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Q1.

Which is a branch from trunk of brachial


plexus ?
1. SupraScapular Nerve
2. Long Thoracic Nerve
3. Axillary Nerve
4. Nerve to Subclavius Muscle

Answer 1. SUPRASCAPULAR NERVE

Q2. Autorikshaw run over an 8-year-old, tyre


mark over leg is called?
A. Patterned bruise
B. Imprint abrasion
C. Contusion
D. Pressure bruise
References : Given below

Answer is B Imprint abrasion

Krishan Vij ,Text Book of Forensic Medicine


and Toxicology, Principles and Practice, 2008,
4thEdn, Pages 282-283.
Pressure Abrasions (Crushing Abrasions /
Imprint Abrasions): When the impact is
vertical to the skin surface, the epidermis
gets crushed and pressure type of abrasions
result and the imprint of the impacting object
may be produced. These may be seen in
manual strangulation (abrasions produced by
fingernails) and in hanging, where the weave
of the ligature material may be reproduced.
Patterned Abrasions: Patterned abrasions
occur when the force is applied at or around
right angle to the surface of skin, as already
mentioned……The classical example of this is
seen in traffic accidents when tyre of a motor
car passes over the skin leaving the pattern
when the skin has been squeezed into the
grooves of the rubber tread.
Reddy.K.S.N,The Essentials of Forensic
Medicine and Toxicology, 2006, 25th Edn,
Pages 156-157.
Patterned bruising is also seen in motor car
accidents.
Answer: Imprint Abrasion is to be preferred
as most appropriate alternate to Patterned
Bruise, since,
1. Imprint abrasion and patterned abrasion
are the same.
2. Patterned abrasion (imprint abrasion) is
the classical example of tyre mark
3. Tyre will produce patterned bruise usually,
if in association with abrasions

Q3. Mineralocorticoid receptors are present in


all except ( REPEAT )

1) Hippocampus
2) Brain
3) Liver
4) Kidney

Answer 3) Liver

Q4. Which is not autoimmune disease?

1. SLE
2. Grave’s Disease
3. Myasthenia Gravis
4. Sickle Cell Disease

Answer 4. Sickle Cell Disease

Q5. A 40 year female underwent surgery.


Post operatively she told the anaesthetist
that she was aware of per-operative agents.
Individual intraoperative awareness is
evaluated by

1. Bispectral Index
2.

Answer 1. Bispectral Index

Bispectral index (BIS) is one of several


recently developed technologies which
purport to monitor depth of anesthesia. BIS
monitors can replace or supplement Guedel's
classification system for determining depth of
anesthesia. Titrating anesthetic agents to a
specific bispectral index during general
anesthesia in adults (and children over 1 year
old) allows the anesthetist to adjust the
amount of anesthetic agent to the needs of
the patient, possibly resulting in a more rapid
emergence from anesthesia. Use of the BIS
monitor may reduce the incidence of
intraoperative awareness in high risk
procedures or patients[1] and may also have
a role in predicting recovery from severe
brain injury
Q6. Most common cause of death in
schizophrenia patient
1. Homicide
2. Depression
3. Suicide
4. Due to Antipsychotic side effects

Answer C ) Suicide

Q7. All are pneumatic bones except


1) Frontal
2) Mandible
3) Ethmoidal
4) Mastoid

Answer 2 ) Mandible

Q8. Clue Cells are found in


A) Candida
B) Bacterial Vaginosis
C) Trichomonas Vaginalis
D) Chlamydial infection

B) Bacterial Vaginosis

Q9. Nerve involved in supracondylar fracture

1. Radial nerve
2. Median nerve
3. Ulnar nerve
4. Ant int nerve

Ans- AIIMS CONTROVERSIAL QUESTION

Q11. Punett Square is used for


1. Genotype
2. Collecting datas in one group
3.
4.

1. Genotype
The Punnett square is a diagram that is used
to predict an outcome of a particular cross or
breeding experiment. It is named after
Reginald C. Punnett, who devised the
approach, and is used by biologists to
determine the probability of an offspring
having a particular genotype.

Q12. A teenage girl complaints of pain over


the knee. The pain increase while starting to
stand from sitting position and while walking
upstairs. What is the likely diagnosis?

1. Chondromalacia of patella
2. Patellar Fracture
3. Torn Meniscus
4. Bipartite Patella

Answer ) 1. Chondromalacia of patella


Chondromalacia patellae means "soft
cartilage under the knee cap," a presumed
cause of pain at the front of the knee. This
condition often affects young .The pain of
chondromalacia patellae is typically felt after
prolonged sitting, like for a movie, and so is
also called "movie sign" or "theater sign".

Q13. Blount’s disease is present as

1. Genu recurvatum
2. Genu varum
3. Genu Valgum
4.
Answer 3. Genu Valgum

Blount's Disease is one which affects the


bone development of toddlers and older
children. Most often, it starts as bow-
leggedness which does not improve in a child
between two and four years of age.

DEAR DOCTORS TIBIA VARA is other name


for BLOUNT'S DISEASE and it presents as
GENU VALGUM

Radiographic Appearance

Physiologic bowing typically show flaring and


bowing of tibia and femur in a symmetric
fashion and is normal in children < 2 years of
age (maximal at about 18 mo);
- physiologic genu valgum, or knock knees,
develops next, w/ maximal deformity
occurring at 3 years of age;
- gradual correction to ultimate alignment of
slight genu valgum occurs by 9 years of age
in the great majority of patients

Q14. Which is not a neural tumor ?


1. Ependymoma
2.Neuroblastoma
3. Gangliocytoma
4. Ganglioglioma

Answer. CONTROVERSIAL As Usual AIIMS


ROCKS with dummy Questions

REF Cotran, Ramzi S.; Kumar, Vinay; Fausto,


Nelson; Nelso Fausto; Robbins, Stanley L.;
Abbas, Abul K. (2005). Robbins and Cotran
pathologic basis of disease. St. Louis, Mo:
Elsevier Saunders. pp. 1406.
Ganglioglioma is a tumour that arises from
ganglion cells in the central nervous system.
The term "gangliocytoma" is sometimes
equated with ganglioglioma. However, it is
also sometimes equated with
ganglioneuroma. The term "gangliocytoma" is
sometimes used to imply that the tumor is
entirely neuronal.

Q15. Cadeveric transplant is done for A/E

1. blood vessels
2. liver
3. lung
4. bladder

Answer 4. Bladder

The major donor organs and tissues are


heart, lungs, liver, pancreas, kidneys, eyes,
heart valves, skin, bones, bone marrow,
connective tissues, middle ear, blood vessels.
Therefore one donor can possibly give gift of
life to many terminally ill patients who would
not survive otherwise.

Q16. 32 yr male a known hypertensive


planned for cholecystectomy . which of
following is contraindicated
1. propofol
2. ketamine
3. midazolam
4.

ANS 2. Ketamine

Ketamine causes a rise in intracranial


pressure and should not be used in patients
who have sustained a recent head injury.
The blood pressure rises by about 25% (on
average the systolic pressure rises by 20-30
mmHg) and the heart rate is increased by
about 20% - the overall effect is therefore to
increase the workload of the heart.
The pressure within the eyeball (intra-ocular
pressure) rises for a short time following
administration.

All pressures are increased.

Q17. . One of the drug is contraindicated in


Patients with lithium toxicity
1.diuretics
2. beta blocker
3. ccb
4.

Answer 1. Diuretics

Diuretics acting distally to the proximal


tubule, such as thiazides and spironolactone,
do not directly affect the fractional excretion
of lithium (although they may affect serum
lithium levels indirectly through their effects
on volume status). Reabsorption of lithium is
increased and toxicity is more likely in
patients who are hyponatremic or volume
depleted, both of which are possible
consequences of diuretic therapy.

Q18. Which virus crosses placenta least


likely

1. rubella
2. herpes simplex
3. HIV
4. Hepatitis B

ANS Hepatitis B

HBV is a large virus and does not cross the


placenta, hence it cannot infect the fetus
unless there have been breaks in the
maternal-fetal barrier, e.g. via
amniocentesis.

Q19. Which is present in Pentology of fallot :


1. ASD
2. VSD
3. Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
4. Pulmonary stenosis

Answer 1. ASD

Q20. All are true about Nesidioblastosis


except ?

1. Hypoglycemic Episodes are seen


2. Occurs in adults more than child
3. Histopathology shows Hyperplasia of Islet
cells
4. Diazoxide is used in treatment

Answer 2. Occurs in adults more than child

Nesidioblastosis is hyperinsulinemic
hypoglycemia attributed to excessive function
of pancreatic beta cells with an abnormal
microscopic appearance. The abnormal
histologic aspects of the tissue included the
presence of islet cell enlargement, islet cell
dysplasia, beta cells budding from ductal
epithelium, and islets in apposition to
ducts.Most common age group 2 – 3 years.

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meenaxi
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 1:19 pm Post subject:

Q21. Epileptogenic
Joined: 21 Feb 2009
Posts: 1829
1. Desflurane
89550 Credits
2. Sevoflurane
3. Ether
4. Halothane

Answer 2. Sevoflurane
Ref : A practice of anesthesia for infants and
children By Charles J. Coté

Q22. Most common tumor causing superior Vena


cava syndrome.
1. Lymphoma
2. Small cell carcinoma
3. Non small cell carcinoma.
4.

ANS Small cell Carcinoma

Nearly 95% of superior vena cava syndrome cases


are attributed to cancer, with the most common
cause being small cell lung cancer, followed by
squamous cell lung cancer, adenocarcinoma of the
lung, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and large cell lung
cancer.

Q23. Most common tumor causing superior Vena


cava syndrome.

1. Lymphoma
2. Small cell carcinoma
3. Non small cell carcinoma.
4.

ANS 3. Small cell Carcinoma

Nearly 95% of superior vena cava syndrome cases


are attributed to cancer, with the most common
cause being small cell lung cancer, followed by
squamous cell lung cancer, adenocarcinoma of the
lung, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and large cell lung
cancer.

Q23. Not a cause of primary amoenorrhoea

1. kallman syndrome
2. turner syndrome
3. sheehan syndrome
4. rokitansky syndrome

Answer 3. sheehan syndrome

Q24. All are indoor air pollutants except

1.CO
2. Chloroflurocarbons
3. Nitrogen oxide
4. Mercury

Answer 3) Nitrogen Oxide

Q25. Denominator in Maternal Mortality rate


1. Total Number of Live birth
2. Total Number of Married Women
3. Total Number of Birth
4.

Answer 1. 1. Total Number of Live birth

Q26.Contraceptive to be avoided in epilepsy

1. OCP
2. Condoms
3. IUD
4. Post Coital Pill

ANSWER 1. OCP

Confusion Lies Between OCP and POST COITAL


PILL .

But Check this standard reference from

The morning after pill can be used in women with


epilepsy after unprotected sexual intercourse. A
higher dose is recommended in patients taking
hepatic enzyme inducing drugs
- 1st dose – Levenorgestrol 1.5mgs (2 tablets)
- 2nd dose 12 hours later – Levenorgestrol
0.75mgs (1 tablet)

Q27. People are separated into certain sub groups.


People are selected randomly from sub groups.
What type of sampling is done?
1. Random sampling
2. Stratified Sampling
3. Quota Sampling
4.

Answer 2. Stratified Sampling

Q28. NARP syndrome is seen in

1. mitochondrial
2. glycogen storage
3. lysosomal
4. lipid storage

Answer 1. Mitochondrial Disorder

Neuropathy, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa, is a


condition related to changes in mitochondrial
DNA.
Mutations in the MT-ATP6 gene cause neuropathy,
ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa.
The MT-ATP6 gene is contained in mitochondrial
DNA. Mitochondria are structures within cells that
convert the energy from food into a form that cells
can use. Although most DNA is packaged in
chromosomes within the nucleus, mitochondria
also have a small amount of their own DNA
(known as mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA).

Q29. Which pass through Jugular foramen ?

1. Vertebral artery
2. Hypoglossal Nerve
3. Internal Carotid artery
4. Sympathetic chain

CN IX, X, XI(descending), jugular vein passes


through jugular foramen

Jugular Foramen or Vernet's syndrome is


characterized by the paresis of 9th–11th (with or
without 12th) cranial nerves together.

Q30. Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in

1.Kimura disease
2. kikuchi disease
3. hodgkin disease
4. castelman disease

Answer 2. Kikuchi Disease

Kikuchi disease ai also called histiocytic necrotizing


lymphadenitis or Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease, is an
uncommon, idiopathic, generally self-limited cause
of lymphadenitis. The most common clinical
manifestation of Kikuchi disease is cervical
lymphadenopathy. Several viral candidates have
been proposed, including cytomegalovirus,
Epstein-Barr virus,16 human herpesvirus,
varicella-zoster virus, parainfluenza virus,
parvovirus B19, and paramyxovirus.

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meenaxi
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 1:20 pm Post subject:

Q31. Which is rave drug?


Joined: 21 Feb 2009
Posts: 1829
1. Cannabis
89550 Credits
2. Cocaine
3. Heroin
4.

Answer 2. Cocaine

Yet another one from AIIMS Board

"RAVE drugs - MDMA, cocaine, amphetamines and


ketamine.

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Guest
Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 1:45 pm Post subject: which
is rave drug?

one of the options was EXTASY, and this should be


the answer. its chemical name is MDMA

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vani
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 1:57 pm Post subject:

Superior vena cava syndrome MOST common


Joined: 18 Mar 2003
Posts: 1143 cause
a)metastasis
41184 Credits
b)nonsmall cell lung carcinoma
c)small cell carcinoma

ANS-B
William Hunter first described the syndrome in
1757 in a patient with syphilitic aortic aneurysm.
In 1954, Schechter reviewed 274 well-documented
cases of superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)
reported in the literature; 40% of them were due
to syphilitic aneurysms or tuberculous
mediastinitis. In more recent times, these
infections have gradually decreased as the primary
cause of superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction.
Lung cancer, particularly adenocarcinoma, is now
the underlying process in approximately 70% of
the patients with superior vena cava syndrome
(SVCS). However, up to 40% of the causes are
due to nonmalignant causes.

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nathan
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 2:30 pm Post subject:

Q. 32. Aprepitant is all except


Joined: 06 Nov 2008
Posts: 2252 1. Agonist at NK1
2. Crosses Blood Brain Barrier
70595 Credits
3. Ameliorate Nausea Vomiting of chemotherapy
4. Metabolized by CYP450

Answer 1. Agonist at NK1

Aprepitant is an antiemetic chemical compound


that belongs to a class of drugs called substance P
antagonists (SPA). It mediates its effect by
blocking the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor.

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sachin_rathore
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 4:37 pm Post subject:

Q. 33. Buprenorphine is a
Joined: 27 Jan 2003
Posts: 789 1. Partial agonist at MU Receptor
2. Partial agonist at Kappa Receptor
27235 Credits
3. Full Agonist at Mu Receptor
4. It is antagonist at Kappa receptor

Answer 1. . Partial agonist at MU Receptor

Q. 34. Local Anaesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor


is not used in
1. Spinal
2. Epidural
3. Digital finger block
4. Skin Anaesthesia
Answer 3. Digital Finger Block

The toxicity of LA is related to the amount and


speed of their absorption into the systemic
circulation !
Vasoconstrictor ingredient (e.g., adrenaline,
felypressin) is often added to LA with the aim to
reduce the absorption of LA into the systemic
circulation.
Effects of vasoconstrictors:
- increase in the effect of LA (increased
concentration)
- decrease in the toxicity of LA (decreased
absorption)
- increase in the duration of the effect of LA
Vasoconstrictors must not be used for producing
ring-block of an extremity (e.g. finger or toe)
because they may cause prolonged ischaemia and
gangrene.

Q. 35. All are true about Erlotinib except


1. Used in Non Small Cell Carcinoma
2. It is a small peptide acting as EGRF antagonist
3. Food decreases absorption
4. It causes skin rashes

Answer 3. Food decreases absorption

Explanation : Food enhances the oral absorption


and bioavailability of erlotinib.

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sachin_rathore
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 4:37 pm Post subject:

Q36. Specific Compliance of lung is decreased by


Joined: 27 Jan 2003
Posts: 789 all except

27235 Credits
1. Chronic Bronchitis
2. Pulmonary fibrosis
3. Pulmonary Congestion
4. Decreased Surfactant
Answer 1. Chronic Bronchitis
Emphysema / COPD may be associated with an
increase in pulmonary compliance due to the loss
of alveolar and elastic tissue.

Q37. Sparrow marks are seen in following


condition

1. gunshot injuries
2. stab injry of face
3 vitriolage
4 windshield glass injury

Answer 4 windshield glass injury

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sachin_rathore
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 4:38 pm Post subject:

Q. Blount’s disease is a cause of?


Joined: 27 Jan 2003
Posts: 789 1. Coax vara
2. Coax magna
27235 Credits
3. Genu valgum
4. Genu varum

Ans: 4 it is a typical disorder affecting the postero-


medial epiphysis of proximal tibia (due to
avascular necrosis) thereby leading to over growth
of the lateral epiphysis resulting in agene / tibia
vara deformity. It is common in West Indies &
Africans.

Q. 1. Which is a branch from trunk of brachial


plexus ?
1. SupraScapular Nerve
2. Long Thoracic Nerve
3. Axillary Nerve
4. Nerve to Subclavius Muscle

Answer 1. SUPRASCAPULAR NERVE or NERVE TO


SUBCLAVIUS ????

The nerve to the Subclavius Muscle


This nerve is from the anterior aspect of the
superior trunk, from C5, with occasional additions
from C4 and C6.
It descends posterior to the clavicle and anterior to
the brachial plexus to supply the subclavius
muscle.

The Suprascapular Nerve

This nerve arises from the posterior aspect of the


superior trunk, fibres from the ventral rami of C5
and C6 and often C4 (50% of people).
It supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
muscles and the shoulder joint.
It passes laterally across the posterior triangle of
the neck, superior to the brachial plexus and then
through the scapular notch.

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vidya
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Tue Jan 11, 2011 12:56 pm Post subject:

1. Which is a branch from trunk of brachial


Joined: 20 Mar 2003
Posts: 999 plexus ?
1. SupraScapular Nerve
34782 Credits
2. Long Thoracic Nerve
3. Axillary Nerve
4. Nerve to Subclavius Muscle
Answer 1. SUPRASCAPULAR NERVE

2. Autorikshaw run over an 8-year-old, tyre mark


over leg is called?
A. Patterned bruise
B. Imprint abrasion
C. Contusion
D. Ectopic bruise
References : Given below
Answer is B. Imprint abrasion
Krishan Vij ,Text Book of Forensic Medicine and
Toxicology, Principles and Practice, 2008, 4thEdn,
Pages 282-283.
Pressure Abrasions (Crushing Abrasions / Imprint
Abrasions): When the impact is vertical to the skin
surface, the epidermis gets crushed and pressure
type of abrasions result and the imprint of the
impacting object may be produced. These may be
seen in manual strangulation (abrasions produced
by fingernails) and in hanging, where the weave of
the ligature material may be reproduced.
Patterned Abrasions: Patterned abrasions occur
when the force is applied at or around right angle
to the surface of skin, as already mentioned……The
classical example of this is seen in traffic accidents
when tyre of a motor car passes over the skin
leaving the pattern when the skin has been
squeezed into the grooves of the rubber tread.
Reddy.K.S.N,The Essentials of Forensic Medicine
and Toxicology, 2006, 25th Edn, Pages 156-157.
Patterned bruising is also seen in motor car
accidents.
Answer: Imprint Abrasion is to be preferred as
most appropriate alternate to Patterned Bruise,
since,
1. Imprint abrasion and patterned abrasion are the
same.
2. Patterned abrasion (imprint abrasion) is the
classical example of tyre mark
3. Tyre will produce patterned bruise usually, if in
association with abrasions

3. Mineralocorticoid receptors are present in all


except ( REPEAT )
1) Hippocampus
2) Brain
3) Liver
4) Kidney
Answer 3) Liver

4. Which is not autoimmune disease?


1. SLE
2. Grave’s Disease
3. Myasthenia Gravis
4. Sickle Cell Disease
Answer 4. Sickle Cell Disease

5. A 40 year female underwent surgery. Post


operatively she told the anaesthetist that she was
aware of per-operative agents. Individual
intraoperative awareness is evaluated by
1. Bispectral Index
2.
Answer 1. Bispectral Index
Bispectral index (BIS) is one of several recently
developed technologies which purport to monitor
depth of anesthesia. BIS monitors can replace or
supplement Guedel's classification system for
determining depth of anesthesia. Titrating
anesthetic agents to a specific bispectral index
during general anesthesia in adults (and children
over 1 year old) allows the anesthetist to adjust
the amount of anesthetic agent to the needs of the
patient, possibly resulting in a more rapid
emergence from anesthesia. Use of the BIS
monitor may reduce the incidence of intraoperative
awareness in high risk procedures or patients[1]
and may also have a role in predicting recovery
from severe brain injury

6. Most common cause of death in schizophrenia


patient
1. Homicide
2. Depression
3. Suicide
4. Due to Antipsychotic side effects
Answer C ) Suicide

7. All are pneumatic bones except


1) Frontal
2) Mandible
3) Ethmoidal
4) Mastoid
Answer 2 ) Mandible

8. Clue Cells are found in


A) Candida
B) Bacterial Vaginosis
C) Trichomonas Vaginalis
D) Chlamydial infection
B) Bacterial Vaginosis

9. Nerve involved in supracondylar fracture


1. Radial nerve
2. Median nerve
3. Ulnar nerve
4. Anterior interosseous nerve
Answer 4. Anterior interosseous nerve

10. Pain in ethmoidal disease travels through


1. Nasociliary Nerve
2. Lacrimal Nerve
3. Frontal Nerve

11. Punett Square is used for


1. Genotype
2. Collecting datas in one group
3.
4.Inheritance pattern
1. Genotype
The Punnett square is a diagram that is used to
predict an outcome of a particular cross or
breeding experiment. It is named after Reginald C.
Punnett, who devised the approach, and is used by
biologists to determine the probability of an
offspring having a particular genotype.

12. A teenage girl complaints of pain over the


knee. The pain increase while starting to stand
from sitting position and while walking upstairs.
What is the likely diagnosis?
1. Chondromalacia of patella
2. Patellar Fracture
3. Torn Meniscus
4. Bipartite Patella
Answer ) 1. Chondromalacia of patella
Chondromalacia patellae means "soft cartilage
under the knee cap," a presumed cause of pain at
the front of the knee. This condition often affects
young .The pain of chondromalacia patellae is
typically felt after prolonged sitting, like for a
movie, and so is also called "movie sign" or
"theater sign".

13. Blount’s disease is present as (Repeat from


ADrPlexus Mock series 3 on Dec 30,2010 ) Q.No
107
1. Genu recurvatum
2. Genu varum
3. Genu Valgum
4.
Answer 3. Genu Varum

14. Diet Recommendations all except


1. Cholesterol intake should be 100 gm/1000
kcal/day
2. To avoid alcohol consumption
3. Salt intake should be less than 5gm/day
4. Saturated fat is about 10% of whole diet
Answer 4. Saturated fat is about 10% of whole
diet

15. People are separated into certain sub groups.


People are selected randomly from sub groups.
What type of sampling is done?
1. Random sampling
2. Stratified Sampling
3. Quota Sampling
4. Cluster Sampling
Answer 2. Stratified Sampling

16. Which pass through Foramen Magnum ?


1. Vertebral artery
2. Hypoglossal Nerve
3. Internal Carotid artery
4. Sympathetic chain
Answer 1. Vertebral artery
Spinal roots of CN XI(ascending), brainstem,
vertebral arteries.
Jugular Foramen or Vernet's syndrome is
characterized by the paresis of 9th–11th (with or
without 12th) cranial nerves together.
1- HYPOGLOSSAL CANAL - hypoglossal nerve

2- INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY - passes thru both


carotid canal and foramen lacerum

3- GREATER PALATINE FORAMEN - anterior


palatine nerve

4- LESSER PALATINE FORAMEN - posterior palatine


nerve

5- NASOPALATINE NERVE - incisive foramen

6- SUPRA ORBITAL FORAMEN OR NOTCH -


supraorbital nerve

7- SUPRA ORBITAL FISSURE - inferior opthalmic


vein

8- INFRA ORBITAL FORAMEN - infra orbital nerve

9- ZYGOMATIC NERVE - infra orbital fissure

10- ZYGOMATICO FACIAL FORAMEN - zygomatico


facial branch of the sixth nerve

11- OPTIC CANAL - central retinal vein

12 - FORAMEN ROTUNDUM - maxillary division of


the trigeminal nerve

13- FORAMEN OVALE - Mandibular nerve,


Accessory meningeal artery, Lesser petrosal nerve
and Emissary veins (mnemonic : MALE).

14- FORAMEN SPINOSUM - middle meningeal


artery
15- JUGULAR FORAMEN - 9 , 10 , 11 th cranial
nerves

16- MASTOID FORAMEN - meningeal branch of


occipital artery

17- TYMPANO MASTOID FISSURE - auricular


branch of vagus ( vidian r alderman n )

18- FACIAL NERVE - stylomastoid foramen

19- CHORDA TYMPANI NERVE - petro tympanic


fissure.

17. Which is not a neural tumor ?


1. Ependymoma
2.Neuroblastoma
3. Gangliocytoma
4. Ganglioglioma
Answer CONTROVERSIAL
REF Cotran, Ramzi S.; Kumar, Vinay; Fausto,
Nelson; Nelso Fausto; Robbins, Stanley L.; Abbas,
Abul K. (2005). Robbins and Cotran pathologic
basis of disease. St. Louis, Mo: Elsevier Saunders.
pp. 1406.
Ganglioglioma is a tumour that arises from
ganglion cells in the central nervous system.
The term "gangliocytoma" is sometimes equated
with ganglioglioma. However, it is also sometimes
equated with ganglioneuroma. The term
"gangliocytoma" is sometimes used to imply that
the tumor is entirely neuronal.

18. Which is rave drug?


1. Cannabis
2. Cocaine
3. Heroin
4. Ecstacy
Answer 4. Ecstasy
There are a variety of substances that have been
connected with Rave Clubs. This is a brief list of
some of the drugs by slang names and some of
their effects:
Ecstasy – Hallucinogen/Stimulant Ecstasy is a
synthetic drug that is similar to methamphetamine
and the hallucinogen mescaline. Ecstasy can
produce a significant increase in heart rate and
blood pressure and a sense of alertness. The
stimulant effects, which enable users to dance for
extended periods, may also lead to dehydration,
hypertension, and heart or kidney failure. Ecstasy
can cause brain damage. It is one of the most
widely used of the club drugs.
Ephedrine – Stimulant This substance is sold over-
the-counter at convenience stores, some food
stores, and mail order. It is sold often as ‘Herbal
Ecstasy’ and is touted as a ‘safe’ and ‘legal’ form of
Ecstasy. Ephedrine is in the Amphetamine family
and can cause heart attacks, seizures, agitation,
palpitations, and other health problems. Ephedrine
is a common weight-loss substance. The FDA has
proposed restrictions on ephedrine after it received
more than 800 reports of harmful effects to
people, among them coronary problems that could
put patients at risk for heart attacks, strokes and
death.
Ketamine – Hallucinogen Ketamine is an animal
tranquilizer used by vets in pet surgery. Users say
the effects of Ketamine are similar to PCP.
Ketamine is usually snorted and is frequently used
in combination with other drugs like ecstasy,
heroin and cocaine. The high lasts anywhere from
30-minutes to about 2-hours. Special K or
powdered Ketamine, emerged as a recreational
drug in the 1970s and was known as “Vitamin K’ in
the underground club scene in the 1980s. It has
since resurfaced as “Special K” in the 1990s rave
scene.
GHB – Depressant This substance comes in a liquid
form and looks like water and has a salty taste.
GHB is used as a “club drug” for effects similar to
those of Rohypnol, also known as “date rape
drugs.” Coma and seizures can occur following of
GHB and when combined with methamphetamine.
Mixing GHB with alcohol could be a deadly
combination. Excessive use of GHB can result in
loss of consciousness (G-hole), tremors, irregular
and depressed respiration and coma.
Methcathinone – Stimulant Known on the street as
Khat or cat it produces an amphetamine like
effect. The drug produces a burst of energy and
feeling of invincibility, accompanied by a state of
well being and euphoria. Effects include paranoia,
hallucinations, nervousness and anxiety. Physical
effects can be pounding heart, headaches
stomachaches, and shakes. Khat is most often
snorted, but may also be injected with a needle or
taken orally by mixing with a beverage such as a
soft drink.
LSD – Hallucinogen LSD induces abnormalities in
sensory perceptions. Effects are unpredictable
depending on the amount taken, on the
surroundings in which the drug is used, and on the
user’s personality, mood, and expectations. It can
be in the form of a tablet, capsule, liquid, or on
pieces of blotter paper that have absorbed the
drug and is typically taken by mouth. Effects come
on within 30 to 90 minutes after taking and can
include physical effects of dilated pupils, higher
body temperature, increased heart rate and blood
pressure, sweating, loss of appetite, sleeplessness,
dry mouth, and tremors.
Magic Mushrooms – Hallucinogen The effects of
Mushrooms or “Shrooms” are similar to LSD. They
include illusions and hallucinations, distorted
perception of time and distance. It is ingested
orally in the form of tablets or powder. Trips or
episodes can consist of psychosis, convulsions,
flashbacks, and possible death.
Methamphetamine – Stimulant Methamphetamine
affects many areas of the central nervous system.
The drug is often made in clandestine laboratories
from relatively inexpensive over-the-counter
ingredients. Diverse groups, including young adults
who attend raves, in many regions of the country,
are using it. It is available in many forms, and can
be smoked, snorted, injected, or orally ingested.
Methamphetamine use is associated with serious
health consequences, including memory loss,
aggression, violence, psychotic behavior, and
potential cardiac and neurological damage.
Abusers typically are agitated, have excited
speech, decreased appetite, and increased physical
activity levels.

19. All are indoor air pollutants except


1. Radon
2. Carbon Monoxide
3. Nitrogen oxide
4. Mercury
Answer 3) Nitrogen Oxide

20. Denominator in Maternal Mortality rate


1. Total Number of Live birth
2. Total Number of Married Women
3. Total Number of Birth
4.
Answer 1. 1. Total Number of Live birth

21. Cadeveric transplant is done for A/E


1. blood vessels
2. liver
3. lung
4. bladder
Answer 4. Bladder
and this is why you have to read prospectus back
page with specific links
The major donor organs and tissues are heart,
lungs, liver, pancreas, kidneys, eyes, heart valves,
skin, bones, bone marrow, connective tissues,
middle ear, blood vessels. Therefore one donor can
possibly give gift of life to many terminally ill
patients who would not survive otherwise.

22. Not a cause of primary amoenorrhoea


1. kallman syndrome
2. turner syndrome
3. sheehan syndrome
4. rokitansky syndrome
Answer 3. sheehan syndrome

23. 32 yr male a known hypertensive planned for


cholecystectomy . which of following is
contraindicated
1. propofol
2. ketamine
3. midazolam
4.
ANS 2. Ketamine
Ketamine causes a rise in intracranial pressure and
should not be used in patients who have sustained
a recent head injury.
The blood pressure rises by about 25% (on
average the systolic pressure rises by 20-30
mmHg) and the heart rate is increased by about
20% - the overall effect is therefore to increase
the workload of the heart.
The pressure within the eyeball (intra-ocular
pressure) rises for a short time following
administration.
All pressures are increased.

24. One of the drug is contraindicated in Patients


with lithium toxicity
1.diuretics
2. beta blocker
3. ccb
4.
Answer 1. Diuretics
Diuretics acting distally to the proximal tubule,
such as thiazides and spironolactone, do not
directly affect the fractional excretion of lithium
(although they may affect serum lithium levels
indirectly through their effects on volume status).
Reabsorption of lithium is increased and toxicity is
more likely in patients who are hyponatremic or
volume depleted, both of which are possible
consequences of diuretic therapy.

25. Most common tumor causing superior Vena


cava syndrome.
1. Malignant Lymphoma
2. Small cell carcinoma
3. Non small cell carcinoma.
4.
ANS Small cell Carcinoma
Nearly 95% of superior vena cava syndrome cases
are attributed to cancer, with the most common
cause being small cell lung cancer, followed by
squamous cell lung cancer, adenocarcinoma of the
lung, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and large cell lung
cancer.

26. Which virus crosses placenta least likely


( ADrPlexus Q )
1. rubella
2. herpes simplex
3. HIV
4. Hepatitis B
ANS 4. Hepatitis B
HBV is a large virus and does not cross the
placenta, hence it cannot infect the fetus unless
there have been breaks in the maternal-fetal
barrier, e.g. via amniocentesis.

27. Deoxygenated Blood is carried in all blood


vessels except
1. umbilical artery
2. umbilical vein
3. pulmonary artery
4. right ventricle
Answer 2. Umbilical vein

28. A patient with Solitary kidney having 4 cm


solitary exophytic mass in lower pole. Management
is
1.Partial nephrectomy
2. Radical nephrectmy with dialysis
3. Radical nephrectomy with immediate renal
transplant
4. Observation
ANS. Partial nephrectomy

29. Which is present in Pentology of fallot :


1. ASD
2. VSD
3. Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
4. Pulmonary stenosis
Answer 1. ASD

30. All are true about Nesidioblastosis except ?


1. Hypoglycemic Episodes are seen
2. Occurs in adults more than child
3. Histopathology shows Hyperplasia of Islet cells
4. Diazoxide is used in treatment
Answer 2. Occurs in adults more than child
Nesidioblastosis is hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia
attributed to excessive function of pancreatic beta
cells with an abnormal microscopic appearance.
The abnormal histologic aspects of the tissue
included the presence of islet cell enlargement,
islet cell dysplasia, beta cells budding from ductal
epithelium, and islets in apposition to ducts.Most
common age group 2 – 3 years.

31. Epileptogenic
1. Desflurane
2. Sevoflurane
3. Ether
4. Halothane
Ref : A practice of anesthesia for infants and
children By Charles J. Coté
Answer 2. Sevoflurane

32. Contraceptive to be avoided in epilepsy


1. OCP
2. Condoms
3. IUD
4. Post Coital Pill
ANS. OCP
The morning after pill can be used in women with
epilepsy after unprotected sexual intercourse. A
higher dose is recommended in patients taking
hepatic enzyme inducing drugs
- 1st dose – Levenorgestrol 1.5mgs (2 tablets)
- 2nd dose 12 hours later – Levenorgestrol
0.75mgs (1 tablet)

33. NARP syndrome is seen in


1. mitochondrial
2. glycogen storage
3. lysosomal
4. lipid storage
Answer 1. Mitochondrial Disorder
Neuropathy, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa, is a
condition related to changes in mitochondrial
DNA.
Mutations in the MT-ATP6 gene cause neuropathy,
ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa.
The MT-ATP6 gene is contained in mitochondrial
DNA. Mitochondria are structures within cells that
convert the energy from food into a form that cells
can use. Although most DNA is packaged in
chromosomes within the nucleus, mitochondria
also have a small amount of their own DNA
(known as mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA).

34. Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in


1. Kimura disease
2. kikuchi disease
3. hodgkin disease
4. castelman disease
Answer 2. Kikuchi Disease
Kikuchi disease ai also called histiocytic necrotizing
lymphadenitis or Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease, is an
uncommon, idiopathic, generally self-limited cause
of lymphadenitis. The most common clinical
manifestation of Kikuchi disease is cervical
lymphadenopathy. Several viral candidates have
been proposed, including cytomegalovirus,
Epstein-Barr virus,16 human herpesvirus,
varicella-zoster virus, parainfluenza virus,
parvovirus B19, and paramyxovirus.

35. A tennis player gets hurt by a ball in his eye,


he complaints of decreased vision? what may be
the cause for the condition?
1 optic neuritis
2 pars planitis
3 . Avulsion of the Vitreous base
4 . equatorial edema
Shall Discuss Most Probable 3. Avulsion of the
Vitreous base
Chapter 12 BLUNT INJURY OF THE EYE
Blunt injuries: the eye wall does not have a full
thickness wound. Open globe or penetrating
injuries: the eye wall has a full thickness wound. A
blunt force causes a globe rupture and a sharp
object causes a laceration at the site of impact.
Lacerations may be penetrating with a single
entrance wound, or a perforating with an entrance
and exit wound.
Symptoms and signs suggestive of globe rupture
include pain, deceased visual acuity (a normal
visual acuity is rarely present in a globe rupture),
extensive subconjunctival haemorrhage (often
involving 360 degrees of bulbar conjuctiva), a
deep or shallow anterior chamber, hyphaema, low
IOP (however IOP can be normal or high),
irregular pupil, iridodialysis, cyclodialysis, lens
subluxation, commotio retinae, retinal tears,
vitreous haemorrhages, obvious corneal or scleral
lacerations or intraocular contents may be outside
the orbit.
Direct blows to the eye transmit energy to the
adjacent tissues as they produce compression,
shearing, and tensile strains. The resultant great
shearing forces are usually strongest at the
posterior border of the vitreous base, and a linear
tear of the retina may result. If traction is
strongest at the anterior border of the vitreous
base, the nonpigmented ciliary epithelium is torn.
Strong traction at both the anterior and posterior
borders may produce vitreous base avulsion, which
is pathognomic of ocular

36. Aprepitant is all except


1. Agonist at Neurokinin receptor
2. Crosses Blood Brain Barrier
3. Ameliorate Nausea Vomiting of chemotherapy
4. Metabolized by CYP450
Answer 1. Agonist at NK1
Aprepitant is an antiemetic chemical compound
that belongs to a class of drugs called substance P
antagonists (SPA). It mediates its effect by
blocking the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor.

37. Buprenorphine is a
1. Partial agonist at MU Receptor
2. Partial agonist at Kappa Receptor
3. Full Agonist at Mu Receptor
4. It is antagonist at Kappa receptor
Answer 1. . Partial agonist at MU Receptor

38. Local Anaesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor is


not used in
1. Spinal
2. Epidural
3. Digital finger block
4. Skin Anaesthesia
Answer 3. Digital Finger Block
The toxicity of LA is related to the amount and
speed of their absorption into the systemic
circulation !
Vasoconstrictor ingredient (e.g., adrenaline,
felypressin) is often added to LA with the aim to
reduce the absorption of LA into the systemic
circulation.
Effects of vasoconstrictors:
- increase in the effect of LA (increased
concentration)
- decrease in the toxicity of LA (decreased
absorption)
- increase in the duration of the effect of LA
Vasoconstrictors must not be used for producing
ring-block of an extremity (e.g. finger or toe)
because they may cause prolonged ischaemia and
gangrene.

39. All are true about Erlotinib except


1. Used in Non Small Cell Carcinoma
2. It is a small peptide acting as EGRF antagonist
3. Food decreases absorption
4. It causes skin rashes
Answer 3. Food decreases absorption
Explanation : Food enhances the oral absorption
and bioavailability of erlotinib.

40. Sparrow marks are seen in following condition


1. gunshot injuries
2. stab injry of face
3 vitriolage
4 windshield glass injury
Answer 4 windshield glass injury

41. All are supplied by the anterior division of


Mandibular nerve except:
1. lateral pterygoid
2. medial pterygoid
3. temporalis
4. masseter
Answer 2: medial pterygoid
The nerve to medial pterygoid is a direct branch of
the mandibular trunk.

42. 39. All of the following decrease bone


resorption in osteoporosis except?
1.Alendronate
2.Etidronate
3.Strontium
4.Teriparatide
Answer 4. Teriparatide
Teriparatide increases both bone formation and
bone resorption

43. Onodi Cells & Haller Cells are associated with


the following structures respectively?
1.Optic Nerve & Orbital floor
2.OPTIC NERVE & INTERAL CAROTID ARTERY
3.ICA & optic Nerve
4.ORBITAL FLOOR & ICA
Answer 1. OPTIC NERVE & ORBITAL FLOOR

44. Posterior relations of head of pancreas are all


except
1) Common Bile Duct
2) duodenum first part
3) Aorta
4) IVC
Answer 2. Duodenum First part
Posterior Surface.—The posterior surface is in
relation with the inferior vena cava, the common
bile duct, the renal veins, the right crus of the
diaphragm, and the aorta.

45. About yaws all are true except


1. caused by t. pertenue
2. transmitted non-venerally
3. Secondary yaw can involve bones
4. Last stages involve heart & nerves
Answer 4. Last stages involve heart & nerves
Yaws, like syphilis, has been classified into the
following 4 stages:
Primary stage: The initial yaws lesion develops at
the inoculation site.
Secondary stage: Widespread dissemination of
treponemes results in multiple skin lesions similar
to the primary yaws lesion.
Latent stage: Symptoms are usually absent, but
skin lesions can relapse.
Tertiary stage: Bone, joint, and soft tissue
deformities may occur.

46. Mifepristone is used in


1. Hydatiform Mole
2. Abortion
3. Ectopic
4.
Answer 2. Abortion
Medical abortion using mifepristone plus
prostaglandin is the most effective method of
abortion at gestations of less than 7 weeks.
Mifepristone is contraindicated in the presence of
an intrauterine device (IUD), as well as with
ectopic pregnancy, adrenal failure, hemorrhagic
disorders, inherited porphyria, and anticoagulant
or long-term corticosteroid therapy.

47. Patient had cicatrical alopecia with grey


pigmentation around hair follicles.What will you
look for?
1. Whitish lesion in the buccal mucosa
2. Nail dystrophy
3. Arthritis
4. Discoid Plaques in the face
Answer 1. Whitish lesion in the buccal mucosa

48. How to differentiate ASD from VSD in X-ray


1. Enlarged Left atrium
2. Pulmonary congestion
3. Aortic shadow
Answer 1. Enlarged Left atrium

49. Specific Compliance of lung is decreased by all


except
1. Chronic Bronchitis
2. Pulmonary fibrosis
3. Pulmonary Congestion
4. Decreased Surfactant
Answer 1. Chronic Bronchitis
Emphysema / COPD may be associated with an
increase in pulmonary compliance due to the loss
of alveolar and elastic tissue

50. All are features of digitalis toxicity except


1. Ventricular Bigeminy
2. Regularisation of AF
3. Delayed conduction across AV
4. Biventricular tachycardia
Answer CONTROVERSIAL AIIMS. HELP US WITH
OPTIONS
Digoxin toxicity is especially suggested by
paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with AV block and
accelerated junctional rhythm in the presence of
atrial fibrillation, so-called “regularization of atrial
fibrillation. Prolonged PR intervals (greater than
0.20 second) may represent a conduction delay
through the atria or AV junction due to digitalis
toxicity or heart block.Bidirectional ventricular
tachycardia is particularly characteristic of severe
digitalis toxicity. The combination of increased
(atrial) arrhythmogenesis and inhibited atrio-
ventricular conduction (for example paroxysmal
atrial tachycardia with A-V block - so-called "PAT
with block") is said to be pathognomonic (i.e.
diagnostic) of digoxin toxicity.

51. A patient was started haloperidol for


schizophrenia before four days. Now the patient
complaints of severe spasm of neck on one sidefor
the past 2 hours. what is the likely diagnosis?
1. akathisia
2. Acute dystonia
3. malignant hyperthermia
4. tardive dyskinesia.
Answer: 2. Acute dystonia

52. Diaphragm develops from all except


1.pleuroperitoneal membrane
2.septum transversum
3.musculature of dorsal wall
4.cervical somites
Answer: 4.cervical somites

53. Sterile pyuria is seen in


1.chronic pyelonephritis
2.wilms”s tumour
3.tuberculosis
4.cystitis
Answer: tuberculosis

54. Haematological syndromes is seen in radiation


doses of
1.5 rad
2.100 rad
3. 200 rad
4.
Answer: 3. 200
The hematologic syndrome is associated with
radiation doses in the range of 150 to 600 rad (1 .
5 to 6 Gy).

55. Best test to identify metastatic bone lesion is


1.ct scan
2.mri
3.bone scan
4.x ray
Answer. Bone scan

56. Which is the commonly used fixative in


histopathological specimen
1.glutaraldehyde
2.formaldehyde
3.alcohol
4.picric acid
Answer: 2.formaldehyde
The most common fixative for light microscopy is
10% neutral buffered formalin (4% formaldehyde
in phosphate buffered saline).

57. All are given in total parenteral nutrition


except
1.carbohydrates
2.fat
3.fibre
4.micronutrients
Answer:fibre

58. About parvovirus B19 all are true except


1. spread by respiratory route
2.has affinity for erythrocyte p antigen
3.causes transient aplastic crisis
4.about only 10%of cases it crosses the placenta
Answer: Ref Harrison 17th edition p 1116/1117 ,
Greenwood microbiology 6th e p 452
The risk of transplacental infection is 30%

59. In patients receiving isoniazid theraphy which


of the following micronutrients to be
supplemented
1. Vitamin B12
2. pyridoxine
3.
4.
Answer.pyridoxine

60. Which of the following is used to diagnose


intraoperative myocardial infarction
1.
2.
3.transesophagial echocardiogram
4.ecg
Answer: Please Help us with correct options

71 pt with solitary kidney hving 4 cm exophytic


mass in lower pole. best management
partial nephrectomy
rdical nephrctmy with dialysis
radical witth immediate renal transplant
observation

72 NARP syndrome is seen in


mitochondrial
glycogen storage
lysosomal
lipid storage

73 hallmark of acute inflammation ??


vasoconstriction
stasis
vasodilation and increase in permeability
leucocytic margination
74 ONODI CELLS & HALLER CELLS are associated
with the following structures respectively?
a.OPTIC NERVE & ORBITAL FLOOR
b.OPTIC NERVE & INTERAL CAROTID ARTERY
c.INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY& OPTIC NERVE
d.ORBITAL FLOOR & INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY

75 amp b causes def of


na
ca
k
mg

76 injury to common peronel n all except ??


loss of senstion over sole
foot drop
injury to neck of fibula
loss of dorsiflex of toe

77 Nerve involved most commonly in


supracondylar fracture
Radial nerve
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Ant int nerve

78 definitive airway a/e:


nasotracheal tube
orotracheal tube
lma
cricothyroidectomy

76 not a cause of primary amoenorrhoea


kallman syndrome
turner syndrome
sheehan syndrome
rokitansky syndrome

79 a 65 yrs old lady presenting wth swollen n


painful knee...having grade III osteoarthritic
changes..wats the best management for her
1.conservative
2.arthroscopic washing
3.partial knee replacement
4.total knee replacement

80 which is the integrase inhibitor used in


treatment of hiv??
raltegrase
indinavir
lopinavir
81 A 6 year old child presents with pain in hip in
femoral triangle region. X-ray does not reveal any
abnormality. What is the next step?
A. USG
B. MRI
C. Aspiration
D. Traction

82 Pasteurised milk is tested mostl commonly by:

a. phosphatase test
b. coliform test
c. catalase test

84 Anaesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor C/I in:


a. finger block
b. spinal block
c. epidural block
d. regional Anaesthesia

85 a rickshaw runover thigh of child ..tyre marks


over thigh represents ??
patterned bruise
imprint abrasion
ectopic abrasion

86 prophylaxis of migraine a/e


propranolol
flunarizine
topiramate
levacetarem

87 early sign of magnesium toxicity


1.depression of deep tendon reflexes
2.respiratory depression
3.cardiac arrest
4.decrease urine output

88 all are actions of muscarinic antagonist except.


a. decreses gastric secretion
b. prolongs a-v conduction
c. decreses resp secretions
d.contraction of radial muscles of iris

89 all are seen in argyl robertson pupil except.


near reflex normal
direct reflex absent
consensual reflex normal
vision normal
89 Branch of trunk of brachial plexus
a. suprascalpur
b. long thoracic n
c.ant. Thoracic
d. nerve to sub clavius.

90 tolerance in opioids develops to all except


miosis
analgesia
euphoria
??

91 diaphragm develops from a/e:


septum transversum
dorsal mesocardium
pleuroperitoneal membrane
cervical myotomes
2 ecg is poor in detecting ischaemia in areas
supplied by
lad
lt circumflex
lca
rca

93 The primary action of NO in git is?


A. Vasodilatation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. GI smooth muscle relaxation
D. Secretomotor

94 Which is not seen in digoxin toxicity?


A. Biventricular tachycardia
B. Proxysmal atrial tachycardia with ectopics
C. Ventricular bigeminy
D. Regularisation of AF

95 Which of the following does not cause indoor air


pollution?
A. CO
B. Nitrogen dioxide
C. Radon
D. Mercury vapor

96 All are true about pheochromacytoma except?


A. 90% are malignant
B. 95% occur in the abdomen
C. They secrete catecholamines
D. They arise from sympathetic ganglions

Q 97 Most important and hazardous agent that can


be used in bioterrorism:
A. Plague
B. Small pox
C. TB
D. Clostridium botulinum

[snip] True about epidural opioids are all except?


A. Acts on dorsal horn cell
B. Itching
C. Nausea & vomiting
D. Respiratory depression

Q99 Most common site of stricture formation after


TURP?
A. Navicullar foss
B. Bulb
C. Prostatic membranous urethra
D. Bladder neck

Q100 Intraoperative myocardial infarction is best


diagnosed by:
A. ECG
B. Invasive arterial pressure
C. Central venous pressure
D. Trans esophageal echocardiogram

Q101 Pseudoisomorphic phenomenon seen in


A. Psoriasis
B. Lichen planus
C. Vitiligo
D. Plane warts

1 02 ova albumin antigen was injected into a


rabbit. What antibody will it produce initially?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgD

103 a 50 yr lady has history of sprained ankle 2


months back followed by recovery. She now
complains of severe pain in that ankle with
inability to flex that foot. Physician notes edema
and shiny skin in local examination. What is the
probable diagnosis:
a. Fibromyalgia
b. Complex regional pain syndrome 1
c. Complex regi...

104 About yaws all are true except:


A. Caused by Treponema pertenue
B. Transmitted non-venerally
C. Secondary yaws can involve bones
D. Last stages involve heart and nerves

105 Weight gain in pregnancy is related to all


except?
A. Ethnicity
B. Smoking
C. Socioeconomic status
D. Pre conceptional weight

106 Which virus among the following is least likely


to cross placenta?
A. Rubella
B. Herpes simplex
C. HIV
D. HBV

107 A fire breaks out during laser vocal cord


surgery. What is not to be done?
A. Pouring sterile water
B. Removing endotracheal tube
C. 100% oxygen after discontinuing anesthetic
gases
D. Treatment with steroid & antibiotic

108 A patient with history of discharge from right


ear for past 1 year presented with severe ear
ache. The discharge was cultured and the
organism was found to be gram positive cocci. The
least likely cause is?
A. Psuedomonas
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus
D. Haemophilus influenzae

109 Which among the following is the most


common tumour associated with neurofibromatosis
in a child?
A. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Acute monocytic leukemia
D. Acute myeloid leukemia

110 Common carotid artery is palpated at which


site?
A. Upper border of cricoid cartilage
B. Upper border of thyroid cartilage
C. Hyoid bone
D. ???
111 A 5 year old boy while having dinner suddenly
becomes aphonic and is brought to the casulty for
the complaint of respiratory difficulty. What should
be the appropriate management?
A. Cricothyroidotomy
B. Emergency tracheostomy
C. Humidified oxygen
D. Heimlich maneuver

112 Which among the following is the most


common fungal infection seen in immuno
competent patients?
A. Aspergillus
B. Candida
C. Cryptococcus
D. Mucor

113 A teenaged girl complains of pain in knee on


climbing stairs and on getting up after sitting for a
long time. What is the probable diagnosis?
A. Chondromalacia
B. Plica syndrome
C. Bipartite patella
D. Patello-femoral osteoarthritis

114 cause of premature death in schizophrenia?


a)homicide
b)suicide
c)toxicity of antipsychotic drug
d)hospital acquired infection

115 Which of the following is not an adverse effect


of thalidomide?
A. Diarrhoea
B. Teratogenicity
C. DVT
D. Peripheral neuropathy

116 Superior vena caval syndrome is most


commonly caused by?
A. Lymphoma
B. Small cell lung ca
C. Non small cell lung ca
D. Secondary tumours

117 Which of the following is a contraindication for


medical treatment in gallstones?
A. Radio opaque stones
B. Radiolucent stones
C. Normal functioning gall bladder
D. Small stones
18 lines of blashchko --
lymphatic
blood vessel
nerve
line of development

119 deoxy blood flow thru a/e:


umbilical a
umbilical vein
pulm a
right ventricle

120 best test for hcg ?


radioimmunoassay
elisa
latex test

121 aortic knuckle shadow on pa x ray..obliterated


by consolidation of which portion of lung?
upper lingula
lower lingula
apex of lower lobe
post part ofupper lobe

122 Tetracycline used in prophylaxis of ?


cholera
brucellosis
leptospirosis

123 basal matabolic closely associated with ?


a.lean body mass
b.body surface area
c.body mass index
d.

124 maximal water absorption of water in git?


a jejunum
b colon
c ileum
d ??

125 pentology of fallot has which one of following


extra entities:
a. asd
b. vsd
c. rvh
d. pulmonary stenosis

126 free radicals in cells produced by a/e


glut peroxidase
NO synthase
superoxide dismutase

127 all of done in management of shoulder


dystocia except
a. fundal pressure
b. suprapubic press
c. mc roberts
d. woods

128 Which one of the following is not neuron


tumour
a.ependymoma
b.gangliocytoma
c.ganglioglioma
d.??

129 In L5 root involvement, which among the


following is not affected?
A. Thigh adduction
B. Knee flexion
C. Knee extension
D.great Toe extension

Q130 Which among the following is not a cause of


fasting hypoglycemia?
A. Glucagon excess
B. Glucose 6 phospatase deficiency
C. Ureamia
D. Glycogen synthase deficiency

131 McKeon's theory on reduced prevalence of


TB?
A. Increased awareness and knowledge
B. Medical advancement
C. Behavioural modification
D. Social and environmental factor

132 A child presents with abdominal pain only


during passage of stools. No other symptoms like
vomiting or blood in stools. There are no signs of
intestinal obstruction. Most probable diagnosis is?
A. Rectal polyp
B. Intusseception
C. Meckels diverticulum
D. NEC

Q133 A man presents with a maculopapular rash.


He gives a history of previous painless rash.
Infection is due to?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Chlamydia
C. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
D. Haemophilus ducreyi

Q134 Meglitinides - all are true except:


a. decreases post parendial hyperglycemia
b. hypoglycemia less common than sulfonylureas
c. it decreases insulin resistance
d. it acts by releasing insulin

Q135 Cleavage of which complement is involved in


both -classical and alternate pathway a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. C4

Q136 what is not asso. with mestruation..?


1. hormone
2. vaginal cytology
3. estrus profile
4. cervical changes

Q137 best treatment option for genuine stress


incontinence?
a. burch colposuspenssion
b. kelly's
c. sling operation
d.free vaginal tapping

Q138 Xanthogranulomatous inflammation all are


true except ?
A. presence of foamy macrophage
B. presence of tuberculous infection
C. multinucleatd giant cell
D. yellow nodule

Q139 Posterior relations of head of pancreas are


all except?
A. Common bile duct
B. First part of duodenum
C. right crus of diaphragm
D. Inferior vena cava

140 All are true about blood coagulation except.


1 factor 10 in doth intrinsic and extrinsic
2 extrinsic is activated by contact with plasma and
-fly charged protein ans
3 calcium is very important ion for coagulation
4 intrinsic can be activated in vitro.

Q141 Late onset endophthalmitis after intraocular


lens implantation caused by
a)staph epidrmidis
b)pseudomonas
c) strptococcus pyogenes
propionibacter acne

142 Which of the following is not a contraindication


for pregnancy?
A. WPW syndrome
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Eisenmenger syndrome
D. Marfan syndrome with aortic root dilatation

Q143 which one of the following is a cardio


protective fattyacid
a.stearic,
b.palmitic
c.oleic
d.w3 fatty acids

Q144 Which one of the following is not seen in


floor of 3rd ventricle
a.optic stalk
b.mammilary body
C.occulomotor nerve
d.infundibulum

145 Which among the following not a component


of hypogastric sheth?
A. Broad ligament
B. Transverse cervical ligament
C. lateral ligament
d.??

146 Child brought to casualty with reports of


violent shaking by parents. Most likely injury?
A. Long bone #
B. Ruptured spleen
C.subdural hematoma
D.skull bone #

147 arthropod transmitted virus diseases not


found in india
1.west nile fever
2.dengue
3.yellow fever
4.

148 open neural tube defects detected by increase


in which of the following –
acetylcholinesterase
pseudocholinestrase
AFP

149 Which of the following is true abt HDI A/E?


a) LIFE EXPECTANCY AT BIRTH
b) LIFE EXPECTANCY AT 1 YEAR
c) EDUCATION
d) GDP in us $

150 most potent activator of T cells?


1. B cells
2. follicular dendritic cells
3. mature dendritic cells
4. macrophages

151 Following abt Phagocytosis all true A/e


a.<0.5 mcm
b.>0.5 mcm
c.Phagosome+lysosome=phagolysosome
d. d.amoeba n other unicellular org make their
living out of it

152 APL Ab syndrome which Ab seen?


a.beta 1 microglobulin
b.ANA
c. anti centromere
d.

153 poor prognostic factor for ALL?


a.hyperdiploidy
b.t(9;22) t(4;11)
c.2-8 yrs
d.tlc <50000

154 Pearson's skewness coefficients


a.(Mean-median)/sd
b.Median-mean/sd
c.Sd/mean-median
d.Sd/median-mean

155 scarring alopecia with perifollicular greying


.wth mucous mem n facial rashes /annular
plaques?
1.d l e
2.lichen planus
3.psorisis
4.

156 With delirium tremens,not seen:


a.visual hallucination
b.unconsciousness
c.coarse tremors
d.opthalmoplegia

157 A patient wth intestinal infection 7 days later


presented with amoebic liver
abscess..5cmX5cmX6cm deep liver abscess on
right side Rx of choice
a.Mz and antibiotics is choice
b.Repeated aspiration and antibiotics
c.Surgical drainage is best for above mentioned
patient wth antibiotics
d.Resection of liver

158 drug of choice for central Diab insipidus?


a.desmopressin
b.leuprolide
c.thiazide

159 first structure to b fixed after Amputation is


a.Bone fixing
b.arterial repair
c.venous repair
d.nerve repair

160 fallopian tube immotility seen in:


a.churg strauss syndr
b.kartaganers syndr
c.noonans syndr
d.turner syndrome

161 Epileptic potential is present in


A. Desflurane
B. Halothane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Ether

162 which one is known as signature fracture?


1.depressed skull fracture
2.penetrating fracture
3.counter coup
4. # along the suture line

163 A 7 yr old child with craniopharyngioma got


cranial surgery done following which pituitary got
damaged.which hormone shld b replaced first-
1.hydrocort
2.thyroxine
3.growth hormone
4.
164 A 45 yr old lady presented with dub & usg
finding of 8mm endometrium.which is next best
investigation to conclude diagnosis?
1.endometrial histopathology
2.hysterectomy
3.ocp
4.follow up

Q165 Which one of the following is earliest to be


diagnosed by USG?
a.anencephaly
b.prosencephaly
c.meningocele
d.spina bifida

166 .A 5 yr ol child presented wth ballooning of


perpuce while micturationperpuce adhesion were
there.whts the best treatment for him
a.adhesiolysis and dilatation
b.circumscision
c.dorsal slit
d.conservative

167 False about HDL?


a.can oxidise LDL
b.decreased levels fail to clear LDL
c.best predictor for CAD
d

168 A poison Illuminous, translucent, waxy


1. Yellow phosphorus
2.arsenic
3.thalium
4.?

170 Gene for expession of protein.yield max


production of enzyme.is ensured by introduction of
following gene by virus
a.Promoter gene
b.Initiator signal
c.transln and transcription termination signal
d.

171 Body plethysmography pressure findings when


pt breathes aginst closed glottis in lungs n
recordings respectively
1.bothdecreased
2.both increased
3.lungs increases n recording decreased
4.in boxincrease lung decrease

172. cartilage for growth plate is:


a.fibrous
b.prim cartilagenous
c.sec cartilagenous
d.plane jt

173 Not a predisposer for atherosclerotic plaque


formation?
a.ApoE
b.alpha-macroglobulin
c.oxidised LDL
d.?

174. 7 mo child with cough ending in spasm.which


is best way to sample?
a.Nasophayngeal swab
b.Cough sputum culture
c.tracheal aspirate
d.??

175 Unilateral undescended testis . ideal age of


operation
a.6 months
b.12 months
c.24 months
d.36 months

176Following are true Carbohydrate antigen


a.Memory
b.poly clonal response
c.?
d. t cell stimulation

177 Aflatoxin produced by which of the fungal


species?
a.aspergillus flavus
b.aspergillus niger
c. candida
d??

178 A 3.8 kg baby of a diabetic mother developed


seizure 16 hr after birth ...
1.hypoglycemia
2.hypocalcemia
3. intraventricular hemorrhage
4. ??
179 girl presenting with occipital headache assoc
wid ataxia vertigo.also similar complaints in
mother ?
a.vestibular neuronitis
b.basillar migraine
c.
d.
180 18yr male with hemetemesis & melena and
splenomegaly ....
1.NCPF
2.CIRRHOSIS
3.MALARIA with dic
4.extra hepatic portal venous obstruction

181 Pregnancy induced cholestasis marker... is


a.Bilirubin
b.Bile salts
c.Sgot or sgpt
d.Alp

182 ph 7.5 pco2 30.po2 102 is partially


,compensated by
met acidosis
met alkalosis
resp acidosis
resp alkalosis

183 pulmonary toxicity is seen with


1. bleomycin
2.cisplatin
3.methotrexate
4.actinomycin d

184 A female wid depressed mood,loss of appetite


n no interest in surrounding wid insomnia specially
wid time lag in iniating n wakes up 1 hr early for 1
yr aftr her husband death is diagnosed as a case of
depression..most appropiate treatment
a.start wid a SSRI
b.two antideprassant combined therapy
c.no treatmnt as
D start antidepressant according to side affect
profile

Q185 A pt comes with history of unresponsive


fever n cough. xray pneumonia, gram positiv and
partially acid fast branchin filaments 'grows on
sheep blood agar'
1.actinomycosis
2.nocardiosis
3.aspergillus
4.

186 not a disorder of protein misfolding?


1.alzeimer
2.TB
3.cystic fibrosis
4.cjd

Q187 70yr old with intemittent jerks of recent


origin, EEG showing b/L periodic spikes,
diagnosis?
a)Hepes simplex encephalitis
b)Lewy body dementia
c)Alzheimer's
d)CJD

Q188 15 DAYS old baby comes with ca: 5 po4 :9


pth 30 (n=10-60) & seizures
1.psuedo hypo para thyroid
2.Vit d def
3.Hyperparathyroidism
4.HIE

Q189 most common cause of meningoencephalitis


in children
1.hsv
2.enterovirus
3.mumps
4.listeria

q is pulm compliance decreased in all except


A)pulm congestion
B)pulm fibrosis
C)decreased surfactant
D)chronic bronchitis

191 all of the following true abt erlotinib except


1. tyrosine kinase inhibitor
2. food delays its absorption
3. rashes s/e
4. used in non small cell ca lung when not
responded to other chemotherapeutic agents

192 People are separated into certain sub groups.


People are selected randomly from sub groups.
What type of sampling is done?
1. Random sampling
2. Stratified Sampling
3.cluster sampling
4.systemic sampling
Q194 capsule virulence in a/e -
1.nisseria memingitis
2.pneumococcus
3.bordetella pertussis
4.streptococcus

Q195 superior oblique palsy-


a.horizontal and down
b.horizontal and up
c.vertical and dwn
d.vertical and up

Q196 muscle of dorsal aorta develops frm


a.paraxial
b.intermediate
c.lateral plate
d.

197 Uretheral Crest is seen in


a. bulbar urtehera
b. prostatic urethera
c. membranous urethera

198 Site not affected in posterior cerebral artery


infarct is?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Thalamus
D. Cortex

199 Visceral larva migrans seen in


1.strongyloides
2.ancylostoma
3.toxocara canis

200. psammoma bodies seen in all except


1.follicular ca thyroin
2.papillary ca thyroid
3.cystadenoca
4.meningioma

201 Denominator in Maternal Mortality rate


1. Total Number of Live birth
2. Total Number of Married Women
3. Total Number of Birth
4.

202 a tennis player gets hurt by a ball, he


complaints of decreased vision.what may be
finding s/o this trauma
1 optic neuritis
2 pars planitis
3 vitrious detachment/ avulsion
4 equatorial edema

203 A 35 year old female has proximal weakness


of muscles, repeated ptosis and east fatiguability.
The best test to diagnose her condition is:
1) Muscle biopsy
2) CPK
3) Edrophonium test
4) EMG

204 For Pcod all r true except


1 high lh/fsh
2 high dheas
3 very high prolactin
4 raised lh
205 most imp prognostic factor in Cong Dia
Hernia

a.pulmonary ht
b.timing of surgery
c.size

206 dental numbering is done by all except


a.FDI two digit system
b.anatomic n diagramatic charting
c.pamer notation
d.??

207 Sterile Pyuria present in...


a.Tb
b. Chronic hydronephrosis??
c. Wilm's tumour
d. Neuroblastoma

208 parvovirus b19 a/e


a.<10 % transmitted by blood/placenta
b.Resp route
c.its a dna virus
d.affects erythroid progenitor cells

209 a mother with 33weeks gestation with sle.


drugs not to be administered
1. sulfadiazine
2. hydroxychloroquine
3.prednisolone
4.methotrexate

209 mifepristone used in


a.molar
b.threatened abortion
c.fibroid
Ectopic pregnancy

210 hematuria in 55 yr old man for past 5 years..


5 episodes lasting for 4 -5 days.wat will b next
best inv to come to diagnosis?
a.urine exam nd microscopy
b.x ray kub
c.abdominal usg
d.

211 during TURP surgeon takes care to dissect


above verumontenum so as not to injure the
1.external urethral sphincter
2.urethral crest
3.prostatic utricle
4.? d is sphincter vesicae

212 least common cause of ambiguous genitalia in


female child---
a.placental steroid sulfatase
b.fetal aromatase
c.wt4 mutation
d.cah

213 medical treatment for variceal bleed


a.octreotide
b.pantaprazole
c.
d.
214 lady 25 yr old presents with high tsh and low
t4 .which is most common cause for her illness
1.hashimotos
2.graves
3. pit macroadenoma
4. pseudohypothyroidism...

215 vit k carboxylates


1.aspartate
2.glutamate
3.
4.
216 false about C.diphtheriae:
a.toxin producn chromosome mediated
b.org cnfd by toxin production
c? toxic to heart and neuron
d?
217 stab injury with omentum protrusion in
umbilical area ,vitals stable.immediate next step
1.fast
2.laparotomy
3.suturing with wound exploration
4.cect

218 The shaded area in graph (showing diabetic


cut off n diabetic n non diabetic distribution) is
a] true +ve
b] true –ve
c] false +ve
d] false –ve

219 man with maculopapular rash with prev h/o


painless rash n genital painless ulcer.diagn is:
a.treponema pallidum
b.chlamydia
c.c.granulomatis
d.H.ducreyi

220 false about strep pneumoniae?


a.capsule aids in infection
b.commonest cause of o.media and pneumonia
c. least likely cause of meningitis
d.bile sensitive

221 a schizophrenic pt started on haloperidol since


2 days comes with c/o torticollis,orofaciolingual
movements. what is the diagnosis
1. acute dystonia
2.tardive dyskinesia
3.parkinsonism
4.akithisia

222 no carrier state is seen in?


1.measels
2.typhoid
3. diptheria.
4.polio

223 Pt. wt hypothyrodism wt IHD . Wt's d Rx ?


1.low dose of levothyroxin
2. normal dose
3.no levothyroxin
4.thyroid extract

224 a primigravida in 1st trimester had sputum


positive 4 afb..treatment
a) deferred to 2nd trimester
b) cat1
c)cat2
d)cat3

225 A patient had head injury with opening of eyes


with stimulation to pain, inappropriate words, and
moving limbs what is the score:
a. 10
b. 8
c. 12
d. 14

226 Which of the following is true?

a. Acetylcholinesterase inhibited by malathion can


be reversed with increasing levels of
acetylcholinesterase
b. Sulphonilamide inhibits folate reductase
irrevesibly.
c. flouoroacetate competetively inhibits aconitase
ethenol inhibit aldehd dehydrogenase when used in
methanol poisoning

227 Secondary hemorrhage after how many days


of tonsillectomy?
1: 24 hrs
2: 6 days
3: 12 days
4:12 hrs
228 Aprepitant is all except
1. Agonist at NK1
2. Crosses Blood Brain Barrier
3. Ameliorate Nausea Vomiting of chemotherapy
4. Metabolized by CYP450

229 Buprenorphine is a

1. Partial agonist at MU Receptor


2. Partial agonist at Kappa Receptor
3. Full Agonist at Mu Receptor
... antagonist at mu..

230 blood chimerism is maintained by??


a) monochorionin dizygotic
b)dichorionic dizygotic
c) vaninshin twins
d) singleton preganancy
231 crp stands for??
1.capsular polysaccharide in pneumococcus
2.
3.
4.
232 features of bstructive azoospermia??
1.high fsh high testosterone
2.low fsh high testosterone
3.normal fsh normal testosterone
4.

233 principle mediator of apoptosis?


1.nucleus
2.lysosome
3.mitochondria
4.?

234 regarding Leptospirosis.true is


a.rats only reservoir
b.fluroquinolones r doc
c.person to person transmission
d. oro fecal transmission

235 5 year old child and burned are of the size of


palm is equal to
1. 1%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4.

236 Q:All are true about ranalozine except?


a)causes hypotension
b)1st line antianginal
c)hyoglycemic
D?

237 true abt sodium fluoride in treatment of


otosclerosis?
1.inhibits osteblastic activity
2.used in active phase of otosclerosis when
schwartz sign positive
3. has proteolytic activity(bone enzymes)
4.
238 wat is true abt ranula
1.epulis
2.swelling in floor of mouth
3.
4.
239 A 6 week old male infant was brought in a
state of dehydration and shock . Na levels were
low 124 k levels 7 meq per l , hyper pigmentation
present with normal genitalia . Diagnosis ?
1.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
2.adrenal hmg n shock
3.Acute gastroenteritis with dehydration
4.
240 In pseudohyperparathyroidism what is true ?
1.Gain of function mutation
2.Decreased conversion of gtp to gmp
3.Decreased inositol tri phosph production
4.no response due to increase c amp

241 all true except selective estrogen receptor


downregulator (serd), fulvestrant
1. Used for breast cancer
2. is selective oestrogen antagonist
3. Is slower acting, safer, more effective than
SERM
4.given as once a month dose

242 which drug not used to control bleeding while


delivery of a woman with heart disease ?
1.methylergometrime
2.carboprost
3.syntocin
4.misoprostol

243 not a autoimmune disease outta following??


1.sle
2.myasthenia fravis
3.sickle cell disease
4.graves disease

244 treatment wth INH leads to deficiency of ?


1.thiamine
2.niacin
3.pyridoxine
4.pantothenic acid

245 surgeon removes a part of liver to the left of


falciform legiment. which segment the surgeon has
removed
1. 1 & 4a
2. 2 & 3
3. 1 & 4b
4.
246 diminished kidney function which is done

1.N acetylcysteine
2.fenoldopam
3.low osmolar contrast
...
247 a patient had running nost and pain over
medical aspect of eye foll that the patient
developed, chemosis,protosis,diplopia of right eye
on abduction with congestion of optic disc. what is
the prbable diagnosis?
1.acute ethmoidal sinusitis
2.orbital cellulitis
3.cavernous sinus thrombosis
4.orbital apex syndrome

248 which one of the folloeing not used in


diagnosis of insulinoma ?
1.fasting glucose test
2. d xylose
3. c peptide levels
4. insulin /glucose ratio

249 A young lady presents with fever , dysuria and


pain abdomen . Uncomplicated acute cystitis was
diagnosed . Which of these is false ?
1.Nitrate test positive
2.e coli ct was < 10 power 3
3.1 pus cell per 7 field
4.1 bacilli per field

250 pt with malaria, given primaquine develops


hemolysis, diagnosis?
1.g 6 pd def
2.glucose 6 phosphate
3.
4.

251. Best investigation for bone metastases?


a.MRI
b.CT
c.bone scan
d. x ray

252. CT least accurate for:


a. 1 cm of aneurysm in hepatic artery
b.1 cm of lymph node inpara-aortic region
c.1 cm of pancreas mass in tail

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vidya
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Tue Jan 11, 2011 12:58 pm Post subject:

251 anaesthesia avoided in sickle cell patient...


Joined: 20 Mar 2003
Posts: 999 a. iv anaesthesia
b. regional anaes
34782 Credits

252 Pregnancy induced cholestasis marker... is


a. Bilirubin
b. Bile salts
c. Sgot/sgpt
d. Alp

253 pt with b/l central loss of vision, normal


retinogram.no systemic features. no history of
similar complaints in any family members.
which condition?
a) best's disease
b) stargardt's disease
c) Retinitis pigmentosa
d) macualr hole

254 poor prognostic factor for ALL?


a.hyperdiploidy
b.t(9;22).....ans
c.2-8 yrs
d.?

255 commonest cause for b/l proptosis in


children?
a.cavernous haemangioma
b.rhabdomyosarcoma
c,d?

256 most reliable radiological sign of pulmonary


hypertension-----
a. descending branch of right pulmonary artery >
16mm
b. desc of lt pul a. >16mm
c. lt. Pul a. >16 mm
d. pul a. >16mm

257 primi in labour with uterine contractions since


last 10 hrs,cx not effaced?;next step?
a.sedate n observe
b.syntocin induction
c.c.s.
d.?

258 earliest to be diagnosed by USG?


a.anencephaly
b.prosencephaly
c.meningocele
d.

259 An amoebic liver abscess..5cm-5cm Rx of


choice
a. Mz amd antibiotics is choice
b. Repeated aspiration and antibio
c. Surgical drainage
d. Resection of liver

260 perpuce adhasion 2yr child.rx


a. adhesiolysis and dilatation
b. circumscision
c. dorsal slit

261 all true except:


a.human anatomical waste disposed in yellow bag
b.red bag contents can be source of
contamination
c.black bag for incineration ash
d.blue bag contents always disposed in secure
landfill

262 not a c/i for pregnancy - wpw syndrome

263 no carrier state – measels

264 man with maculopapular rash with prev h/o


painless rash.diagn is:
a.treponema pallidum
b.chlamydia
.C.granulomatis
d.H.ducreyi

265 false about strep pneumoniae?


a.capsule aids in infection
b.commonest cause of o.media and pneumonia
c.??

266 Amputation 1st done is


a. Bone fixing

267 mineralocorticoid receptor not present in


a.liver
b.colon
c.hippocampus
d.kidney

268 pasteurised milk is tested mostly by:


a.phosphatase test
b.coliform test

269 d/o/c for central Diab insipidus?


a.vasopressin
b.leuprolide
c.thiazide
270 fallopian tube immotility seen in:
a.churg strauss syndr
b.kartaganer;s
c.?d.?

271 child got cranial sx done ... pituitary got


damaged.. which hormone shld b replaced first-
hydrocort
thyroxine
growth hormone

272 delirium tremens,not seen:


a.visual hallucination
b.unconsciousness
c.coarse tremors
a. opthalmoplegia

273 pnt with low Ca,high phosphorus,raised


PTH..inv not to be done:
a.urine microscopy
b.PTH levels
c.vit D levels
d.??

274 miglitinides all are true except


1decreases post parendial hyperglycemia
2 hypoglycemia less than sulfonylurease
3 it decreases insulin resistance ans it's
(thiazolidinedions acts as insulin sensitizer)
4 it acts by releasing insulin (yes just like
sulfonylurease but less hypoglycemia)

275 Pearson's skewness coefficients


a. (Mean-median)/sd
b. Median-mean/sd
c. Sd/mean-median
d. Sd/median-mean

276.Question about contrast used in imaging


Test dose to be given

277.Test for milk


phospatase test
indole test

278.child with seizure within 16hrs of birth


hypoglycemia
hypocalcemia

279. Gun powder can


UV lightANS
IR light

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vidya
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Tue Jan 11, 2011 1:02 pm Post subject:

A 5 year old boy while having dinner suddenly


Joined: 20 Mar 2003
Posts: 999 becomes aphonic and is brought to the casulty for
the complaint of respiratory difficulty. what should
34782 Credits
be the next appropriate treatment:-
1) cricothyroidotomy
2) emergency tracheostomy
3) humidified oxygen
4) Hemlich maneouvre

Ans is Emergency tracheostomy

heimlich's maneuver is not tried in partial or


incomplete obstruction as it can cause complete
obstruction.
Cricothyrotomy is performed as an intervention of
choice in complete obstruction and when there are
no or minimal surgical instruments available.

Emergency tracheostomy followed by removal of


foriegn body by direct laryngoscopy is the
procedure to be followed.

there is no point of doing tracheostomy if the thing


can be managed with lessor invasive procedure

"Chocking" redirects here. For the mechanical tool,


see Wheel chock.
For the act of compressing someone's neck, see
Strangling. For other uses, see Choke.
Choking
Classification and external resources
ICD-10 F41.0, R06.8, T17, W78-W80
ICD-9 784.9, 933.1
MeSH D000402

Choking is the mechanical obstruction of the flow


of air from the environment into the lungs.
Choking prevents breathing, and can be partial or
complete, with partial choking allowing some,
although inadequate, flow of air into the lungs.
Prolonged or complete choking results in asphyxia
which leads to anoxia and is potentially fatal.
Oxygen stores in the blood and lungs keep the
victim alive for several minutes after breathing is
stopped completely.

Choking can be caused by:

* Physical obstruction of the airway by a foreign


body.
* Respiratory diseases that involve obstruction of
the airway.
* Compression of the laryngopharynx, larynx or
trachea in strangulation.

Contents

* 1 Choking in non-humans
* 2 Foreign objects
* 3 Symptoms and clinical signs
* 4 Treatment
o 4.1 Encouraging the victim to cough
o 4.2 Back slaps
o 4.3 Abdominal thrusts
+ 4.3.1 Self treatment with abdominal thrusts
o 4.4 Modified chest thrusts
o 4.5 Finger sweeping
o 4.6 Direct vision removal
* 5 CPR
* 6 Notable victims
* 7 Other uses of abdominal thrusts
* 8 References
* 9 External links

Choking in non-humans
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Foreign objects

The type of choking most commonly recognised as


such by the public is the lodging of foreign objects
(also known as foreign bodies, but consisting of
any object which comes from outside the body
itself, including food, toys or household objects) in
the airway.

This type of choking is often suffered by small


children, who are unable to appreciate the hazard
inherent in putting small objects in their mouth. In
adults, it mostly occurs whilst the patient is eating.
In one study, peanuts were the most common
obstruction.

Symptoms and clinical signs

* The person cannot speak or cry out, or has great


difficulty and limited ability to do so.
* Breathing, if possible, is labored, producing
gasping or wheezing.
* The person has a violent and largely involuntary
cough, gurgle, or vomiting noise, though more
serious choking victims will have a limited (if any)
ability to produce these symptoms since they
require at least some air movement.
* The person desperately clutches his or her throat
or mouth, or attempts to induce vomiting by
putting their fingers down their throat.
* If breathing is not restored, the person's face
turns blue (cyanosis) from lack of oxygen.
* The person does any or all of the above, and if
breathing is not restored, then becomes
unconscious.

Treatment

Choking can be treated with a number of different


procedures, with both basic techniques available
for first aiders and more advanced techniques
available for health professionals.

Many members of the public associate abdominal


thrusts, also known as the Heimlich Maneuver with
the correct procedure for choking, which is partly
due to the widespread use of this technique in
movies, which in turn was based on the
widespread adoption of this technique in the
United States at the time.

Most modern protocols (including those of the


American Heart Association and the American Red
Cross, who changed policy in 2006[5] from
recommending only abdominal thrusts) involve
several stages, designed to apply increasingly
more pressure.

The key stages in most modern protocols include:


Encouraging the victim to cough

This stage was introduced in many protocols as it


was found that many people were too quick to
undertake potentially dangerous interventions,
such as abdominal thrusts, for items which could
have been dislodged without intervention. Also, if
the choking is caused by an irritating substance
rather than an obstructing one, and if conscious,
the patient should be allowed to drink water on
their own to try to clear the throat. Since the
airway is already closed, there is very little danger
of water entering the lungs. Coughing is normal
after most of the irritant has cleared, and at this
point the patient will probably refuse any
additional water for a short time.
Back slaps

The majority of protocols now advocate the use of


hard blows with the heel of the hand on the upper
back of the victim. The number to be used varies
by training organization, but is usually between
five and twenty.

The back slap is designed to use percussion to


create pressure behind the blockage, assisting the
patient in dislodging the article. In some cases the
physical vibration of the action may also be
enough to cause movement of the article sufficient
to allow clearance of the airway.

Almost all protocols give back slaps as a technique


to be used prior to the consideration of potentially
damaging interventions such as abdominal thrusts,
but Henry Heimlich, noted for promulgating
abdominal thrusts, wrote in a letter to the New
York Times that back slaps were proven to cause
death by lodging foreign objects in to the
windpipe.

The findings of a 1982 Yale study by Day, DuBois,


and Crelin that "persuaded the American Heart
Association to stop recommending back blows for
dealing with choking...was partially funded by
Heimlich's own foundation." According to Roger
White MD of the Mayo Clinic and American Heart
Association (AHA), "There was never any science
here. Heimlich overpowered science all along the
way with his slick tactics and intimidation, and
everyone, including us at the AHA, caved in."

Abdominal thrusts
A demonstration of abdominal thrusts

Abdominal thrusts, also known as the Heimlich


Maneuver (after Henry Heimlich, who first
described the procedure in a June 1974 informal
article entitled "Pop Goes the Cafe Coronary",
published in the journal Emergency Medicine).
Edward A. Patrick, MD, PhD, an associate of
Heimlich, has claimed to be the uncredited co-
developer of the procedure. Heimlich has objected
to the name "abdominal thrusts" on the grounds
that the vagueness of the term "abdomen" could
cause the rescuer to exert force at the wrong site.

Performing abdominal thrusts involves a rescuer


standing behind a patient and using their hands to
exert pressure on the bottom of the diaphragm.
This compresses the lungs and exerts pressure on
any object lodged in the trachea, hopefully
expelling it. This amounts to an artificial cough.

Due to the forceful nature of the procedure, even


when done correctly it can injure the person on
whom it is performed. Bruising to the abdomen is
highly likely and more serious injuries can occur,
including fracture of the xiphoid process or ribs.

In some areas, such as Australia, authorities


believe that there is not enough scientific evidence
to support the use of Abdominal thrusts and their
use is not recommended in first aid.

Self treatment with abdominal thrusts

A person may also perform abdominal thrusts on


themselves by using a fixed object such as a
railing or the back of a chair to apply pressure
where a rescuer's hands would normally do so. As
with other forms of the procedure, it is possible
that internal injuries may result.
[edit] Modified chest thrusts

A modified version of the technique is sometimes


taught for use with pregnant and/or obese
patients. The rescuer places their hand in the
center of the chest to compress, rather than in the
abdomen.

Finger sweeping

The American Medical Association advocates


sweeping the fingers across the back of the throat
to attempt to dislodge airway obstructions, once
the choking victim becomes unconscious
Some protocols advocate the use of the rescuer's
finger to 'sweep' foreign objects away once they
have reached the mouth.[citation needed]
However, many modern protocols recommend
against the use of the finger sweep as if the
patient is conscious, they will be able to remove
the foreign object themselves, or if they are
unconscious the rescuer should simply place them
in the recovery position (where the object should
fall out due to gravity). There is also a risk of
causing further damage (for instance inducing
vomiting) by using a finger sweep technique.

Direct vision removal

The advanced medical procedure to remove such


objects is inspection of the airway with a
laryngoscope or bronchoscope, and removal of the
object under direct vision, followed by CPR if the
patient does not start breathing on their own.
Severe cases where there is an inability to remove
the object may require cricothyrotomy.

CPR

In most protocols, once the patient has become


unconscious, the emphasis switches to performing
CPR, involving both chest compressions and
artificial respiration. These actions are often
enough to dislodge the item sufficiently for air to
pass it, allowing gaseous exchange in the lungs.

Notable victims

* United States President George W. Bush survived


choking on a pretzel on January 13, 2002,
receiving major media coverage.
* Jimmie Foxx, a famous Major League Baseball
player, died by choking on a bone.
* Tennessee Williams, the playwright, died after
choking on a bottle cap.
* An urban legend states that obese singer Mama
Cass choked to death on a ham sandwich. This
was borne out of a quickly discarded speculation
by the coroner, who noted a partly eaten ham
sandwich and figured she may have choked to
death. In fact, she died of a heart condition, often
wrongly referred to in the media as heart failure
but specified on her death certificate as fatty
myocardial degeneration.
* The Queen Mother was admitted to a UK Hospital
for an operation in May 1993 after choking on a
fish bone.

Other uses of abdominal thrusts

Dr. Heimlich also advocates the use of the


technique as a treatment for drowning and asthma
attacks, but Heimlich's promotion to use the
maneuver to treat these conditions resulted in
marginal acceptance. Criticism of these uses has
been the subject of numerous print and television
reports which resulted from an internet and media
campaign by his son, Peter M. Heimlich, who
alleges that in August 1974 his father published
the first of a series of fraudulent case reports in
order to promote the use of abdominal thrusts for
near-drowning rescue.

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vidya
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Tue Jan 11, 2011 1:12 pm Post subject:

A 35 year old female has proximal weakness of


Joined: 20 Mar 2003
Posts: 999 muscles, repeated ptosis and east fatiguability.
The best test to diagnose her condition is:
34782 Credits
1) Muscle biopsy
2) CPK
3) Edrophonium test
4) EMG
Answer: Edrophonium test.
Explanation: Muscle biops, EMG and CPK are
primarily used for diagnosis of inflammatory
myopathies e.g. polymyositis, inclusion body
myositis. Here the clinical picture is clearly of MG,
which most common presentataion is extraocular
muscle palsies. Plus inflammtory myopathies
usually spare extraocular muscles. BUT proximal
muscle weakness is included in the syndrome of
myapthic muscle weakness. Anyways, I think what
they wanted is to focus on how to distinguish
between MG and inflammatory myopathies using a
single test and not a diagnostic test. So the
answer is Edrophonium which will help us to clarify
it in a split second( figuratively) Edrophonium
Positive=MG, negative, test further for
myopathies.
What are the methods for diagnosing Myasthenia
Gravis and how long do they take to perform?

The initial diagnostic exam for Myasthenia Gravis


includes the following:

* Evaluation begins with examination by a


neurologist. 1 hour.
* " Tensilon test. (A Tensilon test is positive in
many patients who have MG, but may actually be
negative in 20-30% patients with MG diagnosed by
other methods.) 15-30 minutes in the physician's
office.
* Acetylcholine receptor antibodies (a blood test).
Acetylcholine receptor antibodies are positive in
90% of patients with general myasthenia. The
results usually take a week to return from the
laboratory.
* EMG (electromyogram) is a test to determine the
electrical response from the muscle after
stimulation of the nerve. 1 hour.

ans: EMG

An additional test is:

* Single-fiber EMG. This test is only performed at


specialized centers. The exam itself takes 1-3
hours to perform. A single fiber EMG is considered
the best test, being positive in 95-99% of MG
patients.

In rare patients all these tests are normal, but


examination by a neurologist suggest Myasthenia
Gravis. If the disease is mild or purely ocular
(symptoms of the eye muscles), then the tests are
more frequently negative then in the case of the
generalized disease.

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vidya
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Tue Jan 11, 2011 1:17 pm Post subject:

Q: which is NOT a definite airway


Joined: 20 Mar 2003
a. nasotracheal tube
Posts: 999
b. orotracheal tube
34782 Credits
c. LMA......ANS
d. cricothyroidtomy..

Ref:
A definitive airway can be: an endotracheal tube,
an nasotracheal tube, or a surgical airway
(cricothroidotomy).

The need for a definitive airway is based upon a


number of clinical findings:
the presence of apnea
inability to maintain a patent airway by less
invasive means
need to protect the lower airway from aspiration of
blood or vomitus
impending or potential airway compromise
(following inhalational injury, facial fractures,
retroparygeal hematoma or sustained seizure
activity)
presence of a closed head injury requiring assisted
ventilation
inability to maintain adequate oxygenation by face
mask oxygen supplementation
any patient with a Glasgow coma score of 8 or less

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shrikant
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Tue Jan 11, 2011 2:38 pm Post subject:

17. Which is not a neural tumor ?


Joined: 07 Oct 2008
Posts: 2399 1. Ependymoma
2. Neuroblastoma
78402 Credits
3. Gangliocytoma
4. Ganglioglioma
Answer CONTROVERSIAL (cant ans be
neuroblastoma,neuroendocrine tumor)

Neuroblastoma is the most common extracranial


solid cancer in childhood and the most common
cancer in infancy, with an annual incidence of
about 650 new cases per year in the US. Close to
50 percent of neuroblastoma cases occur in
children younger than two years old. It is a
neuroendocrine tumor, arising from any neural
crest element of the sympathetic nervous system
or SNS.

REF Cotran, Ramzi S.; Kumar, Vinay; Fausto,


Nelson; Nelso Fausto; Robbins, Stanley L.; Abbas,
Abul K. (2005). Robbins and Cotran pathologic
basis of disease. St. Louis, Mo: Elsevier Saunders.
pp. 1406.
Ganglioglioma is a tumour that arises from
ganglion cells in the central nervous system.
The term "gangliocytoma" is sometimes equated
with ganglioglioma. However, it is also sometimes
equated with ganglioneuroma. The term
"gangliocytoma" is sometimes used to imply that
the tumor is entirely neuronal.

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DS Kumar
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Wed Jan 12, 2011 2:09 pm Post subject:

Q-Epileptic potential is present in


Joined: 19 Jan 2009
Posts: 2413 A. Desflurane
B. Halothane
62137 Credits
C. Sevoflurane
D. Ether
Best Ans-Sevoflurane

• SEVOFLURANE, ISOFLURANE, ENFLURANE Have


epileptic potential.

• "ISOLATED EPILEPTIFORM PATTERNS


SOMETIMES CAN BE SEEN DURING
INTERSUPPRESSION ACTIVITY AT 1.5 TO 2 MAC
ISOFLURANE. SEVOFLURANE CAUSES SIMILAR
DOSE-DEPENDENT EEG EFFECTS. EQUI-MAC
CONCENTRATIONS OF SEVOFLURANE AND
ISOFLURANE CAUSE SIMILAR EEG CHANGES.
• EPILEPTIFORM ACTIVITY HAS BEEN INDUCED BY
ADMINISTRATION OF SEVOFLURANE IN PATIENTS
WITHOUT EPILEPSY, AND SEIZURE ACTIVITY ON
EEG, BUT NOT CLINICAL SEIZURE ACTIVITY, HAS
BEEN REPORTED IN PEDIATRIC PATIENTS WITH A
HISTORY OF EPILEPSY DURING INDUCTION OF
ANESTHESIA WITH SEVOFLURANE.
• DESPITE THESE OBSERVATIONS, SEVOFLURANE,
SIMILAR TO OTHER INHALATION AGENTS, IS NOT
SUITABLE FOR USE DURING
ELECTROCORTICOGRAPHY FOR LOCALIZATION OF
SEIZURE FOCI.
• EEG PATTERNS SEEN WITH ENFLURANE ARE
SIMILAR TO THE PATTERNS SEEN WITH
ISOFLURANE EXCEPT THAT EPILEPTIFORM
ACTIVITY IS CONSIDERABLY MORE PROMINENT.
• At 2 to 3 MAC, burst suppression is seen, but
virtually all intersuppression activity consists of
large spike/wave pattern discharges.
Hyperventilation with high concentrations of
enflurane increases the length of suppression,
decreases the duration of bursts, but increases the
amplitude and main frequency component of the
intersuppression epileptiform activity. Frank EEG
seizures also may occur with enflurane that
produce the same cerebral metabolic effects as
pentylenetetrazol, a known convulsant.
• Halothane also produces EEG patterns similar to
those of isoflurane, but dosages of halothane that
would produce burst suppression in the EEG (3 to
4 MAC) are associated with profound
cardiovascular toxicity.
• Desflurane produces EEG changes similar in
nature to equi-MAC concentrations of isoflurane. In
limited clinical studies,
• THERE HAS BEEN NO EVIDENCE OF
EPILEPTIFORM ACTIVITY WITH DESFLURANE,
DESPITE HYPERVENTILATION AND 1.6 MAC
DOSAGE,[219] AND DESFLURANE HAS BEEN USED
AS A TREATMENT OF REFRACTORY STATUS
EPILEPTICUS.

• “SEIZURES OCCUR DURING INDUCTION OF


ANESTHESIA WITH HIGH CONCENTRATIONS OF
SEVOFLURANE IN CHILDREN, INCLUDING THOSE
WITHOUT A RECOGNIZED SEIZURE DIATHESIS.
• IN TWO HEALTHY HUMAN SUBJECTS, EEG
BURST SUPPRESSION WITH 2 MAC SEVOFLURANE
WAS ACCOMPANIED BY EPILEPTIFORM
DISCHARGES THAT WERE OBSERVED DURING
EEG MONITORING.
• These discharges were associated with a
significant increase in CBF, thus demonstrating
that flow-metabolism coupling was preserved. In
patients with temporal lobe epilepsy,
administration of 1.5 MAC sevoflurane elicited
widespread paroxysmal interictal EEG activity. Of
note was the observation that paroxysmal activity
was not restricted to the ictal focus and that the
administration of sevoflurane was not of any
assistance in localization of the epileptogenic
region of the brain.
• The development of tonic-clonic movements
indicative of seizure activity has also been reported
in otherwise healthy patients on emergence from
sevoflurane anesthesia. In all of the reported cases
of seizure activity attributable to sevoflurane
anesthesia, untoward sequelae have not been
documented. These reports highlight sevoflurane's
ability, albeit small, to evoke epileptiform activity,
and accordingly, the use of sevoflurane in patients
with epilepsy should be undertaken with
appropriate caution.”
----------------- Miller's Anesthesia

• “Potential for cerebral toxicity has been studied


for sevoflurane as compared to halothane. At
• normal CO2 and blood pressure no evidence of
sevoflurane toxicity exists.

• With extreme hyperventilation to decrease


cerebral blood flow by half, brain lactate levels
increase, but significantly less than with halothane.
There are conflicting data as to whether
sevoflurane has a proconvulsant effect.
• High, long-lasting concentrations of sevoflurane
(1.5 to 2.0 MAC), a sudden increase in cerebral
sevoflurane concentrations, and hypocapnia can
trigger EEG abnormalities that often are associated
with increases in heart rate in both adults and
• children. This has raised the question as to the
appropriateness of sevoflurane in patients with
epilepsy.”

• “Sevoflurane has the potential for toxicity, since


it can be converted to toxic agents; however, the
concentration of these agents is normally below
• the toxic threshold. Sevoflurane has been shown
to be a useful alternative to halothane for
• p ediatric induction, however there are reports of
epileptiform discharges in patients given
sevoflurane at induction doses (1.5 to 2 MAC).”
---------- Barash, Paul G.; Cullen, Bruce F.;
Stoelting, Robert K.
Clinical Anesthesia, 5th Edition
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins

Drug issues
The following anaesthetic and allied drugs should
be used with caution in epileptics:
-----oxford anasthesia
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kailash
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Thu Jan 13, 2011 12:37 pm Post subject:

1. Most common nerve injured in supracondylar


Joined: 07 Oct 2008
Posts: 2690 fracture humerus?
a. Median
90222 Credits
b. Radial
c. Ulnar
d. Anterior interosseus nerve
Ans: D
The Mnemonic for the order of nerves injured in
Supracondylar fracture is AMRU
That is:
Ant . Interosseus Nerve> Median > Radial >Ulnar

2. Earliest symptom of GERD in an infant is?


A. Respiratory distress answer
B. Upper GI bleed
C. regurgitation
D.obstruction

Ans: C REGURGITATION....
Reference from Nelson Pediatrics
Infantile reflux manifests more often with
regurgitation (especially postprandially), signs of
esophagitis (irritability, arching, choking, gagging,
feeding aversion), and resulting failure to thrive;
symptoms resolve spontaneously in the majority
by 12–24 mo. Older children, in contrast, may
have regurgitation during the preschool years;
complaints of abdominal and chest pain supervene
in later childhood and adolescence. Occasional
children present with neck contortions (arching,
turning of head) designated Sandifer syndrome.
The respiratory presentations are also age
dependent: GERD in infants may manifest as
obstructive apnea or as stridor or lower airway
disease in which reflux complicates primary airway
disease such as laryngomalacia or
bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Otitis media,
sinusitis, lymphoid hyperplasia, hoarseness, vocal
cord nodules, and laryngeal edema have all been
associated with GERD. In contrast, airway
manifestations in older children are more
frequently related to asthma or to otolaryngologic
disease such as laryngitis or sinusitis.

3. Basal metabolic rate is closely associated with?


A. Lean body mass
B. Body surface area
C. Body mass index
D. Body weight
Ans: A Lean Body mass (REPEAT...shall not spend
much time on repeats)

4. A girl presented with recurrent occipital


headache associated with ataxia and vertigo.
Mother also has similar complaints. Most probable
diagnosis is?
A. Vestibular neuronitis
B. Basillar migraine
C. TIA
D. –
Ans: b Basilar migraine(REPEAT)

5. Drug of choice for central Diabetes Insipidus is?


a. Desmopressin
b. Leuperolide
c. Thiazide diuretics
d. –
Ans: A Desmopressin
Reference: Harrispn 17th ed
The signs and symptoms of uncomplicated
pituitary DI can be eliminated completely by
treatment with desmopressin (DDAVP), a synthetic
analogue of AVP (Fig. 334-1). It acts selectively at
V2 receptors to increase urine concentration and
decrease urine flow in a dose-dependent manner
(Fig. 334-4). It is also more resistant to
degradation than AVP and has a three- to fourfold
longer duration of action. Desmopressin (DDAVP)
can be given by IV or SC injection, nasal
inhalation, or oral tablet.

6. A 32 year old mountaineer has a hematocrit of


70%. What is the possible explanation?
A. Polycythemia with relative dehydration
B. High altitude cerebral oedema
C. High altitude pulmonary oedema
D. Hemodilution

Ans.A Polycythemia and relative dehydration

Reference:Harrison 17th ed
Polycythemia can be spurious (related to a
decrease in plasma volume; Gaisbock's
syndrome), primary, or secondary in origin. The
secondary causes are all associated with increases
in EPO levels: either a physiologically adapted
appropriate elevation based on tissue hypoxia
(lung disease, high altitude, CO poisoning, high-
affinity hemoglobinopathy) or an abnormal
overproduction (renal cysts, renal artery stenosis,
tumors with ectopic EPO production). A rare
familial form of polycythemia is associated with
normal EPO levels but hyperresponsive EPO
receptors due to mutations

7. Tetracycline is used in the prophylaxis of which


of the following diseases?
a. Cholera
b. Brucellosis
c. Leptospirosis
d. Meningitis
Ans: a Cholera
Reference:Goodman Gilman and Harrison 17th ed
Doxycycline (300 mg as a single dose) is effective
in reducing stool volume and eradicating Vibrio
cholerae from the stool within 48 hours.
Antimicrobial agents, however, are not substitutes
for fluid and electrolyte replacement in this
disease. In addition, some strains of V. cholerae
are resistant to tetracyclines.

8. A 7 month old child has bouts of cough ending


with a whoop. What is the best way to confirm the
diagnosis?
A. Nasophayngeal swab
B. Cough plate culture
C. Tracheal aspirate
D. –

Ans: a Nasopharyngeal swab


Harrison 17th ed

The diagnosis is Pertusis and we have to find the


best specimen to confirm the diagnosis.

Culture of nasopharyngeal secretions remains the


gold standard of diagnosis, although DNA detection
by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is replacing
culture in many laboratories because of increased
sensitivity and quicker results. The best specimen
is collected by nasopharyngeal aspiration, in which
a fine flexible plastic catheter attached to a 10-mL
syringe is passed into the nasopharynx and
withdrawn while gentle suction is applied.

9. Aflatoxin is produced by?


A. Aspergillus flavus
B. Aspergillus niger
C. Candida
D. –

Ans: a Aspergillus Flavus

MYCOTOXINS
Many fungi produce poisonous substances called
mycotoxins that can cause acute or chronic
intoxication and damage. The mycotoxins are
secondary metabolites, and their effects are not
dependent on fungal infection or viability. A variety
of mycotoxins are produced by mushrooms (eg,
amanita species), and their ingestion results in a
dose-related disease called mycetismus. Cooking
has little effect on the potency of these toxins,
which may cause severe or fatal damage to the
liver and kidney. Other fungi produce mutagenic
and carcinogenic compounds that can be
extremely toxic for experimental animals. One of
the most potent is aflatoxin, which is elaborated by
Aspergillus flavus and related molds and is a
frequent contaminant of peanuts, corn, grains, and
other foods.

10. Most important prognostic factor in congenital


diaphragmatic hernia?
A. Pulmonary hypertension
B. Timing of surgery
C. Size of defect
D. –

Ans: A Pulmonary hypertension

Reference: Nelson 18th ed

Overall survival of live-born infants is 67%. The


incidence of spontaneous fetal demise with CDH
diagnosis is 7–10%. Relative predictors of a poor
prognosis include an associated major anomaly,
symptoms before 24 hr of age, severe pulmonary
hypoplasia, herniation to the contralateral lung,
and the need for ECMO.
Serious sequelae include pulmonary function
changes, neurodevelopmental delays, and growth
retardation. Pulmonary problems continue to be a
source of morbidity for long-term survivors of
CDH. Children receiving CDH repair studied at 6–
11 yr of age demonstrate significant decreases in
forced expiratory flow at 50% of vital capacity and
decreased peak expiratory flow. Both obstructive
and restrictive patterns can occur. Those without
severe pulmonary hypertension and barotrauma
do the best. Those at highest risk include children
who required ECMO and patch repair, but the data
clearly show that non-ECMO CDH survivors also
require frequent attention to pulmonary issues. At
discharge, up to 20% of infants require oxygen,
but only 1–2% require it past 1 yr of age.

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kailash
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Thu Jan 13, 2011 12:39 pm Post subject:

11. A surgeon removed the part of liver to the left


Joined: 07 Oct 2008
Posts: 2690 of the falciform ligament. Which segments have
been removed?
90222 Credits
A. 1 & 4a
B. 2 & 3
C. 1 & 4b
D. 5 & 6
Ans: B 2 & 3(REPEAT)

Reference: Sabiston 18th ed


Resection of segments II and III is a commonly
performed sublobar resection and is often referred
to as a left lateral segmentectomy and left lateral
sectionectomy or left lobectomy.Left lobe is that
part of liver to the left of the falciform ligament.

12. Punnett square is used for


a. Finding genotype of offspring
b. Statistical analysis
c. –
d. –

Ans:a Finding the genotype of the offspring


Reference: The Tennessee Gateway Science
Punnett square is a Diagram used to identify
possible combinations of recessive and dominant
alleles in OFFSPRING.To create a punnette square
divide a suare into 4 parts and write the letters
that represent the alleles of one parent on top of
the suare and the alleles of the other parent on the
side of the square..Just like we make a 2X2 table
for statistics questions.Combine the allele of one
parent with the other and work out the 4 possible
combinations.The punnett square does not give
the exact information about the offspring but
instead gives the probability.

13. Cavitation is seen in?


A. Mycolplasma pneumonia
B. Tuberculous pneumonia
C. Streptococcal pneumonia
D.Staphylococcus pneumonia

Ans: D Staphylococcal Pneumonia(REPEAT)

14. In PSUDOHYPOPARATHYROIDISM true is?


(NEED FINETUNING OF STEM)
a. Decreased cAMP
b. Decreased IP3
c. Increased gtpas activity/Gain of function
mutation in GTPase
d.---

Ans:a Decreased cAMP

Reference: Harrisson 17th ed


Individuals with Pseudohypoparathyroidism 1, the
most common of the disorders, show a deficient
urinary cyclic AMP response to administration of
exogenous PTH. Patients with PHP-I are divided
into type a, with AHO and reduced amounts of Gs
in in vitro assays with erythrocytes, and type b,
lacking AHO and with normal amounts of Gs in
erythrocytes. There is a third type (PHP-Ic,
reported in a few patients) that differs from PHP-Ia
only in having normal erythrocyte levels of Gs
despite having AHO, hypocalcemia, and decreased
urinary cyclic AMP responses to PTH (presumably
with a post-Gs defect in adenyl cyclase
stimulation).
Difference between follicular carcinoma and
follicular adenoma is?
A. Vascular invasion
B. Mitosis
C. Nuclear pleomorphism
D. Tubule formation
Ans: a Vacular invasion (REPEAT)

15. Antidepressant drug that can be used in


nocturnal eneuresis?
A. Imipramine
B. Fluoxamine
C.
D.
Ans: A Imipramine
Reference: Kaplan Saddock Psychiatry
Imipramine (Tofranil) is efficacious and has been
approved for use in treating childhood enuresis,
primarily on a short-term basis. Initially, up to 30
percent of patients with enuresis stay dry, and up
to 85 percent wet less frequently than before
treatment. The success often does not last,
however, and tolerance can develop after 6 weeks
of therapy. Once the drug is discontinued, relapse
and enuresis at former frequencies usually occur
within a few months. The drug's adverse effects,
which include cardiotoxicity, are also a serious
problem.

17. A female patient presented with depressed


mood, loss of appetite and no interest in
surroundings. There is associated insomnia. The
onset of depression was preceeded by a history of
business loss and immediately soon after it she
developed the followiung symptoms for the past
1yr . True is?
A. No treatment is necessary as it is due to
business loss
B. SSRI is the most efficacious of the available
drugs
C. Start SSRI treatment based on side effect
profile
D. Combination therapy of 2 anti depressant
drugs

Ans:C Treatment is started based on the side


effect profile

Reference:Kaplan and Saddock

Initial Medication Selection


The available antidepressants do not differ in
overall efficacy, speed of response, or long-term
effectiveness. Antidepressants, however, do differ
in their pharmacology, drug drug interactions,
short- and long-term side effects, likelihood of
discontinuation symptoms, and ease of dose
adjustment. Failure to tolerate or to respond to
one medication does not imply that other
medications will also fail. Selection of the initial
treatment depends on the chronicity of the
condition, course of illness (a recurrent or chronic
course is associated with increased likelihood of
subsequent depressive symptoms without
treatment), family history of illness and treatment
response, symptom severity, concurrent general
medical or other psychiatric conditions, prior
treatment responses to other acute phase
treatments, potential drug drug interactions, and
patient preference. In general, approximately 45
to 60 percent of all outpatients with uncomplicated
(i.e., minimal psychiatric and general medical
comorbidity), nonchronic, nonpsychotic major
depressive disorder who begin treatment with
medication respond (i.e., achieve at least a 50
percent reduction in baseline symptoms);
however, only 35 to 50 percent achieve remission
(i.e., the virtual absence of depressive
symptoms).

18. An Infant is brought to casualty with reports of


violent shaking by parents. Most characteristic
injury is?
A. Long bone fracture answer
B. Ruptured spleen
C. Subdural hematoma
D. Skull bone fracture

Ans: Subdural hematoma

Reference: Forensic Medicine By Reddy

Under the Topic Battered Baby syndrome Reddy


talks about SUBDURAL HEMATOMA being the
MOST CHARACTERISTIC FEATURE of violent
shaking of an infant by the Parent...Its called
INFANTILE WHIPLASH SYNDROME....In Battered
baby syndrome multiple Long bone fractures at
various stages of healing may be seen and not in
infantile whiplash syndrome..

19. Gun powder on clothing can be visualized by?


A. Magnifying lens
B. UV rays
C. Infrared rays
D. Dye
Ans: B UV Rays (REPEAT)

20. Capsular antibody protection is seen in all


except?
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Pneumococcus
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Haemophilus influenza

Ans: C Bordetella pertusis

Reference: Harrison 17th ed


B. pertussis produces a wide array of toxins and
biologically active products that are important in
its pathogenesis and in immunity. Most of these
virulence factors are under the control of a single
genetic locus that regulates their production,
resulting in antigenic modulation and phase
variation. Although these processes occur both in
vitro and in vivo, their importance in the
pathobiology of the organism is unknown; they
may play a role in intracellular persistence and
person-to-person spread. The organism's most
important virulence factor is pertussis toxin, which
is composed of a B oligomer–binding subunit and
an enzymatically active A protomer that ADP-
ribosylates a guanine nucleotide-binding regulatory
protein (G protein) in target cells, producing a
variety of biologic effects. Pertussis toxin has
important mitogenic activity, affects the circulation
of lymphocytes, and serves as an adhesin for
bacterial binding to respiratory ciliated cells. Other
important virulence factors and adhesins are
filamentous hemagglutinin, a component of the
cell wall, and pertactin, an outer-membrane
protein. Fimbriae, bacterial appendages that play a
role in bacterial attachment, are the major
antigens against which agglutinating antibodies are
directed. These agglutinating antibodies have
historically been the primary means of serotyping
B. pertussis strains. Other virulence factors include
tracheal cytotoxin, which causes respiratory
epithelial damage; adenylate cyclase toxin, which
impairs host immune-cell function; dermonecrotic
toxin, which may contribute to respiratory mucosal
damage; and lipooligosaccharide, which has
properties similar to those of other gram-negative
bacterial endotoxins.

Back to top

kailash
Posted: Thu Jan 13, 2011 12:41 pm Post subject:
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member
21. Signature fracture refers to?
Joined: 07 Oct 2008 A. Depressed skull fracture
Posts: 2690
B. Suture displacement fracture
90222 Credits C. Contrecoup injury
D. Fracture at foramen magnum
Ans: Depressed fracture (REPEAT) I don’t think the
question needs an explanation

22. Which among the following is most frequently


seen in anti phospholipid antibody syndrome?(Pls
CORRECT Q)
A. Beta 2 microglobulin antibody
B. Anti nuclear antibody
C. Anti centromere antibody
D. Anti beta 2 glycoprotein antibody

Ans: D Anti beta 2 GP Ab


The antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS)
may be defined as the occurrence of arterial or
venous thrombosis or recurrent miscarriage in
association with laboratory evidence of persistent
antiphospholipid antibody. The antibody may
manifest itself as either a lupus anticoagulant
detected by clotting tests or an anticardiolipin
antibody (ACA) detected by immunoassay. The
syndrome may be associated with an autoimmune
disorder, especially SLE (secondary), or may occur
independently of other autoimmune disorders
(primary). A large proportion of antiphospholipid
antibodies are actually directed against complexes
of phospholipid with protein, most notably beta-2-
glycoprotein I. The ACA immunoassay detects both
these clinically significant antibodies and
antibodies directed purely against cardiolipin and
not beta-2-glycoprotein I. The latter antibodies are
transient, and are often associated with infection
but not thrombosis. A positive anti-b2 GPI assay is
evidence in favor of APS, once persistence is
demonstrated by repeating the assay after eight
weeks.

23. What factor is responsible for deciding whether


an antibody will remain membrane bound or get
secreted?
A. RNA splicing
B. Class switching
C. Differential RNA processing
D. Allelic exclusion
Ans: C Differential RNA Processing(REPEAT)
24. Blood Chimerism is associated with?
A. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
B. Monochorionic diamniotic twins
C. Singleton pregnancy
D. Vanishing twin

Ans: B Monochorionic diamniotic twins (no doubt if


these were the options)
Explanation: Reference:
“ Journal Ref: Blood Chimerism in a Dizygotic
Dichorionic Pregnancy”

“Blood chimerism in monochorionic twins


conceived by induced ovulation: Case report”
Journal says “ Blood chimerism “is more common
in monochorionic dizygotic(MCDZ)twins and rare in
dichorionic twins
“Cases in which a monochorionic placenta occurs
in a twin pregnancy,vascular anstomosis is well
described and can lead to blood chimerism as well
as twin twin transfusion syndrome.In contrast
interplacental vascular communications occur only
with very rare exceptions in a dichorionic
placenta”

25. In expectant management of placenta praevia,


all are done except?
A. Cervical encirclage
B. Anti D
C. Corticosteroids
D. Blood transfusion
Ans: a Cervical encirclage
Reference: Williams Obstetrics
The treatment of classical cervical incompetence is
cerclage. The operation is performed to surgically
reinforce
the weak cervix by some type of purse-string
suturing. Bleeding, uterine contractions, or
ruptured membranes are usually contraindications
for cerclage.

26. Which drug is not used during delivery in a


woman with rheumatic heart disease ?
A. Methylergometrine
B. Carboprost
C. Syntocin
D. Misoprostol
Ans: A Methylergometrine(REPEAT)

27. Which is not an autoimmune disease?


A. SLE
B. Grave's disease
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Sickle cell disease
Ans: D Sickle Cell Disease(I don’t think an
explanation is needed..Sickle cell ds is a
hemoglobinopathy and not an autoimmune ds)

28. All are true regarding selective estrogen


receptor downregulator (SERD),fulvestrant
except?
A. Used for breast cancer
B. Is a selective oestrogen antagonist
C. Is slower acting, safer, LESS effective than
SERM
D. Given as once a month im dose
Ans: C Its slower acting and less efficacious than
SERM
Reference:This Question has been taken line to
line from Goodman Gilman Pharmacology as u will
see below:
Fulvestrant
Fulvestrant (FASLODEX) is the first FDA approved
agent in the new class of estrogen-receptor
downregulators, which were hypothesized to have
an improved safety profile, faster onset, and
longer duration of action than the SERMs due to
their pure ER antagonist activity (Robertson,
2002). Fulvestrant was approved in 2002 for
postmenopausal women with hormone receptor-
positive metastatic breast cancer that has
progressed despite antiestrogen therapy.
Mechanism of Action
Fulvestrant is a steroidal antiestrogen that binds to
the ER with an affinity more than 100 times that of
tamoxifen, inhibits its dimerization, and increases
its degradation.
Preclinical studies suggest that as a consequence
of this ER "downregulation," ER-mediated
transcription is abolished, completely suppressing
the expression of estrogen-dependent genes
(Howell et al., 2004b). This difference in the
activity of fulvestrant likely explains why
fulvestrant demonstrates efficacy against
tamoxifen-resistant breast cancer.
However, the hypothesis that fulvestrant provides
more effective antiestrogen activity than tamoxifen
was not confirmed by a clinical trial comparing
fulvestrant (250 mg intramuscularly monthly) with
tamoxifen (20 mg orally daily) as first-line therapy
in metastatic breast cancer (Howell et al., 2004a).
Absorption, Fate, and Excretion
Maximum plasma concentrations are reached
about 7 days after intramuscular administration of
fulvestrant and are maintained over a period of 1
month. The plasma half-life is approximately 40
days. Steady-state concentrations are reached
after 3 to 6 monthly injections. There is extensive
and rapid distribution, predominantly to the
extravascular compartment.
Various pathways, similar to those of steroid
metabolism including oxidation, aromatic
hydroxylation, and conjugation, extensively
metabolize fulvestrant. CYP3A4 appears to be the
only CYP isoenzyme involved in the oxidation of
fulvestrant. Several preclinical and clinical studies
have confirmed that fulvestrant is not subject to
CYP3A4 interactions that might affect the safety or
efficacy of the drug. The putative metabolites
possess no estrogenic activity and only the 17-
keto compound demonstrates a level of
antiestrogenic activity about 4.5 times less than
that of fulvestrant. The major route of excretion is
via the feces, with less than 1% being excreted in
the urine (Robertson and Harrison, 2004).
Therapeutic Uses
Fulvestrant typically is administered as a 250-mg
intramuscular injection at monthly intervals. It is
used in postmenopausal women as antiestrogen
therapy of hormone receptor-positive metastatic
breast cancer after progression on first-line
antiestrogen therapy such as tamoxifen (Strasser-
Weippl and Goss, 2004). Fulvestrant is at least as
effective in this setting as the third-generation
aromatase inhibitor anastrozole.
Fulvestrant 250 mg (administered as a once-
monthly 5-ml intramuscular injection) also has
been compared with tamoxifen 20 mg (orally once
daily) in a trial of postmenopausal women with ER-
positive and/or progesterone receptor (PR)-
positive or ER/PR-unknown metastatic breast
cancer who had not previously received endocrine
or chemotherapy. There was no difference
between fulvestrant and tamoxifen in time to
disease progression in either the entire study
population or the subset of patients with ER-
and/or PR-positive disease. Observed differences
in other efficacy endpoints favored tamoxifen, and
fulvestrant equivalence was not demonstrated
(Vergote and Robertson, 2004). The long time to
steady-state plasma levels for fulvestrant has
brought into question the results of existing
studies, and trials are in progress to test the
relative efficacy of giving an initial loading dose
followed by regular monthly injections.
Clinical Toxicity
Fulvestrant generally is well tolerated with the
most common adverse events being nausea,
asthenia, pain, vasodilation (hot flushes), and
headache. Injection site reactions, seen in about
7% of patients, are reduced by giving the injection
slowly. In the study comparing anastrozole and
fulvestrant, quality-of-life outcome measures were
maintained over time with no significant difference
between the drugs.

29. A farmer developed a swelling in the inguinal


region which later ulcerated. What stain can be
used to detect bipolar stained organisms?
A. Albert's stain
B. Waysons stain
C. Ziehl neelsen stain
D. Nigrosin stain
Ans: B Wayson stain(REPEAT)

30. An 8 year old boy completed 8 out of 10 day


course of cefaclor. Now he developed a generalized
erythmatic rash which is mildly pruritic and
lymphadenopathy. Diagnosis is?
A. Kawasaki disease
B. Type 3 hypersensitivity
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Infectious mononucleosis
Ans: B Type 3 Hypersensitivity(REPEAT)

Back to top

kailash
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Thu Jan 13, 2011 12:43 pm Post subject:

31. Rave drug is?


Joined: 07 Oct 2008 A. Cannabis
Posts: 2690
B. Cocaine
90222 Credits C. Heroin
D. Amphetamine
Ans: D Amphetamine(MDMA)
MDMA is also called Rave drug and ecstasy

32. How to differentiate ASD from VSD in X-ray?


A. Enlarged Left atrium
B. Normal left atrium
C. Pulmonary congestion
D. Aortic shadow
Ans: B Normal LA size
LA remains normal in ASD despite volume overload
since it can decompress through 2 outlets that is
into RA and into LV.So LA enlargement is not seen
in ASD wheras it is seen in VSD

33. Regarding an imbecile, all are true except?


A. IQ is 50-60 B. Intellectual capacity equivalent to
a child of 3-7 years of age
C. Not able to take care of themselves
D. Condition is congenital or acquired at an early
age
Ans: A IQ is 50-60
Reference: Kaplan and saddock

Q Range Classification
70-80 Borderline deficiency
50-69 Moron
20-49 Imbecile
below 20 Idiot

34. Which is not true regarding diet modification


recommended in high cardiovascular risk group?
A. Cholesterol less then 100 mg/1000kcal/day
B. Avoid alcohol
C. Fat intake 10% of total calories
D. Salt limitation to less than 5 gm
Ans: C Fat intake <10% of total calories
Reference: American Heart association 2006
guidelines
These guidelines confirm the options
1/2/4...regarding option 3....it is the saturated fat
content which should be less that 10%.the total fat
intake should be less than 30% of the overall
calorie intake.
IF THE OPTION 3 WAS....Saturated Fat intake less
than 10% then the answer shall become Avoid
alcohol...as AHA guidelines say upto 2-3 drink per
day is fine....

35. Maintenance dose of which of the following


drugs is used worldwide for opioid dependence?
A. Naltrexone
B. Methadone
C. lmipramine
D. Disulfiram
Ans: B Methadone
Reference: Kaplan and saddock
Methadone is a synthetic narcotic (an opioid) that
substitutes for heroin and can be taken orally.
When given to addicts to replace their usual
substance of abuse, the drug suppresses
withdrawal symptoms. A daily dosage of 20 to 80
mg suffices to stabilize a patient, although daily
doses of up to 120 mg have been used. The
duration of action for methadone exceeds 24
hours; thus, once-daily dosing is adequate.
Methadone maintenance is continued until the
patient can be withdrawn from methadone, which
itself causes dependence. An abstinence syndrome
occurs with methadone withdrawal, but patients
are detoxified from methadone more easily than
from heroin. Clonidine (0.1 to 0.3 mg three to four
times a day) is usually given during the
detoxification period.
Methadone maintenance has several advantages.
First, it frees persons with opioid dependence from
using injectable heroin and, thus, reduces the
chance of spreading HIV through contaminated
needles. Second, methadone produces minimal
euphoria and rarely causes drowsiness or
depression when taken for a long time. Third,
methadone allows patients to engage in gainful
employment instead of criminal activity. The major
disadvantage of methadone use is that patients
remain dependent on a narcotic.

36. Best test/Gold standard test for assesing HCG


function/action?
A. Radioimmunoassay
B. ELISA
C. Latex test
D. Bioassay
Ans: D Bioassay(OPEN TO
SCRUTINY......CHALLENGING REFERENCES
INVITED)
Though Radioimmunoassay is more sensitive than
Bioassay for quatifying an antigen ,Bioassay only
can asses an harmone both quantitatively and
qualitatively....THE Question SPECIFICALLY asked
about the BEST TEST OF FUNCTION which can be
assessed by BIOASSAY and not
Radioimmunoassay.

37. Vitamin K is involved in the


posttranswerlational modification of?
A. Glutamate
B. Aspartate
C. --
D. –
Ans: A Glutamate(REPEAT)

38. Spinal anaesthesia is given at which level?


A. L1-2
B. L2-4
C. S1
D. Midline thoracic segments
Ans: B L2-4
Reference: Miller anesthesia(Procedureconsult)
• Spinal anesthetics have their effects at the spinal
cord, which originates at the foramen magnum of
the skull and the brainstem and extends caudally
to the conus medullaris. The distal termination
varies from about the level of the 3rd lumbar
vertebrae (L3) in infants to the lower border of L1
in adults. The spinal cord is surrounded by three
membranes (from central to peripheral): the pia
mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater. It is
believed that the arachnoid mater is responsible
for up to 90% of the resistance to drug migration
in and out of the CSF. Inside the subarachnoid
space are the CSF, spinal nerves, a network of
trabeculae between the two membranes, and
blood vessels supplying the spinal cord. Although
the spinal cord ends at about L1 in adults, the
subarachnoid space continues to about the second
sacral vertebrae (S2).
• Posterior to the epidural space is the ligamentum
flavum, which extends from the foramen magnum
to the sacral hiatus. Immediately posterior to the
ligamentum flavum are the lamina and spinous
processes of the vertebral bodies or the
interspinous ligaments. Posterior to these
structures is the supraspinous ligament, which
joins the vertebral spines.
• Anatomic landmarks most important to
performance of spinal anesthesia are the iliac
crests, the midline of the back, and the vertebral
spinous processes. Palpation of the midline of the
back identifies the spinous processes and vertebral
interspaces in most patients but may be difficult in
obese patients. A line drawn between the upper
borders of the iliac crests across the midline of the
back identifies the approximate level of L4 or the
L4-L5 interspace.
• Spinal anesthesia is usually performed at the
level of the L3 or L4 vertebrae in the adult patient,
because the spinal needle is introduced below the
level at which the spinal cord ends.

39. a child presented with mild fever little


breathlessness..... was treated and she improved
over 4 days and later deteriorated again with fever
and more breathlessness. x ray showed
hyperlucency. diagnosis?
1.bronchiolitis obliterans
2.alveolar proteinosois
3.bronchitis 4. AsthmA
Ans: a bronchiolitis obliterans(REPEAT)

40. Which of the following passes through foramen


magnum?
A. Internal Carotid Artery
B. Sympathetic chain
C. Hypoglossal Nerve
D. Vertebral Artery
Ans: D Vertebral artery(REPEAT)

1. An infant with cleft lip, cleft palate, polydactly,


microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp
defect is suffering from:
a- Trisomy 21
b- Trisomy 18
c- Trisomy 13
d- Turner

2. Chronic Burrowing ulcer is caused by:


a- Microaerophilic streptococci
b- Peptostreptococcus
c- Streptococcus viridans
d- Streptococcus pyogenes
Ans: a- Microaerophilic streptococci

3. True about denaturation of proteins is all except:


a- Unfolding occurs
b- Disruption of secondary structure occurs
c- Sequence of amino acids remain the same
d- Biological activity is retained
Ans: d- Biological activity is retained

4. Atypical antipsychotic are all except:


a- Olanzepine
b- Clozapine
c- Risperidone
d- Thioridazone
Ans: d- Thioridazone

5. Which of the following is an example of disability


limitation/
a- Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization
b- Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP
c- Resting affected limbs in neutral position
d- Providing calipers for walking
Ans: c- Resting affected limbs in neutral position

6. Specificity of a screening test measures –


a- True positives
b- False positives
c- False negatives
d- True negatives
Ans: d- True negatives

7. Life cycle of filaria is


a- Cyclodevelopmental
b- Cyclopropagative
c- Propagative
d- Transovarian
Ans: a- Cyclodevelopmental

8. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is


a- Zinc
b- Aluminium
c- Copper
d- Magnesium
Ans: b- Aluminium

9. In India, the cause for maximum maternal mortality is:


a- Anemia
b- Hemorrhage
c- Abortion
d- Sepsis
Ans: b- Hemorrhage

10. In a study in UK, an association was found between


[no ads please] of antiarrythmic drug and an increase in
deaths due to asthma. This is an example of
a- Ecological study
b- Cohort study
c- Case reference study
d- Experimental study
Ans: a- Ecological study

11. Occupational cancer involve following organs except:


a- Lung
b- Breast
c- Bladder
d- Liver
Ans: b- Breast

12. Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with:


a- Rifampicin
b- Ethionamide
c- Cycloserine
d- Ethambutol
Ans: b- Ethionamide

13. Which drug is not acetylated?


a- INH
b- Dapsone
c- Hydralazine
d- Metoclopropamide
Ans: d- Metoclopropamide

14. Which is not prodrug?


a- Enalapril
b- Clonidine
c- Salmeterol
d- Acetazolamide
Ans: a- Enalapril

15. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistaminic?


a- Loratidine
b- Acrivastatine
c- Cyclizine
d- ……….
Ans: c- Cyclizine

16. Loading dose depends on:


a- Volume of distribution
b- Clearance
c- Rate of administration
d- Half life
Ans: a- Volume of distribution

17. Drug not used in H. pylori:


a- Metronidazole
b- Omeprezole
c- Mosapride
d- Amoxicillin
Ans: c- Mosapride

18. Long acting beta-2 agonist?


a- Albuterol
b- Salmetarol
c- Pirlbuterol
d- Orciprenaline
Ans: b- Salmetarol

19. Benzodiazepine antagonist ?


a- Flumazenil
b- Naloxone
c- Furazolidone
d- Naltrexone
Ans: a- Flumazenil

20. Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal


carotid artery?
a- Cavernous branch
b- Inferior hypophyseal
c- Meningeal artery
d- Ophthalmic artery
Ans: d- Ophthalmic artery

21. Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally


differentiated adult do not divide
a- There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to
enter into S phase in adult
b- Phosphatase absent in fetal cells
c- Proteinase is absent in fetus
d- Absence of CD kinase
Ans: a- There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell
to enter into S phase in adult

22. Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation


a- Pulmonary vasodilation in hypoxia
b- Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia
c- Decreased blood volume during systole
d- Increased basal vasoconstrictor tone
Ans: b- Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia

23. Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is


a- Senses dynamic length of muscle
b- Involved in reciprocal innervation
c- Alpha-motor neuron stimulation
d- Senses muscle tension
Ans: d- Senses muscle tension
24. Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for all
except:
a- Steroid hormone
b- Transcription repressors
c- Hormone responsive element
d- Transcription activators
Ans: b- Transcription repressors

25. Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:


a- Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity
b- Increases the transport of glucose into the cells
c- Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase
d- Decreases intracellular cAMP level
Ans: c- Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase

26. True about G protein coupled receptors is:


a- G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface
b- All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should
bind each other G protein to act
c- G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of
difference in alpha subunit
d- G protein is bound to GTP in resting state
Ans: c- G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because
of difference in alpha subunit

27. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy


production because
a- It is required for the process of transamination
b- It is co-factor in oxidative reduction
c- It is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate
pathway
d- It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase
Ans: d- It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase

28. All are true about glutathione except:


a- It is a tripeptide
b- It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
c- It conjugates xenobiotics
d- It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions
Ans: b- It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin

29. In molecular cloning, Blue-white screening is used for:


a- To screen for recombinant vectors
b- To detect gene mutations
c- To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid
vectors
d- To detect host DNA in situ
Ans: c- To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in
plasmid vectors

30. True about polio:


a- Paralytic polio is most common
b- Spastic paralysis
c- Increased muscular activity leads to increased paralysis
d- Polio drop given only in <3 year
Ans: c- IM injections and increased muscular activity leads
to increases the risk of paralytic polio

31. In Millard Gubler syndrome all are involved except:


a- 5th cranial nerve
b- 6th cranial nerve
c- 7th cranial nerve
d- Contralateral hemiplegia
Ans: a- 5th cranial nerve

32. 1st drug to be used absence seizures:


a- Phenytoin
b- BZD
c- Valproate
d- Carbamazepine
Ans: c- Valproate

Back to top

hpsingh.
Guest Posted: Thu Jan 15, 2009 4:50 pm Post
subject:

Q.No. 6 Radiographic feature of


sinusitis includes:

1.Fluid level
2.Erosion of bone
3.Clouding of antra
4.Fluid level and clouding

Right -> Fluid level and clouding

Q.No. 10 Alveolar bone grafting in a


cleft palate patient is done:

1.after maxillary expansion, cross


bite correction, before canine
eruption
2.before maxillary expansion cross
bite correction after canine eruption
3.after maxillary expansion cross bite
correction after canine eruption
4.before maxillary expansion cross
bite correction before canine
eruption

Q.No. 26 Action of primer

1.Removal of smear layer


2.Increases surface free energy of
dentin
3.Forms thin layer between collagen
and resin
4.Bonds with composite

1. 'indifferent' fibers are

a. elastic fibers
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above

2. Apical migration of epithelial attachment


with corresponding recession of marginal
gingiva results in

a.Shallow sulcus
b. gingival pocket formation
c. infrabony pocket formation
d. periodontal pocket formation

3. Gingival clefts may be formed by


a. occlusal disharmonies
b. faulty tooth brushing
c. normal frenum attachment
d. use of dental floss

4. Tobacco chewing is thought to be


contributing / predisposing factor in which
condition ?

a. desquamative gingivitis
b. ANUG
c.juvenile periodontitis
d. erythema multiforme

5. ADH from

a. pre optic
b. supra optic
c. para venticular
d. post optic

6. blood coagualation defect not seen?

a. after taking brufen


b. thalasamia
c. VWF defiecien
d.

7. attached gingiva is

a. always stippled
b. non keratinized
c. resistant to masticatory stress and forces
d. resistant to inflammatory changes

8. Type of bone present in interradicular


area
cortical
cancellous
osteophytic
exophyric

9. type of bone present on labial surface of


anterior teeth
cortical
cancellous
exophytic
osteophytic

10. most common cause of drymouth in


adults
tarnquilizers
anti-histaminics
insulin
birth control pills

11. most common clinical sign of occlusal


trauma
wear facets
tooth mobility
enamel cracks
cuspal fracture

12. probable etiology of gingivosis is

high progesterone levels


def of estrogen and testosterone
pregnancy
aldosterone deficiency

13. supragingival plaque undergoes which


of the following changes with time.

plaque mass decreases


plaque microflora becomes more gram
positive
plaque microflora becomes more gram
negative
plaque microflora becomes predominantly
spirochetal

14. difference between sub and


supragingival calculus is related to
pH of saliva
death of leukocytes
hemolysis of erythrocytes
all of the above

15. which of the following is a characteristic


of supragingival plaque and not of sub
gingival plaque in humans

motile bacteria are predominant


spirochetes are evident microscopically
gram negative bacteria are predominant
bacterial composition is altered by dietary
sugar consumption

16. delayed hypersensitivity or cell


mediated immune reactions occur in
patients with periodontal diseases because
they often have

-IgG antibody reactine with plaque bacterial


antigens
-T lymphocytes sensitized to plaque
bacterial antigens
-soluble immune complexes within involves
gingival tissues
-all of the above

17. which of the following is most useful in


diffentiating an acute periodontal abscess
from pa abscess

-type of exhudate-
-nature of swelling
-intensity of pain
-result of periodontal probing

18. which index would u use to access the


severity of periodontitis in epidemiological
studiesof a large population.
-pma index
-gingival index
-periodontal index
-sulcus bleeding index
19. which of the following plaque indices
does not use disclosing agent

-plaque component of periodontal disease


index
-debris component of Simplified Oral
Hygiene Index
-modified Quingley Hein plaque index
-all of the above

20. following plaque index divides each


tooth surface into 9 areas

-php index
-plaue index by silness and loe
- modified Navy plaque index
- glass criteria for scoring debris

21. in gingivitis, the role of


immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased number of

-fibroblases
-neutrophils
-lymphocytes
-plasma cells

22. teeth that are least affected by


periodontal disease are

-lower first molars and upper anteriors


-lower premolars and upper canines
-lower first molars and upper incisors and
premolars
-lower centrals, laterals and upper molars

23.

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vincare
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 12:55 pm Post subject:
Joined: 06 Nov 2008
Q23. dengue hemorrhagic fever caused by
Posts: 2485
1 bacteria
84304 Credits 2 fungi
3 virus
4 bacteria superadded on virus

Q24. Coeliac plexus is located:

1. Anterolateral & around the aorta


2. Posterolateral & around the aorta
3. Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain
4. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain

Q25. hypercapnia causes


low blood pH
high blood ph
no change
none

Q26. Radiograph alone can diagnose:

1. Periodontal pocket
2. Periodontal abscess
3. Anatomic root length
4. Bifurcation involvement

Q27. When pins are used in amalgam, strength of


amalgam:

1. Deceases
2. Increases
3. Remains same
4. May increase or decrease

Q28. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:

1. Trauma
2. Development disturbances
3. Infection
4. Atrophy

Q29. parenteral nutrion which is not given


fibre
micronutrient
carbohydrate
fat

Q30. a young boy had a radio opaque area found at


the apex of a permant tooth wid deep caries !!!
condensing osteitis
apical periodontitis
chronic periodontitis
???????????????

Q31. 'indifferent' fibers are

a. elastic fibers@@@@@@@@@@@
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above

D ans for dis s COLLAGEN FIBERS ONLY

ref - carranza 9th ed pg no. 38, its also given in


glickmann's clinical periodontology..............

Both d book states- In addition to these fibers types


i.e. principal collagen, oxytalan n eluanin, SMALL
COLLAGEN FIBERS ASSOCIATED WITH THE LARGE
PRINCIPAL COLLAGEN FIBERS HAVE BEEN
DESCRIBED. THESE FIBERS RUN IN ALL
DIRECTIONS FROM A PLEXUS CALLED THE ''
INDIFFERENT FIBER PLEXUS''.

Q32. in gingivitis, the role of immunoglobulins is


consistent with increased number of

fibroblases
neutrophils
lymphocytes
plasma cells

Q33. Gingival clefts may be formed by


occlusal disharmonies
faulty tooth brushing
normal frenum attachment
use of dental floss

Q34. In short which of the following is not and effect


of increased prolactin level,..

a. Visual field defects


b. Gonadal dysfunction
c. Headache
d. Exccessive lactation

Q35. Mother donated one kidney to her daughter,


what type of graft is it?

Allo.......
Xeno
Auto
Iso

Q36. high viscocity saliva related to increase caries


in children

a. really true
b. partially true
c. partially false
d. really false

Q37. 'not sensory to palate?

a. facial n
b , glossopharyngeal n
c. asending pharyngeal n
d. vagus

Q38. dengue hemorrhagic fever caused by


1 bacteria
2 fungi
3 virus
4 bacteria superadded on virus

Q39. involuntary movement of eye ball by

a. visual cortex
b. cerebellum
c.?
d. ?

Q40. 'ant ethmoidal n suplies all except?

a. ethmoidal air cells


b. maxillary sinus
c, dural sheath of ant cranial fossa
d. interior of nasal cavity

Q41. 'nitrates are not used in

a. CCF
b. esophageal spasm
c. renal colic
d. cyanide poisoning

Q42. whch 1 not converted to an active metabolite?

a. quinapril
b. fosinapril
c. benzopril
d. lisnopril

Back to top

vincare
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 12:56 pm Post subject:

Few other questions


Joined: 06 Nov 2008
Posts: 2485 1.not an occupational disease
a.lung ca
84304 Credits
b.skin ca
c.liver ca
d.leukemia

2.all are STD except


a.herpes
b.scabies
c.candida
d.mycobacterium leprae

3.minimum score of GCS


a.1
b.3@@
c.7
d.

4.all are used in pitutary adenoma except


a.orlistat
b.
c.
d.letrozol

5.both CMI and HUMORAL IMMUNITY are best


elicted by?
a.polysacchride Ag
b.protein Ag
c.
d.lipid Ag

6.which of these drugs interacts with warfarin but


doesnt increase INR
a. OCP
b.metoclopramide
c.
d.erythromycin

7.best time for interferon therapy


a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus

8. common occupational disease


a.lung ca
b.skin ca @@@@
c.liver ca
d.leukemia

9. all cause secondary polycythemia except


a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder
pheochromocytoma

10. decrased metbolic rate is seen in


a.obesity @@@@
b.hyperthyrodism
c.feeding
d.exercise

11. which of the following tests is not used for


detection for specic aneuploidy?
a.FISH
b.RT-PCR
c.lQF-PCR
d.microarray@@@@@@@2

12. all cause secondary polycythemia except


a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder @@@@???????
pheochromocytoma

13. not carrying parasympathetic fibres?


a.trochlear @@@@@@@2
b.facial
c.occulomotor
d, glossopharyngeal

14. sensory supply of soft palate


facial
vagus
glossopharyngeal
maxillary

15. all of true relation to scrub typhus except?


a.mites act as reservior
b.tetra is the drug of choice
c.transmitted when aduld mites feed on hosts
@@@@@@
d,

16. fulmiative hepatitis in pregnant woman by


a.hep C
b.HEP B
c.HEP D
d, HEP E

Q17. india aims to eliminate which of the following


diseases by 2015?
a.malaria
b.filariasis @@@@
c.kala azar
d,TB

18. interdental col is prone to inflammation bcz


epithelium is non keratinized
plaque accumulates
is difficult to clean
all of d above

19. sulcular membrane acts as semipermeable


membrane through which

bacterial products pass thru saliva


fluid from gingiva seeps into saliva
both
none

20. attached gingiva is

always stippled
non keratinized
resistant to masticatory forces
resistant to inflammatory changes

21. m/c cause of dry mouth in adults


tranquillizers
anti histaminics
insulin
birth control pills

22. m/c clinical sign of trauma occlusal trauma


wear facet
tooth mobility
enamel fracture
cusp fracture

23. probable etiology of gingivitis


high progesterone
deficiency of estrogen n testosterone
preganancy
aldosterone

24. supragingival plaque undergoes which of d foll


changes wid time
plaque microflora bcms more g-ve
plaque microflora bcms more g+ve

25. difference betwn color of supragingival n sub


gingival calculus
ph
death of wbc
haemolysis of rbc
all of d above

26. in multiple myeloma [ bence jones ] which 1 of


the following is seen?
a.alpha heavy chain disease
b.gamma heavy chain disease
c.mu heavy chain disease@@@@@@
d,epsilon heavy chain disease

27. mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area


recommended for all the following except??
a.yaws
b.filariasis
c.leprosy@@@@@@@@@@@
d,trachoma

28. The following are true about tetanus acquired


through traumatic wound:
a. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the
anterior horn cells in the spinal cord
b. the tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin
acts on the post-synaptic neurones and prevents
impulse transmission.
c. the patient should be given antitoxin
intravenously
d. the presence of Clostridium tetani in the wound
can be identified by a positive Nagler reaction

Last edited by vincare on Mon Jan 10, 2011 1:01 pm; edited 1
time in total
Back to top
mds asp
Guest Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 4:40 pm Post subject: more qs

when bile pool is low recycling becomes


1. faster
2. slower
3.unchanged
4. bears no relation

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mds asp
Guest Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 4:50 pm Post subject:

qs about mech of corticosteroids,


cerebellar lesions
migraine prophylaxis
iv anesthetic causing bronchodialation,
tocolytic agents,
normal cd4 counts
oxycephaly
donovanosis
prpofol
headache of vascular origin
3rd molar extaction
down syndromne
acute leukemia predispong factors
cooleys anemia
maternal mortalityrate
ant ethmoidal nerve
fatal ds- multiple myeloma etc
juvenile perio bacteria
ace inhibitors
incidence > prev
turnrs hypo

Back to top

Guest
Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 11:09 pm Post subject:

1.Non-respi function of lungs:


sodium balance

2.Function of bronchiaL circulation:


gaseous exchange

3.Sphingomyelinase deficiency, mental retardation


etc:
Nieman picks disease
4.Rural and urban difference(PSM ques):
TB

5.Resurgence of malaria all except:


Resistane in host

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Guest
Posted: Mon Jan 10, 2011 11:16 pm Post subject:

6.Heterozygous sickle cell anemia esistant towards:


Malaria

7.Scrub typhus all except:


Transmitted when adult mite feeds..

8.0.75 negative predictive value means??

9.Cooleys anemia:
beta thalassemia major

10.Craniosynostosis,preaxial polysyndactyly...
Carpenters syndrome

11. normal CD4 cell count should be above:


1000/cu.mm

12.Not a cause of vascular headache:


Anesthesia dolorosa

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Guest
Posted: Tue Jan 11, 2011 11:57 am Post subject:

bronchial circulation is for air conditioning

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Guest
Posted: Wed Jan 12, 2011 9:33 am Post subject:

questions copied word to word from r x p g dental


thread!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
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Guest
Posted: Wed Jan 12, 2011 11:17 am Post subject:

tell their ans also

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vincare
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Wed Jan 12, 2011 12:37 pm Post subject:

1 All of the following can be a cause of resurgent


Joined: 06 Nov 2008
Posts: 2485 malaria except –
a. Emergence of new strains
84304 Credits
b. Genetic alterations in the host
c. Drug resistance in the parasite
d. Resistance of the vector to DDT

2 ADH from
a. pre optic
b. supra optic
c. para venticular
d. post optic

3.not an occupational disease


a.lung ca
b.skin ca
c.liver ca
d.leukemia

4.all are STD except


a.herpes
b.scabies
c.candida
d.mycobacterium lepra
5 q.IN the pt who is in the state of consciousness
what is the minimum level of score measured on
glassgow coma scale??
a.7
b.5
c.3
d.0

6.all are used in pitutary adenoma except


a.orlistat
b.
c.
d.letrozol

7.both CMI and HUMORAL IMMUNITY are best


elicted by?
a.polysacchride Ag
b.protein Ag
c.adjuvant
d.lipid Ag

8.which of these drugs interacts with warfarin but


doesnt increase INR
a. OCP
b.metoclopramide
c.
d.erythromycin

9.best time for interferon therapy


a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus

10 Bacteria causing Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis


-a) Strep. Viridians

11 parotid fascia continues anteriorly as...


1.fascia lata
2.deep cervical fascia
3 MASSETERIC FASCIA

12secondary polycythemia is caused by a/e


ans- myeloproliferative disorder

13 sphroblastic anemia - increased osmotic fragility

14All r true abt propofol exept


causes vomiting@@@@
15ann arbour classification
Stage III :

>Involvement of lymph node regions or lymphoid


structures on both sides of the diaphragm
>Involvement of two or more lymph node regions
on the same side of the diaphragm
> dnt remembr other options

16all are STD except


a.hapatitis B
b.scabies
c.candida
d.mycobacterium leprae @@@@@

17function of serum albumin


oncotic pressure??????
toxin transport
buffer
drug transport

18both CMI and HUMORAL IMMUNITY are best


elicted by?
a.polysacchride Ag
b.protein Ag
c. adjuvants
d.lipid Ag

19which of foll nt used in hrtfailure....


................spironolactone,
Nitroglycerine
,nestride

20 non resp function of lung....


.sodium exchange

21 mysthania gravis..which is nt true...ab formed to


ach receptors,accumulation of ach.
.abs bind to ach...

22 .negpredictivevalue 0.75 means....


75%chances tht dis wil nt be present if test is
negative.

23..ethnicity refers to....

24 incidence of dis at particular age in a given place


calc by....
.......paired t test
,chisq test
,ind t test.....
25was sensory branch of ant. division of mandi.
nerve
.-long buccal
buccal n
26sensory supply of soft palate a/e
vagus
facial nerce

27
.tere tevdek sutures

28 down syndrome translocation


46xy t(14:21)

29prophylaxis of migraine
topiramate
ppl
fluner

30 leukemia not common in


down syndrome
bloom syndrome

31normal cd4 cell count

1000 cells
500
200
????

32bronchodilating intravenous anesthetic


propofol
thiopentone
ketamine
????

33most common caries seen in primary teeth ??

occlusal pit fissures of molars


proximal surface below cntct point
proximal surface above cntct point
????????????????????

34 aftr viewing a radiograph there were caries deep


may b approaching the pulp horn ... wht should u do
??

remove the entire carious lesion n strt pupectomy


(m not sure but sumtng like dis )
remove sum caries n place a intermmediate
sedative dressng
place a sedative dressing plan for a pulpotomy in
the next appointment

35
bordetella pertusis ?? all except
it cause disease in adults who hav taken vaccine
?????
???
????

36
spinal cord lesion causing dissociative sensory loss

decussating fibres from lateral spinothalamic tract


anterior column
dorsal column

37
mosaic bone patern ???

pagets
osteosarcoma
fibrous dysplasia
??????

38
most common cause of tmj ankylosis ???

trauma
infection
????

39wht can u find out ony by radiographs ???

anatomical root length


sulcus depth
??? ??

40
root caries

actinomyces viscosus
strepto mutans ???
????
???/

41
not seen in periodontosis ????

mycoplasma
actinomyces
aac
??????? not seen in periodontosis ????

42 > :up:thi was repeated


mycoplasma
actinomyces
aac
???????

43 orces of --- occur in alveolar border of


mandibular fracture
compression
tension??????????
???
???

44
which is not injured in lower third molar extrn

IAN
IAA
Lingual nerve
lingual artery ??

45 x ray for third molar revelas nerve becomes


thinner along the tooth root.. cause??

root perforated by nerve,


nerve goes between root of teeth???
?????
????

46 The following are true about tetanus acquired


through traumatic wound:

a. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the


anterior horn
cells in the spinal cord

b. the tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin


acts on the
post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse
transmission.

c. the patient should be given antitoxin


intravenously

d. the presence of Clostridium tetani in the wound


can be
identified by a positive Nagler reaction
47 structure most commonly involved in injury while
extn of mand 3rd molar?
inf alv nerve
inf alv artery
lingual nerve
lingual artery

48 dofti is used for?


proximal caries in primary teeth

49 bordetella pertusis ?? all except


it cause disease in adults who hav taken vaccine
pulmonary endothelium?
lipoprotein lipase...
plasma actiyation factor
thrombin
factor x

50 when patient has vancomycin resistant infection,


tablet to b given,
oflaxacin
clarithromycin
cefatrime
linezolid

51 which does not cause sedation


buspirone
diazepam
????
????

52 patient taking rifampicin and OC became


pregnant .. why?

cos rifampicin caused increased metabolism of OC


increase excretion of OC
decreased absorpton of OC
???

53 least antiemetic
domperidone
cisapride@@@@@@
chlorpromazine
metaclopromide

54 best time for interferon therapy


a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus
55 all cause secondary polycythemia except
a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder
pheochromocytoma

56 decrased metbolic rate is seen in


a.obesity @@@@
b.hyperthyrodism
c.feeding
d.exercise

57 which of the following tests is not used for


detection for specic aneuploidy?
a.FISH
b.RT-PCR
c.lQF-PCR
d.microarray

58 @ mensual cycle indicator


a.steroid profile@@@@@@2

59 not carrying parasympathetic fibres?


a.trochlear @@@@@@@2
b.facial
c.occulomotor
d, glossopharyngeal

60 sensory supply of soft palate


facial
vagus
glossopharyngeal
maxillary

61 in maternal mortality rate whch is not true


a.it is expressed per 1000
b.it is ratio not rate

62 all of true relation to scrub typhus except?


a.mites act as reservior
b.tetra is the drug of choice
c.transmitted when aduld mites feed on hosts
@@@@@@
d,

63
fulmiative hepatitis in pregnant woman by
a.hep C
b.HEP B
c.HEP D
d, HEP E @@@@[

64 india aims to eliminate which of the following


diseases by 2015?
a.malaria
b.filariasis @@@@
c.kala azar
d,TB

65 interdental col is prone to inflammation bcz


epithelium is non keratinized
plaque accumulates
is difficult to clean
all of d above

66
sulcular membrane acts as semipermeable
membrane through which

bacterial products pass thru saliva


fluid from gingiva seeps into saliva
both
none

67
attached gingiva is

always stippled
non keratinized
resistant to masticatory forces
resistant to inflammatory changes

68
m/c cause of dry mouth in adults
tranquillizers
anti histaminics
insulin
birth control pills

69
m/c clinical sign of trauma occlusal trauma
wear facet
tooth mobility
enamel fracture
cusp fracture

70
probable etiology of gingivitis
high progesterone
deficiency of estrogen n testosterone
preganancy
aldosterone

71
supragingival plaque undergoes which of d foll
changes wid time
plaque microflora bcms more g-ve
plaque microflora bcms more g+ve

72
difference betwn color of supragingival n sub
gingival calculus
ph
death of wbc
haemolysis of rbc

73 all of d above in multiple myeloma [ bence


jones ] which 1 of the following is seen?
a.alpha heavy chain disease
b.gamma heavy chain disease
c.mu heavy chain disease@@@@@@
d,epsilon heavy chain disease

74 mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area


recommended for all the following except??
a.yaws
b.filariasis
c.leprosy@@@@@@@@@@@
d,trachoma

75Coeliac plexus is located:

1. Anterolateral & around the aorta>this is wrong


answer...around word is wrong
2. Posterolateral & around the aorta
3. Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain .
4. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain

76 ga intrathecal contraindicated? dengue


haemorrhagic feve
Fentanyl
ramefentanyle

77
parenteral nutrion which is not given
fibre
micronutrient
carbohydrate
fat

78 'indifferent' fibers are


a. elastic fibers@@@@@@@@@@@
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above

79 a young boy had a radio opaque area found at


the apex of a permant tooth wid deep caries !!!

condensing osteitis @@@@@@@@


apical periodontitis
chronic periodontitis which is difficult to diagnose
1,necrosed pulp
2.chronic pulitis@@@
3.internal resorption

80
stains on children teeth
chromogenic bacteria

81
orf stands for
open reading frame??

82
clostridium tetani
1.
ant horn cell
2.tetanospsmin exotoxin
3.nagelers reaction in gingivitis,

83 the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with


increased number of

fibroblases
neutrophils
lymphocytes

84 Gingival clefts may be formed by


occlusal disharmonies
faulty tooth brushing
normal frenum attachment
use of dental floss

85 plasma cells most fatal


1.pagets disease
2.multiple myeloma
3.osteosarcoma

86 .LA Failure
Cations
87
2. ethinicity

88 .Oral polio virus: killed vaccine

89
4. Bence jones protiens

90.malignancy of AIDS: kaposi Sarcoma.

91 .Cooley,s

92.genicluate ganglion : Taste.

93 Centre of eye movements.


Frontal visual field

94. site for subsance P

95 All are tocolytic except.....


???
???
??
Atosiban????

96 Dopamine receptors D2 blocks Prolactin


secretion, so when there is smethng interfering wid
dis Dopamine receptors than what will not
occur,... :::::::::::::: In short which of the following
is not and effect of increased prolactin level,..

a. Visual field defects


b. Gonadal dysfunction
c. Headache
d. Exccessive lactation

97 Mother donated one kidney to her daughter,


what type of graft is it?

Allo.......
Xeno
Auto
Iso

98. high viscocity saliva related to increase caries in


children

a. really true
b. partially true
c. partially false
d. really false 'ant ethmoidal n suplies all except?
99
a. ethmoidal air cells
b. maxillary sinus @@@@@@@
c, dural sheath of ant cranial fossa
d. interior of nasal cavity

100 nitrates r not used in


a. CCF
b. esophageal spasm
c. renal colic @@@@@@@@@@@
d. cyanide poisoning

101 'whch 1 not converted to an active metabolite?


a. quinapril
b. fosinapril
c. benzopril
d. lisnopril

102 Apical migration of epithelial attachment with


corresponding recession of marginal gingiva results
in
a.Shallow sulcus @@@@@
b. gingival pocket formation
c. infrabony pocket formation
d. periodontal pocket formation Tobacco chewing is
thought to be contributing / predisposing factor in
which condition ?

103
a. desquamative gingivitis
b. ANUG@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
c.juvenile periodontitis

104 d. erythema multiforme


desquamative gingivits histological feaus- loss of
basement membrane

105 blood coagualation defect not seen?


a. after taking brufen
b. thalasamia
c. VWF defiecien
d.

106 attached gingiva is


a. always stippled
b. non keratinized
c. resistant to masticatory stress and
forces@@@@@@
d. resistant to inflammatory changes
107 Type of bone present in interradicular area
cortical
cancellous@@@@@@@@
osteophytic
exophyric

108 type of bone present on labial surface of


anterior teeth
cortical@@@@@@
cancellous
exophytic
osteophytic

109 most common cause of drymouth in adults


tarnquilizers
anti-histaminics @@@@@@@@@
insulin
birth control pills

110 most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma


wear facets
tooth mobility@@@@@@@@@
enamel cracks
cuspal fracture

111 probable etiology of gingivosis is


high progesterone levels
def of estrogen and testosterone@@@@@
pregnancy
aldosterone deficiency

112 Down syndrome translocation


46XY -14 t[14,21]
47XY +21 t[14,21]
47XY -14 t[14,21]
46XY t{14,21]

113 supragingival plaque undergoes which of the


following changes with time.
plaque mass decreases
plaque microflora becomes more gram positive
plaque microflora becomes more gram
negative@@@@@@@@@
plaque microflora becomes predominantly
spirochetal

114 which of the following is a characteristic of


supragingival plaque and not of sub gingival plaque
in humans
motile bacteria are predominant
spirochetes are evident microscopically
gram negative bacteria are predominant
bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar
consumption@@@@@@@@@@

115 delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated


immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal
diseases because they often have
-IgG antibody reactine with plaque bacterial
antigens
-T lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial
antigens @@@@@@@@@
-soluble immune complexes within involves gingival
tissues
-all of the above

116 which of the following is most useful in


diffentiating an acute periodontal abscess from pa
abscess

-type of exhudate-
-nature of swelling
-intensity of pain
-result of periodontal probing

117 which index would u use to access the severity


of periodontitis in epidemiological studiesof a large
population.
-pma index
-gingival index
-periodontal index@@@@@@@
-sulcus bleeding index

118 which of the following plaque indices does not


use disclosing agent

-plaque component of periodontal disease index


-debris component of Simplified Oral Hygiene
Index@@@@@@@@@@@
-modified Quingley Hein plaque index

119 -all of the above following plaque index divides


each tooth surface into 9 areas

-php index
-plaue index by silness and loe
- modified Navy plaque
index@@@@@@@@@@@@
- glass criteria for scoring debris

120 teeth that are least affected by periodontal


disease are
-lower first molars and upper anteriors
-lower premolars and upper
canines@@@@@@@@@
-lower first molars and upper incisors and
premolars
-lower centrals, laterals and upper molars

121 sinusitis...fluid level..clouding

122ground glass appearence..


.
123 sphingomylein....

124 back pressure porosity...

125 f film speed recommended for caries detection


1c
2d
3e
4f

126 hypercapnia causes


low blood pH
high blood ph
no change
none

127 Radiograph alone can diagnose:

1. Periodontal pocket
2. Periodontal abscess
3. Anatomic root length
4. Bifurcation involvement

128 When pins are used in amalgam, strength of


amalgam:

1. Deceases
2. Increases
3. Remains same
4. May increase or decrease

129. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:

1. Trauma
2. Development disturbances
3. Infection
4. Atrophy
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vincare
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Wed Jan 12, 2011 12:38 pm Post subject:

What is seen in acute infection?


Joined: 06 Nov 2008
Posts: 2485
-leucocytosis@@
84304 Credits
-leukopenia
-lymphocytosis
-neutopenia

If the Incidence of a dz is high and the prevalance is


low, thn wat is correct....

- the disease is cured easily or fatal


- disease is not cured easily
- none, they are not releated

which of the following should be done for better


efficiency and longer shelf life of a carbide bur..

-should rotate slow before entering the cavity


-should rotate fast before entering the cavity
-sould rotate fast before entering the mouth
-should rotate after entering the cavity

in gingival sulcus the function of the


immunoglobulins remain consistent with increase of

plasma cell

lymphocyte

neutrophils

Bacterial enzyme causing degradation of ground


substance _______
a) Hyaluronidase b) Collagenase

which of thw following is correct for a facial


porcelain preparation

the walls should be parralel to the tooth surface

the walls should converge facially


the walls should diverge facially

the walls should meet the tooth surface at right


angels

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vincare
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Wed Jan 12, 2011 12:39 pm Post subject:

Q. an emotional factor often is associated with


Joined: 06 Nov 2008
Posts: 2485 eitiology in

84304 Credits
-juvenile periodontitis
-chronic gingivitis
-ANUG@@@@
-acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

Q. pt complains of pain and foul smell on third day


after extraction,

-irrigate the socket and place sedative dressing


-curretage, sedative dressing
-search for the roots

Q.

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vincare
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Wed Jan 12, 2011 12:40 pm Post subject:

1.Corticosteroids increase the neutrophils in


Joined: 06 Nov 2008
Posts: 2485 circulation… the question was all are true about
corticosteroid except: and the option was they
84304 Credits
“decrease” neutrophils in circulation… so this is the
answer.
Corticosteroids only decrease BEL …basophils,
erythrocytes and lymphocytes in circulation…not
neutrophils
2.Which is not a disorder of clotting? Ans. is von
Willebrand’s disease…as it has increased bleeding
time

3.Prolaction does not have a hypothalamic release


hormone.

4.A/E OF ACE inhibitors… all except…does not cause


postural hypotension… they do cause postural
hypotension acc. to Tripathi.

5.CO poisoning shifts O2 dissociation curve to the


left

6.One question was about lymphocytosis, decreased


glucose and increased protein in CSF… classic
features of viral meningitis (poliomyelitis)

7.Mutant sickle cell gene provides protection against


“Malaria”, acc. to Neville.

8.Which does not attach to thyroid cartilage’s


oblique line…
Sup. Constrictor
Middle constrictor…. Both do not attach to oblique
line on thyroid… but out of these superior constrictor
will NEVER attach to thyroid cartilage…hence it’s the
answer.

11. Fibrin degradation products useful for diagnosis


of Disseminated intravascular coagulation… repeat

12.Albumin is oncotic… no doubt…

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vincare
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Wed Jan 12, 2011 12:43 pm Post subject:
Anatomy
Joined: 06 Nov 2008
Posts: 2485 1]true abt.injury to common peronial nerve causes
a/e- a.anesthesia of sole of foot b.# of neck of fibula
84304 Credits
c.foot drop
2]S5 root not involved in a.adduction of thigh b.foot
dorsiflexion c.extension of knee d.flexion of knee
3]not seen in the floor of 3rd ventricle is------- a.3rd
nerve b.mamillary body c.optic
4]posterior cerebral circulation obstruction doest
involve----- a.pons b.mid brain c.cerebellum d.
5]in anterior choroidal block not seen is------
a.homonymous hemianopia b.hemiplagia
c.hemianesthesia
6]which of the following pases through foramen
magnum---- a.vertebral artery b.sympathetic trunk
c.12th nerve d.int carotid artery
7]structure not present below the pancreas head
is---
a) duodenum first part b) Aorta c) IVC d.cbd
8]utricular creast is present in----- prostatic urethra
9]nerve derived from trunk is--- a.supra scapular
b.nerve to subclavius c.long thoracic nerve
10]spinal anesthesia is given at----- l2-l4 segment
11]low radial nerve palsy doest involve---
ecrl,ecrb,intrinsic muscles of hand
12]supracondylar# usually involes- a.anterior
interosseus nerve b.median c.ulnar d.radial
13]not supplied by anterior division of mandibular
nerve is--- a.lat pterygoid b.maseter c.medial
pterygoib d.temporalis
14]pain of ethmoidal sinusoitis is mediated by---
naso cilliary nerve
15]not a pneumatic bone is--- mandible, maxilla,
ethmoid, frontal
16]vestibular schwannoma arises from—superior
vestibular division
17]diaphragm is developed from all of the following
structures except- a.septum transversarium
b.cervical myotome c.pleuroperitoneal membrane
d.dorsal mesocardium
18]aortic musculature derived from-para axial,
intermediate, latral
19]epiphysial growth plate is an example of-
a.primary fibrocartilagenous joint b.secondary fibro
cartilaginous joint
20]Major arterial supply to femoral neck is---
a.profunda femoris b.lateral circumflex c.medial
circumflex femoral
21]not a derivative of hypogastric sheath—a.broad
ligament
22]palpation of int carotid done at—superior border
of thyroid

Physiology & biochemistry


1]vitamin k is required for carboxylation of----
glutamate
2]urea cycle occours in------ liver
3]decreased energy is seen in thiamine deficiency
this is because- thiamine is the cofactor for alfa keto
glutarate and pyruvate dehydrogenase
4]increased pcv in mountaineers is due to-----
a.polycythemia and dehydration b.pulmonary edema
c.blood los
5]earliest sign of hypomagnesemia is--------
a.decreased dtr b.cvs depression c.hypertension
d.convulsions
6.hcg levens are monitored by---- a.bio assays b.ria
c.elisa d.latex agglutination
7] nitrates in intestine acts by--- inhibiting smooth
muscle contraction
8]durig a body plethismography test a man gives an
expiratory effort against a closed glottis what
happens to preasure of body and box a.both
increased b.body preassure increases box preassure
decreases c.viceversa of b d.both decreases
9]cardio protective--- w3 fatty acid
10]false is--- a.level of ldl not associated with
formation of foam cells b.hdl can decrease the
oxidation of ldl into foam cell
11]vescicular sound heard in small airways
because--- a.high Reynolds number b.lesser velocity
c.lower radii of curvature d.higher total area of
crossection
13]enzyme transferring nh3 ion from one molecule
to other is- amino transferase
14]waxy translucent lines illuminant—phosphorus
15]orthopnia is due to--- a.pooling in pulmonary
circulation b.pooling in legs
16]compliance of lung is decreased in a/e-
a.reduced surface tension b.chronic bronchitis
c.pulmonary edema
17]oxygenated blood is present in—umbilical vein
18]maximum water is reabsorbed from- jejunum
19]ab can be membrane bound or secretory due to-
differential splicing
20]increased levels of all of the following is
associated with atherogenesis except-----
a.homocystine b. Ldl c. Apoe
21]Increased production of a mutant protein can be
favoured by—a.increased translation factors
b.inducible promoter
22]right isomerism associated with- aspleenia
23]Gs alfa subunit gain in function mutation—
increased gtpas activity
24]false is--- a.factor 10 common pathway
b.extrensic pathway can be activated by availability
of phospholipid layer c. Calcium is an important
clotting factor d.intrnsic factor pathway can be
studied invitro
25]Bmr depends on—lean body mass
26]aldosterone receptors are not found in—liver
27.two plznts are grown one flourescene and
another in luciferase containing media in dark what
happens
1. both plants wil glow 2. both wil not glow 3. first
wil glow 4. second wil glow

Forensic
1.Hyperthermia is seen in a/e- a mao i b.alcohol c.bi
nitro cresol d.amphetamine
2.bluish discoloration of mucosa nails and
conjunctiva seen in- a.lead b.arsenic c.copper
3.traces of gunpowder detected by- a.uv light
b.infra red light
4.rave drug is-ectacy
5.Which of the following can be used in
bioterrorism-- a.c botulinum b.small pox
6.signature fracture is- depressed fracture
7.sparrow leg appearance on face seen with- a.burst
of dash board screen b.vitrolage c.bullet wound not
penetrating face
8.imprint of tyre on body- patterned bruise
9. not a way of dental analysis- fdi,
10.voilent shaking of child seen- a.#long bones
,b.orbital#, c.epidural haematoma d.spleen injury
11.most common cause of death in schizophrenia is

Pharmacology
1.chronic use of inh causes deficiency in-
isonhiazide
2.True is- a.sulfonamide binds irreversibly to
enzyme b.inhibition of malathion can be reversed by
increasing the concentration of ach c.flouroacetate
is a competitive inhibitor of aconitase
3.not used for controlling post menopausal flushes
in a woman with harmone +ve tumors is-
tamoxifen
4.amphotericin b causes deficiency in- potassium
5.not given to treat diabetic macular edema-
tamoxifen
6.which progesterone is given in low dose ocp-
a.norethensterone b.lovogestor
c.madroxyprogesterone
7.in a patient with reduced renal function, what is
done to decrease toxicity due to contrast agent--
a.hypoosmotin solution b.fendopalm c.nacetyl
cystine d.manitol
8.pregnant woman with new sputum +vet b what is
to be done- start category 1 immidiately
9.drug of choice for central di is-desmopressin
10.patient taking lithium presenting renal toxicity
signs what should not be given- diuretics
11.after taking penicillin patient presents with
lymphadenopathy and shock hypotension probable
cause- type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
12.pregnant woman with sle not given in treatment-
methotrexate
13.resistance to opoid action acquired in a/e-
miosis
14.which is most commonly used for detoxification
of opoid dependence- methadone
15.alcohol detoxification all are used except-
a.disulfiram b.acramposate c.flumazenil
d.buspirone
16.aflatoxin secreted by-aspergillus flavus
17.fluvistart false is- a.pure estrogen antagonist
b.approved for breast cancer c.toxicity/efficacy les
than srem
18.parentral nutrition not given- fibers, fat, cho,
micro nutrient
19.anti depressant also used in spasic bladder,-
a.immipramine b.fluvoxamine
20.muscarinic antagonists donot mediate- pupilary
constricti
21.serotonin syndrome a/e- a.dantrolin given
b.charecterised by increased temperature and
hypertension c.sri can precipitate it d.always
predictable and not idiosyncratic
22. true about mrsa a/e- resistance mediated by
plasmids
23.tetracycile is used in prophylaxis for- cholera
24.pulmonary fibrosis/toxicity seen with-bleomycin
25.haemorrhage after giving primaquine cause-g6pd
def
26.32 yr old hypothyroid patient with heart disease-
a.give low dose levothyroxine b.thyroid mass
implantation c.full dose levo
27not used in migrane prophylaxis- a.propranolol
b.topiramate c.flunarizine d.phenytoin/ca channel
blocker
28.antiviral which is an integrase inhibitor-
raltigralvir
29.contraceptive not given in epileptic patient- ocp
30.alkalysation of urine done in- a.ifsophosphamide
b.methotrexate c.platins d.arac
31.not a side effect of methotrexate- diarrhoea
32.given for treatment of varices- octreatide
33.meglitanide false is— a. decreases post parendial
hyperglycemia
b. hypoglycemia less common than sulfonylureas c.
it decreases insulin resistance
d. it acts by releasing insulin
34.best inotropic drug for rv -a.dopamine
b.milerinone c.digoxin d.amrinone
35.digoxin toxicity causes a/e- a.ventricular
bigeminy b.bi ventricular tachycardia c.atrial
fibrillation regularisation d.delayed av conduction
36.false about erotinib is- a.tyrosine kinase inhibitor
given for epithelial tumor b.given for ncc c.food
delays its absorption d.side effect rashes
37.after craniopharyngioma surgery first drug to be
given in case of endocrinal insufficiency-cortiso

38.what is given for chemotherapy induced


thrombocytopenia-opralutin
39.apripitant false is-a.a.nk1 agonist b.given for
chemotherapy induced vomiting c.croses blood brain
barrier d.metabolised by cyp450
40.ranulogin false is-a.anti angina b.glycemic
control
41.false is-insulin is never required in typr 2 dm
42.not seen on giving intra thecal opoids- a
Dysphonia b.itching c.fall in bp
43.true about buprenorphine at meu receptor is-- a.
Partial agonist at MU Receptor c. Partial agonist at
Kappa Receptor
b. Full Agonist at Mu Receptor d. It is antagonist at
Kappa receptor
44.which is not antiresorptive
a.Etidronate b.Strontium c.Teriparatide
d.alendronate

Pathology
1.necrotising lymphadenitis seen in-kikuchi disease
2.sterile pyurea seen in-1.chronic pyelonephritis
a.wilms”s tumour b.tuberculosis c.cystitis d.chronic
pyelonephritis
3.in a disease with platelet dysfunction what
happens- a.normal number increased bt
b.decreased number increased bt
4.psamoma bodies not found in-follicular ca thyroid
5.d/d between follicular adenoma and carcinoma-
vascular invasion
6.not an immune mediated disease- sickle cell
anemia
7.not due to abnormal protein folding- tb
8.not associated with erythema nodosum
pregnancy
9.histopathology of nodule in leg shows fibroblastic
foci with neutrophilic infiltration likely diagnosis
sweats syndrome
10.type of antibody seen in apla- gpi,ana
11.most charecteristi finding in acute inflammation-
increased vascular permiability
12.increased free radical injury is associated with
increased levels of a/e – superoxide dismutase ,
gutathion peroxidase
13.alt and classical pathway both activate c3
14.pirions- catalise folding of other protein
15.chimerism is seen in- a. singleton pregnancy
b.monoamniotic .monochorionic c.diamniotic
monochorionic
16.cell organelle involved in apoptosis
-mitochondria
17.hybrids are obtained by using the following
technique except- 1)attaching inactive viral particle
on cell membrane
2)adding ethylene glycol 3)applying a small electric
current
18.slide fixing in pathology done by-
a.formaldehyde b.alcohol c.picric acid
d.glutraldehyde
19.false about xanthogranuloma- caused by tb
20. most potent stimulant of naive t cell- mature
dendritic cell
21.malignancy associated with nf syndrome-
A.jml B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia C. Aml
22.coarctation of aorta mc associated with bicuspid
valves
23.aml poor prognostic factor-
24.on fist time exposure to ova cells type of ab
produced is- igm
25.hb h disease occours due to -loss of 4 alfa genes
26.phagocytosis all are true except >5 micrometer
engulfed <5micrometer engulfed
27.narp is- mitochondrial disorder
28.cavitation pneumonia is seen in- staphylococcus
29.nesidoblastoma false is
a. Occurs in adults more than child b.episodes of
hypoglycaemia are seen
c. Histopathology shows Hyperplasia of Islet cells d.
Diazoxide is used in treatment
30.not a true neuronal tumor
a.Neuroblastoma b. Gangliocytoma c. Ganglioglioma
d.ependymoma
31.true abt gastric carcinoma-
a.occult bleeding in stool not seen b.achlorhydia
predispose c.always scc d)radiosenstive
32.decreased calcium increased phosphate and
increased pth investigation not done is- urine
routine
33.killing power in phagolysosome is due to-
oxidase
34. c in crp stands for- cho polysaccharide of
pneumococcus

Microbiology
1.je false is- a.in epidemics only 2-3 cases seen in a
village b.mosquito bite is always associated c.70%
infants
2.a sewer worker presents with flu like symptoms
liver studie abnormal trearment done is-
a.sulfonamide b.quinolone
3.yaws not true is-
a. transmitted non-venerally b.caused by
t.pertenue
c. Secondary yaw can involve bones d. Last stages
involve heart & nerves
4.coryni bacterium diptheriae a/e- toxin production
chromosomally mediated
5.enterococcus
6.prolonged carrier state not seen in measles
7.most common cause of migrating visceral larva
migrans is- toxocara, strongyloidosis, visceral
leishmaniasis
8.patient comes with a history of fever cough not
responding to treatment x rays shows signs of
pneumonia grams staining shows gram +ve
branching filaments partly acid fast probable cause-
a.actinomycosis b.nocardiosis c.aspergillus
10.uncomplicated uti is diagnosed by a/e a. pus cell
per field b.bacilli stained by gram stain c.nitrate test
+ve
11.patient comes with lymphadenopathy and
hypotension after being bitten by rat what staining
is to be done- waysons stain
12.bile solubility to differentiate pneumococcus
13.poly saccharide capsule helps in pathogenesis of
a/e- a.H.inflluenzae b.Strep pneumoniae
c.N.meningitidis d.bordetella pertusis
14.parvo virus false is
a.has affinity for erythrocyte p antigen b.causes
transient aplastic crisis
c.about only 10%of cases it crosses the placent
d.spread by respiratory route
15. not transmitted transplacentally- hsv
16.true about Chlamydia trachomatis is- culture of
pus for isolation of organism
17.leptosporiosis true is- a.rats acts as reservoir
b.feco oral route c.50%cases liver and kidney
involved
18.clostridium tetani false is- a.incubation period 7-
10 days b.person to person contact c.heat resistant
d.3 doses of vaccination
19.c.jejuni false is- a.commonest cause of
campylobacteriosis b.polutry source of infection
c.humans are reservoir d.associated with gbs
20.mc fungal infection in a non aids patient is-
A.aspergillus B. Candida C. Cryptococcus D. Muco
21.mc cause of meningo encephalitis in children is-
entero virus
22.8 yr old with sign of meningitis and ear infections
with ring enhancement in the fronto temporal lobe
all can cause it except a.hinfuenzeae
b.staphylococcus c.pneumococcus d.pseudomonas
23.whooping cough specimen is collected from
nasopharyngial swab
24.false abt pneumococcus- a.capsule helps in
virulence b.mc cause of otitis media

Preventive Medicine
1.skew is calculated as a.mean-mode/standard
deviation b.mode-mean/std deviation c.std deviation
d.std deviation/mean-mode
2.punnet square is for-- a.genotype of offspring
b.statistical analysis
3.orthotoludin test done for chlorine
4.not true abt hospital waste management is
a.red bag contents can be source of contamination
b.human anatomical waste disposed in yellow bag
c.black bag for incineration ash
d.blue bag contents always disposed in secure
landfill
5.abt mmr true is denominator has total live births
6. incidence of fetal spread of aids is decreased by
a/e vaginal delivary
7.test for pasteurisation phosphatise test
8.not endemic in india is yellow fever
9. not a cause of resurgence of malaria is use of bed
nets
10.resistant to ddt a/e phlebotomas
11.indoor pollutant a/e
a]co b)nitrogen dioxide c)radon d)mercury vapours
12.false negetives demonstrated by graph
13.5 factors determine a disease occourance, which
test is suitable in this case multivariate, anova
14.National screening programme doest include for-
a.dm b.ca cervix c.breast ca d.dental carries
15.mckeons model for medical awareness for tb
shows decreased incidence of tb due to-
a.increased awareness and knowledge b.medical
advancement c.social & env factor d)behav modfn
16.who stratergies for public health doest include
leadership
17.not a deliberate mosquito control measure
alkaline soap water
18.sampling method applied when groups are
divided into subgroups and samples are taken
a.stratified sampling b.cluster sampling c.simple
random sampling
19.hdi includes a/e education,gdp, life expectancy at
birth, life expectancy at 1 yr of age
20.dietary recommendation are a/e
a. To avoid alcohol consumption b. Salt intake
should be less than 5gm/day
c. Saturated fat is about 10% of whole diet
d.Cholesterol intake should be 100 gm/1000
kcal/day

Orthopaedics
1.blounts disease is- a.genu valgum b.genu varum
c.genu rectavatum d.meninscal tear
2.reimplantation first thing to be done is bone
3.teenage girl complains ofpain while walking
upstairs or after prolonged standing cause is 1.
A.Chondromalacia of patella b. Patellar Fracture
c. Torn Meniscus d. Bipartite Patella
4.child presents with limp pain in femoral triangle
diagnostically most appropriate test done is mri
5.best investigation for bone metastasis bone scan
6.osteoarthritis grade 3 management conservative
7. a50 yr lady referred by orthoped with history of
sprained ankle 2 mths back.. f/b recovery.. however
she now complains of severe pain in that ankle with
inability to flex that foot.. physician notes edema n
shiny skin in local examination...prob dx:
a fibromyalgia b chr. regional pain synd1 c chr.
regional pain synd 2 d.peripheral neuropathy

Obsteretics and Gynaecology


1.clue cells seen in-bacterial vaginosis
2.fallopian tube cilliary motility impaired in-
katageners
3.which surgery for stress incontinence has highest
suces rate- a.kelly b.brusch colpo suspension c.sling
d.vaginal tape
4.cholestasis in pregnancy is diagnosed by
measuring bile acids
5.not a cause of primary amennorhoea sneehans
syndrome
6.timing of ovulation determined by a/e estrous
cycle
7.post menopausal bleeding usg shows 8mm
thickening of endometrium next investigation
endometrial biopsy
8.33 wk 1500 gm baby born after cs management is
oral intubation and oral feeding
9.xo genotype commonly associated with gonidal
dysgenesis
10.open ntd shows elevated levels of acetylcholie
esterase
11.Earliest abnormality to be diagnosed by tv usg-
anencephaly
12.mefipristone is used in abortion
13.give sedatives and bed rest
14.clue cells seen in bacterial vaginosis
15.pcod false is increased prolactin
16.shoulder dystocia not done is fundal preasure
17.contraindicated in a pregnant rheumatic fever
patient is ergots
18.pregnancy can be successfully continued with
minimal maternal risk in wpw syndrome
20.maternal weight is not influenced by smoking
21.placenta previa management a/e cervical
encircalage
22.virilisation of a female infant is due to a/e
placental sulfatase deficiency
23.niot a evidence based treatment of menorrhagia
ethamsylate

Paediatrics
1.baby 33 wks delivered after cs weighing 1500 gm
should be started on 1. nil oral and iv fluids 2.oral
nasogastric tube / aternate oralroute 3..TPN
2.18 yr old boy presents with malina ,
haematemasis and spleenomegaly probable cause
a.malaria dic b.extra hepatic portal vein obstruction
c.bile duct occlusion d.cirrhosis
3. pathological laryngophagial reflux presenting
symptom respiratory symptoms
4.5yr old chid presents with abdominal pain followed
by diarrhoea probable cause is polyp
5.major prognostic factor for cdh ispulmonary
hypertension
6.child borm to dm mother presents with
convulsions after 16 hrs probable cause is
hypoglycemia
7.bronchiolitis obliterans
8.malignant childhood tumor causing b/l proptosis
a.t cell tumors b.rhabdomyo sarcoma c.all d.aml
9.asd can be differentiated from vsd by
a. Pulmonary congestion b. Aortic shadow
c.enlarged la
10.b/l adrenal haemorrhage
11.pentalogy of fallot-asd

Medicine
1.minerelocorticoid receptors are seen in a/e liver
2.ecg can diagnose a block in a/e a.lcd, b. left, c.
Right ,d. lad
3.a patient comes to opd with epigastric pain
radiating to back on usg gall stones and a swollen
pancreas seen. Serum amylase was not elevated
probable cause a. acute pancreatits b.acute
cholicystitis c.io
4.first sign of pulmonary pleuthora is
a. diameter of the decending Rt pulmonay artery
>16mm b.diameter of the main pulmonay artery
>16mm c. diameter of the lt pulmonay artery
>16mm
5.basilar migrane
6.girl presents with rapid weight gain growth failiure
and dry shiny skin probable cause a.thyroid
dysfunction b.dysharmongenesis
7.normal fsh and lh seen in vas obstruction
8.a patient presents with a goitre, high tsh and low
t4 probable diagnosis a.central hypothyroidism
b.thyroid hormone receptor defect c.dysgenesis
d.dyshormogenesis
9,best test for myasthenia gravis edrophonium test
10. incomplete compensation with pco2 30, p02
105, ph 7.45 probable cause is a.resp alkalosis
b.metabolic acidisis
11.in uncompentated dka not true is .pco2 levels
are normal or increased
12.fasting hypoglycaemia is not due to a)glucagon
excess
a]increased glucagon levels b) glucose 6 phospatase
deficiency
c) glycogen synthase deficiency d)ureamia
13.for diagnosing insulinoma useful tests are a/e d
xylulose test
14.cjd
15.normal parathyroid levels with increased
phosphate and decreased ca is seen in
pseudohypoparathyroidism
17.best method for monitoring cardiac function in
intraoperative mi is
A.ecg B. Invasive arterial pressure C. Central
venous pressure
D. Trans esophageal echocardiogram
18.not given for prophylaxis in migrane is-
a.topiramate b.phenytoin c.levatriacitam
d.flunarizine
19.raise in end tidal co2 in thyroid surgery with
tachypnea and hypertension is seen in a/e a.thyroid
storm b.anaphylaxis
20.pheochromocytoma true a/e
B. 95% occur in the abdomen C. They secrete
catecholamines
D. They arise from sympathetic ganglion A. 90% are
malignant
21.for diagnosis of diabetes insipidus

Surgery
1.a person comes with 5 yr history of painless
haematuria on 4 occasions the urine is filled with
clotted blood which investigation would be
diagnostically most revealing a.x ray kub b.urine
routine and microscopy c.rcug d.dpta
2.in a person with single kidney a fungating mass
was seen in the lower pore of kidney next step in
management a.partial nephrectomy b.radical
nephrectomy with dialysis c.radical nephrectomy
with immediate renal transplant d.observation
3.gcs-10
4.hepatic lobe left to falciparum ligament 2 and 3
5.patient with stab wount with omentum coming out
of wound, vitals are stable next step in management
is a.immidiate laprotomy b.fast c.wound debridment
and closure
6.bladder ca stage 2 true is
7.gastro esophagial reflux gold standard for
diagnosis 24 hr dual ph monitoring
8.while doing turp most common site for stricture
formation in urethra
a.navicular fossa B. Bulb C. Prostatic membranous
urethra D. Bladder neck
9.turp in done upper to verumontanum so as to
avoid injury to
10.commonest sign of pulmonary pleuthora is right
side > 16
11.which organ is not used for transplantation from
a cadaver a.liver b.lung c.bladder d.blood vessels
12.best repair for stress incontinence is kellys
13.patient presents with epigastric pain radiating to
back with normal serum values. Diagnosis was
made after ct and usg after which operation was
don what was the surgical procedure performed
pancreatojejunostomy
14.patient who had surgery for duodenal ulce
presents with epigastric pain more during night
which gets realieved on taking food probable
diagnosis is
15.amoebic liver abcess 1cm below capsule with
size 3*4 cm true statement is
16.hollow viscous perforation next step in
management
17.circumferential phimosis management is
18.ranula is
19.secondary haemorrhage occours after 6 days
20.tripple phosphate stone seen in proteus infection
21.c/i in medical management of gall stones
radioluscent stone
22.aspiration of food management
A.cricothyroidectomy B. Emergency tracheostomy
C. Humidified oxygen D. Heimlich maneuver
23.cryptorchidic testes to be repaired by 12 months
24.sebaceous ulcerated cysts are found in
association A. Gardner ’s syndrome B. Turcot
syndrome C. Torre Maura syndrome
25.superior vena cava syndrome is caused by- A.
Lymphoma
A.malignant lymphoma B. Small cell lung ca C. Nscc
D. Secondary tumours
26.Blaschisko line is
a.lymphatic lines b.blood vessel c. nerve d.line of
development

Skin
1.Cicatrising alopecia with perifolicular whiteness is
most commonly associated with
a. Nail dystrophy b. Whitish lesion in the buccal
mucosa c. Arthritis
d. Discoid Plaques in the face
2.2months after having a painless penile ulcer a
patient presents with mucocutaneous lesion and oral
ulcers causative organism is treponema pallidium
3.pseudoisomorphism phenomenon not seen in a/e
A.psoriasis B. Lichen planus C. Vitiligo D. Plane
warts

Radiology
1.aortic knob is masked by
a.upper lingual b.lower lingual c.apex of lower lobe
d. post part ofupper lobe
2.ct scan is least useful in diagnosing
a. 1 cm of aneurysm in artery b.1 cm of lymph node
in thyroid ca
c.1 cm of pancreas mass in tail d. 1 cm of ....
3.dose of radiation associated with haematological
crisis a. 2.5-5 CGY b. 10 cgy c. 100 cgy d. 200 cgy
4.about contrast radiography true is a.3 parts of
iodine with 2 parts of solvent b.injection into artery
is associated with 1/3 times more complication than
injection into a vein

Ophthalmology
1.late endopthalmitis after iol implantation
pseudomonas
2.superior oblique paralysis will result in defective
vision if he looks of vertical on looking down
3.leukokoria in one eye and two small nodules at
periphery of disc in other eye treatment
4.floaters with sudden los of vision cause retinal
tear
5.argyl robertsonian pupil false is consensual reflex
normal
6.slowly expanding central macular vision los with
no genetic history probable cause is staggerds
syndrome

Ent
1.not true abt use of naf in otosclerosis is naf
decreases osteoblastic activity
2.cavernous sinus thrombosis
3.while performing laser surgery for larynx it
catches fire what should not be done by
a.100%oxygen after discontinuing the anesthesia
b.flushing with sterile water c.remove pvc tube
d.steroids and antibiotics
4.endolymphatic hydrops seen n miners disease
5.onodi and hellar cells are found in

Anesthesia
1.la + vasoconstrictive drug is not given in digital
anesthesia
2.sickle cell anemia not given is regional iv block
3.not a definite airway is laryngial mask airway
4.convulsions is seen due to the use of which
anesthetic a.ether b.halothane c.sevoflurane
d.desflurane
5.while giving epidural anesthesia a person suddenly
develops dysphonia and collapses possible cause
a.total spinal block b.anaphylaxis c.vasovagal
syncope
6.anesthetic not given in hypertensive patient
ketamine
7.patient remembers the events occurring during
operation this can be prevented by bisspectral
8.true abt epidural opoids are all except a.act on
dorsal horn cells b.can cause itching c.nausea and
vomiting d.resp and cvs depression
Psychiatry
1.a 5yr history of schizophrenia patient started on
haloperidol 2 days back comes with neck rigidity
orofaciolingual movements protruded tongue
probable cause— a.acute dystonia b.akathesia
c.neuroleptic malignant syndrome
2.not seen in alcoholic trmens opthalmoplegia
3.woman after loosig job diagnosed as depression
true is ssri are the most effective
4.imbecile false is iq level 50-70

Orthopaedics
1.blounts disease is- a.genu valgum b.genu varum
c.genu rectavatum d.meninscal tear
2.reimplantation first thing to be done is bone
3.teenage girl complains ofpain while walking
upstairs or after prolonged standing cause is 1.
A.Chondromalacia of patella b. Patellar Fracture
c. Torn Meniscus d. Bipartite Patella
4.child presents with limp pain in femoral triangle
diagnostically most appropriate test done is mri
5.best investigation for bone metastasis bone scan
6.osteoarthritis grade 3 management conservati

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Guest
Posted: Thu Jan 13, 2011 12:35 pm Post subject:

5 q.IN the pt who is in the[ state of


consciousness what is the minimum level of score
measured on glassgow coma scale??
a.7
b.5
c.3
d.0

please answer this

Back to top

meenaxi
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Fri Jan 14, 2011 1:01 pm Post subject:

1 All of the following can be a cause of resurgent


Joined: 21 Feb 2009
Posts: 1829 malaria except –
a. Emergence of new strains
89550 Credits
b. Genetic alterations in the host
c. Drug resistance in the parasite
d. Resistance of the vector to DDT

2 ADH/DI from hypothalamic nuclei


a. pre optic
b. supra optic
c. para venticular
d. suprachiasmatic

3.least common occupational Ca


a.lung ca
b.skin ca
c.liver ca
d.leukemia

4.all are STD except


a.herpes
b.scabies
c.candida
d.mycobacterium lepra

5 to access state of consciousness in t,. minimum


GCS score is
a.7
b.1
c.3
d.0

6.all are used in pitutary adenoma except


a.orlistat
d.letrozol

7.both CMI and HUMORAL IMMUNITY are best


elicted by?
a.polysacchride Ag
b.protein Ag
c.adjuvant
d.lipid Ag

8.which of these drugs interacts with warfarin but


doesnt increase INR
a. OCP
b.metoclopramide
c.erythromycin

9.best time for interferon therapy


a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus
10 Bacteria causing Sub-acute bacterial endocarditis
-
a) Strep. Viridians
b)staph areua
c)lactobacillus
d.beta hemolytic strept

11 parotid fascia continues anteriorly as...


1.fascia lata
2.deep cervical fascia
3 MASSETERIC FASCIA

12which is difficult to diagnose


1,necrosed pulp
2.chronic pulitis@@@
3.internal resorption

13 heriditary spherocytosis,all are true except


a- increased osmotic fragility
b. increase vol:surface ratio

14All r true abt propofol exept


causes vomiting@@@@

15ann arbour classification


Stage III :
>Involvement of lymph node regions or lymphoid
structures on both sides of the diaphragm
>Involvement of two or more lymph node regions
on the same side of the diaphragm

16 Dental floss - Type 1 embrassure

17function of serum albumin


oncotic pressure
toxin transport
buffer
drug transport

18dengue haemorrhagic fever caused by


virus

19which of foll nt used in hrtfailure


spironolactone,
Nitroglycerine
nestride
trimetazidine
20 non resp function of lung....
.sodium balance

21 mysthania gravis..which is nt true...


ab formed to ach receptors,
accumulation of ach.
.abs bind to ach...

22 .negpredictivevalue 0.75 means....


75%chances tht dis wil nt be present if test is
negative.

23..ethnicity refers to....

24 incidence of dis at particular age in a given place


calc by....(CPAP values)
.paired t test
,chi sq test
,student t
test of variance

25was sensory branch of ant. division of mandi.


nerve
.-long buccal
buccal n

26sensory supply of soft palate a/e


vagus
facial nerve

27tevdek sutures- 4-72 hrs

28 CLINICALLY SUSPICIOUS LESION- REPEAT


BIOPSY

29prophylaxis of migraine
topiramate
ppl
fluner

30leukemia not common in


down syndrome
bloom syndrome

31normal cd4 cell count


1000 cells
500
200
100

32bronchodilating intravenous anesthetic


propofol
thiopentone
ketamine

33most common caries seen in primary teeth ??


occlusal pit fissures of molars
proximal surface below cntct point
proximal surface above cntct point

34 aftr viewing a radiograph there were caries deep


may b approaching the pulp horn ... wht should u do
??
remove the entire carious lesion as part of acces
prep n strt endodontic therapy
remove sum caries n place a intermmediate
sedative dressng
place a sedative dressing plan for a pulpotomy in
the next appointment

35bordetella pertusis ?? all except


it cause disease in adults who hav taken vaccine

36 spinal cord lesion causing dissociative sensory


loss
a.decussating fibres from lateral spinothalamic tract
anterior column
dorsal column

37mosaic bone patern ???


oestitis deformans
osteosarcoma
fibrous dysplasia

38most common cause of tmj ankylosis ???


trauma
infection

39wht can u find out only by radiographs ???


anatomical root length
sulcus depth

40 root caries
actinomyces viscosus
strepto mutans

41 not seen in periodontosis ????


mycoplasma
actinomyces
a.a

42root caries - A.viscosis (repeated in exam)

43 forces of --- occur in alveolar border of


mandibular fracture
compression
tension

44which is not injured in lower third molar extrn


IAN
IAA
Lingual nerve
lingual artery ??

45 x ray for third molar revelas nerve becomes


thinner along the tooth root.. cause??
root perforated by nerve,
nerve goes between root of teeth

46 The following are true about tetanus acquired


through traumatic wound:
a. Clostridium tetani travels via the nerves to the
anterior horn
cells in the spinal cord
b. the tetanospasmin component of the exotoxin
acts on the
post-synaptic neurones and prevents impulse
transmission.
c. the patient should be given antitoxin
intravenously
d. the presence of Clostridium tetani in the wound
can be
identified by a positive Nagler reaction

47 Which of the following is not a somatic efferent


a) trochlear
b) facial @@@@@@@@@@
c) abducens
d) occulomotor

48 dofti is used for?


proximal caries in primary teeth

49 pulmonary endothelium?
lipoprotein lipase...
plasma actiyation factor
thrombin
factor x

50 when patient has vancomycin resistant infection,


tablet to b given,
oflaxacin
clarithromycin
cefatrime
linezolid

51 which does not cause sedation


buspirone
diazepam

52 patient taking rifampicin and OC became


pregnant .. why?
cos rifampicin caused increased metabolism of OC
increase excretion of OC
decreased absorpton of OC

53 least antiemetic
domperidone
cisapride@@@@@@
chlorpromazine
metaclopromide

54 best time for interferon therapy


a. when virus enters cell
b.DNA/RNA replication
c.protein replication
d.uncoating of virus

55 all cause secondary polycythemia except


a.high altitude
b.hemangioblastoma
c.myeloproliferative disorder
pheochromocytoma

56 decrased metbolic rate is seen in


a.obesity @@@@
b.hyperthyrodism
c.feeding
d.exercise

57 which of the following tests is not used for


detection for specic aneuploidy?
a.FISH
b.lQF-PCR
c.microarray
d.nested pcr

58 mensual cycle indicator


a.hormone steroid profile@@@@@@

59 not carrying parasympathetic fibres?


a.trochlear @@@@@@@2
b.facial
c.occulomotor
d, glossopharyngeal

60 if pneumothorax occurs in a patient...


a.surfactant will be reduced...
b.intrapleural pressure becomes more negative....

61 in maternal mortality rate whch is not true


a.it is expressed per 1000
b.it is ratio not rate
c. denominator includes stiil births, live births,..

62 all of true relation to scrub typhus except?


a.mites act as reservior
b.tetra is the drug of choice
c.transmitted when aduld mites feed on hosts
@@@@@@
d,

63 fulmiative hepatitis in pregnant woman by


a.hep C
b.HEP B
c.HEP D
d, HEP E @@@@[

64 india aims to eliminate which of the following


diseases by 2015?
a.malaria
b.filariasis @@@@
c.kala azar
d,TB

65 interdental col is prone to inflammation bcz


epithelium is non keratinized
plaque accumulates
is difficult to clean
all of d above
66sulcular membrane acts as semipermeable
membrane through which
bacterial products pass thru saliva
fluid from gingiva seeps into saliva
both
none

67attached gingiva is
always stippled
non keratinized
resistant to masticatory forces
resistant to inflammatory changes

68m/c cause of dry mouth in adults


tranquillizers
anti histaminics
insulin
birth control pills

69m/c clinical sign of trauma occlusal trauma


wear facet
tooth mobility
enamel fracture
cusp fracture

70probable etiology of gingivitis


high progesterone
deficiency of estrogen n testosterone
preganancy
aldosterone

71supragingival plaque undergoes which of d foll


changes wid time
plaque microflora bcms more g-ve
plaque microflora bcms more g+ve

72difference betwn color of supragingival n sub


gingival calculus
ph
death of wbc
haemolysis of rbc

73 all of d above in multiple myeloma [ bence


jones ] which 1 of the following is seen?
a.alpha heavy chain disease
b.gamma heavy chain disease
c.mu heavy chain disease@@@@@@
d,epsilon heavy chain disease

74 mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area


recommended for all the following except??
a.yaws
b.filariasis
c.leprosy@@@@@@@@@@@
d,trachoma

75Coeliac plexus is located:


1. Anterolateral & around the aorta>this is wrong
answer.
2. Posterolateral & around the aorta
3. Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain .
4. Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain

76 ga intrathecal contraindicated?
Fentanyl
ramefentanyle

77 parenteral nutrion which is not given


fibre
micronutrient
carbohydrate
fat

78 'indifferent' fibers are


a. elastic fibers
b. oxytalan fibers
c. collagen fibers
d. None of the above

79 a young boy had a radio opaque area found at


the apex of a permant tooth wid deep caries !!!
condensing osteitis @@@@@@@@
apical periodontitis
chronic periodontitis

80 green stains on children teeth


chromogenic bacteria

81orf stands for


open reading frame??

82 Donavanosis true is,


caused ny camylobacterium
83 the role of immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased number of
fibroblases
neutrophils
lymphocytes

84 Gingival clefts may be formed by


occlusal disharmonies
faulty tooth brushing
normal frenum attachment
use of dental floss

85 plasma cells most fatal


1.pagets disease
2.multiple myeloma
3.osteosarcoma

86 .LA Failure
Cations

87 recycling of small bile acid pool


fast
slow

88 .Oral polio virus: killed vaccine

89 nonvascular headache, anaesthesia dolorosa

90.malignancy of AIDS: kaposi Sarcoma.

91 .Cooley,s

92.genicluate ganglion : Taste.

93 Centre of eye movements.


Frontal visual field

94. site for subsance P

95 All are tocolytic except.....


???
???
??
Atosiban????

96 Dopamine receptors D2 blocks Prolactin


secretion, so when there is smethng interfering wid
dis Dopamine receptors than what will not occur,...
a. Visual field defects
b. Gonadal dysfunction
c. Headache
d. Exccessive lactation

97 Mother donated one kidney to her daughter,


what type of graft is it? Allo.......
Xeno
Auto
Iso

98 high viscocity saliva related to increase caries in


children
a. really true
b. partially true
c. partially false
d. really false

99'ant ethmoidal n suplies all except?


a. ethmoidal air cells
b. maxillary sinus @@@@@@@
c, dural sheath of ant cranial fossa
d. interior of nasal cavity

100 nitrates r not used in


a. CCF
b. esophageal spasm
c. renal colic @@@@@@@@@@@
d. cyanide poisoning

101 'whch 1 not converted to an active metabolite?


a. quinapril
b. fosinapril
c. benzopril
d. lisnopril

102 Apical migration of epithelial attachment with


corresponding recession of marginal gingiva results
in
a.Shallow sulcus @@@@@
b. gingival pocket formation
c. infrabony pocket formation
d. periodontal pocket formation

103Tobacco chewing is thought to be contributing /


predisposing factor in which condition ?
a. desquamative gingivitis
b. ANUG@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
c.juvenile periodontitis
d. erythema multiforme

104 desquamative gingivits histological feaus- loss


of basement membrane

105 blood coagualation defect not seen?


a. after taking brufen
b. thalasamia
c. VWF defiecien
d.

106MTA p:l ratio 3:1

107 Type of bone present in interradicular area


cortical
cancellous@@@@@@@@
osteophytic
exophytic

108 type of bone present on labial surface of


anterior teeth
cortical@@@@@@
cancellous
exophytic
osteophytic

109 most common cause of drymouth in adults


tarnquilizers
anti-histaminics @@@@@@@@@
insulin
birth control pills

110 most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma


wear facets
tooth mobility@@@@@@@@@
enamel cracks
cuspal fracture

111 probable etiology of gingivosis is


high progesterone levels
def of estrogen and testosterone@@@@@
pregnancy
aldosterone deficiency

112 Down syndrome translocation


46XY -14 t[14,21]
47XY +21 t[14,21]
47XY -14 t[14,21]
46XY t{14,21]

113 supragingival plaque undergoes which of the


following changes with time.
plaque mass decreases
plaque microflora becomes more gram positive
plaque microflora becomes more gram
negative@@@@@@@@@
plaque microflora becomes predominantly
spirochetal

114 which of the following is a characteristic of


supragingival plaque and not of sub gingival plaque
in humans
motile bacteria are predominant
spirochetes are evident microscopically
gram negative bacteria are predominant
bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar
consumption@@@@@@@@@@

115 delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated


immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal
diseases because they often have
-IgG antibody reactine with plaque bacterial
antigens
-T lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial
antigens @@@@@@@@@
-soluble immune complexes within involves gingival
tissues
-all of the above

________________________________________
116 which of the following is most useful in
diffentiating an acute periodontal abscess from pa
abscess
-type of exhudate-
-nature of swelling
-intensity of pain
-result of periodontal probing

117 which index would u use to access the severity


of periodontitis in epidemiological studiesof a large
population.
-pma index
-gingival index
-periodontal index@@@@@@@
-sulcus bleeding index

118 which of the following plaque indices does not


use disclosing agent
-plaque component of periodontal disease index
-debris component of Simplified Oral Hygiene
Index@@@@@@@@@@@
-modified Quingley Hein plaque index

119 -all of the above following plaque index divides


each tooth surface into 9 areas
-php index
-plaue index by silness and loe
- modified Navy plaque
index@@@@@@@@@@@@
- glass criteria for scoring debris

120 teeth that are least affected by periodontal


disease are
-lower first molars and upper anteriors
-lower premolars and upper
canines@@@@@@@@@
-lower first molars and upper incisors and
premolars
-lower centrals, laterals and upper molars

121 sinusitis...fluid level..clouding

122ground glass appearence.. {was this asked ?}


.

123 sphingomylein....

124 back pressure porosity...

125 film speed recommended for caries detection


1c
2d
3e
4f

126 hypercapnia causes


low blood pH
high blood ph
no change
none

127 Radiograph alone can diagnose:


1. Periodontal pocket
2. Periodontal abscess
3. Anatomic root length
4. Bifurcation involvement

128 When pins are used in amalgam, strength of


amalgam:
1. Deceases
2. Increases
3. Remains same
4. May increase or decrease

129. Most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is:


1. Trauma
2. Development disturbances
3. Infection
4. Atrophy

130 all are true abt sitagliptin except,.....


-is nt given alone, always wid sulfonylureas-
-it causes,.. sme adverse effects??
-increases insulin secrection,decreases glucagon,,

131What is seen in acute infection?


-leucocytosis@@
-leukopenia
-lymphocytosis
-neutopenia

132'saw tooth' rete pegs are seen in


lichen planus@@@

133 >>radiating lines on buccal mucosa


lichen planus@@

134MEAN>>>MEDIAN>>>>MODE__________
POSITIVELY SKEWED

135 which of the following should be done for better


efficiency and longer shelf life of a carbide bur..
-should rotate slow before entering the cavity
-should rotate fast before entering the cavity
-sould rotate fast before entering the mouth
-should rotate after entering the cavity

136 if a 6 yr old patient comes with a bluish-purlpe


swelling behind the deciduous second molar, then
what will u do??
- assure the patient,explain the situation and send
him back
- some curettage/enucleation/or sme extensive
procedure,.. cant recall d other options
137 Bacterial enzyme causing degradation of ground
substance _______
a) Hyaluronidase b) Collagenase

138 which of thw following is correct for a facial


porcelain preparation
the walls should be parralel to the tooth surface
the walls should converge facially
the walls should diverge facially
the walls should meet the tooth surface at right
angels

139 excisional biopsy


-removal of normal tissue and all of lesion @@@@

140 >paradoxical movement of chest in a patient


who has suffered from trauma-
_flail chest@@@

141 Rotheras test used to detect


carbohydrate
protien
fat
ketone bodies

142which of the following seen with acromegaly


-large tongue@@@
-micrognathia
-crowding

143 drug of choice trigeminal neuralgia-


carbamazepine

144 which of the following controls voluntary eye


movements?
a.frontal eye field
b.superior colliculus
c.visual cortex
d.cerebellum

145 Which of the following does not cause postural


hypotension
prazoxin
phetolamine

146 normal glucose and increased protein in CSF

147 Which of the following is not an Alpha 2


blocker,
yohimbein

148which of the following is useful in representing


the relationship between age and incidence of
cancer?
A.bar diagram.
B.line diagram.
C.pie diagram.
D.stem and leaf.

149four mabs and mechanisms, which is not


correct
ritusuximab/ etc CD cells/Bcells /TNFa/interleukins..
etc

150 young child with indurated ulcers, fever ,


lymhadenopathy.... (acute herpati gingivostomatitis
-symptomatic tT

151 pt complains of pain and foul smell on third day


after extraction,
-irrigate the socket and place sedative dressing
-curretage, sedative dressing
-search for the roots

152 if a radiograph shows 3mm bone loss, nd


clinically there is 6-mm bone loss , true is?
-facial or lingual bone masking the loss of
interdental bone on radiograft

153 first step to be done after trauma?/


-clear airway
-circulation maintainance

154 Radiographically the level of alveolar crest


corresponds to?
-CEJ of adjacent teeth@@@@@@@@@@@
-dentoenamal junction?
-trabeculae pattern?
-gingival margin?

155 Child dosage of NSAIDs,. depend on


weight of child

156 difference in the cavity prepaaration of gold


inlay and composite class 5
convenient form
gingival bevel
cavosurface margine

157 patient complains of sharp pain after recent


restoration of gold onlay
due to
-galvanic current due to gold cast crown opposing
amalgam restoration @@@@
-improper filling\
-pulpitis

158 Most common Tumor of Parotid Gland


-Pleomorphic Adenoma

159 Herpangina is caused by


-Cocksakie virus

160 Deficiency of which vitamin will cause


Hypoplasia of all teeth
-Vit A @@@

161 Neonatal Teeth


- those errupted with in 30 days of birth @@@@
- by 1 year
-at birth

162 most common site for sialoliths


-parotid duct
-parotid gland
-submandibular gland and duct@@@@@@@@@@
-sublingual

163 nt match
......>herbiside
nalaxone>tca

164not related to action of cortiosteroids


DECREASE ..iCAM...

165..DNA repairs defect associated with


A.Xeroderma pigmentosum@@@@
B.icthyosis
c.Mosaicism.
d???

166 >> First radio sigh to diagnose carious


involvement in primary tooth
-radiolucency in furcation area@@@@@
-apical pdl radiolucency
-internal resorption

167 What will u do if after etching Class III cavity


preperation is contaminated by saliva..
-wash, rinse and re-etch @@@

168.20 mins after avulsion of teeth what should be


done
-rinse wid saline, and replant @@@@
-cutretage of root/etch??

169 true about multiple myloma


invariably raised alkaline phosphatase

170 True abt Autism,


-Mental retardation &
-speech prob & communication prob

171 juvenile periodontitis


areobic G+ve
-aerobic G-ve
-anareobic G+ve
-aerobic G-ve, .

172 prostrate specific antigen-


tumour marker

173 obesity not caused by


diabetes mallitus
estrogen deficiency
hypothyroidism

174 Not present in basement membrane


rhodopsin

175 sd/mean
coefficient of variance
standard error

176 Hyaline cartilage collagen


type II

177 gout = purine metabolism

178 turner tooth

179carpenter syndrome?

180 oxycephaly?

181/50%drug elimination at end of infusion


context half life?
182 cerebellar region lesion........
b.ipsilateral
c. contralateral

183 DLC-EOSINOPHILIA

184 HAEMOPHILIA - DEFECT IN FACTOR 8 GENE

185 SOMATOMEDIN MEDIATE- CHONDRITIN


SULFATE DEPOSITION

186 True about broncial circulation


air conditioning

187 fibers attached to adjaceent teeth


transeptal

188 phlegmon type of


cellulitis

189 Incidence is high and prevalance is low means


a. disease is cured easily or fatal
b.disease is not cured easily
c. they are not related

190. not attached to oblique line of hyroid cartilage


sup constrictor
middle constrictor

191,. No change in rural/urban


TB

192 less light headedness and early recovery and


ambulation
propofol

193. CO poisoning
shift of curve
2,3 bpg

194. mutation of sickle cell anaemia protective


against
malaria

195. anti pseudomonal - cefoperazone

196haemopoietic stem cells differ frm committed


progenitor cells
long term reconstitution of bone marrow
197 true about ace inhibitors,
c.i in asthma

198Which of the following cells migrate into the


sulcus, in largest quantity, as a result of plaque
accumalation
a)lymphocytes
b)macrophages
c)neutrophils/PMNs @@@@@@@@@
d)plasma cells

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vani
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Fri Jan 14, 2011 1:35 pm Post subject:

1. reliability of a screening test refers to:


Joined: 18 Mar 2003
Posts: 1143 a accurately measures what it is supposed to
measure
41184 Credits
b gives same values even on repeated testing. ans
c the extent to which the observer can go in finding
the result
d depends on knowledge of the observer

2. an imp non respiratory functn of lungs:


a anion balance
b sodium balance ans
c pottassium balance
d calcium balance

3 decreased bmr is seen in:


a obesity ans
b hyperthyroidism
c feeding
d exercise

4 shingomyelinase deficiency is seen in:


a niemann pick disease ans
b farber disease
c tay sach's disease
d krabbe's disease

5 rural and urban difference in prevelance is seen in


all
of the following except:
a lung cancer
b tuberculosis ans
c mental illness
d chronic bronchitis

6 all of the following factors leads to resurgence of


malaria except:
a drug resistance in parasite
b drug resistance in vectors
c drug resistance in host.....
d genetic variation in........ may be answer c or d

7 india aims to eliminate which of the following by


2015:
a malaria
b tuberculosos
c kala azar
d filariasis ans

8 bence jones proteins are derived from:


a alpha globulins
b beta
c gamma globulins ans
d delta

9 gout is a disorder of:


a purine metabolism ans
b pyrimdine metabolism
c ketone metab
d protein metab

10 which of the followng methods for assessment of


female fertility during a menstrual cycle can best
predict the timing of ovulation:
a basal body temperature
b fern test
c spinnbarkeit phenomenon
d hormonal study...or some steroidal level was the
option answer
d is ans

11 autisticchild characterised with disorder:


a visual impairement ans
b delayed development of speech
c lack of social interation...... or else
d .............?

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jg
Guest Posted: Sun Jan 16, 2011 5:22 pm Post subject: glass
gow coma scale

ans is 3 as minimmu score of individual test will b 1


nd minimum combined score will b 1+1+1=3

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dr19
AIPPG Experienced Senior Member Posted: Mon Jan 17, 2011 1:40 pm Post subject:

The antiviral effects of IFNs are exerted through


Joined: 26 Mar 2003 several pathways;-
Posts: 930

36004 Credits (1) Increased expression of Class I and Class II MHC


glycoproteins, thereby facilitating the recognition of
viral antigens by the immune system.

(2) Immunoregulatory effects - activation of cells


with the ability to destroy virus-infected targets;
these include NK cells and macrophages. IFNs
appear to drive a shift from humoral to cellular
immunity.

(3) Direct inhibition of viral replication: several


mechanisms contribute to the third pathway.

production of specific inhibitory proteins eg. the Mx


protein which has specific anti-influenza action. It is
likely that more specific inhibitory proteins will be
identified.

inhibition of viral processes such as penetration,


uncoating and budding from infected cells have
been reported.

in vitro studies with extracts of IFN-treated cells


show that the main target of IFN action is
translation, which is blocked by 2 mechanisms, both
requiring the presence of minute amounts of
dsRNA;-

(i). activation of a dsRNA dependent protein kinase -


this phosphorylates and inactivates the translation
initiation factor eIF-2. The phosphorylation freezes
the initiation complex formed by eIF-2, GTP and
met-tRNAf with the small ribosomal subunit and
mRNA. Because eIF-2 cannot be recycled, protein
synthesis is inhibited or stopped.

(ii). activation of 2-5 oligo A synthetases ®


synthesis of 2-5A ® activates endonuclease L (itself
induced by IFN) ® degradation of mRNA ®
inhibition of protein synthesis.

The combination of cell growth inhibition and


enhancement of CMI accounts for the antitumour
effect of IFN.
SO PROTEIN TRANSLATION MAY BE ANS FOR
INTERFERON THERAPY

1) conc of flouride in breast milk is?


a) 6-16 mg/ml
b) 1-6 mg/ml
c) 15- 25m/ml
d) none
......
2) to prevent distortion in inlay wax-
a) warm instrument is used for
carving
b) die shd be cooled slowly
c) soften at lower temprature
plz put refrance if possible and visit all
days ohere for more question
also put regular inquires here....

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kuldeep123
Guest Posted: Wed Oct 06, 2010 10:01 pm Post subject:

Easiest tooth movement in ortho treatment is-


a) intrusion
b)tipping
c) extrusion
d) bodily movement

which is the following treatment is not done in mixed


dentition period
a) anterior crosbite
b) posterior cross bite
c) class 2 molar relation
d) distobucal rotation of tooth

flouride application most effective in prevention of-


a) pit and fissure caries
b) smooth surface caries
c) occlusal caries
d) deeply cavitated caries

# of porcelain is prevented by-


a) using good occlusal contact
b) canine guided occlusal
c) preventing balance sided contact
d) using high glazed porcelain

distance between upper and lower sulcus in edentulous


patient is
a)38mm
b) 40mm
c)42mm
d) 45mm

plz anyone reply and put ur view about answers.....

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kuldeep123
Guest Posted: Wed Oct 06, 2010 10:08 pm Post subject:

effective use of dental floss is expected to


a) significant reduce caries activity
b) improve gingival health
c) restrict plaque devlopment
d) effectively alter oral environment

Lactobacilli considered bacteria capable of inducing carious


lesion bcoz it is
a) both acidogenic and aciduric
b) present in high conc in human mouth
c) only acidforming bacteria
d) most prevalent microorganism is plaque

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pratik652gandhi
AIPPG Senior Member Posted: Thu Oct 07, 2010 11:07 am Post subject:

Joined: 07 Jan 2008


Posts: 23
Location: palanpur(gujarat) hey kuldeep,plz tell the answers of the same...
1380 Credits

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pratik652gandhi
AIPPG Senior Member Posted: Thu Oct 07, 2010 11:11 am Post subject:

Joined: 07 Jan 2008


Posts: 23
Location: palanpur(gujarat) hey human milk contain abt 6-12mg/ml of flouride
1380 Credits so the answer is a...

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pratik652gandhi
AIPPG Senior Member Posted: Thu Oct 07, 2010 11:24 am Post subject:

Joined: 07 Jan 2008


Posts: 23 Easiest tooth movement in ortho treatment is-
Location: palanpur(gujarat) a) intrusion
1380 Credits
b)tipping
c) extrusion
d) bodily movement

answer is tipping

which is the following treatment is not done in mixed


dentition period
a) anterior crosbite
b) posterior cross bite
c) class 2 molar relation

answer is class 2 molar relation

flouride application most effective in prevention of-


a) pit and fissure caries
b) smooth surface caries
c) occlusal caries
d) deeply cavitated caries

answer is pit and fissure caries

# of porcelain is prevented by-


a) using good occlusal contact
b) canine guided occlusal
c) preventing balance sided contact
d) using high glazed porcelain

answer is using high glazed porcelain

effective use of dental floss is expected to


a) significant reduce caries activity
b) improve gingival health
c) restrict plaque devlopment
d) effectively alter oral environment

answer is iprove gingival health

Lactobacilli considered bacteria capable of inducing carious


lesion bcoz it is
a) both acidogenic and aciduric
b) present in high conc in human mouth
c) only acidforming bacteria
d) most prevalent microorganism is plaque

answer is both acidogenis and acidouric

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Guest
Posted: Fri Oct 08, 2010 11:39 pm Post subject:
Easiest tooth movement in ortho treatment is-
a) intrusion
b)tipping
c) extrusion ################
d) bodily movement

--which is the following treatment is not done in mixed


dentition period
a) anterior crosbite
b) posterior cross bite
c) class 2 molar relation ###################

flouride application most effective in prevention of-


a) pit and fissure caries ###############
b) smooth surface caries
c) occlusal caries
d) deeply cavitated caries

# of porcelain is prevented by-


a) using good occlusal contact
b) canine guided occlusal
c) preventing balance sided contact ############
d) using high glazed porcelain

effective use of dental floss is expected to


a) significant reduce caries activity
b) improve gingival health ################
c) restrict plaque devlopment
d) effectively alter oral environment

actobacilli considered bacteria capable of inducing carious


lesion bcoz it is
a) both acidogenic and aciduric ############
b) present in high conc in human mouth
c) only acidforming bacteria
d) most prevalent microorganism is plaque

distance between upper and lower sulcus in edentulous


patient is
a)38mm
b) 40mm
c)42mm ##################### in studervent
d) 45mm

conc of flouride in breast milk is?


a) 6-16 mg/ml######################
b) 1-6 mg/ml
c) 15- 25m/ml
d) none

to prevent distortion in inlay wax-


a) warm instrument is used for carving
####################
b) die shd be cooled slowly
c) soften at lower temprature

Back to top

kuldeep123
Guest Posted: Sat Oct 09, 2010 6:53 pm Post subject:

effective use of dental floss is expected to


a) significant reduce caries activity
b) improve gingival health
c) restrict plaque devlopment
d) effectively alter oral environment
ans is b)improve gingival health (ref- Nikiforuk, 2nd vol,
260,261)

Lactobacilli considered bacteria capable of inducing carious


lesion bcoz it is
a) both acidogenic and aciduric
b) present in high conc in human mouth
c) only acidforming bacteria
d) most prevalent microorganism is plaque
ans is a).......

which is the following treatment is not done in mixed


dentition period
a) anterior crosbite
b) posterior cross bite
c) class 2 molar relation
d) distobucal rotation of tooth
ans is d) disto buccal rotation of tooth (aipg2008 D.
explore)
flouride application most effective in prevention of-
a) pit and fissure caries
b) smooth surface caries
c) occlusal caries
d) deeply cavitated caries
ans is b) smooth surface caries............

# of porcelain is prevented by-


a) using good occlusal contact
b) canine guided occlusal
c) preventing balance sided contact
d) using high glazed porcelain
ans is b) canine guided occlusal.....i dont conform but it is
from in aipg2008......Ref. rosenstiel contemprory fixed
prosthesis 4th ed, 795

easiest tooth movement is .....extrusion

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kuldeep123
Guest Posted: Sat Oct 09, 2010 7:18 pm Post subject:

Cranium to face length in new born more by


a)4-5 times
b)6-7 times
c)8-9 times
d) 10-11 times.........(pbnrhm 2010dental M.O.) no
answer yet clear

Cervical and thorasic vertebral curvatures are known as


a) loidosis and kiphosis respectively
b) kiphosos and loidosis respectively
c) loidosis in both
d) no,both are pathological term...(pbnrhm)

Keratinocytes reach on healing surface with in-


a)1 day
b)1week
c)1month
d)2month

i dont have answer these questions....plz give answers


with ref. only
put yours too
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kuldeep123
Guest Posted: Sun Oct 10, 2010 8:57 am Post subject:

maximum available conc of lignocaine for topical use is


a) 2% b) 5 % c) 10 % d)15%

wiggly appearance of G.P. cones on X rays result from?


a) obstruction of master cones in apical 1/3rd of canal
b) too small cone preparation
c) apical extrusion of the filling material
d) excess cement in the apical region...........given ans is
(b)

maximum water solubility demonstrate by


a) hybrid composite b)light cure composite
c) microfilled composite d) macrofilled

fatty acids help in synthesis of all except


a) ketone bodies b) glucose
c) colesterol d) Fat

which is the most common development cyst


a) nasopalatine duct
b) median mandibular
c) Globulomaxillary cyst
d) median palatine duct cyst

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kuldeep123
Guest Posted: Mon Oct 11, 2010 9:54 am Post subject:

air sinus which can be used as skeltal maturity indicator-


a) frontal sinus b) maxillary sinus
c) sphenoidal sinus d) ethmoidal sinus

how much variation in eruption of the permanent molars


is considered normal
a) 0-6month
b) 6-12month
c) 12-18month
d) 18-24month

most common extra oral cause of halitosis


a) indigestion b) chronic sinusitis c) alcohal intake d)
diabetes

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kuldeep123
Guest Posted: Fri Oct 22, 2010 11:26 pm Post subject:

Excess of plasma level of lignocaine can cause


cardiovascular collapse due to
a) myocardial depression
b) vagal stimulation
c) syncope
d)CNS exitability
ans given in Dental pulse is a)myocardial depression but
can anyone explain?

In newborn the ratio of skull to facial bone is


a) 5-7 times
b) 7-9 times
c) 9-11 times
d)11-13 times
question from pbnrhm2010 dental M.O. and answer is
b)7-9times ....reff. from BDC 4th ed.........

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Guest
Posted: Sun Nov 07, 2010 9:10 pm Post subject:

hey pl tel d answer of alll

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kuldeep123
Guest Posted: Sat Nov 20, 2010 10:39 pm Post subject:

Q. Insulin influenced receptors are


a) GLUT-1 b)GLUT-2 c)GLUT-3 d)GLUT-4
ans- GLUT-4 that finds on adipose tissue,heart muscle

Q Matrix matalloproteinase are active during which stage


of amelogenesis?
a) formative/secretory
b) Organising
c) protective
d) desmolitic.............................(a)

Q. Not a true indicator of pulpal status of tooth/


a) swelling b) percussion c)EPT d) all of the above
ans is ......c

Q hairy Leukoplakia is a
a)bacterial disease b) viral disease
c) fungal disease d) heridiatory disease
ans is..........b) viral..(ref. from question bank aiims)

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kuldeep123
Guest Posted: Sat Nov 20, 2010 10:46 pm Post subject:

Q. # of intercapsular articular disc of TMJ causes?


a) dislocation
b) ankylosis
c) chronic pain
d) arthritis
ans is .............c

Q. drug of choice of diphtheria carrier ?


a) penicillin b) erythromycin c) tetracycline
ans is...........b

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Guest
Posted: Thu Dec 02, 2010 3:22 pm Post subject:

air sinus which can be used as skeltal maturity indicator-


a) frontal sinus@@@@@@@@@@
b) maxillary sinus
c) sphenoidal sinus d) ethmoidal sinus

how much variation in eruption of the permanent molars


is considered normal
a) 0-6month
b) 6-12month
c) 12-18month
d) 18-24month @@@@@@@@@@@@@@@
most common extra oral cause of halitosis
a) indigestion b) chronic sinusitis@@@@@@@@
c) alcohal intake d) diabetes

Back to top

Guest
Posted: Thu Dec 02, 2010 3:25 pm Post subject:

maximum available conc of lignocaine for topical use is


a) 2% b) 5 %@@
c) 10 % d)15%
==========
wiggly appearance of G.P. cones on X rays result from?
a) obstruction of master cones in apical 1/3rd of canal
b) too small cone preparation @@@
c) apical extrusion of the filling material
d) excess cement in the apical region...........given ans is
(b)

maximum water solubility demonstrate by


a) hybrid composite b)light cure composite
c) microfilled composite@@@
d) macrofilled

fatty acids help in synthesis of all except


a) ketone bodies b) glucose @@@

c) colesterol d) Fat

which is the most common development cyst


a) nasopalatine duct @@@@@@@@@@@@
b) median mandibular
c) Globulomaxillary cyst
d) median palatine duct cyst

Back to top

kuldeep123
Guest Posted: Sat Dec 04, 2010 7:58 pm Post subject:

fatty acids help in synthesis of all except


a) ketone bodies
b) glucose
c) colesterol.........ans(pgi questiom bank)
d) Fat

how much variation in eruption of the permanent molars


is considered normal
a) 0-6month .......ans
b) 6-12month
c) 12-18month
d) 18-24month