‫بسم اهلل الرحمن الرحيم‬

1. The following drug is classified as Immunosuppressive Agent:-

a. Theophylline
b. Cyclosporine
c. Prazosin
d. Mycophenolate Mofetil
e. b+d
Read the following prescription carefully, then answer questions (2-5):
Tavanic 500mg Tab
Take 1 Tab BID
14 days
2. The drug Tavanic contains the following active ingredient:
a. Ceftriaxone sod
b. Ofloxacin
c. Levofloxacin
d. Clarithromycin
e. Gentamycin
3. Tavanic is classified as:-
a. Penicillin Antibiotic
b. Macrolide Antibiotic
c. Fluoroquinolone Antibiotic
d. Aminoglycoside Antibiotic
e. Cephalosporin Antibiotic
4. Tavanic is manufactured by:-
a. MSD
b. Sanofi Aventis
c. Novartis
d. Bayer
e. Eli Lilly
5. A locally manufactured drug that contains the same active ingredient as
Tavanic includes the following:_
a. Klarimax
b. Genticin
c. Zinex
d. Levox
e. Ultracin

6. Common etiologic agents of community acquired pneumonia include:-

I. Esherichia coli
II. Haemophilus Influenza
III. Mycoplasma pneumonia
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I,II and III

1
7. Pernicious anemia is:-
a. due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12
b. Prevented by oral administration of a vitamin B6 supplement.
c. treated by parenteral administration of folic acid
d. treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12
e. Caused by dietary iron deficiency.
8. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation?
a. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet
b. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily.
c. Binding agents may be added dry or in solution
d. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst
e. Glidents promote the flow of materials during compression
9. Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. To mask the taste of the drug
b. To mask the odor of the drug
c. To improve the appearance of the tablet
d. To increase the drug's release rate
e. To protect the drug from stomach acid

Read the following prescription carefully, then answer questions (10-13):-

Rx:
I.O.P eye drops
i gtt o.d t.i.d
10. I.O.P eye drops contains the following active ingredient:-
a. Dorzolamide
b. Sodium Cromoglycate
c. Timolol Maleate
d. Atropine sulphate
e. Prednisolone Phosphate
11. The following statement is true regarding the active ingredient in I.O.P eye
drops:- :
I. Has a sulfonylurea structure
II. Has a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor activity.
III. Is useful in the treatment of glaucoma.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
12. According to the prescription the drug should be taken as follows:-
a. One drop in the right eye four times daily
b. One drop in each eye four times daily
c. One drop in the left eye three times daily
d. One drop in the right eye three times daily
e. One drop in each eye three times daily

2
13. I.O.P eye drops is manufactured by :-
a. Birzeit Pharmaceutical Company
b. Pharmacare PLC
c. Jerusalem Pharmaceutical company
d. Beit Jala Pharmaceuticals company
e. Megapharm
14. A solution has a ratio strength of 1:9000 (w/v). What is the percent weight-
volume {(w/v)} of the solution.
a. 0.01% d. 9%
b. 1.1% e. None of the above
c. 0.09%
15. A medication is available in a 200mg/5ml vial. An Rx calls for 300mg bid x
10d.How many ml are needed for a single dose?
a. 7.5 ml d. 150 ml
b. 15 ml e. 300 ml
c. 75 ml
16. What quantity should be dispensed for the following prescription?
Rx: Prednisolone 5 mg Tab
Sig: 2 tabs qid x 2 days
2 tabs tid x 2 days
2 tabs bid x 2 days
1 tab tid x 2 days
1 tab bid x 2 days. Then stop
Qty qs:-
a. 23 tablets d. 50 tablets
b. 25 tablets e. 60 tablets
c. 46 tablets

17. Which of the following drug decreases the efficacy of the drug Coumadin :
a. Clofibrate d. Heparin
b. Metronidazole e. None of the above
c. Vitamin K
18. The following laboratory test should be used to monitor therapeutic
progress of patients receiving Coumadin:-
a. Prothrombin time d. Creatinine Kinase
b. Bilirubin e. Allergy testing
c. Amylase

19. When considering the appropriateness of Glucophage monotherapy for a

patient with type II diabetes mellitus, relevant patient factors to consider
include:
I. Obesity
.II. Renal dysfunction
.III. Thyroid function
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only. e. I, II and III

c. I and II only.

3
 20. All of the following are classified as Anti-hypertensive drugs except:-
a. Doxazosin d. Amlodipine
b. Valsartan e. None of the above
c. Doxorubicin
21. State which of the following Pharmaceutical abbreviation is not correct:
a. p.r.n=as needed
b. o.u = both eyes
c. q.o.d = every other day
d. a.c = after meals
e. noct=at night
22. Absorption of drugs from gastrointestinal tract occurs more:
a. In ionized state
b. With larger molecular size
c. In case of tertiary amines
d. With greater water solubility
e. With longer disintegration time
23. By knowing the half-life of a drug we can find out:
a. The dose of the drug
b. Bio-availability of the drug
c. Time to reach the steady state
d. Rate of absorption
e. The pattern of their distribution in body
24. Pralidoxime is administered to patients suffering from poisoning
With Organophosphorous compounds to:
a. Reduce the cholinergic effects
b. Reactivate cholinesterase enzyme
c. Counter the central effects of acetylcholine
d. Prevent the respiratory embarrassment
e. Stimulate production of fresh cholinesterase
25. Which of the following endocrine abnormality may be produced by
D-2 receptor blockade caused by phenothiazines?
a. Hypothyroidism d. Diabetes mellitus
b. Hyperprolactinaemia e. Diabetes insipidus
c. Iatrogenic Cushing's Syndrome
26. Aspirin is not used in young children for antipyretic effect, because it may be
associated with:
a. Salicylism
b. Hypoprothrombinemia
c. Renal impairment
d. Metabolic acidosis
e. Reye's syndrome
27. Which one of the following drugs exhibits its anti-hypertensive effect
primarily by reduction of peripheral resistance?
a. Diltiazem d. Amlodipine
b. Clonidine e. Atenolol
c. Verapamil

4
28. A calcium channel blocker preferably used in subarachnoid haemorrhage
is:
a. Verapamil d. Amlodipine
b. Nifedipine e. Nimodipine
c. Diltiazem

29. A diuretic that produces its action mainly by acting on the proximal part of
distal convoluted tubules is:
a. Ethacrynic acid d. Spironolactone
b. Triamterene e. Mannitol
c. Hydroxychlorothiazide

30. A drug that inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation is:

a. Abciximab d. Clopidogrel
b. Aspirin e. Tirofiban
c. Eptifibatide

31. While traveling by car to a hill-station, a child suffered from nausea and
vomiting. In order to prevent these symptoms to occur during return journey
you would prescribe:
a. Atropine d. Diphenoxylate
b. Promethazine e. Chlorpromazine
c. Ondensatron
32. Loperamide and Diphenoxylate:
a. Are very effective in controlling the diarrhea of sever ulcerative colitis.
b. Are preferred for control of diarrheas caused by infections
c. Are primarily used in treatment of diarrheas in infants
d. Should be preferred over ORS therapy in childhood diarrheas
e. May produce substantial improvement in diarrhea of irritable bowel syndrome

33. A patient presenting with acute episode of bronchial asthma should be

preferably treated with:
a. Oral administration of LTD-4 receptor blockers
b. Administration of Mast Cell Stabilizing drug by aerosol
c. Administration of long acting Beta-2 receptor agonists by inhalation
d. Administration of short acting Beta-2 receptor agonists by inhalation
e. Oral administration of slow-release tablets of theophylline
34. Which of the following drugs may be used in regimens for eradication of
H.pylori?
a. Clarithromycin d. Ciprofloxacin
b. Tobramycin e. Albendazole
c. Ticarcillin
35. Cellcept is calssified pharmacologically as:
a. Antihistamine d. Anti-inflammatory
b. Immunosuppressant e. Antitussive
c. Antidepressant

5
36. Sulphamethoxazole is combined with trimethoprim in cotrimoxazole because
the two drugs:
a. Have matching volumes of distribution
b. Have similar plasma protein binding
c. Have matching half lives
d. Inhibit different steps in a metabolic pathway in the organisms
e. Are excreted through the same route
37. The aminoglycosides are not effective against anaerobic bacteria because:
a. These organisms do not have binding sites for aminoglycosides
b. These drugs fail to enter into anaerobes
c. These drugs are actively effluxed from anaerobes
d. These drugs are inactivated under anaerobic conditions
e. The anaerobes produce inactivating enzymes against aminoglycosides
38. The tetracyclines are not prescribed to the growing children because they:
a. May cause pseudomembranous enterocolitis
b. May cause photosensitivity
c. May cause sever vertigo
d. May impair bony growth
e. May cause Fanconi-like syndrome
39. Among the alkaloids of Vinca rosea:
a. Vinblastine cause more neurotoxicity than vincristine
b. Vincristine causes more bone marrow depression than vinblastine
c. Vincristine is more useful in childhood leukemias
d. Vinblastine has mechanism of action different than vincristine
e. The clinical uses of two alkaloids are practically the same

40. Which of the following drugs used in chemotherapy of breast cancer acts by
inhibiting the Estrogen receptor?
a. Diethylstilbestrol d. Paciltaxel
b. Tamoxifen e. Cyclophosphamide
c. Anastrozole
41. If the dose of a drug is 50 mcg, how many doses are contained in 0.020g
a. 40. d. 100
b. 400 e. 10
c. 200
42. One tablespoonful contains:
a. 5ml d. 20ml
b. 10ml e. Non of the above
c. 15ml

43. Which of the following may reduce the severity and duration of influenza if
administered early in the course of the infection?
a. Zanamivir d. a and b
b. Oseltamivir e. a and c
c. Palivizumab

6
44. Which of the following side effects will the patient most likely experience if
using trihexyphenidyl ?
a. Diaphoresis d. Miosis
b. Diarrhea e. Urinary incontinence
c. Dry mouth

45. All of the following statements about intramuscular drug administration are
true EXCEPT :
a. entry of the drug into the circulation is affected by the drug's degree of
lipophilicity.
b. peak effect is generally less than with intravenous administration.
c. bioavailability equals 100% .
d. maximium injection volume is 2-5 ml
e. drug effects generally last longer than with intravenous administration

46. The most useful glucose test employed in monitoring diabetes mellitus (DM)
therapy is:
a. urine monitoring d. cardiovascular monitoring
b. blood monitoring e. vascular monitoring
c. renal function

47. Placental transfer of a drug is affected by all of the following characteristics

EXCEPT :
a. molecular weight d. Lipid solubility of the drug
b. fetal sex e. plasma protein binding
c. gestational age

48. The advantage of recommending dextromethorphan instead of codeine

includes
a. more analgesia for muscle aches and pain
b. fifty percent as much respiratory depression
c. fifty percent as much addiction
d. peripheral action instead of central action
e. none of the above.
49. Drugs useful in treatment of infertility include all of the following EXCEPT :
a. bromocriptine.
b. clomiphene .
c. gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
d. human chorionic gonadotropin
e. prolactin.

Hormones that are synthesized in the hypothalamus include all of the .50
:following EXCEPT
.a. corticotrophin-releasing hormone
b. luteinizing hormone
c. oxytocin
d. thyrotropin-releasing hormone
e. vasopressin

7
51. which of the following statements about Regular Insulin is not correct:
a. It is a clear product
b. It may be administered either sc or iv
c. It is a short-acting insulin
d. It is a rapid acting insulin
e. It has long duration of action
52. Which of the following matches is not correct :
a. Mesulid Nimesulide
b. Simovil Simvastatin
c. Tritace Captopril
d. Rafassal 5-aminosalicylic acid
e. Redoxon Vitamin C
53. The ingredient added to tablets in pharmaceutical industry to help in
disintegration is called:
a. Disintegrant d. Dissolution-enhancing agent
b. Lubricant e. Binder
c. Surfactant

54. Bromhexin is used clinically as:

a. Laxative d. Mucolytic
b. Cough suppressant e. Diagnostic agent
c. Haemostatic
55. Streptokinase is used in treatment of
a. Celiac disease d. lung cancer
b. Pulmonary emboli e. none of the above
c.tuberculosis
56. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of a diabetic
pregnant woman:
a.Insulin d. Metformin
b. Chlorpropamide e. none of the above
c.Glibenclamide
57. Amlodipine is classified as
a. Antitussive d. ACE inhibitor
b. Antispasmodic e. none of the above
c. calcium channel blocker

58. The drug that decreases Uric acid production in the body is:
a. Allopurinol d. Propylthiouracil
b. Phenylbutazone e. Probencid
c. Famotidine

59. Which of the following pharmacological classes should not be used during
pregnancy:
a. Narcotics d. Diazepam
b. Alcohol e. all of the above
c. Barbiturates

8
 60. Which of the following vitamins is lipid soluble:
a. Vitamin A d. Pyridoxine
b. Thiamine e. Ascorbic acid
c. Niacin
61. Patient should be cautioned not to consume alcoholic beverages when given a
prescription for any of the following EXCEPT :
a. cefixime. d. glipizide
b. chloral hydrate e. metronidazole
c. chloropropamide.

62. When a patient is prescribed glyceryl nitrate (nitroglycerine) tablets they

must:
a. store them in a tightly closed glass bottle
b. Keep a couple of tablets in their pocket or purse for emergency use
c. Swallow them whole with a glass of water
d. Take them regularly e.g. 8 hourly
e. all of the above.
63. A patient suffering from depressive disorder is being treated with
imipramine if he uses diphenhydramine for allergic rhinitis a drug interaction is
likely to occur because:
a. diphenhydramine inhibits imipramine metabolism
b. both drugs block reuptake of norepinephrine release from sympathetic nerve
endings.
c. imipramine inhibits the metabolism of diphenhydramine.
d. both drugs block muscarinic receptors.
e. the drugs compete with each other for renal elimination

64. Agents that have been shown to protect the upper gastrointestinal tract from
ulcer formation include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. antacids d. misoprostol
b. cimetidine e. sucralfate.
c. ibuprofen
65. The drug Prozac contains:
a. paroxetine d. trimiprane
b. trazodone e. fluoxetine.
c. sertraline
:The drug Cialis contains .66
a. d.vardenafil
testosterone
b. alprostadil e.sildenafil
c. tadalafil
A locally manufactured drug that contains the same active ingredient as .67
:Cialis
a. sinagra
b. fortex
c. v-care
d. all of the above

9
.e. none of the above
:The manufacturer of Cialis is .68
a. Novartis
b. GSK
c. Lilly
d. Pfizer
e. Roche.
69. 10,000 units of Heparin are added to 1 Liter of 0.9% Saline. Dose prescribed is
400 units per hour. Calculate the rate of infusion in ml/hr.
a. 4 ml
b. 0.4 ml
c. 40ml
d. 400ml
e. 100ml
70. Digoxin injection is available in concentration of 0.1 mg/ ml .How many
milliliters of the injection will provide a dose of 75 mcg?
a. 7.5 ml
b. 75 ml
c. 0.75ml
d. 10ml
e. 0.1 ml
71. In dispensing the Latin abbreviation for "at bedtime" is:
a. b.i.d.
b. hrs.
c. h.
d. h.s.
e. prn.
72. Atropine sulphate is used to treat the poisoned patients with:
a. Cyanide
b. Iodine 1-131
c. Organophosphate
d. Iron
e. Methanol
73. Which of the following conjugation reactions occurs inside the
microsomes of hepatocytes ?
a. Sulfate conjugation
b. Acetylation
c. Glycine conjugation
d. Glucuronide conjugation
e. Glutathione conjugation
74. The drug Crestor contains the following active ingredient:
a. verapamil
b. pravastatin
c. rosuvastatin
d. ramipril
e. cilazapril

10
75. Crestor is classified as:
a. ACE inhibitor
b. statin type hypercholestrolemic agent
c. calcium antagonist hypotensive agent
d. B blocker
e. statin type hypocholestrolemic agent.
76. Symbicort Turbuhaler contains:
a. Budesonide
b. Formoterol
c. Salmeterol
d. a+b
e. a+c
77. Symbicort Turbuhaler is manufactured by:
a. Sanofi Aventis
b. GSK
c. AstraZeneca
d. Abbot
e. Novartis
Read the following prescription carefully, then answer questions (78- 80)
Rx:- Prazolex 1mg Tab
1 Tab T.I.D
78. Prazolex Tab contains the following active ingredient:-
a. Clozapine
b. Haloperidol
c. Risperidone
d. Alprazolam
e. Bromazepam
79. Prazolex is classified as:-
a. Benzodiazepine Anxiolytic
b. Atypical Antipsychotic
c. Phenothiazine Antipsychotic
d. Piperidine Antipsychotic
e. None of the above
80. Prazolex Tab is manufactured by:-
a. Birzeit Pharmaceutical Company
b. Pharmacare PLC
c. Jerusalem Pharmaceutical company
d. Beit Jala Pharmaceuticals company
e. Megapharm

81. The drug Glivec is classified as:-

a. Anti-spasmodic agent
b. Anti-arrythmic agent
c. Anti-neoplastic agent
d. Anti-diabetic agent

11
 e. Anti-hypertensive agent
82. The active pharmaceutical ingredient in Amaryl is:
a. glibenclamide
b. metformin
c. glimepiride
d. chlorpropamide
e. glipizide
:Myocardial oxygen demand is increased by all of the following factors EXCEPT .83
a. exercise
b. smoking
c. cold temperatures
d. isoproterenol
e. propranolol
84. The most serious adverse reaction that may occur with the use of Thionamide
antithyroid drugs is:
a. Agranulocytosis
b. Joint pains
c. Paresthesias
d. Alopecia
e. Skin rashes
85. Potential adverse effects associated with aspirin include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. gastrointestinal ulceration
b. renal dysfunction
c. enhanced methotrexate toxicity
d. cardiac arrhythmias
e. hypersensitivity asthma
86. Which of the following will increase the half-life of theophylline?
a. carbamazepine
b. cimetidine
c. Phenobarbital
d. smoking
e. all of the above
87. Which of the following metals has no therapeutic use:
a. lead
b. lithium
c. gold
d. platinum
e. none of the above.
88. Which of the following enhances digitalis toxicity by pharmacokinetic
mechanism:
a. captopril.
b. hydrochlorothiazide
c. lidocaine
d. quinidine
e. salfasalazine

12
‫‪89. Thiazides are known to reduce excretion of:‬‬
‫‪a. diazepam‬‬
‫‪b. fluoxetine‬‬
‫‪c. imipramine‬‬
‫‪d. lithium‬‬
‫‪e. potassium‬‬
‫‪90. A hypertensive patient has been using nifedipine for sometimes without outwards‬‬
‫‪effects. If he experiences a rapidly developing enhancement of the‬‬
‫‪antihypertensive effect of the drug it is probably due to:‬‬
‫‪a. concomitant use of antacids.‬‬
‫‪b. foods containing tyramine.‬‬
‫‪c. grapefruite juice.‬‬
‫‪d. induction of drug metabolism.‬‬
‫‪e. over-the-counter decongestant.‬‬

‫أجب بنعم أو ال على األسئلة من (‪:)100-91‬‬

‫)‬ ‫(‬ ‫‪ .91‬يجوز للصيدلي أن يكون مالكا ألكثر من مؤسسة صيدالنية واحدة‪.‬‬
‫)‬ ‫(‬ ‫‪ .92‬يجب أن ال تقل مساحة الصيدلية عن ‪ 40‬متر مربع‪.‬‬
‫)‬ ‫(‬ ‫‪ .93‬مستودع األدوية مخصص لبيع األدوية بالجملة و المفرق ألي كان‪.‬‬
‫‪ .94‬صيدلية أغلقها صاحبها لمدة ‪ 15‬شهرا فقط حسب األصول بسبب سفره إلى الخارج و‬
‫)‬ ‫(‬ ‫عندما رجع له الحق بإعادة فتحها و ممارسة عمله‪.‬‬
‫‪ .95‬يجوز أن يكون تاريخ انتهاء الدواء مختوما‘ بالحبر أو مطبوعا من قبل الشركة الصانعة‪.‬‬
‫)‬ ‫(‬
‫‪ .96‬ال يجوز أن يكون للصيدلية العامة باب فرعي آخر يتصل بمنزل الصيدالني‘ المسئول‪.‬‬
‫)‬ ‫(‬
‫)‬ ‫(‬ ‫‪ .97‬يجوز حقن اإلبر في الصيدلية من قبل أي كان‪.‬‬
‫‪ .98‬ال يجوز أن يكون باب الصيدلية الخاصة التابعة لجمعية خيرية على الشارع العام‪.‬‬
‫)‬ ‫(‬
‫‪ .99‬يجوز للصيدلي المالك و المسئول عن الصيدلية العمل كمندوب دعاية باإلضافة إلى‬
‫)‬ ‫(‬ ‫عمله في الصيدلية‪.‬‬
‫‪ .100‬يلغى الترخيص الممنوح من الوزارة في حال تم بيع الصيدلية دون علم و موافقة‬
‫)‬ ‫(‬ ‫الوزارة‪.‬‬

‫مع تمنياتنا لكم بالتوفيق‪،،‬‬

‫‪13‬‬