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The folding of sheets of cells, the migration of cells, and cell death are all
mechanisms of:
a) cleavage division.
b) pattern formation.
c) morphogenesis.
d) differentiation.
e) growth.
Question 7
a) division.
b) pattern formation.
c) morphogenesis.
d) differentiation.
e) growth.
Question 8
Which of the following is not a mechanism by which cells communicate with each
other?
a) Transcription factors are secreted from one cell and taken up by the target
cell, where they influence gene expression.
b) Cell surface molecules on adjacent cells interact and initiate a signal
transduction process that influences cellular behavior and gene expression.
c) Cells form gap junctions with adjacent cells, allowing the passage of small
molecules.
d) Cells secrete proteins and small hydrophilic molecules, which interact with cell
surface receptors on target cells and initiate a signal transduction process that
influences cellular behavior and gene expression.
e) Cells secrete small hydrophobic molecules which diffuse into target cells,
interact with cytoplasmic receptors, and influence gene expression.
Question 10
a) One hour.
b) Three hours.
c) One day.
d) Ten days.
e) Nine months.
Question 2
The portion of the blastoderm-stage embryo which will give rise to most ectodermal,
mesodermal, and endodermal tissues is called the:
a) ventral.
b) germ band.
c) imaginal discs.
d) amnioserosa.
e) germ line.
Question 3
a) the mother packages bicoid and nanos mRNA into the developing oocyte.
b) the Toll receptor is activated after fertilization, leading to nuclear localization
of Dorsal protein.
c) the terminal group protein Torso sets up the anterior and posterior poles of the
embryo.
d) the homeotic genes specify the fate of individual segments.
e) the sperm enters the micropile at the anterior end, thus specifying the antero-
posterior axis.
Question 4
Which would lead to a dorsalized embryo? (Recall that genes in Drosophila are
named for their mutant phenotype.)
a) Dorsal mutant.
b) Cactus mutant.
c) Toll mutant.
d) Spätzle mutant.
e) Bicoid mutant.
Question 5
A gap gene mutation might cause which of the following defects in the embryonic
body plan?
a) Every other segment would be missing, resulting in T1, T3, A2, A4, etc. but no
T2, A1, A3, and so on.
b) Segments A2 through A6 would be missing, but the rest of the pattern is
essentially normal.
c) No segmentation would be evident.
d) Patterning within each segment would be abnormal, causing for example
denticle belts to form across the entire segment.
e) The identity of one or more segments would be transformed to that of a
different segment, such that the T3 leg would transformed to a T2 leg.
Question 6
The portion of the Drosophila body plan which will produce the wing is called:
a) telson.
b) dorsal.
c) abdomen.
d) thorax.
e) neurectoderm.
Question 8
The adult body plan of the fly is based on reiterating structures called segments;
segment precursors (parasegments) are first positioned at the cell-by-cell level by
which group of genes?
a) Hedgehog.
b) Homeobox genes.
c) The Wnt family.
d) The Toll signalling pathway.
e) All of the above.
FROG
on 1
In which portion of the frog's life-cycle would a frog appear most similar to a
mammal?
a) The fertilized eggs of frogs and mammals are similar in size and look nearly
identical.
b) A frog blastula is very similar to a mammalian blastocyst.
c) The events of gastrulation in frogs are highly similar to gastrulation and
extraembryonic membrane formation in mammals.
d) Late in organogenesis, at the phylotypic stage, the body plans of frogs and
mammals are remarkably similar.
e) Adult frogs are essentially indistinguishable from adult humans.
Question 2
The notochord is a ___ structure in vertebrate embryos that lies under the ___, and
is flanked by ___.
a) mesodermal, neural tube, somites
b) endodermal, mesoderm, the gut
c) ectodermal, neural tube, mesoderm
d) mesodermal, ectoderm, endoderm
e) endodermal, epidermis, blastocoel
Question 3
a) fertilization.
b) cleavage.
c) gastrulation.
d) organogenesis.
e) metamorphosis.
Question 5
During gastrulation in Xenopus, the future mesoderm and endoderm move inside the
embryo through the "blastopore"; in contrast, in chickens, gastrulation involves cells
moving inward through the:
a) blastoderm.
b) yolk.
c) cleavage furrow.
d) primitive streak.
e) gut.
Question 6
In mammalian development, the embryo will form from which population of cells?
a) The blastocyst.
b) The inner cell mass.
c) The trophectoderm.
d) The blastocoel.
e) The extraembryonic membranes.
Question 7
a) energy rich proteins and lipids packaged into the vegetal pole.
b) hormonal influences encountered in the uterus in mammals.
c) mRNAs and proteins packaged into the egg by the mother, which act to
control early development in the embryo.
d) genes contributed to the embryo by the maternal haploid genome.
e) components of the cortical granules which prevent polyspermy.
Question 8
The role of maternal factors (such as Vg-1, Xwnt-1, and VegT) packaged into the
vegetal region of the Xenopus oocyte is:
Between fertilization and the first cleavage division, actin filaments pull the cytoplasm
of the frog egg toward the point of sperm entry in a process called:
a) cortical rotation.
b) dorsalization.
c) blastulation.
d) gastrulation.
e) determination.
Question 10
Remarkably, Vg-1 and wnt are used in both frogs and chicks to establish a body
axis, although in chicks this is the antero-posterior axis instead of the dorso-ventral
axis. What is the region of the chick embryo that is thus analogous to the Nieuwkoop
center?
a) Area pellucida.
b) Blastoderm.
c) Primitive streak.
d) Posterior marginal zone.
e) Koller's sickle.
Question 12
Although the vertebrate body plan outwardly displays a mirror-image symmetry with
regard to left and right, the internal organs are not symmetrical. How does this left-
right asymmetry develop?
a) The two cells of the Nieuwkoop center (at the 32-cell stage, see Figure 3.32)
signal each other and become either left or right.
b) Maternal factors that determine left and right are packaged into the egg, just
as dorsalizing factors are.
c) Differential release of Ca2+ ions on the left side leads to expression of Nodal
and Pitx2 on the left.
d) Gravity determines the left-right axis: that side which is down becomes right
and that side which is up becomes left.
e) No special mechanism is required, since the formation of an antero-posterior
axis and a dorso-ventral axis automatically determines left and right.
Question 13
A fate map of a Xenopus blastula, just before gastrulation begins, shows (Figure
3.44) that the top portion of the embryo will become ectoderm (skin and nerve), the
central portion will become mesoderm (bone, muscle, and blood), and the lowest
portion will become endoderm (gut). How is it that the endoderm and mesoderm,
shown on the outside in the fate map, end up on the inside in the embryo after
gastrulation?
What property of the mammalian embryo permits the production of chimeric mice?
a) The inner cell mass is highly regulative, so that extra cells derived from the
inner cell mass of a different embryo are incorporated without causing defects.
b) If half of the cells of the inner cell mass are removed and replaced with cells
from half of a different embryo's inner cell mass, the embryo will heal and develop
normally.
c) The embryo can develop outside the womb, making surgical manipulations
possible.
d) Blastomeres separated at the two-cell stage will regulate and each forms a
normal embryo.
e) Genetically determined pigmentation differences are incompatible in the
developing embryo.
Question 16
If cells from the animal pole of a frog blastula (animal cap cells) are placed into
contact with cells from the vegetal hemisphere, after removing the cells fated to form
mesoderm, what is the result?
What is the mechanism by which cells fated to be mesoderm form in the marginal
zone of the Xenopus embryo?
a) Vegetal region cells migrate toward the animal pole and become mesoderm.
b) Cells in the marginal zone are fated to be mesoderm, but they do not become
specified or determined as mesoderm until after they move internally during
gastrulation.
c) Cells of the vegetal region are induced by their proximity to the animal region
cells to become mesoderm.
d) Maternal factors packaged into the marginal zone act on these cells to instruct
them to become mesoderm.
e) Secreted signals of the TGF-β family are released by the cells of the vegetal
region and act on the adjacent cells of the marginal zone to instruct them to adopt a
mesodermal fate.
Question 19
How is the Spemann organizer distinguished from the other mesodermal cells during
induction by the cells of the vegetal region?
a) The cells of the Spemann organizer become different as they pass over the
dorsal lip of the blastopore during gastrulation.
b) β-catenin, which has become localized to the nucleus in the Nieuwkoop
center as a result of cortical rotation, turns on high levels of the TGF-β signalling
molecule, Nodal, and this relatively high level distinguishes the adjacent cells of the
Spemann organizer from the rest of the mesoderm.
c) The Spemann organizer is formed from cells of the Nieuwkoop center, which
have migrated upward in the embryo.
d) BMP-4 signalling from ventral mesodermal cells toward the dorsal region
specify the dorsal-most cells as organizer.
e) Signals from the animal region combine with signals from the vegetal region in
the dorsal-most mesoderm, and specify those cells as the Spemann organizer.
Question 20
Question 1
The central nervous system is derived from _____, the axial skeleton is derived from
_____, and the muscles of the trunk are derived from _____?
Question 2
What would be the effect on the timing of somite formation, if a piece of the pre-somitic
mesoderm of a chick embryo is rotated by 180° and reinserted in its original position?
e) The timing of somite formation will be reversed in the rotated block only, proceeding
from posterior to anterior, but the rest of the somites will form in a normal fashion,
proceeding from anterior to posterior.
3
Relative to the primitive streak and Henson's node, somite formation in the chick embryo
occurs:
a) Anterior to Henson's node, after the primitive steak has retracted past that point.
What observation might explain how somites originally become specified to form
structures appropriate to their position along the antero-posterior axis?
d) Periodic waves of c-hairy1 are expressed in the presomitic mesoderm, such that cells
in the more anterior somites will have been exposed to fewer waves of c-hairy1 than the
cells in more posterior somites.
Question 5
What may be the molecular trigger that causes cells in the presomitic mesoderm to
finally condense into somites?
b) The FGF gradient drops off in the region that is forming somites.
Question 6
Hox genes:
a) encode transcription factors which specify a position along the anterior-posterior axis
in vertebrates.
Question 7
The effect of grafting an extra piece of notochord into a dorsal position adjacent to pre-
somitic mesoderm is:
c) signals from the notochord will convert presumptive dermomyotome into sclerotome.
Question 8
The grafting of the dorsal lip of the blastopore from an Xenopus gastrula onto the ventral
side of an early embryo will result in:
c) The formation of two sets of anterior structures joined along the ventral axis: a
two-headed embryo.
Question 9
c) Neurectoderm formation is inhibited by the BMP proteins present throughout the early
embryo, and this inhibition is relieved by BMP antagonists from the organizer, such as
chordin.
Question 10
Question 1
In flies, frogs, and chicks, gradients of morphogens determine the future antero-posterior
and dorso-ventral axes of the developing embryo. How is the antero-posterior axis
determined in C. elegans?
uestion 2
d) Yes, but only one HOX gene is required in the embryo; the others provide positional
identity in the larva.
uestion 3
a) Lin-4 encodes a miRNA that represses lin-14 translation, which in turn regulates
the timing of larval development.
Question 4
The ability of the sea urchin embryo to regulate its development illustrates the fact that
there are maternally-determined differences along the animal-vegetal axis that are
necessary for normal development. Which of the following statements about regulation in
sea urchin embryos is consistent with that fact?
d) Blastomeres at the 4-cell stage each still possesses a portion of the original
animal-vegetal axis, and if isolated will go on to form a fully formed, yet smaller,
larva.
Question 5
In which way is the organizer region of the sea urchin similar to that in frogs?
Question 6
Question 7
In the ascidian, Styela, the yellow pigmented myoplasm marks cells fated to become
muscle cells in the tail; however, at the molecular level, the key determinant of tail
muscle seems to be:
Question 8
The role of the Brachyury gene in ascidians is similar to that in Xenopus in that:
Question 9
a) Dictyostelium cells can live as single, free-living cells, until they are stimulated by
starvation to aggregate and sporulate.
Question 10
What is the role of cAMP in Dictyostelium development?
Question 1
b) fully differentiated cells of plants are still totipotent, and will readily form a complete
fertile plant, whereas the differentiated state of animal cells is difficult to reverse.
Question 2
Why has the diploid genome been an advantage in studying the development
ofArabidopsis?
Question 3
The fate map of the Arabidopsis embryo at the heart stage indicates that:
d) although none of the adult structures have formed, the regions that will give rise to the
meristems, which will in turn give rise to adult structures, can be identified.
Question 4
One of the earliest events in Arabidopsis development is formation of the _____ axis, in
response to a gradient of _____.
a) apical-basal, auxin
Question 5
Question 6
Maintenance of the shoot meristems in adult Arabidopsis plants relies on which of the
following mechanisms?
d) All of the above are involved in specification and maintenance of shoot meristems.
Question 7
Refer to Figure 6.18 on page 241 in the text: in the lower portion of the figure, where
would leaf primordium number 7 appear?
Question 8
e) a through d above describe, in order, the pathway by which shoot meristems are turned
into floral meristems.
Question 9
b) Flowers consist of four different types of organs, which occur in concentric rings
called 'whorls'.
Question 10
In what way are the homeotic genes of flowering plants similar to those
of Drosophilaand other animals?
c) Mutations in the homeotic genes of flowers cause transformation of one organ into
another.
Question 11
Question 12
How is the ABC model for floral identity in Arabidopsis reminiscent of the models for
homeotic gene function derived from studies in Drosophila?
d) In both organisms, the homeotic genes interact, so that it is often the combination
of genes present that is critical in unambiguously specifying structures in the adult.
uestion 1
Previous chapters have focused on the establishment of embryonic axes and the
specification of cellular identity. At the molecular and cellular level, how does
morphogenesis differ from those processes?
d) The formation of embryonic axes and the specification of cell fates rely heavily on
cell-cell signaling events, and their influence over gene expression patterns, whereas
morphogenesis relies primarily on cell-cell adhesion and cell motility.
Question 2
Adherens junctions play in important role in development; they are composed of:
Question 3
If embryos are disaggregated with chemicals or proteases, and the individual cells are
mixed together in culture, what will happen?
b) The cells will often sort themselves so that like cells are together.
Question 5
Which of the following is the only true statement regarding compaction in the mouse
embryo?
d) All of the above are true of compaction in the mouse embryo.
Question 6
How do the endodermal cells of the sea urchin embryo carry out gut formation during
gastrulation?
c) Changes in cell shape initiate the invagination; convergent extension extends the sheet
of cells into the blastocoel, and finally, filopodia make contact with the future mouth
region and pull the tip of the gut to that point.
Question 7
b) Involution is the movement of cells inside the embryo as a coherent sheet, epiboly is a
flattening and spreading of epithelial cells to increase the amount of surface they cover,
and convergent extension is movement of cells toward an axis to extend that axis.
Question 8
During gastrulation in the frog, the very first cells to move into the interior of the embryo
through the blastopore come from the surface layer of cells in the marginal zone; they
will become:
c) endoderm.
Question 9
Gastrulation in sea urchins, Drosophila, and Xenopus all begin with a change in cell
shape, in which the apical surface of an epithelial sheet contracts. This process is called:
d) invagination.
Question 10
In Xenopus, the mesoderm moves in through the blastopore by rolling around the dorsal
lip in a process called:
a) involution.
Question 11
In Xenopus, the elongation of the mesoderm toward the anterior results from the
intercalation of cells during a process called:
b) convergent extension.
Question 12
In chicks, the formation of the neural tube relies on what cell biological processes?
c) Both changes in cell shape in the neural plate and changes in adhesion molecule
expression in the neural tube are required during formation of the neural tube.
Question 13
Question 14
e) melanocytes.
Question 1
d) Muscle cell.
Question 2
Differentiated cells express the genes and proteins characteristic of their final identity in
the adult, and that identity can be altered only under special circumstances. How does the
concept of differentiation, as described here, differ from the concept of determination?
c) Determined cells will continue to follow their fate if grafted into a different place in a
host embryo, even though they do not yet express the genes and proteins characteristic of
their final fate.
Question 3
What is the role of stem cells with regard to the function of adult tissues and organs?
a) Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that divide asymmetrically, giving rise to one
daughter that remains a stem cell and one daughter that will differentiate to replace
damaged and worn out cells in the adult tissue or organ.
Question 4
The immunoglobulin genes are expressed in B-cells, and the β-globin gene is expressed
in red blood cells. What manipulations might be carried out to get the β-globin gene to be
expressed in B-cells?
Question 5
Imagine that in an attempt to get the β-globin gene to be expressed in B-cells (see
question 4 above), the transcription factors (GATA-1 and GATA-2) known to control the
β-globin gene in erythrocytes were introduced into B-cells, yet the β-globin gene was not
expressed. What is a likely explanation for this result?
b) The β-globin gene in the B-cells is packaged into heterochromatin, and the erythrocyte
transcription factors are insufficient to remodel that chromatin into an active state.
Question 6
What type of cell-cell signaling protein exerts its effect in gene expression through a
receptor that is a transcription factor?
Question 7
What is the developmental pathway by which the hematopoietic stem cell gives rise to a
macrophage?
e) The hematopoietic stem cell must first generate a cell of the myeloid lineage (as
opposed to the lymphoid lineage), then a granulocyte/macrophage progenitor, then a
monocyte, and finally a macrophage.
Question 8
Hematopoietic stem cells can be isolated and grown in culture; if one wished to control
their differentiation into either neutrophils or macrophages, what colony stimulating
factors could be used?
Question 9
d) Globin gene switching refers to the transition, during fetal development, from the
production of hemoglobin containing ε-globin, to γ-globin, to β-globin.
Question 10
What do "V", "J", and "C" mean in the context of the genes for immunoglobulins?
c) There are several V and J exons in an immunoglobulin gene; one of each is selected
during a rearrangement in the DNA to produce an immunoglobulin gene capable of being
expressed; the V and J segments that are not selected are lost from the genome.
Question 11
Where are the stem cells that renew the epithelium of the gut found?
Question 12
What happens if you introduced the gene myoD into fibroblast cells growing in culture?
a) The fibroblasts will express muscle-specific proteins, fuse, and form functional muscle
in culture.
Question 13
In what way are mrf4, myoD, and the other muscle-inducing genes similar to the
homeotic genes of Drosophila?
b) mrf4, myoD, and the others encode 'master-switch' transcription factors, which
initiate a cascade of gene expression that leads to the differentiation of cells.
Question 14
Neural crest cells that follow a dorso-lateral route of migration under the skin will
become melanocytes; how is their differentiation into melanocytes triggered during their
migration?
d) The cells in the skin express a ligand (stem cell factor, SCF, also known asSteel) on
their surface, which interacts with a receptor (Kit, also known as white spotting) on the
surface of the neural crest derived cells; this interaction triggers their differentiation as
melanocytes.
Question 15
Question 16
e) Caspases are proteases that carry out the controlled destruction of the cell's
components during apoptosis.
Question 17
What important lesson for the mechanisms of development can we derive from the ability
to clone frogs by nuclear transfer?
a) That the selective gene expression seen in differentiated cells does not result from an
irreversible loss of genes, or their potential for expression.
Question 18
Recently, it was reported that adult, differentiated cells can be made to behave as
pluripotent stem cells by the introduction of a few genes, one of which was Oct4. What
was the rationale for this experiment?
Question 1
Cartilage (bone-forming tissue) and connective tissue of the vertebrate limb form from:
b) the mesodermal mesenchyme of the limb bud, derived from lateral plate ectoderm.
Question 2
Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events by which the position
of limbs along the antero-posterior axis of vertebrates is specified?
a) Hox gene expression in the mesoderm activates Wnt signaling, which turns on FGF
expression and formation of the limb bud.
Question 3
b) formation of structures proximal to the apical ridge, but no formation of new distal
structures.
Question 4
The grafting of a second polarizing region into the anterior of a limb bud results in:
e) a new axis can be formed if the second polarizing region is large, and a second full set
of digits can form with mirror-image orientation to the normal set of digits.
Question 5
In Chapter 4, it was proposed that activation of Hox genes along the antero-posterior axis
in vertebrates might be related to the time spent in Henson's node as it retreats
posteriorly: cells expressing anterior Hox genes spend the least amount of time in the
node, while cells expressing posterior Hox genes have spent progressively more time in
the node. What aspect of limb development may involve a similar mechanism?
c) The amount of time spent in the progress zone may determine which Hox genes are
expressed along the proximo-distal axis of the growing limb, and hence the identity of
structures formed.
Question 6
c) mesodermal cells that migrate into the limb bud from the somites
Question 7
b) myogenin
Question 8
If apoptosis in the developing limb were blocked, what feature of a normal limb would
not form?
Question 9
In thinking about the development of the wing imaginal disc of Drosophila, what is the
significance of "compartments"?
Question 10
Engrailed comes to be expressed in posterior compartments
during Drosophilaembryogenesis; what is the consequence of engrailed activation
of hedgehog (Hh) signaling from the posterior compartment of the wing disc?
Question 11
Keeping in mind the fact that genes are often named for the phenotype of a mutation in
that gene, what might be the phenotype of a mutation of the Distal-less gene
ofDrosophila?
c) Distal-less mutants would form only proximal structures, like the coxa (proximal end)
of the legs without a tarsus (distal end).
Question 12
The development of drugs to block the activity of vascular endothelial growth factor
(VEGF) has been applied to the control of the growth of cancers. What is the rationale for
such a strategy?
b) Tumor cells produce VEGF to stimulate angiogenesis in their vicinity, and tumors
cannot continue to grow without this supply of blood.
Question 13
c) a pair of tubes in the lateral plate mesoderm that move together and fuse to form a
single tube that will become the heart.
Question 14
Question 15
Hedgehog signaling at the compartment boundary in the Drosophila wing disc leads to
the expression of what signaling molecule in the adjacent anterior cells?
c) decapentaplegic
Question 16
a) Hox genes
Question 17
Question 18
c) mesoderm
Question 1
In the development of the nervous system, which is the correct order of events?
b) First, cells must be specified to be neurons, second, the neurons must migrate to their
final position, third, these neurons must make connections with their targets, and fourth,
the neurons refine their synaptic connections.
Question 2
d) Although the invertebrate nervous system is a ventrally located nerve cord, and the
vertebrate spinal cord is located dorsally, homologous genes play a role, and neurons are
ultimately specified through a process of lateral inhibition in both cases.
Question 3
How does lateral inhibition work to specify individual neurons in the neural epithelium of
invertebrates and vertebrates?
a) Prospective neurons first arise in a cluster, but then, by chance, one cell will come to
signal more strongly through Delta and Notch than its neighbors and become the only
neuron in the cluster, by inhibiting its neighbors' specification as neurons.
Question 4
Question 5
What is the relationship between dorso-ventral patterning of the neural tube and
patterning of the somites?
c) Sonic hedgehog from the notochord and floorplate of the neural tube confers ventral
fates on both the neural tube and the somite, while BMPs confer more dorsal fates.
Question 6
b) Different combinations of Hox genes specify the identities of neurons along the
antero-posterior axis.
Question 7
What is the role of semaphorins and Eph ligands in development of the nervous system?
b) The semaphorins and Eph ligands act as signals for the outgrowth of neuronal growth
cones; in general, both lead growth cones to turn away.
Question 8
What is the consequence for the ability of motor neurons to find their correct targets, if a
section of the spinal cord is rotated, so that the antero-posterior axis is reversed?
a) Anterior motor neurons enter the limb in a bundle in the posterior instead of the
anterior, but then take novel pathways to find the correct anterior muscles to innervate.
Question 9
What does the experiment in which a frog's eye is rotated tell us about the spatial
relationships between the retina and the tectum?
c) When the right retina makes connections to the left tectum, nasal (anterior) neurons
go to the posterior tectum, and temporal (posterior) neurons go to theanterior tectum.
Question 10
d) the space between the plasma membrane of a neuron on the pre-synaptic side of the
synapse, and the plasma membrane of the muscle cell on the post-synaptic side of the
synapse.
Question 11
d) Yes, however, the connections neurons make with each other differ from those they
make with muscle cells in that cell-cell adhesion molecules link the pre-synaptic and
post-synaptic membranes together.
Question 12
Why can't babies see well when they are first born?
a) The multiple connections between the retina and the visual cortex present at birth
become refined in response to visual stimuli, through changes in connectivity and cell
death.
Question 1
What generalization can be applied to the pole plasm of Drosophila, the P-granules of C.
elegans, the yolk-free vegetal cytoplasm of Xenopus, and the localized mRNA for vasain
zebrafish?
d) All mark the special region of cytoplasm, the germplasm, that is involved in
specification of germ cells.
Question 2
Why is meiosis required for germ cell formation, yet is never used by somatic cells?
a) Meiosis is the cell division process that produces haploid products.
Question 3
Two human disorders, Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome, occur when the
mother contributes a copy of chromosome 15 that contains a small deletion in a specific
region. Why does this small deletion not behave as a recessive allele, that is, why is its
loss not made up for by the good copy of the region on the paternally contributed
chromosome 15?
b) The father's copy of chromosome 15 has genes in the region of the deletion that are
imprinted, and thus inactive; in the absence of any active copies of these genes,
development cannot proceed normally.
Question 4
c) The acrosomal reaction is the digestion of the zona pellucida, permitting the sperm to
contact the egg.
Question 5
e) The cortical reaction is the release of the cortical granules after sperm entry, which
converts the vitelline membrane into the fertilization membrane which blocks
polyspermy.
Question 6
a) a male.
Question 7
Question 8
In what way, if any, does the chromosomal determination of sex differ in Drosophila and
humans?
Question 9
c) Sex-lethal controls the splicing of specific mRNAs such that certain proteins required
for female development are produced only in females.
Question 10
Question 1
Question 2
Many cells in the body divide only rarely, if at all; neurons, red blood cells, and
keratinocytes are extreme examples. In which portion of the cell cycle would such cells
be considered to be?
c) G0 phase
Question 3
The size of a cell is generally controlled by the amount of DNA in the nucleus: the more
DNA, the larger the cell. What do experiments in which the amount of DNA is doubled
(tetraploidy in salamanders) tell us about growth control?
a) The animals grow to a normal size, and contain only half as many cells, indicating that
growth is regulated at the level of absolute size, rather than cell number.
Question 4
Disease, injuries, and birth defects that compromise the function of the pituitary may lead
to decreased stature (height). What treatment might be prescribed, and what would be its
rationale?
b) Loss of pituitary function could lead to decreased growth hormone production, and
hence short stature; recombinant human growth hormone might be prescribed.
Question 5
c) grows only at the growth plates between the epiphysis and the diaphysis.
Question 6
e) Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells that derive from stem cells in the bone marrow, and
therefore have no lineage relationship to chondrocytes.
Question 7
Cancer is believed to often arise from stem cells, rather than fully differentiated cells.
Which of the following are consistent with this view?
e) All of the above are reasons that cancer cells may more readily arise from stem
cells than from fully differentiated cells.
Question 8
d) Yes, oncogenes are mutated versions of genes that promote abnormal cell division
(such as ras and myc), whereas tumor suppressor genes are genes that normally hold cell
division in check when it is not appropriate (such as Rb and p53).
Question 9
Insects such as Drosophila undergo three molts before becoming a pupa and undergoing
metamorphosis. Molting, which is also called 'ecdysis', is controlled by what hormone?
a) ecdysone
Question 10
c) hypothalamus.
Question 11
What does it tell us about aging that cells from different organisms are capable of a fixed
number of divisions in culture, and that number of divisions reflects the relative life-span
of the organism?
Question 12
Which of the following is consistent with a model for aging in which stresses leading to
DNA damage cause senescence and aging?
d) All of the above are consistent with a model for aging based on DNA damage.
Question 1
Question 2
When the blastema forms after amputation of a newt limb, what processes must the cells
undergo in order for regeneration to occur?
Question 3
If the nerve supply to a newt limb is severed before amputation, how will this affect
regeneration?
d) A blastema will form but will not grow, and regeneration will fail.
Question 4
b) the stump grows out to regenerate proximal structures, until the positional values of
the blastema are produced, at which time the distal blastema takes over and completes
outgrowth of distal structures.
Question 5
How does the dose-dependence of retinoic acid treatment support the notion that a
gradient of retinoic acid can act as a morphogen along the proximo-distal axis in the
limb?
d) Treatment with high levels of retinoic acid causes a distal blastema to be respecified as
a proximal blastema, and regeneration of a full limb may be initiated from proximal
values.
Question 6
c) Limited regeneration of heart muscle can occur in zebrafish, and the ability to study
zebrafish genetically will enhance our ability to understand the genetic basis of
regeneration.
Question 7
a) In some instances, peripheral nerves can regenerate an axon if cut, such as when motor
neurons regenerate axons to make correct connections with muscles.
Question 8
Is regeneration in Hydra similar to regeneration in vertebrates, or is it fundamentally
different in some way?
Question 9
We learned in Chapter 3 (page 114) that treatment of Xenopus embryos with lithium
dorsalizes the embryos by interfering with cell-cell signaling pathways. What, if
anything, is the effect of lithium on Hydra, and what might we infer about its mechanism
of action?
c) Lithium causes the formation of extra basal discs, which we might infer arise through
interference with cell-cell signaling pathways.
Question 10
What molecular marker of head identity is found in the apical tip of a Hydra during head
regeneration?
e) Wnt
Question 1
Ontogeny is:
Question 2
Question 3
Which is true?
The absence of limbs in snakes may be attributable to the evolution changes in:
Question 5
Hedgehog family genes specify the _____ position in both vertebrate and insect wings.
d) posterior
Question 6
The Hox gene complexes of mice and other mammals have evolved by:
Question 7
Which provides an example of the evolution of new forms through the modification of
preexisting structures?
Question 8
c) heterochrony.
Question 9
A key evolutionary event that allowed the evolution of the bilaterally symmetric
triploblasts from the common ancestor of the triploblasts and the diploblasts would have
been:
Question 10
How would you expect HOX genes to be expressed in millipedes, where all segments
bear similar legs, when compared to insects?
a) The leg specifying HOX genes would be expressed in all leg-bearing segments