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25 of 65
Which of the following generally
decreases the aqueous solubility of
a compound?
A) Changing a straight-chain alkyl
group to a branched-chain alkyl
group
B) Preparing a chemical derivative
or analog that has a lower melting
point
C) Converting an acid to its salt
D) Converting a salt form of a
drug to its free base
29 of 65
Contamination of nonsterile
ophthalmic solutions is most
commonly by:
A) Staphylococcus.
B) Streptococcus.
C) Candida.
D) Bacillus.
30 of 65
What two structures are connected
by the eustachian tube?
A) Cochlea and auditory nerve
B) Eardrum and ossicles
C) External ear and tympanic
membrane
D) Middle ear and nasopharynx
31 of 65
An abdominal infection caused by
Bacteroides fragilis would be
treated most
effectively by:
A) amoxicillin.
B) aztreonam.
C) clindamycin.
D) ciprofloxacin.
35 of 65
Medicare is a program that is
sponsored and administered by:
A) the federal government to
provide health care for poor
people.
B) state governments to provide
health care for poor people.
C) the federal government to
provide health care for elderly
people.
D) state governments to provide
health care for elderly people.
36 of 65
An economic market that has one
seller and many buyers is referred
to as:
A) a pure monopoly.
B) pure competition.
C) monopolistic competition.
D) oligopolistic competition.
37 of 65
Which of the following has
occurred in the United States due
to the increasing
number of physicians?
A) Physicians' salary growth has
decreased.
B) Pharmacists' salary growth has
increased.
C) The length of patients'
hospital stay has increased.
D) Enrollment in medical schools
has increased.
38 of 65
A patient taking a bulk-forming
laxative should NOT be told:
A) to drink plenty of fluids.
B) to mix the product with fluid
before ingestion.
C) to consult a physician if
constipation persists for more than
1 week.
D) that the product will produce a
bowel movement within 4 to 6
hours.
39 of 65
Urinary tract infections among
incontinent patients are best
prevented by:
A) administering urinary tract
analgesics.
B) changing IV catheters a
minimum of every 48 hours.
C) administering an oral
antibiotic such as penicillin G.
D) limiting the time an indwelling
bladder catheter is in place.
40 of 65
A preparation for a Schedule III
substance is written March 15 and
dispensed April
30. Authorized refills are NOT
permitted after:
A) June 14.
B) June 29.
C) September 14.
D) September 29.
41 of 65
42 of 65
Epidemiology studies show that
first degree relatives of a patient
with breast
cancer have a two to three-fold
increase in risk of cancer in
comparison to the
general population. The risk ratio
for these relatives compared to
non-relatives
is therefore:
A) 1/2 to 1/3.
B) 2 to 3.
C) 7 to 8.
D) 200 to 300.
44 of 65
Patients' perceptions of illness and
their reactions to it are most
influenced by
their:
A) cultural background.
B) pharmacist.
C) physician.
D) insurance plan.
45 of 65
A true statement regarding the
effectiveness of dialysis in
removing a drug from
systemic circulation is:
A) low molecular weight
compounds are more readily
dialyzed.
B) high molecular weight
compounds are more readily
dialyzed.
C) compounds with large volumes
of distribution are more readily
dialyzed.
D) highly lipid-soluble drugs are
more readily dialyzed.
46 of 65
Which of the following groups of
US health professionals has
reportedly suffered
from decreased patient demand
due to its emphasis on preventive
care?
A) Dentists
B) Optometrists
C) Pharmacists
D) Physicians
47 of 65
The major complication of 131I
therapy in the treatment of Graves'
disease is:
A) radiation thyroiditis.
B) thyroid scan.
C) malignancy.
D) hypothyroidism.
48 of 65
Cystitis is diagnosed in a 24-year-
old woman in the thirty-first week
of
pregnancy. She has no known
drug allergies. The pharmacist can
appropriately
recommend treatment with:
A) co-trimoxazole DS, i bid for 10
days.
B) tetracycline, 250 mg, qid for 3
days.
C) amoxicillin, 250 mg, tid for
10 days.
D) ciprofloxacin, 250 mg, bid for
10 days.
49 of 65
The largest segment of total
health-care expenditures is for:
A) medications.
B) hospital care.
C) nursing home care.
D) physician services.
50 of 65
Which of the following statements
best represents medical
information obtained
over the Internet?
A) The Food and Drug
Administration regulates all drug
information found on the
Internet
B) The Internet hosts a large
number of high-quality medical
resources; however,
the quality of information from
some sites is questionable
C) Consumers seldom use the
Internet to find medical
information
D) All medical information
available on the Internet is current
and well
documented
51 of 65
Which of the following solutions
would provide the most
concentrated source of
calories?
A) 20% fat emulsion
B) 70% dextrose
C) 20% dextrose + 10% amino
acids
D) 25% dextrose + 4.25% amino
acids
52 of 65
Ingestion of petroleum distillates
commonly results in:
A) chemical pneumonitis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) hepatic failure.
D) hallucinations.
53 of 65
The immunosuppression caused
by cyclosporin therapy is
increased by a drug
interaction with:
A) ketoconazole.
B) rifampin.
C) ibuprofen.
D) lbuterol.
54 of 65
The inflammatory response,
characterized by pain, swelling,
and erythema, is due
primarily to the chemotaxis and
migration of:
A) platelets.
B) neutrophils.
C) red blood cells.
D) T lymphocytes.
55 of 65
The current laboratory test of
choice for monitoring the effect of
warfarin is:
A) international normalized
ratio (INR).
B) partial thromboplastin time
(PTT).
C) prothrombin time (PT).
D) whole blood clotting time.
56 of 65
Which of the following formulas
best describes how third parties
reimburse
pharmacies for prescription drug
products?
A) 100% of Actual Acquisition
Cost (AAC)
B) 100% of Average Wholesale
Price (AWP)
C) AAC + a pre-determined
percentage of AAC
D) AWP - a pre-determined
percentage of AWP
57 of 65
Which of the following factors is
NOT a basic component of the
marketing mix?
A) Place
B) Price
C) Promotion
D) Performance
58 of 65
Health-related quality of life is
what type of outcome?
A) Operational
B) Humanistic
C) Economic
D) Clinical
59 of 65
Which of the following infections
becomes LESS common as
children age into
adolescence?
A) Otitis media
B) Vertebral osteomyelitis
C) Meningococcal meningitis
D) Bacterial endocarditis
60 of 65
Two antiepileptic drugs are
compared during a 6-month
period. Frequency of
premedication seizures in the two
patient groups are normally
distributed and have
equal variances. What statistical
test is appropriate for comparing
seizure
frequency in the 2 groups? (No
other extraneous variables are to
be analyzed.)
A) Student's t-test
B) Chi-square test
C) Mann Whitney U-test
D) Wilcoxon rank sum test
61 of 65
The earliest sign of congestive
heart failure is:
A) dyspnea.
B) hypertrophy.
C) angina pectoris.
D) myocardial infarction.
62 of 65
Which of the following may be
useful as a marker of
malnutrition?
A) a1-Acid glycoprotein
B) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C) C-reactive protein
D) Serum albumin
63 of 65
A patient known to have coronary
artery disease suffers the onset of
chest pain
while he is resting. This type of
angina is described as:
A) chronic.
B) sedentary.
C) variant.
D) unstable.
64 of 65
The clear delineation of
hypotheses is most important at
what point in a research
project?
A) Before data collection begins
B) While data is being collected
C) After data is collected
D) After summary data is
collected
Which of the following
Cytochrome P450 isozymes is
responsible for the bulk of phase I
metabolism?
CYP1A2
CYP2C9
CYP2D6
CYP3A4
CYP51
A. Flumazenil
B. Methylene blue
C. Deferoxamine
D. Alkalinize urine
A. Naloxone
B. Nitrite
C. CaEDTA
D. Dialysis
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Blood
D. Heart
A. Gastritis
B. Peptic Ulcers
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. Thalamus hypertrophy
A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide
6. Which of the following drugs is
associated with the reaction of hepatitis?
A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide
A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide
A. Digitalis
B. Niacin
C. Tetracycline
D. Fluoroquinolones
A. H
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist
A. H
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist
A. Antidepressant
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Beta antagonist
D. H2 antagonist
A. Digitalis
B. Niacin
C. Tetracycline
D. Fluoroquinolones
A. Cataracts
B. Hypotension
C. Psychosis
D. Acne
A. CHF
B. Tachycardia
C. AV block
D. Sedative appearance
A. Mexiletine
B. Aminodarone
C. Quinidine
D. Procainamide
A. Propafenone
B. Disopyramide
C. Aminodarone
D. Quinidine
A. Headaches
B. Tachycardia
C. Dizziness
D. Projectile vomiting
A. Nausea
B. Renal dysfunction
C. Anemia
D. Muscle wasting