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1- Autacoids differ from hormones in that

Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological conditions


Autacoids do not have a specific cell or tissue of origin
Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release
Both options B and C are correct
2- The following eicosanoids is generated through the lipoxygenase pathway
Prostaglandin E2
Thromboxane A2
Leukotriene C4
Prostacycline

There are no preformed stores of the following autacoid or autacoids


Prostaglandin
Leukotriene
Angiotensin
All of the above
Actions of prostaglandin E2 include the following except
Fall in blood pressure
Bronchoconstriction
Uterine contraction
Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
The following prostanoids is a potent inducer of platelet aggregation
Prostacycline
Prostaglandin E2
Prostaglandin D2
Thromboxane A2
Montelukast blocks the action of the following autacoids
Prostacyclin
Platelet activating factor
Leukotriene B4
Leukotriene C4/D4
The actions of platelet activating factor include the following except
Increased capillary permeability
Bronchodilation
Vasodilation
Erosion of gastric mucosa
The most prominent action of leukotriene B4 is
Vasodilation
Uterine contraction
Platelet aggregation
Chemotaxis of neutrophils and monocytes

Ergot alkaloids
Cause vasodilation
Exert their actions by binding to specific ergot amine receptors
Are useful in treating acute migraine headache
Are useful to maintain uterine muscle tone during pregnancy
Which one of the following is non sedative antihistamine
Dimenhydrinate
Promethazine
Chlorpheniramine
Astemizole

Which one of following antihistamine is the best choice for individuals working
in jobs where wakefulness is critical
Dimenhydrinate
Promethazine
Chlorpheniramine
Loratadine

Activation of 5-HT receptor activation are primarily mediated by


Increased membrane permeability to sodium ions
Increased formation of cAMP
Activation of guanylyl cyclase
Generation of inositol triphosphate and diacyl glycerols

The following expectorant acts both directly on the airway mucosa as well as ref
lexly
Potassium iodide
Guaiphenesin
Terpin hydrate
Bromhexine

Codeine is used clinically as


Analgesic
Antitussive
Antidiarrhoeal
All of the above

Select the fastest acting inhaled bronchodilator


Ipratropium bromide
Formoterol
Salbutamol
Salmeterol

Antitussive act by
Liquifying bronchial secretions
Raising the threshold of cough centre
Reducing cough inducing impulses from the lungs
Both options B and C are correct

The following antiasthma drug is not bronchodilator


Ipratropium bromide
Theophylline
Formoterol
Sodium cromoglycate

Select the correct statement about salmeterol


It is a long acting selective beta 2 agonist bronchodilator
It is a bronchodilator with anti-inflammatory property
It is a beta blocker that can be safely given to asthmaticus
It is an antihistamine with mast cell stabilizing property

Choose the correct statement about theophylline


Its use in asthma has declined because of narrow safety margin
Its dose needs to be reduced in smokers
It acts by increasing the formation of cAMP
Its plasma half life is longer in children compared to that in adults

Sodium cromoglycate has a role in the treatment of thefollowing conditions excep


t
Chronic bronchial asthma
Chronic urticaria
Chronic allergic rhinitis
Chronic allergic conjunctivitis

The most consistent,pronounced and sustained relief of symptoms in chronic bronc


hial asthma is afforded by
Beta 2 sympathomimetics
Anticholinergics
Sodium cromoglycate
Corticosteroids

The foundation of therapy for Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is


Inhaled bronchodilators
Glucocorticoids
Leukotriene inhibitors
Mast cell stabilizers

Which one of the following is not Mast cell stabilizers


Disodium cromoglycate
Ipratropium bromide
Ketotifen
Nedocromil

The drug or drugs which can be used to treat Allergic Rhinitis


Antihistamines (H1-receptor blockers)
Alpha - Adrenergic agonists
Corticosteroids
All of the above

Which one of the following is an alpha Adrenergic agonist to treat Allergic Rhin
itis
Phenylephrine
Ipratropium bromide
Ketotifen
Cromolyn
Amolodiine
Coombs positive hemolytic anemia is caused by
Clonidine
Guanfacine
Methyldopa

Protection against Osteoporosis is the advantage of taking this drug


Potassium sparing diuretic
Loop diuretic
Thiazide diuretic
Valsartan

Left ventricular hypertrophy can be greatly reduced by the use of


Dilitazan
Losartan
Verapamil
Nicardipine

Abrupt discontinuation of this drug leads to elevated levels of circulating nore


pinephrine and rebound hypertension .
Clonidine
Atenolol
Enalarpril
Doxazoson

To inhibit the antibacterial activity of sulfonamides, one should administer


A. Acetylsalicylate
B. Folic acid
C. Pantothenic acid
D. Vitamin B12
E. Methotrexate

1. A heroin addict has entered rehabilitation program and is put on Methadone. M


ethadone is effective in this situation because.
a) It is an antagonist at morphine receptors
b) It reverses respiratory depression
c) It has longer duration of action than heroin
d) It does not cause constipation
e) It is a partial agonist at mu and antagonist at kappa receptors
2. Dopamine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter at D2 receptor and act by.
a) Increasing K+ conduction presynaptically
b) Decreasing K+ conduction presynaptically
c) Increasing Ca++ conduction presynaptically
d) Decreasing Ca++ conduction presynaptically
e) Decreasing sodium conduction presynaptically
3. Which of the following drugs act as antagonist at Mu Receptor and as agonist
at Kappa Receptor?
a) Pentazocine
b) Buprenorphine
c) Fantanyl
d) Nalbuphine
e) Methadone
4. Generally the earliest manifestation of salicylism is
a) Visual disturbance
b) Excitement
c) Hyperventilation
d) Tinnitus
e) Acidosis
5. The vast majority of drugs have molecular weights (MW) between 100 and 1,000.
Large drugs, such as alteplase (t-PA), must be administered:
a) Into the compartment where they have their effect
b) Orally so they do not absorb too quickly
c) Rectally to prevent irritation to the stomach lining and vessels
d) Via the intraosseous (IO) route
e) Titrated with buffering agents to prevents cell lysis
6. Which of the following occurs with drugs that are extremely small, such as Li
thium?
a) Receptor mediated endocytosis
b) Minor drug movement within the body
c) Vasodilation when injected intravenously (IV)
d) Specific receptor binding
e) Nonspecific binding
7. Which of the following is NOT an action of the body on a drug?
a) Absorption
b) Distribution
c) Metabolism
d) Excretion
e) Enzyme induction

Which of the following crosses the blood-brain barrier?


a. GABA
b. Propranolol
c. Suxamethonium
d. Edrophonium
e. Dopamine

Two drugs may act on the same tissue or organ through independent
receptors, resulting in effects in opposite directions. This is known as
a. Physiologic antagonism
b. Chemical antagonism
c. Competitive antagonism
d. Irreversible antagonism
e. Dispositional antagonism
92. If a drug is repeatedly administered at dosing intervals that are equal to
its elimination half-life, the number of doses required for the plasma concentra
tion
of the drug to reach the steady state is
a. 2 to 3
b. 4 to 5
c. 6 to 7
d. 8 to 9
e. 10 or more
93. It was determined that 95% of an oral 80-mg dose of verapamil was
absorbed in a 70-kg test subject. However, because of extensive biotransformatio
n
during its first pass through the portal circulation, the bioavailability
of verapamil was only 25%. Assuming a liver blood flow of 1500 mL/min,
the hepatic clearance of verapamil in this situation was
a. 60 mL/min
b. 375 mL/min
c. 740 mL/min
d. 1110 mL/min
e. 1425 mL/min
95. Of the following characteristics, which is unlikely to be associated
with the process of facilitated diffusion of drugs?
a. The transport mechanism becomes saturated at high drug concentrations
b. The process is selective for certain ionic or structural configurations of th
e drug
c. If two compounds are transported by the same mechanism, one will competitivel
y inhibit the transport of the other
d. The drug crosses the membrane against a concentration gradient and the proces
s requires cellular energy
e. The transport process can be inhibited noncompetitively by substances that
interfere with cellular metabolism
97. Which of the following is unlikely to be associated with oral drug
administration of an enteric-coated dosage form?
a. Irritation to the gastric mucosa with nausea and vomiting
b. Destruction of the drug by gastric acid or digestive enzymes
c. Unpleasant taste of the drug
d. Formation of nonabsorbable drug-food complexes
e. Variability in absorption caused by fluctuations in gastric emptying time
98. A 26-year-old female with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops
cryptococcal meningitis. She refuses all intravenous medication. Which antifung
al agent can be given orally to treat the meningeal infection?
a. Ketoconazole
b. Amphotericin B
c. Fluconazole
d. Nystatin
99. The quinolone derivative that is most effective against Pseudomonas aerugino
sa is
a. Norfloxacin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Ofloxacin
d. Enoxacin
e. Lomefloxacin

100. Ethambutol is administered concurrently with other antitubercular drugs in


the treatment of TB in order to:
a. Reduce the pain of injection
b. Facilitate penetration of the blood-brain barrier
c. Retard the development of organism resistance
d. Delay excretion of other antitubercular drugs by the kidney
e. Retard absorption after intramuscular injection
101. The mechanism of action by which pyrantel pamoate is effective for the trea
tment of Necator americanus (hookworm) disease is
a. Interference with cell-wall synthesis
b. Interference with cell division
c. Inhibition of neuromuscular transmission
d. Interference with protein synthesis
e. Depletion of membrane lipoproteins
102. The tumor that is least susceptible to cell-cycle-specific (CCS) anticancer
agents is
a. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
b. Acute granulocytic leukemia
c. Burkitt s lymphoma
d. Adenocarcinoma of the colon
e. Choriocarcinoma
103. A 25-year-old female post renal transplant shows signs of acute renal allogra
ph rejection. Of the following agents, which should be administered?
a. Interferon ?
b. Aldesleukin
c. Muromonab-CD3
d. Sargramostim
e. Filgrastim
104. A 75-year-old female in congestive heart failure (CHF) is unable to climb a
flight of stairs without experiencing shortness of breath. Digoxin is administe
red to improve cardiac muscle contractility. Within two weeks, she has a marked
improvement in her symptoms. What cellular action of digoxin accounts for this?
a. Inhibition of cyclic adenosine 5?-monophosphate (cAMP) synthesis
b. Inhibition of mitochondrial calcium (Ca2+) release
c. Inhibition of the sodium (Na+) pump
d. Inhibition of ?-adrenergic stimulation
e. Inhibition of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) degradation

105. A positive Coombs test and hemolytic anemia may follow the administration of
which antihypertensive drug?
a. Methyldopa
b. Clonidine
c. Guanabenz
d. Prazosin
e. Captopril
106. The EKG of a patient who is receiving digitalis in the therapeutic dose ran
ge would be likely to show
a. Prolongation of the QT interval
b. Prolongation of the PR interval
c. Symmetric peaking of the T wave
d. Widening of the QRS complex
e. Elevation of the ST segment
107. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis, the most likely drug he has
been taking in past is:
a. Quinidine
b. Procainamide
c. Lidocaine
d. Amiodarone
e. Spironolactone
108. Which of the following drug is most likely going to slow down atrial rate a
nd increase the conduction velocity?
a. Quinidine
b. Digoxin
c. Esmolol
d. Verapamil
e. Adenosine
109. Preferred drug for hypertension in a patient with congestive cardiac failur
e is:
a. Digoxin
b. Propranolol
c. Verapamil
d. Captopril
e. prazosin
110. In a 70 kg patient the Vd of lidocaine is 80L and its clearance is 28L/hr.
the elimination half-life of lidocaine in this patient is:
a. 0.1 Hr
b. 0.5 Hr
c. 2.0 Hr
d. 1 Hr
e. 4 Hr
111. Regarding Furosamide match which of the following statement is NOT true:
a. It causes Hypomagnesemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Urinary acidification
e. Hyperurecemia
112. A former heroin addict is maintained on methadone, but succumbs to temptati
on and buys an opioid on the street. He takes it and rapidly goes into withdrawa
l. Which opioid did he take?
a. Meperidine
b. Heroin
c. Pentazocine
d. Codeine
e. Propoxyphene
113. A 26-year-old female with reactive depression complains of missing her peri
od and having milk discharge from her breasts. She has no signs of pregnancy, in
cluding a negative pregnancy test. Which of the following might have caused thes
e findings?
a. Clomipramine
b. Amoxapine
c. Fluoxetine
d. Mirtazapine
e. Tranylcypromine
114. A 19-year-old female whose roommate is being treated for depression decides
that she is also depressed and secretly takes her roommate s pills as directed on
the bottle for several days. One night, she makes herself a snack of chicken live
r paté and bleu cheese, accompanied by a glass of red wine. She soon develops head
ache, nausea, and palpitations. She goes to the ED, where her blood pressure is
found to be 200/110 mmHg. What antidepressant did she take?
a. Sertraline
b. Phenelzine
c. Nortriptyline
d. Trazodone
e. Fluoxetine
115. A patient with ulcerative colitis is best treated with
a. Celecoxib
b. Naproxen
c. Sulfasalazine
d. Infliximab
e. Penicillamine

116. Hyperkalemia is a contraindication to the use of which of the following dru


gs?
a. Acetazolamide
b. Chlorothiazide
c. Ethacrynic acid
d. Chlorthalidone
e. Spironolactone
117. A 55-year-old female with a blood pressure of 170/105 mmHg has pitting edem
a of the lower extremities and an elevated serum creatinine associated with a no
rmal serum potassium. Which of the following agents is contraindicated in this p
atient?
a. Triamterene
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Metolazone
d. Ethacrynic acid
e. Acetazolamide
118. Misoprostol has a cytoprotective action on the gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa
because it:
a. Enhances secretion of mucus and bicarbonate ion
b. Neutralizes acid secretion
c. Antagonizes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
d. Relieves ulcer symptoms
e. Coats the mucosa
119. A 27-year-old female is diagnosed with hypercortisolism. To determine wheth
er cortisol production is independent of the pituitary gland, you decide to supp
ress ACTH production by giving a high-potency glucocorticoid. Which glucocortico
id is the best for this indication?
a. Triamcinolone
b. Prednisone
c. Hydrocortisone
d. Dexamethasone
e. Methylprednisolone
120. Of the following drugs, which would not produce a syndrome of flushing, hea
dache, nausea, vomiting, sweating, hypotension, and confusion after ethanol cons
umption?
a. Amitriptyline
b. Cefoperazone
c. Tolbutamide
d. Metronidazole
e. Disulfiram

Q.1- Choose the most appropriate response.


1. The description of molecular events initiated with the ligand binding and end
ing with a physiologic effect is called:
A. Receptor down-regulation
B. Signal transduction pathway
C. Ligand-receptor binding
D. Law of mass action
E. Intrinsic activity or efficacy b
2. G protein-coupled receptors that activate an inhibitory G alpha subunit alter
the activity of adenylyl cyclase to:
A. Increase the coupling of receptor to G protein
B. Block the ligand from binding
C. Initiate the conversion of GTP to GDP
D. Generate intracellular inositol triphosphate
E. Decrease the production of cAMP e

4.A partial agonist is best described as an agent that:


A. Has low potency but high efficacy
B. Acts as both an agonist and antagonist
C. Interacts with more than one receptor type
D. Cannot produce the full effect even at high doses
E. Blocks the effect of the antagonist d

5. What is true in relation to drug receptors:


A. All drugs act through specific receptors
B. All drug receptors are located on the surface of the target cells
C. Agonists induce a conformational change in the receptor
D. Partial agonists have low affinity for the receptor
E. All of the above c
6. Drugs acting through receptors exhibit the following features except
A. Structural specificity
B. High potency
C. Competitive antagonism
D. Dependence of action on lipophilicity
E. Non Competitive antagonism d
7. The following receptor type has 7 helical membrane spanning amino acid segmen
ts with 3 extracellular and 3 intracellular loops:
A. Tyrosine protein kinase receptor
B. Gene expression regulating receptor
C. Intrinsic ion channel containing receptor
D.G protein coupled receptor
E. None of the above d
8. Select the receptor that is located intracellularly:
A. Opioid receptor
B. Steroid receptor
C. Prostaglandin receptor
D. Angiotensin receptor
E. All of the above b
11. Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of:
A. Continuous use of agonists
B. Continuous use of antagonists
C. Chronic use of CNS depressants
D. Denervation
E. Chronic use of CNS stimulants a
13. Which of the following is always true?
A. A more potent drug is more efficacious
B. A more potent drug is safer
C. A more potent drug is clinically superior
D. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses
E. All of the above d
14. 'Drug efficacy' refers to:
A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial
B. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug
C. The dose of the. drug needed to produce half maximal effect
D. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect
E. None of the above b
15. The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its:
A. Safety
B. Potency
C. Efficacy
D. Dose variability
E. Toxicity a
16. Which of the following is an unpredictable adverse drug reaction:
A. Side effect
B. Toxic effect
C. Idiosyncrasy
D. Physical dependence
E.Psychological dependence c

17.The delicate balance between the desires effect and unwanted toxicity of a dr
ug is referred to as its
A.Potency
B.Intrinsic activity
C.Therapeutic index
D.Bioavailability
E.Bioequivalence c

18 Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected


to be subjected to first-pass metabolism:
A.Oral
B.Sublingual
C.Subcutaneous
D.Rectal
E.Intramuscular a

19 In addition to slow intravenous infusion,which of the following routes of adm


inistration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response:
A.Sublingual
B.Transdermal
C.Inhalational
D.Nasal insufflation
E.Intramuscular c

20 Compared to subcutaneous injection,the intramuscular injection of drugs:


A.Is more painful
B.Produces faster response
C.Is unsuitable for depot preparations
D.Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
E.All of the above b

21. Drugs which undergo high degree of first-pass metabolism in liver:


A. Have low oral bioavailability
B. Are excreted primarily in bile
C. Are contraindicated in liver disease
D. Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination a
E.Exhibit first order kinetics of elimination
22 The joint action of two or more drugs such that their combined effects are gr
eater than the sum of their individual effects, is called:
A. Synergism
B. Antagonism
C. Additive effect
D. Non-additive effect
D. None of the above a

23 Which one of the following do no belong to vegetable drugs


A. Alkaloids
B. Glycosides
C. Resins
D. Antibiotics
E. Morphine d
24 Morphine is an example of:
A. Alkaloids
B. Glycosides
C. Resins
D. Tannins
E.Antibiotics a

25 Gamboge is an example of:


A. Alkaloids
B. Glycosides
C. Resins
D. Tannins
E.None of the above c
26 Which one of the following is non-specific enzyme inhibitor:
A. Disulphiran
B. Acetazolamide
C. Neostigmine
D. Concentrated acids
E. All of the above d

27 Salicylates exert antirheumatic action by:


A. Enzymes
B. Metabolic analogues (antimetabolite)
C. Chelation of metallic ions
D. Intercellular Microcrystal formation
E.All of the above c

28 Which one of the following binding forces in Drug-Receptor Interactions is es


sentially "irreversible" under biological conditions:
A.Covalent bond
B.Van der waals forces
C.Ionic bond
D.Hydrogen bonding
E.None of the above a

29 Which one of the following relation is correct:


A.Affinity = K1/ K2
B.Affinity= K2/K1
C.Affinity= K2 + K1
D.Affinity=K2-K1
D.None of the above B
30 Which one of the following drugd has the greatest affinity
A.Drug Kd value = 1M
B.Drug Kd value = 2mM
C.Drug Kd value = 1nM
D.Drug Kd value = 1mM
E. Drug Kd value = 2M c

31 Continued stimulation of cells with agonists generally results in a state of

A.Desensitization
B.Supersensitivity
C.Receptor up-regulation
D.All of the above
E.Both B& C a

32 Pharmacodynamic tolerance is often occurs due to


A.Receptor up-regulation
B.Receptor down-regulation
C. Supersensitivity
C.Both A & B
D.None of the above b

1. The description of molecular events initiated with the ligand binding and end
ing with a physiologic effect is called:
A. Receptor down-regulation
B. Signal transduction pathway
C. Ligand-receptor binding
D. Law of mass action
E. Intrinsic activity or efficacy b
2. G protein-coupled receptors that activate an inhibitory G alpha subunit alter
the activity of adenylyl cyclase to:
A. Increase the coupling of receptor to G protein
B. Block the ligand from binding
C. Initiate the conversion of GTP to GDP
D. Generate intracellular inositol triphosphate
E. Decrease the production of cAMP e

4.A partial agonist is best described as an agent that:


A. Has low potency but high efficacy
B. Acts as both an agonist and antagonist
C. Interacts with more than one receptor type
D. Cannot produce the full effect even at high doses
E. Blocks the effect of the antagonist d

5. What is true in relation to drug receptors:


A. All drugs act through specific receptors
F. All drug receptors are located on the surface of the target cells
G. Agonists induce a conformational change in the receptor
H. Partial agonists have low affinity for the receptor
I. All of the above c
6. Drugs acting through receptors exhibit the following features except
D. Structural specificity
E. High potency
F. Competitive antagonism
D. Dependence of action on lipophilicity
E. Non Competitive antagonism d
7. The following receptor type has 7 helical membrane spanning amino acid segmen
ts with 3 extracellular and 3 intracellular loops:
A. Tyrosine protein kinase receptor
D. Gene expression regulating receptor
E. Intrinsic ion channel containing receptor
D.G protein coupled receptor
E. None of the above d
8. Select the receptor that is located intracellularly:
A. Opioid receptor
D. Steroid receptor
E. Prostaglandin receptor
D. Angiotensin receptor
E. All of the above b
11. Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of:
A. Continuous use of agonists
D. Continuous use of antagonists
E. Chronic use of CNS depressants
D. Denervation
E. Chronic use of CNS stimulants a
13. Which of the following is always true?
A. A more potent drug is more efficacious
F. A more potent drug is safer
G. A more potent drug is clinically superior
H. A more potent drug can produce the same response at lower doses
I. All of the above d
14. 'Drug efficacy' refers to:
A. The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial
F. The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug
G. The dose of the. drug needed to produce half maximal effect
H. The dose of the drug needed to produce therapeutic effect
I. None of the above b
15. The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its:
A. Safety
F. Potency
G. Efficacy
H. Dose variability
I. Toxicity a
16. Which of the following is an unpredictable adverse drug reaction:
A. Side effect
D. Toxic effect
E. Idiosyncrasy
D. Physical dependence
E.Psychological dependence c

17.The delicate balance between the desires effect and unwanted toxicity of a dr
ug is referred to as its
A.Potency
B.Intrinsic activity
C.Therapeutic index
D.Bioavailability
E.Bioequivalence c

18 Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected


to be subjected to first-pass metabolism:
A.Oral
B.Sublingual
C.Subcutaneous
D.Rectal
E.Intramuscular a

19 In addition to slow intravenous infusion,which of the following routes of adm


inistration allows for titration of the dose of a drug with the response:
A.Sublingual
B.Transdermal
C.Inhalational
D.Nasal insufflation
E.Intramuscular c
20 Compared to subcutaneous injection,the intramuscular injection of drugs:
A.Is more painful
B.Produces faster response
C.Is unsuitable for depot preparations
D.Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
E.All of the above b

21. Drugs which undergo high degree of first-pass metabolism in liver:


A. Have low oral bioavailability
B. Are excreted primarily in bile
C. Are contraindicated in liver disease
D. Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination a
E.Exhibit first order kinetics of elimination
22 The joint action of two or more drugs such that their combined effects are gr
eater than the sum of their individual effects, is called:
A. Synergism
B. Antagonism
C. Additive effect
D. Non-additive effect
D. None of the above a

23 Which one of the following do no belong to vegetable drugs


A. Alkaloids
B. Glycosides
C. Resins
D. Antibiotics
E. Morphine d
24 Morphine is an example of:
A. Alkaloids
B. Glycosides
C. Resins
D. Tannins
E.Antibiotics a

25 Gamboge is an example of:


A. Alkaloids
B. Glycosides
C. Resins
D. Tannins
E.None of the above c
26 Which one of the following is non-specific enzyme inhibitor:
A. Disulphiran
B. Acetazolamide
C. Neostigmine
D. Concentrated acids
E. All of the above d
27 Salicylates exert antirheumatic action by:
A. Enzymes
B. Metabolic analogues (antimetabolite)
C. Chelation of metallic ions
D. Intercellular Microcrystal formation
E.All of the above c

28 Which one of the following binding forces in Drug-Receptor Interactions is es


sentially "irreversible" under biological conditions:
A.Covalent bond
B.Van der waals forces
C.Ionic bond
D.Hydrogen bonding
E.None of the above a

29 Which one of the following relation is correct:


A.Affinity = K1/ K2
B.Affinity= K2/K1
C.Affinity= K2 + K1
D.Affinity=K2-K1
D.None of the above B
30 Which one of the following drugd has the greatest affinity
A.Drug Kd value = 1M
B.Drug Kd value = 2mM
C.Drug Kd value = 1nM
D.Drug Kd value = 1mM
E. Drug Kd value = 2M c

31 Continued stimulation of cells with agonists generally results in a state of

A.Desensitization
B.Supersensitivity
C.Receptor up-regulation
D.All of the above
E.Both B& C a

32 Pharmacodynamic tolerance is often occurs due to


A.Receptor up-regulation
B.Receptor down-regulation
C. Supersensitivity
C.Both A & B
D.None of the above b
8. Which one of the following drugs is different from the others?
a) Buprenorphine
b) Fantanyl
c) Nalbuphine
d) Pentazocine
9. In Humans the death due to morphine poisoning is always due to
a) Convulsions
b) Hypertension
c) Respiration depression
d) Hypothermia
10. A patient is brought to emergency in unconscious condition. The doctor diagn
osed Morphine poisoning. What was the reason for this particular diagnosis?
a) Patient was suffering from sever respiratory depression
b) Patient was suffering from Hypertension
c) Patient s Body temperature was too low
d) Doctor observed Pin-Point Pupil in patient
11. A heroin addict has entered rehabilitation program that require that he take
s Methadone. Methadone is effective in this situation because.
f) It is an antagonist at morphine receptors
g) It has less potent analgesic activity than heroin
h) It has longer duration of action than heroin
i) It does not cause constipation
12. Nalaxone rapidly reverse respiratory depressant effect of opioids with minim
al affect on analgesia. What is the reason?
a) Nalaxone has 10 fold greater affinity for Mu Receptor than Kappa Receptor
b) Nalaxone has 10 fold greater affinity for Kappa Receptor than Mu Receptor
c) Nalaxone act only on Mu Receptor
d) Nalaxone has no affinity for Mu Receptor
13. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about Codeine?
a) Codeine has analgesic activity equivalent to Morphine
b) Codeine has antitussive activity equivalent to Morphine
c) Codeine itself has no analgesic activity
d) Codeine itself has no antitussive activity
14. Which of the following drugs act as antagonist at Mu Receptor and as agonist
at Kappa Receptor?
f) Pentazocine
g) Buprenorphine
h) Fantanyl
i) Nalbuphine
15. How drugs act on ion channels?
a) Through receptor that act directly on ion channel
b) Through receptor that act on ion channel through G-Protein
c) Through receptor that act on ion channel through 2nd Messenger
d) All of the above
16. Dopamine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter at D2 receptor and act by.
f) Increasing K+ conduction presynaptically
g) Decreasing K+ conduction presynaptically
h) Increasing Ca++ conduction presynaptically
i) Decreasing Ca++ conduction presynaptically
17. Which of the following drugs is different from others?
a) Nicotine
b) Caffeine
c) Theophylline
d) Theobromine
18. Morphine is contra-indicated in sever brain injury because.
a) It causes euphoria
b) It causes increase in CSF pressure because of vasodilatation
c) It causes decrease in CSF pressure because of vasodilatation
d) It causes increase in CSF pressure because of increased production of CSF
19. Repeated use of morphine produces tolerance to all of the followings EXCEPT.
a) Respiratory depression
b) Euphoria
c) Constipation
d) Sedation
20. Which of the followings statements is true about activation of Opioid recept
ors?
a) Decreased Ca++ influx which causes release of Excitatory neurotransmitter pre
synaptically
b) Increased Ca++ influx which causes release of Excitatory neurotransmitter pre
synaptically
c) Increased K+ influx which decreases the response of postsynaptic neurons to n
eurotransmitter
d) Increased K+ efflux which decreases the response of postsynaptic neurons to n
eurotransmitter
21. Which of the following drugs causes inhibition of Phosphodiestrase enzyme?
a) Nicotine
b) Theophylline
c) Fantanyl
d) Pentazocine
22. The lethal dose for caffeine is.
10 gm
a) 10mg
b) 60gm
c) 60mg
23. Upto 90% of Nicotine inhaled in smoke is absorbed due to.
a) Low molecular
b) High lipid solubility
c) Increased blood flow to bronchial mucosa
d) All of above
24. Which of the following drugs DOES NOT have potential for addiction?
a) Codeine
b) Meperidine
c) Nalaxone
d) None of above

18-The cyclooxygenase isoenzyme COX-1 and COX-2 differ from each other in that
a. They catalyse different pathways in prostanoid biosynthesis
b. COX-1 is inhibited by aspirin but not COX-2
c. COX-1 is inhibited by ibuprofen but not COX-2
d. COX-1 is constitutive while COX-2 is largely inducible. D
19- Low doses of aspirin`prolong bleeding time by selectively inhibiting synthes
is of the following mediator in platelets
a- Thromboxane A2
b- 5-Hydroxytryptamine
c- Platelet activating factor
d- Prostacyclin
A

20- Aspirin in low dose produces longlasting inhibition of platelet cyclooxygena


se (COX) because
a- Platelets contain low quantity of COX
b- Platelets cannot synthesize fresh COX molecules
c- Platelets bind aspirin with high affinity
d- Platelets COX is inducible B

21-Choose the correct statement about nonopioid analgesics


a. All have good antiinflammatory property
b. All lack dependence producing liability
c. All act exclusively at peripheral pain mechanisms
d. All inhibit leukotriene synthesis
B

22- Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors i


n that way

a- Are anti-inflammatory but not analgesic


b- Donot bring down fever
c- Have no renal effects
d- Do not inhibit platelet aggregation D
23- The NSAIDs aggravate the following diseases except
a- Hypertension
b- Congestive heart failure ` `
c- Peptic ulcer
d- Chronic gout D

24- The following NSAIDs is a preferential COX-2 inhibitor


A Tenoxicam
B Meloxicam
C-Diclofenac Sodium
D. Ketoprofen
B

25- Generally the earliest manifestation of salicylism is


a- Visual disturbance
b- Excitement
c- Hyperventilation
d- Tinnitus D

26- Which of the following is a reserve drug but not a disease modifying drug i
n rheumatoid arthritis
a- Chloroquine
b- Sulfasalazine
c- Prednisolone
d- Methotrexate
C
27- Which of the following is a disease modifying antirheumatic drug whose activ
e metabolite inhibits the enzyme dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase
a- Leflunomide
b- Nimesulide
c- Sulfasalazine
d- Colchicine
A

28-Which of the following is not the TNF inhibitors


A- Anakinra
B-Etanercept
C-Adalimumab
D-Infliximab A

29- Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody directed against the CD20 a
ntigen found on the surface of normal and malignant B lymphocytes, resulting in
B-cell depletion
a- Sulfasalazine
b- Adalimumab
c- Rituximab
d- Abatacept C

30-Which of the following appears to have lower rate of gastric adverse drug rea
ctions
a- Indomethacin
b- Ketoprofen
c- Piroxicam
d- Diclofenac D
31- Which of the following NSAIDs belongs to Hetero-aryl acetic acids
a Ketoprofen
b-Flurbiprofen
c-Tolmetin
d-Indomethacin C

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