Me8071 Refrigeration and Air Conditioning MCQ

Department of Mechanical Engineering MCQ for Regulations 2017
enthalpy curves for LMTD calculations.
ME8071
Refrigeration and
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Air conditioning
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Professional Elective
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- II
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2. Which one of the following zone breaks
Mechanical
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can be correct regarded as valid for
calculations?
Engineering - VII
Semester
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UNIT I INTRODUCTION
TOPIC 1.1 INTRODUCTION TO

a)
.B
REFRIGERATION
1. We divide the temperature/enthalpy

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diagram into a number of zones such that the

curves of both the condensing stream and the
coolant can be regarded as being reasonably
linear.
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a) True
b) False
Answer: a
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Explanation: In the thermal design of

condenser it is impossible to assign a single b)
demanding temperature difference and an
overall heat transfer coefficient to the
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exchanger based on it, and hence we need a

zonal or stepwise calculation of the surface
area which is far more complicated than a HE
because here we are taking linear groups of
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demanding temperature difference and an

overall heat transfer coefficient to the
exchanger based on it, and hence we need a
zonal or stepwise calculation of the surface
area which is the LMTD for each zone.
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4. Which one of the following parameters is
not used while calculating zonal heat transfer
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coefficients for the zones in the diagram?
C
T.
c)
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a) The resistance to heat transfer due to the
tube wall
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b) The resistance due to the film
c) The resistance to heat transfer associated
with the presence of non-condensing gases
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d) The coolant heat transfer coefficient

d)
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: For calculating surface area
Explanation: In a mixed vapour setup, we
.B
requires evaluation of the local heat transfer

need to use a zonal or stepwise calculation of coefficient at the zone boundaries which
the surface area which is far more requires the calculation of –
complicated than a HE because here we are
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taking linear groups of enthalpy curves for 1. The coolant heat transfer coefficient, h
LMTD calculations. 2. The resistance to heat transfer due to
Hence the correct option is the one with all the tube wall, 1/h
the zones having nearly linear curves. 3. The condensate heat transfer coefficient
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associated with heat transfer through a

3. What do we apply at these linear zones of film of condensate on the tube wall, hC
the diagram?
4. The resistance to heat transfer
a) LMTD
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associated with the presence of non-

b) Average Temperature difference
condensing gases or a mixture
c) TSAT – TLIQUID
d) TSAT 5. Fog formation in a condenser can occur
when the temperature of the vapour-gas
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Answer: a mixture _____________ the local saturation

Explanation: In the thermal design of temperature during the condensation process.
condenser it is impossible to assign a single a) Falls below

b) Goes above Answer: b

c) Becomes equal to Explanation: The modern refrigeration
d) Goes considerably high systems use these two sets of equipments –
Answer: a 1. To evaporate a refrigerant liquid in
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Explanation: Fog formation can occur when evaporator to pull in heat
the temperature of the vapour-gas mixture 2. Condense the refrigerant in a condenser
falls largely below the saturation temperature to release that heat
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during the condensation process at that
temperature and pressure. This happens when Hence here the steps 2-4 is Condenser and
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the properties of a vapour-gas mixture and the rest is Evaporator.
process conditions have far more heat than
8. Which process in the refrigeration diagram
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mass removed from the mixture.
is represented as the heat rejection process?
6. Condensers and evaporators together form
a ____________
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a) Heat Exchanger
b) Refrigeration system
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c) Thermocouple
d) Heating System
Answer: b
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Explanation: The modern refrigeration
systems use these two sets of equipments –
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1. To evaporate a refrigerant liquid in

a) 3-4-5-6
evaporator to pull in heat
b) 2-3’-3-4
2. Condense the refrigerant in a condenser
c) 3’-3-4-5
to release that heat
d) 3’-3-4
.B
7. What does the following diagram Answer: b

represent?
Explanation: The process 2-3’-3-4 is the
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cumulative heat rejection process with

2-3’ = Superheated steam cooling
3’-3 = Condensation
3-4 = Cooling of condensate.
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9. What set of process on the refrigeration

cycle corresponds to that of the condenser?
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a) Gas Cycle
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b) Refrigeration cycle
c) Automobile engine cycle
d) 4stroke cycle

6-1 = Entropy increase

1-2 = Superheating of the evaporate.
11. The process 2-3’ is known as the

______________
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a) 3-4-5-6
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b) 2-3’-3
c) 3’-3-4-5
d) 2-3’-3-4
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Answer: d a) Evaporation
Explanation: The process 2-3’-3-4 is the b) De-superheating process
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cumulative heat rejection process of a c) Condensation
condenser with d) Superheating process
3’-3 = Condensation Answer: b
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3-4 = Cooling of condensate. Explanation: The process 2-3’-3-4 is the
cumulative heat rejection process of a
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10. What set of process on the refrigeration condenser with

cycle corresponds to that of the evaporator? 2-3’ = Superheated steam cooling
3-4 = Cooling of condensate.
.B
12. Which one of the following pathway

represents the condensation process of the
refrigerant in a refrigeration cycle?
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a) 5-6-1-2
b) 2-3’-3
c) 3’-3-4-5
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d) 2-3’-3-4
Answer: a
Explanation: The process 5-6-1-2 is the a) 2-3’
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cumulative heat absorption process of an b) 3-4

evaporator with c) 3′-3
5-6 = Evaporation d) 1-2

Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: The process 2-3’-3-4 is the Explanation: We use air-cooled condenser
cumulative heat rejection process of a for small self-contained units and water-
condenser with cooled condenser for large installations.
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3’-3 = Condensation 2. For an expansion device, which of the
3-4 = Cooling of condensate. following is true?
a) it increases the pressure of refrigerant
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13. What is the name of the process occurring b) it regulates the flow of refrigerant to
represented by the line 3-4 in the given evaporator
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refrigeration cycle? c) both of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
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Answer: b
Explanation: The expansion device reduces
the pressure of refrigerant.
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3. Which of the following is a type of
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expansion device?
a) capillary tubes
b) throttle valves
c) both of the mentioned
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a) Sensible, heating process
b) Sensible, sub cooling process Answer: c
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c) Entropy increase step Explanation: These are the two types of

d) Condensation expansion devices.
Answer: b 4. Throttle valves are used in ____
Explanation: The process 2-3’-3-4 is the a) small units
.B
cumulative heat rejection process of a b) larger units

condenser with c) both of the mentioned
2-3’ = Superheated steam cooling d) none of the mentioned
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3-4 = Cooling of condensate,sensible sub Answer: b
cooling process. Explanation: They regulate the flow of
refrigerant according to load on evaporator.
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TOPIC 1.2 UNIT OF

5. Capillary tubes are used in ____
REFRIGERATION AND C.O.P. a) small units
b) larger units
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1. Which of the following statement is true c) both of the mentioned

for a condenser? d) none of the mentioned
a) it can be air-cooled or water-cooled
b) small self-contained units use water-cooled Answer: a
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condenser Explanation: In their case, id size and length

c) large installations use air-cooled condenser are fixed, the evaporator pressure also gets
d) all of the mentioned fixed.

6. Types of compressor include b) 1 – C – C(p2/p1)^(1/n)

a) reciprocating c) 1 – C + C(p2/p1)^(1/n)
b) centrifugal d) 1 + C – C(p2/p1)^(1/n)
c) rotary
d) all of the mentioned Answer: d
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Explanation: Here C is the clearance and
Answer: d p1,p2 are pressures.
Explanation: These are the three types of
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compressor. 11. Plate evaporator is a common type of
evaporator.
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7. When volume flow rate of refrigerant is a) true
large, which compressor is used? b) false
T.
a) reciprocating
b) centrifugal Answer: a
c) rotary Explanation: In a plate evaporator, a coil is
d) all of the mentioned brazed on to a plate.
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Answer: b 12. Why is multistage compression with
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Explanation: For plants with higher intercooling adopted?
capacities, centrifugal compressors are used. a) using a single stage with high pressure
ratio decreases volumetric efficiency
8. Which of the following statement is true? b) high pressure ratio with dry compression
a) rotary compressors are mostly used for gives high compressor discharge temperature
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small units c) the refrigerant is damaged
b) reciprocating compressors are employed in d) all of the mentioned
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plants with capacity up to 100 tonnes

c) both of the mentioned Answer: d
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: Because of these reasons we
have to use multistage compression with
Answer: c intercooling.
.B
Explanation: This is the difference in

reciprocating and rotary compressors. 13. The intercooler pressure is given by
a) p1*p2
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9. In reciprocating compressors, actual b) sqrt(p1*p2)

volume of gas drawn in cylinder is ____ the c) (p1*p2)/(p1+p2)
volume displaced by piston. d) (p1+p2)/2
a) less than
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b) more than Answer: b

c) equal to Explanation: Here p1 is the evaporator
d) none of the mentioned pressure and p2 is the condenser pressure.
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Answer: a 14. The most widely used refrigerants are

Explanation: The reason being, leakage, a) freon
clearance and throttling effects. b) genetron
c) arcton
C
10. The clearance volumetric efficiency is d) all of the mentioned

equal to
a) 1 + C + C(p2/p1)^(1/n) Answer: d
Explanation: These are a group of

halogenated hydrocarbons. and correct, in natural convection types in

which there are no turbines or fans to support
15. Why is ammonia used in food the heat transfer process, the heat transfer
refrigeration? from the condenser is thus considerably done
a) high COP by buoyancy induced natural convection and
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b) low cost radiation.
c) lower energy cost
d) all of the mentioned 3. The fin spacing is usually preferred to be
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___________ to minimize the fouling effect
Answer: d by dust and to allow free flow of air with little
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Explanation: Also ammonia can be detected resistance.
easily in case of a leak. a) Large
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b) Small
TOPIC 1.3 IDEAL CYCLES- c) Very small
d) Joint
REFRIGERANTS DESIRABLE
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PROPERTIES - Answer: a
CLASSIFICATION - Explanation: The lesser the fin spacing, the
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NOMENCLATURE - ODP & less is the turbulence and fouling as here the
gases strike less frequently.
GWP.
4. The surface area of natural convection type
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1. Based on the external fluid/cooling condensers is _____________ the forced
medium, condensers can be divided into three convection ones for same capacity.
parts. Which one of the following is not one a) Less than
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of them? b) More than

a) Air cooled condensers c) Equal to
b) Water cooled condensers d) Very much less than
c) Evaporative condensers
.B
d) Sub-cooled liquid condensers Answer: b

Explanation: Forced convection condensers
Answer: d have agitators that keep renewing the surface
Explanation: There are specifically three and the condensation process occurs really
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types of cooling systems that are either in fast. But in the case of the natural convection
single phase or multiple phases, they are – ones, they do not have this privilege and
compensate by having a larger area.
Air cooled condensers
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Water cooled condensers 5. In traditional Refrigerators in home

Evaporative condensers. appliances, what is the type of condenser
used?
2. In natural convection type, heat transfer
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a) Natural convection type

from the condenser is by buoyancy induced b) Forced convection type
natural convection and radiation. c) Furnace Type
a) True d) Rotary condensers
b) False
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Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The refrigeration systems do
Explanation: Yes, the given statement is true not have fans rather they have long coils

behind their main body to lose the ii. Shell-and-coil type condensers
condensation heat. iii. Shell-and-tube type condensers
6. In traditional Air conditioners in home 9. In the double pipe setup of the condenser,
appliances, what is the type of condenser the refrigerant flows in the ___________
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used? a) Shell
a) Natural convection type b) Annulus
b) Forced convection type c) Inner Tube
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c) Flash Type d) Jacket
d) Rotary condensers
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Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: The refrigerant having lesser
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Explanation: The compressor unit of the air pressure drop is always considered to be kept
conditioners available for domestic use have a at the annulus side of the double pipe setup
fan to support/ fasten the cooling of the and in the tube side of as Shell-and-tube type
wires/coils undergoing condensation, hence setup.
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they have forced convection type Condensers.
10. Shell and coil type condensers have a
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7. Which type of fins are the most commonly capacity at around ________
used fin type in condensers? a) 10 TR
a) Annular fin b) 20 TR
b) Plate type fins c) 30 TR
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c) Tube fin d) 50 TR
d) Extended double pipe
Answer: d
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Answer: b Explanation: Shell-and-coil type condensers

Explanation: The most commonly used fin owing to its coil setup with large area and
system is the plate fin system because it better pressure drop handling ability, has a
provides mechanical support to the tubes as very large cooling capacity if used in a
.B
well as provide considerable hike in heat refrigeration system, hence the maximum of
transfer area. all the options is correct.
8. Water cooled condensers can be classified 11. Double pipe water cooling condensers
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to three more categories, which one of the have a capacity at around ________
following is incorrect? a) 10 TR
a) Double pipe b) 20 TR
b) Plate type c) 30 TR
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c) Shell-and-tube type d) 50 TR
d) Shell-and-coil type
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Double pipe water cooling
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Explanation: In water cooled condensers condensers owing to its tube-in-tube setup

water is the external fluid. Considering the with small area and good pressure drop
type of handling ability, does not have a very large
construction of the setup, water cooled cooling capacity if used in a refrigeration
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condensers can be classified as: system, hence the minimum of all the options
i. Double pipe condensers is correct.

12. In the double pipe setup of the water-type a) it increases the pressure of refrigerant
condenser, the cold water flows in the b) it regulates the flow of refrigerant to
___________ evaporator
a) Shell c) both of the mentioned
b) Annulus d) none of the mentioned
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c) Inner Tube
d) Jacket Answer: b
Explanation: The expansion device reduces
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Answer: c the pressure of refrigerant.
Explanation: The refrigerant having lesser
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pressure drop is always considered to be kept 3. Which of the following is a type of
at the annulus side of the double pipe setup expansion device?
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and hence the cooling water in the inner tube a) capillary tubes
as it faces larger pressure drops. b) throttle valves
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Answer: c
UNIT II VAPOUR
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Explanation: These are the two types of
expansion devices.
COMPRESSION
REFRIGERATION 4. Throttle valves are used in ____
a) small units
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SYSTEM b) larger units
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TOPIC 2.1 VAPOR
COMPRESSION CYCLE : P-H Answer: b
AND T-S DIAGRAMS - Explanation: They regulate the flow of
refrigerant according to load on evaporator.
.B
DEVIATIONS FROM
THEORETICAL CYCLE 5. Capillary tubes are used in ____
a) small units
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1. Which of the following statement is true b) larger units

for a condenser? c) both of the mentioned
a) it can be air-cooled or water-cooled d) none of the mentioned
b) small self-contained units use water-cooled
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condenser Answer: a
c) large installations use air-cooled condenser Explanation: In their case, id size and length
d) all of the mentioned are fixed, the evaporator pressure also gets
fixed.
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Answer: a
Explanation: We use air-cooled condenser 6. Types of compressor include
for small self-contained units and water- a) reciprocating
cooled condenser for large installations. b) centrifugal
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c) rotary
2. For an expansion device, which of the d) all of the mentioned
following is true?

Answer: d p1,p2 are pressures.

Explanation: These are the three types of
compressor. 11. Plate evaporator is a common type of
evaporator.
7. When volume flow rate of refrigerant is a) true
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large, which compressor is used? b) false
a) reciprocating
b) centrifugal Answer: a
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c) rotary Explanation: In a plate evaporator, a coil is
d) all of the mentioned brazed on to a plate.
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Answer: b 12. Why is multistage compression with
intercooling adopted?
T.
Explanation: For plants with higher
capacities, centrifugal compressors are used. a) using a single stage with high pressure
ratio decreases volumetric efficiency
8. Which of the following statement is true? b) high pressure ratio with dry compression
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a) rotary compressors are mostly used for gives high compressor discharge temperature
small units c) the refrigerant is damaged
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b) reciprocating compressors are employed in d) all of the mentioned
plants with capacity up to 100 tonnes
c) both of the mentioned Answer: d
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: Because of these reasons we
have to use multistage compression with
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Answer: c intercooling.
Explanation: This is the difference in
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reciprocating and rotary compressors. 13. The intercooler pressure is given by

a) p1*p2
9. In reciprocating compressors, actual b) sqrt(p1*p2)
volume of gas drawn in cylinder is ____ the c) (p1*p2)/(p1+p2)
volume displaced by piston. d) (p1+p2)/2
.B
a) less than
b) more than Answer: b
c) equal to Explanation: Here p1 is the evaporator
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d) none of the mentioned pressure and p2 is the condenser pressure.
Answer: a 14. The most widely used refrigerants are

Explanation: The reason being, leakage, a) freon
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clearance and throttling effects. b) genetron

c) arcton
10. The clearance volumetric efficiency is d) all of the mentioned
equal to
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a) 1 + C + C(p2/p1)^(1/n) Answer: d
b) 1 – C – C(p2/p1)^(1/n) Explanation: These are a group of
c) 1 – C + C(p2/p1)^(1/n) halogenated hydrocarbons.
d) 1 + C – C(p2/p1)^(1/n)
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15. Why is ammonia used in food

Answer: d refrigeration?
Explanation: Here C is the clearance and a) high COP
b) low cost

c) lower energy cost c) both pressure and temperature

d) all of the mentioned d) pressure or temperature
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Also ammonia can be detected Explanation: If one of the quantity is given,
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easily in case of a leak. then other gets fixed.
5. Saturated liquid or the saturated vapour has
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TOPIC 2.2 SUBCOOLING AND how many independent variables?
SUPER HEATING a) one
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b) two
1. The properties of water are arranged in the c) three
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steam tables as functions of d) none of the mentioned
a) pressure
b) temperature Answer: a
c) pressure and temperature Explanation: Only one property is required
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d) none of the mentioned to be known to fix up the state.
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Answer: c 6. If data are required for intermediate
Explanation: The properties of water are temperatures or pressures, linear interpolation
arranged in steam tables as functions of both is normally accurate.
pressure and temperature. a) true
b) false
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2. The internal energy of saturated water at
the triple point is Answer: a
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a) 1 Explanation: To reduce the amount of

b) 0 interpolation required, two tables are
c) -1 provided.
d) infinity
7. For a liquid-vapour mixture, which of the
.B
Answer: b following can give us all the properties of the

Explanation: This value is arbitrarily chosen. mixture?
a) p or t and the quality of the mixture are
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3. The entropy of saturated water is chosen to given

be zero at triple point. b) p or t and any one of the property is given
a) true c) both of the mentioned
b) false d) none of the mentioned
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Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: This is arbitrarily chosen and Explanation: In first case, properties can be
form the basic assumptions for steam tables. directly evaluated and in second case we can
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find the quality first and then evaluate all

4. When a liquid and its vapour are in other properties.
equilibrium at a certain pressure and
temperature, then which of the following is 8. When does a vapour become superheated?
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required to identify the saturation state. a) when the temperature of vapour is less than
a) pressure the saturation temperature at given pressure
b) temperature b) when the temperature of vapour is more

than the saturation temperature at given properties are taken from the saturation tables
pressure at the temperature of the compressed liquid.
c) when the temperature of vapour is equal to
the saturation temperature at given pressure 12. Which of the following statement is true?
d) none of the mentioned a) a subcooled liquid is one which is cooled
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below its saturation temperature at a certain
Answer: b pressure
Explanation: For a superheated vapour, b) subcooling is the difference between the
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temperature of vapour must be greater than saturation temperature and the actual liquid
the saturation temperature. temperature
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9. The superheat or degree of superheat is d) none of the mentioned
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given by
a) difference between the temperature of Answer: c
saturated liquid and saturation temperature Explanation: This is what a subcooled liquid
b) difference between the temperature of means.
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superheated vapour and saturation
temperature
TOPIC 2.3 EFFECTS OF
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c) sum of the temperature of superheated
vapour and saturation temperature CONDENSER AND
d) none of the mentioned EVAPORATOR PRESSURE ON
COP-MULTIPRESSURE
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Answer: b
Explanation: Superheat= T1(temperature of
SYSTEM
superheated vapour) – T(saturated).
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1. What is the purpose of using a condenser?

10. When the temperature of a liquid is less a) To absorb heat
than the saturation temperature at the given b) To reject heat
pressure, the liquid is called compressed c) To convert liquid refrigerant to vapor
.B
liquid. refrigerant
a) true d) To convert solid refrigerant to vapor
b) false refrigerant
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Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: For a compressed liquid, Explanation: Condenser is used to convert
temperature of liquid must be less than the vapor refrigerant discharging from the
saturation temperature. compressor into liquid refrigerant by rejecting
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or removing heat and attaining the saturated

11. The properties of liquid _____ with liquid line for the refrigerant.
pressure.
a) do not vary 2. Which of the following is not the criterion
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b) vary largely for the selection of the condenser?

c) vary little a) The capacity of the condenser
d) none of the mentioned b) Type of refrigerant used
c) Type of cooling medium available
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Answer: c d) Type of compressor and evaporator used

Explanation: This is the reason why

Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: For the selection of the Explanation: Heat rejection factor is the load
condenser, there is no effect of the type of on the condenser per unit refrigeration
compressor and evaporator used in the capacity. So, it can be represented as,
system. The capacity, type of refrigerant used, HRF = QC / RE, Where, QC = Load on the
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and type of cooling medium available play a condenser & RE = Refrigeration capacity
crucial role in the selection.
And as we know, the load on the condenser,
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3. What is the expression for the load on the i.e., QC is the summation of refrigeration
condenser? capacity and work done by the compressor.
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a) QC = RE + W QC = RE + W
b) QC = RE – W Hence, HRF = QC / RE = RE + W / RE = 1 +
T.
c) QC = RE x W W / RE = 1 + 1 / C.O.P. (as C.O.P. = RE / W).
d) QC = RE / W
6. Which of the following does not affect the
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refrigeration capacity of the condenser?
Answer: a
a) Material
Explanation: The load on the condenser, i.e.,
b) Amount of contact
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QC is the summation of refrigeration capacity
c) Temperature difference
and work done by the compressor. Hence, it is d) Type of refrigerant
given by
QC = RE + W Answer: d
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Where, QC = Load on the condenser, RE = Explanation: Condenser capacity is not
Refrigeration capacity & W = Work done by affected by the type of refrigerant. Material is
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the compressor. affected due to the ability of different material

to reject heat differs and affect the capacity.
4. What is the expression for the heat By varying the amount of contact, rate of
rejection factor? flow of condensing medium is varied and
a) HRF = W / RE hence affects the capacity. Heat transfer of
.B
b) HRF = RE / W condenser depends upon the temperature

difference between condensing medium and
c) HRF = QC / RE
vapour refrigerant and affects the heat
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d) HRF = RE / QC transfer rate. So, the type of refrigerant used

has nothing to do with the condenser capacity.
Answer: c
Explanation: Heat rejection factor is the load 7. Materials form deposits inside the
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on the condenser per unit refrigeration condenser water tubes is called _______
capacity. So, it can be represented as, a) water rusting
HRF = QC / RE, Where, QC = Load on the b) water corrosion
condenser & RE = Refrigeration capacity. c) water fouling
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d) water failing
5. What is the expression for the heat
rejection factor in terms of C.O.P.? Answer: c
a) 1 + C.O.P. Explanation: The water contains a certain
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b) 1 – C.O.P. amount of minerals and foreign materials

when used in water-cooled condensers. These
c) 1 – 1 / C.O.P.
minerals depend upon the source. These
d) 1 + 1 / C.O.P.

materials start to form deposit inside the Answer: a

condenser water tubes is called water fouling. Explanation: As the name suggests, the air-
cooled condenser is the one in which the
8. Which of the following is not the effect of removal of heat is carried out by air. As the
water fouling? construction of this type of condenser is very
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a) Increase in heat transfer rate simple, just tubing and different type of fins;
b) Tube insulation hence, the initial cost is less, and even
c) Reduction in heat transfer rate
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maintenance cost is less.
d) Restrict water flow
TOPIC 2.4 LOW
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Answer: a
Explanation: The water contains a certain TEMPERATURE
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amount of minerals and foreign materials REFRIGERATION - CASCADE
when used in water-cooled condensers. These SYSTEMS - PROBLEMS
materials start to form deposits inside the
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condenser water tubes is called water fouling. 1. Why is the cascade system used?
These deposits insulate the tube, reduce the a) To attain low C.O.P.
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heat transfer rate, and restrict the water flow b) To decrease the refrigeration effect
but do not increase the heat transfer rate at c) To produce low temperatures
any condition. d) To increase leakage loss
Answer: c
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9. What is the fouling factor?
a) Heat transfer coefficient Explanation: If the vapor compression
b) 1 / Heat transfer coefficient system is to be used for the production of
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temperatures, the common choice to stage

c) √H eat transf er coef f icient
type compression is a cascade system.
d) 1 / (Heat transfer coefficient)2
2. What is Cryogenics?
Answer: b a) C.O.P. reduction
.B
Explanation: The water contains a certain b) Low-temperature refrigeration

amount of minerals and foreign materials c) Work enhancement
when used in water-cooled condensers. These d) High-temperature refrigeration
17

materials start to form deposit inside the Answer: b
condenser water tubes is called water fouling. Explanation: Cryogenics means low-
These deposits insulate the tube, reduce the temperature refrigeration. It is applied to very
-R
heat transfer rate, and restrict the water flow low-temperature refrigeration applications.
but do not increase the heat transfer rate at This word is derived Greek word Cryos
any condition. So, the fouling factor is the meaning cold or frost.
reciprocal of the heat transfer coefficient for
SE
the material of scale. Ex: For copper tubes 3. What is the principal advantage of the
and R – 12 its is valued at 0.000095 m2 s K/J. cascade system?
a) Increase of work done
10. The initial cost of the air-cooled b) Decrease the refrigeration effect
C
condenser is high. c) Use of only one refrigerant

a) False d) Use of multiple refrigerants
b) True

Answer: d to this smaller compressor displacement is

Explanation: Multiple refrigerants can be ensured. So, smaller displacement decreases
used in this type of system. It helps to attain overall work and increases the C.O.P. of the
lower temperatures, and the refrigeration system.
effect can be enormously increased.
M
7. Which intermediate refrigerants were used
4. How is a cascade system structured? for the first time in the cascade system?
a) VCR system in parallel combination a) CO2 and CO
O
b) VCR system is not used b) CO and SO2
c) VCR system in a series combination
c) NH3 and CO2
C
d) VAR system is used
d) CO2 and SO2
T.
Answer: c
Explanation: The cascade refrigeration Answer: d
system is structured by connecting two or Explanation: Firstly, the cascade system was
more vapor compression refrigeration used by Pietet in 1877. Cascade system was
O
systems in series which use different used for the liquefaction of oxygen using the
refrigerants. Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and Carbon dioxide
SP
(CO2) as intermediate refrigerants.
5. Low-temperature cascade system use
refrigerants with ______ boiling temperature 8. The difference between low-temperature
and high temperature cascade system use cascade condenser temperature and high-
G
refrigerants with _________ boiling temperature cascade evaporator temperature
temperature. is called temperature ______
a) low, high a) subtraction
LO
b) high, low b) overview

c) low, low c) overlap
d) high, high d) gradient
.B
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The high-temperature cascade Explanation: Temperature overlap is the
system uses a refrigerant with high boiling difference between low-temperature cascade
temperatures such as R-12 or R-22. The low-
17
condenser temperature and high-temperature

temperature cascade system uses a refrigerant cascade evaporator temperature. Temperature
with low boiling temperatures such as R-13 overlap is a crucial phenomenon to attain
or R-13 BI. This is used to achieve a higher higher C.O.P. because it shows the heat
coefficient of performance by increasing the
-R
transfer in the system.

refrigeration effect.
9. What is Intermediate temperature?
6. What does low boiling refrigerants ensure? a) Temperature overlap is zero
SE
a) Lower C.O.P. b) Temperature overlap is infinity

b) Higher C.O.P. c) The temperature of the low-temperature
c) Lower pressure cascade system
d) Larger compressor displacement d) The temperature of the high-temperature
C
cascade system
Answer: b
Explanation: Low boiling temperature Answer: a
refrigerant has extremely high pressure. Due Explanation: Intermediate temperature is

achieved when the temperature overlap is 4. In centrifugal compressor velocity of flow

zero i.e., the difference between low- leaving the impeller is equals to _______ in
temperature cascade condenser temperature many cases.
and high-temperature cascade evaporator a) Speed of sound
temperature is zero. Intermediate temperature b) Double the speed of sound
M
indicates that both temperatures are equal. c) Triple the speed of sound
Intermediate temperature affects the heat d) None of the mentioned
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transfer in the system.
Answer: a
Explanation: Initially the flow enters
TOPIC 2.5 EQUIPMENTS: TYPE
C
straightly into the impeller and the impeller
OF COMPRESSORS pushes the flow inwards to spin faster and
T.
finally when the flow is leaving impeller it
1. Centrifugal compressors are also known as has almost speed of sound.
____________
5. ________ are used as stationary
O
a) turbo compressors
b) radial compressors compressors in steam turbines.
c) turbo & radial compressors a) Moving vanes
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d) none of the mentioned b) Guide vanes
c) Moving & Guide vanes
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Centrifugal compressors
G
sometimes called as radial compressors. Answer: b
Explanation: Guide vanes are used as
2. In idealized turbo machinery, pressure rise stationary compressors where guide vanes
LO
is done by adding _______ reduce the velocity and according to

a) Temperature Bernoulli’s theorem when velocity is reduced
b) Mass its pressure is increased.
c) Kinetic energy
.B
d) None of the mentioned 6. ________________ has large change in

inlet to exit radius when compared to
Answer: c centrifugal compressors.
Explanation: In idealized turbo machinery a) Axial compressors
17
the pressure rise is done by adding kinetic b) Axial & Centrifugal compressors
energy. c) Centrifugal compressors
d) None of the mentioned
3. The pressure rise in impeller is _________
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the rise in diffuser. Answer: c

a) equal to Explanation: Centrifugal compressors has
b) greater than large change in inlet to exit temperature when
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c) equal to or greater than compared to axial compressor.

7. The first part in both centrifugal
Answer: d compressor and axial compressor are similar.
Explanation: Not in all cases pressure rise in a) True
C
diffuser equals to pressure rise in impeller in b) False

some cases pressure rise in impeller will be
more than that of diffuser.

Answer: a a) condenser device

Explanation: The first in both centrifugal b) evaporator device
compressor and axial compressor are similar. c) receiver device
d) expansion device
8. Centrifugal compressor __________ the
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energy by increasing the radius where as Answer: d
centrifugal fan decreases the energy. Explanation: The expansion device is an
a) increases important device that divides the high
O
b) decreases pressure side and the low pressure side of a
c) both follow the same refrigerating system. It is also known as
C
d) none of the mentioned metering device or throttling device.
T.
Answer: b 2. Which of the following function is not
Explanation: Both centrifugal compressor performed by the expansion device?
and centrifugal fan are similar as both a) It reduces the high pressure liquid
increases the energy by reducing the radius. refrigerant to low pressure liquid refrigerant
O
b) It maintains the desired pressure difference
9. Centrifugal compressors increases the between the high and low pressure sides of
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density of fluid more than ________ the system
a) 1% c) It controls the flow of refrigerant according
b) 3% to the load on the evaporator
c) 5% d) It compresses the vapor
G
d) 7%
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: The expansion device performs
LO
Explanation: Centrifugal compressors the following functions, it reduces the high

increases the density of fluid more than 5 %. pressure liquid refrigerant to low pressure
liquid refrigerant, it maintains the desired
10. Centrifugal fan has relative fluid pressure difference between the high and low
velocities ______
.B
pressure sides of the system and It controls

a) Mach number more than 0.3 the flow of refrigerant according to the load
b) Mach number less than 0.1 on the evaporator.
c) Mach number less than 0.3
17
d) Mach number more than 0.5 3. The expansion device used with flooded
evaporators is known as expansion valves.
Answer: c a) True
Explanation: Centrifugal fans often operate b) False
-R
at fluid velocities less than mach number 0.3.

Answer: b
TOPIC 2.6 CONDENSERS, Explanation: The expansion device used
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with flooded evaporators is known as float

EXPANSION DEVICES, valves and the expansion device used with
EVAPORATORS. dry expansion evaporators are called
expansion valves.
1. The device which divides the high pressure
C
side and the low pressure side of a 4. The expansion device is placed between
refrigerating system is known as which two components?
_____________ a) Condenser and evaporator

b) Compressor and condenser Answer: d

c) Evaporator and compressor Explanation: Thermostatic expansion valve
d) Receiver and evaporator is also called a constant superheat valve
because it maintains a constant superheat of
Answer: d the vapor refrigerant at the end of the
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Explanation: The expansion device is placed evaporator coil, by controlling the flow of
between receiver (containing liquid liquid refrigerant through the evaporator.
refrigerant at high pressure) and evaporator
O
(containing liquid refrigerant at low pressure). 8. Thermostatic expansion valves are usually
set for a superheat of?
C
5. Which of the following is not an advantage a) 10°C
of capillary tube? b) 5°C
T.
a) The cost of capillary tube is less c) 8°C
b) A high starting motor is not required d) 15°C
c) No receiver is needed
d) A capillary tube designed for a specific Answer: b
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condition will also work efficiently for other Explanation: Thermostatic expansion valves
conditions are usually set for a superheat of 5°C for
SP
better efficiency of the refrigeration cycle.
Answer: d
Explanation: A capillary tube designed for a 9. The low-side float valve is located between
specific condition will not work efficiently the condenser and evaporator.
G
for other conditions as the length is directly a) True
and inner diameter is indirectly proportional b) False
to the frictional resistance. The longer the
LO
tube and smaller the diameter, greater is the Answer: b

pressure drop created in the refrigerant flow. Explanation: The low-side float valve is
located in the low pressure side i.e. between
6. Capillary tube, as an expansion device is the evaporator and the compressor suction
.B
used in? line. Whereas the high side float valve is

a) Water coolers located in the high pressure side i.e. between
b) Domestic refrigerators the condenser and evaporator.
c) Room air conditioners
17
d) All of the mentioned 10. The thermostatic expansion valve

operates on the changes in the ___________
Answer: d a) degree of superheat at exit from the
Explanation: The capillary tube as an evaporator
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expansion device is used in small capacity b) temperature of the evaporator

hermetic sealed refrigeration units such as in c) pressure in the condenser
water coolers, domestic refrigerators and d) pressure in the evaporator
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room air conditioners, etc.

Answer: a
7. Which one of the following is also known Explanation: The thermostatic expansion
as a constant superheat valve? valve operates on the changes in the degree of
a) Capillary tube superheat at exit from the evaporator.
C
b) Hand-operated expansion valve Thermostatic expansion valves are usually set

c) Thermostatic Expansion valve for a superheat of 5° C for better efficiency of
d) Low side float valve the refrigeration cycle.

refrigeration cycle.
4. Which of the following statement is true?

UNIT III OTHER a) ammonia vapour is absorbed in water
b) boiling point of ammonia is more than that
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REFRIGERATION of water
SYSTEMS c) both of the mentioned
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TOPIC 3.1 WORKING Answer: a
C
PRINCIPLES OF VAPOUR Explanation: The boiling point of ammonia
ABSORPTION SYSTEMS AND is less than that of water.
T.
ADSORPTION COOLING 5. why is an analyser-rectifier combination is
SYSTEMS used in absorption refrigeration cycle?
a) to increase the amount of water vapour in
O
1. In absorption refrigeration cycle, which of ammonia vapour
the following is used? b) to decrease the amount of water vapour in
SP
a) refrigerant ammonia vapour
b) absorbent c) to eliminate the water vapour from
c) both of the mentioned ammonia vapour
d) none of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned
G
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: Both refrigerant and absorbent Explanation: This is done to prevent the
LO
are used in absorption refrigeration cycle. blocking of expansion valve because of

frozen ice.
2. In absorption system, compressor in vapour
compression cycle is replaced by absorber- 6. Which of the following condenses first?
a) ammonia vapour
.B
generator assembly.
a) true b) water vapour
b) false c) both condense at same temperature
17
Answer: a
Explanation: The absorber-generator Answer: b
assembly involves less mechanical work. Explanation: The saturation temperature of
water is higher than ammonia at any given
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3. In the aqua-ammonia absorption system, pressure.

a) water is the refrigerant and ammonia is the
absorbent 7. The vapour going to condenser is ____ in
temperature and ____ in ammonia.
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b) ammonia is the refrigerant and water is the

absorbent a) higher, less
c) both ammonia and water can be used as b) higher, richer
refrigerant or absorbent c) lower, less
d) none of the mentioned d) lower, richer
C
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: This is the basic absorption Explanation: When passing through analyser,

the vapour is cooled and enriched by d) Cooling of hot water by mixing it with tap
ammonia. water
8. Lithium bromide-water vapour is another Answer: b

absorption refrigeration system. Explanation: Refrigeration is the process of
M
a) true cooling the body with the help of evaporation
b) false during the contact with the other external
surface, hence when Ice mixes with water, the
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Answer: a water in pot will suddenly drop its
Explanation: In this, water is the refrigerant temperature whereas the Ice will be converted
C
and solution of lithium bromide in water is liquid and evaporate (invisibly).
the absorbent.
T.
2. What is the main disadvantage of natural
9. Water is used as a ____ in air conditioning refrigeration methods?
units. a) They are expensive
a) absorbent b) They are poisonous
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b) refrigerant c) They are not environment friendly
c) absorbent and refrigerant d) They are dependent on local conditions
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Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: Natural Refrigeration process is
Explanation: The reason is that water cannot dependent on the local conditions like
be cooled below 0 degree Celsius.
G
temperature of surrounding, pressure at which
it occurs, and volume of the refrigerant etc.
10. The COP of absorption refrigeration hence it cannot be predicted exactly.
LO
system is
a) low 3. For what condition, evaporative cooling
b) high system is ideal?
c) equal to that of vapour compression a) Hot and Dry
refrigeration system
.B
b) Hot and Humid

d) none of the mentioned c) Cold and Humid
d) Moderate Hot but Humid
Answer: a
17
Explanation: The Cop of absorption Answer: a

refrigeration system is low. Explanation: As the humidity increases, it
becomes difficult to produce refrigeration
TOPIC 3.2 STEAM JET effect as there increases the need to set up a
-R
de-humidifier too.
REFRIGERATION
4. Compared to natural refrigeration methods,
1. Which of the following can be called as a artificial refrigeration methods are________
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refrigeration process? a) dis-continuous

a) Cooling of hot ingot from 1000 C to room b) not reliable
temperature c) continuous
b) Cooling of a pot of water by mixing it with d) environment friendly
C
a large block of ice

c) Cooling in rooms using a ceiling fan Answer: c
Explanation: As artificial refrigeration uses

various refrigerants like R-12,R-14,R-150 etc. 8. In a triple fluid vapour absorption

along with CFC it becomes harmful for refrigeration system, why is the hydrogen gas
environment, but it produces a constant used?
cooling whenever required. a) Improve system performance
b) Reduce the partial pressure of vapour in
M
5. What is the main function of an expansion the evaporator
valve? c) Calculate the refrigerant
a) Reduce the refrigerant pressure
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d) Provide the vapour seal
b) Maintain high and low side pressures
c) Protect evaporator Answer: b
C
d) Control the velocity of flow of refrigerants Explanation: Hydrogen gas is lighter and less
dense than many of the gases. Hence it is
T.
Answer: b used to reduce the partial pressure in the
Explanation: Expansion valve mainly vapour in the evaporator.
increases or decreases the flow of
refrigerants, which directly affects the 9. Why low temperature refrigeration is
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increase and decrease in the pressures. produced in an air standard refrigeration
system?
SP
6. In a domestic icebox type refrigerator, the a) Evaporation of liquid air
ice block is kept at the top because b) Throttling of air
__________ c) Expansion of air in turbine
a) it is easy for the user to operate d) Condensing of air
G
b) disposal of water is easier
c) hot air can be easily removed from the top Answer: c
d) cold air can flow down due to buoyancy Explanation: Due to expansion of air in
LO
effect turbines, the pressure in the air decreases and

the loss of pressure results in the fall of
Answer: d temperature. Hence low temperature is
Explanation: Buoyancy effect acts similar to obtained in air standard refrigeration system.
.B
the gravitational force that occurs on the

surface outside, hence the more dense cold air 10. The required input to the steam jet
comes to the bottom and the hot air goes at refrigeration systems is in the form of?
the top, but there is no chance of hot air in the a) Mechanical energy
17
refrigerator. b) Thermal energy

c) High pressure, motive steam
7. Why are vapour absorption system better d) Both mechanical and thermal
than compression system?
-R
a) Uses low grade thermal energy Answer: c

b) Uses no energy Explanation: For a Steam jet refrigeration,
c) Uses refined petroleum energy to produce the velocity at input is an important part to
SE
least pollution produce the Jet effect. Hence the input

d) Uses high grade thermal energy pressure must be high enough as possible.
Answer: a
Explanation: It uses low grade of thermal TOPIC 3.3 EJECTOR
C
energy, hence it can easily be operated for REFRIGERATION SYSTEMS

greater output, and economically.

1. What is the By-pass factor for heating coil, number of rows. i.e. (y)n
if td1 = 19°C, td2 = 25°C and td3 = 37°C? So, (1)3872 = 1, for any value of n, the value
a) 0.75 comes one only.
b) 0.4
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c) 0.7 4. If the value of BPF for one row of the coil
d) 0.1 is 0.4, then what is the value of BPF for 12
similar rows?
O
Answer: c a) 0.00000167
Explanation: By-pass factor is the amount of b) 0.0000167
air by-passed in the process. So, for heating c) 0.00167
C
coil, d) 0.000167
BPF = Temperature difference between coil
T.
and exit / Temperature difference between Answer: b
coil and entry Explanation: BPF for multiple similar rows
= td3 – td2 / td3 – td1 of the coil is the power of one BPF to the
O
= 37 – 25 / 37 – 19 number of rows. i.e. (y)n
= 0.70588 = 0.7. So, (0.4)12 = 0.0000167.
SP
2. What is the By-pass factor for cooling coil, 5. What is the value of sensible heat given out
if td1 = 49°C, td2 = 36°C and td3 = 30°C?
by the coil, if U = 198 W/m2 K, Ac = 11 m2
a) 0.315
and tm = 0°C?
b) 0.31
G
c) 0.320 a) 1
d) 0.3 b) 0
LO
c) 594594
Answer: a d) 543636
Explanation: By-pass factor is the amount of
air by-passed in the process. So, for the Answer: b
cooling coil, Explanation: Sensible heat given out by the
.B
BPF = Temperature difference between exit coil is the product of the overall heat transfer
and coil / Temperature difference between coefficient, the surface area of the coil, and
entry and coil logarithmic mean temperature difference.
17
= td2 – td3 / td1 – td3 So, Sensible heat = U Ac tm = 198 x 11 x

= 36 – 30 / 49 – 30 (273 + 0) = 594594.
= 0.315.
6. What is the value of BPF, if U = 1.9 W/m2
-R
3. If the value of BPF for one row of the coil K, Ac = 1.1 m2 and ma = 0.97 kg?
is one, then what is the value of BPF for 3872
a) 0.14
similar rows? b) 0.12
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a) 3872
c) 0.13
b) 3871
d) 0.15
c) 3873
d) 1 Answer: b
C
Answer: d Explanation: BPF = e-[U Ac / 1.022 ma] = e-[1.9

x 1.1/ 1.022 x 0.97] = e-[2.1082] = 0.12.
Explanation: BPF for multiple similar rows
of the coil is the power of one BPF to the

7. What is the value of logarithmic mean = 0.4167

temperature if td1 = 300 K, td2 = 400 K and ηH = 1 – BPF = 1 – 0.4167 = 0.5833.
BPF = 0.75?
a) 70°C 10. What is the contact factor for cooling coil,
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b) 79°C if td1 = 44°C, td2 = 26°C and td3 = 19°C?
c) 85°C a) 0.62
d) 75°C b) 0.72
O
c) 0.78
Answer: d d) 0.18
Explanation: Logarithmic mean temperature
C
difference for the given arrangement is, Answer: b
Tm = td2 – td1 / loge [td3 – td1 / td3 – td2] Explanation: By-pass factor is the amount of
T.
As, BPF for the coil = [td3 – td1 / td3 – td2] air by-passed in the process. So, for the
Tm = td2 – td1 / loge [BPF] cooling coil,
BPF = Temperature difference between coil
= 400 – 300 / ln (1/0.75) = 100 / 0.287 =
O
and exit / Temperature difference between
348.43 K = 75.43°C = 75°C.
coil and entry
= td2 – td3 / td1 – td3
SP
8. What is the efficiency of the coil, if BPF =
0.6913? = 26 – 19 / 44 – 19
a) 1.6913 = 0.28
b) 0.4467 ηC = 1 – BPF = 1 – 0.28 = 0.72.
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c) 0.3087
d) 1.4467 11. For given conditions, td1 = 288 K, td2 =
301 K and td3 = 314 K, the value of by-pass
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Answer: c
factor and contact factor is equal.
Explanation: As the by-pass factor is the
a) True
inefficiency, so the contact factor or
b) False
efficiency of the coil is given by 1 – BPF = 1
.B
– 0.6913 = 0.3087. Answer: a

Explanation: BPF = 314 – 301 / 314 – 288 =
9. What is the contact factor for heating coil, 13 / 26 = 0.5 and η = 1 – BPF = 1 – 0.5 = 0.5
if td1 = 11°C, td2 = 32°C and td3 = 47°C?
17
So, for given set of values the value of

a) 0.5833 contact factor and by-pass factor is equal.
b) 0.4833
c) 0.7833 12. Higher the value of contact factor, poor is
d) 0.1833 the performance of the coil.
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a) True
Answer: a b) False
Explanation: By-pass factor is the amount of
SE
air by-passed in the process. So, for heating Answer: b

coil, Explanation: The contact factor is the
BPF = Temperature difference between coil efficiency of the coil. So, if the value of it is
and exit / Temperature difference between higher, then better is the performance and
coil and entry vice-versa. It is the opposite of BPF.
C
= td3 – td2 / td3 – td1

= 47 – 32 / 47 – 11

TOPIC 3.4 THERMOELECTRIC c) Seebeck coefficient

REFRIGERATION
Answer: b
1. Thermocouple is a ______________ Explanation: Peltier coefficient relates heat
M
a) Primary device liberated or absorbed and current flow.
b) Secondary transducer
5. Total seebeck effect can be found as
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c) Tertiary transducer
d) None of the mentioned _____________
a) Total peltier effect
C
Answer: a b) Total Thomson effect
Explanation: Thermocouple is a device c) Partly peltier and partly Thomson effect
T.
which converts thermal energy to electrical d) None of the mentioned
energy and it can be treated as a primary
device. Answer: c
Explanation: All three effects, peltier,
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2. Operation of thermocouple is governed by seebeck and Thomson effects are connected
_______________ to each other, and total seebeck effect can be
SP
a) Peltier effect found as partly peltier and partly Thomson
b) Seebeck effect effect.
c) Thomson effect
d) All of the mentioned 6. Which of the following element is used as
a thermocouple in nuclear reactor?
G
Answer: d a) Boron
Explanation: Operation of thermocouple is b) Platinum
LO
based on three major effects- Peltier, c) Copper

Thomson and seebeck, all describe the d) Iron
relation between current flow and
temperature between two different metal. Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear reactors are places
.B
3. ______________ describes current flow where a large amount of heat is liberated, here
between two junctions formed by two boron is used as thermocouple element as it
different metals. can measure temperature above 15000c.
17
a) Peltier effect
b) Thomson effect 7. Thermocouple cannot used for
c) Seebeck effect measurement of temperature of liquid.
d) None of the mentioned a) True
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b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: When two different metals are Answer: b
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connected to form two junctions, current flow Explanation: Immersion type thermocouple
will occur from one junction to other. This is can be used to measure temperature of liquid,
described by peltier effect. in which thermocouple is immersed in liquid.
4. Amount of heat liberated or absorbed when 8. _________________ can be used as a

C
1A current passes is called ____________ replacement for thermocouple lead.

a) Thomson coefficient a) Replacement lead
b) Peltier coefficient b) Replica lead

c) Compensating lead a) To convert the high pressure motive steam

d) None of the mentioned into high velocity steam
b) To reduce energy consumption
Answer: c c) To improve safety aspects
Explanation: Compensating leads are of the d) To improve thermal conductivity
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same materials as thermocouple leads and can
be used as a replacement. Answer: a
Explanation: Nozzle is a device which has
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9. Thermo couple cannot be used to measure one of its end converging whereas the other
____________ end diverging, when the steam enters from
C
a) Temperature of gas larger end and exit at smaller end, its velocity
b) Temperature of liquid increases that produces Jet effect. Hence
T.
c) IR radiation nozzle is used for it.
3. Which properties are essential for
Answer: d thermoelectric refrigeration?
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Explanation: Infra-Red radiation is a) High electrical and thermal conductivity
characterized by temperature and b) Low electrical and thermal conductivity
SP
thermocouple can be used to measure c) Low electrical conductivity and high
temperature. thermal conductivity
d) High electrical conductivity and low
10. Peltier effect is reverse of seebeck effect. thermal conductivity
a) True
G
b) False Answer: d
Explanation: For producing thermoelectric
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Answer: a effect, high thermal conductivity is a

Explanation: Peltier effect and seebeck effect desirable property, but for producing
operations are reverse to each other. refrigerating effect the thermal conductivity
should be lowest to reduce the loss of cooling
.B
TOPIC 3.5 AIR due to conduction through walls.

REFRIGERATION 4. Why is fast freezing done in various
products ?
17
1. What is the common application of Air a) To reduce the cell damage due to ice
standard refrigeration system? crystal growth.
a) Domestic refrigerators b) To reduce energy consumption of
b) Aircraft air conditioning refrigerator
-R
c) Cold storage c) To reduce the bacterial activity

d) Car air conditioning system d) To save time
Answer: b
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Answer: a
Explanation: As sufficient amount of air is Explanation: If the refrigeration in allowed
obtained while aviation of air crafts, the only to occur at a slow rate, the cells may get
thing is to reduce its velocity, and then it can damage due to ice formation in the form of
be used for air conditioning in air crafts. crystals because of the moisture content
C
present in it.
2. Why is a nozzle used in a steam jet
refrigeration system?

5. In a refrigerating machine, heat rejected is Answer: c

________ the heat absorbed. Explanation: Refrigerant used in Air
a) equal to refrigeration cycle is pure air, and it’s used
b) less than directly in contact with the area of
c) in unity with refrigeration. Whereas in Expansion
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d) greater than refrigeration, refrigerants are used in
condensers etc.
Answer: d
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Explanation: Heat rejected in refrigerating
machine is always more than the heat TOPIC 3.6 MAGNETIC -
C
absorbed because as the evaporation increases VORTEX AND PULSE TUBE
i.e. heat rejection, more will be the REFRIGERATION SYSTEMS
T.
refrigerating effect.
1. The free vortex flow forms _________
6. What is NOT one of the advantages of
a) straight lines
using closed Air Refrigeration system?
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b) concentric circles
a) Lighter in weight
c) parabola
b) Compact in construction
d) hyperbola
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c) Environmental Friendly
d) Lower co-efficient of performance Answer: b
Explanation: The free vortex flow is a
Answer: d
circulatory flow of the fluid such that its
G
Explanation: Air refrigeration system is used
stream lines are concentric circles. The
mainly due to light in weight, smaller and
velocity components for a free vortex flow
environment friendly due to use of air as
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are Ur and Uθ and is equal to Ur=0 and

refrigerant. Also it has higher co-efficient of
Uθ=circulation/ 2*pi*r.
performance.
2. The following figure is an example of
7. Reduction in operating pressure in the Air
____________
.B
refrigeration cycle results in _________

a) increase in C.O.P.
b) decrease in C.O.P.
c) no change in C.O.P.
17
d) always decreases
Answer: a
Explanation: As the operating pressure
-R
reduces, the change in work done decreases.

Hence the C.O.P of refrigeration increases.
8. How is the refrigerant used in the Air

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refrigeration cycle? a) source flow

a) In the condenser b) sink flow
b) In the compressor c) doublet
c) Directly in contact d) free vortex flow
C
d) Not used at all

Answer: d
Explanation: The above figure shows the

concentric circles along with streamlines. the resultant flow is a flow over a half body.
Here, the stream function is a function of
radius and it is constant value and hence the
streamlines are concentric.
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3. Except at the origin where r=0, the vortex
flow is ___________
a) rotational
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b) laminar
c) irrotational
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d) turbulent
6. The circles with their centre on the X axis
_____________
T.
Answer: c
Explanation: Vortex flow is irrotational a) eccentric circles
everywhere except at the point r=0, where the b) concentric circles
vorticity is infinite. Therefore, the origin, r=0, c) potential lines
O
is a singular point in the flow field. Here, the d) equal circles
origin point represents the singularity point.
Answer: c
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4. The strength of the vortex flow can be Explanation: Potential lines are eccentric
given by ______________ non-intersecting circles with their centres on
a) Γ=2*pi*C x-axis. The potential lines for source pair will
be eccentric non-intersecting circles.
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b) Γ=2*pi
c) Γ=-2*pi*C
d) Γ=0
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Answer: c
Explanation: The circulation for vortex flow
can be given by –
.B
Γ=2*pi*C where, C – constant and Γ is the

strength of the vortex flow.
When Γ is positive, it means that vortex of
positive strength rotates in the clockwise
17
direction and vice versa.
5. The combination of uniform flow and

source flow gives ___________ 7. Centre of pressure can be calculated using
-R
a) flow past a cylinder __________

b) flow past a half body a) Principle of moments
c) flow past a full body b) Principle of energy
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d) flow past a wedge c) Mass conservation

d) Rayleigh’s principle
Answer: b
Explanation: When a uniform of velocity U Answer: a
combines with a source flow of strength q, Explanation: The centre of pressure can be
C
calculated using a principle of moments

which states that the moment of the resultant
force about an axis is equal to the sum of

moments of the components about the same Answer: b

axis. Explanation: This expression comes from the
gas equation where V is the volume occupied
8. A body floats on the surface when by the gas at temperature T.
____________
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a) metacenter is above gravity 2. The expression nRT/V is called the partial
b) metacenter is below gravity pressure of a gas.
c) metacenter is equal to gravity a) true
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d) gravity is above metacenter b) false
C
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: In case of a floating object, the Explanation: This is the partial pressure that
T.
metacenter should always be above gravity. a gas exerts.
Metacentre is the point about which a body
starts oscillating when the body is tilted by a 3. According to the Dalton’s law of partial
small angle. In the case of a floating body, the pressures, the total pressure of a mixture of
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weight of an object is equal to the amount of ideal gases is equal to the
fluid displaced. a) difference of the highest and lowest
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pressure
b) product of the partial pressures
c) sum of the partial pressures
UNIT IV
G
Answer: c
PSYCHROMETRIC Explanation: According to the Dalton’s law
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PROPERTIES AND of partial pressures, p=p1+p2+p3+…..+pc.

PROCESSES 4. Which of the following relation is correct?
a) mole fraction of the Kth gas = moles of the
Kth gas / total number of moles of gas
.B
TOPIC 4.1 PROPERTIES OF

b) partial pressure of Kth gas = (mole fraction
MOIST AIR-GIBBS DALTON of the Kth gas)*(sum of the partial pressures)
LAW, SPECIFIC HUMIDITY, c) sum of mole fractions of all the gases is
17
DEW POINT TEMPERATURE, unity

DEGREE OF SATURATION, d) all of the mentioned
RELATIVE HUMIDITY, Answer: d
-R
ENTHALPY, HUMID SPECIFIC Explanation: All these statements come from

HEAT the Dalton’s law of partial pressures.
5. The gas constant of the mixture is the ____

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1. The expression which represents the of the gas constants of the components.
pressure exerted by a gas is a) average
a) nVRT b) weighted mean
b) nRT/V c) sum
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c) V/nRT d) difference of the highest and the lowest

d) 1/nVRT

Answer: b constant
Explanation: It can be found from the d) all of the mentioned
Dalton’s law and gas equation.
Answer: a
6. A quantity called partial volume of a Explanation: This is because of the first law.
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component of mixture is used.
a) true 10. The fact that internal energy of a mixture
b) false is equal to the sum of the partial internal
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energies of the gases can also be applied to
Answer: a properties like H,Cv,Cp,S,F, and G.
C
Explanation: It is the volume which the a) true
component alone would occupy at the b) false
T.
pressure and temperature of the mixture.
Answer: a
7. Which of the following statement is true? Explanation: This statement comes from the
a) V=V1+V2+….+Vc , where V is the partial Gibbs theorem.
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volume of the component
b) 1/v = 1/(v1) + 1/(v2) + …….. + 1/(vc) ,
TOPIC 4.2 WET BULB
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where v is the specific volume of the
component TEMPERATURE
c) total density is equal to the sum of the THERMODYNAMIC WET BULB
densities of the components TEMPERATURE
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d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d 1. What is the alternate name for

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Explanation: these relations come from the thermodynamic wet-bulb temperature?

Dalton’s law and the gas equation. a) Isobaric WBT
b) Isobaric Saturation Temperature
8. The total entropy of a mixture of gases is c) Adiabatic WBT
the ____ of the partial entropies. d) Adiabatic Saturation Temperature
.B
a) average
b) weighted mean Answer: d
c) sum Explanation: The thermodynamic wet-bulb
17
d) difference of the highest and the lowest temperature is also known as adiabatic
saturation temperature due to the process
Answer: c involved in it.
Explanation: This is given by the Gibbs
-R
theorem. 2. What is the temperature at which air can be

brought to saturation state adiabatically?
9. When gases which are at equal pressure a) Thermodynamic WBT
and temperature are mixed adiabatically b) Thermodynamic DBT
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without work, then c) Thermodynamic DPT

a) internal energy of the gaseous system d) DPT
remains constant
b) heat transfer of the gaseous system remains Answer: a
C
constant Explanation: The temperature at which air

c) entropy of the gaseous system remains can be brought to saturation state
adiabatically is called a thermodynamic wet-

bulb temperature or adiabatic saturation 6. What is the ratio of humidity ratio of

temperature. entering and discharging air?
a) W2 / W1 = (hs2 – hfw) + ha2 – ha1 / (hs1 –
3. Which of the following is carried out to hfw)
obtain saturation state at the thermodynamic
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WBT? b) W1 / W2 = (hs1 – hfw) + ha2 – ha1 / (hs2 –
a) Condensation hfw)
b) Evaporation c) W1 / W2 = (hs2 – hfw) + ha2 – ha1 / (hs1 –
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c) Compression hfw)
d) Expansion d) W1 / W2 = (hs2 – hfw) + ha1 – ha2 / (hs1 –
C
Answer: b hfw)
T.
Explanation: The temperature at which air
can be brought to saturation state Answer: c
adiabatically is called a thermodynamic wet- Explanation: Balancing enthalpies, h1 – W1
bulb temperature or adiabatic saturation hfw = h2 – W2 hfw
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temperature. This state is achieved by As, h1 = ha1 + W1 hs1 and h2 = ha2 + W2 hs2
evaporation of water into the flowing air.
So, by putting values we get,
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4. Which of the following is the major W1 / W2 = (hs2 – hfw) + ha2 – ha1 / (hs1 –
equipment in the simplest form is used to do hfw).
saturation of air?
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a) Chamber 7. The term (h2 – W2 hfw) is known
b) Vessel as_________
c) Insulated Chamber a) sigma term
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d) Pipe b) sigma heat

c) heat factor
Answer: c d) heat term
Explanation: The equipment used for
.B
saturation of the air in the simplest form is an Answer: b

insulated chamber containing an optimum Explanation: The term (h2 – W2 hfw) is
amount of water.
known as sigma heat, and this term remains
17
5. The arrangement for extra-water to flow constant during the adiabatic process.
into the chamber from its top is called as 8. If h1 = 32 kJ/kg, h2 = 41 kJ/kg, hfw = 49
___________
a) chamber ingot kJ/kg, W1 = 0.0109 kg/kg of dry air and W2 =
-R
b) chamber gate 0.0297 kg/kg of dry air then what is the value
c) make-up gate of sigma heat?
d) make-up water a) 41.0865
b) 39.5447
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Answer: d c) 38.9013
Explanation: The equipment used for d) 45.8775
saturation of the air in the simplest form is an
insulated chamber containing an optimum Answer: b
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amount of water. In order to get more water Explanation: Sigma heat = (h2 – W2 hfw)
into the chamber, an arrangement is provided, So, putting values in the formula,
which is called make-up water. Sigma heat = [41 – (49 x 0.0297)] = 39.5447.

9. Evaporation from water to flowing air is 2. In sensible heating or cooling,

carried out adiabatically. a) work done remains constant
a) False b) dry bulb temperature or air remains
b) True constant
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Answer: b d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: The temperature at which air
can be brought to saturation state Answer: a
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adiabatically is called a thermodynamic wet- Explanation: The dry bulb temperature of air
bulb temperature or adiabatic saturation changes.
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temperature. This state is achieved by
evaporation of water into the flowing air. 3. When humidity ratio of air ____ air is said
T.
to be dehumidified.
10. Make-up water is used to keep the water a) increases
level constant. b) decreases
a) True c) remains constant
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b) False d) none of the mentioned
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Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: In order to get more water into Explanation: when it increases, air is said to
the chamber, an arrangement is provided, be humidified.
which is called make-up water. This water is
4. Air can be cooled and dehumidified by
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added from the top to keep the water level
constant and keep the energy transfer at an a) circulating chilled water in tube across air
optimum pace. flow
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b) placing evaporator coil across air flow

c) spraying chilled water to air
TOPIC 4.3 PSYCHROMETRIC d) all of the mentioned
CHART; PSYCHROMETRIC OF
Answer: d
.B
AIR-CONDITIONING
PROCESSES, MIXING OF AIR Explanation: These are the ways of cooling
and dehumidifying air.
STREAMS.
17
5. Cooling and dehumidification of air is done

1. Which of the following statement is true? in summer air conditioning.
a) the chart is plotted for pressure equal to a) true
760mm Hg b) false
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b) the constant wbt line represents adiabatic

saturation process Answer: a
c) the constant wbt line coincides with Explanation: This is a common process in
constant enthalpy line summer air conditioning.
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6. Heating and humidification is done in
Answer: d a) summer air conditioning
Explanation: All these come from the b) winter air conditioning
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psychrometric chart. c) both of the mentioned


Answer: b 11. Cooling towers are rated in terms of

Explanation: This is opposite to summer air a) approach
conditioning. b) range
7. Which of the following is an absorbent? d) none of the mentioned
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a) silica gel
b) activated alumina Answer: c
c) both of the mentioned Explanation: These are the two factors
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d) none of the mentioned considered.
C
Answer: c
Explanation: Both of these are examples of
T.
absorbents.
UNIT V AIR
8. When air passes through silica gel,
a) it absorbs water vapour molecules CONDITIONING
O
b) latent heat of condensation is released SYSTEMS AND LOAD
c) dbt of air increases
ESTIMATION
SP
Answer: d TOPIC 5.1 AIR CONDITIONING

Explanation: This process is called chemical
dehumidification. LOADS: OUTSIDE AND INSIDE
G
DESIGN CONDITIONS
9. In adiabatic evaporative cooling, heat
LO
transfer between chamber and surroundings is 1. Which one of the following is not a
____ component of a simple air cooling system?
a) zero a) Main compressor
b) high b) Cooling fan
c) low
.B
c) Heat exchanger
d) none of the mentioned d) Generator
Answer: a Answer: d
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Explanation: No heat transfer takes place Explanation: The main components of

between chamber and surroundings in simple air cooling system are the main
adiabatic evaporative cooling. compressor driven by the gas turbine, a
cooling fan, heat exchanger and a cooling
-R
10. The cooling tower uses the phenomenon

turbine.
of evaporative cooling to cool warm water
above the dbt of air. 2. For a simple air cooling system which one
a) true
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of the following is not a process of the cycle

b) false in T-S diagram?
Answer: b
Explanation: The cooling tower uses the
C
phenomenon of evaporative cooling to cool

warm water below the dbt of air.

c) moderate
d) any
Answer: a
Explanation: The simple air cooling system
M
is good for low flight speed so as fan can
maintain airflow over the air cooler, which is
difficult for it while at high speeds.
O
5. What is the main difference between
C
simple air cooling system and simple air
a) Ramming process evaporative cooling system?
b) Compression process
T.
a) Simple air evaporative cooling system has
c) Heating process an evaporator
d) Refrigeration process b) Simple air evaporative cooling system has
two evaporators
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Answer: c c) Simple air evaporative cooling system has
Explanation: A simple air cooling system has an extra compressor
5 processes in T-S diagram namely ramming
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d) Simple air evaporative cooling system has
process, compression process, expansion three evaporators
process, refrigeration processes and cooling
process. Answer: a
G
Explanation: The difference between the
3. The COP of simple air cooling system is simple air cooling system and simple air
given by? evaporative cooling system is that it has an
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T6 = Inside temperature of cabin evaporator between the heat exchanger and

T5′ = Exit temperature of cooling turbine the cooling turbine.
T3′ = Temperature at the exit of compressor
T2′ = Stagnation temperature 6. If cooling of 45 minutes or less is required,
.B
it may be advantageous to use evaporative

a) COP =
(T6 –T5′ )
(T3 ′–T2′ )
cooling system.
b) COP =
(T6 +T5′ ) a) True
b) False
17
(T3 ′–T2′ )
(T6 +T5′ )
c) COP = (T3 ′+T2′ )
Answer: a
d) COP =
(T6 –T5′ )
(T3 ′+T2′ ) Explanation: The evaporative cooling system

provides an additional cooling effect through
-R
Answer: a evaporation of refrigerants such as water etc.

Explanation: COP = Refrigeration effect Hence if cooling of 45 minutes or less is
produced i.e. (T6 – T5′) divided by Work done required, it may be advantageous to use
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i.e. (T3′ – T2′). evaporative cooling system.

(T6 –T5′ )
Hence COP = .
(T3 ′–T2′ ) 7. A simple evaporative air refrigeration
system is used for an airplane to take 20 TR
4. The simple air cooling system is good for of refrigeration load (Q). The power required
C
_____ flight speed. for the refrigerating system P is 746 KW.

a) low What is its COP?
b) high a) 0.086

b) 0.094 x-axis, the intercept log S on the y-axis is

c) 0.079 found.
d) 0.099
3. The value of solar constant varies between
Answer: b a) 1123 and 1237 W/m2
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Explanation: COP = b) 1345 and 1453 W/m2
(210×Q)
(P ×60)
COP =
(210×20)
c) 1987 and 2346 W/m2
O
(746×60)
= 0.094. d) 1335 and 1815 W/m2
C
Answer: d
TOPIC 5.2 HEAT TRANSFER Explanation: When the sun lies at a mean
THROUGH STRUCTURE, distance from the earth, the heat flux from the
T.
SOLAR RADIATION, sun to the outer edge of the atmosphere has
ELECTRICAL APPLIANCES, been found to be 1350 W/m2.
O
INFILTRATION AND 4. The total amount of heat energy received
VENTILATION, INTERNAL by the sphere of radius r is
SP
HEAT LOAD a) 2 π R2 S
b) 6 π R2 S
1. The heat energy absorbed by a known area c) 4 π R2 S
in a fixed time is determined with the help of
d) π R2 S
G
an instrument called
a) Psychrometer
Answer: c
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b) Pyrheliometer
c) Thermometric well Explanation: Area of sphere is 4 π R2.
d) Any instrument
5. Amount of heat energy radiated by unit
Answer: b surface of the sun in the same time workout
.B
Explanation: The effects of absorption by the as

atmosphere are eliminated by finding the Take, R = mean distance of earth from the sun
value of the solar constant at various altitudes and r = radius of sun
a) E = π R2 S/4 π R2
17
of the sun on the same day.

b) E = 4 π R2 S/4 π R2
2. The observed solar constant S0, the true
c) E = 4 π R2
solar constant S and the angular elevation Z
d) E = 4 π R2 S
-R
of the sun are related by the expression

a) S0 =S a SEC Z Answer: b
b) S0 =2 S a SEC Z Explanation: It is the ratio of 4 π R2 S to 4 π
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c) S0 =3 S a SEC Z R2.
d) S0 =4 S a SEC Z 6. Temperature of sun can be workout from

a) Wein’s displacement law
C
Answer: a b) Stefan-Boltzmann law

Explanation: From the straight line graph c) Kirchhoff’s law
between log S0 along y-axis and sec Z along d) All of the Mentioned

Answer: a a) 2350 W/m2

Explanation: (Wavelength) MAX T = 2-89 * b) 3350 W/m2
10 -3 m K. c) 4350 W/m2
d) 1350 W/m2
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7. The temperature of the photosphere,
referred to as the effective temperature of the
Answer: d
sun, is usually taken as
Explanation: 47% of this would reach the
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a) 3000 K
earth’s surface.
b) 4000 K
c) 5000 K
C
d) 6000 K TOPIC 5.3 APPARATUS
SELECTION; FRESH AIR LOAD,
T.
Answer: d
Explanation: The sun consists of a central
HUMAN COMFORT & IAQ
hot portion surrounded by the photosphere. PRINCIPLES, EFFECTIVE
O
TEMPERATURE & CHART,
8. The approximate distribution of the flow of CALCULATION OF SUMMER &
sun’s energy to the earth’s surface is
WINTER AIR CONDITIONING
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a) 53% is reflected back to space
b) 53% is transmitted to the earth LOAD
c) 9% is scattered
d) 22% is absorbed in the atmosphere 1. Room air conditioners and packaged units
G
are examples of _________
Answer: c a) Direct expansion systems
Explanation: 33% is reflected back to space,
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b) Indirect expansion systems

15% is absorbed in the atmosphere and 43% c) Chilled water systems
is transmitted to the earth. d) Indirect contraction systems
9. The solar radiation that is felt at the earth’s Answer: a
.B
surface includes Explanation: Air conditioning systems are

(i) Direct radiation that has passed through classified into two categories. These are
the atmosphere direct expansion systems and chilled water
17
(ii) Diffuse radiation from the sky systems. Room air conditioners and packaged
(iii) Absorbed radiation from the water units are examples of direct expansion
Identify the correct statement systems.
a) i only
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b) i and ii 2. Which of the following is not a component

c) i, ii and iii of packaged air conditioners?
d) ii and iii a) Compressor
b) Condenser
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Answer: b c) Chiller
Explanation: Option (iii) must be reflected d) Evaporator
radiation from water.
Answer: c
10. When the sun lies at a mean distance from
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Explanation: Packaged air conditioners

the earth, the heat flux from the sun to the consist of a compressor, condenser,
outer edge of the atmosphere has been found evaporator and a fan. Unlike packaged air
to be

conditioners, chilled water system consists of Answer: d

an additional item called the chiller. Explanation: The filters in the air
conditioning system should be capable of
3. In a chilled water system, the refrigerant is removing dust particles from the incoming
used to cool the air directly while in the direct air. They should afford easy cleaning and
M
expansion system, a secondary medium like should offer low frictional resistance to the
water is used to cool the air. airflow.
a) True
O
b) False 6. Viscous type filters are made of screens of
spilt wire and coated with non-drying viscous
C
Answer: b oil in order to catch and remove the dust
Explanation: In the direct expansion system, particles from the incoming air.
T.
the refrigerant is used to cool the air directly a) True
while in the chilled water system, a secondary b) False
medium like water is used to cool the air. In
the chilled water system, the refrigerant first Answer: a
O
cools the water and then the water cools the Explanation: Viscous type filters are made of
air. screens of spilt wire and coated with non-
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drying viscous oil in order to catch and
4. In which component of the chilled water remove the dust particles from the incoming
system, the return air and the fresh air air. They can be of two types – unit type or
mixture is filtered? automatic type.
G
a) Fan coil unit
b) Ducting grill 7. Which of the following types of filters used
c) Compressor in the air conditioning system is made of
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d) Evaporator cloth that is discarded on getting dirty?

a) Viscous type filters
Answer: a b) Dry filter
Explanation: In the chilled water system, the c) Spray washers
.B
return air and the fresh air mixture is filtered d) Electric precipitators
in the fan coil unit. Here, in addition to
filtration, the mixture is cooled and Answer: b
dehumidified. After this, it is distributed to Explanation: Filters used in air conditioning
17
the conditioned space through ducting and system are of various types. There are viscous
grills. type filters, dry filters, spray washers and
electric precipitators. A dry filter is made of
5. Which of the following qualities is not cloth such as flannel, that is discarded on
-R
possessed by the filters in the air conditioning getting dirty.

system?
a) They should be capable of removing dust 8. Which of the following statements about
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particles from the incoming air electric precipitators is false?

b) They should afford easy cleaning a) They are used to remove dust by providing
c) They should offer low frictional resistance a strong electric field
to the airflow b) Their initial installation cost is high
d) They should offer high frictional resistance c) Their operational cost is low
C
to the airflow d) Dust particles get attached to the positive

electrode

Answer: d c) 3
Explanation: Electric precipitators are used d) 4
to remove dust by providing a strong electric
field. In an electric precipitator, the dust Answer: c
particles get attached to the negative Explanation: The method of distribution of
M
electrode. Their initial installation cost is high water is divided into 3 types and it includes
but their operational cost is low. gravity system, pumping system and
combined gravity and pumping system.
O
9. The process of extraction of the certain
required amount of water from air is known 2. In which of the following distribution
C
as ___________ system, the clean water flows entirely under
a) Heating gravity?
T.
b) Cooling a) Gravity system
c) Humidification b) Pressure system
d) Dehumidification c) Combined gravity and pumping system
d) Pumping system
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Answer: d
Explanation: The process of extraction of a Answer: a
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certain required amount of water from air is Explanation: The purified water in gravity
known as dehumidification. This can be system flow entirely under gravity. It is the
achieved by condensation or desiccation. most reliable and economical distribution
Humidification is the addition of water to air. system.
G
10. Which of the following is capable of 3. The pressure in the distribution mains does
absorbing excess moisture from the air? not depend on ____________
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a) Silica gel a) Altitude to supply water

b) Charcoal b) Fire fighting requirements
c) Salts of calcium or ammonia c) Availability of funds
d) Activated alumina d) Quality of water
.B
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: Absorbents like salts of Explanation: The pressure in the distribution
calcium or ammonia are capable of absorbing mains depends on the height to which water is
17
excess moisture from the air. However, the required to be supplied, fire fighting
adsorbents like silica gel and activated requirements, whether the supply is metered
alumina allow moisture to stay only at the or not and availability of funds.
surface.
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4. The pressure in distribution mains in a

residential building up to three storeys is
TOPIC 5.4 CLASSIFICATIONS, ____________
LAYOUT OF PLANTS; AIR a) 2kg/cm2
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DISTRIBUTION SYSTEM b) 5kg/cm2

c) 7kg/cm2
1. The method of distribution of water is d) 10kg/cm2
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divided into how many types?

a) 1 Answer: a
b) 2 Explanation: The pressure in distribution

mains in a residential building up to three a) Continuous supply

storeys is 2kg/cm2 and when it is between 3-6 b) Fixed supply
storeys, the pressure is 3kg/cm2. c) Intermittent supply
d) Low supply
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5. There is a 8 storey residential building in
Lucknow. What is the pressure in the Answer: c
distribution mains? Explanation: In Intermittent supply, water is
supplied to the consumer during fixed hours
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a) 2kg/cm2 of the day and is adopted when sufficient
b) 5kg/cm2 pressure is not available or sufficient quantity
C
c) 7kg/cm2 of water is not available.
d) 10kg/cm2
T.
9. The velocity of water in the pipe is
Answer: b 1.8m/Sec. What is the diameter of pipe used?
Explanation: When the height of residential a) 10cm
b) 15cm
O
building is between 6 to 10 storey, the
pressure in the distribution mains lies c) 25cm
d) 40cm
between 4 to 5.5kg/cm2.
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Answer: d
6. The velocity of water in a 10 cm diameter
Explanation: It is the maximum diameter of
pipe should be ____________
the pipe for which the velocity of water
a) 0.2m/Sec
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should not be less than 1.8m/Sec.
b) 0.5m/Sec
c) 0.9m/Sec 10. The hourly demand rate is constant
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d) 1.2m/Sec throughout the day.

a) True
Answer: c
b) False
Explanation: The velocity of water in a 10
cm diameter pipe should be 0.9m/Sec Answer: b
.B
Which is 1.2m/Sec when the diameter of pipe Explanation: The hourly demand rate is not
is 15cm. constant throughout the day, it is more during
morning and evening and less during other
17
7. In which system of water supply, water is parts of the day.

available for 24 hours but uneconomically
used? 11. According the mass curve method, the
a) Continuous supply storage capacity is defined as ____________
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b) Fixed supply a) Maximum excess of supply / Maximum

c) Intermittent supply excess of demand
d) Low supply b) Maximum excess of supply * Maximum
excess of demand
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Answer: a
c) Maximum excess of supply – Maximum
Explanation: In continuous water supply,
excess of demand
water is wasted due to a continuous supply of d) Maximum excess of supply + Maximum
water for 24 hours of the day or long duration excess of demand
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of flow.
Answer: d
8. In which system of water supply, water is Explanation: A mass curve of demand is the
supplied only during fixed hours of the day?

cumulative demand curve, which is obtained 15. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by
by continuously adding the hourly demands ____________
and plotting it against time. a) Removal of copper sulfate
b) Addition of calcium carbonate
12. _______ causes hoop tension in pipe c) Addition of carbon dioxide
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shell. d) Removal of dissolved oxygen
a) Internal water pressure
b) External water pressure Answer: d
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c) Water hammer Explanation: Pipe corrosion can be
d) Longitudinal stress minimized by pH adjustment, control of
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calcium carbonate, removal of dissolved
Answer: a oxygen, removal of carbon dioxide and by the
T.
Explanation: Internal water pressure causes addition of sodium silicate.
hoop tension in pipe shell and its magnitude
is given by f = pd/2t where p is the internal
pressure of water, d is the diameter of the TOPIC 5.5 FILTERS
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pipe and t is the thickness of pipe shell.
1. What is a filter?
SP
13. The water supply pipes are buried a) Frequency selective circuit
underground. The load on the buried pipe due b) Amplitude selective circuit
to earth filling is given by ____________ c) Frequency damping circuit
a) W = C*Y*B d) Amplitude damping circuit
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b) W = C*Y/B
c) W = C*Y*B2 Answer: a
d) W = C*Y2*B Explanation: A filter is a frequency-selective
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circuit. Filters are designed to pass some

Answer: c frequencies and reject others. Filters are used
Explanation: According to Marston, the load to reduce noise and increase selectivity.
W on buried pipes due to earth filling is given
.B
2. What are filters created by using resistors

by W = C*Y*B2 where, ‘C’ is the coefficient
and capacitors or inductors and capacitors
which depends on soil, ‘Y’ is the unit weight
called?
of back fill material and ‘B’ is the width of
a) Active filters
17
the trench.
b) Passive filters
14. Which of the following stress in pipe c) Continuous filters
depends on temperature? d) Differential filters
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a) Internal water pressure

Answer: b
b) Stress due to foundation reaction
Explanation: Simple filters created by using
c) Longitudinal stress
resistors and capacitors or inductors and
d) Temperature stress
capacitors are called passive filters because
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Answer: d they use passive components that do not

Explanation: Temperature stress is caused in amplify. In communication work, many filters
pipes when they are laid above ground. When are of the passive LC variety, although many
other types are used.
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they are subjected to temperature variation,

changes in the length of pipe takes place.
3. What type of filter produces a predictable
phase shift characteristic in all frequencies?

a) Band pass filters with one frequency-sensitive component, in

b) High pass filters this case, the capacitor. At very low
c) Low pass filters frequencies, the capacitor has very high
d) All pass filters reactance compared to the resistance and
therefore the attenuation is minimum. Thus
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Answer: d allowing lower frequencies to pass through
Explanation: An all pass filter passes all while attenuating higher frequency signals.
frequencies equally well over its design range
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but has a fixed or predictable phase shift 6. Find the cut off frequency for an RC low
characteristic. Filters normally attenuate the pass filter of R=8.2Ω and C=0.0033μF?
C
signal applied for some values of frequency a) 6KHz
whereas an all pass filter retains the signal b) 5.88KHz
T.
level at all frequencies. c) 4.26KHz
d) 7.91KHz
4. An RC coupling circuit is an example of
what type of filter? Answer: b
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a) Low pass filter Explanation:
b) High pass filter
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c) Band pass filter
d) All pass filter
7. What is the type of filter shown in the
Answer: b figure?
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Explanation: An RC coupling circuit is an
example of a high-pass filter because the AC
component of the input voltage is developed
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across R and the DC voltage is blocked by the

series capacitor. Furthermore, with higher
frequencies in the AC component, more AC
voltage is coupled.
.B
5. What is the type of filter shown in the a) Low pass filter

figure? b) High pass filter
c) Band pass filter
17
d) All pass filter
Answer: a
Explanation: A low-pass filter can also be
-R
implemented with an inductor and a resistor.

At very low frequencies, the inductor has
a) Low pass filter very low reactance compared to the resistance
b) High pass filter and therefore the attenuation is
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c) Band pass filter minimum.Thus allowing lower frequencies to

d) All pass filter pass through while attenuating higher
frequency signals.The cutoff frequency is
Answer: a determined by using the formula fco = R/2πL.
C
Explanation: The simplest form of low-pass

filter is the RC circuit shown in the figure. 8. What is the value of resistor for a high pass
The circuit forms a simple voltage divider RC filter to produce a cutoff frequency

of3.4KHz if C = 0.047μF? passband. Passive filters introduce attenuation

a) 654Ω because of the resistive losses in the
b) 1000Ω components. Insertion loss is typically given
c) 996Ω in decibels.
d) 752Ω
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12. The attenuation rate is also called?
Answer: c a) Roll off
Explanation: b) Roll in
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c) Envelope delay
d) Ripple
C
Answer: a
9. Notch filters and band reject filters are the
T.
Explanation: Roll off is also called the
same. attenuation rate, roll-off is the rate of change
a) True of amplitude with frequency in a filter. The
b) False faster the roll-off, or the higher the
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attenuation rate, the more selective the filter
Answer: a is, i.e., the better able it is to differentiate
Explanation: Notch filters are also referred to
SP
between two closely spaced signals, one
as bandstop or band reject filters. Band-reject desired and the other not.
filters are used to greatly attenuate a narrow
range of frequencies around a center point.
Notch filters accomplish the same purpose, TOPIC 5.6 AIR CONDITIONING
G
but for a single frequency. SYSTEMS WITH CONTROLS:
TEMPERATURE, PRESSURE
LO
10. What is the value of notch frequency if

the values of resistance and capacitance are AND HUMIDITY SENSORS,
100 kV and 0.02 μF? ACTUATORS & SAFETY
a) 79.6Hz CONTROLS.
b) 21.5Hz
.B
c) 82.4Hz 1. Heat transfer in Agitated Vessels can be

d) 40Hz carried out by two methods they are
____________
17
Answer: a
a) Jacketed and Plates
Explanation:
b) Plates and Coils
c) Jacketed and Internal coils
d) Semi coils and Internal coils
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11. What is the loss the filter introduces to the Answer: c

signals in the passband called? Explanation: Heat Transfer in Agitated
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a) passband loss vessels is carried out by two methods either

b) Insertion loss by external jackets or internal coils. Here
c) Attenuation jackets usually have lower heat transfer
d) Degradation coefficient.
C
Answer: b 2. Which one of the following is not a type of

Explanation: Insertion loss is the loss the jacket?
filter introduces to the signals in the a) Full conventional jacket

b) Dimpled jacket 6. Which Internal coil is the most frequently

c) Coiled Jacket used one?
d) Half-pipe jacket a) Full helical coils
b) Singlet Coil
Answer: c c) Ringlet Coil
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Explanation: Jackets are usually classified as d) Semi helical coil
full conventional jacket, a dimpled jacket, or
a half-pipe jacket, which is less useful in case Answer: a
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of industries. Explanation: A full helical coil is the one
most commonly observed in industries due to
C
3. Which one of the following jacket is best the fact that it offers large surface area for
suited for agitated vessels? heat transfer.
T.
a) Full conventional jacket
b) Dimpled jacket 7. Why are full helical coils so common in
c) Coiled Jacket industries?
d) Half-pipe jacket a) Provides Large Surface area
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b) Mechanically stable
Answer: a c) Very cheap to install
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Explanation: A conventional jacket is d) Handles highly corrosive substances
usually best suited as it covers the full wall
and base surface and is very simple to Answer: a
construct. Explanation: A full helical coil is the one
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most commonly observed in industries due to
4. Which jacket is used to provide better the fact that it offers large surface area for
mechanical strength? heat transfer, but the problem with it is that
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a) Full conventional jacket needs mechanical support and providing a

b) Dimpled jacket flange is usually expensive.
c) Coiled Jacket
d) Half-pipe jacket 8. Ringlet Coils have a disadvantage, what is
.B
it?
Answer: b a) Provides Less Surface area
Explanation: Dimpled jackets are made from b) Mechanically unstable
light gauge metals which along with a high c) Very expensive to install
17
heat transfer rate also provide mechanical d) Leaves unmixed areas

strength.
Answer: d
5. Which one of the following jacket is Explanation: Ringlet coils are cheap, provide
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usually least preferred? suitable surface area, can be inserted into the
a) Full conventional jacket vessels easily but the only disadvantage it has
b) Dimpled jacket is that it leaves unmixed areas in the vessel.
c) Coiled Jacket
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d) Half-pipe jacket 9. When a highly corrosive and reactive

substance is used in the operation we prefer to
Answer: d use__________
Explanation: A half-pipe jacket is cheap and a) Full helical coils
C
least used for a high pressure operation on b) Full conventional jacket

service side. By using half-pipe jacket it will c) Ringlet Coil
cover only limited amount of the surface. d) Semi helical coil

Answer: b and low surface area which greatly impacts

Explanation: When it comes to handling its heat transfer coefficient.
corrosive substances, a jacket has the
advantage that there are no extra construction 12. Which of the following is not a factor for
materials or metal surface in contact with the jacketed vessel’s low heat transfer rate?
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process other than the vessel wall. a) Thick Wall
b) Low surface Area
10. For the manufacture of pharmaceuticals, c) Quality of material
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when we want to minimize contamination, we d) Surface not in contact with vessel
prefer to use__________
C
a) Full helical coils Answer: c
b) Full conventional jacket Explanation: The quality of material used is
T.
c) Ringlet Coil always high yet as we use jackets the other
d) Semi helical coil three options are true which leads to the
overall degradation of the heat transfer rate.
Answer: b
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Explanation: For the manufacture of 13. For exothermic reactions, which setup is
pharmaceuticals, where we work with fine best suited for an agitated vessel?
SP
chemicals and performance products, a jacket a) Full conventional jacket
minimizes contamination as there are no extra b) Dimpled jacket
surfaces to clean unlike coils. c) Full helical coils
d) Half-pipe jacket
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11. A jacket has a lower heat transfer rate and
coefficient than a coil. Answer: c
a) True Explanation: When we are considering
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b) False exothermic reactions, a jacketed vessel has

the disadvantage that the area/volume ratio
Answer: a decreases with increasing scale, hence in this
Explanation: Jackets usually have thick walls case we require a high heat transfer area
.B
which is usually provided by coils.

17
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C

Me8071 Refrigeration and Air Conditioning MCQ

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Department of Mechanical Engineering MCQ for Regulations 2017

enthalpy curves for LMTD calculations.

TOPIC 1.1 INTRODUCTION TO

1. We divide the temperature/enthalpy

diagram into a number of zones such that the

Explanation: In the thermal design of

exchanger based on it, and hence we need a

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demanding temperature difference and an

d) The coolant heat transfer coefficient

requires evaluation of the local heat transfer

associated with heat transfer through a

associated with the presence of non-

Answer: a mixture _____________ the local saturation

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b) Goes above Answer: b

Answer: a 1. To evaporate a refrigerant liquid in

1. To evaporate a refrigerant liquid in

7. What does the following diagram Answer: b

cumulative heat rejection process with

9. What set of process on the refrigeration

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6-1 = Entropy increase

11. The process 2-3’ is known as the

10. What set of process on the refrigeration condenser with

12. Which one of the following pathway

cumulative heat absorption process of an b) 3-4

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c) Entropy increase step Explanation: These are the two types of

cumulative heat rejection process of a b) larger units

TOPIC 1.2 UNIT OF

1. Which of the following statement is true c) both of the mentioned

condenser Explanation: In their case, id size and length

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6. Types of compressor include b) 1 – C – C(p2/p1)^(1/n)

plants with capacity up to 100 tonnes

Explanation: This is the difference in

9. In reciprocating compressors, actual b) sqrt(p1*p2)

b) more than Answer: b

Answer: a 14. The most widely used refrigerants are

10. The clearance volumetric efficiency is d) all of the mentioned

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halogenated hydrocarbons. and correct, in natural convection types in

of them? b) More than

d) Sub-cooled liquid condensers Answer: b

Water cooled condensers 5. In traditional Refrigerators in home

a) Natural convection type

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Answer: b Explanation: Shell-and-coil type condensers

Explanation: In water cooled condensers condensers owing to its tube-in-tube setup

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d) none of the mentioned

1. Which of the following statement is true b) larger units

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Answer: d p1,p2 are pressures.

reciprocating and rotary compressors. 13. The intercooler pressure is given by

d) none of the mentioned pressure and p2 is the condenser pressure.

Answer: a 14. The most widely used refrigerants are

clearance and throttling effects. b) genetron

15. Why is ammonia used in food

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c) lower energy cost c) both pressure and temperature

5. Saturated liquid or the saturated vapour has