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20. How much salt must be added to one litre of water to make a solution of normal saline?
(a) 2 grams (b) 5 grams (c) 6 grams (d) 9 grams
28. The disease in which the patients blood does not clot easily is:
(a) Sickle cell anaemia (b) Haemophilia (c) Rabies (d) Diabetes
36. ......... is the immunity get by the body after the first attack of disease.
(a) Natural immunity (b) Passive immunity (c) Artificial immunity (d) Acquired immunity
37. The cells that are responsible for the production of antibodies are .......
(a) Red blood cells (b) Platelets (c) Plasma (d) White blood cells
38. A healthy person can donate blood ...... or ..... times a year.
(a) Six or seven (b) Five or six (c) Three or four (d) Two or three
39. Radio active cobalt and radium are used for the treatment of --diseases.
(a) Cholera (b) Haemophilia (c) Cancer (d) Sickle cell anaemia
43. The findus is at the level of umbilicus during .......... week pregnancy
(a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 28
49. The most common from of malnutrition are the following except
(a) Beri-beri (b) Protein energy malnutrition (c) Marasmus (d) Kwashiorkor
50. The first course of oral pills should be stared on the ..... day of menstrual cycle.
(a) 2nd (b) 7th (c) 5th (d) 10th
53. The following organs are situated in the abdominal cavity except:
(a) Stomach (b) Oesophagus (c) liver (d) Spleen
54. The system of body which helps for the removal of waste matter from body:
(a) Digestive system (b) Endocrine system (c) Respiratory system (d) Excretory system
60. Head control of the infant occurs at the age of ...... month
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6
62. When the umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part and the membranes are intact
it is known as:
(a) Cord prolapse (b) Cord presentation (c) Cord pulsation (d) Cord delivery
67. Minute, this walled blood vessels between the ends of the arteries and beginning of veins
is called:
(a) Arteries (b) Veins (c) Capillaries (d) Alveoli
68. A waste gas produced by the body and exhaled through the lungs is:
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Nitrogen peroxide (d) Oxygen
70. A tube of muscular tissue carrying ingested food from the mouth to stomach:
(a) Oesophagus (b) Duodenum (c) Trachea (d) Pharynx
71. A red pigment in the blood cells which combines with oxygen and carbon dioxide for
carrying them:
(a) Red blood cells (b) Haemoglobin (c) Platelet (d) Plasma
84. Several persons in a town got the attack of leukemia. Which of the following can be
possible reason for that?
(a) Exposed to radiation (b) Drinking polluted water (c) Smoking (d) Breathing in impure air
86. The product formed when amino acid molecules combine together is called
(a) Nucleic acid (b) Starch (c) Carbohydrate (d) Proteins
87. Women having normal limbs may sometimes give birth to babies with deformed limbs.
This must be due to:
(a) Spontaneous generation (b) Mutation (c) Inheritance of acquired character (d) Natural
selection
88. Hormones are transported to all parts of the body through the
(a) Nerves (b) Blood (c) Lymph (d) Muscles
92. The hormone that is injected to pregnant women at the time of delivery is
(a) Vasopressin (b) Oxytocin (c) Androgen (d) Oestrogen
93. The outer layer of the eye ball is
(a) Sclera (b) Choroids (c) Retina (d) Conjunctiva
96. Short sightedness can be corrected by using spectacles with ..... lens.
(a) Concave (b) Convex (c) Cylindrical (d) Opaque
98. Labour takes place after ...... days of last menstrual period
(a) 300 (b) 280 (c) 365 (d) 240
Answers:
1 C 11 D 21 A 31 C 41 D 51 A 61 A 71 B 81 A 91 C
2 B 12 A 22 C 32 D 42 B 52 C 62 B 72 B 82 A 92 B
3 D 13 B 23 A 33 B 43 C 53 B 63 C 73 C 83 B 93 D
4 A 14 C 24 C 34 A 44 C 54 D 64 B 74 B 84 A 94 C
5 A 15 D 25 C 35 B 45 B 55 B 65 A 75 D 85 A 95 C
6 C 16 C 26 B 36 D 46 B 56 B 66 A 76 B 86 D 96 A
7 B 17 B 27 D 37 D 47 C 57 A 67 C 77 A 87 B 97 C
8 B 18 C 28 B 38 C 48 D 58 A 68 A 78 A 88 B 98 B
9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 A 59 C 69 D 79 D 89 C 99 C
10 B 20 D 30 B 40 B 50 C 60 C 70 A 80 D 90 C 100 D
NURSING - OPTIONAL
MODEL QUESTIONS : CLASS – XII
Time – 3 hrs Marks - 150
Section A – Answer all questions
Section B – Answer any 15 questions
Section C – Questions 71 is compulsory and answer any five from the remaining
questions
Section D – Answer any four questions in 200 words
Section - A
8. Fracture in which one side of a bone is broken, and the other side is bent is called
a) Compound fracture b) Simple fracture
c) Greenstick fracture d) Depressed fracture
11. Water borne, food borne diseases are measles and common cold.
12. Sign and symptom of typhoid fever is high fever more than a weak.
14. Sources of carbohydrates are Rice, wheat, cereals and root vegetables.
21. Till 1950 _____________ was considered to be a major health problem in India.
22. _____________ by 1990 was part of a global effort, coordinated by the world
health organization.
27. _____________ is a passage of menstrual flow and is the exit of the foetus
during delivery.
28. The ovaries produce ovum and the female hormones _____________
29. _____________ produces a thin lubricating fluid which enters the urethra
through ducts.
PART - B
V. Answer the fifteen questions in two lines each 15 x 2 = 30
51. What are the reasons for majority of death and illness?
PART - C
( or )
Write the wars of administration of the drugs?
PART - D
VII. Answer any four questions in 200 words each 4 x 10 = 40
If acceleration, due to gravity at earth, is ‘g’ and mass of earth is 80 times that of
moon and radius of earth is 4 times that of moon, the value of ‘g’ at surface of moon
will be:
a) g
b) g/20
c) g/5
d) 320g
Answer
Let M and R be the mass and radius of earth, M’ and R’ be the mass and radius of
moon. Then
Let g and g’ be the acceleration of gravity on the surface of earth and moon
respectively. Then
Answer
These are procedural infections i.e. infections that are caused by procedures. The
main example is bacterial infection after IV insertion.
a) Chary
b) Insipid
c) Stanch
d) Fallacious
e) Inimical
f) Ebullient
Answer
a) Cautious
b) Tasteless food
e) Harmful
f) Enthusiasm
The smallest number which when diminished by 3 is divisible by 21, 28,36 and 45 is:
a) 423
b) 1257
c) 1263
d) 1260
Answer
1263
A cone, hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal base and have same height. The
ratio of their volumes is
a) 1:2:3
b) 2:1:3
c) 2:3:1
d) 3:2:1
Answer
Note: These practice questions are designed just to help you understanding the
general style of the nursing aptitude tests. However, to minimize your chance of
rejection for your dreamed nursing career, you need to practice a couple of such
tests online or offline. This practice shall give you familiarity with general structure of
the tests and help you to qualify with ease.
Question 1
The nurse prepares for a Denver Screening of a 3 year-old child in the clinic. The
mother asks the nurse to explain the purpose of the test. What is the nurse’s best
response about the purpose of the Denver?
A) "It measures a child’s intelligence."
B) "It assesses a child's development."
C) "It evaluates psychological responses."
D) " It helps to determine problems."
Question 2
In planning care for a child diagnosed with minimal change nephrotic syndrome,
the nurse should understand the relationship between edema formation and
A) increased retention of albumin in the vascular system
B) decreased colloidal osmotic pressure in the capillaries
C) fluid shift from interstitial spaces into the vascular space
D) reduced tubular reabsorption of sodium and water
Question 3
Based on principles of teaching and learning, what is the best initial approach to
pre-op teaching for a client scheduled for coronary artery bypass?
A) Touring the coronary intensive unit
B) Mailing a video tape to the home
C) Assessing the client's learning style
D) Administering a written pre-test
Review Information: The correct answer is C: Assessing the client''s learning style
As with any anticipatory teaching, assess the client''s level of knowledge and
learning style first.
Question 4
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of hepatitis B. In reviewing the initial
laboratory results, the nurse would expect to find elevation in which of the
following values?
A) Blood urea nitrogen
B) Acid phosphatase
C) Bilirubin
D) Sedimentation rate
Review Information: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin
In the laboratory data provided, the only elevated level expected is bilirubin.
Additional liver function tests will confirm the diagnosis.
Question 5
The nurse is caring for a toddler with atopic dermatitis. The nurse should instruct
the parents to
A) Dress the child warmly to avoid chilling
B) Keep the child away from other children for the duration of the rash
C) Clean the affected areas with tepid water and detergent
D) Wrap the child's hand in mittens or socks to prevent scratching
Review Information: The correct answer is D: Wrap the child''s hand in mittens
or socks to prevent scratching
A toddler with atopic dermatitis needs to have fingernails cut short and covered
so the child will not be able to scratch the skin lesions, thereby causing new
lesions and possibly a secondary infection.
Question 6
The nurse is planning to give a 3 year-old child oral digoxin. Which of the
following is the best approach by the nurse?
A) "Do you want to take this pretty red medicine?"
B) "You will feel better if you take your medicine."
C) "This is your medicine, and you must take it all right now."
D) "Would you like to take your medicine from a spoon or a cup?"
Review Information: The correct answer is D: "Would you like to take your
medicine from a spoon or a cup?"
At 3 years of age, a child often feels a loss of control when hospitalized. Giving a
choice about how to take the medicine will allow the child to express an opinion
and have some control.
Question 7
Which of the actions suggested to the registered nurse (RN) by the practical nurse
(PN) during a planning conference for a 10 month-old infant admitted 2 hours
ago with bacterial meningitis would be acceptable to add to the plan of care?
A) measure head circumference
B) place in airborne isolation
C) provide passive range of motion
D) provide an over-the-crib protective top
Question 8
During the evaluation phase for a client, the nurse should focus on
A) All finding of physical and psychosocial stressors of the client and in the family
B) The client's status, progress toward goal achievement, and ongoing re-
evaluation
C) Setting short and long-term goals to insure continuity of care from hospital to
home
D) Select interventions that are measurable and achievable within selected
timeframes
Review Information: The correct answer is B: The client''s status, progress toward
goal achievement, and ongoing re-evaluation
The evaluation step of the nursing process focuses on the client''s status, progress
toward goal achievement and ongoing re-evaluation of the plan of care. The other
possible answers focus on other steps of the nursing process.
Question 9
The nurse would expect the cystic fibrosis client to receive supplemental
pancreatic enzymes along with a diet
A) high in carbohydrates and proteins
B) low in carbohydrates and proteins
C) high in carbohydrates, low in proteins
D) low in carbohydrates, high in proteins
Question 10
The nurse enters a 2 year-old child's hospital room in order to administer an oral
medication. When the child is asked if he is ready to take his medicine, he
immediately says, "No!". What would be the most appropriate next action?
A) Leave the room and return five minutes later and give the medicine
B) Explain to the child that the medicine must be taken now
C) Give the medication to the father and ask him to give it
D) Mix the medication with ice cream or applesauce
Review Information: The correct answer is A: Leave the room and return five
minutes later and give the medicine
Since the nurse gave the child a choice about taking the medication, the nurse
must comply with the child''s response in order to build or maintain trust. Since
toddlers do not have an accurate sense of time, leaving the room and coming back
later is another episode to the toddler.
Question 11
A 4 year-old child is recovering from chicken pox (varicella). The parents would
like to have the child return to day care as soon as possible. In order to ensure
that the illness is no longer communicable, what should the nurse assess for in
this child?
A) All lesions crusted
B) Elevated temperature
C) Rhinorrhea and coryza
D) Presence of vesicles
Review Information: The correct answer is A: All lesions crusted
The rash begins as a macule, with fever, and progresses to a vesicle that breaks
open and then crusts over. When all lesions are crusted, the child is no longer in a
communicable stage.
Question 12
The nurse is providing instructions to a new mother on the proper techniques for
breast feeding her infant. Which statement by the mother indicates the need for
additional instruction?
A) "I should position my baby completely facing me with my baby's mouth in
front of my nipple."
B) "The baby should latch onto the nipple and areola areas."
C) "There may be times that I will need to manually express milk."
D) " I can switch to a bottle if I need to take a break from breast feeding."
Review Information: The correct answer is D: " I can switch to a bottle if I need to
take a break from breast feeding."
Babies adapt more quickly to the breast when they are not confused about what is
put into their mouths and its purpose. Artificial nipples do not lengthen and
compress the way the human nipples (areola) do. The use of an artificial nipple
weakens the baby''s suck as the baby decreases the sucking pressure to slow fluid
flow. Babies should not be given a bottle during the learning stage of breast
feeding.
Question 13
A victim of domestic violence tells the batterer she needs a little time away. How
would the nurse expect that the batterer might respond?
A) With acceptance and views the victim’s comment as an indication that their
marriage is in trouble
B) With fear of rejection causing increased rage toward the victim
C) With a new commitment to seek counseling to assist with their marital
problems
D) With relief, and welcomes the separation as a means to have some personal
time
Question 14
The nurse, assisting in applying a cast to a client with a broken arm, knows that
the
A) cast material should be dipped several times into the warm water
B) cast should be covered until it dries
C) wet cast should be handled with the palms of hands
D) casted extremity should be placed on a cloth-covered surface
Review Information: The correct answer is C: wet cast should be handled with the
palms of hands
Handle cast with palms of the hands and lift at 2 points of the extremity. This will
prevent stress at the injury site and pressure areas on the cast.
Question 15
A recovering alcoholic asked the nurse, "Will it be ok for me to just drink at
special family gatherings?" Which initial response by the nurse would be best?
A) "A recovering person has to be very careful not to lose control, therefore,
confine your drinking only to family gatherings."
B) "At your next AA meeting discuss the possibility of limited drinking with your
sponsor."
C) "A recovering person needs to get in touch with their feelings. Do you want a
drink?"
D) "A recovering person cannot return to drinking without starting the addiction
process over."
Review Information: The correct answer is D: "A recovering person cannot return
to drinking without starting the addiction process over."
Recovery requires total abstinence from all drugs.
Question 16
The nurse is assessing a child for clinical manifestations of iron deficiency
anemia. Which factor would the nurse recognize as the cause of the findings?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Tissue hypoxia
C) Cerebral edema
D) Reduced oxygen saturation
Question 17
A nurse is assigned to a client who is newly admitted for treatment of a frontal
lobe brain tumor. Which history offered by the family members would be
recognized by the nurse as associated with the diagnosis, and communicated to
the provider?
A) "My partner's breathing rate is usually below 12."
B) "I find the mood swings and the change from a calm person to being angry all
the time hard to deal with."
C) "It seems our sex life is nonexistent over the past 6 months."
D) "In the morning and evening I hear complaints that reading is next to
impossible from blurred print."
Review Information: The correct answer is B: "I find the mood swings and the
change from a calm person to being angry all the time hard to deal with."
The frontal lobe of the brain controls affect, judgment and emotions. Dysfunction
in this area results in findings such as emotional lability, changes in personality,
inattentiveness, flat affect and inappropriate behavior.
Question 18
Immediately following an acute battering incident in a violent relationship, the
batterer may respond to the partner’s injuries by
A) seeking medical help for the victim's injuries
B) minimizing the episode and underestimating the victim’s injuries
C) contacting a close friend and asking for help
D) being very remorseful and assisting the victim with medical care
Question 19
The client who is receiving enteral nutrition through a gastrostomy tube has had
4 diarrhea stools in the past 24 hours. The nurse should
A) review the medications the client is receiving
B) increase the formula infusion rate
C) increase the amount of water used to flush the tube
D) attach a rectal bag to protect the skin
Review Information: The correct answer is A: review the medications the client is
receiving
Antibiotics and medications containing sorbitol may induce diarrhea.
.
Question 20
A postpartum mother is unwilling to allow the father to participate in the
newborn's care, although he is interested in doing so. She states, "I am afraid the
baby will be confused about who the mother is. Baby raising is for mothers, not
fathers." The nurse's initial intervention should be what focus?
A) Discuss with the mother sharing parenting responsibilities
B) Set time aside to get the mother to express her feelings and concerns
C) Arrange for the parents to attend infant care classes
D) Talk with the father and help him accept the wife's decision
Review Information: The correct answer is B: Set time aside to get the mother to
express her feelings and concerns
Non-judgmental support for expressed feelings may lead to resolution of
competitive feelings in a new family. Cultural influences may also be clarified.
Question 21
The nurse is discussing nutritional requirements with the parents of an 18
month-old child. Which of these statements about milk consumption is correct?
A) May drink as much milk as desired
B) Can have milk mixed with other foods
C) Will benefit from fat-free cow's milk
D) Should be limited to 3-4 cups of milk daily
Question 22
Which of these parents’ comments about a newborn would most likely reveal an
initial finding of a suspected pyloric stenosis?
A) "I noticed a little lump a little above the belly button."
B) "The baby seems hungry all the time."
C) "Mild vomiting turned into vomiting that shot across the room."
D) "We notice irritation and spitting up immediately after feedings."
Question 23
The nurse is talking with a client. The client abruptly says to the nurse, "The
moon is full. Astronauts walk on the moon. Walking is a good health habit." The
client’s remarks most likely indicate
A) neologisms
B) flight of ideas
C) loose associations
D) word salad
Review Information: The correct answer is C: loose associations
Though the client’s statements are not typical of logical communication, remarks
2 and 3 contain elements of the preceding sentence (moon, walk). Option A refers
to making up words that have personal meaning to the client, and option B –
flight of ideas defines nearly continuous flow of speech, jumping from one
unconnected topic to another. Option D – word salad refers to stringing together
real words into nonsense “sentences” that have no meaning for the listener.
Question 24
The nurse is performing an assessment on a child with severe airway obstruction.
Which finding would the nurse anticipate?
A) Retractions in the intercostal tissues of the thorax
B) Chest pain aggravated by respiratory movement
C) Cyanosis and mottling of the skin
D) Rapid, shallow respirations
Question 25
A Hispanic client in the postpartum period refuses the hospital food because it is
"cold." The best initial action by the nurse is to
A) have the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reheat the food if the client
wishes
B) ask the client what foods are acceptable or are unacceptable
C) encourage her to eat for healing and strength
D) schedule the dietitian to meet with the client as soon as possible
Review Information: The correct answer is B: ask the client what foods are
acceptable or are unacceptable
Many Hispanic women subscribe to the balance of hot and cold foods in the post
partum period. What defines "cold" can best be explained by the client or family.
Question 26
The nurse should recognize that physical dependence is accompanied by what
findings when alcohol consumption is first reduced or ended?
A) Seizures
B) Withdrawal
C) Craving
D) Marked tolerance
Question 27
The nurse is preparing a 5 year-old for a scheduled tonsillectomy and
adenoidectomy. The parents are anxious and concerned about the child's reaction
to impending surgery. Which nursing intervention would best prepare the child?
A) Introduce the child to all staff the day before surgery
B) Explain the surgery 1 week prior to the procedure
C) Arrange a tour of the operating and recovery rooms
D) Encourage the child to bring a favorite toy to the hospital
Review Information: The correct answer is B: Explain the surgery 1 week prior to
the procedure
A 5 year-old can understand the surgery, and should be prepared well before the
procedure. Most of these procedures are "same day" surgeries and do not require
an overnight stay.
Question 28
The nurse is monitoring the contractions of a woman in labor. A contraction is
recorded as beginning at 10:00 A.M. and ending at 10:01 A.M. Another begins at
10:15 A.M. What is the frequency of the contractions?
A) 14 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) Nine minutes
Review Information: The correct answer is C: 15 minutes
Frequency is the time from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of
the next contraction.
Question 29
The nurse is assigned to a client who has heart failure . During the morning
rounds the nurse sees the client develop sudden anxiety, diaphoresis and
dyspnea. The nurse auscultates, crackles bilaterally. Which nursing intervention
should be performed first?
A) Take the client's vital signs
B) Place the client in a sitting position with legs dangling
C) Contact the health care provider
D) Administer the PRN antianxiety agent
Review Information: The correct answer is B: Place the client in a sitting position
with legs dangling
Place the client in a sitting position with legs dangling to pool the blood in the
legs. This helps to diminish venous return to the heart and minimize the
pulmonary edema. The result will enhance the client’s ability to breathe. The next
actions would be to contact the heath care provider, then take the vital signs and
then the administration of the antianxiety agent.
Question 30
A client with emphysema visits the clinic. While teaching about proper nutrition,
the nurse should emphasize that the client should
A) eat foods high in sodium to increase sputum liquefaction
B) use oxygen during meals to improve gas exchange
C) perform exercise after respiratory therapy to enhance appetite
D) cleanse the mouth of dried secretions to reduce risk of infection
Question 32
The father of an 8 month-old infant asks the nurse if his child's vocalizations are
normal for his age. Which of the following would the nurse expect at this age?
A) Cooing
B) Imitation of sounds
C) Throaty sounds
D) Laughter
Question 33
A mother asks about expected motor skills for a 3 year-old child. Which of the
following would the nurse emphasize as normal at this age?
A) Jumping rope
B) Tying shoelaces
C) Riding a tricycle
D) Playing hopscotch
Review Information: The correct answer is C: Riding a tricycle
Coordination is gained through large muscle use. A child of 3 has the ability to
ride a tricycle.
Question 34
An 18 month-old has been brought to the emergency room with irritability,
lethargy over 2 days, dry skin, and increased pulse. Based upon the evaluation of
these initial findings, the nurse would assess the child for additional findings of
A) septicemia
B) dehydration
C) hypokalemia
D) hypercalcemia
Question 35
In taking the history of a pregnant woman, which of the following would the
nurse recognize as the primary contraindication for breast feeding?
A) Age 40 years
B) Lactose intolerance
C) Family history of breast cancer
D) Use of cocaine on weekends
Question 36
The school nurse suspects that a third grade child might have attention deficit
hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Prior to referring the child for further evaluation,
the nurse should
A) observe the child's behavior on at least 2 occasions
B) consult with the teacher about how to control impulsivity
C) compile a history of behavior patterns and developmental accomplishments
D) compare the child's behavior with classic signs and symptoms
Question 37
In evaluating the growth of a 12 month-old child, which of these findings would
the nurse expect to be present in the infant?
A) Increased 10% in height
B) 2 deciduous teeth
C) Tripled the birth weight
D) Head > chest circumference
Question 38
A client who has been drinking for five years states that he drinks when he gets
upset about "things" such as being unemployed or feeling like life is not leading
anywhere. The nurse understands that the client is using alcohol as a way to deal
with
A) recreational and social needs
B) feelings of anger
C) life’s stressors
D) issues of guilt and disappointment
Review Information: The correct answer is C: life’s stressors
Alcohol is used by some people to manage anxiety and stress. The overall intent is
to decrease negative feelings and increase positive feelings, but substance abuse
itself eventually increases negative feelings.
Question 39
A client is receiving nitroprusside IV for the treatment of acute heart failure with
pulmonary edema. What diagnostic lab value should the nurse monitor when a
client is receiving this medication?
A) Potassium level
B) Arterial blood gasses
C) Blood urea nitrogen
D) Thiocyanate
Question 40
A nurse is doing preconception counseling with a woman who is planning a
pregnancy. Which of the following statements suggests that the client
understands the connection between alcohol consumption and fetal alcohol
syndrome?
A) "I understand that a glass of wine with dinner is healthy."
B) "Beer is not really hard alcohol, so I guess I can drink some."
C) "If I drink, my baby may be harmed before I know I am pregnant."
D) "Drinking with meals reduces the effects of alcohol."
Review Information: The correct answer is C: "If I drink, my baby may be harmed
before I know I am pregnant."
Alcohol has the greatest teratogenic effect during organogenesis, in the first
weeks of pregnancy. Therefore women considering a pregnancy should not drink.
When a client has left-sided weakness, what part of a sweater is put on first?
(A) Both sleeves
(B) Left sleeve
(C) Client’s choice
(D) Right sleeve
The Heimlich maneuver (abdominal thrust) is used for a client who has:
(A) a blocked airway
(B) a bloody nose
(C) fallen out of bed
(D) impaired eyesight
BEFORE taking the oral temperature of a client who has just finished a cold drink,
the nurse aide should wait:
(A) 10 to 20 minutes
(B) 25 to 35 minutes
(C) 45 to 55 minutes
(D) at least 1 hour
These are just some sample testing questions for the CNA exam. We will be offering full
sample CNA exams shortly that you will be able to download and study at your leisure.
1. Which of the following disorders is characterized by joint inflammation that is usually
accompanied by pain and frequently accompanied by changes in structure?
a. Synovitis
b. Arthritis
c. Bursitis
d. Tendinitis
2. Which term refers to the expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract?
a. A hemorrhage
b. Hematopoiesis
c. Hemoptysis
d. Hemopexis
a. Apraxia
b. Ataxia
c. Fasciculation
d. Myokymia
a. Hypernatremia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Hypoxemia
d. Hypercapnia
5. The latest laboratory values indicate that the patient has thrombocytopenia. The
combining form penia means:
a. Rupture
b. Deficiency
c. Formation
d. Stupor
7. The guidelines for writing an appropriate nursing diagnosis include all of the following
except:
a. Cover the tip of the catheter with a water-soluble lubricant before insertion.
b. Measure the length of the catheter from the tip of the patient’s nose to the tip of
the earlobe before insertion
a. Call the head nurse immediately before the co-worker pours and administers
the medications
b. Pour the medications for the co-worker while she goes for a cup of coffee
c. Report the co-worker to hospital security because she may be addicted to drugs
d. Watch the co-worker closely and report the incident to the head nurse at the end
of the day.
10. A nurse manager notices that one of the staff nurses is always 15 to 20 minutes late.
When the nurse manager discusses the problem with her, the nurse says that she has
been late because her son’s nursery school does not open until 7 am. The nurse
manager should respond by telling her to:
11. A nurse has just moved to a new state, where she has accepted employment in a
hospital-based hemodialysis unit. She needs information about her specific duties in
caring for hemodialysis patients. She will find this information in:
c. The nurse assists a patient out of bed with the bed locked in position; the
patient slips and fractures his right humerus
d. The nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient and the patient vomits.
This information is documented and reported to the physician and the nursing
supervisor
14. Many factors can become barriers to communication. In which of the following
situations would communication least likely be hindered?
b. Ms. M., age 58 and unmarried, is admitted to the hospital for breast surgery
c. Mrs. R, age 26, is admitted to the hospital for a scheduled cesarean section; this
is her first admission
d. Mr. G., age 78, arrives at the hospital by ambulance after suffering a stroke at
home
15. The assessment component of the nursing process requires effective communication
to elicit a complete, relevant history from the patient and to identify patient problems.
What role does communication play in the other areas of the nursing process?
c. During the evaluation phase, effective communication allows the nurse to find
out from the patient if he is responding to treatment or if changes in treatment
are necessary
16. All of the following would be considered objective assessment data for a patient
admitted with diabetes mellitus except:
18. Independent nursing intervention commonly used for immobilized patients include all
of the following except:
d. Weight bearing on a tilt table, total parenteral nutrition, and vitamin therapy
19. Independent nursing interventions commonly used for patients with pressure ulcers
include:
c. Debriding the ulcer to remove necrotic tissue, which can impede healing
20. A female patient has gained 24 lb after being admitted to the hospital. “I’m such a
horse; I just can’t stand myself like this,” she tells the nurse. After assessing the
patient, the nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis: Body image disturbance. To
arrive at this diagnosis, the nurse should include which of the following assessment
findings?
a. The patient’s perception of her body before the hospitalization and weight gain
21. Stressors cause the release of the mineralocorticoid aldosterone, which regulates
sodium absorption and potassium excretion in the renal tubules, resulting in:
d. Increased diuresis
22. In planning the care of a patient who is exposed to multiple stressors such as
separation from loved ones, anxiety about impending surgery, and concern about
potential complications or death, the nurse must:
a. Use both a structured and an unstructured format when interviewing the patient
c. Develop the expected outcomes for each nursing diagnosis written for this
patient
c. Weigh a dry pad and each urine saturated pad and use a conversion calibration
to calculate the urine output
d. Weigh all the urine-saturated pads together and use a conversion calibration to
calculate the urine output
24. A fashion model is admitted via the emergency room with facial and chest burns. Her
hospital stay includes 10 days in the intensive care unit and 5 days on the regular
hospital unit. The patient has not been eating or sleeping and refuses to perform her
activities of daily living (ADLs). She refuses to work with speech and physical
therapists. Which of the following nursing diagnoses might appears on the patient’s
current care plan?
25. White the nurse is providing a patient’s personal hygiene, she observes that his skin is
excessively dry. During this procedure the patient tells her that he is very thirsty. An
appropriate nursing diagnosis would be:
2. Answer – C. Hemoptysis is the expectoration of blood from the respiratory tract. A
hemorrhage is abnormal internal or external bleeding. Hematopoiesis is blood cell
formation. Hemopexis is blood coagulation.
6. Answer – B. Fluid volume deficit related to fever is the appropriate nursing
diagnosis based on this assessment. Potential for impaired skin integrity states a
possible patient response. Potential for fluid volume deficit caused by fever implies a
cause-and-effect relationship, which a nursing diagnosis should never do. Altered
cardiopulmonary tissue perfusion related to fluid excess is an incorrect diagnosis
based on a misinterpretation of the data.
8. Answer – D. A water-soluble lubricant must be applied to the tip of the catheter to
decrease friction and the risk of injury to the patient’s nasal mucosa. (If petrolatum or
mineral oil were applied to the catheter and then aspirated, the patient could develop a
lipoid pneumonia) The distance from the tip of the nose to the tip of the earlobe is the
approximate distance from the point of insertion to the oropharynx. Sterile distilled
water must be used to humidity the oxygen because oxygen administered by itself is a
dry gas that can irritate the mucosa.
9. Answer – A. Patient safety is the major concern in this situation. According to the
International Council of Nurses’ Code for Nurses: “The nurse [should] take
appropriate action to safeguard the individual when his or her care is endangered by a
co-worker or any other person.” In this case, talking with the head nurse immediately
would be the best way to safeguard the patient’s safety. The nurse isn’t necessarily an
addict, she may be abusing a prescription medication.
10. Answer – D. It is the staff nurse’s responsibility to be on time. The nurse manager
should not assume a responsibility that belongs to the nurse.
11. Answer – D. Although Medicare and Medicaid regulations and suggestions made by
such groups as the National Kidney Foundation may serve as guidelines, a hospital’s
procedure manual details how the nurse should perform her specific duties. A state’s
nurse practice act defines the scope of practice within that state, but not the specifics
for each area of practice.
12. Answer – A. The three elements necessary to establishes nursing malpractice are
nursing error (administering penicillin to a patient with a documented allergy to the
drug), injury (cerebral damage), and proximal cause (administering the penicillin
caused the cerebral damage). Applying a hot water bottle or healing pad to a patient
without a physician’s order does not include the three required components. Assisting
a patient out of bed with the bed locked in position is the correct nursing practice;
therefore, the fracture was not the result of malpractice. Administering an incorrect
medication is a nursing error; however, if such action resulted in a serious illness or
chronic problem, the nurse could be sued for malpractice.
14. Answer – C. Many variables affect patient nurse communication, including the
patient’s cultural beliefs, experiences with hospitalization, age, emotional needs, and
problems with speech, hearing, or comprehension. A patient admitted to the hospital
for the first time for a scheduled cesarean section is probably anxious, but she had
time to plan for the procedure, does not bring negative experiences from previous
hospitalizations, and in most cases looks forward to the birth.
16. Answer – C. Objective data are those which can be measured, like glucose levels. A
complaint of polydipsia is subjective information obtained from the patient.
17. Answer – D. Peristalsis is the muscular, rhythmic movement in the bowel wall that
pushes food along the digestive tract distally. Increased bowel motility is indicated by
rapid, high-pitched, hyperactive bowel sounds. Decreased bowel sounds, caused by
decreased bowel motility, can be the initial sign of paralytic ileus (adynamic intestinal
obstruction resulting from the lack of peristalsis), a common occurrence following
abdominal surgery.
18. Answer – D. The use of a tilt table for weight-beating exercises, parenteral nutrition,
and vitamin therapy are not independent nursing interventions because they require a
physician’s order. Unless specifically contraindicated, the independent nursing
interventions listed in A, B, and C may be part of the nursing care plan for an
immobilized patient.
19. Answer – A. Independent nursing interventions for a patient with pressure ulcers
commonly include changing his position several times each day to avoid pressure to
any part of his body, especially the involved area. Drying agents, which are
prescribed by a physician, are contraindicated because wounds need moisture to heal.
Whirlpool therapy and chemical debridement must be prescribed, and surgical
debridement is done by the physician.
20. Answer – D. All of the choices will help the nurse determine the extent of the
problem. For example, asking how the patient felt about her body before
hospitalization will help the nurse determine whether the disturbed body image is a
crisis brought on by the weight gain or a long-standing problem. Asking what the
change means to her will reveal whether she feels she has control over what is
happening or believes the change is permanent. Body image is also related to how we
think we compare to others or whether others find us attractive.
21. Answer – C. Because aldosterone regulates the body’s sodium and potassium levels,
it acts as an adaptive mechanism in maintaining blood volume and conserving water.
Supplemental potassium usually is given to a patient with a low serum potassium
level or one who is receiving a diuretic or other medication – such as digoxin – that
has a mild diuretic effect. A low-sodium diet is usually prescribed for a patient with a
high serum sodium level, as in congestive heart failure (CHF), hypertension, or
prolonged episodes of edema. Diuresis is increased naturally when a healthy patient
increases his intake of fluids, especially those containing caffeine. Patients receiving
diuretics also experience increased diuresis.
23. Answer – C. Calculating the difference in weight between a dry pad and a urine
saturated pad using conversion calibration will provide an accurate measure of urine
output. For example, if the difference between the dry pad and the urine-saturated pad
is 200 g, the urine output would be 200 ml (1g = 1 ml). The other methods will
provide only an estimate of urine output.
25. Answer – C. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with excessively dry skin
is Impaired skin integrity (actual not potential) – in this case, related to dehydration
because the patient complains of thirst. Altered circulation is not usually an etiologic
factor for dry skin.
1. Which intervention is an example of primary prevention?
a. Administering digoxin (Lanoxicaps) to a patient with heart failure
b. Administering a measles, mumps, and rubella immunization to an infant
c. Obtaining a Papanicolaou smear to screen for cervical cancer
d. Using occupational therapy to help a patient cope with arthritis
2. The nurse in charge is assessing a patient’s abdomen. Which examination technique
should the nurse use first?
a. Auscultation
b. Inspection
c. Percussion
d. Palpation
4. The nurse in charge identifies a patient’s responses to actual or potential health
problems during which step of the nursing process?
a. Assessment
b. Nursing diagnosis
c. Planning
d. Evaluation
5. A female patient is receiving furosemide (Lasix), 40 mg P.O. b.i.d. in the plan of
care, the nurse should emphasize teaching the patient about the importance of consuming:
a. Fresh, green vegetables
b. Bananas and oranges
c. Lean red meat
d. Creamed corn
6. The nurse in charge must monitor a patient receiving chloramphenicol for adverse
drug reaction. What is the most toxic reaction to chloramphenicol?
a. Lethal arrhythmias
b. Malignant hypertension
c. Status epilepticus
d. Bone marrow suppression
7. A female patient is diagnosed with deep-vein thrombosis. Which nursing diagnosis
should receive highest priority at this time?
a. Impaired gas exchanges related to increased blood flow
b. Fluid volume excess related to peripheral vascular disease
c. Risk for injury related to edema
d. Altered peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion
8. When positioned properly, the tip of a central venous catheter should lie in the:
a. Superior vena cava
b. Basilica vein
c. Jugular vein
d. Subclavian vein
9. Nurse Margareth is revising a client’s care plan. During which step of the nursing
process does such revision take place?
a. Assessment
b. Planning
c. Implementation
d. Evaluation
10. A 65-year-old female who has diabetes mellitus and has sustained a large laceration
on her left wrist asks the nurse, “How long will it take for my scars to disappear?” which
statement would be the nurse’s best response?
a. “The contraction phase of wound healing can take 2 to 3 years.”
b. “Wound healing is very individual but within 4 months the scar should fade.”
c. “With your history and the type of location of the injury, it’s hard to say.”
d. “If you don’t develop an infection, the wound should heal any time between 1 and 3
years from now.”
12. A female client is readmitted to the facility with a warm, tender, reddened area on
her right calf. Which contributing factor would the nurse recognize as most important?
a. A history of increased aspirin use
b. Recent pelvic surgery
c. An active daily walking program
d. A history of diabetes
13. Which intervention should the nurse in charge try first for a client that exhibits
signs of sleep disturbance?
a. Administer sleeping medication before bedtime
b. Ask the client each morning to describe the quantity of sleep during the previous
night
c. Teach the client relaxation techniques, such as guided imagery, medication, and
progressive muscle relaxation
d. Provide the client with normal sleep aids, such as pillows, back rubs, and snacks
14. While examining a client’s leg, the nurse notes an open ulceration with visible
granulation tissue in the wound. Until a wound specialist can be contacted, which type of
dressings is most appropriate for the nurse in charge to apply?
a. Dry sterile dressing
b. Sterile petroleum gauze
c. Moist, sterile saline gauze
d. Povidone-iodine-soaked gauze
16. A nurse assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus.
During the assessment interview, the client reports that he’s impotent and says that he’s
concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client’s care, the most
appropriate intervention would be to:
a. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality
b. Provide time for privacy
c. Provide support for the spouse or significant other
d. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional
17. Using Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs, a nurse assigns highest
priority to which client need?
a. Security
b. Elimination
c. Safety
d. Belonging
18. A male client is on prolonged bed rest has developed a pressure ulcer. The wound
shows no signs of healing even though the client has received skin care and has been
turned every 2 hours. Which factor is most likely responsible for the failure to heal?
a. Inadequate vitamin D intake
b. Inadequate protein intake
c. Inadequate massaging of the affected area
d. Low calcium level
19. A female client who received general anesthesia returns from surgery.
Postoperatively, which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for this client?
a. Acute pain related to surgery
b. Deficient fluid volume related to blood and fluid loss from surgery
c. Impaired physical mobility related to surgery
d. Risk for aspiration related to anesthesia
20. Nurse Cay inspects a client’s back and notices small hemorrhagic spots. The nurse
documents that the client has:
a. Extravasation
b. Osteomalacia
c. Petechiae
d. Uremia
21. Which document addresses the client’s right to information, informed consent, and
treatment refusal?
a. Standard of Nursing Practice
b. Patient’s Bill of Rights
c. Nurse Practice Act
d. Code for Nurses
22. If a blood pressure cuff is too small for a client, blood pressure readings taken
with such a cuff may do which of the following?
a. Fail to show changes in blood pressure
b. Produce a false-high measurement
c. Cause sciatic nerve damage
d. Produce a false-low measurement
23. Nurse Danny has been teaching a client about a high-protein diet. The teaching is
successful if the client identifies which meal as high in protein?
a. Baked beans, hamburger, and milk
b. Spaghetti with cream sauce, broccoli, and tea
c. Bouillon, spinach, and soda
d. Chicken cutlet, spinach, and soda
24. A male client is admitted to the hospital with blunt chest trauma after a motor
vehicle accident. The first nursing priority for this client would be to:
a. Assess the client’s airway
b. Provide pain relief
c. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
d. Splint the chest wall with a pillow
25. A newly hired charge nurse assesses the staff nurses as competent individually but
ineffective and nonproductive as a team. In addressing her concern, the charge nurse
should understand that the usual reason for such a situation is:
a. Unhappiness about the charge in leadership
b. Unexpected feeling and emotions among the staff
c. Fatigue from overwork and understaffing
d. Failure to incorporate staff in decision making
26. A male client blood test results are as follows: white blood cell (WBC) count,
100ul; hemoglobin (Hb) level, 14 g/dl; hematocrit (HCT), 40%. Which goal would be
most important for this client?
a. Promote fluid balance
b. Prevent infection
c. Promote rest
d. Prevent injury
27. Following a tonsillectomy, a female client returns to the medical-surgical unit. The
client is lethargic and reports having a sore throat. Which position would be most
therapeutic for this client?
a. Semi-Fowler’s
b. Supine
c. High-Fowler’s
d. Side-lying
28. Nurse Berri inspects a client’s pupil size and determines that it’s 2 mm in the left
eye and 3 mm in the right eye. Unequal pupils are known as:
a. Anisocoria
b. Ataxia
c. Cataract
d. Diplopia
29. The nurse in charge is caring for an Italian client. He’s complaining of pain, but he
falls asleep right after his complaint and before the nurse can assess his pain. The nurse
concludes that:
a. He may have a low threshold for pain
b. He was faking pain
c. Someone else gave him medication
d. The pain went away
30. A female client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of chest
pain shortness of breath. The nurse’s assessment reveals jugular vein distention. The
nurse knows that when a client has jugular vein distension, it’s typically due to:
a. A neck tumor
b. An electrolyte imbalance
c. Dehydration
d. Fluid overload
1. Answer B. Immunizing an infant is an example of primary prevention,
which aims to prevent health problems. Administering digoxin to treat
heart failure and obtaining a smear for a screening test are examples for
secondary prevention, which promotes early detection and treatment of
disease. Using occupational therapy to help a patient cope with arthritis is
an example of tertiary prevention, which aims to help a patient deal with
the residual consequences of a problem or to prevent the problem from
recurring.
2. Answer B. Inspection always comes first when performing a physical
examination. Percussion and palpation of the abdomen may affect bowel
motility and therefore should follow auscultation.
3. Answer D. The S1 sound—the “lub” sound—is loudest at the apex of the
heart. It sounds longer, lower, and louder there than the S2 sounds. The
S2—the “dub” sound—is loudest at the base. It sounds shorter, sharper,
higher, and louder there than S1.
4. Answer B. The nurse identifies human responses to actual or potential
health problems during the nursing diagnosis step of the nursing process.
During the assessment step, the nurse systematically collects data about
the patient or family. During the planning step, the nurse develops
strategies to resolve or decrease the patient’s problem. During the
evaluation step, the nurse determines the effectiveness of the plan of
care.
5. Answer B. Because furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, the nurse
should plan to teach the patient to increase intake of potassium-rich foods,
such as bananas and oranges. Fresh, green vegetables; lean red meat;
and creamed corn are not good sources of potassium.
6. Answer D. The most toxic reaction to chloramphenicol is bone marrow
suppression. Chloramphenicol is not known to cause lethal arrhythmias,
malignant hypertension, or status epilepticus.
7. Answer D. Altered peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous
congestion” takes highest priority because venous inflammation and clot
formation impede blood flow in a patient with deep-vein thrombosis.
Option A is incorrect because impaired gas exchange is related to
decreased, not increased, blood flow. Option B is inappropriate because
no evidence suggest that this patient has a fluid volume excess. Option C
may be warranted but is secondary to altered tissue perfusion.
8. Answer A. When the central venous catheter is positioned correctly, its tip
lies in the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, or the right atrium—that
is, in central venous circulation. Blood flows unimpeded around the tip,
allowing the rapid infusion of large amounts of fluid directly into circulation.
The basilica, jugular, and subclavian veins are common insertion sites for
central venous catheters.
9. Answer D. During the evaluation step of the nursing process the nurse
determines whether the goals established in the care plan have been
achieved, and evaluates the success of the plan. If a goal is unmet or
partially met the nurse reexamines the data and revises the plan.
Assessment involves data collection. Planning involves setting priorities,
establishing goals, and selecting appropriate interventions.
10. Answer C. Wound healing in a client with diabetes will be delayed.
Providing the client with a time frame could give the client false
information.
11. Answer B. Although documentation isn’t a step in the nursing process, the
nurse is legally required to document activities related to drug therapy,
including the time of administration, the quantity, and the client’s reaction.
Developing a content outline, establishing outcome criteria, and setting
realistic client goals are part of planning rather than implementation.
12. Answer B. The client shows signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The
pelvic area is rich in blood supply, and thrombophlebitis of the deep vein is
associated with pelvic surgery. Aspirin, an antiplatelet agent, and an active
walking program help decrease the client’s risk of DVT. In general,
diabetes is a contributing factor associated with peripheral vascular
disease.
13. Answer D. The nurse should begin with the simplest interventions, such as
pillows or snacks, before interventions that require greater skill such as
relaxation techniques. Sleep medication should be avoided whenever
possible. At some point, the nurse should do a thorough sleep
assessment, especially if common sense interventions fail.
14. Answer C. Moist, sterile saline dressings support would heal and are cost-
effective. Dry sterile dressings adhere to the wound and debride the tissue
when removed. Petroleum supports healing but is expensive. Povidone-
iodine can irritate epithelial cells, so it shouldn’t be left on an open wound.
15. Answer C. Upcoding is the practice of using a CPT code that’s reimbursed
at a higher rate than the code for the service actually provided.
Unbundling, overbilling, and misrepresentation aren’t the terms used for
this illegal practice.
16. Answer D. The nurse should refer this client to a sex counselor or other
professional. Making appropriate referrals is a valid part of planning the
client’s care. The nurse doesn’t normally provide sex counseling.
Therefore, providing time for privacy and providing support for the spouse
or significant other are important, but not as important as referring the
client to a sex counselor.
17. Answer B. According to Maslow, elimination is a first-level or physiological
need, and therefore takes priority over all other needs. Security and safety
are second-level needs; belonging is a third-level need. Second- and third-
level needs can be met only after a client’s first-level needs have been
satisfied.
18. Answer B. A client on bed rest suffers from a lack of movement and a
negative nitrogen balance. Therefore, inadequate protein intake impairs
wound healing. Inadequate vitamin D intake and low calcium levels aren’t
factors in poor healing for this client. A pressure ulcer should never be
massaged.
19. Answer D. Risk for aspiration related to anesthesia takes priority for thins
client because general anesthesia may impair the gag and swallowing
reflexes, possibly leading to aspiration. The other options, although
important, are secondary.
20. Answer C. Petechiae are small hemorrhagic spots. Extravasation is the
leakage of fluid in the interstitial space. Osteomalacia is the softening of
bone tissue. Uremia is an excess of urea and other nitrogen products in
the blood.
21. Answer B. The Patient’s Bill of Rights addresses the client’s right to
information, informed consent, timely responses to requests for services,
and treatment refusal. A legal document, it serves as a guideline for the
nurse’s decision making. Standards of Nursing Practice, the Nurse
Practice Act, and the Code for Nurses contain nursing practice parameters
and primarily describe the use of the nursing process in providing care.
22. Answer B. Using an undersized blood pressure cuff produces a falsely
elevated blood pressure because the cuff can’t record brachial artery
measurements unless it’s excessively inflated. The sciatic nerve wouldn’t
be damaged by hyperinflation of the blood pressure cuff because the
sciatic nerve is located in the lower extremity.
23. Answer A. Baked beans, hamburger, and milk are all excellent sources of
protein. The spaghetti-broccoli-tea choice is high in carbohydrates. The
bouillon-spinach-soda choice provides liquid and sodium as well as some
iron, vitamins, and carbohydrates. Chicken provides protein but the
chicken-spinach-soda combination provides less protein than the baked
beans-hamburger-milk selection.
24. Answer A. The first priority is to evaluate airway patency before assessing
for signs of obstruction, sternal retraction, stridor, or wheezing. Airway
management is always the nurse’s first priority. Pain management and
splinting are important for the client’s comfort, but would come after airway
assessment. Coughing and deep breathing may be contraindicated if the
client has internal bleeding and other injuries.
25. Answer B. The usual or most prevalent reason for lack of productivity in a
group of competent nurses is inadequate communication or a situation in
which the nurses have unexpected feeling and emotions. Although the
other options could be contributing to the problematic situation, they’re
less likely to be the cause.
26. Answer B. The client is at risk for infection because WBC count is
dangerously low. Hb level and HCT are within normal limits; therefore,
fluid balance, rest, and prevention of injury are inappropriate.
27. Answer D. Because of lethargy, the post tonsillectomy client is at risk for
aspirating blood from the surgical wound. Therefore, placing the client in
the side-lying position until he awake is best. The semi-Fowler’s, supine,
and high-Fowler’s position don’t allow for adequate oral drainage in a
lethargic post tonsillectomy client, and increase the risk of blood
aspiration.
28. Answer A. Unequal pupils are called anisocoria. Ataxia is uncoordinated
actions of involuntary muscle use. A cataract is an opacity of the eye’s
lens. Diplopia is double vision.
29. Answer A. People of Italian heritage tend to verbalize discomfort and pain.
The pain was real to the client, and he may need medication when he
wakes up.
30. Answer D. Fluid overload causes the volume of blood within the vascular
system to increase. This increase causes the vein to distend, which can
be seen most obviously in the neck veins. A neck tumor doesn’t typically
cause jugular vein distention. An electrolyte imbalance may result in fluid
overload, but it doesn’t directly contribute to jugular vein distention.
2. A 22-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with complaints of fatigue and weight
loss. Physical examination reveals pallor and multiple bruises on his arms and legs. The
results of the patients tests reveal acute lymphocytic leukemia and thrombocytopenia.
Which of the following nursing diagnoses MOST accurately reflects his condition?
(A) muscular.
(B) near the heart.
(C) non-hairy.
(D) over a bony prominence.
4. A man is admitted to the Telemetry Unit for evaluation of complaints of chest pain.
Eight hours after admission, the patient goes into ventricular fibrillation. The physician
defibrillates the patient. The nurse understands that the purpose of defibrillation is to:
(A) 21
(B) 28
(C) 31
(D) 42
Question: Which lab values should you monitor for a patient receiving Gentamicin?
Question: What nursing diagnosis is seen with acute lymphocytic leukemia and
thromocytopenia?
Needed Info: Thromocytopenia: decreased platelet count increases the patient’s risk for
injury, normal count: 200,000-400,000 per mm3. Leukemia: group of malignant disorders
involving overproduction of immature leukocytes in bone marrow. This shuts down
normal bone marrow production of erythrocytes, platelets, normal leukocytes. Causes
anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia leading to infection and hemorrhage.
Symptoms: pallor of nail beds and conjunctiva, petechiae (small hemorrhagic spot on
skin), tachycardia, dyspnea, weight loss, fatigue. Treatment: chemotherapy, antibiotics,
blood transfusions, bone marrow transplantation. Nursing responsibilities: private room,
no raw fruits or vegs, small frequent meals, O2, good skin care.
(A) Potential for injury — CORRECT: low platelet increases risk of bleeding from
even minor injuries. Safety measures: shave with an electric razor, use soft tooth
brush, avoid SQ or IM meds and invasive procedures (urinary drainage catheter or
a nasogastric tube), side-rails up, remove sharp objects, frequently assess for signs
of bleeding, bruising, hemorrhage.
(B) Self-care deficit — may feel weak, doesn’t address condition
(C) Potential for self-harm — implies risk for purposeful self-injury, not given any info,
assumption
(D) Alteration in comfort — patient is not comfortable, and comfort measures would
address problem
Needed Info: Nitroglycerine: used in treatment of angina pectoris to reduce ischemia and
relieve pain by decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption; dilates veins and arteries.
Side effects: throbbing headache, flushing, hypotension, tachycardia. Nursing
responsibilities: teach appropriate administration, storage, expected pain relief, side
effects. Ointment applied to skin; sites rotated to avoid skin irritaion. Prolonged effect up
to 24 hours.
Needed Info: Defibrillation: produces asystole of heart to provide opportunity for natural
pacemaker (SA node) to resume as pacer of heart activity.
Needed Info: total volume x the drop factor divided by the total time in minutes.
(A) 21 — inaccurate
(B) 28 — inaccurate
(C) 31 — CORRECT: 3,000 x 15 divided by 24 x 60
(D) 42 — inaccurate
Psychosocial Integrity
1. An adolescent male being treated for depression arrives with his family at the
Adolescent Day Treatment Center for an initial therapy meeting with the staff. The
nurse explains that one of the goals of the family meeting is to encourage the
adolescent to:
2. A 23-year-old-woman comes to the emergency room stating that she had been
raped. Which of the following statements BEST describes the nurse’s responsibility
concerning written consent?
(A) The nurse should explain the procedure to the patient and ask her to sign the consent
form.
(B) The nurse should verify that the consent form has been signed by the patient and that
it is attached to her chart.
(C) The nurse should tell the physician that the patient agrees to have the examination.
(D) The nurse should verify that the patient or a family member has signed the consent
form.
3. The nurse cares for an elderly patient with moderate hearing loss. The nurse
should teach the patient’s family to use which of the following approaches when
speaking to the patient?
(A) Raise your voice until the patient is able to hear you.
(B) Face the patient and speak quickly using a high voice.
(C) Face the patient and speak slowly using a slightly lowered voice.
(D) Use facial expressions and speak as you would normally.
(A) She has already moved through the stages of the grieving process.
(B) She is repressing anger related to her husband’s death.
(C) She is experiencing shock and disbelief related to her husband’s death.
(D) She is demonstrating resolution of her husband’s death.
5. After two weeks of receiving lithium therapy, a patient in the psychiatric unit
becomes depressed. Which of the following evaluations of the patient’s behavior by
the nurse would be MOST accurate?
(A) The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires a larger dose of lithium.
(B) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should continue with the
current treatment plan.
(C) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should be monitored for
suicidal behavior.
(D) The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires an antidepressant.
(A) trust the nurse who will solve his problem — not realistic
(B) learn to live with anxiety and tension — minimizes concerns
(C) accept responsibility for his actions and choices — CORRECT
(D) use the members of the therapeutic milieu to solve his problems — must do it himself
(A) The nurse should explain the procedure to the patient and ask her to sign the consent
form — Physician should get patient to sign consent
(B) The nurse should verify that the consent form has been signed by the patient and that
it is attached to her chart — CORRECT
(C) The nurse should tell the physician that the patient agrees to have the examination —
Physician should explain procedure and get consent form signed
(D) The nurse should verify that the patient or a family member has signed the consent
form — must be signed by patient unless unable to do
Question: What should you do to communicate with a person with a moderate hearing
loss?
Needed Info: Presbycusis: age-related hearing loss due to inner ear changes. Decreased
ability to hear high sounds.
(A) Raise your voice until the patient is able to hear you — would result in high tones
patient unable to hear
(B) Face the patient and speak quickly using a high voice — usually unable to hear high
tones
(C) Face the patient and speak slowly using a slightly lowered voice — CORRECT:
also decrease background noise; speak at a slow pace, use nonverbal cues
(D) Use facial expressions and speak as you would normally — nonverbal cues help, but
need low tones
(A) She has already moved through the stages of the grieving process — takes one year
(B) She is repressing anger related to her husband’s death — not accurate; second stage:
crying, regression
(C) She is experiencing shock and disbelief related to her husband’s death —
CORRECT: denial first stage; inability to comprehend reality of situation
(D) She is demonstrating resolution of her husband’s death — too soon
(A) The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires a larger dose of lithium —
not accurate
(B) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should continue with the
current treatment plan — does not address safety needs
(C) This is a normal response to lithium therapy; the patient should be monitored for
suicidal behavior — CORRECT: delay of 1-3 weeks before med benefits seen
(D) The treatment plan is not effective; the patient requires an antidepressant — normal
response
a. Avoid bathing the patient until the condition is remedied, and notify the
physician
b. Ask the physician to refer the patient to a dermatologist, and suggest that the
patient wear home-laundered sleepwear
c. Consult the dietitian about increasing the patient’s fat intake, and take
necessary measures to prevent infection
d. Encourage the patient to increase his fluid intake, use nonirritating soap when
bathing the patient, and apply lotion to the involved areas
2. When bathing a patient’s extremities, the nurse should use long, firm strokes from the
distal to the proximal areas. This technique:
a. Stage I non-REM
c. Stage II non-REM
d. Delta stage
4. The natural sedative in meat and milk products (especially warm milk) that can help
induce sleep is:
a. Flurazepam
b. Temazepam
c. Tryptophan
d. Methotrimeprazine
5. Nursing interventions that can help the patient to relax and sleep restfully include all of
the following except:
6. Restraints can be used for all of the following purposes except to:
a. Prevent a confused patient from removing tubes, such as feeding tubes, I.V.
lines, and urinary catheters
7. Which of the following is the nurse’s legal responsibility when applying restraints?
c. Obtain a written order from the physician except in an emergency, when the
patient must be protected from injury to himself or others
9. A terminally ill patient usually experiences all of the following feelings during the
anger stage except:
a. Rage
b. Envy
c. Numbness
d. Resentment
10. Nurses and other health care provides often have difficulty helping a terminally
ill patient through the necessary stages leading to acceptance of death. Which of the
following strategies is most helpful to the nurse in achieving this goal?
a. Taking psychology courses related to gerontology
11. Which of the following symptoms is the best indicator of imminent death?
12. A nurse caring for a patient with an infectious disease who requires isolation should
refers to guidelines published by the:
13. To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the nurse must first know the:
14. Which is the correct procedure for collecting a sputum specimen for culture and
sensitivity testing?
a. Have the patient place the specimen in a container and enclose the container in
a plastic bag
b. Have the patient expectorate the sputum while the nurse holds the container
d. Offer the patient an antiseptic mouthwash just before he expectorate the sputum
16. The best way to decrease the risk of transferring pathogens to a patient when
removing contaminated gloves is to:
c. Gently pull just below the cuff and invert the gloves when removing them
17. After having an I.V. line in place for 72 hours, a patient complains of tenderness,
burning, and swelling. Assessment of the I.V. site reveals that it is warm and
erythematons. This usually indicates:
a. Infection
b. Infiltration
c. Phlebitis
d. Bleeding
18. To ensure homogenization when diluting powdered medication in a vial, the nurse
should:
19. The nurse is teaching a patient to prepare a syringe with 40 units of U-100 NPH
insulin for self-injection. The patient’s first priority concerning self-injection in this
situation is to:
c. Check the syringe to verify that the nurse has removed the prescribed insulin
dose
d. Clean the injection site in a circular manner with and alcohol sponge
20. The physician’s order reads “Administer 1 g cefazolin sodium (Ancef) in 150 ml of
normal saline solution in 60 minutes.” What is the flow rate if the drop factor is 10 gtt
= 1 ml?
a. 25 gtt/minute
b. 37 gtt/minute
c. 50 gtt/minute
d. 60 gtt/minute
21. A patient must receive 50 units of Humulin regular insulin. The label reads 100 units
= 1 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
a. 0.5 ml
b. 0.75 ml
c. 1 ml
d. 2 ml
22. How should the nurse prepare an injection for a patient who takes both regular and
NPH insulin?
a. Draw up the NPH insulin, then the regular insulin, in the same syringe
b. Draw up the regular insulin, then the NPH insulin, in the same syringe
23. A patient has just received 30 mg of codeine by mouth for pain. Five minutes later he
vomits. What should the nurse do first?
24. A patient is characterized with a #16 indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter to determine
if:
25. A staff nurse who is promoted to assistant nurse manager may feel uncomfortable
initially when supervising her former peers. She can best decrease this discomfort by:
b. Making changes after evaluating the situation and having discussions with the
staff.
c. Telling the staff nurses that she is making changes to benefit their performance
1. Answer – D. Dry skin will eventually crack, ranking the patient more prone to
infection. To prevent this, the nurse should provide adequate hydration through fluid
intake, use nonirritating soaps or no soap when bathing the patient, and lubricate the
patient’s skin with lotion. Bathing may be limited but need not be avoided entirely.
The attending physician and dietitian may be consulted for treatment, but home-
laundered items usually are not necessary.
2. Answer – C. Washing from distal to proximal areas stimulates venous blood flow,
thereby preventing venous stasis. It improves circulation but does not result in
vasoconstriction. The nurse can assess the patient’s condition throughout the bath,
regardless of washing technique, and should feel no strain while bathing the patient.
3. Answer – B. Other characteristics of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep are deep sleep
(the patient cannot be awakened easily), depressed muscle tone, and possibly
irregular heart and respiratory rates. Non-REM sleep is a deep, restful sleep without
dreaming. Delta stage, or slow-wave sleep, occurs during non-REM Stages III and IV
and is often equated with quiet sleep.
7. Answer – D. When applying restraints, the nurse must document the type of behavior
that prompted her to use them, document the type of restraints used, and obtain a
physician’s written order for the restraints.
8. Answer – C. Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying are denial,
anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. The patient may move back and forth
through the different stages as he and his family members react to the process of
dying, but he usually goes through all of these stages to reach acceptance.
9. Answer – C. Numbness is typical of the depression stage, when the patient feels a
great sense of loss. The anger stage includes such feelings as rage, envy, resentment,
and the patient’s questioning “Why me?”
11. Answer – C. Fixed, dilated pupils are sign of imminent death. Pulse becomes
weak but rapid, muscles become weak and atonic, and periods of apnea occur during
respiration.
12. Answer – B. The Center of Disease Control (CDC) publishes and frequently updates
guidelines on caring for patients who require isolation. The National League of
Nursing’s (NLN’s) major function is accrediting nursing education programs in the
United States. The American Medical Association (AMA) is a national organization
of physicians. The American Nurses’ Association (ANA) is a national organization of
registered nurses.
13. Answer – A. Before instituting isolation precaution, the nurse must first determine
the organism’s mode of transmission. For example, an organism transmitted through
nasal secretions requires that the patient be kept in respiratory isolation, which
involves keeping the patient in a private room with the door closed and wearing a
mask, a grown, and gloves when coming in direct contact with the patient. The
organism’s Gram-straining characteristics reveal whether the organism is gram-
negative or gram-positive, an important criterion in the physician’s choice for drug
therapy and the nurse’s development of an effective plan of care. The nurse also
needs to know whether the organism is susceptible to antibiotics, but this could take
several days to determine; if she waits for the results before instituting isolation
precautions, the organism could be transmitted in the meantime. The patient’s
susceptibility to the organism has already been established. The nurse would not be
instituting isolation precautions for a noninfected patient.
14. Answer – C. Placing the specimen in a sterile container ensures that it will not
become contaminated. The other answers are incorrect because they do not mention
sterility and because antiseptic mouthwash could destroy the organism to be cultured
(before sputum collection, the patient may use only tap water for nursing the mouth).
16. Answer – C. Turning the gloves inside out while removing them keeps all
contaminants inside the gloves. They should than be placed in a plastic bag with
soiled dressings and discarded in a soiled utility room garbage pail (double bagged).
The other choices can spread pathogens within the environment.
18. Answer – B. Gently rolling a sealed vial between the palms produces sufficient heat
to enhance dissolution of a powdered medication. Shaking the vial vigorously can
break down the medication and alter its pharmacologic action. Inverting the vial or
leaving it alone does not ensure thorough homogenization of the powder and the
solvent.
19. Answer – C. When the nurse teaches the patient to prepare an insulin injection, the
patient’s first priority is to validate the dose accuracy. The next steps are to select the
site, assess the site, and clean the site with alcohol before injecting the insulin.
22. Answer – B. Drugs that are compatible may be mixed together in one syringe. In the
case of insulin, the shorter-acting, clear insulin (regular) should be drawn up before
the longer-acting, cloudy insulin (NPH) to ensure accurate measurements.
23. Answer – C. After a patient has vomited, the nurse must inspect the emesis to
document color, consistency, and amount. In this situation, the patient recently
ingested medication, so the nurse needs to check for remnants of the medication to
help determine whether the patient retained enough of it to be effective. The nurse
must then notify the physician, who will decide whether to repeat the dose or
prescribe an antiemetic.
24. Answer – B. A 24-hour urine output of less than 500 ml in an adult is considered
inadequate and may indicate kidney failure. This must be corrected while the patient
is in the acute state so that appropriate fluids, electrolytes, and medications can be
administered and excreted. Indwelling catheterization is not needed to diagnose
trauma, urinary tract infection, or residual urine.
25. Answer – B. A new assistant nurse manger should not make changes until she has
had a chance to evaluate staff members, patients, and physicians. Changes must be
planned thoroughly and should be based on a need to improve conditions, not just for
the sake of change. Written assignments allow all staff members to know their own
and others responsibilities and serve as a checklist for the manager, enabling her to
gauge whether the unit is being run effectively and whether patients are receiving
appropriate care. Telling the staff nurses that she is making changes to benefit their
performance should occur only after the nurse has made a thorough evaluation.
Evaluations are usually done on a yearly basis or as needed.
a) Humor
b) Dependent
c) Good relationship
d) Problem centered in approach
2) Anxiety is always present and accompanied by a feeling of dread is termed as;
a) Signal anxiety
b) Anxiety state
c) Free Floating anxiety
d) Anxiety trait
3) Which is not a part of the rehabilitation plan of the mentally ill patients?
a) Regular medication
b) Avoiding crisis support
c) Skills training
d) Specialized training for vocation
5) Which drug is found to be most useful in the treatment of bipolar affective disorder(BPAD)?
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Lithium carbonate
c) Librium
d) Pecitane
) To maintain adequate cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which of the following is true;
4) When is the most appropriate time for a women to perform breast self examination?
5) A client receiving recieving rifampicin should be taught that the effect of the drug could cause;
6) Which of the following is an unlikely assessment for a client with a diagnosis of hepatic
encephalopathy;
a) Muscular pain
b) Muscle twitching
c) Exophthamos
d) Decreased level of consciousnes
2) The purpose of post-operative deep deep breathing and coughing exercises are to:
a) Reduce pain
b)Prevent wound infection
c) Prevent Apnea
d) prevent atelectasis
3) Soft systolic ejection murmur heard in elder person is commonly due to:
a) Old age
b) care of old
c) Diseases related to aging
d) Aging process
5) Which of the following manifestations would a nurse expect to observe in a patient immediately
following a tonic-clonic generalized seizure?
a) Apnea
b) Tachypnoea
c) Lethargy
d) Hypersalivation
When caring for a client with continuous bladder irrigation, the nurse should,
* The nurse can prevent the contamination from Mrs. Jacinta's retention catheter by:
b) Perineal cleansing
c) Encouraging fluids
* The major reasons for treating severe emotional disorders with tranquilizers is to;
* Which of the following activities would cause her a risk in the increase of intracranial pressure?
a) Exercise
b) Coughing
c) Turning
d) Sleeping
* Which of the following drug may be given to reduce increase intracranial pressure?
a) Mannitol
b) Scopalamine
c) Lanoxin
d) Calmpose
* Which of the following is a form of active, focused, emotional environmental first aid for patients
in crisis?
a) Attitude therapy
b) Psychotherapy
c) Re motivation technique
d) Crisis intervention
a) Increased potassium
b) High protein
c) Restricted fluids
d) Restricted sodium
* The major influence of eating habits of the early school-aged child is;
a)Spoon feeding
a) Cleaning
b) Disinfection
c) Sterilization
a) Scissors
b) Trolley
c) O2 tank carrier
a) For surgery
b) For Drug
c) Locally treating
4) SOS means
a) Once a day
b) 4 times a day
c) If necessary
d) At night
a) Clock wise
c) Upwards
d) Downwords
b) IV
c) Subcutaneous
b) IV dose
c) Test dose
d) Lethal dose
b) Nursing council
c) Health council
* Rh factor contains
a) Antigen A
b) Antigen C
c) Antigen D
d) Antigen B
b) Doctor
c) Hospital
d) Director
b) Eucalyptus
c) Menthol
d) Camphor
b) Planning
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
Ischial tuberosity helps for
a) Normal labour
c) Normal standing
b) It is a benign tumor
* The fetal heart pumps an amount of blood through the placenta per minute
a) 300 ml
b) 1000 ml
c) 800 ml
d)500 ml
b) Mento Occipital
c) Mento vertical
b) Christian pledge
c) Hippocrates pledge
d) Catholic pledge
b) Anecdotal report
c) Self development
b) Work report
c) Lencess report
* Change nurse is
a) Nursing superintendent
b) Head nurse
c) Staff nurse
d) ANM
b) Staff nurse
c) Head nurse
d) Nursing superintendent
b) Blood bank
c) Office
b) Duty Roaster
c) Rotation
b) Secondary prevention
c) Tertiary prevention
b) 10-15 seconds
c) 1 minute
d) 16 seconds
b) Poverty of ideas
a) Psychopathy
b) Socio therapy
c) Physiotherapy
d) None of the above
b) Psychosomatic illness
* Unexplained and irrational morbid tears about animate and/or in animate objects
is known as
a) Tension
b) Ideopathy
c) Phobias
a) radial artery
c) Temporal vein
d) Femoral vein
b) 1.000-1.005
c) 1.030-1.010
d) 800-1000
b) 90 F
c) 98.6 F
d) 92 F
b) Sims
c) prone
d) Sitting
b) IV
c) IM
d)Intrathecal
b) B
c) A
d) O
b) Cirrhosis of liver
c) Pain abdomen
d) Cardiac patient
b) Application of antiseptic
d) Suturing
c) Deformity
* HS means
a) Thrice a day
b) At bed time
c) Twice a day
a) 30 ounce
b) 400 ml
c) 20 ounce or 500 ml
b) 1918
c) 1960
d) 1950
a) Normal child
b) Uniovular twins
c) Bi ovular twins
b) Anxiety, tension
* The branch of medicine which deals with the diagnosis, treatment and prevention of
mental illness.
a) Psychology
b) Sociology
c) Psychiatry
a) 30 pairs
b) 31 pairs
c) 41 pairs
d) 20 pairs
* Ovulation day is
a) 14 days of menses
a) 20
b) 30
c) 32
d) 28
a) kidney shape
b) Heart shape
c) Bean shape
a) Head
b) Leg
c) Ear
d) Hand
a) Heart
b) Cardiam
c) End of esophagus
d) End of stomach
* Voice produced by
a) Pharynx
b) Larynx
c) Vocal cords
d)Thyroid cartilage
b) Aorta
c) Femoral artery
d)Tibial artery
b) 120 days
c) 1 year
d) 60 days
a) abdominal cavity
b) Thoracic cavity
c) Pelvic cavity
d)Cranial cavity
* Normal sperm count should be
a) 20 million or above/ml
b) 5 million or less
c) 50 thousands
b) Insulin
c) Growth Hormone
d)Testosterone
b) 10 cm
c) 13 cm
d) 12 cm
b) Dysparenia
c) Dyspnoea
d)Dystocia
b) 24 weeks
c) 20 weeks
d) 36 weeks
b) XY
c) XX
b) Sacrum
c) Mentum
d)Acromion process
b) Cervix
c) Vagina
d) Ampulla of fallopian tube
b) 3 fornices
c) 4 fornices
d) 8 fornices
b) Radius
d) Humerus
b) Wedge shaped
b) Sputum
d) All above
b) Silicosis
c) Bagassosis
d) Byssinosis
b) yellow
c) Rice water
d) Normal
b) Culex mosquito
c) Flies
d) A rabid dog
* Vaccine produces
a) Passive immunity
b) Active immunity
d) All above
b) Promotion of health
d) Above all
* Audio visual aids are classified in to
a) Auditory
b) Visual
c) Combined
d) All above
b) Handicapped
c) youth
d) Nurses
b) Pelvic infections
c) Heart diseases
d) All above
b) Spirometry
c) Sphigmomanometer
d) Lactometer
* Definition of 'MI' is
a) Irritation of the covering of the heart
b) Hyper kalemia
c) Hypo natraemia
d) Hypo kalemia
1. How long should a certified nursing assistant wait to take a patient’s temperature if the
patient has just ingested a cold beverage?
2. What unit of measurement should be used to gauge an amount of a patient’s urine?
3. What maneuver should be performed on a patient with a blocked airway?
4. What are range of motion exercises?
5. If a patient experiences weakness on one side of their body, should you start dressing
them on that side?
Answers:
1. 10-20 minutes
2. cc’s
3. Heimlich
4. Exercises that move every joint and muscle
5. …the weak side