MOCK SNAP 2010 – SET 1

Time: 120 Minutes

Instructions:

1. For every wrong answer you will score 25% negative marks.
2. All questions carry equal marks.
3. The sequence of the sections may differ but the weightage remains the same as mentioned
in the SNAP bulletin.

Sections Total Marks No. Of Questions

General English 40 40
Quantitative, Data Interpretation, Data Sufficiency 40 40
General Awareness: General Knowledge, Current Affairs 40 40
Analytical & Logical Reasoning 60 30
Total Marks 180 150

Please note, this is just a mock paper and in no way predicts the exact nature of the actual paper
on 19th December, 2010. Use this as a means to prepare and test yourself.

!! ALL THE BEST!!

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 GENERAL ENGLISH SECTION

Q1-4 Choose the correct word to fill in the blanks.

1. Wait a minute , I ___________ this box for you

a. Am carrying
b. Carry
c. Will carry
d. Shall be carrying

2. I _________ to visit you yesterday but you __________ not at home.

a. Was wanting, were
b. Wanted, was
c. Wanted, were
d. Was wanting, was

3. When the children are ____ bed, let’s listen ___ music ___ the radio
a. In,to,in
b. On,for,in
c. In,to,on
d. Into,to,on

4. There is a bridge _______ the river

a. Beyond
b. By
c. Across
d. Cross

5. From the option below, choose the word with the incorrect spelling:
a. Perseverance
b. Occasionally
c. Rhythm
d. Referred

6. Your guess is as good as _____________

a. Me
b. My
c. Mine
d. Mine’s

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 7. “Pipit sate upright in her chair, Some distance from where I was sitting;” -- T. S. Eliot,
"A Cooking Egg" Is an example of :
a. Alliteration
b. Assonance
c. Archaism
d. Apostrophe

8. I'm feeling hard done-by because I've been looking after the kids all week while
Steve's been out every night. The underlined phrase means :
a. Tired
b. Cheated
c. Relaxed
d. Happy

For questions 9-16, read the passage below and answer with reference to it.

Bernard Bailyn has recently reinterpreted the early history of the United States by
applying new social research findings on the experiences of European migrants. In his
reinterpretation, migration becomes the organizing principle for rewriting the history of
preindustrial North America. His approach rests on four separate propositions.
The first of these asserts that residents of early modern England moved regularly about
their countryside; migrating to the New World was simply a “natural spill over.” Although at
first the colonies held little positive attraction for the English—they would rather have
stayed home—by the eighteenth century people increasingly migrated to America because
they regarded it as the land of opportunity. Secondly, Bailyn holds that, contrary to the
notion that used to flourish in America history textbooks, there was never a typical New
World community. For example, the economic and demographic character of early New
England towns varied considerably.
Bailyn’s third proposition suggests two general patterns prevailing among the many
thousands of migrants: one group came as indentured servants, another came to acquire
land. Surprisingly, Bailyn suggests that those who recruited indentured servants were the
driving forces of transatlantic migration. These colonial entrepreneurs helped determine the
social character of people who came to preindustrial North America. At first, thousands of
unskilled labourers were recruited; by the 1730’s, however, American employers demanded
skilled artisans.

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 Finally, Bailyn argues that the colonies were a half-civilized hinterland of the European
culture system. He is undoubtedly correct to insist that the colonies were part of an Anglo-
American empire. But to divide the empire into English core and colonial periphery, as
Bailyn does, devalues the achievements of colonial culture. It is true, as Bailyn claims, that
high culture in the colonies never matched that in England. But what of seventeenth-
century New England, where the settlers created effective laws, built a distinguished
university, and published books? Bailyn might respond that New England was exceptional.
However, the ideas and institutions developed by New England Puritans had powerful
effects on North American culture.
Although Bailyn goes on to apply his approach to some thousands of indentured servants
who migrated just prior to the revolution, he fails to link their experience with the political
development of the United States. Evidence presented in his work suggests how we might
make such a connection. These indentured servants were treated as slaves for the period
during which they had sold their time to American employers. It is not surprising that as
soon as they served their time they passed up good wages in the cities and headed west to
ensure their personal independence by acquiring land. Thus, it is in the west that a
peculiarly American political culture began, among colonists who were suspicious of
authority and intensely anti-aristocratic.

9. Which of the following statements about migrants to colonial North America is supported by
information in the passage?
a. A larger percentage of migrants to colonial North America came as indentured
servants than as free agents interested in acquiring land
b. Migrants who came to the colonies as indentured servants were more successful
at making a livelihood than were farmers and artisans
c. Migrants to colonial North America were more successful at acquiring their own
land during the eighteenth century than during the seven-tenth century
d. By the 1730’s, migrants already skilled in a trade were in more demand by
American employers than were unskilled labourers
e. A significant percentage of migrants who came to the colonies to acquire land
were forced to work as field hands for prosperous American farmers
10. The author of the passage states that Bailyn failed to
a. give sufficient emphasis to the cultural and political interdependence of the
colonies and England
b. describe carefully how migrants of different ethnic backgrounds preserved their
culture in the united States

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 c. take advantage of social research on the experiences of colonists who migrated
to colonial North America specifically to acquire land
d. relate the experience of the migrants to the political values that eventually
shaped the character of the United States
e. investigate the lives of Europeans before they came to colonial North America to
determine more adequately their motivations for migrating
11. Which of the following best summarizes the author’s evaluation of Bailyn’s fourth
proposition?
a. It is totally implausible
b. It is partially correct
c. It is highly admirable
d. It is controversial though persuasive
e. It is intriguing though unsubstantiated
12. According to the passage, Bailyn and the author agree on which of the following
statements about the culture of colonial New England?
a. High culture in New England never equalled the high culture of England
b. The cultural achievements of colonial New England have generally been
unrecognized by historians
c. The colonists imitated the high culture of England, and did not develop a culture
that was uniquely their own
d. The southern colonies were greatly influenced by the high culture of New
England
e. New England communities were able to create laws and build a university, but
unable to create anything innovative in the arts
13. According to the passage, which of the following is true of English migrants to the colonies
during the eighteenth century?
a. Most of them were farmers rather than trades people or artisans
b. Most of them came because they were unable to find work in England
c. They differed from other English people in that they were willing to travel
d. They expected that the colonies would offer them increased opportunity
e. They were generally not as educated as the people who remained in England
14. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
a. comparing several current interpretations of early American history
b. suggesting that new social research on migration should lead to revisions in
current interpretations of early American history

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 c. providing the theoretical framework that is used by most historians in
understanding early American history
d. refuting an argument about early American history that has been proposed by
social historians
e. discussing a reinterpretation of early American history that is based on new
social research on migration
15. It can be inferred from the passage that American history textbooks used to assert that
a. many migrants to colonial North America were not successful financially
b. more migrants came to America out of religious or political conviction that came
in the hope of acquiring land
c. New England communities were much alike in terms of their economics and
demographics
d. many migrants to colonial North America failed to maintain ties with their
European relations
e. the level of literacy in New England communities was very high
16. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following
statements about Bailyn’s work?
a. Bailyn underestimates the effects of Puritan thought on North American
culture
b. Bailyn overemphasizes the economic dependence of the colonies on Great
Britain
c. Bailyn’s description of the colonies as part of an Anglo-American empire is
misleading and incorrect
d. Bailyn failed to test his propositions on a specific group of migrants to
colonial North America
e. Bailyn overemphasizes the experiences of migrants to the New England
colonies, and neglects the southern and the western parts of the New World

Choose the right word

17. At times, we are all _____________ to be mistaken.
a. Likely
b. Apt
c. Considered
d. Able
18. She did not come, _______________ she?
a. Didn’t

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 b. Did
c. Had
d. Hadn’t

19. Four statements with blanks have been given. These statements are followed by four
alternatives. Choose the one that fits into the set of statements the maximum number of
times.

A. Professional studies have become the ____ of the rich.

B. Every citizen has the _____ to speak, travel and live as he pleases.

C. He has a definite ______ over all his rivals.

D. Sheron no longer has the _____ of the company’s bungalow and car.

a) advantage b) privilege c) right d) concession

20. Answer the question on basis of a short statement preceding it.

But because the idea of private property has been permitted to override with its selfishness
the common good of humanity, it does not follow that there are no limits within which that
idea can function for the general convenience and advantage.

Which of the following is most likely to weaken the argument?

a) All the people of the society should progress at an equitable rate and there should be no
disparities and private property does bring about a tremendous disparity

b) One should not strive for the common good of humanity at all, instead one should be
concerned with maximizing one’s own wealth

c) One should learn from the experiences of former communists nations and should not
repeat their mistakes at all

d) Even prosperous capitalist countries like the USA have their share of social problems

21. In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each
sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the
best alternative from among the four.

If you are on a three-month software design project and you’ve made in two weeks a
programme that solves part of the problem, show it to your boss without delay.

a) and, you’ve put together a programme that solves part of the problem in two weeks

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b) and, in two weeks, you’ve put together a programme that solves part of the problem

c) and, you’ve put together a programme that has solved part of the problem in two weeks

d) and, in two weeks you put together a programme that solved only part of the problem

Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to
construct a coherent paragraph.

22.

A. Almost a century ago, when the father of the modern automobile industry, Henry Ford,
sold the first Model A car, he decided that only the best would do for his customers

B. Today, it is committed to delivering the finest quality with over six million vehicles a year
in over 200 countries across the world

C. And for over ninety years, this philosophy has endured in the Ford Motor Company

D. A vehicle is ready for the customer only if it passes the Ford ‘Zero Defect Programme’

a) ABCD b) ACDB c) ACBD d) CDAB

23.

A. Perhaps the best known is the Bay Area Writing Project, founded by James Gray in 1974

B. The decline in writing skills can be stopped

C. Today’s back-to-basics movement has already forced some schools to place renewed
emphasis on the three Rs

D. Although the inability of some teachers to teach writing successfully remains a big
stumbling block, a number of programs have been developed to attack this problem

a) BCDA b) ADCB c) ACBD d) CABD

24. From the given alternatives, select the one in which the pairs of words have a
relationship similar to the one between the bold words.

FISSION : FUSION

a) implosion : explosion b) separation : togetherness

c) intrusion : extrusion d) enemy : friend

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In each of the following questions, statements 1 to 6 are respectively the first and last
sentences of a paragraph. Statements A ,B ,C and D come in between them. Rearrange A,
B, C and D in such a manner that they make a coherent paragraph together with
statements 1 and 6. Select the correct order from the given choices and mark its number
as your answer.

25.
1. Women’s health status is basic to their advancement in all the fields of endeavour.
A. The fundamental issues concerning women and their health are nutrition, sanitation,
overwork, etc.
B. They face high risk of malnutrition, retardation in growth and development, etc. at almost
every stage of their lives.
C. The main reason of this decline in the sex ratio is high mortality rates among females in
all age groups.
D. This has resulted in the fact that in India, there are fewer women than men.
6. In girls, malnutrition, under nutrition and limited access to health care are seen as the
main causes of mortality.
(a) DCAB (b) BADC (c) ACDB (d) ABDC

26.
1. The study of social change, in the view of the nebulous nature of its History is a difficult
task
A. This job becomes more difficult in the case of a society like India’s.
B. In this form, change ceases to be viewed as a normal social process.
C. This is because India has a fathomless historical depth and a plurality of traditions, but it
is also engulfed in a movement of nationalistic aspirations under which concepts of change
and modernization have ideological meanings.
D. Instead, change becomes desirable in it, and must be sought for.
6. This phenomenon of change is treated by some social scientists as equivalent to
‘development’ and ‘progress’.
(a) ACBD (b) CABD (c) CBDA (d) BADC

27.
1. Economists differ over the causes that lead to inflationary rise in prices.
A. Cost-Push inflation is caused by wage -push and profit -push to prices.
B. There are the quantity theorists or monetarists who attribute inflation to demand pull or
excess demand.
C. Other economists ascribe inflation to cost-push factors.
D. According to them, inflation is the result of excessive increase in money supply in the face
of an elastic supply of goods and services.
6. The basic cause of wage-push inflation is the rise in money wages more rapidly than the
productivity of labour.
(a) ABCD (b) BDAC (c) CBAD (d) BDCA

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A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced , form a
coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four
choices given to construct a coherent paragraph.

28.

A. Instead, one could always help in averting these situations.

B. Often in a religion, people fight with each other on issues that are thoroughly irrational
and illogical.
C. If one used scientific reasoning and logic, examined facts and the basis.
D. Much of the rising and bloodshed in communal violence can be avoided if the people
involved don’t blindly believe the rumours or get swayed by those who preached hatred.
(a) CBAD (b) BDCA (c) DBCA (d) CADB

29.

A. With the pressure on resources of development becoming increasingly severe, the issue
of tapping the agricultural surplus cannot be put off.
B. But the methods of utilizing these resources more efficiently have not been debated
sufficiently
C. The existence of a substantial surplus in this sector is not in doubt.
D. There has been a tendency to concentrate on the possibilities of using an agricultural
income tax to tap these resources.
(a)ABCD (b) ACBD (c) CBDA (d) DCBA

Select the correct word/words from the choices that complete the given sentence as your
answer. Please note that more than once choice may fit in to make syntactically correct
sentence but select the choice that is logical in the context of the sentence

30. An experienced politician, who knew better than to launch a campaign in troubled
political waters, she intended to wait for a more____ occasion before she announced her
plans.

(a) propitious (b) provocative

(c) questionable (d) perfect

31. The columnist was almost__________ when he mentioned his friends but he was
unpleasant and even ____ when he discussed people who irritated him.

(a) recalcitrant. . . sarcastic (b) reverential……..acrimonious

(c) sensitive ….... remorseful (d) insipid ………… militant

Each pair of CAPITALIZED words given below is followed by four pairs of words Choose the
pair which exhibits the relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalized pair

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32. I get very irritated sometimes because they're always up with the lark and I like to lie in.

(a) up very easily (b) up very early (c) up very often (d) up very noisily

33. He accused her of talking through her hat and refused to accept a word of what she said.

(a) talking sense (b) talking straight (c) talking nonsense (d) talking tough

34. Working all day long in financial services can be a very tired occupation.

(a) all day (b) in (c) services (d) tired

35. It is quite acceptable to pay a lot for high quality work especially if the service is very
well.

(a) quite (b) to pay (c) if (d) well

36. There is so many more opportunities today in media related industries than could be
found 30 years ago.

(a) is (b) in (c) related (d) than

Choose the right word to fill in the blanks

37. The man was very worried about his wife being so late and he was ....... nervously up and
down the sitting-room.
(a) striding (b) pacing (c) walking (d) sauntering

38. As it had no choice trying to escape from the vulture, the doe ....... quickly over the
streamlet.
(a) strode (b) paced (c) strayed (d) meandered

39 . Now, after he had won the coveted prize, Jason ....... into the room smiling.
(a)strode (b) blundered (c) stalked (d) paced

A word in capital letters is given, followed by four words. Choose the word which is most
nearly OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word in capital letters.

40.

OSTENTATION

(a) Languied (b) Emulsion (c) Modesty (d) Civility

<< END OF SECTION >>

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 GENERAL AWARENESS SECTION
41. Who is the first Governor of Indian Origin of South Carolina?

a. Vicky Shaheen

b. Bobby Jindal

c. Nikki Haley

d. Sonia Sotomayor

42. All of the countries rank below India in the Human Development Index, except

a. Myanmar

b. Pakistan

c. Bhutan

d. Kenya

43. ‘Cairns Group’ is a group of countries that accounts for more than 30% of global
exports of

a. Wildlife

b. Agriculture

c. Textiles

d. Gems and Jewellery

44. NABARD stands for

a. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

b. National Board for Agriculture and Rural Development

c. National Board for Agriculture and Allied Rural Development

d. None of the above

45. By the estimates of the WTO, China is the largest exporter in the world. Who is ranked
a close second?

a. USA

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b. Germany

c. Japan

d. India

46. The difference in value over a period of time of a country’s imports and exports of
merchandise is known as

a. Balance of Trade

b. Balance of Payment

c. Export import balance

d. Trade gap

47. “Lucozade” is the sports drink recently launched by which FMCG giant?

a. GlaxoSmithKline

b. Coca Cola

c. Pepsi

d. Heinz

48. The well–known confectionary brand “Nutrine” had been acquired by

a. Cadbury

b. Modern Foods

c. Godrej Beverages and Foods

d. Perfetti Van Melle

49. What is the sport in which you could get into a headlock?

a. Wrestling

b. Rugby

c. Baseball

d. Boxing

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50. Which company is the official ice-cream supplier to Wimbledon?

a. Wall's

b. Ben & Jerrys

c. London Dairy

d. Amul

51. Top Gear is the retail outlet of which Indian company?

a. HP

b. BP

c. IOC

d. NACL

52. Which auto major's head quarter is known as four cylinder tower?

a. Toyota

b. Mahindra

c. BMW

d. Ford

53. The minimum public shareholding as decided by the Finance ministry for public listed
companies is

a.10%

b.15%

c.5%

d.25%

54. India’s FOREX reserves at the end of October 22, 2010 stood at,

a. 200 B $

b. 150 B $

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c. 1200 B $

d. 295 B $

55. The country leading the Global Information Technology Report released by WEF is

a. USA

b. Japan

c. India

d. Sweden

56. Which is not a member of the European Union?

a. Switzerland

b. Portugal

c. Spain

d. Germany

57. Which is the number one Fortune 500 Company?

a. Exxon Mobile

b. Wal Mart

c. BP

d. IBM

58. Who is the chairman of TRAI?

a. Nripendra Misra

b. J.S. Sarma

c. A. Raja

d. A.K. Sawhney

59. Who is the lowest paid CEO in the world?

a. Nandan Nilekani

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b. Steve Jobs

c. Bill Gates

d. Jeffery Immelt

60. Fortis sold its stake in Parkway by accepting the 3.95$/share deal from?

a. Khazanah

b. Carlyle

c. Blackstone

d. Nomura

61. “The power of knowledge” is the punch line of which leading daily?

a. The Statesman

b. Times of India

c. The Economic Times

d. Indian Express

62. Harley Davidson will be setting up its first manufacturing facility outside the US and in
India. Where will it be established?

a. Haryana

b. Maharashtra

c. Tamil Nadu

d. West Bengal

63. Who is the chairman of the Cr Dabur Group?

a. Sushil Suri

b. P.J. Nayak

c. Nusli Wadia

d. V.C. Burman

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64. The chairman of Coal India Ltd. Is

a. Partha Bhattacharyya

b. A.K. Purwar

c. V.P. Shetty

d. Anil K. Sinha

65. First Indian cricketer to have batted in all 11 positions.

a. Kapil Dev

b. Lala Amarnath

c.Vinod Mankad

d. Vijay Hazare

66. First Indian to win Miss World was

a. Aishwarya Rai

b. Zeenat Aman

c. Reita Faria

d. Diana Hayden

67. In 1954, The Imperial Bank was renamed as

a. UTI

b. SBI

c. IDBI

d. Bank of Baroda

68. Whose signature would you find on the 1 Re note?

a. Governor, RBI

b. Finance Secretary

c. Dy. Governor, RBI

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d. Finance Minister of India

69. If your baggage at the airport is tagged PNQ, to which city are you flying?

a. Panama City, Panama

b. Pune, India

c. Portland, US

d. Palenque, Mexico

70. How many Indian Citizens of Indian Origin have won a Nobel Prize ?

a. 9

b. 11

c. 10

d. 3

71. Tiger Woods was toppled from the No. 1 spot after 281 weeks. Who has replaced
him?

a. Phil Mickelson

b. Ernie Els

c. Lee Westwood

d. Steve Stricker

72. What is India’s current contribution to the world GDP?

a.18%

b.12%

c.10%

d.6%

73. If the President of India has to leave before the completion of his term, to whom does
he submit his resignation?

a. The Prime Minister

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b. The Chief Justice Of India

c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha

d. Vice President Of India

74. Automobile company SAAB has been recently bought by

a. Geely Holding Group

b. General Motors

c. Ford

d. BMW

75. Indigo currently has _____________market share in the Indian Aviation market.

a. 25%

b. 35%

c. 12%

d. 18%

76. Which Publishing group owns star news?

a. Penguin

b. Anand Bazar Publication

c. India Today

d. The Hindu group

77. After ice creams and Pizzas, Amul had launched its ‘Avsar’

a. snacks

b. laddus

c. dry fruits

d. kheer

78. Anand Satyanand is the Governor General of

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a. Fiji

b. Mauritius

c. Seychelles

d. New Zealand

79. What are you made of?' – is the tagline of which Swiss watch?

a. Tissot

b. TAG Heuer

c. Omega

d. Zenith

80. The word 'Sikh' means

a. Single

b. Devotee

c. Disciple

d. Fighter

<< END OF SECTION >>

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 ANALYTICAL AND LOGICAL REASONING SECTION
Directions for Qs. 81 to 82: Refer to the following data and answer the following questions.

A B C

E F G

Each of the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 is represented by a different letter in the figure.

A + B + C, C + D + E, E + F + G and G + H + I is equal to 13.

81. Which of the digits does E represent?

(a) 9 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 1

82. Which of the digits does D represent?

(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 3 (d) 7 or 8

Directions for Qs. 83 to 85: Each of these questions contains six statements followed by 4
sets of combinations of 3. Choose the set in which the statements are most logically related.

83. A. All pianos are large B. All flutes are well turned

C. All pianos are loud D. All flutes are loud

E. All pianos are flutes F. All pianos are well tuned

(a) FBE (b) CDF (c) BEF (d) BCF

84. A. All acetones are corrosive substances. B. All corrosive substances are acidic.

C. All acetones are alkaline. D. Some acetones are alkaline and corrosive.

E. All acetones are acidic. F. No oxide corrodes.

(a) ACB (b) BDE (c) BCD (d) BAE

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85. A. Some oils are refined B. Some oils are not brown.

C. Some refined oils are acceptable. D. Only brown oils are acceptable.

E. Some oils are not acceptable. F. Only refined oils are brown.

(a) BDE (b) CFE (c) AEB (d) ABE

Directions for Qs. 86 to 90: Refer to the following information and answer the following
questions.

In a group of 200 people, number of people having at least primary education : number of
people having at least middle school education : number of people having at least high
school education :: 7 : 3 : . 90 of these play football and 60 play hockey. 5 people in category
III (defined as people having high school education) and one fourth each in category I and II
(defined as people having primary school education only and people having middle school
education but not high school education, respectively) do not play any game. In each of the
above category the number of people playing only hockey equal the number of people
playing only football. 2 people each in categories I and II and 1 person in category III play
both the games. 2 people playing both games are uneducated (category IV). 5 people in
category III play only hockey.

Assume middle school education can be had only after completing primary school and high
school education can be had only after completing middle school. Also all people in the
group fall under the four categories described above.

86. How many people have middle school education?

(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 48 (d) 64

87. How many high school educated people do not play football?

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12

88. How many people having middle school, but not high school, education play only
football?

(a) 2 (b) 7 (c) 11 (d) 15

89. How many people who completed primary school could not finish middle school?

(a) 48 (b) 64 (c) 80 (d) 96

90. How many uneducated people play neither hockey nor football?

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(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 28

Direction for Qs. 91 to 95: Refer to the following information and the answer the following
questions.

People Power Corporation presently employs three Managers (A, B and C) and five
recruitment agents (D, E, F, G and H). The company is planning to open a new office in San
Jose to manage placement of software professionals in the US. It is planning to relocate two
of the three managers and three of the five recruitment agents to the office at San Jose. As
it is an organization which is highly people oriented the management wants to ensure that
the individuals who do not function well together should not be made as a part of the team
going to the US. The following information was available to the HR department of People
Power Corporation.

-> Managers A and C are at each other’s throat and therefore cannot be sent as a team to
the new office.

-> C and E are excellent performers in their own right. However, they do not function
together as a team. They should be separated.

-> D and G have had a major misunderstanding during the last office picnic. After the picnic
these two have not been in speaking terms and should therefore not be sent as a team.

-> D and F are competing for a promotion which is due in another 3 months. They should
not be a team.

91. If D goes to the new office which of the following is (are) true?

I. C cannot go

II. A cannot go

III. H must also go

(a) I only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

92. If A is to be moved as one of the Managers, which of the following cannot be a possible
working unit?

(a) ABDEH (b) ABFGH (c) ABEGH (d) ABDGH

93. If C and F are moved to the new office, how many combinations are possible?

(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 5

94. Given the group dynamics of the Managers and the recruitment agents, which of the
following is sure to find a berth in the San Jose office?

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(a) B (b) H (c) G (d) E

95. If C is sent to the San Jose office which member of the staff cannot go with C?

(a) B (b) D (c) G (d) F

DIRECTIONS for questions 96 to 100: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that
follow.

ABC is a firm which deals with furniture. Manufacturing of table requires three levels of
assembly. The finished table is at first level. The leg assembly and table top are second level.
The pieces that go into the leg assembly are at the third level which consists of shortrails,
longrails and legs. One unit of table requires one unit of table top and one unit of leg
assembly. One unit of leg assembly requires 2 units of shortrails, 2 units of longrails and 4
units. Orders are placed just in time to minimize storage. The lead time for activities are
(Lead time is waiting time required to complete one activity)

Parts Weeks

Assemble table 1

Finished leg assembly 1

Purchase legs 1

Purchase shortrails 1

Purchase longrails 1

Purchase table top 2

The availability of part at present time

Parts Units

Table 50

Leg assembly 100

Legs 150

Shortrails 50

Longrails 0

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 Table top 50

Demand of finished Tables

Details Week4 Week5 Week6

Demands (units) 200 150 100

96. For meeting the demand of 200 units of finished table of week 4, when would the first
order of table tops be placed?

(a) Week 1 (b) Week 3 (c) Week 4 (d) Week 5

97. What is the net requirement of legs for meeting the demand of week 4 finished table?

(a) 200 (b) 50 (c) 400 (d) 800

98. When and how many units of shortrail would be placed for meeting the demand of
finished table of week 6?

(a) 100 units in week 1 (b) 200 units in week 3 (c) 300 units in week 6 (d) Data insufficient

99. If in-hand units of legs are increased from 150 to 300, then what would be the net
requirements of legs for meeting the demand of finished table of week 5?

(a) 1800, 900 (b) 2200, 1100 (c) 1600, 800 (d) 800, 400

100. The supplier of longrails has shifted his manufacturing unit to its new location. Because
of this the delivery time of long rail has been increased by 1 week. When would the order of
longrails be placed to meet the week 5 demand of finished table?

(a) Week 1 (b) Week 4 (c) Week 5 (d) None of above

Directions questions for 101 to 105: These questions are based on the following data.

50,000 Units of brand X are being sold in the market at a price of Rs.1o/- unit. A competitive
brand, Y, enter the market. The course of actions available for the company marketing
brand X is

(a) Cut the price of X by 50 %, which would result in an increase in the number of units sold
of X by 30 % with a probability of 0.5 and 20% with a probability of 0.5

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(b) Advertise, which would cost Rs.2,00,00, but would result in an increase in the number of
units sold of X by 50% with a probability of 0.1, by 20% with a probability of 0.5 and 10%
with a probability of 0.4.

(c) Remain silent, in which case, the probability of losing the market by 40 % is 0.5 and the
probability of retaining its market is 0.5

101. Which is the best course of action to follow?

(a) cut down the prices (b) Advertising (c) remain silent (d) Cannot be determined

102. In which of the cases, does the market of X (number of units sold) increase the most?

(a) cut down the prices (b) Advertising (c) Remaining silent (d) None of these

103. What is the net loss if course 1 is followed ?

(Net Loss = Money realised originally – Money realized now)

(a) Rs.87,500 (b) Rs.1,00,000 (c) Rs.1,87,500 (d) Rs.2,00,000

104. What is the revenue realised (net of advertising expenses) if Course 2 is followed?

(a) Rs.4,00,000 (b) Rs.3,95,000 (c) Rs.3,12,500 (d) Rs.3,00,000

105. How much more/less in the net revenue realized by following course 2 than that
realised by following course 2 than that realised by following course 3?

(a) Rs.5,000 less (b) Rs.5,000 more (c) Rs.50,000 (d) Rs.50,000 more

Directions for Qs.106– 107: Refer to the following information and answer following
questions.

Speaker: The great majority of people in this city have access to the best medical care
available anywhere in the world.

Opposition: There are thousands of poor in this city who cannot afford to pay to see a
doctor.

106. Which of the following is true of the opposition’s comment?

(a) It constitutes a hasty generalization on few examples

(b) It cities statistical evidence which tends to corroborate the views of the speaker

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(c) It tries to compare two unrelated data and draws a contrarian conclusion

(d) It is not necessarily inconsistent with the speaker’s remarks.

107. A possible objection that opposition could have fielded to the speaker’s comments
would be to Point to the existence of

(a) A city which has more doctors than this city

(b) A city in which people are given better medical care than this city

(c) A city which has a higher per capita hospital bed than this city

(d) The amount spent on medical insurance for people of this city

DIRECTIONS for questions 108 to 110: These questions are based on the following
information regarding the price changes that a certain pharmaceutical company is
considering for its products.

Product Existing Price (Rs.) Revised Price (Rs.)

Antacid 1.50 2.50

Anti-Hypertensive 10.00 12.50

Expectorant 18.00/bottle 24.00/bottle

Anti-Asthmatic 20.00 26.00

Anti-Pyretic 5.00 8.00

The prices for all the products except Expectorant are the prices of 10 tablets.

108. If a family has a hypertensive and an asthmatic patient, where the person with
hypertension has to consume three tablets of Anti-Hypertensive per day and the asthmatic
patient has to take two tablets of Anti Asthmatic every alternate day, what will be the
increase in expenditure on two patients for 30 days?

(a) Rs.40.50 (b) Rs.42.75 (c) Rs.46.50 (d) Rs.38.50

109. What is the percentage increase in the expenditure of a person for one year if he
consumes 32

Tablets of Antacid in one week?

(a) 7½% (b) 6 ½ % (c) 62/3% (d) None of these

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110. A person is prescribed to take two spoons of Expectorant thrice every day for a period
of, 20 weeks. Assuming that each bottle of Expectorant contains 90 spoons. Find the
expenditure according to the existing prices.

(a) Rs.200 (b) Rs.180 (c) Rs.168 (d) Rs.240

<< END OF SECTION >>

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 QUANTITATIVE, DATA INTERPRETATION AND SUFFICIENCY
SECTION
DIRECTIONS for questions 111 to 115: Refer to the data below and answer the questions
that follow.

JET AIRWAYS, 1ST august, 2002 to 31st October, 2002

(To & From) Special Festival Fares

From Current Festival From Mumbai Current Festival

Mumbai to fares (R.) fares (Rs) to fares (Rs) fares (Rs)

Delhi 6095 3920 Udaipur 4405 2213

Kolkata 6855 3320 Bhopal 4125 2371

Bangalore 4485 2839 Mangalore 4280 2446

Chennai 4905 2744 Nagpur 4200 2555

Hyderabad 4140 2443 Jodhpur 4935 2684

Ahmedabad 3255 2017 Jaipur 5530 2917

Pune 2215 1295 Calicut 5060 3018

Indore 3360 1965 Cochin 6215 3248

Aurangabad 2745 2098 Thir'puram 6700 3312

To and From fares are same and the rates are effective from 1st August,2002 to 31st
October,2002.

111. Ramesh, an executive of a company at Mumbai visits Delhi, Nagpur and Indore every
month and Mr Ganesh visits Kolkata, Mangalore and Hyderabad every month from Mumbai.
Find the difference in the percentage benefit to the company between the rips of Ramesh
and Ganesh in the festival month.

(a) 11 (b) 25 (c) 35 (d) none of these

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112. With the discounts offered for Kolkata and Delhi tickets, how many different kinds of
tickets can be bought respectively utilizing the festival benefit for other visits also?

(a) 11 & 5 (b) 12 & 6 (c) 17 & 4 (d) 16 & 3

113. The largest absolute discount is what percentage of the lowest absolute discount?

(a) 3.87% (b) 216% (c) 464% (d) 546%

114. What is the average discount in the air fare approximately?

(a) Less than 10% (b) More than 50% (c) Less than 50% (d) None of these

115. Four executives of a company visited one of the four cities Delhi, Bhopal, Ahmedabad
and Indore. All of them left on 29th July, 2002 and came after a week’s visit, by the return
flight of the same air lines. What would have been percentage saving in tickets expenditure
if they had postponed their visit by one week, and returned after a week.

(a) 12% (b) 24% (c) 38% (d) 42%

116. Sameer spends 40% of his salary on food articles, and 1/3rd of the remaining on
transport. If he saves Rs 450 per month, which is half of the balance after spending on food
items and transport, what is his monthly salary?

(a) Rs.2250
(b) Rs.2500
(c) Rs.3000
(d) Rs.3250

117. The value of 1.1!+2.2!+3.3!+--------+n.n! is

(a) (n+1)!
(b) (n+1)!+1
(c) (n+1)!-1
(d) none of these

118. The number B7A61B1A is divisible by which of the following? (A & B are any number
between 0 to 9)

(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) None of these

119. There were ‘d’ dogs and ‘c’ cats in a house. One fine morning x of them escaped to
freedom. If the keeper, knowing only that x = 9, was able to figure out without looking into

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the house that at least one dog has escaped, then which of the following does not represent
a possible (d, c) pair ?

(a) 12, 10
(b) 17, 7
(c) 22, 8
(d) None of these

120. A lamp lighter has to light 100 gas lamps. To go from one lamp post to the next he
takes 60 seconds. Each lamp burns 12 cubic feet of gas per hour. If he lights the first lamp at
7 p.m. then the gas burnt when he lights the last lamp is

(a) 1110 ft3

(b) 1000 ft3
(c) 999 ft3
(d) 990 ft3

Directions for Qs. 121 - 125: Refer to the following information and answer the following
questions.

Each of the questions is followed by two statements. You have to decide whether the
information provided in the statements is sufficient for answering the question.

Mark (a), If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot
be answered by using the other statement alone.

Mark (b), If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

Mark (c), If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but
cannot be answered using either statement alone.

Mark (d), If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

121. Is one of X or Y a fraction?

A. X^2Y^3 = 8 B. X is rational

122. A is a prime number. Is B a prime number?

A. B = 9A + 7 B. AB is even

123. Is 3x + 10y even?

A. x is even B. y is odd

124. Which amongst the three x, y and z (all real) is the greatest?

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 A. x : y : z : : 6 : 8 : 11 B. xyz – y2 is positive

125. What is the speed at which L is driving?

A. The ratio of the speeds of L and M is 3 : 5

B. L and M start from city X to Y simultaneously and as soon M reaches city Y he

returns and meets L on the way exactly 2 hours from the time they both left city X.

DIRECTIONS for questions 126 to 130: Each of the following questions is by two statements.

Mark [a], if the question can be answered by using any of the statements alone but not by
using the other statement alone.

Mark [b], if the question can be answered only by using either of the statements alone.

Mark [c], if the question can be answered only by using both the statements together.

Mark [d], if the question cannot be answered.

126. a, b, c, d are positive integer. Which is the second smallest of these?

I. a/3 < b/4, b/2 < c/3

II. a/3 < d3

127. LCM of two numbers A & B is & and HCF is 12. What is the number B?

I. A is not a factor B.

II. B is greater than A.

128. What is the age of Ram?

I. Sum of the ages of Ram and Shyam was 60 five years back.

II. Sum of the ages of Ram and Shyam would be 100 fifteen years from now.

129. What is the ratio of volume of sphere to of the cone?

I. Radius of the cone is twice that of the sphere.

II. Height of the cone is equal to the radius of the sphere.

130. Who is/are the tallest among A, B, C, D and E?

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I. D is the tallest among C, D and E.

II. B, who is not shorter than D, is not the shorter of A and B.

DIRECTIONS for questions 131 to 135: Refer to data below and answer the questions that
follow.

In the two Tables below some statistics about consumption of electricity in India are given.

Table 1 gives the electricity consumed per (1) 1000 population, (2) 1000 sq. kms of area and
(3) per 1000 consumers, for the period 1950 to 1950. note that all the population in India
does not consume electricity- only a fraction are actual consumers. The data is given in
terms of GWH (Giga watt Hour) and 1 GWH = 109 WH. Table 2 gives the number of
consumers as well its break up into various categories for the same period.

TABLE 1

Electricity Consumption in GWH

Year to 1950 1970 1980 1990 1993 1994

Per 1000 0.016 0.09 0.253 0.253 0.299 0.32

Population

Per 1000 1.7 15.4 25.1 64.4 80.8 88

Sq. kms
area

Per 1000 3.5 3.3 2.5 2.7 3.2 3.4

Consumers

TABLE 2

Electricity of Consumers in Thousand

Year to 1950 1970 1980 1990 1993 1994

Domestic 1157 10165 22338 50389 60193 63406

Commercial 259 3206 4582 8002 9209 9558

Industrial 63 553 1150 2077 2337 2423

Agriculture 19 1571 4233 8631 9971 10372

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Others 3 70 268 534 602 637

Total 1501 14665 32571 69633 82312 86399

131. Total electricity consumed by all the consumers in India in 1980 was

(a) 0.82×105 KWH (b) 0.82 ×107 KWH (c) 0.82×109 KWH (d) None of above

132. India’s total land area in 1994 was

(a) 3.3×106 sq. kms (b) 3.3×107 sq. kms (c) 3.3× 108 sq. kms (d) 3.3×109 sq. kms

133. Let f1 and f2 be the fraction of the total population who were electricity consumers in
1970 and 1980, respectively. What is the value of the ratio f1 to f2

(a) 0.51 (b) 1.97 (c) 1.32 (d) Data insufficient

134. Consider the percentage rate of growth for the period 1980 to 1990 in the numbers of
the four types consumers Domestic, Commercial, Industrial and Agricultural. How many of
these percentage rates of growth were more than the percentage rate of growth of the total
number of consumers for the same period?

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

135. What was the percentage increase in the number of Domestic consumers from 1970 to
1994?

(a) 223% (b) 374% (c) 524% (d) 612%

136. IBM and SGI quote for a tender. On the tender opening day, IBM realizes that their
quotes are in the ratio 7 : 4 and hence decreases its price during negations to make it Rs.1
lakh lower than SGI’s quoted price. SGI then realizes that the final quotes of the two were in
the ratio 3 : 4. What was the price at which IBM won the bid?

(a) Rs.7 lakhs

(b) Rs.4 lakhs
(c) Rs.3 lakhs
(d) Rs.1 lakh

137. The number of prime factors in the expression

(6)10 × (7)17 × (11)27 are:

(a) 54
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

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138. Nupur has 73 litres of wine in a drum. She replaces 3.65 litres of it with water and
keeps doing so till the time the concentration of wine is less than 85%. The minimum
number of operations that Nupur has to perform is

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) None of these

139. A man buys spirit at Rs.60 per litre, adds water to it and then sells it at Rs.75 per litre.
What is the ratio of spirit to water if his profit in the deal is 37.5%?

(a) 9:1
(b) 10:1
(c) 11:1
(d) None of these

140. Find the remainder when 51138 is divided by 7.

(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 2 138
(d) 3

141. The highest power of 2 in 10! + 11! + 12! + 13! + ...+ 1000! Is

(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11

142. Simplify: 78² + 79² + 80² + 81² + 82²

(a) 31990
(b) 31992
(c) 32005
(d) 32010

143. In an examination, Arjun obtains 10% less than the minimum number required to pass.
Bheem obtains 11 1/9 % less than Arjun ; and Karan 41 3/17 % less than the number of
marks got by Arjun and Bheem together. Find Karan’s result. (Assume the passing
percentage to be 40).

(a) pass
(b) fail
(c) data inadequate

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(d) None

144. If ‘x’ is an odd number, what will be the remainder if x3– x + 1 is divided by
24?

(a) 0
(b) 23
(c) 1
(d) Indeterminate

145. A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked for it for 20 days and then B
left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 20 more days. A alone can finish the work
in:

(a) 48 days
(b) 50 days
(c) 54 days
(d) 60 days

DIRECTIONS for questions from 146 to 150: The table below shows the estimated cost (in
Rs. lakh) of a project of laying a railway line between two places.

1988 1989 1990 1991

1. Surveying 41.5 7.5 2.2 0.5

2. Cement - 95.0 80.0 75.0

3. Steel - 70.0 45.0 60.0

4. Bricks - 15.0 12.0 16.0

5.Other building - 25.0 18.0 21.0

material

6. Labour 2.1 25.0 20.0 18.0

7. 7.5 15.0 15.0 14.0

Administration

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8. 1.0 15.0 4.2 5.0
Contingencies

Total 52.1 267.5 196.4 209.5

146. What ratio does cost of material bear to labour cost approximately?

(a) 4 : 1 (b) 8 : 1 (C) 12 : 1 (d) 16 : 1

147. The total expenditure is required to be kept within Rs. 700 lakh by making a cut equally
in all the years, on expenditure of administration. What will be the percentage cut for 1989?

(a) 22.6 (b) 32.6 (C) 42.6 (d) 52.6

148. If the length of line to be laid each year is in proportion to the provision for material
and labour cost, what fraction of the total length is proposed to be completed in the third
year?

(a) 0.9 (b) 0.7 (C) 0.6 (d) 0.3

149. After preparing the estimate, the provision for contingencies is felt inadequate and is
therefore doubled. By what percentage does the total estimate increase?

(a) 3.47 (b) 2.45 (C) 1.50 (d) 3.62

150. It is found at the end of 1990, that the entire amount estimated for the project has
been spent. But for 1991, the actual amount spent is equal to that which was estimated. By
what per cent approximately has the actual expenditure exceeded the estimate?

(a) 39 (b) 29 (C) 19 (d) 9

<<END OF SECTION>>

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 SOLUTION

1 (c) 41 (c) 81 (b) 121 (c)

2 (c) 42 (c) 82 (d) 122 (a)
3 (c) 43 (b) 83 (c) 123 (c)
4 (c) 44 (c) 84 (d) 124 (d)
5 (d) 45 (b) 85 (a) 125 (d)
6 (c) 46 (a) 86 (c) 126 (c)
7 (c) 47 (a) 87 (c) 127 (c)
8 (b) 48 (c) 88 (c) 128 (d)
9 (d) 49 (a) 89 (b) 129 (c)
10 (d) 50 (a) 90 (d) 130 (d)
11 (b) 51 (c) 91 (c) 131 (d)
12 (a) 52 (c) 92 (d) 132 (a)
13 (d) 53 (d) 93 (b) 133 (b)
14 (e) 54 (d) 94 (a) 134 (b)
15 (c) 55 (d) 95 (b) 135 (c)
16 (a) 56 (a) 96 (a) 136 (c)
17 (a) 57 (b) 97 (b) 137 (d)
18 (b) 58 (b) 98 (b) 138 (b)
19 (b) 59 (b) 99 (b) 139 (b)
20 (a) 60 (a) 100 (a) 140 (b)
21 (b) 61 (c) 101 (c) 141 (c)
22 (c) 62 (a) 102 (a) 142 (d)
23 (a) 63 (d) 103 (c) 143 (a)
24 (b) 64 (a) 104 (b) 144 (c)
25 (d) 65 (c) 105 (a) 145 (d)
26 (a) 66 (c) 106 (d) 146 (b)
27 (d) 67 (b) 107 (b) 147 (c)
28 (b) 68 (b) 108 (a) 148 (d)
29 (b) 69 (b) 109 (d) 149 (a)
30 (a) 70 (d) 110 (b) 150 (b)
31 (b) 71 (c) 111 (d)
32 (b) 72 (d) 112 (c)
33 (c) 73 (b) 113 (d)
34 (d) 74 (a) 114 (c)
35 (d) 75 (d) 115 (b)
36 (a) 76 (b) 116 (a)
37 (b) 77 (b) 117 (c)
38 (a) 78 (d) 118 (c)
39 (a) 79 (b) 119 (d)
40 (c) 80 (d) 120 (d)

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 FOR MORE QUESTIONS PLEASE VISIT,

www.sibmpune.edu.in/iaspire/

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