SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE, SR AIIMS S60 & SR NEET MPL DATE: 22-01-2020
NEET PART TEST-4 Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. The Model NEET- 2020 is of 3 Hrs duration.

2. The question paper for NEET-2020 consists of 180 questions
comprising 45 questions in Botany, 45 in Zoology, 45 in Physics
and 45 in Chemistry for NEET.
3. All questions are of objective type (Multiple choices only)
4. Each question carries four marks.
5. Negative marking: one mark will be deducted for every wrongly
answered question.
6. Total Marks 720.
7. The candidates are prohibited from carrying any paper to the
examination hall except HALL TICKET.
8. No Calculators, Mini-Cards, Watches with Calculators, Pager, Cell
Phone, Slide rules or outer aids to calculation will be allowed in
the examination hall.
9. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
Answers marked with pencil would not be evaluated.

PART TEST-4 SYLLABUS:

BOTANY : Cell: The unit of life, Bio molecules, Cell cycle and cell division, Anatomy of
flowering plants, Biotechnology principles & process, Biotechnology and its applications,
Microbes in Human Welfare, Strategies for Enhancement in Food production, Ecosystem & Soil.
ZOOLOGY: Animal tissues, Cockroach, Organisms and Populations (excluding soil),
Ecosystem (14.1 to 14.5), Biodiversity and Conservation, Environmental Issues
PHYSICS : Static electricity, Current electricity, Moving charges and Magnetism, Magnetism
and matter, Electromagnetic induction, AC circuits, EM waves & Mechanical properties of solids
and fluids
CHEMISTRY : IA to VIIA , zero group elements , Polymers , Chemistry in every day life and
Environmental chemistry
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1. New cells are formed pre existing cells was 6. Galactans & mannans are present in/as
explained by (1) Reserve food in alga
(1) Matthias Scheleiden (2) Algal cell wall
(2) Theodore Schwann (3) Reserve food in bacteria
(3) Anton von Leeuwenhock (4) Bacterial cell wall
(4) Rudolf Virchow 7. What is the membrane bound organelle
2. The most abundant protein of a biological observed in cells actively involved in protein
synthesis?
world of located in
(1) Ribosome
(1) Cell wall of plants
(2) Centrosome
(2) Fluid stroma of chloroplast
(3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Cartilage, bones & ligaments
(4) Plasmosome
(4) Plasma membrane
8. Chromatin is chemically
3. Vesicles, tubules & lamellae in a prokaryotic
(1) Nucleo proteins
cell are components of
(2) Glyco proteins
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lipo proteins
(2) Golgi complex
(4) Secondary metabolities
(3) Mesosomes
9. All these biomolecules possess nitrogen
(4) Mitochondria
except
4. Pick the WRONG MATCH with regard to
(1) Lecithin
prokaryotic cell
(2) Cholesterol
(1) Cell envelope - Glycocalyx, Cell wall
(3) Adenine
& Plasma membrane
(4) Alanine
(2) Surface structures - Flagella, Cilia &
10. Match the following
Pseudopodia
List – I List – II
(3) Inclusion bodies - Phosphate granules, I) Infoldings of plasma
A) Cristae
cyanophyceae granules & Glycogen membrane in Bacteria
granules II) Disc-shaped sacs in
B) Cisternae
Golgi apparatus
(4) Flagellum - Filament, Hook & Basal
body III) Infolding in
C) Mesosomes
Mitochondria
5. Which is “NOT” by passive transport across IV) Flat membranous
D) Thylakoids
the membrane? sacs in stroma
(1) Neutral solutes (1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(2) Water (2) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

(3) Mineral ions (3) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

(4) Gases (4) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
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11. Which one among the following is a homo (2) Fibers
polymer? (3) Sclereids
(1) Glycogen (4) Cork
(2) DNA 18. Mature sieve tube element possess all except
(3) GLUT-4 (1) Nucleus
(4) Morphine (2) Sieve plate
12. Nucleic acid with catalytic power is (3) Vacuole
(1) Ribosome (4) Cytoplasm
(2) Hydrolases 19. All three types of simple tissues are present
(3) Lyases in the anatomy of
(4) Ribozyme (1) Dicot root
13. Which one exemplify a coenzyme ? (2) Monocot root
(1) Proteins (3) Dicot stem
(2) Minerals (4) Monocot stem
(3) Haem 20. Secondary cortex is observed in anatomy of
(4) NAD (1) Grasses
14. Syncytium is due to the absence of (2) Herbs
(1) Karyokinesis (3) Mosses
(2) Cytokinesis (4) Trees
(3) Free nuclear divisions 21. Which one of the following is NOT a disease
(4) DNA replication resistant variety of wheat?
15. Recombinase activity is seen during (1) Kalyan sona
(1) Prophase - I (2) Himgiri
(2) Metaphase - I (3) Sonalika
(3) Anaphase - I (4) Parbhani kranti
(4) Telophase - I 22. Hybrid protoplasts are formed during
16. Growth in dicots is contributed by all types (1) Hybridisation / crossing
of meristems except (2) Somatic hybridization
(1) Apical meristems (3) Mutation breeding
(2) Intercalary meristems (4) Plant introduction
(3) Lateral meristems 23. Viruses can be used as / in
(4) Secondary meristems (1) Biofertilizers
17. Gritty nature of pear, guava & sapota fruits is (2) Biogas plants
due to (3) Sewage treatment
(1) Collocytes (4) Bio control agents
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24. Activated sludge found in settling tank as a 30. A linear DNA segment with five target sites
sediment during sewage treatment represents for Hind II would yield _____ number of
fragments with both ends sticky
(1) Grit
(1) 6
(2) Flocs and organic impurities
(2) 4
(3) Biogas
(3) Zero
(4) Anaerobes
(4) 5
25. Yeast help in the production of all except
31. Ecological cycle directly dependent on light
(1) Curd
is
(2) Bread
(1) Sulphur cycle
(3) Statins
(2) Phosphorous cycle
(4) Wine
(3) Carbon cycle
26. Which among the following function as
(4) Nitrogen cycle
cellular defense mechanism in bacteria ?
32. VAM is
(1) Restriction enzymes
(1) Nitrogen fixing fungus
(2) Antibody production
(2) Biofertiliser fungus
(3) RNA interference
(3) Biocotrol bacterium
(4) PCR
(4) Biopesticide fungus
27. Breeding plants with high & improved levels
33. Genetically engineered rice is
of nutrients is named as
(1) Jaya
(1) Biomagnification
(2) Basmati
(2) Biofortification
(3) Golden rice
(3) Biopatency
(4) IR – 8
(4) Bioenergies
34. What is true regarding Cry protein ?
28. Blue white screening of transformed cells is
(1) It is produced by cry gene of bacillus
based on inactivation of
thurigenesis
(1) Antibiotics
(2) It is a insoluble inactive crystalline
(2) β - galactosidase enzyme protein with in bacteria
(3) Ori (3) It turn active in the gut of insects due to
(4) Ligase enzyme alkaline PH
29. Which of the following ecosystem service (4) All the above
would carry the heaviest price tag? 35. Biolistic gun is used for
(1) Nutrient cycling (1) Disarming pathogen vector
(2) Soil formation (2) Construction of rDNA
(3) Climate regulation (3) DNA fingerprinting
(4) Recreation (4) Transformation of plant cells
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36. EcoR1 is synthesized on 2) 51 GTCTTC 31
(1) 70 S ribosomes
3) 51 GAATTC 31
(2) 80 S ribosomes
4) 31 GAATTC 51
(3) DNA template
43. A single stranded DNA / RNA segment with
(4) Eukaryotic cell cytoplasm
radioactivity helpful in selection of desired
37. GEAC was established by
gene or transformed cells is
(1) India
(1) Plasmid
(2) USA
(2) Probe
(3) United nations
(3) Chimeric DNA
(4) WHO
(4) Donor gene
38. Transgenic rape seed (Brassica napus ) is
44. Flavr savr variety of tomato is
(1) Herbicide tolerant
(1) Bruise resistant
(2) Pest resistant
(2) Delayed ripening
(3) Male sterile
(3) Transgenic variety
(4) Early maturing
(4) All the above
39. Meloidogyne cause
45. Rennet is used in/as
(1) Root rot in cotton
(1) Sewage treatment
(2) Root knot in tobacco
(2) Cheese production
(3) Soft rot in potato
(3) Wine production
(4) Wilt in tomato
(4) Immuno suppressive agent
40. Cry protein crystals possess
46. Which of the following do not represent
(1) Toxic insecticidal properties
(2) Toxic bactericidal properties the mouthparts of cockroach?

(3) Anti viral properties (1) Mandibles

(4) Anti nematode properties (2) Antennae
41. Restriction enzymes, polymerase enzymes, (3) Maxillae
ligases, vectors and the host organisms are (4) Labrum and labium
called ___________ of recombinant DNA
47. Which of the following is not an
technology adaptation in Opuntia to conserve water?
1) Enzymes (1) Sunken stomata
2) Processes
(2) Scotoactive stomata
3) PCR
(3) C3 photosynthesis
4) Tools
(4) Modification of leaves into spines
42. EcoRI recognize the palindrome namely

1) 51 GTTTTC 31
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48. Which is the most species-rich taxon 53. Lichens represent an example of
among the following? (1) Commensalism
(1) Algae (2) Mutualism
(2) Angiosperms (3) Amensalism
(3) Mosses (4) Parasitism
(4) Ferns
54. How many biodiversity hotspots cover
49. Choose the correctly matched pair. our country’s exceptionally high
(1) Columnar epithelium – PCT of the biodiversity regions?
nephron (1) Two
(2) Ciliated epithelium – mucosa of the (2) Four
stomach (3) Three
(3) Compound epithelium – Bowman’s (4) Five
capsule
(4) Squamous epithelium – alveoli of 55. The mass of living material at a
the lungs particular time in a trophic level is called
the
50. Vertical distribution of different species (1) Standing state
occupying different levels is called
(2) Productivity
(1) Stratification
(3) Carrying capacity
(2) Succession
(4) Standing crop
(3) Trophic structure
(4) Productivity 56. Primary pollutants responsible for the
formation of acid rains are
51. To protect and improve the quality of (1) SO2 and NOX
environment, the Government of India
passed the Environment (Protection) Act (2) CO2 and CO
in the year (3) CO2 and NOX
(1) 1986 (4) SO2 and O3
(2) 1953
57. Select the incorrect statement from the
(3) 1923 ones given below with respect to
(4) 1968 Periplaneta americana.
(1) Blood from the pericardial sinus
52. Female cockroach can be distinguished enters the heart through the ostia.
from male cockroach by the presence of
(2) Mechanical digestion occurs only in
(1) Wings that extend beyond the tip of
the preoral cavity
abdomen
(3) Sclerites are joined to one another
(2) Anal styles
by arthrodial membrane.
(3) Boat-shaped 7th sternum in the
(4) The development is pauro-
abdomen
metabolous (through nymphal
(4) Anal cerci stages).

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58. In a growing population, 62. Degradation of ozone in stratosphere is
(1) Reproductive individuals are less catalyzed by
than the post-reproductive
individuals (1) Argon
(2) Pre-reproductive individuals are (2) Chlorine
less than the reproductive
(3) Hydrogen
individuals
(4) Sulphur
(3) Reproductive and pre-reproductive
individuals are equal in number 63. Which of the following is true about
(4) Pre-reproductive individuals are cockroach?
more than the reproductive
individuals (1) Ommatidia – 200
59. The blood–brain barrier protects the (2) Spiracles – 10 pairs
brain from circulating pathogens. Which (3) Ovarioles – 16 pairs
type of cell junctions between (4) Heart chambers – 10
endothelial cells restrict free movement
of substances from the blood into the 64. Select the correct statement about
brain? neuroglia.

(1) Gap junctions (1) They are the excitable cells of the
neural system.
(2) Desmosomes
(2) They cannot undergo mitosis.
(3) Tight junctions
(3) Action potentials swiftly travel
(4) Hemidesmosomes along their plasma membrane.
60. Which of the following IUCN red list (4) They make up more than one-half
categories are collectively described as the volume of neural tissue in our
‘Threatened’? body.

(1) Critically endangered, Endangered, 65. National reptile of India is

Near threatened (1) King cobra
(2) Vulnerable, Data deficient, Least (2) Indian gharial
concern
(3) Monitor lizard
(3) Extinct in the wild, Critically
endangered, Not evaluated (4) Leatherback turtle

(4) Critically endangered, Endangered, 66. The rate of formation of new organic
Vulnerable
matter by the consumers of an ecosystem
61. The term ecosystem was coined by is termed
(1) Ernst Haeckel
(1) Secondary productivity
(2) August Weismann
(2) Gross primary productivity
(3) Arthur Tansley
(3) Biotic potential
(4) Charles Elton
(4) Net primary productivity
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67. The increase in concentration of the 72. Which of the following is not a step
toxicant at successive trophic levels is involved in decomposition?
referred to as
(1) Immobilisation
(1) Eutrophication
(2) Fragmentation
(2) Bioremediation
(3) Biofortification (3) Catabolism

(4) Biomagnification (4) Humification

68. Major excretory organs of cockroach are 73. The United Nations climatic change
conference (COP-24) in the year 2018
(1) Hepatic caeca
was held in
(2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Utriculi majores (1) France

(4) Green glands (2) Morocco

(3) Germany
69. Which of the following is a correct match
of a type of tissue and its location? (4) Poland

(1) Transitional – Trachea 74. Select the correct statement about

epithelium cockroaches.
(2) Dense regular – Tendon (1) Prothoracic wings called tegmina
connective tissue cover the hind wings when at rest.
(3) Keratinized – Oesophagus (2) Yellow coloured filamentous
epithelium structures excrete urea through the
(4) Hyaline cartilage – Ear pinna hindgut.
(3) The haemolymph consists of
dN colourless haemocytes and coloured
70. In logistic growth curve, value is
dt plasma.
maximum during
(1) Acceleration phase (4) The nervous system consists of nine
ganglia joined by paired
(2) Asymptote
longitudinal connectives.
(3) Deceleration phase
(4) Lag phase 75. Oysters produce a
(1) Small number of large-sized
71. Which scientist proposed ‘Rivet popper
offspring
hypothesis’ related to biodiversity and
(2) Small number of small-sized
Ecosystems? offspring
(1) Alexander von Humboldt (3) Large number of large-sized
offspring
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(4) Large number of small-sized
(3) David Tilman offspring
(4) Arthur Tansley

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76. Threatened species are protected in their (3) Parasitism
natural habitat in (4) Mutualism
(1) Botanical gardens
82. Mass extinction of cichlid fishes in Lake
(2) Seed banks Victoria was due to
(3) Sacred groves
(1) Overexploitation
(4) Zoological parks
(2) Habitat degradation
77. Which ecosystem has the maximum (3) Alien species invasion
biomass?
(4) Environmental pollution
(1) Pond ecosystem
83. Each of the following occupy more than
(2) Forest ecosystem
one trophic level in the same ecosystem,
(3) Lake ecosystem except
(4) Grassland ecosystem (1) Cockroach
78. Which of the following is a secondary (2) Sparrow
pollutant in troposphere?
(3) Crow
(1) Carbon monoxide
(4) Deer
(2) Sulphur dioxide
84. World Ozone Day is
(3) Ozone
(1) 16th October
(4) Carbon dioxide
(2) 16th September
79. Smooth muscle fibres are
(3) 16th December
(1) Fusiform
(4) 16th November
(2) Striated
85. The egg case of cockroach is
(3) Voluntary
(4) Cylindrical (1) Ootheca
(2) Spermatheca
80. In male cockroach, sperms are stored in
(3) Ommatidium
(1) Spermathecae
(2) Mushroom-shaped gland (4) Spermatophore

(3) Genital pouch 86. Natality refers to

(4) Seminal vesicles (1) Number of individuals leaving a
81. Penicillin is an antibiotic that helps habitat
combat bacterial infections. The (2) Birth rate
interaction between Penicillium and the
(3) Number of individuals entering a
bacterium exemplifies
habitat
(1) Amensalism (4) Death rate
(2) Commensalism

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87. Gametes of threatened species are (2) 4N
preserved in viable and fertile condition
(3) 4 2N
for long periods using liquid nitrogen at
(4) 8N
a temperature of
92. The electric potential in a region is given by
(1) -800C V = (2x2 − 3y) volt where x and y are in
(2) -960C meters. The electric field intensity at a point
(0, 3m, 5m) is
(3) -1960C
(1) − 6 ˆi N/C
(4) -2730C
(2) 3 ˆj N/C
88. Which ecological pyramids are always
upright? (3) − 3 ˆj N/C

(1) Pyramids of numbers (4) Zero

(2) Pyramids of biomass 93. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency
(3) Pyramids of energy 50 MHz travels in free space along the
positive x-direction. At a particular point in
(4) All ecological pyramids
E = 6.3 ˆj V/m. The


space and time,
89. Van Mahotsav is a festival of

corresponding magnetic field B , at that point
(1) Planting trees in open areas will be
(2) Taking oath to protect trees (1) 18.9 ×10 −8 kT
ˆ

(3) Worshipping trees (2) 6.3 × 10−8 kT

ˆ
(4) Conservation of sacred groves (3) 2.1× 10−8 kT
ˆ
90. If a population growing exponentially (4) ˆ
18.9 × 108 kT
doubles in size in 4 years, what is the
intrinsic rate of increase (r) of the 94. The magnitude of electric field intensity at
population? ( log 10 e = 0.434 ) point ( 2,0,0 ) m due to a short dipole of


(1) 0.231 dipole moment, P = iˆ + 3 ˆj coulomb metre
kept with its centre at origin is _____
(2) 0.168
 1 
(3) 0.173 NC −1  Take =K
 4πεo 
(4) 0.184
K 13
(1)
91. A point charge + Q is placed at the centroid 8
of an equilateral triangle. When a second
charge + Q is placed at a vertex of the K 13
(2)
triangle, the magnitude of the electrostatic 4
force on the central charge is 8 N. The
K 7
magnitude of the net force on the central (3)
8
charge when a third charge + Q is placed at
another vertex of the triangle is K 7
(1) zero (4)
4

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10
95. A current loop, having two circular arcs
joined by two radial lines is shown in the
figure. It carries a current of 10 A. The
magnetic field at point O will be close to
98. In the given circuit all resistors are of R ohm
each. If an additional zero resistance wire is
connected between C and B, then the ratio of
equivalent resistance between AB of original
circuit to that of new circuit formed is

(1) 1
(2) 2
−5
(1) 1.0 ×10 T (3) 3
(2) 1.5 ×10−5 T (4) 12
(3) 1.0 ×10−7 T 99. A paramagnetic material has 1028 atoms/m3.
(4) 2 ×10−7 T Its magnetic susceptibility at temperature
96. Three concentric spherical metallic shells A, 350 K is 2.4 × 10−4 . Its susceptibility at 300
B and C of radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have K is:
charges Q, − 2Q and Q respectively. If the (1) 3.6 ×10−4
shells A and C are at the same potential,
(2) 2.8 × 10−4
correct relation between the radii a, b and c is
(3) 2.6 ×10 −4
_____
(4) 2.2 ×10 −4
2ac
(1) =b 100. In the circuit given below, the values of some
a+c
resistances are known and some are unknown
2ab
(2) =c as shown. Find the equivalent resistance
a+b
between points A and B
2c
(3) =b
a−c
(4) c = a+b
97. Number of identical 8 µF and 250V
capacitors required to make a combination of
16 µF and 1000 V are (1) 0.4Ω
(1) 32 (2) 0.6 Ω
(2) 8 (3) 0.8 Ω
(3) 4 (4) 1.2 Ω
(4) 2

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11
101. A non – viscous, incompressible costly fluid (4) R = 0.4 Ω
flows through a horizontal pipe of circular
104. A galvanometer is used to measure the
cross section. The initial diameter of the pipe
current delivered by a combination of two
is d1 , the pipe then shrinks to diameter
identical batteries each of 1.5V. When two
d 2 < d1 , expands to diameter d3 > d1 and cells are connected in series, the
then returns to its initial diameter d1 before galvanometer shown in figure (1) records a
exiting to the atmosphere. A thief wants to current of 1A. When the two cells are in
drill a small hole so that some fluid leaks out parallel, the current recorded by
of the pipe before the exit. He will be galvanometer shown in figure (2) is 0.6A.
successful if he drills the hole at What is the resistance of the galvanometer ?

G
figure (1)
(1) point A
(2) point B
(3) point C
(4) any point along the pipe G
102. A galvanometer, whose resistance is 50 ohm,
figure (2)
has 25 divisions in it. When a current of
(1) 1Ω
4 ×10−4 A passes through it, its needle
(pointer) deflects by one division. To use this 1
(2) Ω
galvanometer as a voltmeter of range 2.5 V, 2
it should be connected to a resistance of:
2
(1) 6250 ohm in series (3) Ω
3
(2) 250 ohm in parallel
7
(3) 200 ohm in series (4) Ω
3
(4) 6200 ohm in parallel
105. In a potentiometer experiment, experimental
103. In the given circuit the ammeter reading is cell used in secondary circuit is balanced
zero. What is the value of resistance R ? against 240cm length of potentiometer wire.
On shunting this experimental cell with a
resistance of 2Ω , the balancing length
becomes 120cm. The internal resistance of
the cell is
(1) 4 Ω
(1) R = 100 Ω
(2) 2Ω
(2) R = 10 Ω
(3) 1Ω
(3) R = 0.1Ω
(4) 0.5Ω
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12
106. A charged particle (charge q, mass m) has  −12 C
2

velocity Vo at origin in + X direction in a  Take ε 0 = 8.85 × 10 2 
 Nm 
region where a uniform magnetic field B
(1) 7.85 ×10−10 C
exists in – Z direction. Find the ‘Y’
coordinate of particle when it crosses Y axis (2) 6.85 ×10 −10 C
(1) 3mVo qB (3) 9.85 × 10−10 C
(4) 8.85 ×10 −10 C
(2) 2mVo qB
110. An ideal battery of 4V and resistance R are
(3) 3mVo 2qB connected in series in the primary circuit of a
potentiometer of length 1 m and resistance
(4) 4mVo qB 5 Ω . The value of R, to give a potential
107. The charge on a capacitor plate in a circuit, difference of 5mV across 10cm of
as a function of time, is shown in the figure: potentiometer wire, is
What is the value of current at t = 4 s ? (1) 490 Ω
(2) 480 Ω
(3) 395 Ω
(4) 495 Ω
111. For the circuit shown in figure, the direction
and magnitude of the force on the loop PQR
kept in uniform magnetic field is

(1) 3µ A
(2) 2µA
(3) zero
(4) 1.5 µ A
108. A non conducting disc of radius ‘R’ and
uniformly charged with charge ‘Q’ is rotating
about its axis with angular frequency ‘ ω ’.
(1) zero
Find the magnetic moment of the sphere
(2) ILB out of the page
QR 2ω
(1) 1
2 (3) ILB into the page
2
QR 2ω (4) ILB into the page
(2)
3 112. How much work will be done in increasing
QR 2ω the diameter of a soap bubble kept in air
(3) from 2cm to 5cm ? Surface tension of soap
4
QR 2ω solution is 3 × 10−2 Nm −1
(4)
8 (1) 2.96 × 10−4 J
109. A parallel plate capacitor with plates of area (2) 3.96 × 10−4 J
1m2 each, area at a separation of 0.1 m. If the (3) 4.96 × 10−4 J
electric field between the plates is 100 N/C,
the magnitude of charge each plate is
(4) 1.96 × 10−4 J
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13
113. Determine the electric dipole moment of the
system of three charges, placed on the
vertices of an equilateral triangle, as shown
in the figure:
116. In the figure shown a current I1 is
established in the long straight wire AB.
Another wire CD carrying current I 2 is
placed in the plane of the paper. The line
joining the ends of this wire is perpendicular
to the wire AB. The resultant force on the
wire CD is
B
+Y

I1 I2
(1) ( ql ) C D
+X

(2) 3ql A
(3) 2ql (1) zero
(4) 2ql (2) towards negative x - axis
114. A small conductor of length 2mm carrying a (3) towards positive y - axis
(4) towards negative y - axis
current of 2A is held parallel to an infinitely 117. Dimensional formula of coefficient of
long conductor carrying current of 10A at a viscosity ( η) of a fluid is ______
distance of 100 mm as shown. Find the force
(1)  MLT −1 
 
on small conductor −1 −1
(2)  ML T 
 
(3)  ML2 T −1 
 
−1 −1
(4)  ML T 
2A 10A  
118. In the experimental set up of metre bridge
shown in the figure, the null point is obtained
at a distance of 40 cm from A. If a 10 Ω
(1) 6 × 10−5 N resistor is connected in series with R1, the
(2) 8 × 10−8 N null point shifts by 10 cm. The resistance that
(3) 8 × 10−5 N should be connected in parallel with (R1 +
10) Ω such that the null point shifts back to
(4) 7 × 10−5 N
its initial position is
115. The length of an elastic string is a metre
when the longitudinal tension is 4N and b
metre when the longitudinal tension is 5N.
The length of the string in metre when the
longitudinal tension is 9 N is
(1) a −b
(2) 5b − 4a
(1) 40 Ω
1
(3) 2b − a (2) 60 Ω
4
(3) 20 Ω
(4) 4a − 3b
(4) 30 Ω
Sri Chaitanya Page
14
119. An emf of 1mV is induced in a coil when the (3) 3 weber
current in it changes steadily from 2A to 4A (4) 4 weber
in 0.1s. Find the self inductance of the coil
123. In the figure shown below, effective
(1) 60 µH
capacitance of system between A and B is
(2) 50 mH
(3) 44 µH
(4) 50 µH
120. A particle of mass m and charge q is in an (1) 2.5 µF
electric and magnetic field given by (2) 1.5 µF
E = 2iˆ + 3jˆ ; B = 4jˆ + 6kˆ . The charged particle (3) 0.5 µF



is shifted from the origin to the point P (x = (4) 0.25 µF

1; y = 1). The magnitude of the total work 124. The Wheatstone bridge shown in figure here,
done by both the fields together (consider all gets balanced when the carbon resistor used
values to be in S.I system) is as R1 has the colour code (Orange, Red,
(1) (0.35) q Brown). The resistors R2 and R4 are 80 Ω
(2) (0.15) q and 40 Ω , respectively. Assuming that the
(3) (2.5) q colour code for the carbon resistors gives
their accurate values, the colour code for the
(4) 5q carbon resistor, used as R3, would be:
121. A paramagnetic substance in the form of a
cube with sides 1cm has been induced a
magnetic dipole moment of 20 × 10−6 J/T
when a magnetizing field of intensity of
60 × 103 A/m is applied. Its magnetic
susceptibility is
(1) 2.3 ×10−2
(2) 3.3 ×10−2
(3) 3.3 ×10−4
(1) Red, Green, Brown
(4) 4.3 ×10−2
122. When magnetic flux through a coil is (2) Brown, Blue, Brown
changed, the variation is induced current in (3) Grey, Black, Brown
the coil with time is as shown in graph. If
(4) Brown, Blue, Black
resistance of coil is 10Ω , then the total
change in flux of coil will be 125. R.m.s. value of current i = 4sin ( ωt + π 3)

is
(1) 5A
(2) 2A
5
(3) A
(1) 1 weber 2
(2) 2 weber (4) 2 2A
Sri Chaitanya Page
15
126. The self induced emf of a coil is 25 volts. 1
(4)
When the current in it is changed at uniform 4
rate from 10 A to 25 A in 1s, the change in 131. The energy associated with electric field is
the energy of the inductance is: (UE) and with magnetic field is (UB) for an
(1) 437.5 J electromagnetic wave in free space. Then:
(2) 637.5 J U
(1) UE = B
(3) 740 J 2
(4) 540 J (2) UE < UB
127. A power transformer without any electric (3) UE = UB
energy loss is used to step up an alternating (4) UE > UB
emf of 220 volt to 11 kV to transmit 4.4 kW 132. Drift speed of electrons, when 1.6 A of
of power. If the primary coil has 1000 turns, current flows in a copper wire of cross
what is the current in the secondary ?
section 1mm 2 , is v. If the electron density in
(1) 4 A
(2) 0.4 A copper is 1028 /m3 the value of v in mm/s is
(3) 0.004 A close to (Take charge of electron to be
(4) 0.2 A = 1.6 ×10−19 C)
128. Lenz’s law is based on law of conservation (1) 1
of (2) 2
(1) charge (3) 3
(2) momentum (4) 4
(3) angular momentum 133. An alternating voltage of R.M.S voltage 250
(4) energy volt and w = 10 radian second , is applied in
129. A vessel contains oil (density an LCR series circuit where L = 0.4H,
3
= 0.8gm cm ) over mercury (density = C = 1 80 F and R = 3 Ω . The power
13.6 gm cm3 ). A homogeneous sphere supplied by the source is
floats with half its volume immersed in (1) 1000 W
mercury and the other half in oil. The density (2) 7500 W
(3) 3380 W
of the material of the sphere in gm cm 3 is
(4) 3000 W
(1) 3.3 134. A magnet is suspended so as to swing
(2) 6.4 horizontally makes 50 vibrations/min at a
(3) 7.2 place where dip is 300, and 40 vibrations /
(4) 12.8 min where dip is 450. Compare the earth’s
130. A wire of length L and radius r is rigidly total fields at the two places
fixed at one end. On stretching the other end 25
of the wire with a force F, the increase in its (1)
8 6
length is l. If another wire of same material
but of length 2L and radius 2r is stretched 15
(2)
with a force of 2F, the increase in its length 4 2
will be 20
(1) l (3)
2 4
(2) 2l
15
l (4)
(3) 6 2
2
Sri Chaitanya Page
16
135. Out of the following options which one can 140. Incorrect statement among the following is
be used to produce a propagating (1) Deficiency of Vitamin B2 leads to
electromagnetic wave?
Cheilosis
(1) A charge moving at constant velocity
(2) Deficiency of Vitamin E leads to
(2) A stationary charge
Neurosis of heart muscles
(3) A chargeless particle
(3) Deficiency of vitamin C leads to Beri
(4) An accelerating charge
beri
136. Which of the following statement is not
correct ? (4) Deficiency of vitamin K causes
(1) proteins are polyamides formed from Lengthening time of blood clotting
amino acids
141. Which among the following is incorrect
(2) except glycine, all other amino acids
statement?
show optical activity
(1) The mixture of chloroxylenol and
(3) Histidine contains heterocyclic ring in
its structure alpha-terpineol is called Dettol
(4) Argenine is an acidic amino acid (2) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide is a
137. Mark the wrong statement about denaturation cationic detergent
of proteins (3) The order of sweetness is : Alitame >
(1) The primary structure of the protein Sucralose > Saccharin > Aspartame
does not change
(2) Globular proteins are converted into (4) Iproniazid acts as antacid
fibrous proteins 142. The reagent that indicates the presence of
(3) The secondary and tertiary structures carbonyl group in glucose is
are affected (1) HI
(4) Coagulation of egg white on boiling is (2) NH 2OH
an example reversible denaturation
(3) ( CH 3CO )2 O
138. Synthesis of identical copies of DNA is
(4) Conc.HNO3
called
143. Which one of the following sets forms the
(1) transcription biodegradable polymer?
(2) replication (1) CH 2 = CH − CN and CH 2 = CH − CH = CH 2
(3) translation (2) H 2 N − CH 2 − COOH and H 2 N − ( CH 2 )5 − COOH

(4) reverse transcription (3) HO-CH 2 -CH 2 -OH and p-HOOC-C6H4-

139. If the amino group of glycine and carboxylic COOH
acid group of alanine undergo elimination of (4) C6H5-CH=CH2 & H2C=CH-CH=CH2
water molecule, the name of the compound 144. Which of the following is not a condensation
thus formed is polymer?
(1) Alanylglycine(dipeptide)
(1) Nylon-6
(2) Glycyl alanine(tri peptide)
(2) Dacron
(3) Glycyl alanine(dipeptide)
(3) Teflon
(4) Alanineglycine(dipeptide)
(4) Bakelite
Sri Chaitanya Page
17
145. High Density Poly ethylene (HDPE) is 151. Which of the following tests cannot be used
formed when addition polymerization of to identify amino acids?
ethylene takes place in hydrocarbon solvent (1) Biuret test
in the presence of a catalyst ‘X’ at 335K at 7 (2) Xanthoprotein test
atm. Then ‘X’ is:
(3) Barfoed test
(1) O2
(4) Ninhydrin test
(2) (C2H5)3Al + TiCl4
152. The homo polymer formed 4-
(3) R-Li
hydroxybutanoic acid is:
(4) Nylon-2 Nylon-6 (1) (-OC (CH2)3-O-)n
146. Tajmahal is being slowly disfigured and (2) (-OOC (CH2)3-O-)n
discolored. This is primarily due to:
(3) (-OC (CH2)2-COO-)n
(1) Water pollution
(4) (-OC (CH2)2-CO-)n
(2) Global warming
153. The correct match between item I and item II
(3) Soil pollution
is:
(4) Acid rain Item-I Item-II
147. The higher concentration of which gas in air Molecule binding
Allosteric
can cause stiffness of flower buds? (A) (P) to the active site of
effect
(1) SO2 enzyme
(2) NO2 Molecule crucial
Competitive
(B) (Q) for communication
(3) CO2 inhibitor
in the body
(4) CO Molecule binding
148. The two monomers for the synthesis Nylon- to a site other than
(C) Receptor (R)
6, 6 are the active site of
(1) HOOC (CH2)6COOH & H2N(CH2)6NH2 enzyme
(2) HOOC (CH2)4COOH & H2N(CH2)4NH2 Molecule binding
(D) Poison (S) to the enzyme
(3) HOOC (CH2)6COOH & H2N(CH2)4NH2 covalently
(4) HOOC (CH2)4COOH & H2N(CH2)6NH2 (1) (A) → (P) ; (B)→ ( R) ; (C ) → (S) ;
149. Water samples with BOD values of 1ppm (D) →(Q)
and 18ppm respectively are: (2) (A) → (R) ; (B)→ ( P) ; (C ) → (S) ;
(1) Highly polluted and clean (D) →(Q)
(3) (A) → (P) ; (B)→ ( R) ; (C ) → (Q) ;
(2) Highly polluted and highly polluted
(D) →(S)
(3) Clean and highly polluted (4) (A) → (R) ; (B)→ ( P) ; (C ) → (Q) ;
(4) Clean and Clean (D) →(S)
154. I2O5 is used in the estimation of ‘X’.
150. The compound that is not a common
Regarding X correct statement is
component of photochemical smog is:
(1) It is a Lewis acid
(1) O3
(2) CH2=CHCHO (2) It is a π acceptor ligand
(3) CF2Cl2 (3) It is a contaminant
(4) H3C – CO –OONO2
(4) It is highly soluble in water
Sri Chaitanya Page
18
155. 3B2 H 6 + 6NH 3  heat
→ X  → Y + 12H 2 (2) (2, 4) and (2, 4)
X and Y respectively are (3) (4, 2) and (2, 4)
(1) 3 B3N3H6 and 2 B2H6. 2NH3 (4) (4, 2) and (4, 2)
(2) 3 [BH2 (NH3)2]+ [BH4]- and 2 B3N3H6
162. Which of the following hydride is least
(3) 3 B3N3H6 and 2 [BH2 (NH3)2]+ [BH4]-
volatile?
(4) 3 B2H6. 2NH3 and 2 BNH2
(1) H2S
156. Oxidation of sulphur by conc. H2SO4 is an
example of (2) H2Te
(1) Disproportionation step (3) H2O
(2) Double displacement reaction
(4) H2Se
(3) Chemical combination type of redox
reaction 163. The alkali metal with the lowest density is
(4) Comproportionation reaction (1) Li
157. Among the following hydroxides given (2) Na
which has lowest PKb at a given temperature (3) K
(1) B (OH)3
(4) Cs
(2) Al (OH)3
164. The ∆ H of values of graphite, diamond and
(3) In (OH)3
fullerene (C60)
(4) Tl OH (1) Graphite > diamond > fullerene (C60)
158. Which of the following is not a hydrolysis (2) Diamond > graphite > fullerene (C60)
product of XeF6?
(1) XeO4 (3) Graphite = graphite = fullerene (C60)

(2) XeO3 (4) Fullerene (C60) > diamond > graphite

(3) XeOF4 165. Which fluoride is isostructural with ICl−2

(4) XeO2F2 (1) XeF4
159. Among alkaline earth metals strongest (2) XeF6
reducing agent is:
(1) Beryllium (3) XeF2
(2) Barium
(4) XeF63−
(3) Calcium
(4) Strontium 166. Borax bead test is not given by
160. NH 3 reacts with excess of Cl 2 to produce (1) a nickel salt
(1) N 2 + NH 4Cl (2) a cobalt salt

(2) NCl3 + HCl (3) a copper salt

(4) an aluminium salt
(3) N 2 + NCl3
167. The thermally more stable hydroxide is
(4) N 2 + HCl (1) Ca(OH)2
161. The number of S = O and S - OH bonds (2) Mg(OH)2
present in peroxosulphuric acid and (3) Ba(OH)2
pyrosulphuric acid respectively are
(4) Sr(OH)2
(1) (2, 2) and (2, 2)
Sri Chaitanya Page
19
168. The incorrect statement regarding ozone (2) Oxidising, complexing
(1) The central oxygen atom is SP2 (3) Reducing, complexing
hybridized (4) Reducing, oxidizing
(2) The two O - O bond lengths in O3 are 175. Cyclic trimetaphosphoric acid is
equal due to resonance (1) ( HPO3 )3 and contain 9σ bonds
(3) With BaO2 it reacts to produce H2O2
(2) H 3P3O6 and contain 12σ bonds
(4) It causes tailing of Hg
169. Which of the following is distinctly acidic (3) ( HPO3 )3 and contain 15 σ bonds
(1) CO (4) H 3P3O9 and contain 18 σ bonds
(2) GeO
176. Which of the following has most negative
(3) SnO
(4) PbO ∆ H of value
170. Among the following molecules (1) LiF
i) XeO3 ii) XeOF4 iii) XeF6 (2) NaF
(3) KF
Those having same number of lone pairs on
Xe are (4) RbF
(1) i and ii only 177. The volume of colourless gas released at STP
when one mole of Lithium nitrate is heated
(2) i and iii only (1) 22.4 lit
(3) ii and iii only (2) 5.6 lit
(4) i, ii and iii (3) 28 lit
171. Which of the following statement is wrong ? (4) 11.2 lit
(1) Nitrogen cannot form dπ − d π bond
178. The halide of beryllium which is more
(2) Hypophosphorous acid is diprotic acid
soluble in water is
(3) Single N – N bond is weaker than
(1) BeI2
single P – P bond
(2) BeBr2
(4) N 2O 4 exhibits resonance
(3) BeCl2
172. (4) BeF2
873K, 7 bar hydrolysis
Xe + F2  → A  → X + Y + HF + O 2 179. When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it
Here X and Y formed are produces ?
(1) Xe and XeO3 (1) Cu ( NO3 )2 and N 2O
(2) XeO3 and XeO 4 (2) Cu ( NO3 )2 and NO 2
(3) Xe and XeF2 (3) Cu ( NO3 )2 and NO
(4) Xe and XeO 4
(4) Cu ( NO3 )2 , NO and NO 2
173. The physical state of SF4 , SeF4 and TeF4 is
180. XeF6 + KF 
→ A . In this reaction ‘A’ is
(1)gas, solid, solid
−
(2)gas, liquid, solid (1) K + [ XeF5 ]
(3)gas, gas, gas −
(4)gas, liquid, liquid (2) K + [ XeF7 ]
−
174. SO 2 acts as ________ agent and TeO 2 acts (3) K + [ XeF3 ]
−
as ________ agent
(4) K + [ XeF6 ]
(1) Oxidising, oxidizing

Sri Chaitanya Page

20
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI
SR ELITE, SR AIIMS S60 & SR NEET MPL NEET PART TEST – 4 KEY Date : 22-01-20

BOTANY

1) 4 2) 2 3) 3 4) 2 5) 3 6) 2 7) 3 8) 1 9) 2 10) 4

11) 1 12) 4 13) 4 14) 2 15) 1 16) 2 17) 3 18) 1 19) 3 20) 4

21) 4 22) 2 23) 4 24) 2 25) 1 26) 1 27) 2 28) 2 29) 2 30) 3

31) 3 32) 2 33) 3 34) 4 35) 4 36) 1 37) 1 38) 3 39) 2 40) 1

41) 4 42) 3 43) 2 44) 4 45) 2

ZOOLOGY

46) 2 47) 3 48) 2 49) 4 50) 1 51) 1 52) 3 53) 2 54) 3 55) 4

56) 1 57) 2 58) 4 59) 3 60) 4 61) 3 62) 2 63) 2 64) 4 65) 1

66) 1 67) 4 68) 2 69) 2 70) 1 71) 2 72) 1 73) 4 74) 4 75) 4

76) 3 77) 2 78) 3 79) 1 80) 4 81) 1 82) 3 83) 4 84) 2 85) 1

86) 2 87) 3 88) 3 89) 1 90) 3

PHYSICS

91) 4 92) 2 93) 3 94) 3 95) 1 96) 1 97) 1 98) 3 99) 2 100) 3

101) 3 102) 3 103) 1 104) 4 105) 2 106) 2 107) 3 108) 3 109) 4 110) 3

111) 1 112) 2 113) 2 114) 2 115) 2 116) 4 117) 2 118) 2 119) 4 120) 4

121) 3 122) 2 123) 1 124) 2 125) 4 126) 1 127) 2 128) 4 129) 3 130) 1

131) 3 132) 1 133) 2 134) 1 135) 4

CHEMISTRY
136) 4 137) 4 138) 2 139) 1 140) 3 141) 4 142) 2 143) 2 144) 3 145) 2

146) 4 147) 1 148) 4 149) 3 150) 3 151) 3 152) 1 153) 4 154) 2 155) 2

156) 4 157) 4 158) 1 159) 2 160) 2 161) 4 162) 3 163) 1 164) 4 165) 3

166) 4 167) 3 168) 3 169) 2 170) 4 171) 2 172) 1 173) 2 174) 4 175) 3

176) 1 177) 2 178) 4 179) 2 180) 2

 SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS
91. Case – (1)

+Q
r

+Q

1 Q2
= 8N
4πε o r 2
Case – (2)

8N
8N

r r
+Q +Q

FNet on central charge = 82 + 82 + 2 ( 8 )( 8 ) cos120°

= 8N
−∂V
92. EX = = −4 x
∂X
∂V
EY = − = +3
∂Y


E = E X iˆ + EY ˆj = −4 xiˆ + 3 ˆj = 3 ˆj N C
E 6.3
93. B= = = 2.1× 10−8 T
C 3 × 108

E × B = C ⇒ B acts along + Z axis

B = 2.1 × 10−8 T Kˆ
94. The dipole moment makes an angle 60° with X – axis and lies in X – Y plane as shown in figure
The electric field at point A due to dipole is
 +y

θ = 60°
+x
r ( 2,0,0)

kP
E= 1 + 3cos 2 θ where θ = 60°
r3
7K
∴E =
8
µo I  1 1 
95. B= θ  −  ≃ 10−5 T
4π  r1 r2 
96.
C
B
A
+Q
−2Q a
+Q b
c

VNet of A = VNet of C

1  Q 2Q Q  1  Q − 2Q + Q 
 a − + =
4πε o b C  4πεo  C 

1  Q 2Q Q 
4πε o  a − b + C  = 0

 1 1  2Q
⇒ Q +  =
a c b
2ac
⇒b=
a+c
Veff 1000V
97. N = Number of capacitors in series in each row = = =4
Veach 250V
Ceach 8µF
Effective capacitance of each row = = = 2µF
N 4
 ( )
Net capacitance of system = Ceff of each row m where m = Number of identical rows in parallel

16 = (2)m
⇒m=8
Total number of capacitors = mn = 32
98. Case – (1)

A R R R R R B

⇒ R eff (1) = R

Case – (2)

R C R D R R R
A B

R
R
≡
C, B
A, D, E
R

R
R eff ( 2 ) =
3
1
99. Magnetic susceptibility (s) ∝
TK
100. From the circuit it can be concluded that
VA − VB = 2 × 1 + 2 × 1 = 4 volt
R eq = 4 5 = 0.8 Ω
101. At ‘B’, C.S.A of pipe is less, velocity of fluid (V) is more and pressure (P) is less. Since pressure at
( PB ) is less than atmospheric pressure, fluid does not come out of hole

At ‘C’, pressure of fluid ( PC ) is more than atmospheric pressure, through hole at C fluid comes out

102. I g for full scale deflection = 4 × 10−4 × 25 = 10−2 A

V = I g (G + R )

2.5 = 10−2 ( 50 + R )
 R = 200 Ω in series
103. Vacross R = 2V

Ialong R R = 2

 12 
 R = 2
 500 + R 
104. Case – (1)
3
1= ⇒ 2r + G = 3 ---- (1)
2r + G
Case – (2)
1.5 r
0.6 = ⇒ + G = 2.5 ---- (2)
r 2+G 2

 P1 − P2 
105. r = R  
 P2 
 mVo 
106. Y = 2r = 2  
 Bq 
dQ
107. I = and charge (Q) is constant at t = 4s
dt
M Q Q
108. = ⇒M = ( L)
L 2m 2m
Q Q  mR 2 
= ( I ω) =  ω
2m 2m  2 
ε Q
109. E = =
εo Aεo
110.
R

1m1 5Ω

4
I=
R+5
Vacross10cm length of wire = IR of 10cm length of wire
 4
5 × 10−3 = ( 0.5 )
R+5
⇒ R = 395 Ω
111. Magnetic force experienced by current carrying loop kept in uniform magnetic field is always zero

(
112. W = T 8πR22 − 8πR12 )
P1 = ql P2 = ql
60°
113. PNet = ql 3
µ o I1I 2 L
114. F =
2πr
115. Using Hooke’s law, F = Kx we can write
4 = k ( a − ℓ o ) …. (i)

and 5 = k ( b − ℓ o ) …. (ii)

If ℓ be the length under tension 9N, then

9 = k ( ℓ − ℓ o ) …. (iii)
After solving above equations, we get
ℓ = ( 5b − 4a )
116. Using F.L.H.R, force on CD is along − y axis
∆V
117. FV = ηA
∆x
LT −1
MLT −2 = ηL2
L
−1 −1
η =  ML T 
R 40 2
118. 1 = =
R2 60 3
R1 + 10 50
=
R2 50
⇒ R1 + 10 = R2
3R1
R1 + 10 =
2
R1 = 20 Ω and R2 = 30 Ω
Now in case (3)

 30 R 
 
 30 + R  = 2 ⇒ R = 60 Ω
30 3
 dI
119. e = L
dt
120. Wdone by both fields = Wdone by electric field (Since Wdone by magnetic field on the charged
particle is zero)
= Fel . d

( )(
= q 2iˆ + 3 ˆj . iˆ + j )
= q ( 2 + 3)
= 5q
M 20 × 10−6 A
121. I = = = 20
V 10−6 m
I = SH
(
20 = S 60 × 103 )
1
S = × 10−3 = 3.3 × 10−4
3
∆φ
122. q = = Area of I – t graph
R
1 1 1 1
123. = + + = Cs = 2.5 µF
Cs 10 10 5
124. R1 = 320 Ω
R1 R3
= ⇒ R3 = 160 Ω = 16 × 101 Ω = Brown, blue, brown
R2 R4
Io
125. I RMS =
2
dI
126. L =e
dt

L
(15 ) = 25
1
5
L= H
3
1
(
∆U = L I 22 − I12 = 437.5 J
2
)
127. Ps = I s Es

(
4400 = I s 11 × 103 )
I s = 0.4 A
128. Lenz’s law is based on law of conservation of energy
129. Let density of material of sphere (in g cm3 ) be ρ
Applying the condition of floatation, Weight = Upthust
 V V ρ ρHg
(or) V ρg = ρoil g + ρH Hg g (or) ρ = oil +
2 2 2 2
0.8 13.6
= + = 7.2 g cm3
2 2
F. L 2F × ( 2L )
130. Increase in length of the wire ℓ = 2 and ℓ = =ℓ
1
πr y π ( 2r ) Y
2

131. U E = U B

132. I = ηAeVd
I 1.6
Vd = = 28 −6
(
ηAe 10 10 1.6 × 10−19 )
= 10−3 ms −1
133. R = 3 Ω
X L = ωL = 4 Ω
1
XC = = 8Ω
ωC
R2 + ( X C − X L ) = 5 Ω
2

R 3
cos φ = =
Z 5
Average power supplied = I RMSE RMS cos φ
250 3
= 250
5 5
= 7500 watt
134. N ∝ BH

N ∝ B cos θ
N1 B1 cos θ1
=
N2 B2 cos θ2

50 B1 cos30°
=
40 B2 cos 45°

25 B1 B
=
16 B2 2
B1 25
=
B2 8 6
135. Electromagnetic waves are produced by accelerating of deceleration charges