Practice MCQ

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence LY B. Pharm Sem VII (CBCS)

1. The First Schedule to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 prescribes
(A) standards for cosmetics
(B) standards for medical devices
(C) authoritative books of Ayurvedic, Sidhha and Unani Tibb system
(D) standards of the drugs to be complied with by imported drugs

2. Which of the following is a ‘drug’ as per the law?

(A) Empty gelatin capsules, bandages and insect repellent creams
(B) Energy drinks and candy bars
(C) Mouth freshening spearmint chewing gum
(D) Fish and Chicken

3. Minimum area of the shop to obtain a wholesale licence to sell and stock drugs shall
be
(A) five square metres
(B) ten square metres
(C) fifteen square metres
(D) twenty square metres
4. Who among the following is the Chairman of Drug Technical Advisory Board?
(A) The Drugs Controller of India
(B) The President of Pharmacy Council of India
(C) The President of Medical Council of India
(D) The Director General of Health Services
5. The main object of the Pharmacy Act, 1948 is to
(A) control the advertisement of drugs
(B) regulate the profession of pharmacy
(C) prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals
(D) regulate the sale of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
6. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act was passed in the year
(A) 1940
(B) 1955
(C) 1985
(D) 2000
7. Plant of the species of Papaver, from which opium or any phenanthrene alkaloid can
be extracted, is called
(A) opium poppy
(B) coca
(C) heroin
(D) Cannabis sativam
8. Prepared opium
(A) is an extract suitable for smoking
 (B) is any medicine containing opium
(C) is also called as hemp
(D) has undergone the processes to adapt it for medicinal use
9. Who has the power to fix the ceiling price of scheduled formulations?
(A) State Government
(B) Central Government
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Rajya Sabha
10. Under the Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act, manufacture of any
dutiable goods without a valid licence is punishable with
(A) imprisonment up to six years or fine of twenty thousand rupees or both
(B) imprisonment up to six months or fine of two thousand rupees or both
(C) imprisonment up to six months or fine of twenty thousand rupees or both
(D) imprisonment up to six years or fine of two thousand rupees or both
11. A nonbonded manufactory shall be inspected by the officer at least
(A) once every month
(B) once every two months
(C) once every six months
(D) once every year
12. What is the definition of a “Magic Remedy*?
(A) talisman, mantra, kavacha or any other charm or any substance alleged to possess
miraculous powers powers to diagnose, cure, mitigate, treat or prevent a disease in
humans or animals
(B) Any substance natural or synthetic or any salt or preparation of such substance or
material, included in the list of psychotropic substances specified in the
(C) Any substance, whether processed, partially processed or unprocessed, which is
intended for human consumption.
(D) Ethyl alcohol of any strength and purity having the chemical composition
C2H5OH

13. Which of the following is a psychotropic substance under the Narcotic Drugs and
Psychotropic Susbtances Act?
(A) Barbital (barbiturate)
(B) Ampicillin (antibiotic)
(C) Albendazole (anti parasitic)
(D) Chloroquine (anti malarial)
14. The schedules to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act are
a. A to Y
b. First and Second
c. 1 to 25
d. A and B only
15. Which of the following is a ‘Patent or Proprietary Ayurvedic/Siddha/Unani Medicine’
according to Drugs and Cosmetics Act?
a. Parachute coconut oil
b. Amrutanjan Balm
c. Odomos insect repellent cream
d. Arnica hair oil
16. Which of the following words/particulars are necessary to be included in the labelling
of Schedule G drugs for oral use
a. NOT FOR INJECTION
b. Warning: If irritation persists or increases, discontinue use and consult physician.
c. For External Use Only
d. A vertical redline on the left side of the label
17. A company wishes to advertise for a new emergency oral contraceptive that it has
introduced in the market-
a. Advertisement of oral contraceptives is not allowed as per DMR (OA) act
b. The company can seek permission from the Government to advertise
c. Advertisements for oral contraceptives is allowed as per DMR (OA) act
d. The advertisement has to be sent confidentially only to a Registered Medical
Practitioner.
18. Compulsory Licence is issued when
a. A drug is novel
b. Forms the first line of treatment for a disorder or disease
c. Is exorbitantly priced
d. Supply is insufficient
19. According to definition of ‘Food’, following are classified as food
a. Mouthwash and toothpaste
b. Protein supplements and Packaged drinking water
c. Hajmola Candy and Halls candy
d. Live animals (fish, chicken and goat)
20. According to provisions given under NDPS Act, 1985
A. Opium and Coca cultivation and gathering can be permitted and regulated only by
Central Government
B. Opium and Coca cultivation and gathering can be regulated and permitted both by
Central and State Governments
C. Cannabis consumption can be regulated only by Central Government
D. Manufacture of medicinal opium is to be done only by state Government.
21. Officer under FSSAI-
a. Government Analyst
b. Public Analyst
c. Drug Controller
e. Drug Inspector

22. Which of the following is/are non-patentable

a. A new medical device for diagnosis
b. Admixture of two known substances to give a new effect
c. Algorithms
d. A genetically modified microorganism

23. Which of the following drug product will have N℞ on its label
a. Antihypertensive drug (ẞ- blocker)
 b. Antimicrobial drug (Chloroquine)
c. Narcotic analgesic (Morphine)
d. Antidiabetic (Glibenclamide)

24. Schedule K pertains to

a. List of drugs that can be used with caution under medical supervision
b. List of drugs exempted from certain provisions governing import of drugs
c. List of drugs exempted from certain provisions governing manufacture and sale of
drugs
d. List of diseases that a drug cannot claim to cure

25. The Pharmacy Council of India “Education Regulations’ for the Diploma Course in
Pharmacy, that is currently in force, was passed in the year
(A) 1981
(B) 1985
(C) 1991
(D) 1995

ANSWER KEY
1 c 6 c 11 a 16 d 21 a
2 a 7 a 12 a 17 b 22 c
3 c 8 a 13 a 18 c 23 c
4 d 9 b 14 b 19 b 24 c
5 b 10 b 15 b 20 a 25 c