3) 71 (4) 76
38. 18, 56, 118, 210, 338, ?
55. 1, 1, 5, 13, 41, 121, ?
(1) 508 (2) 510 (3) 512 (4) 524
(1) 216 (2) 265 (3) 365 (4) 278
39. 0, 14, 78, 252, ?
(1) 448 (2) 620 (3) 636 (4) 576 56. 111, 129, 183, 345, 831, ?
40. 21, 56, 115, 204, 329, ? (1) 2389 (2) 2379
(1) 496 (2) 520 (3) 486 (4) 596 (3) 2229 (4) 2289
41. 125, 216, 343, 515, 723, ? 57. 313, 265, 230, 206, ?, 183
(1) 754 (2) 683 (3) 845 (4) 814 (1) 176 (2) 191 (3) 181 (4) 201
42. 7, 21, 11, 33, 17, ? 58. 200, 200, 205, 195, 215, 185, 235, 165, ?, ?
(1) 30 (2) 50 (3) 54 (4) 51
(1) 125, 275 (2) 275, 125
43. 3, 6, 11, 19, 32, 53, ?
(3) 265, 145 (4) 295, 145
(1) 68 (2) 87 (3) 81 (4) 77
59. 163, 167, 142, 147, 111, 117, ?, 75
44. 2, 26, 74, 98, 146, ?
(1) 96 (2) 68 (3) 78 (4) 92
(1) 170 (2) 194 (3) 196 (4) 208
60. 2, 3, 10, 12, 13, 20, 21, 22, ?, ?
45. 240, 332, 118, 168, 57, 86, ?, 45
(1) 30, 31 (2) 23, 24
(1) 28.5 (2) 26.5
(3) 26, 30 (4) 28, 30
(3) 27 (4) 34.5
46. 1260, 640, 340, 200, 140, 120, ?
(1) 120 (2) 60 (3) 70 (4) 100
47. 840, 168, 42, 14, 7, ?
(1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 5 (4) 2
48. 111, 108, 99, 81, 72, ?
(1) 63 (2) 57 (3) 67 (4) 53
49. 232, ?, 45, 19, 12, 12
(1) 108 (2) 118 (3) 124 (4) 127
50. 634, 314, 154, 74, ?, 14, 4
(1) 44 (2) 28 (3) 34 (4) 24
51. 1729, 999, 513, 215, 65, ?
(1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 13 (4) 26
NUMBER ODDMAN
In each of the following questions, a number series is given. One of the term in the series is wrong.
Identify the wrong term.
1. 3, 2, 8, 9, 13, 22, 18, 32, 23, 42
(1) 9 (2) 13 (3) 22 (4) 32
2. 325, 259, 202, 160, 127, 105, 94
(1) 160 (2) 259 (3) 105 (4) 202
3. 81, 64, 27, 16, 9, 4, 3, 2, 1
(1) 4 (2) 27 (3) 2 (4) 9
4. 2, 3, 11, 48, 102, 227
(1) 48 (2) 227 (3) 3 (4) 11
5. 14, 32, 72, 156, 328, 680, 1376
(1) 328 (2) 156 (3) 680 (4) 32
6. 4, 6, 18, 90, 486, 3645, 32805
(1) 90 (2) 3645 (3) 18 (4) 486
7. 479, 310, 431, 350, 301, 374, 383
(1) 431 (2) 301 (3) 310 (4) 350
8. 9, 8, 14, 36, 152, 755, 4524
(1) 152 (2) 8 (3) 755 (4) 36
9. 7, 14, 56, 168, 336, 1344, 2668, 8064
(1) 56 (2) 336 (3) 2668 (4) 1344
10. 31, 59, 131, 209, 336, 503
(1) 131 (2) 336 (3) 503 (4) 209
11. 11, 24, 67, 122, 218, 340, 515
(1) 340 (2) 67 (3) 515 (4) 218
12. 1, 5, 9, 17, 25, 35, 49, 65
(1) 35 (2) 9 (3) 49 (4) 65
13. 7, 17, 31, 49, 71, 96, 127
(1) 71 (2) 127 (3) 17 (4) 96
14. 3, 18, 43, 78, 123, 178, 243, 328
(1) 328 (2) 78 (3) 178 (4) 18
15. 2, 10, 30, 68, 134, 222, 350
(1) 30 (2) 134 (3) 222 (4) 68
16. 35, 39, 48, 69, 89, 125
(1) 48 (2) 89 (3) 125 (4) 69
17. 625, 343, 125, 49, 25, 7, 5, 1, 0
(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 1 (4) 0
18. 728, 691, 656, 623, 592, 565
(1) 656 (2) 623 (3) 565 (4) 592
19. 7, 9, 16, 25, 40, 66, 107
(1) 16 (2) 40 (3) 66 (4) 25
20. 4, 3, 4, 9, 32, 155, 936
(1) 4 (2) 32 (3) 155 (4) 936
21. 14604, 2420, 480, 108, 28, 8, 4
(1) 2420 (2) 480 (3) 108 (4) 28
22. 445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4
(1) 109 (2) 11 (3) 221 (4) 46
23. 3, 5, 10, 12, 24, 26, 48, 54
(1) 10 (2) 24 (3) 48 (4) 54
24. 16, 81, 196, 361, 529, 841
(1) 196 (2) 841 (3) 529 (4) 81
25. 11, 13, 17, 25, 32, 38, 47, 58
(1) 38 (2) 17 (3) 47 (4) 25
26. 1, 1, 2, 4, 4, 7, 7, 11
(1) 11 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 1
27. 4, 18, 48, 110, 180, 294, 448
(1) 48 (2) 180 (3) 18 (4) 110
28. 2, 30, 6, 20, 12, 12, 15, 6
(1) 15 (2) 12 (3) 6 (4) 20
29. 1440, 240, 48, 12, 4, 1
(1) 48 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 240
30. 356, 172, 80, 34, 10
(1) 80 (2) 10 (3) 34 (4) 172
31. 1, 2, 10, 37, 101, 225, 442
(1) 10 (2) 37 (3) 101 (4) 225
32. 92, 74, 46, 36, 18, 10
(1) 46 (2) 18 (3) 74 (4) 36
33. 67, 84, 95, 114, 123, 140
(1) 95 (2) 123 (3) 84 (4) 114
34. 5, 3, 6, 8, 13, 20, 32, 51, 82
(1) 5 (2) 32 (3) 51 (4) 20
35. 720, 120, 24, 8, 2, 1, 1
(1) 24 (2) 2 (3) 120 (4) 8
NUMBER ANALOGY
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
1. 12 : 35 : : ? : 63
(1) 21 (2) 18 (3) 16 (4) 14
2. 01 : 08 : : ? : 64
(1) 09 (2) 16 (3) 36 (4) 49
3. 24 : 126 : : 08 : ?
(1) 10 (2) 24 (3) 26 (4) 28
4. 01 : 04 : : 08 : ?
(1) 96 (2) 72 (3) 64 (4) 81
5. 4 : 12 : : 10 : ?
(1) 20 (2) 90 (3) 60 (4) 45
6. 48 : 63 : : 624 : ?
(1) 679 (2) 677 (3) 675 (4) 676
7. 170 : 226 : : 362 : ?
(1) 398 (2) 442 (3) 375 (4) 440
8. 323 : 323 : : 489 : ?
(1) 486 (2) 484 (3) 984 (4) 991
9. 782 : 17 : : 195 : ?
(1) 19 (2) 21 (3) 17 (4) 15
10. 28 : 280 : : 74 : ?
(1) 814 (2) 750 (3) 756 (4) 714
11. 30 : 12 : : 35 : ?
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 16
12. 6 : 30 : : 10 : ?
(1) 110 (2) 90 (3) 80 (4) 125
13. 12 : 3 : : 30 :
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 9
14. 2143 : 2251 : : 3531 : ?
(1) 3241 (2) 3441 (3) 3134 (4) 3254
15. 27 : 125 : : 343 : ?
(1) 125 (2) 1331 (3) 512 (4) 1024
16. 44 : 15 : : 88 : ?
(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 63 (4) 56
17. 612 : 510 : : 48 : ?
(1) 34 (2) 58 (3) 714 (4) 219
18. 12 : 34 : : 78
(1) 910 (2) 911 (3) 180 (4) 144
19. 2:6::4:?
(1) 16 (2) 24 (3) 48 (4) 60
20. 3 : 18 : : 4 : ?
(1) 48 (2) 44 (3) 56 (4) 28
21. 31 : 2 : 91 : ?
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 5
22. 666 : 675 : : 774 : ?
(1) 795 (2) 883 (3) 892 (4) 882
23. 54 : 45 : : 34 : ?
(1) 45 (2) 46 (3) 24 (4) 27
24. 57 : 110 : : 69 : ?
(1) 126 (2) 130 (3) 134 (4) 144
25. 30 : 10 : : 350 : ?
(1) 125 (2) 180 (3) 176 (4) 130
26. 6 : 15 : : 35 : ?
(1) 80 (2) 77 (3) 72 (4) 40
27. 9 : 26 : : 126 : ?
(1) 730 (2) 1332 (3) 1330 (4) 342
28. 642 : 12 : : 319 : ?
(1) 27 (2) 13 (3) 4 (4) 16
29. 125 : 36 : : 1 : ?
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 64 (4) 4
30. 350 : 222 : : 30 : ?
(1) 10 (2) 130 (3) 9 (4) 68
31. 19 : 65 : : ? : 126
(1) 44 (2) 28 (3) 32 (4) 47
32. 3 : 30 : : 4 : ?
(1) 140 (2) 260 (3) 256 (4) 196
33. 3 : 33 : : 15 : ?
(1) 55 (2) 155 (3) 165 (4) 195
34. 15 : 3375 : : 11 : ?
(1) 1331 (2) 1335 (3) 1495 (4) 1661
35. 832 : 166 : : 414 : ?
(1) 289 (2) 164 (3) 784 (4) 190
36. 11 : 125 : : 14 : ?
(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 225 (4) 250
37. 9 : 99 : : 13 : ?
(1) 195 (2) 169 (3) 175 (4) 185
38. 81 : 512 : : 121 : ?
(1) 1000 (2) 1110 (3) 1111 (4) 1331
39. 4 : 32 : : 9 : ?
(1) 324 (2) 320 (3) 340 (4) 243
40. 11 : 2 : : 99 : ?
(1) 81 (2) 83 (3) 18 (4) 64
41. 6 : 30 : : 5 : ?
(1) 21 (2) 24 (3) 22 (4) 20
42. 29 : 31 : : 107 : ?
(1) 109 (2) 118 (3) 117 (4) 113
43. 2197 : 13 : : 3375 : ?
(1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 17
44. 92 : 49 : : 81 : ?
(1) 49 (2) 81 (3) 64 (4) 36
45. 3 : 72 : : 6 : ?
(1) 1260 (2) 1290 (3) 1080 (4) 1440
46. 27 : 125 : : 343 : ?
(1) 1728 (2) 2197 (3) 729 (4) 1331
47. 20 : 110 : : 42 : ?
(1) 80 (2) 256 (3) 156 (4) 85
48. 81 : 3 : : 1296 : ?
(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 9
3 8
49. : 16 : : : ?
7 3
(1) 63 (2) 64 (3) 49 (4) 25
50. 120 : 30 : : 720 : ?
(1) 40 (2) 122 (3) 60 (4) 90
CODING DECODING
1. In a certain code, FRUIT is coded as ITVKW, (1) BLOUSE (2) BLAZER
then what is the code of the word SWEET ?
(3) BONDLE (4) BLONDE
(1) VYFFW (2) VYFDJ 10. In a certain code, MICKEY is coded as NGFGJS,
(3) VYGFW (4) VYFGW then what is the code of the word DONALD ?
2. In a certain code, BOUQUET is coded as (1) CMQWQR (2) EMQWQX
YMRORCQ, then what is the code of the word
(3) EQQWOX (4) EMQWRX
GARLAND ?
11. In a certain code, EQUIPMENT is coded as
(1) DXOIXKA (2) EYPJYLB
FQTJPLFNS, then what is the code of the word
(3) DYOJXLA (4) EXPJXLB EXTEMPORE ?
3. In a certain code, INK is coded as 6C7G10A, then (1) FEXTFNOPSE (2) FXSFMOPRD
which word is used to code word 8H1D7G ?
(3) FXTFMOPRF (4) FXSFMOPRF
(1) PEN (2) PAN (3) MAN (4) CAN
12. In a certain code, CANOE is coded as IFRRG,
4. In a certain code, PRAVEEN is coded as then what is the code of the word MUSIC ?
NFEWASP, then what is the code of the word
(1) SZWLE (2) MWVMH
SATISH ?
(3) NTULB (4) QYZMG
(1) HTIUAT (2) HITAUT
13. In a certain code, MUNICIPALITY is coded as
(3) HSITAS (4) HTIAUT
INMUAPCIYTLI, then what is the code of the
5. In a certain code, MISSISSIPPI is coded as word JUDICIAL ?
MPPISSISSII, then what is the code of the word
(1) IDUJLACI (2) IDJULAIC
ARLINGTON ?
(3) UJDIALCI (4) IDJULACI
(1) AOTNRLING (2) AGTORLINN
14. In a certain code, INDEX is coded as 42631 and
(3) ANGTORLIN (4) AOTGNILRN
DESKTOP is coded as 6357980, then what is
6. In a certain code, CROCODILE is coded as the code of the word SPINE ?
386364257, then what is the code of the word (1) 58432 (2) 50243
CORDCOLD ?
(3) 50423 (4) 50324
(1) 36843654 (2) 39873654
15. In a certain code, TEACHING is coded as
(3) 39783654 (4) 39783564
CHEATING, then what is the code of the word
7. In a certain code, TENDULKAR is coded as GRADIENT ?
LKARUTEND, then what is the code of the word
(1) RADIGENT (2) DIRAGENT
GANGULY ?
(3) RGDIENTA (4) DRIGAENT
(1) ULYGGAN (2) GNALUGY
16. In a certain code, BOAST is coded as 51906 and
(3) NAGUYLU (4) ULYGNAG
KING is coded as 4837, then what is the code of
8. In a certain code, MARKETING is coded as the word BANGKOK ?
NBSKETHMF, then which word is used to code
(1) 5934714 (2) 5934147
word LOPWLECFD ?
(3) 5937441 (4) 5937414
(1) KARABINER (2) KILOMETRE
17. In a certain code, CRIME is coded as GMOFM,
(3) KNOWLEDGE (4) KNOWINGLY then what is the code of the word PLOT ?
9. In a certain code, LATEST is coded as
(1) GUOQ (2) TUIP
MZVCVQ, then which word is used to code
word CKQLGB ? (3) MULT (4) TGUM
18. In a certain code, RAPID is coded as XGVOJ, (1) SOPTSRE (2) SOSRPET
then what is the code of the word STRING ?
(3) SRETSOP (4) SOPRSET
(1) YZXOTM (2) YZXOSN 27. In a certain code, RHOUIGT is coded as
(3) YZXTOM (4) YXZOTM XYMNOPQ, then what is the code of the word
OUTRIGHT ?
19. In a certain code, KITCHEN is coded as
5263417, then what is the code of the word (1) MNQXOPYQ (2) MNIOYXPQ
CHICKEN ?
(3) MNIOXYPQ (4) MNOQXYNQ
(1) 4321753 (2) 3423517
28. In a certain code, BHOPAL is coded as
(3) 2435317 (4) 3425317 GMTUFQ, then what is the code of the word
TRAGEDY ?
20. In a certain code, MAJOR is coded as ILQZN,
then what is the code of the word CRAZY ? (1) XUGNLID (2) YWFLJID
(1) BAZIX (2) DIBAC (3) YVDJJHC (4) YWDLJID
(3) ZBXQY (4) BAIZX 29. In a certain code, ROSE is coded as TSYM, then
what is the code of the word PINK ?
21. In a certain code, NOTHING is coded as
OQWLNTN, then which word is used to code (1) RNTS (2) RNST
word DQPTZZLZ ? (3) RMTS (4) RMST
(1) COMPUTER (2) COUNTING
30. In a certain code, CALENDAR is coded as
(3) COMPLETE (4) COMPLAIN CLANEADR, then what is the code of the word
CIRCULAR ?
22. In a certain code, LIBRARY is coded as
MRCIBIZ, then what is the code of the word (1) CRUIACLR (2) CICRLURA
BOOKS ?
(3) CRIUCALR (4) ICRCLUAR
(1) CLPRT (2) CLPPT
31. In a certain code, ADVENTURES is coded as
(3) CLPLT (4) CLPJT TDRESAUVEN, then what is the code of the
word SURPRISING ?
23. In a certain code, LOVE is coded as RSRY, then
what is the code of the word ROSE ? (1) IUINGSSRRP (2) IUIPGSRSNR
(1) YSOZ (2) YOSZ (3) IRIPGSSNRR (4) IUIPGSSRNR
(3) XSOY (4) XTOY 32. In a certain code, IMPEACH is coded as
CHIMAPE, then what is the code of the word
24. In a certain code, CURTAIN is coded as
CONTAUR ?
CAITURN, then what is the code of the word
HILLOCK ? (1) URCOANT (2) TOURCON
(1) HOCLILK (2) HCOLLIK (3) UCARONT (4) URACNOT
(3) HKLLIOK (4) HOLLICK 33. In a certain code, CONFRONTATION is coded
as 5931793484693, then what is the code of the
25. In a certain code, BLEMISH is coded as
word TORONTO ?
AODPHVG, then what is the code of the word
CHAPTER ? (1) 4797347 (2) 4393743
(1) BGAGMFP (2) ADGIOFS (3) 4979349 (4) 4979439
(3) CAHTPRE (4) BKZSSHQ 34. In a certain code, NARGRUED is coded as
GRANDEUR, then what is the code of the word
26. In a certain code, MECHANICS is coded as
SERPEVRE ?
HCEMASCIN, then what is the code of the word
POSTERS ? (1) PERSEVER (2) PRESEVER
(3) PERSERVE (4) PRESERVE
35. In a certain code, TOGETHER is coded as (1) BHATRA (2) BHERET
RQEGRJCT, then what is the code of the word
(3) BHIRIT (4) BHOROT
PAROLE ?
44. In a certain code, CAB is coded as WUV, then
(1) RCPQJK (2) NYPQNC what is the code of the word TRUCK ?
(3) NCQPJG (4) RCTQNG
(1) MLOVE (2) MLOWD
36. In a certain code, CONSULT is coded as
(3) NLOVE (4) NLOWE
OCSNLUT, then what is the code of the word
ADVICE ? 45. In a certain code, ANTENNA is coded as
NAGRAAN, then what is the code of the word
(1) DAIVCE (2) DAVIEC
MADURAI ?
(3) DAVICE (4) DAIVEC (1) YOQJFMX (2) ZMPIFNX
37. In a certain code, MINISTER is coded as
(3) ZNQHENV (4) YLPIDMO
QLPJTVHV, then what is the code of the word
COMPUTER ? 46. In a certain code, STUDIES is coded as
TVXHNKZ, then what is the code of the word
(1) GROAVVHV (2) GROQVVHV
TOPPER ?
(3) GORQTVHV (4) GROTQVHV
(1) UPQQFS (2) UQSSJX
38. In a certain code, TAILOR is coded as ZGORUX, (3) UQSTJX (4) SPQQJX
then what is the code of the word CLOTHES ?
47. In a certain code, REPUBLIC is coded as
(1) IRUZNKY (2) IQVZMLY
THUBMYZV, then which word is used to code
(3) IRUYNLX (4) IQUZMKY word PDYPZA ?
39. In a certain code, GUEST is coded as 13268 and (1) NATURE (2) POTION
HOUSE is coded as 59362, then what is the code
(3) NOTION (4) NATION
of the word STOUT ?
48. In a certain code, RELIANCE is coded as
(1) 68938 (2) 69838
SDNGDKGA, then what is the code of the word
(3) 68398 (4) 68983 SATYAM ?
40. In a certain code, WINDOW is coded as (1) TBVADP (2) TZVWDJ
ZHQBRT, then what is the code of the word
(3) TZVADP (4) TAVAEP
HOUSE ?
49. In a certain code, TABLE is coded as UEKBD,
(1) KNXQH (2) KNXRH
then what is the code of the word CHAIR ?
(3) KNXQF (4) KNXRF
(1) DJYLQ (2) DLISR
41. In a certain code, BAG is coded as A2A1A7, (3) DGSIR (4) DLJYQ
then what is the code of the word POCKET ?
50. In a certain code, LANGUAGE is coded as
(1) B8C5A3C2A5E4 (2) B8C5A3A11A5E4
MDSNDLTT, then which word is used to code
(3) B8C5A3A11A6E4 (4) A8B5A3A11B5E4 word MDYLALY ?
42. In a certain code, APPLE is coded as 21517116, (1) LATERAL (2) CACKING
then what is the code of the word GRAPE ?
(3) LOBSTER (4) LANTERN
(1) 7162156 (2) 8170156 51. In a certain code, FACTORY is coded as
(3) 8172156 (4) 7152155 HEIBYDM, then which word is used to code
word GQVTYKSH ?
43. In a certain code, INDIA is coded as ONDOE,
then what is the code of the word BHARAT ? (1) EMPLOYER (2) LABOURER
(3) EMPLOYEE (4) EXERCISE
52. In a certain code, PRIZE is coded as CEVMR, Directions (Q.59 & Q.60) : In a certain code
then what is the code of the word AWARD ? language, PAM BAM RAM means ROSE IS
RED, RAM TAM SAM means GRASS IS
(1) LTLES (2) NJNEQ
GREEN, BAM YAM GAM means RED THICK
(3) MJMER (4) MSMEL BLOOD and GAM RAM YAM means BLOOD
53. In a certain code language, 2 7 8 means APPLES IS THICK.
ARE SWEET, 3 5 7 means JAMOON TASTES 59. What is the code for GREEN BLOOD ?
SWEET and 9 8 2 means APPLES ARE RED.
(1) TAM GAM (2) SAM GAM
Which digit means RED in this language ?
(3) SAM YAM (4) None
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 9
60. What is the code of RED ?
54. In a certain code language, 5 1 9 means SWEET
AND HOT, 7 5 3 means MANGO IS SWEET (1) PAM (2) RAM
and 1 4 7 means MILK IS HOT. Which digit (3) BAM (4) YAM
stand for MILK ?
(1) 4 (2) 7 (3) 1 (4) 9
Directions (Q.55 & Q.56) : In a certain code
language, if I EAT RICE is coded as CHIK TAT
WIC, YOU EAT ICE is coded as PIC WIC NIC,
THEY DRINK COFFEE is coded as HOP BOP
TOP and I LIKE YOU is coded as GUP NIC
CHIK.
55. What is the code for I ?
(1) TAT (2) WIC
(3) CHIK (4) GUP
56. What is the code for COFFEE ?
(1) BOP (2) TOP
(3) HOP (4) Can’t be determined
57. In a certain code language, PUM KUM BUM
means LIONS ARE ROARING, KUM SIM GIM
means LIONS AND TIGERS, PUM DEM FIN
means PUPS ARE CUTE. Which word in this
language means ROARING ?
(1) BUM (2) KUM
(3) SIM (4) PUM
58. In a certain code language, 2 9 3 means ROSES
ARE RED, 6 3 7 means LOTUS AND ROSES
and 5 2 6 means BEAUTIFUL RED LOTUS.
Which of the following means AND in this code ?
(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 9 (4) 2
LOGICAL VENN DIAGRAM
Directions (1 to 35) : Each of the questions 7. Men, Women, Housewives
contains three objects. The relationship among
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 2
these three object can be represented by one of
the Venn diagrams given below. Identify the 8. Tiger, Fox, Carnivores
appropriate diagram and tick that alternative (1) 2 (2) 10 (3) 5 (4) 7
which follows.
9. Utensils, Steel materials, Steel vessels
(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 9
(1) (2) 10. Liars, Politicians, Illiterates
(1) 8 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 9
11. Liquids, Inflammables, Petrol
(3) (4) (1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 9
12. Doctors, Poets, Books
(1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 8
(5) (6) 13. Swimmers, Athletes, Sports persons
(1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 8
14. Graduates, Illiterates, Kind people
(7) (8) (1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 9

15. Kings, Men, Human beings
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(9) (10) 16. Table, Chair, Furniture

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
17. Water, Nitrogen, Hydrogen
(11)
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10
18. Women, Mothers, Housewives
(1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 8
1. Pigeons, Bipeds, Young ones
19. Indians, Americans, Doctors
(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 9
(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 9
2. Fools, Lazy, Indians
20. Diwali, Ramzan, Christmas
(1) 10 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 1
(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 9
3. Engineers, Human beings, Rats
21. Literates, Clerks, Farmers
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 11
(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 8
4. Tie, Shirt, Pants
22. Boys, Students, Athletes
(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 9
(1) 7 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 9
5. Electrical appliances, Ovens, Boilers
23. Father, Mother, Child
(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 9
(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 9
6. Solids, Stones, Eatables
24. Rhombus, Quadrilateral, Polygon
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 7
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
25. Violinist, Instrumentalist, Musician 36. Americans who are painters but not sculptors.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d
26. Industrialists, Government employees, Rich 37. Painters who are neither Americans nor
people sculptors.
(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 9 (1) g (2) d (3) e (4) f
27. Human beings, Teachers, Graduates 38. Non-American painters who are also sculptors.
(1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 8 (1) g (2) d (3) e (4) f
28. Protons, Electrons, Atoms 39. Americans who are painters as well as
sculptors.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d
29. Engineers, Women, School boys
Directions (40 to 43) : In the following questions, some
(1) 11 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 8
diagrams are given in which the figures are
30. Sun, Planets, Earth interlocking each other. Each figure represents a
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 certain section of people which is indicate
thereon. Different regions of the diagram are
31. Typists, Stenographers, Experts lettered. Read the statements of the questions
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 given below the diagram, and tick the letter of
the region which represents the statement :
32. Grain, Rice, Wheat
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Indians
33. Tall men, Black-hairedpeople, Indians a b
h cg f
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
e
34. Dettol, Burnol, Antiseptic d Muslims
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Adminitrators
35. Females, Mothers, Doctors 40. Indians who are neither Muslims nor
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 administrators.
Directions (36 to 39) : In the following questions, some (1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d
diagrams are given in which the figures are 41. Muslims who are not Indians but
interlocking each other. Each figure represents a adminitrators.
certain section of people which is indicate
thereon. Different regions of the diagram are (1) d (2) e (3) f (4) g
lettered. Read the statements of the questions 42. Administrators who are non-Indians and non-
given below the diagram, and tick the letter of Muslims.
the region which represents the statement :
(1) d (2) e (3) f (4) g
Americans Painters 43. Indian Muslims who are non-administrators.

(1) c, d (2) b, e (3) c, f (4) b, g
a b f Directions (44 to 47) : In the following questions, some
dc e diagrams are given in which the figures are
g interlocking each other. Each figure represents a
certain section of people which is indicate
Sculptors thereon. Different regions of the diagram are
lettered. Read the statements of the questions
given below the diagram, and tick the letter of
the region which represents the statement : 52. In the diagram, which one of the following is
TRUE ?
a Traders (1) All non-urban persons are sportsman.
b d e (2) There are no boys who are sportsman and
Professors do not play cricket.
c g f
Sportsman (3) All urban boys are not sportsman.
(4) All urban boys play cricket.
44. Scientists who are politicians but not Indians.
53. In the diagram, which one of the following
(1) d (2) e (3) f (4) g
statements is TRUE ?
45. Scientists who are Indians but not politicians.
(1) All sportsman are urban
(1) d (2) e (3) f (4) g
(2) All boys are either non-urban or cricketers
46. Non-Indian scientists who are not politicians. or both.
(1) d (2) e (3) f (4) g (3) All cricketers are both sportsman and non-
47. Indians who are scientists as well as urban.
politicians. (4) All boys are either non-urban or non-
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d sportsman or both.
Directions (48 to 51) : In the following questions, some 54. In the diagram, which one of the following
diagrams are given in which the figures are statements is TRUE ?
interlocking each other. Each figure represents a (1) There are some non-urban non-boys who
certain section of people which is indicate are sportsman but not cricketers.
thereon. Different regions of the diagram are
(2) There are some urban boys who are not
lettered. Read the statements of the questions
cricketers but who are sportsman.
given below the diagram, and tick the letter of
the region which represents the statement : (3) There are no non-cricketer sportsman
among the non-urban boys.
48. Professors who are sportsman as well as traders.
(4) There are some urban boys who are not
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d
ccricketers.
49. Professors who are traders but not sportsman.
55. In the diagram, which one of the following
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d statements is NOT TRUE ?
50. Traders who are neither professors nor (1) There are some sportsman who are neither
sportsman. boys nor non-urban and who do not play
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d cricket also.
51. Traders who are sportsman but not professors. (2) All urban boys play cricket.
(1) c (2) d (3) e (4) f (3) All urban boys are not sportsman.
Directions (52 to 55) : Observe the diagram given (4) All boys are neither non-urban or cricketers
below and answer the questions. or both.
Boys
Sportsman
Non-urban
Cricketers
DIRECTIONAL TEST
1. Anupama walks 6 km towards West and then
turns towards North and walks 5 km. Again she
turns towards left and walks 6 km. Finally she
turns towards left and covers 10 km. How far is
she from her starting point ?
(1) 5 km (2) 12 km
(3) 13 km (4) 16 km
2. Sushmita left her college which is facing East
and walked 25 metres along a straight road. Then
she turned right and walked 50 metres. Again
she turned left and walked 100 metres. Once
again she took a left turn and walked 50 metres.
Then turning towards her right, she walked 10
metres and reached the park to meet her friend.
In which direction and at what distance is the
park from the college ?
(1) 135 metres East (2) 135 metres West
(3) 235 metres West (4) 235 metres East
3. Mrs. Roy started from her house. She went 1 km
towards North, then turned right and went 1 km,
from there she again turned right and went 2 km.
Then she turned left and covered 1 km. She agian
turned left and reached her bank after going 1
km. What is the distance between her house and
the bank ?
(1) 2 km (2) 12 22 km
(3) 22 22 km (4) 2 2 32 km
Directions (Q.4 to Q.7) : There are four trees –
tamarind, coconut, mango and neem – each at a
different corner of a rectangular plot. A well is
located at one corner and a cabin at another
adjacent corner. Tamarind and coconut trees are
on either side of the gate which is located at the
centre of the side opposite to the side at whose
extremes, the well and the cabin are located. The
mango tree is not at the corner where the cabin
is located.
4. Which of the following pair can be diagonally
opposite to each other in the plot ?
(1) Neem and tamarind
(2) Cabin and neem
(3) Mango and well
(4) Coconut and tamarind
5. If the tamarind tree is diagonally opposite to the
well, then which is diagonally opposite to the
coconut tree ?
(1) Mango (2) Gate (3) Well (4) Cabin
6. If the coconut tree and the neem tree cannot be (1) D is to North of B
at adjacent corners of the plot, then which of the
(2) A is to South-East of C
following will necessarily have to be at
diagonally opposite corners of the plot ? (3) C is to East of D
(1) Tamarind tree and neem tree (4) C and D are to East of B
(2) Tamarind tree and well 11. From the position in the previous question, all
are asked to move in the anticlockwise direction
(3) Tamarind tree and coconut tree
at an angle of radians. In the new position,
(4) Coconut tree and well which of the following is correct ?
7. Which of the following is correct ? (1) C is to South of B
(1) Cabin and well are not at adjacent corners. (2) D is to East of C
(2) Cabin and coconut tree cannot be at the (3) A is to North of C
adjacent corners.
(4) D is to South of B
(3)Neem tree ad well are at adjacent corners.
12. From the position in the previous question, A
(4) Neem tree is diagonally opposite to well. and C move clockwise and B and D move
8. Akshatha started from her house and walks 30 anticlockwise at an angle of 135°. In this new
position, which of the following is correct ?
metres towards South. Then, turning to her right,
she walks 30 metres. Then, turning to her left, (1) A is to West of B
she walks 20 metres. Again she turns to her left
(2) B is to West of D
and covers 30 metres. How far is she from her
house ? (3) A and C are at the same place
(1) 30 metres (2) 80 metres (4) C is to East of A
(3) 20 metres (4) None of these 13. From the position in the previous question A and
C interchange their positions and B and D move
9. Two ladies and two men are playing a bridge
anticlockwise along ¼ of the circle. In this new
game (cards) and are seated around a square
position –
table. No lady is facing towards East. Persons
sitting opposite to each other are not of the same (1) B is to North-West of A
sex. One man is facing towards South. Which (2) D is South of B
directions are the ladies facing ?
(3) B is to South-West of C
(1) East and West (2) South and East
(3) North and East (4) North and West (4) D is to South-East of C
Directions (Q.10 to Q.13) : Four persons A, B, Directions (Q.14 & Q.15) : Raju started from
C and D are standing on a circular path, as shown his house, went 1 km towards the rising Sun and
in the figure, and they move as per the directions reached point A, then turned right and after going
given in each question. another kilometre, he reached point B; then he
turned left and after 1 km, reached point C. From
Note : radians = 180° there he turned right and walked for 2 km, and
A reached point D. Then he turned right and after
N 1 km, he reached point E and finally turned right
again and reached point F after going 1 km.
D B 14. What is the shortest distance between F and

Raju’s house ?
(1) 12 22 km (2) 2 2 32 km
C
10. From the position given above, all move in the (3) 3 km (4) 12 32 km
clockwise direction along 3/8 of a circle. Then
which of the following is correct at the new 15. In which direction is D to E ?
position ? (1) North (2) East (3) West (4) South
16. A woman turns to her right at right angle, then 21. Sanjay walks 7 km towards North and turns
turns again to her right and then again turns at towards left and covers 3 km. Again he turns
right angle to her right and faces towards West. towards left and walks 11 km. How far is he from
In which direction was she facing in the the starting point ?
beginning ? (1) 16 km (2) 21 km
(1) North (2) East (3) West (4) South
(3) 12 km (4) 5 km
17. Lalit walks 8 km towards East then turns towards
South-West and walks another 8 km. Again he Directions (Q.22 & Q.23) : On a playing ground
takes a turn towards North-West and walks Divakar, Kiran, Nitin, Anil and Praveen are
another 8 km. In which direction from his starting standing facing towards North. Kiran is 40
point is Lalit standing now ? metres to the right of Anil. Divakar is 50 metres
to the South of Kiran. Nitin is 25 metres to the
(1) North-East (2) South-East
West of Anil. Praveen is 90 metres to the North
(3) West (4) South of Divakar.
18. To avoid paying toll tax at a new bridge, on a 22. Who is towards North-East of the person who is
direct road from A to B, Amit starts from A on to the left of Kiran ?
his scooter and drives 10 km towards South, then
8 km towards West. Again he goes 10 km towards (1) Divakar (2) Nitin
South and then turns to his left and covers a (3) Anil (4) Praveen
distance of 48 km and finally turns to his left
and drives 50 km and reaches B. What is the 23. If a girl walks from Nitin, meets Anil, followed
length of the direct road ? by Kiran, Divakar and then Praveen, how much
distance will she travel, if she goes in a straight
(1) 126 km (2) 28 km
line ?
(3) 40 km (4) 50 km
(1) 205 metres (2) 155 metres
19. In a hilly terrain a man is driving atop on a
serpentine road. After every 1 km, there is a bend (3) 185 metres (4) 245 metres
of half kilometre long and he takes total 5 bends. Directions (Q.24 & Q.25) : Landmarks A, B,
The first bend is a right turn and the second is a C, D, E, F, G and H are as follows :
left turn and finally after taking five bends he
goes straight for 5 km. How much distance has F is 2 km to the East of C. B is 2 km to the West
he totally travelled ? of D. A is 2 km to the South of F. G is 2 km to the
West of A. E is 1 km to the North of D and 1 km
(1) 11.5 km (2) 11 km
to the East of A. H is 1 km to the East of G.
(3) 12 km (4) 12.5 km
24. Which of the following four landmarks are in a
20. A, B, C, D and E are five cities connected as straight line ?
follow :
(1) CGED (2) FAED
(i) There are three two way roads between A
and B. (3) GHAE (4) DAHG
(ii) There are two one way roads connecting B 25. How far is G from C and in which direction ?
to C.
(1) 2 km South (2) 1 km North
(iii) There are four two way roads between B
and D. (3) 2 km West (4) 3 km East
(iv) There is only one way road connecting B to Directions (Q.26 to Q.30) : Sameer starts from
E. his house with his wife at 9:30 a.m. on his scooter.
(v) C and D connected by a two way road and He goes 1 km towards East, drops his wife at her
similarly call centre where she works, turns to his left and
goes another 1 km, then turns to his right, and
(vi) D and E are connected by a one two way after covering 1 km he reaches the bank, where
road. he spends 5 minutes. Then he turns towards
What is the maximum number of possible ways North and reaches hospital, which is 1 km from
for a person to go from D to A without touching the bank and after talking to the nurse for 5
E? minutes, he turns to his left and reaches his office
(1) 18 (2) 12 (3) 24 (4) 3 at 9:58 a.m., which is 2 km from the hospital.
26. How far is Sameer’s office from his home as the
crow flies ? A B C D N
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5
W E
27. How far is the hospital from his wife’s office ?
Z Y X W S
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 4½ (4) 2
28. How much time would Sameer take in reaching
his office by the same route if he had not stopped 34. Which of the following two persons are
at the bank and hospital ? positioned in North-West and South-East
directions respectively ?
(1) 25 minutes (2) 20 minutes
(1) W, A (2) B, Y
(3) Z, D (4) A, W
29. How much is the average speed ?
35. If A, B, C, D move four plots in the clockwise
(1) 15 km/h (2) 18 km/h direction and W, X, Y, Z move six plots in the
(3) 25 km/h (4) 20 km/h anticlockwise direction, then which of the
following two persons would be in the North and
30. At what time did Sameer reach the bank ? South directions, respectively ?
(1) 9:42 a.m. (2) 9:39 a.m. (1) B,X (2) Y, D
(3) 9:45 a.m. (4) 9:36 a.m. (3) Z, A (4) W, C
31. This morning, while Katrina was waiting near 36. If the four policemen move two plots clockwise
her college bus stop, she saw her sister Anushaka and W, X, Y, Z move two plots vertically up,
going on a bike with her friend on the other side who will be able to catch whom ?
of the road. She was shading off the Sun’s rays
with her left hand and her right hand was pointing (1) C, W (2) D, X
towards Katrina. In which direction of Anushaka (3) A, Y (4) B, Z
was Katrina standing ?
37. If all the four policemen and all the four dacoits
(1) West (2) South (3) North (4) East move three plots in the clockwise direction,
Directions (Q.32 & Q.33) : Kiran left for his which of the following two persons would be
bank on a bike. He drove 15 km towards North positioned North-East and South-West
and then turn to his left 3 times, each time respectively ?
covering 10, 5 and 8 km, respectively and finally (1) B, X (2) C, X
turned to his right and covered 10 km and reached
his bank. (3) D, Z (4) A, W
32. In which direction is the bank from the starting 38. If the policemen move four plots anticlockwise
point ? and the dacoits move two plots vertically up,
which of the following two persons would be in
(1) North (2) East (3) West (4) South North and South directions, respectively ?
33. How far is he from the starting point and in which (1) B, W (2) Y, A
direction ?
(3) D, Y (4) D, Z
(1) 2 km West (2) 3 km North
Directions (Q.39 & Q.40) : A, B, C and D are
(3) 6 km South (4) 5 km East standing at four corners of a square field and the
Directions (Q.34 to Q.38) : Four policemen A, B, C North direction is shown in the figure.
and D are combing a circular park which is A B
divided into 16 plots. The dacoits W, X, Y and Z
who are in the park are to be arrested. The figure
given as follows, shows the positions of the
policemen and the dacoits. Bylanes shown are
North-South and East-West directions. N D C
39. From the positions shown in the above figure, A
and B move a distance of three and half (3½)
sides in the anticlockwise direction and C and D (1) If X takes a right turn, he or she will face Y.
move a distance of two and half (2½) sides in
(2) If Y and Z take an about turn each, they both
the clockwise direction. With respect to positions
will face each other.
obtained at the end of movements, which
statement is correct ? (3) If Y and Z take a right turn each, they both
will be facing towards West.
(1) C is West of A
(4) If Z takes one about turn and X takes one
(2) A is South of B
left turn, all the three will be facing towards
(3) B is North of D North.
(4) C is South-East of B 43. From a certain point, Aparna goes 20 metres
40. From the positions obtained at the end of the towards East, then turns to her right and goes 10
metres. Again she turns to her right and goes 20
previous question, A, B and C move half side
each in the clockwise direction and D moves two metres, turns to her left and goes 10 metres, and
finally turns to her left again and goes 20 metres.
and half (2½) sides in the clockwise direction.
In which direction is Aparna from the starting
With respect to the positions obtained at the end
point ?
of movements, which statement is correct ?
(1) South (2) South-West
(1) D is South-West of C
(3) East (4) South-East
(2) D is West of A
Directions (Q.44 & Q.45) : A tourist place has
(3) B is South-East of D
four places of interest – a fort, a garden, a temple
(4) A is South of B and a museum. There is only one hotel and a
Directions (Q.41 & Q.42) : X, Y and Z are standing in cinema theatre. All the roads are two ways and
a straight line. X and Z are at a distance of 5 connect either North and South or East and West.
metres from Y. X, Y and Z are facing East, West There are no other diagonally interconnecting
and North respectively. Directions are shown in roads. The places are situated as follows :
the figure. (a) The temple is 1 km to the West of the hotel
and is only connected to the hotel by one
X Y Z two way road.
(b) The museum is 1 km to the East of cinema
E
theatre, which is 2 km to the North of the
fort.
(c) The garden is 2 km to the West of the fort
which is 3 km to the South of the hotel.
N 44. If a tourist starts from the hotel and visit the fort
and the museum and comes back, how much
minimum distance does he or she travel ?
(1) 7 km (2) 8 km
W (3) 9 km (4) 10 km
41. From the position given above, X, Y and Z are 45. If a tourist wants to see all the places and starts
take the following turns : X – (L L R A L), Y – from the hotel and comes back, how much
(R A L L L R) and Z – (L R A A L L). At the end minimum distance does he or she travel ?
of all the turns, towards which direction is Y
facing ? (L – Left, R – Right, A – About turn) (1) 8 km (2) 13 km
(1) South (2) West (3) 10 km (4) 14 km
(3) East (4) North 46. A is 40m South-West of B. C is 40m South-East

of B. Then, C is in which direction of A ?
42. With respect to positions obtained at the end of
the previous question, which of the following (1) East (2) West
statement is incorrect ? (3) North-East (4) South
47. P, Q, R, S and T are five villages situated close
to each other. P is 1 km to the West of Q. R is 1
km to the South of P. T is 1 km to the North of Q.
S is 1 km to the East of T. Then, R is in which
direction with respect to S ?
(1) North-West (2) South-East
(3) South-West (4) Data Inadequate
48. Lokesh’s school bus is facing North when it
reaches his school. After starting from Lokesh’s
house, it turns twice right and then left before
reaching the school. What direction was the bus
facing when it left the bus stop in front of
Lokesh’s house ?
(1) North (2) South
(3) East (4) West
49. A watch reads 4 : 30. If the minute hand points
East, in what direction will the hour hand point ?
(1) North (2) North-West
(3) South-East (4) North-East
50. One evening before Sunset two friends Sumit
and Mohit were talking to each other face to face.
If Mohit’s shadow was exactly to his right side,
which direction was Sumit facing ?
(1) North (2) South (3) West (4) East
COUNTING OF GEOMETRICAL FIGURE
1. How many squares in the given figure ? 6. How many squares in the given figure ?
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 9

2. How many triangles in the given figure ?
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 10 (4) 15

7. How many squares in the given figure ?
(1) 19 (2) 24 (3) 18 (4) 12

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 14 (4) 16

(1) 22 (2) 24 (3) 21 (4) 26

(1) 28 (2) 30 (3) 36 (4) 32 9. How many squares in the given figure ?
5. How many triangkes in the given figure ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
(1) 26 (2) 24 (3) 20 (4) 22

10. How many triangles in the given figure ? 15. How many squares in the given figure ?
(1) 26 (2) 28 (3) 35 (4) 30 (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 7

11. How many triangles in the given figure ? 16. How many rectangles (excluding squares) in the
given figure ?
(1) 24 (2) 22 (3) 20 (4) 18

(1) 13 (2) 15 (3) 11 (4) 14
12. How many straight lines in the given figure ?
(1) 13 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14

(1) 35 (2) 42 (3) 43 (4) 45
(1) 18 (2) 13 (3) 20 (4) 17

(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 20 (4) 22
14. How many circles in the given figure ?
(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 17

(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 6
20. How many straight lines in the given figure ? 26. How many triangles in the given figure ?
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20

(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 11 27. How many squares in the given figure ?
(1) 13 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 18

22. How many triangles in the given figure ? (1) 19 (2) 20 (3) 18 (4) 16
(1) 13 (2) 16 (3) 14 (4) 18

23. How many squares in the given figure ? (1) 11 (2) 21 (3) 24 (4) 26
29. How many rectangles in the given figure ?
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 7

(1) 15 (2) 18 (3) 13 (4) 20

(1) 26 (2) 28 (3) 36 (4) 29

25. How many rectangles (excluding squares) in the
given figure ?
(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 20 (4) 22
(1) 18 (2) 13 (3) 20 (4) 17

(1) 24 (2) 20 (3) 16 (4) 28 (1) 11 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 10

32. How many squares in the given figure ? 38. How many triangles in the given figure ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 8 (1) 44 (2) 42 (3) 40 (4) 38
(1) 15 (2) 16 (3) 12 (4) 14

(1) 24 (2) 20 (3) 27 (4) 28
40. How many semi circles in the given figure ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 8

(1) 24 (2) 18 (3) 20 (4) 22
(1) 24 (2) 28 (3) 26 (4) 30

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

CALENDER TEST
1. Nisha was born on 30 January. Reshma is older (1) Sunday (2) Monday
than Nisha by 21 days. During that year, the (3) Tuesday (4) Friday
Republic day was celebrated on Wednesday. On
which day was Reshma born ? 10. Mahatma Gandhi was born on 2 October 1869.
Which day of the week was he born ?
(1) Sunday (2) Monday
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday
(3) Saturday (4) Friday
2. Vinay met Rohit at the Taj Mahal in Agra on 25
December 1987, which was Friday. Vinay 11. If 14 February 2001 was Wednesday, then on
reminded Rohit that their first meeting was also which day will 14 February 2101 be (i.e., after a
at the Taj Mahal in Agra on 6 January 1984. On century) ?
which day did they both meet on the first (1) Sunday (2) Monday
occasion ?
(1) Sunday (2) Thursday
12. If 8 March 1985 was Friday, then which was the
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday day on 26 July 1985 ?
3. If 5 January 2001 was Friday, then which was (1) Sunday (2) Monday
the day on 25 December 2001 ?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday
13. January 12, 1980 was Saturday. On which day
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday was 12 January 1979 ?
4. If today is Friday, what will be the day after 100 (1) Sunday (2) Monday
years ?
(1) Wednesday (2) Monday
14. If the third day of a month is Monday, on which
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday day of the week will be the fifth day from the
5. Which day of the week was 2 December 1999, 21st of that month ?
if 1 January 2001 was Monday ? (1) Sunday (2) Monday
(1) Sunday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday
(3) Tuesday (4) Thursday 15. My friend and I went for dinner at Hotel Blue
6. All-fools-day in a particular year was on Fox on April 10, which was Sunday. I promised
Wednesday. Which was the day on 25 December to take her out after 3 months, but only on
in the same year ? Sunday. On which day out of the following dates
could I take her out ?
(1) 16 July (2) 19 July
(3) 10 July (4) 30 July
7. Which day was 2 October 1942, if 1 January
2000 was Saturday ? 16. Today is Tuesday. After one non-leap year and
68 days, it will be which day of the week ?
8. In a non-leap year, if 1 January is a Saturday,
then on which day will 31 August be ? 17. If 8 February in a certain non-leap year is
Wedneesday, then on which day of the week is 4
(1) Sunday (2) Wednesday October in the same year ?
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday (1) Sunday (2) Monday
9. If 31 January 1996 was a Wednesday, then which (3) Wednesday (4) Friday
day was 31 January 2005 ?
18. India won the World Cup on 25 June 1983. 27. Which year subsequent to 1990 had the same
Which was the day of the week ? calendar as that of the year 1990 ?
(1) Saturday (2) Monday (1) 1998 (2) 2002
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday (3) 1996 (4) 2001
19. The year 1844 was aa leap year started with 28. Which year earlier to 2003 had the same calendar
Monday. Which year subsequent to 1844 also as that of the year 2003 ?
starts with Monday ?
(1) 1991 (2) 1995
(1) 1845 (2) 1846
(3) 1997 (4) 1998
(3) 1848 (4) 1849 29. Which year earlier to 1982 had the same calendar
20. The famous company, ARROW, was established as that of the year 1982 ?
on 23 June in 1851. It is known that the year
(1) 1970 (2) 1971
1851 started with Wednesday. On which day, the
company was established ? (3) 1973 (4) 1975
(1) Sunday (2) Monday 30. Which of the following years had the same
calendar as that of the year 1998 ?
(1) 1987 and 2009 (2) 1987 and 2004
21. Sunil was born on the third Sunday of March
1996, the first day of the year being Monday. (3) 2004 and 2009 (4) 1993 and 2009
What is the date of birth of Sunil ? 31. Which two months in a normal year have the
(1) 17 (2) 20 (3) 21 (4) 18 same calendars ?
22. If my brother is 562 days older than me, and my (1) June, October (2) April, November
sister is 75 weeks elder to him. If she was born (3) January, October (4) October, December
on Tuesday, then on which day I was born ?
32. Which two months in a leap year have same
(1) Sunday (2) Monday calendars ?
(3) Thursday (4) Friday (1) March, November (2) April, July
23. On which day of the week was new year (3) January, July (4) September, December
celebrated in 2007 ?
33. If yesterday of yesterday wwas Wednesday,
(1) Sunday (2) Monday which of the following days would represent
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday tomorrow’s yesterday ?
24. Which year subsequent to 1993 had the same (1) Sunday (2) Monday
calendar as that of the year 1993 ? (3) Tuesday (4) Friday
(1) 1999 (2) 1998 34. If it was a Saturday on 18 December 1982, what
(3) 2001 (4) 1997 was the day on 22 September 1984 ?
(1) 2001 (2) 1998 35. If 26 January 1995 fell on Thursday, on what
(3) 1999 (4) 2024 day did it fall in the year 1986 ?
(1) 1989 (2) 1987
(3) 2012 (4) 1988
36. A remembers that his uncle had visited them after 44. Monday dawned on the day preceding 3 days
the 13th but before the 18th of a month, while B before the day before yesterday. What day will
remembers that A’s uncle had visited them after dawn 2 days after tomorrow ?
the 16th but before the 19th of that month. Then, (1) Sunday (2) Monday
on what date did A’s uncle visit A and B ? (3) Tuesday (4) Friday
(1) 17th (2) 18th (3) 16th (4) 15th 45. Arriving at a place of Appointment on Sunday, I
37. The day after tomorrow is Puja. The Diwali falls found that I was 3 days earlier than the woman
the same day next week. Today is Monday. What who was 2 days late. Had I reached that place on
will be the day on the day after Diwali ? the following Thursday, how many days early or
late would I have been ?
(1) 2 days later (2) 3 days later
(3) Wednesday (4) Friday
(3) 2 days early (4) 3 days early
38. If 15 June falls 3 days after tomorrow, today 46. Soumya was born 30 January 1984, and her
being Sunday, what day is the last day of the cousin Sundeep was born on the fortiethday after
month ? the day of her birth. On which date was Sundeep
(1) Sunday (2) Monday born ?
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday (1) 10 March (2) 11 March
39. If the day that dawned 2 days preceding the day (3) 12 March (4) 13 March
before yesterday was Sunday, what day of the 47. It was Thursday on 1 October 1981. On which date
week will dawn 2 days following the day after was it, 4 days prior to the fifth Sunday immediately
tomorrrow ? after 1 October, and which day was it ?
(1) Sunday (2) Monday (1) 26 October, Monday
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday (2) 27 October, Tuesday
(3) 28 October, Wednesday
40. On Monday, Suhag told his friend that he would
start for Mysore the day after tomorrow and reach (4) 29 October, Thursday
there the day before the day that comes after the 48. Ranjit and Radhika got married on Friday, 25
day after tomorrow. On which day would Suhag January 1980. They decided to go to a picnic
reach Mysore ? spot and enjoy the whole day on thier wedding
anniversary each year, provided it does not fall
(1) Sunday (2) Wednesday
on either Monday or Wednesday. On how many
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday occasions during the next 10 years did they visit
41. Ashok remebers that his sister Asha’s birthday the picnic spot on thier wedding anniversary ?
is after 19 and before 22 April, whereas his (1) 5 time (2) 6 time
mother remebers Asha’s birthday is after 20 but (3) 7 time (4) 8 time
before 24 April. Based on this, when did Asha’s 49. Mahesh was born on 11 August 2004. His
birthday fall ? younger sister Malini was born exactly after 100
(1) 20th (2) 21st (3) 22nd (4) 23rd weeks. What is the date of birth of Malini ?
42. It was the 6th of a month on Wednesday. What (1) 10-07-2006 (2) 12-07-2006
date would it be 5 days after Friday in the nest to (3) 18-07-2006 (4) 14-07-2006
next week ? 50. Three friends Shalini, Manju and Rekha had their
(1) 25th (2) 26th (3) 27th (4) 28th birthdays as follows :
43. If the day that will dawn 2 days after tomorrow Shalini was born on 2 September and it was a
is Monday, what day of the week dawned 2 days Wednesday. Rekha was born on 26 June of the
before the day before yesterday ? same year. Manju’s birthday is exactly in the
middle of Shalini’s and Rekha’s birthday. On
(1) Sunday (2) Monday which day was Manju born ?
(3) Tuesday (4) Friday (1) Sunday (2) Monday
51. Monday falls on 4th April 1998. What was the
day on 3rd November 1987.
(1) Monday (2) Sunday
(3) Thursday (4) Wednesday
Directions (Q.52 to Q.54) : If the concept of leap year
is as
(i) Every year divisible by 5 is leap year except
100th year.
(ii) Every 100th year divisible by 500 is leap year
and there are 29 days in leap year and 28 days in
non-leap year.
52. What was the day on 28th March 2001, if there
was Monday on 29th Dec 1999 ?
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday
(3) Wednesday (4) Thursday
53. What was the day on 1st January 2000 ?
(1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday
(3) Thursday (4) Sunday
54. How many odd days are there in year 2012 ?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
55. Imagine that in a calendar year, there were 436
days and 9 days in a week, then how many odd
days will be there in that year ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
MATHEMATICAL OPERATION
Directions (Q.1 to Q.3) : One of the four 7. (9 6 36 9) 10 = 5
alternatives becomes correct on interchanging the (1) +, ÷, +, – (2) ÷, +, ÷, +
symvols and numbers as suggested therein. Find
the correct alternative. (3) –, +, –, × (4) ×, –, ÷, ÷
1. Symbols + and ÷; numbers 14 and 6. Directions (Q.8 to Q.10) : Interchange the

numbers 2 & 8 as well as the signs + & ÷, and
(1) (98 + 6) × 3 = 74 select the correct answer from the given four
(2) (14 ÷ 10) × 14 = 36 alternatives.
(3) (6 – 10) + 4 = 1 8. [(892 ÷ 308) ÷ (85 × 2)] + 2 = ?
(4) (60 ÷ 14) + 14 = 21 (1) 800 (2) 400
2. Symbols × and ÷; numbers 5 and 16. (3) 200 (4) 100
(1) (16 + 16) ÷ 25 = 25 9. 12 + 8 = 2 ÷ x. Find the value of x.
(2) (5 ÷ 25) + 16 = 141 (1) 0.1 (2) 0.5
(3) (16 + 5) ÷ 10 = 210 (3) 4 (4) 1
(4) (40 ÷ 16) × 5 = 40 8 2 8
3. Symbols × and +; numbers 20 and 15. 10. 12 8 4 = ?
(1) (15 ÷ 5) × 6 = 18
3 7
(2) (20 – 5) + 20 = 30 (1) (2)
8 5
(3) (30 × 15) ÷ 11 = 5
(4) (40 + 5) × 15 = 220 7 5
(3) (4)
8 9
Directions (Q.4 & Q.5) : The given equation
becomes correct when symbols and numbers are Directions (Q.11 & Q.12) : The sign marked
interchanged as given in one of the options. Find ( ) stands for different mathematical signs. The
the correct option. mathematical signs in the proper sequence are
given in the alternatives. When ( ) is replaced
4. 37 – 27 ÷ 9 × 7 + 50 = 8
by the mathematical signs given in one of the
(1) + & – (2) ÷ & × alternatives, in the same sequence, the equation
becomes correct. Find the correct alternative.
(3) ÷ & – (4) + & ×
Rule of BODMAS applies.
5. (78 – 28) + 25 ÷ 14 × 7 = 100
11. 24 9 2 6
(1) – & × (2) × and ÷
(1) =, +, × (2) ×, =, +
(3) ÷ & – (4) + & –
(3) =, ×, + (4) +, ×, =
Directions (Q.6 & Q.7) : Mathematical symbols
12. 24 16 5 8
(signs) are missing between the numbers. The
missing symbols in proper sequence are given (1) +, ×, = (2) +, =, ×
in the alternatives. When the symbols given in
(3) =, ×, + (4) ×, =, +
one of the alternatives are inserted between the
numbers in the same sequence, the equation Directions (Q.13 & Q.14) : Some new symbols
becomes correct. Find the correct alternative. are used instead of standard mathematical
symbols, as given in the following table. In each
6. (69 23) (76 19 6) = 30
problem, only one of the four alternatives is
(1) ÷, ×, ÷, + (2) ÷, +, ÷, – correct. Find the correct alternatives.
(3) ÷, ×, –, + (4) ×, ÷, +, + + × ÷ =
P R S T
13. (1) 95 50 5 4 T 30 The result obtained by solving the given problem
is once again changed as per the above given
(2) 95 50 5 4 P 30 rule to get the final answer. Rule of BODMAS
(3) 95 50 5 4 T 30 is applicable.
(4) 95 50 5 4 S 30 Apply the above rules to problems and select the
14. (1) 46 correct alternatives.
4 5 5 P 75
(2) 46 19. 2 + (91 ÷ 7) + 82 + 59 = ?
4 5 5 S 75
(3) 46 (1) 156 (2) 125 (3) 446 (4) 664
4 5 5 S 75
(4) 46 4 5 5 T 75 (370 70) 309 847 86
20. =?
Directions (Q.15 & Q.16) : Some symbols are 70
given a new meaning as furnished below : (1) 4.906 (2) 9.064
÷ means graeter than; + means division; (3) 4.664 (4) 6.496
× means addition; – means equal to; Directions (Q.21 & Q.22) : One of the four
= means less than; < means minus; alternatives becomes correct on interchanging the
symbols and numbers as suggested therein. Find
> means multiplication.
the correct alternative.
15. (1) 7 + 3 < 2 ÷ 8 × 2 < 9
21. Symbols + & ÷; numbers 2 & 8.
(2) 7 > 3 × 2 = 8 + 2 × 9
(1) 18 ÷ 2 = 9 (2) 822 + 9 = 744
(3) 7 < 3 + 2 – 8 < 2 + 9
(3) 78 + 2 = 9 (4) 2 + 2 = 4
(4) 7 × 3 > 2 – 8 + 2 × 9
22. Symbols + & ÷; numbers 2 & 8.
16. (1) 3 × 4 × 2 – 10 > 2 + 6
(1) (8 ÷ 8 + 8)8 = 2 ÷ 1
(2) 3 > 4 < 2 < 10 + 2 × 6
(2) 126 ÷ 248 = 1028
(3) 3 < 4 > 2 ÷ 10 < 2 × 6
(3) 3 ÷ 2 = (8 ÷ 8) × 4
(4) 3 + 4 × 2 – 10 × 2 < 6
(4) 1088 ÷ 972 = 2000 + 4
17. If a means +, b means – =, c means × and d means
Directions (Q.23 to Q.28) : The given equation
÷, then 18 c 14 a 6 b 16 d 4 = ?
becomes ccorrect when symbols and numbers
(1) 63 (2) 254 (3) 288 (4) 1208 are interchanged as given in one of the options.
18. If – means ÷, + means ×, ÷ means – and × means +, Find the correct option.
then which of the following equation is correct ? 23. 27 ÷ 3 – (4 + 7) × 18 = – 1
(1) 52 ÷ 4 + 5 × 8 – 2 = 36 (1) ÷ & × (2) + & –
(2) 43 × 7 ÷ 5 + 4 – 8 = 25 (3) – & ÷ (4) × & +
(3) 36 × 4 – 12 + 5 ÷ 3 = 420 24. 6 + 45 – 9 ÷ 4 × 2 = 3
(4) 36 – 12 × 6 ÷ 3 + 4 = 60 (1) × & – (2) ÷ & +
Directions (Q.19 & Q.20) : In a particular (3) ÷ & – (4) + & ×
mathematical operation, before the normal
25. 40 + 3 ÷1 × 3 – 26 = 15
mathematical operations are carried out, the
numbers are first chnaged as follows : (1) ÷ & × (2) + & ×
1, 2, 3 and 4 are changed to 6 (3) – & ÷ (4) + & ÷
5, 6, 7 and 8 are changed to 4
0 and 9 remain as 0 and 9 (no change)
26. (27 – 8) ÷ 24 + 7 × 3 = 13 34. 9 3 4 3
(1) + & × (2) ÷ & × (1) + × = (2) × = +
(3) ÷ & + (4) × & – (3) + = × (4) × + =
27. 48 + 69 – 23 × 8 ÷ 22 = 50 35. 18 18 2 9
(1) × & ÷ (2) ÷ & + (1) = ÷ + (2) ÷ – =
(3) × & + (4) – & ÷ (3) – = ÷ (4) ÷ = –
28. 32 ÷ 4 × 6 + 3 – 12 = 14 36. Some new symbols are used instead of standard
mathematical symbols, as given in the follwoing
(1) × & + (2) + & –
table. In each problem, only one of the following
(3) – & ÷ (4) + & ÷ alternative is correct. Find the correct alternative.
Directions (Q.29 & Q.31) : Mathematical
symbols (signs) are missing between the
P R S T
numbers. The missing symbols in proper
sequence are given in the alternatives. When the
(1) 15 15 3 2 T 20
symbols given in one of the alternatives are
inserted between the numbers in the same (2) 12 2 10 5R5
sequence, the equation becomes correct. Find the
correct alternative. (3) 18 8 5 10 S 18
29. 69 23 111 37 1 = 10
(4) 15 5 2 8P5
(1) + – × ÷ (2) ÷ + ÷ –
Directions (Q.37 & Q.38) : Some symbols are
(3) × – × – (4) ÷ × ÷ + given a new meaning as furnished below :
30. (8 7) 5 (78 6) = 62 ÷ means greater than
(1) – × × ÷ (2) + × – ÷ × means aaddition
(3) + ÷ + ÷ (4) × – – ÷ + means division
31. (13 9) (14 11) 13 = 3 – means equals to
(1) + × + ÷ (2) – × – ÷ > means multiplication
(3) × ÷ – ÷ (4) × × – ÷ = means less than
Directions (Q.32 & Q.35) : The sign marked < means minus
( ) stands for different mathematical signs. The
mathematical signs in the proper sequence are 37. (1) 8 + 6 × 2 = 8 × 2 < 7
given in the alternatives. When ( ) is replaced (2) 8 > 6 < 2 – 8 < 2 × 7
by the mathematicals signs given in the
alternatives, in the same sequence, the equation (3) 8 × 6 + 2 = 8 > 2 > 7
becomes correct. Find the correct alternative. (4) 8 < 6 × 2 ÷ 8 + 2 × 7
Rule of BODMAS applies.
38. (1) 9 > 2 < 8 = 10 > 2 < 9
32. 18 6 2 5
(2) 9 + 2 × 8 – 10 > 2 × 9
(1) + ÷ = (2) – = ×
(3) 9 × 2 > 8 = 10 + 2 × 9
(3) + = × (4) ÷ + =
(4) 9 < 2 × 8 ÷ 10 × 2 > 9
33. 7 8 5 3
39. If + means ×, – means +, × means ÷ and ÷ means
(1) = × + (2) + × = –, then 9 ÷ 5 + 4 – 3 × 2 = ?
(3) = + × (4) + = × 1 1 1 1
(1) 2 (2) 9 (3) 3 (4) 8
2 2 4 4
40. If ÷ means +, – means ÷, × means – and + means
(36 4) 8 4
×, then 4 8 2 16 1 = ?
(1) 0 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16

NUMBER AROUND THE CIRCLE
27 56 72
3 9 36 9 1 81 12 ? 252
1.
9 7 6
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 11
100 49 225
2. 9 33 81 144 40 169 25 ? 169

121 64 196
(1) 47 (2) 48 (3) 49 (4) 50
3 1 7
6 18 5 4 14 7 8 ? 5
3.
4 2 6
(1) 24 (2) 26 (3) 28 (4) 30
2 2 9
5 37 3 3 27 5 5 ? 2
4.
6 4 2
(1) 27 (2) 37 (3) 47 (4) 57
5 9 8
7 13 4 8 5 4 9 ? 4
5.
3 3 3
(1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 13 (4) 14
8 125 64
1 10 64 8 14 216 27 ? 1
6.
27 1 343
(1) 11 (2) 13 (3) 15 (4) 17
4 81 16
4 4 4 49 17 64 25 ? 9
7.
4 100 49
(1) 7.5 (2) 8.5 (3) 9.5 (4) 10.5
7 6 6
3 29 5 5 39 3 7 ? 3
8.
2 4 5
(1) 21 (2) 31 (3) 41 (4) 51
4 4 2
3 60 5 5 180 3 6 ? 1
9.
2 6 4
(1) 24 (2) 25 (3) 26 (4) 27
8 8 9
5 3.5 13 10 3.8 8 11 ? 7
10.
9 12 12
(1) 2.9 (2) 3.9 (3) 3.4 (4) 2.7
6 12 13
8 8 11 10 18 16 7 ? 14
11.
7 15 17
(1) 19 (2) 20 (3) 21 (4) 22
6 6 8
12 4 8 24 2 8 36 ? 4
12.
4 16 3
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9
25 4 144
169 1170 36 49 378 81 4 ? 36
13.
9 9 81
(1) 1124 (2) 1296 (3) 2125 (4) 3248
21 45 288
5 27 120 24 7 96 12 ? 156
14.
7 15 48
(1) 17 (2) 18 (3) 19 (4) 20
13 13 14
11 14 12 15 20 16 12 ? 19
15.
14 21 23
(1) 23 (2) 24 (3) 25 (4) 26
7 18 12
8 8 12 15 9 3 18 ? 14
16.
13 9 16
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14
6 4 4
5 7 5 10 8 4 2 ? 8
17.
4 6 5
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 14
6 1 3
3 225 4 7 256 3 8 ? 6
18.
2 5 4
(1) 169 (2) 196 (3) 256 (4) 441
4 4 7
5 32 2 7 112 8 6 ? 4
19.
8 5 10
(1) 195 (2) 186 (3) 172 (4) 168
7 14 9
4 5 5 75 12 35 65 ? 45
20.
9 20 50
(1) 11 (2) 13 (3) 15 (4) 17
7 8 5
8 128 9 7 107 5 12 ? 6
21.
8 9 13
(1) 131 (2) 133 (3) 135 (4) 137
7 4 9
8 15 9 6 10 3 6 ? 8
22.
6 7 7
(1) 15 (2) 18 (3) 21 (4) 24
6 8 5
5 7 8 5 5 6 4 ? 3
23.
7 5 4
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
9 16 18
11 5 8 9 8 5 9 ? 7
24.
7 12 15
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
5 8 34
12 256 16 20 81 6 32 ? 24
25.
7 9 16
(1) 25 (2) 28 (3) 32 (4) 36
25 1 4
26. 1 12 2 3 10 4 5 ? 6
16 4 9
(1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 18 (4) 19
49 81 36
27. 36 6 4 64 5 25 49 ? 4
25 49 16
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9
24 16 22
28. 18 108 12 6 96 32 11 ? 8
9 12 4
(1) 44 (2) 46 (3) 48 (4) 50
3 3 3
29. 3 20 7 1 12 5 2 ? 7
8 6 6
(1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 15
7 9 11
30. 6 64 4 5 225 2 7 ? 5
3 4 8
(1) 36 (2) 49 (3) 64 (4) 81
49 9 81
31. 4 11 25 1 10 100 144 ? 25

64 36 16
(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 17
56 27 72
32. 9 1 81 3 9 36 12 ? 252
7 9 6
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 11
1 3 7
33. 4 14 7 6 18 5 8 ? 5
2 4 6
(1) 24 (2) 25 (3) 26 (4) 27
6 2 7
34. 3 43 5 5 37 3 1 ? 4
4 6 8
(1) 57 (2) 63 (3) 65 (4) 67
6 7 6
35. 5 39 3 3 29 5 7 ? 3
4 2 5
(1) 41 (2) 51 (3) 61 (4) 71
12 6 13
36. 10 18 16 8 8 11 7 ? 14
15 7 17
(1) 22 (2) 24 (3) 26 (4) 28
6 8 8
37. 24 2 8 12 3 8 36 ? 4
16 4 3
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
45 21 288
38. 24 7 96 8 18 120 12 ? 156

15 7 48
(1) 19 (2) 23 (3) 27 (4) 41
13 13 14
39. 15 20 16 11 14 12 12 ? 19
21 14 23
(1) 19 (2) 23 (3) 27 (4) 41
18 7 12
40. 15 9 3 8 8 12 18 ? 14
9 13 16
(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13
NUMBER IN GEOMETRICAL FIGURE
-80
9 ?
56 8
1. 5 3
16
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 1 (4) 8
110
121 100
165 120
2. 225 ?
180
(1) 81 (2) 169 (3) 196 (4) 144
4 3 6 6 1 5 2
3. 18 18
2 2 3
(1) 13 (2) 17 (3) 24 (4) 30
21 56 ?
4. 4 3 3 2 5 7 3 5 8
15 14 104
(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 16
22 18 ?
5. 36 44 22 11 44 72
(1) 55 (2) 80 (3) 44 (4) 88
43 36 27
6. 23 47 54 84 63 90 59 ? 49
68 42 65
(1) 4 (2) 24 (3) 50 (4) 68
F M J W D G
7. X P O R L Z
95 66 ?
(1) 56 (2) 94 (3) 65 (4) 49

8 9 7 9 4 5 5 6
8.
288 315 120 ?
(1) 240 (2) 310 (3) 210 (4) 430
8 4 3 4
5 103 9 6 2 11 23 104 5 17 ? 12
9.
7 2 7 4
(1) 10 (2) 116 (3) 5 (4) 20
12 12 13
6 8 4 6 16 2 14 ? 10
10.
8 8 7
(1) 27 (2) 14 (3) 24 (4) 37
49 64 512
11. 125 26 64 121 34 144 169 ? 27

216 343 256
(1) 42 (2) 40 (3) 36 (4) 28
3 3
4 2 3 3
94 ?
12. 7 4
2 8
5 5
(1) 178 (2) 871 (3) 187 (4) 781
6 3 15 5 16 8
13. 1 5 ?
4 1 6 4 9 7
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 5

1
15 2 17
? 16
14. 4 6
3 18 5
19
(1) 13 (2) 20 (3) 17 (4) 14
33
5 8
41 71
15. 6 7
?
(1) 55 (2) 255 (3) 342 (4) 51
34
100 49
30 ?
16. ? 144
34
(1) 25, 38 (2) 25, 30 (3) 121, 38 (4) 81, 34
08 22
10 18 16 13
17.
15 07 12 08 ? 09
(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13
1 2 5 3 4 5
18. 9 16 ?
3 2 1
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 7 (4) 10
1 9 10 22 ?
19. 15 16 ?
4 5
(1) 25, 18 (2) 23, 30 (3) 28, 20 (4) 30, 33

BZ DI MG
CT 34 OF DH 14 AR AW ? YE
20.
DP BN CS
(1) – 2 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 12
4 4 4
21. 47 3 5 3 5 ?
2 98 6
(1) 125 (2) 141 (3) 177 (4) 156
3 9 6 9
22. 48 621 69 ?
4 7 2 7 4 4 5 8
(1) 027 (2) 063 (3) 330 (4) 093
12 15 10
23.
4 8 40 15 6 9 72 20 3 8 ? 30
(1) 64 (2) 72 (3) 96 (4) 48
8 11 5
2 30 9 3 33 6 7 ? 6
24.
5 4 2
(1) 42 (2) 24 (3) 36 (4) 21
7 5 9 7 12 13
4 8 5
25.
9 6 6 4 10 ?
(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 5
F I
D 21 18 K
23 16
6 13
26.
U 8 ? N
S ?
11 13 10 9
(1) (2) (3) (4)
P Q V R
7
63
2 14 ? 9
27. 30
15
(1) 33 (2) 135 (3) 145 (4) 65
3 6 ?
5 3 3 7
28. 2 2
(1) 9 (2) 14 (3) – 5 (4) – 9
4 ?
29.
8 5 2 1 11 6 3 5
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
2 3 5
30. 10 2 ?
8 4 3 2 12 1
(1) 6 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 24
180 18 0
31. 448 100 4
? 48 648
(1) 335 (2) 326 (3) 294 (4) 263
1 26 6
32. 21 5 31
11 ? 11
(1) 36 (2) 24 (3) 39 (4) 26

3 4 5
33. 5 12 13
8 15 ?
(1) 17 (2) 19 (3) 21 (4) 23
7 8 3
34. 2 6 10
6 4 ?
(1) 13 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 5
5 8 9
35. 7 10 7
6 9 ?
(1) 12 (2) 11 (3) 10 (4) 8
2 6 ?
36. 72 12 20
56 42 30
(1) 81 (2) 100 (3) 90 (4) 80
7 28 49
37. 9 45 81
8 ? 64
(1) 36 (2) 40 (3) 48 (4) 52
3 4 7
38. 5 6 5
4 5 ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
7 49 20
39. 4 16 11
5 25 ?
(1) 21 (2) 18 (3) 15 (4) 12
2 5 76
40. ? 7 62
19 31 33
(1) 9 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 21

CUBE TEST
Example 1 2. How many smaller cubes are painted on only two
adjacent faces ?
A wooden cube is painted black on four adjoining
faces and green on two opposite faces, that is, (1) 32 (2) 24 (3) 16 (4) 8
top and bottom. It is then cut into 27 smaller 3. How many smaller cubes have at least one of
identical cubes. their faces painted black ?
1. How many smaller cubes have only one of their (1) 36 (2) 32 (3) 28 (4) 24
faces painted black ?
4. How many smaller cubes have at least one of
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 their faces painted green ?
2. How many smaller cubes have only one of their (1) 32 (2) 28 (3) 24 (4) 16
faces painted green ?
5. How many smaller cubes have none of their faces
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 painted green ?
3. How many smaller cubes have only two of their (1) 32 (2) 24 (3) 16 (4) 8
faces painted black ?
Example 4
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
A solid cube is painted on only three adjacent
4. How many smaller cubes have atleast three of faces then cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size.
their faces painted ?
1. How many smaller cubes have three of their faces
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 2 coloured ?
5. How many smaller cubes have none of their faces (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
painted at all ?
2. How many smaller cubes have only two of their
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 faces coloured ?
Example 2 (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 16
A cube has each of its faces painted with different 3. How many smaller cubes have only one of their
colours – red, blue or green. No two adjacent faces coloured ?
faces have the same colour. The cube is then cut
(1) 36 (2) 27 (3) 16 (4) 9
into 27 smaller identical cubes.
Example 5
1. How many smaller cubes have the same colour
on atleast two of their faces ? A solid cube is painted silver, purple and pink
on its three sets of opposite faces and then cut
(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 0
into eight smaller cubes of equal size.
coloured with different colours ?
their faces painted silver ?
(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 0
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2
Example 3
2. How many smaller cubes have at least two of
A solid cube is painted red on two adjacent faces their faces painted with different colours ?
and black on the faces opposite to those painted
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
red. The remaining faces are painted green and
the cube is then cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal Example 6
size. Two equi-dimensional cubes are joined face-to-
1. Hiw many smaller cubes are painted red on one face and coloured red on all of their available
face and black on the other ? open faces. One cube is then cut into eight equal
smaller cubes and the other cube is cut into 27
(1) 24 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 0
equal smaller cubes.
1. How many smaller cubes have three of their faces Example 8
coloured ?
A cuboid of dimension 6 cm × 4 cm × 1 cm is
(1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 12 painted black on two of its faces with dimensions
4 cm × 1 cm, green on the faces with dimensions
2. How many smaller cubes have two of their faces
6 cm × 4 cm and red on the faces with dimensions
coloured ?
6 cm × 1 cm. The cuboid is the cut into smaller
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 18 cubes of diemensions 1 cm × 1 cm × 1 cm each.
3. How many smaller cubes have at least one of 1. How many smaller cubes are formed ?
their faces coloured ?
(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 4 (4) 6
(1) 24 (2) 30 (3) 35 (4) 33
2. How many smaller cubes have at least three of
4. How many smaller cubes have none of their faces their faces coloured with different colours ??
coloured ?
(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 4
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
3. How many smaller cubes have four faces
5. How many smaller cubes have only one of their coloured and two faces without colour ?
faces coloured ?
(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 10 (4) 8
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 7 (4) 9
4. If the smaller cubes having both black and green
Example 7 coloured faces are removed, then how many
Each of the faces of a cube is painted with cubes will remain ?
different colours. The face painted red is opposite (1) 20 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 4
to the one painted green. The face painted blue
5. How many cubes have two of their faces coloured
is between the red and green coloured faces. The
green and the remaining faces without any colour ?
face painted yellow is adjacent to the one painted
pink. The face painted white is adjacent to the (1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 12 (4) 8
yellow coloured one, and the green face is facing
down.
1. What is the colour of the face at the top ? EXERCISE
(1) Blue (2) White Directions (Q.1 to Q.5) : A cube is coloured red
on all of its faces. It is then cut into 64 smaller
(3) Red (4) Yellow cubes of equal size.
2. What is the colour of the face which is opposite 1. How many cubes are coloured only on two of
to the one coloured pink ? their faces ?
(1) White (2) Green (1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 24 (4) 36
(3) Blue (4) Yellow 2. How many cubes do not have any of their faces
3. What is the colour of the face which is opposite coloured ?
to the one coloured blue ? (1) 0 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 24
(1) Red (2) Yellow 3. How many cubes have opposite faces painted
(3) White (4) Pink with red colour ?
4. Which are the four colours on the faces adjacent (1) 24 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 0
to yellow coloured face ? 4. How many cubes have three of their faces painted ?
(1) Red, White , Blue, Pink (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 24
(2) Green, White, Blue, Pink 5. How many cubes have only one of their faces
(3) Red, Pink, Blue, Green painted ?
(4) White, Pink, Red, Green (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 24
Directions (Q.6 & Q.7) : A solid cube is painted 15. How many smaller cubes have two of their faces
red on two adjacent faces, black on the faces painted orange and black ?
opposite to the red coloured faces, and green on
(1) 12 (2) 16
the remaining faces. It is the cut into 64 smaller
cubes of equal size. (3) 24 (4) None of these
6. How many smaller cubes have two faces painted 16. How many smaller cubes have at least one of
: one with green and other with black or red ? their faces painted green ?
(1) 16 (2) 28 (3) 36 (4) 24 (1) 16 (2) 24 (3) 28 (4) 32
7. How many smaller cubes have one or two of their Directions (Q.17 to Q.20) : A cube of 8”
faces painted ? dimension is painted white, red and blue on the
three sets of adjacent faces. The cube is then cut
(1) 24 (2) 28 (3) 48 (4) 56
into smaller cubes each of 2” size.
Directions (Q.8 to Q.12) : A cube of 10” 17. How many smaller cubes are painted only on two
dimensions is coloured yellow, brown and orange of their faces ?
on the three set of opposite faces. The cube is
then cut into smaller cubes of 2” dimensions. (1) 18 (2) 24 (3) 20 (4) 26
8. How many smaller cubes are painted yellow and 18. How many smaller cubes have at least one of
brown on two adjacent faces ? their faces coloured white ?
(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 20 (4) 8 (1) 22 (2) 24 (3) 26 (4) 28
9. How many smaller cubes are painted only on one 19. How many smaller cubes have at least two of
of their faces ? their faces coloured red ?
(1) 18 (2) 54 (3) 36 (4) 42 (1) 0 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
10. How many smaller cubes are painted yellow on 20. How many smaller cubes have paint at least on
one face and brown on the opposite face ? one of their faces ?
(1) 0 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 12 (1) 36 (2) 48 (3) 56 (4) 60
11. How many smaller cubes are painted brown Directions (Q.21 to Q.25) : A cube is painted
atleast on one of their faces ? white on three adjacent faces and black on the
remaining three adjacent faces. The cube is then
(1) 18 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 50
cut into 27 smaller cubes of equal size.
12. How many smaller cubes are painted only on two 21. How many smaller cubes have only one of their
of their faces, one with brown and the other with faces painted white ?
orange ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
(1) 12 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 30
22. How many smaller cubes have paint on at least
Directions (Q.13 to Q.16) : A solid cube is
one of their faces ?
painted orange, green and black on the three sets
of opposite faces and then cut into 64 smaller (1) 26 (2) 24 (3) 27 (4) 21
cubes of equal size. 23. How many smaller cubes have three of their faces
13. How many smaller cubes have two of their faces painted with the same colour ?
painted orange ? (1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 8 (4) 2
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 0 (4) 2 24. How many smaller cubes have at least two of
14. How many smaller cubes have only one of their their faces painted black and white ?
faces painted either green or black ? (1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 12
(1) 16 (2) 24 (3) 12 (4) 8 25. How many smaller cubes have at least two of
their faces painted white ?
(1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 4
Directions (Q.26 to Q.29) : A solid cube is 34. How many smaller cubes have red colour on one
painted red on two adjacent faces, green on the of their faces, and the remaining faces without
faces opposite to the faces painted red, and black any colour ?
on the remaining faces. The cubes is the cut into
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 16
two parts through the centre without touching
the black face. One part is cut into 32 smaller 35. How many smaller cubes have at least two faces
identical cubes and the other part is cut into four coloured ?
smaller cubes of equal size. (1) 23 (2) 21 (3) 20 (4) 19
26. How many smalller cubes have black colour Direction (Q.36 to Q.39) : A cube is coloured
face(s) ? red on two of its opposite faces, blue on two
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 20 (4) 32 adjacent faces and yellow on the remaining faces.
It is then cut into two halves along the plane
27. How many smaller cubes have only red colour
parallel to the red coloured faces. One half is
face(s) ?
then cut into four equal cubes and the other into
(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 5 32 equal cubes.
28. How many smaller cubes have none of their faces 36. How many smaller cubes do not have a coloured
painted ? face ?
(1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4 (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8
29. How many smaller cubes have only two of their 37. How many smaller cubes do not have any red
faces painted ? coloured face ?
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 24 (4) 16 (1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 20 (4) 24
Directions (Q.30 to Q.32) : A solid cube is 38. How many smaller cubes have at least two
painted black on two adjacent faces and blue on coloured face ?
the faces opposite to the black faces and yellow
(1) 20 (2) 24 (3) 28 (4) 32
on the remaining faces. The cube is cut into 64
smaller cubes of equal size. 39. How many smaller cubes have a yellow coloured
face and all the other faces without any colour ?
30. How many smaller cubes have two faces painted
such that one of them is yellow ? (1) 12 (2) 16 (3) 17 (4) 4
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 20 Directions (Q.40 to Q.42) : There are two cubes
oftwo different sizes. One of these is coloured
31. How many smaller cubes have two faces painted
black on all the faces while the other is coloured
one black and the other blue ?
orange on all the faces except one which is
(1) 12 (2) 16 (3) 24 (4) 4 coloured black. The one which is black on all
the faces is cut into 125 equal cubes while the
32. How many smaller cubes have only yellow
other one is cut into 64 equal cubes. All the cubes
colour faces ?
are then mixed up among themselves.
(1) 20 (2) 16 (3) 12 (4) 8
40. How many smaller cubes have only one face
Directions (Q.33 to Q.35) : A cube is coloured painted black ?
red on one face, green on the opposite face,
(1) 58 (2) 7 (3) 46 (4) 32
yellow on another face and blue on a face
adjacent to the yellow coloured face. The 41. How many smaller cubes have orange colour on
remaining two faces are not coloured. It is then three of their faces ?
cut into 125 smaller cubes of equal size.
(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 12
33. How many smaller cubes have blue colour on one
42. How many smaller cubes have only two of their
of their faces, red or green colour on the other face,
faces painted ?
and the remaining four faces without colour ?
(1) 18 (2) 36 (3) 60 (4) 48
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 23
Directions (Q.43 to Q.47) : A cube of Directions (Q.52 to Q.56) : A cube of size 8” is
dimensions 10” is painted red, blue and green coloured red, yellow and orange on the three sets
respectively, on the three sets of opposite faces. of opposite faces. The cube is then cut into 43
The cube is then cut into 104 smaller cubes, some smaller cubes, some of size 4” and some of size
with 4” dimensions and some with 2” 2”. The 4” cubes have three of there faces painted
dimensions. Two of the cubes of dimensions 4” red, yellow and orange. The following questions
have only one of their faces painted red. The are basd on the smaller cubes of dimensions 2”
remaining cubes of dimensions 4” have only one and 4”.
of their faces painted green. The following
52. How many smaller cubes have two adjacent faces
questions are based on the smaller cubes
coloured red ?
ofdimensions 4” and 2”.
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 0
painted red, blue and green ? 53. How many smaller cubes have only one of their
faces coloured ?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 8
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 25
44. How many smaller cubes of 4” dimensions have
two of their faces coloured red and blue ? 54. How many smaller cubes have one face coloured
red and its opposite face coloured yellow ?
(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 4 (4) 3
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) 1
45. How many smaller cubes have at least two of
their faces coloured ? 55. How many smaller cubes havr none of their faces
painted ?
(1) 24 (2) 36 (3) 44 (4) 52
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
their faces painted blue ? 56. How many smaller cubes have two adjacent faces
coloured yellow and orange ?
(1) 36 (2) 42 (3) 48 (4) 50
(1) 13 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 3
47. How many smaller cubes have none of their faces
coloured ? Directions (Q.57 to Q.60) : The six faces of a
cube are painted in such a manner that no two
(1) 27 (2) 15 (3) 18 (4) 12 adjacent faces have the same colour. The three
Directions (Q.48 to Q.51) : A solid cube of size coloured used are red, white and black. The cube
4” is cut into smaller cubes of ½”, 1” and 2” is then cut into 36 smaller cubes in such a manner
dimensions. The following questions are based that 32 cubes of one size and the rest are of bigger
on the smaller cubes. size and each of the bigger cube has no red
coloured face.
48. If 1” and 2” cubes are one each in number, what
will be the total number of ½” cubes ? 57. How many smaller cubes have two or more of
their faces painted ?
(1) 510 (2) 440 (3) 424 (4) 540
(1) 32 (2) 36 (3) 28 (4) 16
49. If the number of 1” and 2” cubes are multiples
of 7, what will be the total number of smaller 58. How many smaller cubes have a red coloured
cubes (of all size together) ? face ?
(1) 21 (2) 20 (3) 22 (4) 24 (1) 32 (2) 20 (3) 16 (4) 8
50. If we get maximum possible number of 2” cubes, 59. How many smaller cubes have three of their faces
then how many ½” cubes will be obtained (along painted ?
with the maximum number of 2” cubes) ?
(1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 20 (4) 8
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8
60. How many smalller cubes have only two of their
51. If the number of 1” and 2” cubes are multiples faces painted ?
of 5, how many ½”cubes can be obtained ? (1) 16 (2) 20 (3) 28 (4) 32
(1) 36 (2) 80 (3) 112 (4) 120
ANALYTICAL REASONING
Example 1 (c) Keerthana is neither a singer nor a dancer.
A, B, C, D and E are five friends, who stay in (d) The person staying in Mumbai is neither an
sea view apartments in Mumbai. They are airhostesss nor a programmer.
Doctor, Advocate, Banker, Engineer and Auditor, (e) Monisha does not live in Agra and Anusha
but not in the same order. is not a singer.
(a) ‘A’ plays Cricket but is not an Engineer.
(f) The dancer lives neither in Pune nor in
(b) ‘D’ who is an Auditor does not play Hockey. Bangalore.
(c) The Advocate and the Doctor are not (g) Praveena is not a programmer.
interested in Basketball.
(h) The programmer does not live in Delhi.
(d) ‘B’ is an expert Golf player but is not an 1. Who is the programmer ?
Advocate.
(1) Praveena (2) Natasha
(e) ‘E’ finds time on Sunday morning to play
Tennis and he is a Banker. (3) Anusha (4) Monisha
(f) ‘C’ who does not like Golf is neither a Doctor 2. Where does the singer live ?
nor an Advocate. (1) Bangalore (2) Mumbai
(g) The Engineer is always the centre forward (3) Agra (4) Pune
in Hockey.
3. What is the profession of Keerthana ?
1. Who is a Basketball player ?
(1) Dancer (2) Painter
(1) A (2) C (3) D (4) B
(3) Programmer (4) Singer
2. Who is a Doctor ?
4. Where does the dancer lives ?
(1) B (2) D (3) A (4) E
(1) Agra (2) Pune
3. What is the profession of A ?
(3) Mumbai (4) Bangalore
(1) Doctor (2) Advocate
5. What is the profession of Anusha ?
(3) Banker (4) Auditor
(1) Airhostess (2) Programmer
4. Who plays Hockey ?
(3) Dancer (4) Painter
(1) B (2) A (3) E (4) C
6. Who lives in Mumbai ?
5. What is the profession of C ?
(1) Keerthana (2) Monisha
(1) Banker (2) Auditor
(3) Praveena (4) Natasha
(3) Engineer (4) Advocate
7. Who is the airhostess ?
Example 2
(1) Monisha (2) Natasha
Five girls Monisha, Anusha, Natasha, Keerthana
and Praveena are dancer, painter, singer, (3) Keerthana (4) Praveena
airhostess and programmer and live in Mumbai, 8. Who lives in Bangalore ?
Bangalore, Agra, Delhi and Pune but not in that
(1) Painter (2) Programmer
order.
(a) Praveena and Natasha live neither in Mumbai (3) Dancer (4) Airhostess
nor in Pune and neither of them is a painter 9. Where does Praveena lives ?
or a singer.
(1) Bangalore (2) Pune
(b) Monisha and Anusha are neither a
(3) Agra (4) Delhi
programmer nor an airhostess and they do
not live either in Delhi or in Mumbai.
10. Who lives in Pune ? 1. Between which two station the train E runs ?
(1) Natasha (2) Monisha (1) Mumbai to Pune
(3) Praveena (4) Keerthana (2) Goa to Mumbai
Example 3 (3) Pune to Kolkata
(a) A group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F (4) Mumbai to Kolkata
are members of a cosmopolitan club in South
2. Which train runs between Kolkata and Pune ?
Delhi.
(1) B (2) D (3) C (4) E
(b) Out of these six persons, two are musicians,
two are tennis players, one is a pop singer 3. Which common stationdo trains A and E reach ?
and one is a magician. (1) Mumbai (2) Pune
(c) A, the pop singer, is married to D, who is a (3) Kolkata (4) None
musician.
4. If a person wants to go from Goa to Kolkata via
(d) The magician is married to B who is of the Pune, which two trains will he select ?
same profession as that of F.
(1) A and C (2) A and D
(e) A, B, C and D are two married couples in
the group. (3) B and E (4) E and D
(f) F and C are brothers. Likewise, D and E are Example 5

sisters. Four men Venkat, Jayanth, Murali and Trilok are
(g) In the pair of tennis players, only one is a sales executive, accountant, lawyer and doctor
male. by profession but not in the same order, and they
are accompanied by their children to P.C.
1. Which of the following is a pair of musicians ? Sarkar’s magic show. Each person with only one
(1) B, E (2) B, F (3) D, E (4) A, B child. Trilok and Jayanth came with their sons
and none of them is a sales executive or a doctor.
2. Who is the magician ?
Neetu, a sweet cute girl, is not the doctor’s
(1) A (2) C (3) D (4) B daughter. Gagan is not Jayanth’s son. Sumantha’s
father is not an accountant. Teena is not Murali’s
3. What is the B’s profession ?
daughter.
(1) Musician (2) Magician
1. Who is the chuld of sales executive ?
(3) Tennis player (4) Pop singer
(1) Neetu (2) Gagan
4. Which of the following is a pair of males ?
(3) Sumanth (4) Teena
(1) A, B (2) B, C (3) D, C (4) F, C
2. Who is Gagan’s father and what is he ?
5. Which of the following is a pair of married
(1) Trilok – Sales executive
women ?
(2) Venket – Sales executive
(1) A, B (2) B, D (3) C, D (4) D, E
(3) Murali – Accountant
Example 4
(4) Trilok – Accountant
A, B, C, D and E are five trains which run
between the following stations : (a) Mumbai and 3. If Sumanth and Gagan are cousins, which two
Pune, (b) Kolkata and Mumbai, (c) Pune and men are brothers ?
Goa, (d) Goa and Mombai, (e) Pune and Kolkata.
(1) Venkat and Murali
Trains A and D do not go to Mumbai, B and C
(2) Venkat and Trilok
do not go to Kolkata and C and D do not touch
Goa. (3) Jayanth and Trilok
(4) Jayanth and Murali
4. Who is Teena’s father and what is his profession ? Monday is not a holiday and A is not performed
on Tuesday. If A is performed on a day, the
(1) Venkat – Sales executive
previous daymust be a holiday. Between A and
(2) Trilok – Accountaant C, there must be two programmes. E is followed
(3) Jayanth – Lawyer by D.
(4) Venkat – Doctor 5. Which day is a holiday ?

(1) Monday (2) Wednesday
(3) Thursday (4) Tuesday
EXERCISE
6. On which day A is performed ?
Directions (Q.1 to Q.4) : There are six members
in Mehta’s family A, B, C, D, E and F, out of (1) Monday (2) Wednesday
whom three are males. (3) Thursday (4) Tuesday
(a) There are two dentists, two auditors, one 7. What is the correct order of the programme ?
contractor an one lecturer.
(1) E, D, A, B, C (2) E, A, D, B, C
(b) B is a contractor.
(3) A, E, D, B, C (4) B, A, E, D, C
(c) A, C, B, E are married couples having
different professions. Directins (Q.8 to Q.10) : A college principal
wishes to select four members of a faculty student
(d) Both married men are in the same colour committee as representatives to celebrate the
dress. Married women are also in the same institute’s Silver Jubilee Celebrations. The
colour dress. faculty are Anup, Bhavya, Chetan and Divya and
(e) Two members are in cream colour dress, two the four students are Rohit, Sandeep, Tanuja and
are in white, one is in navy blue and one is Usha. The principal can select the members as
in black. representatives based on the following
conditions.
(f) A is the male dentist whose sister D is also a
dentist. The team of four members must have exactly
two faculty members and two students.
(g) E is a lecturer in cream colour dress who
married a male contractor with white colour Either Anup or Bhavya must be one of the
dress. representatives, but both Anup and Bhavya
cannoy be representatives.
1. Which of the following is a pair of married
couple ? if Rohit is a representative, Chetan must also be
selected.
(1) A, B (2) A, C (3) B, D (4) A, E
If Tanuja is selected, Bhavya cannot be a
2. Which is the colour of D’s dress ?
representative.
(1) Cream (2) White 8. If Rohit is selected, who among the following
(3) Navy blue or black (4) Black cannot be selected ?
3. Who are the male members ? (1) Chetan (2) Usha
(1) A, B, E (2) A, C, E (3) Sandeep (4) Divya
(3) A, D, E (4) A, B, F 9. If Bhavya, Divya and Snadeep are
representatives, who will be the other member
4. Who are the auditors in the group ?
in the team ?
(1) B, D (2) C, F (3) E, F (4) A, F
(1) Usha (2) Rohit
Directions (Q.5 to Q.7) : A, B, C, D and E are
(3) Chetan (4) Divya
five cultural programmes to be performed, one
on each day from Monday to Saturday on the
following conditions.
10. If neither Sandeep nor Usha is represented, which be presented in the after noon session, subject to
of the following faculty must be in the team ? the following conditions :
(1) Bhavya and Chetan (a) L’s presentation must immediately precede
M’s presentation. Their presentations cannot
(2) Anup and Chetan
be separated by the lunch break.
(3) Anup and Divya
(b) N must be either the first or the last in the
(4) Anup and Bhavya order of presenters.
Directions (Q.11 to Q.14) : A picnic party of 15. If M has to be the fifth in the order of presenters,
eight persons consists of two women A and B, then what is the order of L ?
three men P, Q and R and three children X, Y
(1) First (2) Second
and Z. Each of these eight members should find
place in one of the three teams being formed to (3) Third (4) Fourth
play picnic games according to the following 16. If P’s presentation must immediately follow N’s
conditions : presentation, M could be scheduled for which of
(a) Each team must have either two or three the following places in the order of presenters ?
members.
(1) Second (2) Fifth
(b) Each team must have at least one child.
(3) Third (4) First
(c) A and X cannot be in the same team.
17. If P and O are fifth and sixth respectively in the
(d) Q and R cannot be in the same team. order, which of the following must be true ?
(e) P and Y must be in the same team. (1) K is first (2) K is third
11. If P is in the same team as Q, which of the (3) K is fourth (4) L is first
following pairs must be in a team together ?
Directions (Q.18 to Q.21) : In a parking lot in
(1) A and Y (2) A and Z mount road there are siz parking slots in a row
numbered 1 to 6 consecutively. Exactly five cars
(3) B and Y (4) A and X
of five different colours blue, green, maroon, red
12. If the two women are in a team together, who and white are to be parked in the slots according
among the following must be in a team that has to the following conditions :
three members ?
(a) The red car must be parked in slot 3.
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) X
(b) The blue car must be parked in the slot next
13. If two of the men are in a team together, who to slot in which the white car is parked.
among the following must be in a team that has
(c) The green car cannot be parked in a slot next
three members ?
to the slot in which the maroon car is parked.
(1) A (2) B (3) R (4) Y
18. If the white car is parked in slot 2, which of the
14. If a is in the same team as P, which of the following must be true ?
following could be true ?
(1) The blue car is parked in a slot next to the
(1) Two women are in a team together maroon car.
(2) B is in a team with Z (2) The maroon car is parked next to red.
(3) P is in a team with R (3) The green car is parked next to blue
(4) Two of the men are in a team together (4) None of the cars is parked in slot number 5.
Directions (Q.15 to Q.17) : K, L, M, N, O and P 19. In which of the following slots, the maroon car
are six doctors. Each of them is required to cannot be parked
present a paper on AIDS in a symposium. Three
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 5
paper will be presented in the morning session
before the lunch break and the other three will
20. If the green car is parked in slot 2, which of the the other side directly opposite to the first three.
following slots remain vacant ? The seventh sits at the head of the table. The
fourth side of the table has no seats.
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
(a) U always sits in one of the two seats farthest
21. Which of the following must be true of any
from the head of the table.
acceptable parking arrangement ?
(b) Y and V always sit next to each other.
(1) There is an empty slot next to the green car
(c) V never sits next to Z.
(2) One of the cars is parked in slot number 6
(d) If Z does not sit at the head of the table, W
(3) One of the cars is parked in slot number 2
sits there.
(4) There is an empty slot next to the white car.
25. Which of the following is an acceptable seating
Directions (Q.22 to Q.24) : The membership of arrangement of executives, starting with U,
two clubs namely A and B must be chosen by a moving towards the head of the table, and
group of seven persons Geetha (G), Haritha (H), continuing around the table ?
Indu (I), Jahnavi (J), Kavitha (K), Lavanya (L)
(1) U, X, T, Z, V, Y, W
and Malini (M).
(2) U, T, X, Z, Y, V, W
(a) Each of the seven people must be a member
of either A or B. (3) U, X, Z, Y, V, W, T
(b) No one can be a member of both clubs (4) U, Z, W, X, V, Y, T
simultaneously. 26. If W sits directly opposite to T, who among the
(c) Malini cannot be in a club with Geetha or following sits next to X ?
Jahnavi.
(1) W (2) U (3) V (4) Y
(d) Haritha cannot be with Indu.
27. If T sits directly opposite to Z, and next to V, which
22. If Haritha is a member of club A, which of the executive must sit directly opposite to U ?
following must be true ?
(1) V (2) W (3) X (4) Y
(1) Malini is a member of club A
28. If W sits directly opposite to U and next to T,
(2) Geetha is a member of club B which of the following pair of executives sit on
either side of X ?
(3) Indu is a member of club B
(1) Y and V (2) Y and W
(4) Kavitha is a member of club A
(3) T and Z (4) T and V
23. If Lavanya is not a member in a club with Kavitha
or Indu, which of the following cannot be true ? Directions (Q.29 to Q.32) : Three brothers
Ranjit, Sailesh and Tushar are married to three
(1) Malini is in club with Indu
sisters Archana, Bhargavi and Chandrika, but not
(2) Geetha is in club with Haritha in the same order.
(3) Haritha is in club with Kavitha (a) Chandrika has long hair.
(4) Indu is in club with Kavitha (b) The dancer (one of the sisters) lives in Goa.
24. If exactly two people are members of club A, (c) The one married to Tushar is very fair.
which of the following must be one of the two ?
(d) The sister with long hair does not like to write
(1) Geetha (2) Malini letters.
(3) Jahnavi (4) Lavanya (e) Archana calls her dancer sister every Sunday.
Directions (Q.25 to Q.28) : When they hold a (f) The sister in Pune is married to Tushar.
meeting, seven company executives T, U, V, W,
(g) Tushar’s phone bills are high.
X, Y and Z sit around a rectangular table. Three
sit along one side of the table and three sit along (h) Sailesh is married to the dancer.
(i) Chandrika recieves a letter from Goa once (1) Sales executive-Madhurima
in a week.
(2) Architect-Chandana
(j) The sister who does not like to write letters (3) Advocate-Sahana
lives in Mysore.
(4) Naval officer-Kanchana
29. Which sister lives in Pune ?
35. Who is the wife of naval officer ?
(1) Archana (2) Bhargavi
(1) Roopa (2) Chandana
(3) Chandrika (4) None
(3) Madhurima (4) Kanchana
30. Who lives in Goa ?
36. Who, among the following, is engaged in
(1) Ranjit (2) Sailesh
doctor’s profession with her husband ?
(3) Archana (4) Chandrika
(1) Sahana (2) Madhurima
31. Who is Chandrika’s husband ?
(3) Chandana (4) Roopa
(1) Ranjit (2) Sailesh Directions (Q.37 to Q.39) : An IT company
(3) Tushar (4) None wants to select a team of four computer engineers
to work in Pune where they are going to set up a
32. Who is the dancer ?
new branch. The company is managed by
(1) Archana (2) Bhargavi professional engineers and is very particular
(3) Chandrika (4) None about human resources and industrial relations.
A, B and C are three software engineers of equal
Directions (Q.33 to Q.36) : Five women talent. P, Q, R and S are four network engineers.
Madhurima, Kanchana, Sahana and Roopa are The company wants to select two software and
married to doctor, naval officer, advocate, sales two network engineers to form a team. To
executive and an architect. The women are generate a real team spirit and to have good
auditor, lecturer and doctor by profession while industrial relations, it is necessary that the selcted
the other two are housewives. members must be friendly with each other.
(a) Madurima and Kanchana are not housewives (a) B and P are not friendly.
and they are married to either a doctor or an
architect. (b) C and R are not friendly.
(b) Roopa is not a doctor. (c) P and Q are not friendly.
(c) Sahana and Roopa are neither a lecturer nor 37. If P is in the team, who will be other engineers
an auditor and their husbands are neither an in the team ?
architect noe in navy. (1) A, C, R (2) A, C, Q
(d) Chandana is not a lecturer and the lecturer’s (3) A, C, S (4) A, B, S
husband is naval officer.
38. If both B and C are selected, who are the other
(e) One husband and wife have the same members in the team ?
profession.
(1) Both Q and S (2) Both R and S
(f) The sales executive is not Madhurima’s or
(3) Both P and Q (4) Only R
Chandana’s husband. His wife is an auditor.
39. Which of the following statements are true for A ?
33. Who is the wife of an architect ?
(i) A must be selected as one of the software
(1) Auditor (2) Housewife
engineers in the team.
(3) Doctor (4) Lecturer
(ii) A must be selected if R is selected.
34. Which of the following pair is the correct
(iii) A cannot be selected if both P and R rejected.
combination of husband-wife ?
(1) (i) only (2) (ii) only (3) S was born in 1991
(3) (iii) only (4) (i) and (ii) only (4) H was born in 1993
Directions (Q.40 to Q.42) : Avinash has five 44. If A is younger than K, which of the following
grandsons and nine granddaughters. He decided statements need not be true ?
to give them a gift for New year. He takes 200
(1) K was born in 1992
one-rupee coins and puts them in two bags which
he then closes. One of the bags contains more (2) M was born in 1994
coins than the other. He asks his granddaughter (3) B was born in 1991
to choose one of the bags. They happen to select
the bag containing more coins than the other. The (4) A was born in 1993
girls now open the bag and try to distribute the 45. If S was born in 1992, which of the following
coins equally among themselves. They find they must be true ?
have three coins more than would allow an equal
distribution. The boys get the other bag. They (1) M was born in 1990
open it and find they need one coin more to make (2) K was born in 1995
an equal distribution among themselves. Avinash
(3) K was born in 1994
advises the girls to hand over one coin to the
boys and donate to coins for charity. Now the (4) B was born in 1991
girls are able to have an equal distribution among Directions (Q.46 to Q.49) : A Lions club’s board
them, so also the boys. No boy gets less than a of directors composed of four women Kirthi,
girl. Latha, Maya, Neetu and three men Ram, Shyam
40. What is the difference between the number of and Tom hold frequent meetings. A meeting can
coins in the two bags ? be held at Latha’s, Neetu’s or Shyam’s house.
(1) 22 (2) 13 (3) 24 (4) 15 (a) Neetu cannot attend any meeting at Latha’s
house.
41. How many coins did each girl get ?
(b) Maya cannot attend any meeting on Tuesday
(1) 14 (2) 18 (3) 12 (4) 15
or on Friday.
42. How many more coins did each boy get than each
(c) Kirthi cannot attend any meeting at Neetu’s
girl ?
house.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
(d) Ram can attend only those meetings that Tom
Directions (Q.43 to Q.45) : Six daughters of attends.
Kapoor’s family Anitha (A), Babitha (B), Haritha
(e) Shyam can attend only those meetings that
(H), Kavitha (K), Mamatha (M) and Sunitha
both Kirthi and Maya attend.
(S) were all born on the same date and month
but each was born in a different year during a 46. If all the members of the board have to attend a
consecutive period of six years. particular meeting, on which day and in whose
house should it be held ?
(a) H is younger than A.
(1) Monday at Latha’s house
(b) Both K and M are younger than B.
(2) Tuesday at Shyam’s house
(c) K is two years younger than S.
(3) Wednesday at Neetu’s house
(d) A was born either in 1992 or 1993.
(4) Thursday at Shyam’s house
(e) The oldest member of group was born in 1990.
47. If Shyam attends at meeting on Thursday, which
43. If A was born in 1992, then which of the
is not held at his house, which of the following
following must also be true ?
must be true ?
(1) B was born in 1990
(1) The group can include at most two women
(2) M was born in 1993
(2) The meeting is at Latha’s house.
(3) Ram is not at the meeting. (2) One of the two men is in a group with W.
(4) Tom is not at the meeting. (3) R is in a group with a man.
48. If Maya and Kirthi attend a meeting but Tom is (4) T’s group includes exactly one child.
unable to attend, which of the following could
Directions (Q.54 to Q.57) : Six film stars Juhi
be true ?
(J), Kareena (K), Mahima (M), Sonali (S),
(1) The meeting is held on Tuesday Twinkle (T) and Urmila (U) are watching a
preview of a hindi movie in a theatre. There are
(2) The meeting is held on Friday
eight seats in four rows, numbered 1 to 4, and
(3) The meeting is held at Neetu’s house each row has two seats. The seating arrangement
(4) The meeting is held at Shyam’s house is made according to the following conditions :
49. If Tom is unable to attend a meeting on Tuesday (a) K must sit in the same row as S.
at Neetu’s house, what is the largest possible (b) M cannot sit in the same row as T.
number of board members who can attend ?
(c) J must sit alone in a row.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(d) The rows with only one film star must be
Directions (Q.50 to Q.53) : Three women R, S rows 1 and 3 only.
and T, two men U and V, and four children W, X,
54. Which of the following heroines can sit in the
Y and Z are going to a game. They have a total
same row with M ?
of nine seats for the game, but the seats are in
three different sections of the arena; they have a (1) J (2) K (3) S (4) U
group of three adjacent seats in each section. For 55. If K and S are in row 2, which of the following
the game, the nine people must divide into groups must be true ?
of three according to the following restrictions :
(1) J is in row 1 (2) U is in row 4
(a) No adults of the same sex can be together in
any group. (3) M is in row 1 (4) M is in row 4
(b) W cannot be in R’s group. 56. If J is not in row 3, U with one more film star is
in row 2, who are the film stars sitting in row 4 ?
(c) X must be in group with S or U or both.
(1) M, T (2) K, T (3) S, J (4) K, S
50. If R is the only adult in one group, who are the
other members of her group ? 57. How many fil stars are eligible to be assigned to
sit in the same row as U ?
(1) W and X (2) W and Y
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) X and Y (4) Y and Z
Directions (Q.58 to Q.60) : Ten models of FTII
51. Which of the following pair of people can be in
– Pune are standing in a straight line numbered
the same group as W ?
1 to 10 for a fashion parade. Each one of them is
(1) R and Y (2) S and U wearing a sari of different colour. One is in white,
two are in different shades of blue, three are in
(3) S and V (4) U and V
different shades of pink and the remaining four
52. If T, Y and Z are in one group, which of the are wearing different shades of green.
following must be together in one of the other
(a) The model in pink sari is not standing next
groups ?
to the model in white sari.
(1) R, S, V (2) R, U, W
(b) The model in green sari is not standing next
(3) S, U, W (4) S, V, W to the model in blue sari.
53. Which of the following must be true ? (c) The two models wearing blue saris are
(1) One of the women is in a group with two adjacent to each other.
children. (d) Two models in pink sari are one in the
beginning and one at the end.
58. If a model in pink sari is in position 2 and the models
in green are in position 3 and 4, then in which
position is the model in white sari standing ?
(1) Fifth (2) Sixth
(3) Seventh (4) Eighth
59. If a model in pink sari is in the third position and
a model in blue is in the fourth position, then
what is the position of the model in white sari ?
(1) Second (2) Fifth
(3) Sixth (4) Seventh
60. If the model in white sari is in the fifth position
and a model in blue sari is in the fourth position,
which of the following must be true ?
(1) Model in pink sari is in seventh position
(2) Model in greeen sari is in ninth position
(3) Model in pink sari is in sixth position
(4) Model in green sari is in second position.
BLOOD RELATION
Example 1 (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 4
Bharat’s mother says to Bharat, “My mother has 6. Who is the wife of E ?
a son whose son is Amar.” How is Amar related (1) A
to Bharat ?
(2) F
(1) Cousin (2) Father
(3) B
(3) Brother (4) Grandfather
(4) Can’t be datermined
Example 2
Example 5
Anil introduces Mohan saying, “He is the
husband of the granddaughter of the father of (a) A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of
my father and my father is the only son of his Mehta’s family.
father.” How is Mohan related to Anil ? (b) There are two married couple.
(1) Son (2) Nephew (c) B is an engineer and the father of E.
(3) Brother-in-law (4) Son-in-law (d) F is the paternal grandfather of C and is a
Example 3 doctor.
Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, (e) D is the paternal grandmother of E and is a
“Hie brother’s father is the only son of my housewife.
grandfather.” How is the woman related to the (f) There is an engineer, one doctor, one teacher,
man in the photograph ? one housewife and two students in the family.
(1) Aunt (2) Daughter 1. Who is the sister of E ?
(3) Mother (4) Sister (1) C (2) D
Example 4 (3) A (4) Data Inadequate
Six members of Kapoor’s family A, B, C, D, E 2. Who among the following members are the males ?
and F are travelling in a Sumo.
(1) F and D (2) B, F and A
(a) B is the son of C, but C is not the mother of B.
(3) B and F (4) B, F and D
(b) A and C are married couple.
3. Who is the husband of A ?
(c) E is the brother of C.
(1) C (2) F (3) B (4) E
(d) D is the daughter of A.
4. What is A’s profession ?
(e) F is the brother of B.
(1) Student (2) Teacher
1. How many children do a have ?
(3) Housewife or teacher (4) Housewife
(1) One (2) Three
5. Which of the following are the two merried
(3) Four (4) Two couples ?
2. How is E related to B ? (1) FD, BE (2) FD, CA
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) FD, BA (4) ED, CF
(3) Father (4) None of these Example 6
3. Who is the mother of B ? (a) P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a
(1) A (2) E (3) D (4) F family, and each of them is in a different
peofession, namely philosopher, manager,
4. Which of the following is a pair of females ? advocate, businessman, dentist and
(1) B, D (2) A, E (3) A, D (4) D, F contractor.
5. How many males are there in Kapoor’s family ? (b) In this group, there are two married couple.
(c) The dentist is the grandfather of U who is a 1. If P × Q ÷ R – S, then how is P related to S ?
philosopher.
(1) Grandfather (2) Father
(d) The manager S is married to P. (3) Grandmother (4) Sister
(e) R, the businessman, is married to the
2. Given P × Q ÷ R – S + T, then how is P related to
advocate.
T?
(f) Q is the mother of U and T.
(1) Brother (2) Great-aunt
1. What is the profession of P ?
(3) Maternal uncle (4) Mother
(1) Dentist (2) Businessman 3. Which of the following shows that P is the aunt
(3) Manager (4) Advocate of T ?
2. How many male members are there in the family ? (1) P + Q – R × S ÷ T
(1) Three (2) P ÷ Q × R + S – T
(2) Two (3) P – Q + R ÷ S × T
(3) Four (4) P × Q ÷ R × S – T
(4) Can’t be determined Example 9
3. Which of the following is one of the two pairs of (a) A family consists of seven persons A, B, C,
couples in the family ? D, E, F and G. They all appeared for an IQ test.
(1) P, R (2) P, S (b) There are two married couples and total three
females in the family.
(3) P, Q (4) None of these
(c) G, a female, is the most intelligent.
4. What is the profession of T ?
(d) B, the father of E, is more intelligent than his
(1) Businessmen (2) Philosopher
son.
(3) Dentist (4) Contractor
(e) C has one son and one daughter. She is more
5. What is the relation between P and T ? intelligent than her husband.
(1) Uncle (2) Grandfather (f) The father of B is more intelligent than B.
(3) Brother (4) Father (g) E, the grandson of F, is the least intelligent.
Example 7 (h) F, the grandfather, is the second-most
A woman walking with a boy to a market meets intelligent in the family.
another woman and then asked how the boy is (i) The mother of B is less intelligent than B.
related to her, she says, ‘My maternal uncle and
(j) None among the married topped the IQ test.
his maternal uncle’s maternal uncle are brothers.’
How is the boy related to the woman ? (k) The grandmother of G has two sons; one of
whom is D, who is more intelligent than his
(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law
brother but less intelligent than his brother’s wife.
(3) Grandson (4) Son
(l) Nobody is a widow or a widower in the family.
Example 8
1. How are C and A related ?
A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’.
(1) Daughter-in-law and mother-in-law
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
(2) Daughter-in-law and father-in-law
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’.
(3) Son-in-law and mother-in-law
A × B means ‘A is the sister of B’.
(4) Mother and daughter
2. Who is B’s spouse ? 5. A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’, and A + B
means ‘A is the father of B. Which of the
(1) A (2) D
following means ‘M is the nephew of N ?
(3) C (4) Can’t say
(1) N × K + M (2) N + M × K
3. Who among the following are a married couple
(3) M × K + N (4) None of these
?
Directions (Q.6 to Q.9) : Amar goes to the house
(1) A, E (2) A, C (3) A, D (4) A, F
of his sister Ashwini in R.T Nagar who is the
4. Who is the third most intelligent in the family ? neighbour of Shalini. Shalini has a daughter
(1) C (2) D (3) A (4) B Chandni. Chandni is studying medicine. Rajesh
is the father of Amar and is married to Deepika
5. Who is the less intelligent than all but E ? and has a sister who is Shalini.
(1) D (2) A (3) C (4) B 6. How is Shalini related to Amar ?
6. How is G related to D ? (1) Aunt (2) Sister
(1) Cousin (2) Daughter (3) Cousin (4) Mother
(3) Daughter-in-law (4) Niece 7. How is Shalini related to Rajesh ?
(1) Sister (2) Sister-in-law
EXERCISE (3) Aunt (4) Mother
1. Introducing a man, a woman said, ‘he is the only 8. How is Rajesh related to Ashwini ?
son of my mother’s mother’. How is the woman
(1) Uncle (2) Father
related to the man ?
(3) Cousin (4) Brother
(1) Aunt (2) Niece
9. How is Chandni related to Amar ?
(3) Mother (4) Sister
(1) Niece (2) Uncle
2. Pointing at the girl in the park, Rajesh said, ‘she
is the daughter of my paternal grandfather’s only (3) Brother (4) Cousin
son’. How is Rajesh related to that girl ? Directions (Q.10 to Q.13) : A family consists
(1) Cousin (2) Son of seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G. A is the
father of B. D is B’s only sister. B is married to F
(3) Uncle (4) Brother
and has two children. C is the mother-in-law of
3. Pointing to a woman, a girl said, ‘she is the only F.
daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my
10. How is D related to G ?
father’s son’. How is the woman related to the
girl ? (1) Uncle (2) Aunt
(1) Sister-in-law (2) Cousin (3) Mother (4) Niece
(3) Mother-in-law (4) Aunt 11. How is A related to F ?
4. S × T means ‘S is the brother of T’. (1) Father (2) Uncle
S – T means ‘S is the mother of T’. (3) Nephew (4) Father-in-law
S + T means ‘S is the father of T’. 12. How is E and G related ?
Which of the following represents M is the son (1) Brothers (2) Siblings
of Q ? (3) Sisters (4) Can’t say
(1) M × R + Q (2) M + R × Q 13. How is E related to C ?
(3) M – R + Q (4) Q + M × R (1) Grandchild (2) Daughter
(3) Son (4) Can’t say
14. P + Q means ‘P is the husband of Q’. (3) Cousins (4) Nephew
P ÷ Q means ‘P is the sisters of Q’. 22. What is the surname of Kiran ?
P × Q means ‘P is the son of Q’. (1) Gupta (2) Arora
Which of the following shows ‘A is the daughter (3) Khanna (4) Dhingra
of B’ ?
23. What is the surname of Rohini ?
(1) A ÷ D × B (2) D × B + C ÷ A
(1) Uncle (2) Aunt
(3) B + C × A (4) C × B ÷ A (3) Mother (4) Niece
Directions (Q.15 to Q.18) : A family has six
24. How is the son of the woman who is the mother
persons A, B, C, D, E and F. There are four males
of the wife of my father related to me ?
and two females in the family. A has two sons
and is married to C. One of the sons of A is (1) Uncle (2) Father
married and has a son F. B is the mother of F. (3) Son (4) Grandfather
15. How is F related to A ? 25. Pointing to a lady, a man said, ‘she is the only
(1) Father (2) Son daughter of my mother’s husband’s only son’.
How is the lady related to the man ?
(3) Grandson (4) Can’t say
(1) Sister (2) Aunt
16. Which two persons are siblings ?
(3) Daughter(4) Niece
(1) D and E (2) D and B
26. A marriage party travelling in two vans consists
(3) E and B (4) A and B
of grandmother, father, mother, four sons and
17. How is B related to A ? thier wives and one son and two daughters of
each of the sons. How many females are there in
(1) Daughter (2) Niece
all ?
(3) Daughter-in-law (4) Can’t say
(1) 18 (2) 16 (3) 14 (4) 12
18. How is F related to D ?
27. Introducing a girl, Vinay said, ‘The son of her
(1) Son (2) Nephew only brother is the brother of my wife’. How is
(3) Niece (4) Can’t say the girl related to Vinay ?
Directions (Q.19 to Q.23) : Sushma, Ramesh (1) Grandmother (2) Mother-in-law

and Mahesh are children of Mr. and Mrs. (3) Sister of father-in-law(4) Maternal aunt
Dhingra. Seema, Rohit and Shriram are children
28. X and Y is a married couple. A and B are the
of Mr. and Mrs. Gupta. Shriram and Sushma are
brothers. A is the brother of X. How B related to
married couple with two sons Kiran and Amar.
Y?
Harini and Pallavi are children of Mr. Khanna.
Harini is married to Mahesh and thier children (1) Brother-in-law (2) Father-in-law
are Samant, Rohini and Suman.
(3) Son-in-law (4) Brother
19. How is Ramesh related to Kiran ?
29. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Sanjay, ‘I
(1) Uncle (2) Cousin am the only daughter of this woman and her son
is your maternal uncle’. How is the lady related
(3) Brother-in-law (4) Grandfather
to Sanjay’s father ?
20. How is Seema related to Amar ?
(1) Wife (2) Sister-in-law
(1) Sister (2) Wife
(3) Either of the two (4) Aunt
(3) Aunt (4) Niece
21. How is Shriram related to Mahesh ?
(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law
30. P + Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’. 36. How is F related to E ?
P × Q means ‘P is the father of Q’. (1) Brother (2) Maternal uncle
P – Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’. (3) Nephew (4) Paternal uncle
Which of the following represents S is the niece 37. How many nephews does F have ?
of T ?
(1) Nil (2) Two
(1) T × S + M – K (2) T + M × S – K
(3) Three (4) One
(3) K – S × M + T (4) T × M + S – K 38. How is E related to F ?
Directions (Q.31 to Q.34) :
(1) Sister (2) Daughter
(a) There are six members A, B, C, D, E and F in
(3) Wife (4) Niece
a family.
Directions (Q.39 to Q.42) : A, B, C, D, E, F, G
(b) There are two married couples.
and H are eight members of a family. B is the
(c) C is the wife of B and mother of F. only son of A. D has two children and is wife of
B. The siblings are of different sex. G is the
(d) F is the granddaughter of E.
husband of F. B’s son is married and has a son H.
(e) D is the grandmother of A and mother of B.
39. How is B related to G ?
31. Who among the following is one of the couples ?
(1) Father (2) Father-in-law
(1) C and D (2) B and E
(3) Mother (4) Son-in-law
(3) D and E (4) A and C
40. Who is the son of B and D ?
32. How many male members are there in the family ?
(1) E (2) C
(1) 2
(3) F (4) Can’t say
(2) 4
41. How is D related to A ?
(3) 1
(1) Daughter (2) Granddaughter
(4) Cannot be determined
(3) Daughter-in-law (4) Grandson
33. How is C related to A ?
42. How is D realted to H ?
(1) Grandmother (2) Aunt
(1) Grandmother (2) Grandfather
(3) Mother (4) Daughter
(3) Mother (4) Daughter-in-law
34. Which of the following statements is true ?
Directions (Q.43 to Q.46) : A, B, C, D, E and F
(1) A is the brother of F are six delegates attending a symposium in IIT–
(2) B has two daughters Mumbai. A and E are brothers. F is the sister of
E. C is the only son of A’s uncle. B and D are the
(3) A is the sister of E daughters of the brother of C’s father.
(4) F is the sister of A. 43. How is C related to F ?
Directions (Q.35 to Q.38) : A is the son of B; C, (1) Son (2) Brother
B’s sister has a son D and a daughter E; F is the
maternal uncle of D. (3) Cousin (4) Uncle
35. How is A related to D ? 44. How many male delegates are there ?
(1) Nephew (2) Cousin (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
(3) Uncle (4) Brother 45. How is D related to A ?

(1) Uncle (2) Sister
(3) Niece (4) Can’t say
46. How many female delegates are there ? 54. How is F and D related ?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 3 (1) Cousin (2) Brother
Directions (Q.47 to Q.49) : (3) Sister (4) Can’t say
A + B means ‘A is the daughter of B’. 55. Pointing to a photograph a man tells his friend,
‘she is the daughter of the only son of my father’s
A × B means ‘A is the son of B’.
wife’. How is the girl in the photograph related
A – B means ‘A is the wife of B’. to the man ?
47. Given P × Q – S, which of the following is true ? (1) Sister (2) Daughter
(1) S is the wife of Q (3) Cousin (4) Wife
(2) P is the daughter of Q 56. What will my brother’s daughter’s paternal
(3) S is the father of P grandfather’s wife be to me ?
(4) Q is the father of P (1) Aunt (2) Sister
48. Given T – S × B – M, which of the following is (3) Mother (4) Niece

not true ? 57. Showing a lady, Suman said, ‘she is the daughter
(1) B is the mother of S of the mother of my father’s mother-in-law’s only
child’. How is the lady related to Suman ?
(2) M is the husband of B
(1) Mother (2) Daughter
(3) S is the daughter of B
(3) Niece (4) Sister
(4) T is the wife of S
Directions (Q.58 to Q.60) :
49. Given Z × T – S × U + P, how is U related to Z ?
A × B means ‘A is the father of B’.
(1) Grandmother (2) Father
A B means ‘A is the sister of B’.
(3) Mother (4) Can’t say
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’.
Directions (Q.50 to Q.54) : A, B, C, D, E, F, G
and H are eight persons of a family. G is E’s A – B means ‘A is the mother of B’.
father-in-law and has two grandchildren. A is the A ÷ B means ‘A is the son of B’.
only brother of B. C is the wife of A and has one
daughter. H is D’s grandmother. H has two A = B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
children. 58. Which of the following means X is the
grandfather of Y ?
50. Who is married to G ?
(1) X × Z × Y (2) Y × Z ÷ X
(1) B (2) F (3) H (4) D
(3) Z × X = Y (4) X + Y ÷ Z
51. Who is the daughter of A and C ?
(1) F (2) D 59. Which of the following means Y is the mother
of X and Z ?
(3) Either F or D (4) E
(1) X + Y – Z (2) Y – X ÷ Z
52. How is A related to D ?
(3) Y – X + Z (4) Y ÷ X × Z
(1) Father (2) Mother
60. Which of the following means Z is the grandson
(3) Uncle (4) Can’t say of Y ?
53. How is H related to A ? (1) Z – X ÷ Y (2) Z – X – Y
(1) Father (2) Mother (3) Y + X – Z (4) Z ÷ X = Y
(3) Uncle (4) Daughter
SEATING ARRANGEMENT
Example 1 (1) Anil (2) Eshwar
Five friends A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a (3) Fazal (4) Chand
bench in a park. 2. If Bharat is sitting at one end, then who is sitting
(a) A is sitting next to B. at the other end of the row ?
(b) C is sitting next to D. (1) Anil
(c) D is not sitting with E. (2) Eshwar
(d) A is to the right of B and E. (3) Ganesh
(e) E is at the left end of the bench. (4) Can’t be determined
(f) C is at the second position from the right. 3. If Bharat is not sitting at either end of the row,
then who among the following has as many
(g) A and C are sitting together.
persons on his left as on his right ?
1. Where is A sitting ?
(1) Chand (2) Fazal
(1) Between B and D
(3) Eshwar (4) Ganesh
(2) Between D and C
4. If Eshwar is sitting to the right of Bharat and
(3) Between B and C Anil is separated from Eshwar by exactly three
(4) Between E and D persons, then who is sitting to the immediate left
of Ganesh ?
2. Who is sitting on either side of C ?
(1) Fazal (2) Anil
(1) A and E (2) A and D
(3) Eshwar (4) Chand
(3) B and D (4) A and B
5. In how many different ways can the seven
3. What is the position of B ? persons sit in a row, without violating the given
(1) Extreme left (2) Centre conditions ?
(3) Second fro left (4) Second from right (1) 3 (2) 10 (3) 2 (4) 12
4. Who is sitting at the centre ? Example 3
(1) B (2) D (3) C (4) A Seven girls Ramya, Simran, Vinutha, Mandakini,
Urmila, Preethi and Kinnera, are sitting in a row.
5. What is the position of D ?
Simran is sitting to the immediate left of Vinutha
(1) Extreme right (2) Second from left and third to the right of Ramya, whereas
(3) Third from left (4) Extrem left Mandakini, who is sitting at the extreme left, is
sitting next to Kinnera.
Example 2
1. Who is sitting to the immediate left of Ramya ?
Seven persons Anil, Bharat, Chand, Dinesh,
Eshwar, Fazal and Ganesh, who have gathered (1) Mandakini (2) Urmila
at a picnic spot, are sitting in a row facing a (3) Kinnera (4) Preethi
photographer.
2. If Vinutha and Kinnera mutually exchange their
(a) Chand and Dinesh are sitting next to each places without any change in the arrangement
other. of other positions, who will be sitting to the
(b) There are exectly four persons between immediate left of Ramya ?
Bharat and Ganesh. (1) Preethi (2) Urmila
(c) Dinesh is sitting to the immediate right of (3) Vinutha (4) Ramya
Bharat.
1. If Anil and Eshwar are separated exactly by two
persons, then who is sitting to the left of Ganesh ?
3. If only Simran is sitting between Preethi and 4. Who among the following are sitting in the same
Vinutha, who is sitting exactly at the centre ? row ?
(1) Mandakini (2) Urmila (1) A and B (2) A and E
(3) Kinnera (4) Preethi (3) C and F (4) E and D
4. If Ramya exchanges her place with Mandakini 5. If D and E exchange their seats who will be the
and Vinutha exchanges her place with Urmila, neighbours of D in the new seating arrangement ?
then how many girls will be there between
(1) Only C (2) E and B
Urmila and Ramya ?
(3) C and A (4) Only A
(1) Two (2) Three
Example 5
(3) Four (4) Five
A, B, C, D and E, sit around a circular table and
5. In addition to the above statements, which of the
play ‘Rummy’. A is sitting one seat away to the
following statements cannot specify the seating
left of C, and B is sitting one seat away to the
position of every girl ?
right of C.
(1) Ramya and Simran have two girls sitting
1. If D seats between B and C, who sits to the
between them.
immediate right of A ?
(2) Vinutha and Urmila have two girls between
(1) E (2) D (3) B (4) C
tham.
2. Which of the following cannot be the correct
(3) There are two girls sitting between Preethi seating arrangement of these persons either in
and Kinnera. clockwise or anticlockwise direction ?
(4) Every statement given above specifies the
(1) A B C D E (2) A D C E B
seating arrangement of every girl.
(3) A B D C E (4) A E C D B
Example 4
3. If D is not sitting next to B, who is sitting between
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in
B and D ?
two rows, three in each, facing each other.
(1) C (2) A (3) E (4) D
(a) E is not at the end of any row.
4. If another person F joins the game, but does not
(b) D is second to the left of F. sit next to C, whereas the other sit in thier earlier
(c) C, the neighbour of E, is sitting diagonally positios, then which of the following statement
opposite to D. is correct ?
(d) B is the neighbour of F. (1) F sits to the immediate right of D.
1. Who is facing B ? (2) F sits to the immediate left of A.
(1) C (2) A (3) D (4) E (3) F sits to the immediate left of E.
2. Who among the following are in one of the two (4) Either (1) or (2).
rows ?
(1) C, E, B (2) D, B, F
EXERCISE
(3) A, B, F (4) A, E, F
Directions (Q.1 & Q.2) : Seven persons
3. Who among the following are sitting diagonally including three women, namely, Chameli, Dipali,
opposite to each other ? Ravali; two men, Akash and Bharat; and two
(1) A and C (2) F and C children, Nitin and Sohan are sitting in a row to
watch a magic show.
(3) A and F (4) D and A
Akash and Bharat have one child sitting between
them. Only Nitin sits between Ravali and
Chameli. No two children, no two men or no two
women sit next to each other. Chameli sits to the (d) H is to the immediate left of D and third to
immediate left of Akash. the right of I.
1. Who is sitting at the extreme left end of the row ? 7. Which of the following groups of friends is
sitting to the right of G ?
(1) Ravali (2) Chameli
(1) I B J A (2) I C H D F
(3) Dipali (4) Akash
(3) C H D F (4) C H D E
2. Who is sitting in the middle of the row ?
8. Which of the following statements is correct in
(1) Sohan (2) Chameli
the above seating arrangement ?
(3) Akash (4) Nitin
(1) There are three students sitting between D
Directions (Q.3 & Q.4) : Six families A, B, C, and G.
D, E and F are living in houses which are in a
(2) G and C are neighbours sitting to the
row. B has F and D as neighbours. E has A and C
immediate right of H.
as neighbours. A does not live next to either F or
D. C does not live next to D. (3) K is sitting between A and J.
3. Who are F’s next door neighbours ? (4) B is sitting between J and I.
(1) B and D (2) B and C 9. If E and D, C and B, A and H, K and F interchange
their positions, which of the following pairs of
(3) Only B (4) B and E
students is sitting at both the ends ?
4. How many houses are there in between the
(1) D and E (2) E and F
houses of A and B ?
(3) D and K (4) K and F
(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 2
Directions (Q.10 & Q.11) : Eight persons Amit,
Directions (Q.5 & Q.6) : Five friends Anil,
Bharani, Chetan, Dhruv, Sohan, Tariq, Umran
Bhagat, Jayanth, Prem and Suresh are standing
and Vinay sit in two parallel rows with four
in a row.
persons sitting in each row facing one another.
(a) Jayanth is to the immediate left of Anil. Amit and Bharani are not in the same row. Sohan
(b) Prem is between Bhagat and Suresh. sits to the immediate left of Chetan in the same
row but opposite to Tariq. Umran and Bharani
(c) Suresh is between Jayanth and Prem. have only two persons sitting between them.
5. Who is at the extreme left end of the row ? Amit and Sohan have only one person between
them.
(1) Bhagat (2) Anil
10. Which of the following pairs can sit opposite to
(3) Suresh (4) None of these one another ?
6. Who is standing in the centre of the row ? (1) Vinay and Amit
(1) Anil (2) Jayanth (2) Sohan and Amit or Amit and Chetan
(3) Bhagat (4) Suresh (3) Amit and Bharani or Umran and Chetan
Directions (Q.7 to Q.9) : Eleven students A, B, (4) Chetan and Bharani
C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K, are sitting in a row in
an NTSE class facing the professor. 11. Which of the following pairs sit daigonally
opposite to each other ?
(a) D, who is to the immediate left of F, is second
to the right of C. (1) Sohan and Tariq
(b) A is seated second to the right of E, who is at (2) Amit and Umran or Amit and Bharani
one of the ends. (3) Chetan and Bharani
(c) J is the immediate neighbour of A and B, and (4) Vinay and Amit
third to the left of G.
Directions (Q.12 to Q.16) : Six persons are Pankaj are sitting together.
travelling in the Taj express from Delhi to Agra,
17. Who are sitting on either side of Sandesh ?
which has two seats facing one another. Each
seat can accommodate three people and one side (1) Akhila and Guddi (2) Ranjit and Guddi
of the compartment has two windows while the (3) Akhila and Pankaj (4) Pankaj and Ranjit
other is closed.
18. How many people are sitting between Akhila and
(a) The engineer sits to the Tamilian’s left. Guddi ?
(b) The Hindi speaking persons sits to the left (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
of the doctor and opposite to the musician.
Directions (Q.19 & Q.20) : A, B, C, D, E, F and
(c) The Punjabi sits to the lawyer’s right while G are seven members standing in a row (not
the businessman gets a window seat. necessarily in the same order).
(d) The Telugu speaking person sits in the middle (a) C and B have as many members between
of a row, while the politician sits opposite to them as G and C have.
the Gujrathi.
(b) D, who is third from the extreme left, is third
(e) The Punjabi has a window on his immediate to the left of E.
right and next to him is a musician.
(c) A and D are neighbours, so are F and C.
12. Who sits opposite to the Punjabi ?
19. Which of the following statements is TRUE ?
(1) Gujrathi – Businessman
(1) C and E are neighbours.
(2) Hindi – Businessman
(2) E is to the immediate left of F.
(3) Tamilian – Businessman
(3) C is to the immediate left of D.
(4) Gujrathi – Politician
(4) A is to the immediate left of D.
13. Who sits to the right of the engineer ?
20. What is the position of F ?
(1) Tamilian – Lawyer (2) Tamilian – Doctor
(1) Immediate to the right of E.
(3) Telugu – Doctor (4) Hindi – Doctor
(2) Third to the left of G.
14. If the language soecified are the mother tongues
of the passengers, whose mother tongue is not (3) Immediate to the right of C.
known ? (4) Fifth to the right of B.
(1) Musician (2) Engineer Directions (Q.21 to Q.23) : Seven cricket
(3) Politician (4) Lawyer players are to be honoured by Jetways after a
special dinner at Hotel Greenlands. The players
15. Who sits next to the lawyer ? will be seated on the dais. Since Amar and Rahul
(1) Hindi – Musician (2) Telugu – Musician have to leave early, they must be seated at the
extreme left which is close to the exit. Sumukh
(3) Punjabi – Politician (4) Punjabi – Engineer
and Sameer are bitter rivals for the position of
16. Who sits next to the Gujrathi ? openers, dislike one another, and should be seated
as far away from each other as possible. Ramesh
(1) Punjabi – Politician (2) Hindi – Engineer
and Swaroop are the best friends, and want to sit
(3) Tamilian – Doctor (4) Telugu – Lawyer together. Zaheer, the most valuable player of the
Directions (Q.17 & Q.18) : Some friends are year, must be seated in the centre.
sitting on a bench in an auditorium. Sandesh is 21. If Ramesh sits beside Sameer, what is the position
sitting next to Akhila and Pankaj is next to Guddi. of Swaroop ?
Guddi is not sitting with Ranjit. Ranjit is at the
(1) Third from the left
left end of the bench and Pankaj is at the second
position from the right side. Sandesh is sitting to (2) Third from the right
the immediate right of Akhila. Sandesh and
(3) Between Sumukh and Amar D is placed to the immediate left of chair B. Johny
is in chair C, with Vicky and Lolita on either
(4) Between Rahul and Zaheer.
side of him. Donny is to the immediate right of
22. If Sumukh sits beside Zaheer, then who is the Lolita.
person sitting on the other side of Sumukh ?
27. Which of the following is correct ?
(1) Amar or Ramesh
(1) Lolita is in chair D.
(2) Ramesh or Rahul
(2) Robin is not in chair E.
(3) Swaroop
(3) Vicky is not in chair A.
(4) Amar or Rahul
(4) Johny is in chair A.
23. If Amar and Sameer are at the extreme ends and
28. Who sits between Robin and Lolita ?
Swaroop is next to Sameer, then who is the
person sitting between Zaheer and Swaroop ? (1) Johny (2) Donny
(1) Rahul (2) Sumukh (3) Vicky (4) None of these
(3) Swaroop (4) None of these Directions (Q.29 to Q.31) : Four young men,
Ajay, Bharat, Chand and Dinesh, and four
Directions (Q.24 to Q.26) : Pujitha, Kajol,
beautiful girls, Pranathi, Ranjitha, Sukeethi and
Rathi, Sanjana, Tanmayi and Usha sit around a
Tarangini, are dancing on a floor for the new year
hexagonal table in such a way that neither Pujitha
bash in such a way that they face the centre and
nor Rathi sits opposite to Kajol; neither Tanmayi
from a circle. No two girl and no two men are
nor Usha sit opposite to Sanjana; and Rathi sits
adjacent to one another.
to the immediate left of Sanjana.
Ajay is to the immediate left of Sukeerthi, who
24. If Pujitha sits to the immediate left of Rathi,
is opposite Ranjitha. Pranathi and Ranjitha have
which of the following statements is true ?
only Chand dancing between them.
(1) Kajol sits opposite to Rathi.
Pranathi is dancing opposite Tarangini, who is
(2) Pujitha sits opposite to Sanjana. dancing to the immediate right of Bharat.
(3) Tanmayi is sitting opposite to Kajol. 29. If Bharat is the only person dancing between
(4) Kajol sits opposite to Sanjana. Sukeerthi and Tarangini, then who is opposite to
him ?
25. If Tanmayi sits opposite to Rathi, then which of
the following can be correct ? (1) Ajay (2) Ranjitha
(1) Pujitha and Usha sit opposite to each other. (3) Dinesh (4) Chand
(2) Kajol and Usha sit oppsite to each other. 30. If Tarangini is to the immediate left of Ajay, then
who is opposite to Chand ?
(3) Pujitha is sitting opposite to Sanjana.
(1) Bharat (2) Dinesh
(4) All are correct.
(3) Pranathi (4) Ajay
26. If Kajol sits to the immediate right of Sanjana,
then who sits opposite to Sanjana ? 31. Which of the following is an acceptable
arrangement of the dancers in the clockwise
(1) Tanmayi (2) Pujitha direction ?
(3) Usha (4) None of these (1) Chand, Ranjitha, Pranathi, Dinesh,
Directions (Q.27 & Q.28) : A, B, C, D and E Tarangini, Bharat, Ajay and Sukeerthi
are five chairs placed around a pentagonal table (2) Ranjitha, Chand, Pranathi, Dinesh, Sukeerthi,
to arrange seating for five delegates, Johny, Ajay, Tarangini and Bharat
Lolita, Vicky, Robin and Donny, who will be
participating in a conference on AIDS program. (3) Ajay, Sukeerthi, Dinesh, Pranathi, Chand,
Chair E is placed between chairs B and A. Chair Ranjitha, Bharat and Tarangini
(4) None of these
Directions (Q.32 & Q.33) : Six girls J, K, L, M, (b) If C is sitting to the immediate right of E,
N and P are sitting in a circle facing the centre then H is sitting to the immediate left of F;
and playing cards. L has J sitting to her left and otherwise, C and H are seated on either side
P to her right. N is sitting opposite to L and K is of D.
sitting opposite to J.
(c) C and B are sitting opposite to each other.
32. Who sits opposite to P ? (d) B is sitting to the right of G, who is sitting
(1) L (2) M (3) N (4) K opposite to either E or A.
33. Who are sitting on either side of J ? 38. If H is sitting two places away from C in the
clockwise direction, then which of the following
(1) L, M (2) M, N (3) N, K (4) P, K
statements is necessarily correct ?
Directions (Q.34 & Q.35) : P, Q, R, S and T are
(1) D is to the right side of A.
the five corners of a table with five sides. Chairs
A, B, C, D and E are placed along the sides (2) G and F are opposite to each other.
joining the angular corners. Chair A is along the (3) D may or may not be to the immediate left
side joining the corners P and R. Corner S is to of G.
the immediate right of corner P. Corner R is
between corner P and T. Chair B is along the (4) D and C are sitting adjacent to each other.
side joining corners Q and T. Chairs D and E are 39. Which of the following statements can be correct ?
next to chair B on either side.
(1) C and H are sitting one place away from each
34. Which are the corners that from the side, where other.
chair C is placed ?
(2) C and H are sitting two place away.
(1) S and Q (2) P and S
(3) G and B are adjacent to each other.
(3) S and T (4) P and R
(4) All the above three are possible.
35. If the positions of chair C and chair B are
interchanged, then which chair will be in between 40. If A and B interchange their positions, then who
corner Q and corner T ? is to the left of A ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) G (2) H (3) D (4) F
Directions (Q.36 & Q.37) : Eight friends A, B, Directions (Q.41 to Q.43) : A group of friends
C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting at eight faces of is sitting in a circular arrangement. Raman is
an octagonal or octagon-shaped table facing the sitting opposite to Mahesh. Jyotsna is sitting next
centre. H and E are sitting opposite to each other. to Seema. Neeta is sitting opposite to Seema but
B is sitting in the second position to the right of not next to Raman. Amrut has a person sitting
H, while A is sitting between E and D. F is sitting between Mahesh and himself.
close to H and opposite to C. 41. Who is sitting opposite to Jyotsna ?
36. If B wants to occupy the position to the (1) Mahesh (2) Neeta
immediate right of H, with whom should B
interchange ? (3) Amrut (4) Seema
42. Who is sitting between Amrut and Mahesh ?
(1) A (2) E (3) D (4) G
(1) Jyotsna (2) Neeta
37. How many people are sitting between B and A,
in the clockwise direction ? (3) Seema (4) Raman
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2 43. If Amrut sits to the right of Raman, who is sitting
Directions (Q.38 to Q.40) : Eight people A, B, on Raman’s left ?
C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting aroung an (1) Neeta (2) Jyotsna
octagonal table.
(3) Seema (4) Mahesh
(a) E and F are sitting adjacent to each other.
Directions (Q.44 & Q.45) : Pramod, Abhishek, Directions (Q.50 & Q.51) : Five girls are sitting
Rohit, Sameer and Tarun are five persons sitting in a circle facing the centre. Sumana is between
around a table for dinner. Tarun is to the Latha and Asha. Mamatha is to the right of Latha.
immediate right of Pramod. Abhishek and Rohit
50. Who is the fourth to the left of Ranjitha ?
are on either side of Sameer.
(1) Latha (2) Sumana
44. Who sits between Rohit and Tarun assuming that
there is only one person between them ? (3) Asha (4) Mamatha
(1) Abhishek (2) Pramod 51. If Ranjitha and Asha interchange their places,
then which of the following statements will be
(3) Sameer (4) None of these
correct ?
45. If Rohit sits to the left of Sameer, then who sits
(1) Asha would be between Mamatha and
to the right of Tarun ?
Ranjitha.
(1) Abhishek (2) Pramod (2) Asha would be second to the left of Latha.
(3) Rohit (4) None of these
(3) Mamatha would be between Sumana and
Directions (Q.46 & Q.47) : Six friends A, B, C, Ranjitha.
D, E and F are sitting around a circular table
(4) Cannot be determined.
facing the centre.
Directions (Q.52 & Q.53) : Eight persons A, B,
(a) E is to the left of D.
C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square
(b) C is between A and B. table – two on each side.
(c) F is between E and A. (a) There are three actors, and they are not sitting
next to each other.
46. Who is sitting to the left of B ?
(b) F is between H and B.
(1) E (2) D (3) A (4) C
(c) C is between E and B.
47. Who is sitting to the right of C ?
(d) D, an actor, is second to the left of F.
(1) B (2) F (3) E (4) A
(e) B, a non-actor, is sitting opposite to A, an
Directions (Q.48 & Q.49) : A rectangular table
actor.
has one chair each on its smaller side and two
chairs each on its longer sides. Six persons Anup, (f) There is an actor between B and E.
Bunty, Charles, Deepak, Eshwar and Fazal sit
52. Who are the actors ?
on the six chairs around the table for a board
meeting to prepare the budget for college day (1) A B C (2) A C D
silver jubilee celebrations. (3) D C E (4) H E F
Bunty sits to the immediate left of Deepak and 53. How many persons are there between B and G ?
opposite to Eshwar. Charles and Fazal sit
opposite to each other and Deepak sits alone on (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
one side. Directions (Q.54 & Q.55) : Six people A, B, C,
48. Who is sitting opposite to Deepak ? D, E and F are sitting around a table. A sits
opposite to F. D, who sits to the immediate right
(1) Anup (2) Bunty of A, has two persons between him and E. B does
(3) Charles (4) Eshwar not like to sit next to A.
54. Who sits to the right of C ?
49. If Bunty and Anup exchange their places, then
who sits opposite Eshwar ? (1) A (2) E (3) B (4) D
55. Who are the persons sitting on the left and right
(1) Fazal (2) Charles
of B, respectively ?
(3) Bunty (4) Anup (1) F & D (2) A & E
(3) C & D (4) D & F
Directions (Q.56 to Q.58) : While playing
musical chair, six persons A, B, C, D, E and F
are sitting around a circular table facing
outwards.
(a) B is to the immediate right of E.
(b) If C is next to B, then A is next to E.
(c) If A is not next to E, then A and D are on
either side of C.
(d) D is never adjacent to either E or B.
(e) C and F are not adjacent to each other.
56. Who among the following are always adjacent
to each other ?
(1) B and C (2) C and F
(3) D and F (4) C and E
57. Who among the following can sit either adjacent
to each other or opposite to each other, but cannot
sit in any other manner ?
(1) C and E (2) C and A
(3) F and B (4) D and B
58. If D is neither adjacent to nor opposite to E, then
who is opposite to A ?
(1) F (2) C (3) D (4) E
Directions (Q.59 & Q.60) : Seven people A, B,
C, D, E, F and G are invited to lunch by Kapoor’s
family on Christmas day. The guests are seated
around a table. E is sitting between A and B. D is
sitting two place away to the left of B. G is sitting
adjacent to A. F is sitting to the right of D.
59. If C wants to sit to the right of G, with whom has
he to interchange his seat ?
(1) A (2) F (3) E (4) D
60. If B wants to sit farthest from E, with whom has
he to interchange his seat ?
(1) D (2) F
(3) Either D or F (4) G
CLOCK TEST
1. A watch showed 5 past 5 o’clock on Wednesday 7. What is the angle between the two hands of a
evening when the correct time was 5:00 PM. It clock at 8 hr 20 min ?
loses uniformly, and was 5 min slow after two (1) 110° (2) 120° (3) 130° (4) 140°
days at 7:00 PM. When did the watch show the
8. A clock loses t seconds in h hr. If the clock is set
correct time ?
correctly at 12:00 noon on Sunday, what time
(1) Thursday 6:00 AM will it show at 12:00 noon on the following
(2) Thursday 6:00 PM Sunday ?
(3) Thursday 6:30 PM h

(1) 7(24) min before 12
(4) Thursdya 5:00 AM t
2. A clock is set to show the correct time at 11:00 t
AM. The clock gains 12 minutes in 12 hrs. What (2) 7(24) 60h min before 12
will be the correct time when the clock indicates
5:30 PM the next day ?
h
(1) 5:00 PM (2) 5:10 PM (3) 7(24) 60 t min before 12
(3) 5:20 PM (4) 6:00 PM
3. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour 60 t
(4) (24) h min before 12
hand at intervals of 65 min. How much in a day 7
does the clock gain or lose ?
9. A clock, which loses 5 min per day, is set to show
8 10 correct time at 12 noon on a Sunday. What time
(1) Gains 56 min (2) Loses 9 min does the clock show at 12 noon on the next
11 143
Sunday ?
9 10 (1) 11 AM (2) 12 Noon
(3) Gains 10 min (4) Gains 10 min
143 143 (3) 11:35 AM (4) 11:25 AM
4. At what time between 9 and 10 o’clock are the 10. At what time between 12 and 1 o’clock will the
hands of a clock in the opposite direction ? hands of the clock overlap again
8 9 2
(1) 9 hr 17 min (2) 9 hr 21 min (1) 12 hr 50 min (2) 12 hr 45 min
11 11 11
9 4 (3) 12 hr 59 min (4) Never happen

(3) 9 hr 23 min (4) 9 hr 16 min
11 11 11. There are two clocks, both set to show correct
time at 9:00 AM. One clock loses one minute
5. There are two clocks on a wall, both set right at
every hour, and the other gains one minute every
10:00 AM. One clock is losing 2 min per hour
hour. By how many minutes do they differ at
and the other clock is gaining 3 min per hour. If
10:00 PM on the same day ?
the clock which is losing 2 min per hour shows
3:00 PM the next day, what time does the clock (1) 24 min (2) 26 min
gaining 3 mi per hour show ? (3) 28 min (4) 30 min
(1) 5:30 PM (2) 4:00 PM 12. At what time between 5 and 6 o’clock will the
(3) 4:15 PM (4) 5:00 PM hands of a clock be at right angles ?
6. A clock gains 10 min in 2 hr. It is set right at 10 7
10:10 AM. When the clock shows 4:40 PM on (1) 5 hr 10 min (2) 5 hr 43 min
11 11
same day, what is the correct time ?
(1) 4:54 PM (2) 5:00 PM (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(3) 5:10 PM (4) 4:10 PM

13. A clock is set to show the correct time at 12:00 which loses 1 min every hour show ?
noon. Immediately, due to some mechanical
(1) 8:30 PM (2) 9:00 PM
defect, both the minute hand and the hour hand
started moving in the reverse direction (3) 8:45 PM (4) 9:30 PM
(anticlockwise direction). What is the correct 21. A watch which gain uniformly was observed to
time when this clock shows 8:25 ? be 5 min slow at 12 noon on Sunday. On the
(1) 4:25 (2) 3:25 (3) 3:35 (4) 4:35 subsequent Wednesday at 6:00 PM it was noticed
that the watch was 5 min fast. When did the watch
14. Imagine a clock where the hour hand makes only
show the correct time ?
one revolution in 1 day (i.e., 24 hr) whereas the
minute hand completes one revolution in one (1) On Monday at 12:00 noon
hour. What is the angle between the two hands (2) On Monday at 3:00 AM
at 14:50 hr as per this clock ?
(3) On Tuesday at 3:00 AM
(1) 90° (2) 120° (3) 77.5° (4) 162°
(4) On Tuesday at 12 o’clock midnight
15. A person has mistaken the image of a clock in a
plain mirror as the clock and read the time as 22. Chicago time is 20 hr behind New Delhi time. If
6:10. What was the correct time ? New Delhi time is 23:20 on April 13, then what
is the Chicago time ?
(1) 6:05 (2) 5:50 (3) 5:10 (4) 7:50
(1) 3:20 on April 12 (2) 0:20 on April 13
16. At what time between 3:00 PM and 3:30 PM
will the angle between the minute hand and the (3) 0:20 on April 12 (4) 3:20 on April 13
hour hand of a clock be 79° ? 23. A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2
(1) 3:03 (2) 3:06 (3) 3:02 (4) 3:27 o’clock, thrice at 3 o’clock, and so on. How many
times, in total, will it strike in 24 hr ?
17. At what time between 5 and 6 o’clock do the
hands of a clock overlap ? (1) 144 (2) 288 (3) 300 (4) 156
(1) 22 min past 5 (2) 30 min past 5 24. How many times do the handsof a clock make
an angle of 90° in 36 hr ?
3 8
(3) 27 min past 5 (4) 22 min past 5 (1) 22 (2) 44 (3) 66 (4) 72
11 11
25. The minute and hour hnads of a clock overlap
18. At what angle do the hands of a clock are inclined
every 60 min of correct time. How much does
at 15 min past 5 o’clock ?
the clock lose or gain in a day ?
1 1 10 6
(1) 72 (2) 67 (1) 130 min (2) 58 min
2 2 11 77
1 1 5 4
(3) 58 (4) 62 (3) 143 min (4) 139 min
2 2 11 11
19. A clock is set right at 8:00 AM. The clock gains 26. A clock runs 6 minute slow per day. By what
10 min in 24 hr. What will be the right time when percentage is it running slow ?
this clock indicates 1 PM on the following day ?
1
(1) 11:40 PM (2) 12:00 PM (1) 6% (2) %
10
(3) 10:00 PM (4) 12:48 PM
12 5
20. There are two clocks on a wall, both set right at (3) % (4) %
5 12
10:00 AM on Sunday. Both the clock lose 1 and
2 min, respectively, every hour. If the clock which
lose 2 min every hour shows 8:00 PM, on the
following Tuesday, what time does the clock
27. A clock loses 5 s every hour. If the clock is set
on Sunday at 12 noon, then what is the correct
time the following Saturday, if the clock shows
12 o’clock, midnight (give answer to the nearest
minute) ?
(1) 11:53 PM on Saturday
(3) 00:13 AM on Sunday
28. At what time, between 4 and 5 o’clock, will the
hands of a clock make an angle of 100° ?
(1) 4 hr 40 min (2) 4 hr 45 min
(3) 4 hr 30 min (4) 4 hr 25 min
29. At what time between, 7 and 8 o’clock, the hands
of the clock overlap ?
3
(1) 7:40 (2) 7 : 35
11
2 5
(3) 7 : 38 (4) 7 : 33
11 11
30. The angle between the hands of a clock is 70°,
when the hour hand is between 5 and 6. What
time does the clock show ?
(1) 5:45 (2) 5:50 (3) 5:30 (4) 5:40
31. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour
hand at interval of 62 minutes of a correct time.
How much in a day does the clock gain or lose ?
80 90
341 311
70 60
341 341
BRAIN TEASERS
1. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to (1) 47 min (2) 45 min
B, ‘If you give me 3 cards, you will have as many (3) 35 min (4) 40 min
as I have at this moment. While if D takes 5 cards
9. Six horses are worth 9 camels, 27 camels are
from you, he will have as many as E has’. A and
worth 30 bicycles and 300 bicycles are worth
C together have twice as many cards as E has. B
nine mobikes. If 3 mobikes are worth `1,05,000,
and D together also have the same number of
then what is the price of each horse ?
cards as A and C taken together. If together they
have 150 cards, how many cards has C got ? (1) 1550 (2) 1400 (3) 1750 (4) 1600
(1) 28 (2) 31 (3) 35 (4) 29 Directions (Q.10 to Q.14) : A, B, C, D, E, F and
G are seven different integers. When properly
2. In a caravan in addition to 50 hens there are 45
arranged, they are consecutive integers lying
horses and 8 camels with some keepers. If the
between 30 and 39.
total number of feet are 224 more than the heads
in the caravan, what is the number of keepers ?
G
(1) 8 (2) 15 (3) 12 (4) 10 (i) E – D + 4 =
4
3. In a tennis tournament each of six players will (ii) The highest number B is a prime number.
play with every other player exactly once. How
many matches will be played during the (iii) C – G = B – A
tournament ? (iv) A is not an even number.
(1) 12 (2) 30 (3) 36 (4) 15 10. Which number is represented by E.
4. A monkey is trying to reach the top of a pole (1) 31 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 35
which is 30 metres high from the ground. After
11. Which number is represented by F ?
climbing every 4 metres it slips down 2 metres.
How many attempts will it take to reach the top (1) 32 (2) 34 (3) 36 (4) 33
of the pole ? 12. Which is the smallest number ?
(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 17 (1) D (2) C (3) A (4) G
5. Initially A had `10 more than B. A gives one 13. If arranged in descending order of values, which
half of his money to B. B reciprocates and gives is the second number ?
one half of his money to A. Now A has `20 more
than B. How much money do A and B have in (1) D (2) G (3) A (4) C
total in the beginning ? 14. What is the value of (A – G) ?
(1) 70 (2) 80 (3) 90 (4) 120 (1) – 2 (2) 1 (3) 5 (4) 3
6. A number of two digits exceeds four times the 15. The length of a rectangle is increased by 30%
sum of its digits by 3. If the number is increased and the breadth is also increased by 30%. What
by 18, the result is the same as the number formed is the effect on the area of the rectangle ?
by reversing the digits. Find the number :
(1) Increases by 30% (2) Decreases by 30%
(1) 35 (2) 57 (3) 49 (4) 42
(3) Increases by 60% (4) Increases by 69%
7. Latha has the same number of sisters as she has
brothers; but her brother Shyam has twice as 16. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for
many sisters as he has brothers. How many every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every
children are there in the family ? wrong answer. If he attempts all 75 questions
and scores 125 marks, how many questions did
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 he answer correctly ?
8. In a game of musical chairs, 16 girls are (1) 32 (2) 35 (3) 40 (4) 42
participating. Every round of music will have
duration of 2 minutes. An interval of 5 minutes
is given after every five rounds of music. How
much time will it take to complete the game ?
17. A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had
1
in the bag. He replied that there were all sparrows is . What is the numerator of the original
but six, all pigeons but six and all ducks but six. 10
How many birds did he have in all ? fraction ?
(1) 9 (2) 18 (3) 27 (4) 36 (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 20 (4) 25
18. A box contains four small boxes. Each of the 24. Bharat left his entire property to his wife, son
four boxes contains three smaller boxes, in each and daughter, and a servant. His son and daughter
box there are two boxes. How many boxes are got half the property sharing in the ratio of 4 : 3,
there altogether ? if his wife got twice as much as the daughter and
the servant got `1000. What is the value of the
(1) 39 (2) 40 (3) 41 (4) 42 entire property ?
19. In a cricket match, five batsman A, B, C, D and (1) 3500 (2) 7000
E scored an average of 36 runs, D scored 5 more
than E, E scored 8 fewer than A, B scored as (3) 10,500 (4) 14,000
many as D and E combined, B and C scored 107 Directions (Q.25 to Q.27) : A park in Ooty has
between them. How many runs did E score ? some benches under the shady trees and some in
(1) 62 (2) 45 (3) 36 (4) 20 the Sun, the ratio being 3 : 1, respectively. Each
bench in shade is occupied by three college girls
1 1 and only one half of the benches in open are
20. In a certain office, of workers are women, occupied by one girl each. The total number of
3 2
occupants is 76.
1
of women are married and of married women 25. How many benches are there in the shade ?
3
(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 28 (4) 32
3 2
have children. If of men are married and 26. How many girls are sitting on benches in the Sun ?
4 3
of married men have children, what part of (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 9
workers are without children ? 27. If after Sunset each bench was occupied by two
persons, how many girls did not get seat on
4 17 11 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) benches ?
9 36 18 18
(1) 22 (2) 16 (3) 14 (4) 12
21. In a class there are 18 boys, who are over 175
28. At a farm near Mysore, there are hens, cows,
3 bullocks and keepers to look after them. There
cm tall. If these constitute of the boys and the
4 are 69 heads less than legs, the number of cows
2 is double of that of the bullocks, the number of
total number of boys is of the total number of cows and hens is the same, and there is one
3
keeper per 10 birds and cattle. The total number
students in the class, what is the number of girls of hens plus cows and bullocks and their keepers
in the class ? does not exceed 50. How many cows are there ?
(1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 18 (4) 12 (1) 14 (2) 10 (3) 16 (4) 12
22. How many revolutions will a toy wheel of 28 29. B earns 20% more than A, C earns 25% more
cm in diameter make in travelling a distance of than B and D earns 30% more than C. If D earns
880 cm ? `975, then how much does A earn ?
(1) 10 (2) 32 (3) 50 (4) 88 (1) 195 (2) 375 (3) 487.50 (4) 500
23. The numerator and the denominator of a positive 30. The sum of two numbers A and B is 116. If A is
fraction are in the ratio of 1 : 5. A new fraction is three less than C but four more than B, then what
formed by subtracting 2 from the numerator and is the value of C ?
adding 5 to the denominator. The difference
between the original fraction and the new fraction (1) 56 (2) 63 (3) 60 (4) 66
31. There are three strings of different lengths, which
1
2 with the remaining money he spends and buys
5
together is 35 cm. The smallest is of the
3 flowers for his sister and from the amount left
4 1
middle one, which is of the longest string. over he buys a cricket ball by spending of the
5 4
What is the length of the longest string ? amount. Now he is left with `48. How much
money did Ashok have in the beginning ?
(1) 12 cm (2) 15 cm
(1) `80 (2) `100
(3) 18 cm (4) 24 cm
(3) `112 (4) `128
2
32. Anil has as much money as Sunil has and 37. A certain number of camels and an equal number
3 of men are going somewhere. Half of the owners
1 are on the back of their camels, while the
Sunil has 1 times as much money as Pravin remaining ones are walking along leading their
2
has. If Pravin has `180, how much money does camels. If the number of legs walking on the
Anil have ? ground is 70, how many camels are there ?
(1) 360 (2) 180 (3) 240 (4) 90 (1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 18
33. In a college union election only two candidates 38. Two poles X and Y each of 16 cm high are placed
contested. A candidate secures 41% of the votes, parallel to each other on a plain ground. Frog A
but is defeated by the other candidate by 1440 is positioned at the top of pole X, whereas frog
votes. Totally, how many students did cast their B is positioned at the ground level near the pole
votes ? Y. Frog A comes 2 cm down the pole X during
the daytime and goes up 1 cm during the night
(1) 2880 (2) 4320 every day, whereas frog B goes up 2 cm up the
(3) 5600 (4) 8000 pole Y during the day and slips down 1 cm during
the night everyday. After how many days will
34. A vendor sells 40% of his mango stock and the two frogs be at the same height above the
throws away 20% of the remainder. Next day he ground level ?
sells 50% of the remainder and throws away the
rest. What percent of his fruits does the vendor 1 1
throw ? (1) 6 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 7
2 2
(1) 24 (2) 30 (3) 36 (4) 48
39. Ashok working in a bank can claim `15 for each
35. To number the pages of an encyclopaedia the kilometre which he travels by taxi and `5 for
printer used 2989 digits. How many pages did each kilometre when he goes in his own car. If
the book contain ? Ashok claims `500 in 1 week for travelling 80
(1) 996 (2) 1089 km, how many km did he travel by taxi ?
(3) 1009 (4) 1024 (1) 20 km (2) 15 km (3) 10 km (4) 30 km

40. A group of 1200 persons consisting of professors
1 and students joined for New Year celebrations.
36. Ashok spends of the money for mangoes and
8 For every 15 students there is one professor.
What is the total number of professor participated
1
of the remaining money for sweets. With the in the party ?
7
leftover money he goes to a bakery and spends (1) 70 (2) 75 (3) 80 (4) 85
1 41. In a bundle of 154 shirts, there are three less white

of the money to buy bread for his father, and shirts than red shirts, and five more white shirts
6
than green shirts. How many red shirts are there ?
(1) 47 (2) 52 (3) 50 (4) 55
42. A monkey ate 100 idlis in 5 days, each day eating early did the plane arive ?
six more than the previous day. How many did it
(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 30 (4) 45
eat on the last day ?
50. There are two toys cars facing each other at a
(1) 23 (2) 26 (3) 32 (4) 35 distance of 500 cm from each other. Each car
43. A worker is paid `100 per day for attending moves forward by 100 cm at a speed of 50 cm/s
office and fined `50 on the day of his absence. and then moves backwards by 50 cm at speed of
If in a month of 30 days he earns `2400, how 25 cm/s. How long will it take for the cars to
many days was he absent ? collide ?
(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4 (1) 12 s (2) 14 s (3) 16 s (4) 13 s
44. In a box of 100 milk chocolates, there are four 51. Three consecutive positive integers are such that
times as many 5 stars and five times as many the square of their sum exceeds the sum of their
Dairy milk as there are Amul chocolates. If the squares by 214. Find the three integers.
cost of each Amul, 5 star and Dairy milk are in
(1) 6, 7, 8 (2) 4, 5, 6
the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4, what could be the cost of
box of chocolates ? (3) 7, 8, 9 (4) 5, 6, 7
(1) 300 (2) 260 (3) 400 (4) 340 52. In a competitive exam Ram got 10% less than
Shyam. Shyam got 25% more than Mohan and
45. A glass half full of milk weighs 700 gm. When it Mohan got 20% less than Jayanth. If the full
is empty, it weighs 300 gm. How much will it marks were 500, and if Ram got 360, what was
3 Jayanth’s percentage ?
weigh when of it is full of milk ?
5 (1) 80 (2) 64 (3) 72 (4) 70
(1) 1420 gm (2) 1120 gm 53. In a co-ed school there are 15 more girls than
boys. If the number of girls is increased by 10%
(3) 780 gm (4) 760 gm
and the number of boys is increased by 16%,
46. Ashok earns `60 on one day and spends `50 on there would be nine more girls than boys. What
the next day. He again earns `60 on the third is the total number of students in the school ?
day and spends `50 on the fourth day, and so (1) 140 (2) 265 (3) 125 (4) 255
on. On which day he will have `200 with him
before spending ? 54. In a circular pond, a fish starts from a point on
the edge, swims 600 m North to reach another
(1) 14 (2) 33 (3) 28 (4) 29 point on the edge, turns east and swims 800 m to
47. A metal cube with side measuring 12 cm is reach yet another point on the edge. What is the
melted and formed into 64 cubes of equal size. diameter of the pond ?
What will be the measurement of the side of (1) 600 m (2) 700 m
newly formed cubes ? (3) 800 m (4) 1000 m
(1) 8 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 4 cm (4) 6 cm 55. Rohan says if Jagan given me `40, he will have
48. In a college 40% are boys and out of which 75% half as much as Ajay, but if Ajay gives me `40,
have two wheelers and the rest of them have four then three of us will have the same amount. What
wheelers. 60% are females and 50% of them have is the total amount of money that Rohan, Jagan
four wheelers. How much percent of the total and Ajay have with them ?
population does have four wheelers ? (1) `240 (2) `360
(1) 40 (2) 46 (3) 48 (4) 50 (3) `420 (4) `396
49. Anand leaves his home for the airport in the car 56. Amala rode her bicycle from home to school, at
to recieve his sister. The plane arrives early and an average speed of 15 km/hr. She returned home
his sister takes a taxi. Anand meets his sister after from school by walking at an average speed of 5
45 minutes and they both reach home half an km/hr. What was her average speed for the round
hour early, thus saving time. How many minutes trip if she took the same route in both directions
?
(1) 7.5 km/hr (2) 10 km/hr 64. In half of a 600 m2 field a farmer sowed Ragi, in
(3) 12.5 km/hr (4) 13 km/hr one-third of the remaining he sowed coconut, and
in one-fourth of the left over he sowed groundnut.
57. A petrol pump dealer has tampered with the flow He left half of the remaining land uncultivated.
meter which shows false reading that is 10% In one-third of the land still left, he dug a well,
more than the amount of fuel supplied. If the utilising the remaining land for growing orchids.
dealer buys petrol at `25 per litre and sells it at What fraction of the total land is he using for
`30 per litre, what is his percentage gain ? orchid cultivation ?
2 1 1 1 1 1
(1) 20 % (2) 16 % (3) 34 % (4) 32% (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 36 28 16 12
58. A trader sells nine bullocks and seven cows for
Directions (Q.65 to Q.69) : At the start ofa game
`30,000 to a customer and to another customer
of cards J and B together had four times as much
for the same price and for the same sum he sells
money as T, while T and B together had three
six bullocks and 13 cows. Then what is the price
times as much as J. At the end of the game, J and
of a bullock ?
B together had three times as much as T, while T
(1) `1800 (2) `2200 and B together had twice as much as J. B lost
(3) `2400 (4) `2800 `200.
59. Ram would be aged 20 years from hence what
65. What fraction of the total money T had at the
his mother is now. And at that time his age will
beginning of the game ?
be half of his father’s then age. Ram’s mother
was half his father’s age when Ram was born. 1 1 1 1
What is the mother’s present age ? (1) (2) (3) (4)
3 8 5 7
(1) 30 (2) 48 (3) 52 (4) 40
Directions (Q.60 to Q.63) : A quiz has three 66. What fraction of the total money did J win/lose ?
rounds of two questions each. In the first round,
1 1
each correct answer carries 10 points and each (1) Won (2) Lost
incorrect answer carries a penalty of 5 points. If 12 6
both the questions are answered correctly, a
bonus of 5 point is awarded. In the second round, 1 1
(3) Lost (4) Won
each correct and incorrect answer carries the 3 5
same point as in round 1. However, an additional 67. What was the amount with B while starting the
penalty of 5 points is awarded if both the game ?
questions are answered incorrectly. In round
three, each correct answer carries 20 points and (1) `575 (2) `375 (3) `825 (4) `275
each incorrect answer carries a panelty of 10 68. What was the amount won/lost by T ?
points.
(1) Lost `50 (2) Won `75
60. If the score at the end of the quiz is 10, how
many answers are correct ? (3) Lost `125 (4) Won `175
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 69. How much money did J have at the end of the
61. If four answers are incorrect, then what is the game ?
maximum possible score ? (1) `375 (2) `500 (3) `325 (4) `750
(1) 0 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 15
Directions (Q.70 to Q.73) : There are three
62. Score at the end of the quiz is 20. How many
parallel tracks of 120 km, between X and Y. Train
answers are incorrect ?
A starts at 9:00 AM on the central track at 60
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 km/hr from X. Train B starts at 10:00 AM at 60
63. In how many ways, the total of 20 points can be km/hr from Y. Train C starts at 11:00 AM at 90
scored ? km/hr from X. Trains A and C are 100 m each
(1) 2 ways (2) 3 ways and train B is 150 m long.
(3) 4 ways (4) 5 ways
70. At what time and at what distance from X did stools as four legged almirahs. If the number of
the trains A and B meet each other ? stools is two less than the number of teachers
and if the total number of legs is 411, what is the
(1) 10:15, 90 km (2) 10:30, 90 km
number of teachers in the college ?
(3) 10:30, 30 km (4) 10:15, 30 km
(1) 21 (2) 22 (3) 24 (4) 25
71. At what time does B meet C and what is the
78. Arun made two mistakes in NTS exam where
distance from the point it had met A ?
all questions carried equal marks and obtained
(1) 11:18, 54 km (2) 11:24, 36 km 72%. Had he attempted four more questions and
(3) 11:18, 36 km (4) 11:24, 54 km made three mistake, he would have obtained
84%. If there was no negative marking for wrong
72. What is the total time taken by train B for answers, how many questions were asked ?
crossing the other two train ?
(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 30 (4) 35
(1) 6 s (2) 10.5 s (3) 13.5 s (4) 15 s
79. There are four operations performed on two
73. If a ticket collector starts checking tickets at one positive whole numbers, first of two were added,
end of B as soon as it leaves station Y, what is then the lesser was subtracted from the greater,
the minimum speed he should travel with to cover then they were multiplied together, and finally
the complete train before it reaches X ? the lerger numbers was divided by the smaller
one. The results thus obtained were than added
5 to get 243. What are the numbers ?
(1) 1.25 m/min (2) m/min
12
(1) 24, 8 (2) 54, 8
5 (3) 27, 2 (4) 51, 8
(3) m/min (4) 2 m/min
3
Directions (Q.80 & Q.81) : At the end of an exam
74. The sum of N numbers is 78. The averageof the consisting of two papers, when five students were
first three numbers is 2, the average of the next arranged in the ascending order of their marks
four numbers is 5.5, and the average of the in Part 1, C was fourth while A was a topper;
remaining five numbers is 10. What is the when they were arranged in the descending order
average of N numbers taken together ? of their marks in Part 2, D replaced C, while C
replaced B. E’s rank remained unchanged. D got
(1) 5.5 (2) 6 (3) 6.5 (4) 7
more marks than E in part 1. B stood first in one
75. Three consecutive positive integers are raised part and fifth in the other.
respectively to the first, second and third powers;
80. Who scored the highest marks in Part 1 ?
the resulting integers are then added together.
This sum is a perfect square whose principal (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E
square root is the sum of the original three 81. Who scored lowest marks in Part 2 ?
consecutive integers. Find the largest of the three
integers ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 7 (4) 5 Directions (Q.82 to Q.85) : At 12:00 noon, when
I entered a railway reservation queue, I am the
76. A bus starts from its depot filled to capacity. It fourteenth person in the queue. The queue
stops at A, where 1/3 of the passengers alight increases at the rate of one person every minute
and 30 board the bus. At B, 1/4 of the passengers and one person leaves the counter every 3 minute.
alight and 12 board the bus. At C, which was the There is one lady after every two men in the
last stop, all the 84 passengers alight. What is queue. The lunch break of 15 minutes
the capacity of the bus ? commences at 12:30 PM. The first person in the
(1) 100 (2) 99 (3) 96 (4) 90 queue is a male and the person behind me is a
female. The ratio of male to female gets
77. In a college staff room there are as many four-
interchanged after the fifteenth person. At 12:02
legged chairs and as many four legged tables as
and 12:04 females join the queue. The fourth lady
the number of teachers and as many three-legged
takes two tickets (i.e., 6 minutes). Directions (Q.90 & Q.91) : 85 children went to
an amusement park where they could ride on the
82. At what time shall I be at the counter ?
merry-go-round, roller-coaster and gient wheel.
(1) 12:39 (2) 12:57 (3) 12:42 (4) 12:54 It was known that 20 of them took all the three
83. Where will I be at 12:30 PM (i.e., my position), rides and 55 of them took at least two of the three
if the third lady decides to take two tickets ? rides. Each ride cost `10 and total receipt of the
amusement park from these children was `1450.
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
90. How many children did not try any of the rides ?
84. How many ladies would be there at 12:25 PM ?
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20
(1) 12 (2) 18 (3) 19 (4) 20
91. How many children took exactly one ride ?
85. If snacks are sold at 12:15 PM and four of the
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20
men including me decide to buy the snacks, how
many men do not buy the snacks ? Directions (Q.92 & Q.93) : Two trains A and B
separated by a distance of 1200 m approach each
(1) 7 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) None
other at 30 m/min. They are moving on parallel
Directions (Q.86 to Q.89) : A Russian circus tracks. A bird flying at 60 m/min, flies from A to
company decides to invest a certain amount in B, returns to A, flies back to B, and so on till the
creating a ‘stock market’ show. It buys the same trains meet.
number of lions and tigers. Each lion is 75% more
92. What is the total distance travelled by the bird ?
expensive than a tiger. Within one year the value
of lions has appreciated by 60%, while that of (1) 600 m (2) 1200 m
tiger has depreciated by 20%. The next year lions (3) 1800 m (4) 2400 m
lose 40% of their market value, while tigers loses
only 5%. The following year, the tiger’s value 93. How many trips did the bird make between the
triples, while the lion’s value is stagnant. In the two trains ?
same year due to short circuit a part of the circus (1) 4 (2) 5
burns down, causing a loss of `24,200. The (3) 6 (4) Can’t say
circus then sells off all the lions and tigers but
realises that it is left with exactly the same 94. a : b : c : : 2 : 4 : 3. Find the ratio of the square of
amount of money that it invested in the beginning their average to the average of their squares ?
of the show. (1) 8 : 3 (2) 27 : 29
86. How much money did the Russian company (3) 23 : 25 (4) 25 : 27
invest in the beginning ?
95. Amit spends `100 on articles worth `2 each and
(1) `20,000 (2) `55,000 `3 each. If he buys 42 articles, how many
(3) `85,000 (4) `92,000 articles, how many articles worth `3 has Amit
bought ?
87. How many lions were bought ?
(1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 26
(1) 275 (2) 480
96. A man and a woman 63 km apart from each other,
(3) 175 (4) Can’t be determined start travelling towards each other at the same
88. What is the approximate percentage of profit time. If the man covers 4 km/hr and the women
earned by the circus in the first two years ? 3 km/hr, how far will the woman have travelled
(1) 20% (2) –11% (3) –23% (4) 15% when they met ?
89. What is the amount of total profit/loss incurred (1) 35 km (2) 36 km

in the third year ? (3) 21 km (4) 27 km
(1) `24,200 (2) `30,400 97. There are four men of different heights. The
(3) `54,000 (4) No loss no gain fourth man is the tallest and the first man is the
shortest. If the difference in heights among the
first three men was 2 inch and the difference
between the third and the fourth man was 6 inch
and the average height of all the four men was
74 inch, how tall was the fourth man ?
(1) 78 inch (2) 80 inch
(3) 70 inch (4) 74 inch
98. Four numbers sum up to give 310. If they are in
the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1/5 : 1, which of the following
is the smallest number ?
(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25
99. Two friends A and B start walking around a
circular track in the same direction. Both of them
start from the same point at 7:00 AM. A
completes one round in 4 min, whereas B takes
5 min to complete one round. At what time do A
and B cross each other for the first time ?
(1) 7:15 AM (2) 7:20 AM
(3) 7:30 AM (4) 7:40 AM
100. Two friends P and Q start walking around a
circular track from the same point at the same
time. P walks in the clockwise direction, whereas
Q walks in the anticlockwise direction. P
completes four rounds in one hour. Q completes
five rounds in one hour. How many times do P
and Q meet each other if both of them walk for
40 min ?
(1) 3 times (2) 4 times
(3) 6 times (4) 8 times

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NUMBER SERIES

(7) (8) (1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 9

(9) (10) 16. Table, Chair, Furniture

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Adminitrators

Americans Painters 43. Indian Muslims who are non-administrators.

D B 14. What is the shortest distance between F and

(1) South (2) West (3) 10 km (4) 14 km

(3) East (4) North 46. A is 40m South-West of B. C is 40m South-East

(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 9

(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 10 (4) 15

(1) 19 (2) 24 (3) 18 (4) 12

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 14 (4) 16

(1) 22 (2) 24 (3) 21 (4) 26

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7

(1) 26 (2) 24 (3) 20 (4) 22

(1) 26 (2) 28 (3) 35 (4) 30 (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 7

(1) 24 (2) 22 (3) 20 (4) 18

(1) 13 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14

(1) 18 (2) 13 (3) 20 (4) 17

(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 17

(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20

(1) 13 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 18

(1) 13 (2) 16 (3) 14 (4) 18

(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 7

(1) 15 (2) 18 (3) 13 (4) 20

(1) 26 (2) 28 (3) 36 (4) 29

(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 20 (4) 22

(1) 18 (2) 13 (3) 20 (4) 17

(1) 24 (2) 20 (3) 16 (4) 28 (1) 11 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 10

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 8 (1) 44 (2) 42 (3) 40 (4) 38

(1) 15 (2) 16 (3) 12 (4) 14

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 8

(1) 24 (2) 18 (3) 20 (4) 22

(1) 24 (2) 28 (3) 26 (4) 30

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

1. Symbols + and ÷; numbers 14 and 6. Directions (Q.8 to Q.10) : Interchange the

(1) 0 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16

2. 9 33 81 144 40 169 25 ? 169

31. 4 11 25 1 10 100 144 ? 25

38. 24 7 96 8 18 120 12 ? 156

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 1 (4) 8

(1) 81 (2) 169 (3) 196 (4) 144

(1) 55 (2) 80 (3) 44 (4) 88

(1) 4 (2) 24 (3) 50 (4) 68

(1) 56 (2) 94 (3) 65 (4) 49

(1) 240 (2) 310 (3) 210 (4) 430

(1) 10 (2) 116 (3) 5 (4) 20

(1) 27 (2) 14 (3) 24 (4) 37

11. 125 26 64 121 34 144 169 ? 27

(1) 178 (2) 871 (3) 187 (4) 781

(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 5

(1) 13 (2) 20 (3) 17 (4) 14

(1) 55 (2) 255 (3) 342 (4) 51

(1) 25, 38 (2) 25, 30 (3) 121, 38 (4) 81, 34

(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13

(1) 25, 18 (2) 23, 30 (3) 28, 20 (4) 30, 33

(1) – 2 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 12

(1) 125 (2) 141 (3) 177 (4) 156

(1) 027 (2) 063 (3) 330 (4) 093

(1) 64 (2) 72 (3) 96 (4) 48

(1) 42 (2) 24 (3) 36 (4) 21

(1) 3 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 5

(1) 33 (2) 135 (3) 145 (4) 65