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PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 1



1.Which are not the flexors of forearm:

A. Pronater teres
B. Brachialis
C. Brachioradialis
D. Anconeus
E. Flexor pollicis longus

Ans: D (Anconeus) & E (Flexor pollicis longus)

2.Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:

A. Femoral br. of genitofemoral nerve
B. Superficial epigastric artery
C. Psoas major
D. Femoral vein
E. Saphenous vein

Ans: C (Psoas major) & D(Femoral vein)

3. Flexor of lumbar spine is/are:

A. Erector spinae
B. External oblique muscle
C. Internal oblique muscle
D. Rectus abdominis
E. Psoas major
PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 2

Ans: D(Rectus abdominis) & E(Psoas major)

4.True about radial nerve:

A. Branch of posterior cord
B. Nerve of extensor compartment of forearm
C. Arise from C5-T1
D. Anterior interosseous nerve is branch of it
E. Supply skin of extensor compartment

Ans: A (Branch of..), B(Nerve of ..), C (Arise from..) & E(Supply..)

5.Anterior triangles of neck are :

A. Submental triangle
B. Carotid triangle
C. Supraclavicular triangle
D. Digastric triangle
E. Muscular triangle

Ans: A. (Submental ...), B. (Carotid ..), D. (Digastric..) E. (Muscular ..)

6.Features seen in common peroneal nerve injury:

A. Inversion inability
B. Loss of sensation of sole
C. Foot drop
D. Loss of extension of great toe
E. Seen in Fibular neck #

Ans: C. (Foot drop), D. (Loss of .....), E. (Seen ....)

7.Teres major of liver is remnant of:

A. Ductus venosus
B. Umblical artery
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Peritoneum
E. Left umbilical vein

Ans : E (Left umbilical vein)

8.Rotator cuff is/are formed by all except:

A. Supraspinatus

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 3

B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres minor
D. Teres major
E. Subscapularis

Ans: D (Teres major)

9.Enchondral ossification is/are seen in:

A. Long bones
B. Flat bones of skull
C. Clavicle
D. Mandible
E. Nasal bones

Ans: A (Long bones)

10.Deep venous system of brain consists of:

A. Internal cerebral vein
B. Great cerebral vein
C. Basal veins
D. Cavernous sinus

Ans: A. (Internal cerebral vein), B. (Great cerebral vein) & (C Basal veins)


11.“Nerve terminal releases chemical”- discovered by:

A. Dale
B. Withering
C. Domagk
D. Langley
E. Loewi

Ans: A. (Dale) & E. (Loewi)

12.True about Nissl granule:

A. Involved in RNA synthesis
B. Present in axon
C. Present in dendrite
D. Involved in protein synthesis

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 4

E. Structurally they are endoplasmic reticulum

Ans: C. (Present in...), D. (Involves in ...) E. Structurally they..)

13.Which of the following organ is not involved in Calcium metabolism:

A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Skin
E. Kidney

Ans: C (Spleen)

14.True about milk secretion:

A. Neuroendocrine part of post. pituitary is involved
B. Secretion by contraction of lactiferous sinus
C. Oxytocin hormone is involved
D. Prolactin cause contraction of Myoepithelial cells
E. Affected by emotion

Ans: A. (Neuroendocrine..), B. (Secretion..) C. (Oxytocin..) E. (Affected by emotion)

15.CO2 retention is seen in:

A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Respiratory failure
C. High altitude
D. Ventilatory failure
E. Pulmonary edema

Ans: B. (Respiratory...), D. (Ventilatory...), E. (Pulmonary ...)

“As one ascends higher, the alveolar PO2 falls less rapidly & alveolar CO2 declines somewhat
because of the hyperventilationQ”- Ganong 23rd/618

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 5


16.Which component transfers four protons :

A. NADH-Q Oxidoreductase
B. Cytochrome c Oxidase
C. Cytochrome-Qc oxidoreductase
D. Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
E. Succinate Q Reductase

Ans:A (NADH-Q Oxidoreductase) & C(Cytochrome-Q c oxidoreductase)

“Estimates suggest that for each NADH oxidized, complex I & III translocate four proton each &
complex IV translocates two”- Harper 28th/106
Complexes I (NADH-Q oxidoreductase), III (Cytochrome-Qc oxidoreductase) and IV (Cytochrome c
Oxidase) act as proton pumps that cause pumping of protons from the matrix across the inner
mitochondrial membrane into the intermembrane space -Harper

17.Hydrophobic aminoacids are:

A. Methionine
B. Isoleucine
C. Tyrosine
D. Alanine
E. Asparagine


Satyanarayan 3rd/48
Non-polar amino acidsQ : These amino acids are also referred to as hydrophobic (water hatings).
They have no change on the 'R' group. The amino acids included in this group are-alanine,
leucine, isoleucine, valine, methionine, phenylalanine, tryptophan and proline.

18.True about competitive inhibition of enzyme:

A. ↑ Km
B. ↓ Km
C. ↑Vmax
D. No change in Km or Vmax
E. Vmax remain same

Ans: AE

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 6

19.Urea cycle enzymes are :

A. Glutaminase
B. Asparginase
C. Arginosuccinate synthetase
D. Ornithine transcarboxylase
E. Glutamate dehydrogenase

Ans: C (Arginosuccinate synthetase) & D (Ornithine transcarboxylase)

20.Epimer combination(s) is/are:

A. D-glucose & D- fructose
B. D-mannose & D-talose
C. D-glucose & D-mannose
D. D-glucose & D- gulose
E. D-galactose & D-glucose


“Biologically, the most important epimers of glucose are mannoseQ (epimerized at carbon 2) &
galactoseQ (epimerized at carbon 4)”- Harper 28th /115
“Galactose & mannose are not epimers”- Lippincott 4th/84 en.wikipedia.org /wiki/Gulose

21.Glycosphingolipid is made up of :
A. Glucose
B. Glycerol
C. Sphingosine
D. Fatty acids
E. Thromboxane A2


22.Calvin cycle enzymes are:

A. G-6-PD
B. Sedoheptulose- 1-7-bisphosphatase
C. Glycerol Kinase
D. Phosphoribulose kinase

Ans: BD

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 7

Calvin Cycle - Photosynthetic Carbon Reactions

The Calvin cycle or Calvin–Benson cycle or Reductive Pentose Phosphate cycle is a series of
biochemical reactions that take place in the stroma of chloroplasts in photosynthetic organisms.
The Calvin Cycle, earlier designated the photosynthetic "dark reactions" pathway, is now referred to
as the carbon reactions pathwayQ. Sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphatase (one of only three enzymes of
the Calvin cycle that are unique to plants) cleaves sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphate into
sedoheptulose-7-phosphate, releasing an inorganic phosphate ion into solution.
Finally, phosphoribulokinase (another plant-unique enzyme of the pathway) phosphorylates RuP into
RuBP, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, completing the Calvin cycle.

Ref: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Calvin_cycle

23.High energy phosphate compounds are :

C. Creatinine phosphate
D. Acetyl CoA

Ans: ACD

24.Trypsin cleaves
A. Arginine
B. Glutamate
C. Lysine
D. Proline


“Trypsin catalyses hydrolysis of lysine & arginine esters, chymotrypsin esters of aromatic amino
acids & elastase ester of small neutral aliphatic amino acids”- Harper 28th/462
“Trypsin: It cannot hydrolyse any peptide bond with proline residue”- Chatterjea & Shinde

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 8


25.Non coding RNAs are :

A. siRNA
B. miRNA

Ans: A. (siRNA), B. (miRNA), C. (tRNA) E. (rRNA)

26. Termination process of protein synthesis is performed by all except:

A. Releasing factor
B. Stop codon
C. Peptidyl transferase
D. UAA codon
E. AUG codon

Ans: E(AUG codon)

“AUG is initiation codon while UAA is terminating codon”- Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/249-50

27. Nucleosome consists of :

A. Histone
D DNA & RNA both
E. Carbohydrate

Ans: A (Histone) & B (DNA)

28. Method (s) to determine protein structure is/are:

A. X-ray crystallography
B. NMR Spectroscopy
C. Electrophoresis
D. Ultrasonography
E. Infra red spectroscopy

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 9

Ans: A(X-RAY..), B (NMR Spectroscopy) & E (Infra red spectroscopy)

ElectrophoresisQ is used for protein purification- Satyanarayan 3rd/60


29.Which substance is/are not deposited in hepatocyte:

A. Lipofuscin
B. Pseudomelanin
C. Bile pigment
D. Iron
E. Melanin

Ans: B (Pseudomelanin) & E (Melanin)

30. True about p53 :

A. Proapoptotic
B. Tumor supressor gene
C. Protooncogene
D. Tumor necrotic factor
E. Cause cell cycle arrest

Ans: A. (Proapoptotic), B. (Tumor supressor gene) & E. (Cause cell cycle arrest)

31.Stains used in amyloidosis :

A. Congo red
B. Thioflavin
C. Reticulin
D. Gram iodine

Ans: A. (Congo red), B. (Thioflavin) & E. (PAS)

32.Which Ca metastases to heart :

A. Ca breast
B. Ca stomach

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 10

C. Ca lung
D. Ca Urinary bladder
E. Osteosarcoma

Ans: A. (Ca breast), C. (Ca lung) & E. (Osteosarcoma)

33.HLA associated with rheumatoid arthritis:

A. DR1
B. DR2
C. DR3
D. DR4
E. DR 5

Ans: D (DR4)

34.Schistocyte is found in:

C. Severe iron deficiency
D. Prosthetic heart valve
E. March hemoglobinuria

Ans: A. (TTP), B. (DIC), C. (Severe iron ...) D. (Prosthetic ...) E. March ...)

35.Breast Ca is not a/w:

B. Apocrine metaplasia
C. Atypical ductal hyperplasia
D. Fibroadenoma
E. Moderate hyperplasia

Ans: B (Apocrine metaplasia) & D( Fibroadenoma)

36.Modified Bloom Richardson criteria for Ca breast includes:

A. Desmoplasia
B. Lymphovenous embolism
C. Mitotic rate
D. Tubule formation
E. Nuclear polymorphism

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Ans: C. (Mitotic rate), D. (Tubule formation) & E. (Nuclear ...)

37.Characteristic finding of biopsy in mesothelioma includes:

A. Myelin
B. Desmosin
C. Weibel palade bodies
D. Branching microvilli
E. Fibrosis

Ans: D (Branching microvilli)

38.True about Dyskeratosis congenita:

A. Pancytopenia
B. Nail dystrophy
C. Hyperkeratosis
D. X linked
E. Leucoplasia

Ans: A. (Pancytopenia), B. (Nail ...), D. (X linked) & E. (Leucoplasia)

39.Mitochondrial abnormality seen in

A. Oncocytoma
B. Kearn-Sayre syndrome
C. Farber disease
D. Mitochondrial myopathy
E. Leigh’s disease

Ans: A. (Oncocytoma), B. (Kearn-Sayre...), D. (Mitochondrial...) & E. (Leigh’s disease)

40.Diseases having autosomal recessive inheritance:

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Duchene muscular dystrophy
D. Albinism
E. Vit. D resistant ricket

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 12

Ans: A. (Cystic fibrosis) & D. (Albinism)

41.Subepithelial deposits are seen in:

A. Minimal change disease
C. Membranous GN
E. IgA Nephropathy

Ans: C. (Membranous GN) & D. (PSGN)

42.True about apoptosis

A. Increase in lysosomal enzyme
B. Increase in caspases
C. Phosphatidyl serine has important role
D. Internucleosomal cleavage of nucleus

Ans: B (Increse in caspase), C (Phosph.. ) & D ( Intern…)


43.Feature of congenital Syphilis are:

A. Snuffles is late manifestation
B. Perforation in cartilaginous part of nose
C. Mulberry molar
D. Saddle nose deformity

Ans: B CD

The earliest sign of congenital syphilis (appearing 2–6 weeks after birth) is usually rhinitis, or
"snuffles “.

44.All are true about secondary syphilis except:

A. Gumma formation
B. Condyloma lata
C. Palmar erythema

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 13

D. Chancre may occur

E. Mucosal patch

Ans. A ( Gumma..) & C( Palmar erythema)

45. All are true regarding autoimmune disease except:

A. T cell recognize self antigen
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an example
C. Higher incidence among male
D. Polyclonal B cell activation
E. Co-stimulatory molecule involvement

Ans: C (Higher ..)

Co-stimulatory molecules such as B7-1 (CD80) or B7-2 (CD86) are involved in autoimmunity.
Higher incidence among female.- Ananthnarayan 8th/172

46. Hypersensitivity to metal is diagnosed by

A. Skin patch test
B. Total IgE level
C. Leucocyte histamine release test
D. Classic delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reactions
E. Lymphocyte assay

Ans: A(Skin patch ..) & D ( Classical ..)

47.Which of the following is not the manifestation of borellia burgdorferi:

A. Erythema chronicum migrans
B. Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans
C. Lymphogranuloma venerum
D. Granuloma faciale
E. Lichen planus


48.Larva is seen in stool with :

A. Ankylostoma duodenale

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B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Enterovirus vermicularis
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
E. Loa loa

Ans: A(Ankylostoma duodenale) & B (Strongyloides stercoralis)

“Hookworm (A. duodenale and N. americanus): In a stool sample that is not fresh, the eggs may
have hatched to release rhabditiform larvae, which need to be differentiated from those of S.
stercoralis”- Harrison 17th/1321

49.Antigenic variation is seen in:

A. Treponema pallidum
B. Neisseria
C. Corynebacterium
D. Borrelia recurrentis

Ans:B ( Neisseria ) & D (Borrelia recurrentis)

50.True about diphtheria:

A. Gram –ive bacilli
B. I.P 2-5 days
C. Chemoprophylaxis is done with rifampicin
D. Previously immunized asymptomatic household contact should receive booster dose
E. Child recovered from illness- give active immunization

Ans: B (I.P 2- days) & D( Previously ..)

51.Genital ulcer seen in all except:

A. H. aegypticus
B. H. ducreyi
D. Chlamydia
E. T. pallidum

Ans:A (H. aegypticus)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 15

52. The term “viable not cultivable” (VNC) is used for:

A. M. Leprae
B. M. Tuberculosis
C. Trepenoma pallidum
D. H.pylori
E. Staphylococcus

Ans: A (M. Leprae) & B (Trepenoma pallidum)


53.Theophyllin toxicity level increased in all except:

A. Smoking
B. Carbamazepine
C. Increased alcohol intake
D. Rifampicin
E. Ciprofloxacin

Ans: A. (Smoking), B. (Carbamazepine), C. (Increased...) & D. (Rifampicin)

54.Following are drugs except:

A. Nutrients
B. Blood component
C. Essential dietary ingredient
D. Poison

Ans: A. (Nutrients), B. (Blood ...) & C. (Essential ...)

“A drug can be defined as a chemical substance of known structure, other than a nutrient or an
essential dietary ingredient, which, when administered to a living organism, produces a
biological effect”- Rang & Dale Pharmacology

55.Drug not effective in pseudomonas infection:

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Norfloxacin
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Ampicillin
E. Piperacillin

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 16

Ans: B. (Norfloxacin) & D. (Ampicillin)

56. Aminoglycosides used in all except:

A. Staph. aureus
B. Streptococci
C. E. coli
D. Anaerobes
E. Salmonella typhi

Ans: D. (Anaerobes) & E. (Salmonella typhi)

“For salmonella typhi aminoglycosides are not used”- Harrison 17th/959(table)

57.A person driving a vehicle met with an accident. He was on certain medications. Which of the
following drugs, he might be taking
A. Fluoxetine
B. Fexofenadine
C. Tramadol
D. Buspirone
E. Chlorzoxazone

Ans: C. (Tramadol) & E. (Chlorzoxazone)

58.Which of the following are β1 selective antagonist:

A. Propanalol
B. Atenolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Pindolol

Ans: B. (Atenolol) & C.(Metoprolol )

59.Peptides drugs are :

A. Polymyxin B
B. Valinomycin
C. Streptomycin
D. Gramicidin S
E. Nodularin

Ans: A. (Polymyxin B), B. (Valinomycin), D. (Gramicidin S) & E. (Nodularin)

“Streptomycin is an aminoglycosides”- KDT 6th /668

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 17

60.Correctly matched pairs are:

A. Rifampicin – inhibit bacterial DNA polymerase
B. Terbinafine- inhibit fungal DNA polymerase
C. Acyclovir- inhibit viral DNA polymerase
D. Cytarabine- inhibit human DNA polymerse

Ans: C. (Acyclovir...) & D. (Cytarabine...)

61.Drugs which precipitates in renal tubule & cause obstruction:

A. Indinavir
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Guaifenesin
D. Atazanavir

Ans: A. (Indinavir), C. (Guaifenesin) & D. (Atazanavir)

62.Drugs that crosses blood brain barrier:

A. Erythromycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Ampicillin
D. Aminoglycosides
E. Ceftriaxone

Ans: B. (Cotrimoxazole), C. (Ampicillin) & E. (Ceftriaxone)

“Erythromycin do not cross BBB”-KDT 6th/728

“Aminoglycosides do not penetrate brain or CSF”- KDT 6th/719
“Ceftriaxone: Penetration into CSF is good”-KDT 6th/706
“Ampicillin: Penetration into CNS is poor, but in presence of active inflammation of
meninges, the drug concentration are sufficient to kill bacteria”- Katzung 10th/ 829-30

“Trimethoprim adequately crosses BBB while sulfamethoxazole has a poorer entry”-KDT
“Sulfamethoxazole is distributed widely in tissue & body fluids including CNS & CSF”-
Katzung 10th/ 763

63.Amphotericin B toxicity is ↑ed by:

A. Normal saline

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 18

B. Cardiac failure
C. Lipid formulations
D. Aminoglycosides

Ans: B. (Cardiac failure) & D. (Aminoglycosides)

64.True statement regarding Bioassay :

A. Done to know activity of endogenous substance
B. To know toxicity & efficacy of drug

Ans: A. (Done to .....) & B. (To know ....)

Bioassay (biological assay )

1.measurement of the pharmacological activity of new or chemically undefined substances
2.investigation of the function of endogenous mediators
3.determination of the side-effect profile, including the degree of drug toxicity
4.measurement of the concentration of known substances (alternatives to the use of whole
animals have made this use obsolete)
5.assessing the amount of pollutants being released by a particular source, such as wastewater
or urban runoff.

Ref: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bioassay


65.True about battered baby syndrome:

A. Posterior rib # may be seen in xray
B. Injury at the side of metaphysis is specific
C. Epiphyseal injury common
D. Babygram is diagnostic
E. MC cause of death is extradural hemorrhage

Ans: All

66.All are true about postmortem staining except

A. Occur immediately after death

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 19

B. MC in dependent part
C. Disappear with rigor mortis
D. Margins are raised
E. Not found in internal organ

Ans: A. (Occurs..), C ( Disappear..),D( Margins..) & E. (Not found in internal organ)

“PM staining persists until putrefaction sets in”- Reddy 27th/137

“PM staining does not appear elevated above the surface, but has sharply defined edges”- Modi’s
Medical Jurisprudence & Toxicology 23nd/429

67.Differentiating features of contusion (Vs postmortem staining) are :

A. Bluish in color
B. Disappear on pressure area
C. Margin irregular
D. Limited to intravascular compartment
E. Extravasation of blood occurs

Ans: C (Margin irregular) & E (Extravasation of blood occurs)

68.Rape even after consent is considered when age of woman is:

A. < 16yr
B. <17 yr
C. <21 yr
D. <25yr and in police custody
E. < 18 yr

Ans: A (< 16yr)

69.True about suspended animation:

A. Common phenomenon in yogic person
B. Can be voluntary
C. Similar to molecular death
D. Similar to brain death
E. Person can be revived

Ans: A ( Common), B (Can be voluntary) & E (Person..)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 20

Suspended animation is apparent death ( not real death).

Signs of Molecular or Cellular death follow within 12-24 hrs after death & includes – cooling of
body, changes in eye, changes in the skin, PM staining & changes in muscle”- Parikh 6th/ 3.7
“Brain death is irreversible loss of cerebral function”- Reddy 27th/119

70.True about pugilistic attitude:

A. Indicate antemortem burn
B. Indicate postmortem burn
C. Can not differentiate b/w ante & post mortem burn
D. Occur d/t intense heat
E. Indicate defence by victim

Ans: C ( Can ..), D. (D/t intense heat) & E. (indicate defence by victim)

“Pugilistic attitude is present whether a living or dead body is burnt & has therefore no
medicolegal significance”- Parikh 6th/ 4.156

71.Dimercaprol is used in poisoning with:

A. Pb
B. Hg
C. As
D. Acetaminophen

Ans: A (Pb), B. (Hg) & C. (As)

72.Not a grievous hurt:

A. Emasculation
B. Contusion over scalp
C. # of bone
D. Endanger life
E. Severe bodily pain for 15days

Ans: E (Severe bodily pain for 15days)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 21


73.True about Cardiovascular diseases (CVD):

A. Urban & rural areas have equal incidence
B. RHD is a important cause of CVD
C. Primordial prevention is best strategy
D. Coronary heart disease cause 25% of total death

Ans: B. (RHD is ...), C. (Primordial ...) & D. (Coronary ...)

74.All of the following are incinerated except :

A. Mercury
B. Radiological waste
C. Halogen containing plastics
D Human anatomical waste
E. Animal waste

Ans: A. (Mercury), B. (Radiological waste) & C. (Halogen ..)

“Waste types not to be incinerated are : (a) pressurized gas containers; (b) large amount of
reactive chemical wastes; (c) silver salts and photographic or radiographic wastes; (d)
Halogenated plastics such as PVC; (e) waste with high mercury or cadmium content, such as
broken thermometers, used batteries, and lead-lined wooden panels; and (f) sealed ampules or
ampules containing heavy metals”- Park 20th/696

75.Zoonotic disease is/are transmitted by:

A. Ticks
B. Rat flea
C. Sand fly
D. Mosquito
E. Mite

Ans: All

76.The states, where crude birth rate is higher than the national level:
A. West Bengal
B. Maharashtra
C. Rajasthan

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D. Madhya pradesh
E. Himachal pradesh

Ans: C. (Rajasthan) & D. (Madhya pradesh)

CBR(2004 data) India:24.1

MP : 29.8

77.Assessment of Malnutrition is/are done by all except:

A. Creatinine-height index
B. Transferrin
C. Total lymphocyte count
D. Albumin concentration
E. Folate concentration

Ans: None (All option correct) Ref: (CSDT 11th/158)

78.Feature of slow filter (w.r.t fast filter) is/are:

A. Occupies less space
B. Highly skilled operation
C. Poor bacterial quality
D. Take more time for purification
E. Size of sand is smaller

Ans: D. (Take more...) & E. (Size of sand is smaller)

79.Features of RNTCP A/E:

A. Active case findings is not done
B. Included in NRHM in 2005
C. Teachers act as DOTS agent
D. Microscopy centre is established per 1 Lac
E. Achievement of at least 85% cure rate

Ans: B (Included in NRHM in 2005)

“The NRHM has not advocated for integration for malaria, TB & HIV/AIDS program because they
are the part of Milleniun Development Goals”-National health Programs of India by Jugal Kishore

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 23

80.Dispersion of data is measured by:

A. Coefficient of correlation
B. Range
C. Standard deviation
D. Coefficient of variation
E. Normal distribution curve

Ans: B. (Range), C. (Standard deviation) & D. (Coefficient ...)

81. Job functions of Health Assistant male are:

B. Collect smear from any fever case
C. Collection of sputum smear from having person prolonged cough
D. Immunisation
E. Check minimum of 10% house in a village

Ans: B. (Collect ....), D. (Immunisation) & E. (Check minimum ...)

“ORS distribution is function of Health Worker Male & Female”- Park 20th/810-11
“Collection of sputum smear from having person prolonged cough is function of Health Worker
male”- Park 20th/811


82. Postcataract infection can be prevented by:

A. Preop oral antibiotics
B. Postop oral antibiotics
C. Intraop IV antibiotics
D. Postop topical antibiotics

Ans: D (Postop topical antibiotics)

“Role of systemic antibiotics has been severely questioned by the endophthalmitis vitrectomy
study at least for the cases of post cataract surgery endophthalmitis”- Clinical Practice in
Ophthalmology by Sandeep Saxena 1st/414

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 24

83.Features of vernal conjunctivitis are:

A. Shield ulcer
B. Horner-Trantas spots
C. Papillary hypertrophy
D. Herbert pits
E. Pannus

Ans: A. (Shield ulcer), B. (Horner..) & C. (Papillary hypertrophy)

Herbert pits & pannus are feature of trachomaQ- Khurana 4th/64-65

Trantas spots – Presence of discrete whitish raised dots along the limbus in vernal
conjunctivitis.-Khurana 4th/75

84.Cause of Cataract
A. Infrared
B. Microwaves
C. UV rays
D. Obesity

Ans: A (Infrared), C (UV rays) & D (Obesity)

American Academy of Ophthalmology Section 11/56-57 writes “Microwave radiation has been
shown to cause cataracts in laboratory animals. Human case reports and epidemiologic studies
are more controversial and less conclusive than experimental studies” (So should not marked as
an answer).

85.Causes of floaters in DM is:

A. Vitreous hemorrahage
B. Vitreal detachment
C. Maculopathy
D. Infarction

Ans: A (Vitreous hemorrahage)

“Sometimes the onset of new floaters is secondary to vitreous hemorrahage, often caused by
advanced Diabetic retinopathy”- Parson 20th/88

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 25

86.All are true about optic nerve except :

A. Arises from axons of bipolar neurons
B. 4 cm long
C. Covered by 3 layers continuous with meninges
D. Crossed by ophthalmic artery

Ans: A. (Arises from ....) & B. (4 cm long)

87.True about fovea:

A. Cones present
B. Visual acquity lowest
C. Optic nerve passes
D. Rods present
E. Visual acquity highest

Ans: A. (Cones present) & E. (Visual acquity highest)

88.Features of non-proliferative DR is all except:

A. Neovascularisation
B. Soft exudate
C. Hard exudate
D. Vitreous detachment
E. Cotton-wool spot

Ans: A. (Neovascularisation) & D. (Vitreous detachment)

89.A 10 yr boy present with b/l chronic uveitis. Which investigation should be ordered :
A. Hemogram
B. X -ray of sacroiliac jt.
C. HIV test
D. Mantoux test

Ans: A. (Hemogram), B. (X -ray of sacroiliac jt.) & D. (Mantoux test)

90.Surfers ear is:
A. Exostosis
B. Otosclerosis
C. Otitis externa

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 26

D. Squamous cell Ca
E. Fibrous dysplasia

Ans: A (Exostosis)

Exostosis : abnormal bone growth within the ear canal.

91.True about sphenoid sinus:

A. Lined by stratified squamous epithelium
B. Duct open in middle meatus
C. Open in sphenoethmoid recess
D. Present at birth
E. Present in greater wing of sphenoid

Ans: C (Open in sphenoethmoid recess)

92.Not included in oral cavity Ca:

A. Base of tongue
B. Gingivobuccal sulcus
C. Soft palate
D. Hard palate
E. Buccal mucosa

Ans: A. (Base of tongue) & C. (Soft palate)

“The oropharynx includes the base of the tongue and tonsil”- P.L. Dhingra 5th/257
“The palate is divided anatomically into the hard palate (part of the oral cavity) and the soft
palate (part of the oropharynx)” -. emedicine.medscape.com ›Head & Neck Surgery

93.Sampters triad includes:

A. Bronchiectesis
B. Asthma
C. Aspirin sensitivity
D. Nasal polyposis
E. Tinnitus

Ans: B. (Asthma), C. (Aspirin sensitivity) & D. (Nasal polyposis)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 27

94.Mandibular hypoplasia seen in:

A. Usher’s syndrome
B. Treacher-Collins syndrome
C. Crouzon’s syndrome
D. Velocardio-facial syndrome
E. Achondroplasia

Ans: B. (Treacher...), C. (Crouzon’s ...) & D. (Velocardio...)


95.True about PEComa (Perivascular Epithelioid Cell tumour) :

A. Melanin & HMB45 are markers
B. Malignant melanoma variant
C. Contain perivascular epithelioid cells
D. Angiomyolipoma(AML) is a subtype

Ans. A. (Melanin ...), C. (Contain ...) & D. (Angiomyolipoma...)

96.True about third heart sound (H3):

A. Heard in MR
B. Diastolic sound

Ans: A (Heard in MR) & B (Diastolic sound)

97.Investigstions in a clinically suspected case of tuberculosis is done by:

A. Mantoux test (in children)
B. Sputum AFB
C. QuantiFERON-TB Gold
D. Bactec

Ans. All (A,B,C,D& E)

98.All are true about Zollinger Ellison syndrome except:

A. Surgery is done
B. Exocrine tumour
C. Endocrine disorder
D. Secretory diarrhoea seen
E. Metastasis seen

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 28

Ans. B (Exocrine tumour)

99.True about malignant melanoma:

A. Lymphatic spread
B. Lymph node biopsy is always done
C. Biopsy to be done when sentinel node is involved
D. Microsatellitism seen

Ans: All

100.True about Septic shock

A. ↓ Cardiac output is initially present
B. Vascular dilation
C. Hypotension is a late sign
D. Widespread endothelial dysfunction

Ans: B. (Vascular dilation), C. (Hypotension ...) & D. (Widespread ...)

101.True statement about GERD:

A. Associated with H.pylori
B. Fundoplication is done
C. Smoking is protective
D. PPI is used in treatment
E. Bernstein test is done

Ans: B. (Fundoplication ...), D. (PPI is used ...) & E. (Bernstein ...)

102.Which of the following manifestation of Crohn’s Disease do not respond to treatment/occur after
A. Pyoderma gangrenosum
B. Primary scleorosing colitis
C. Erythema nodosum
D. Nephrolithiasis
E. Ankylosing spondylitis

Ans: A. (Pyoderma...), B. (Primary...), D. (Nephrolithiasis) & E. (Ankylosing ...)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 29

103.Manifestation (s) of hypokalemia includes:

A. Prominent U wave
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Diarrhoea
D. Tetany
E. Muscle cramp

Ans: A. (Prominent ...), B. (Rhabdomyolysis), D. (Tetany) & E. (Muscle cramp)

104.True about Myasthenia gravis :

A. Defect at myoneural junction
B. ↑ Ach receptor
C. ↓Ach receptor
D. Thymoma occur
E. Autoimmune disease

Ans. A. (Defect...), C. (↓Ach receptor), D. (Thymoma...) & E. (Autoimmune ...)

105.False statement about extraadrenal pheochromocytoma:

A. 50% extraadrenal
B. May occur in Bladder
C. May occur in thorax
D. Involve carotid body

Ans : A (50% extraadrenal)

106.Feature of NF1 are:

A. Axillary freckle
B. Ash leaf macules
C. Optic glioma
D. Acoustic neuroma
E. Family history

Ans: A. (Axillary ...), B. (Ash ...), C. (Optic glioma) & E. (Family ...)

107.Reactive arthritis is a/w

A. C jejuni
B. Yersenia
C. Salmonella

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 30

D. Chlamydia
E. Mycoplasma

Ans: A. (C jejuni), B. (Yersenia), C. (Salmonella) & D. (Chlamydia)

108. All are true about congenital erythropoetic porphyria except :

A. Can occur from infancy to adult
B. Erythrodontia
C. Ferrochelase def.
D. Corporophyrin III in urine
E. Uroporphyrin in urine

Ans: C. (Ferrochelase def.) & D. (Corporophyrins ...)

109.Drug used in unstable angina & NSTEMI :

A. Morphine
B. Aspirin
C. Nitrates
D. Thrombolytic agents

Ans: All

110.Causes of secondary hypertension are:

A. Old age
B. Parenchymal kidney disease
C. Pregnancy
D. Hypothyroidism

Ans: All

111.Severe diarrhea is associated with:

A. Met acidosis
B. Met alkalosis
C. Normal anion gap
D. Inc. anion gap

Ans: A (Met acidosis) & C (Normal anion gap)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 31

112.Nephrogenic dibetus insipidus causing drugs are:

A. Li
B. Demeclocycline
C. Acyclovir
D. Amphotericin B

Ans: A. (Li), B. (Demec..) & D. (Amphotericin B)

113.Thrombotic thrombocytopenic microangiopathy are seen in:

D. Polycythemia

Ans: A. (TTP), B. (DIC) & C. (HUS)

114.Anti ds DNA is specific for:

B. Systemic sclerosis
C. Wegener granulomatosis

Ans. A (SLE)

115.All are feature of Sjogren syndrome except:

A. Interstitial nephritis
B. Subcutaneous fibrosis
C. Lack of tear
D. Xerostomia
E. More common in male

Ans: B (Subcutaneous fibrosis) & E (More common in male)

116.Extra articular manifestation of RA are all except:

A. Subcutaneous nodule
B. Renal failure
C. Spleen atrophy
D. Scleritis
E. Pleural effusion

Ans: B (Renal failure) & C (Spleen atrophy)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 32

117.False about mesial temporal lobe epilepsy :

A. Respond well to medical treatment
B. Most common syndrome associated with tonic clonic seizure
C. MRI is diagnostic
D. Surgery is TOC
E. Hippocampal sclerosis seen

Ans: A ( Respond..) & B (Most..)

118.Hydrogen breath assay is used for:

A. Lactose intolerance
C. H.Pylori

Ans: C (H.Pylori)

119.True about pulmonary sarcoidosis :

A. Schaumann & asteroid bodies are present
B. CD4/CD8 <2.5
C. Non caseating granuloma
D. Intravascular granuloma
E. Perihilar & peribronchial granuloma

Ans. A (Schaumann..)C. (Non caseating ...), D. (Intravascular ...) & E. (Perihilar ...)

120.Sclerodema like disorder is/ are caused by:

A. Vinyl chloride
B. Bleomycin
C. Aromatic hydrocarbon
D. Pentazocine
E. Gold

Ans. A. (Vinyl ...), B. (Bleomycin), C. (Aromatic ...) & D. (Pentazocine)

121.Not a risk for cholangio ca

A. Hepatolithiasis
B. Hepatitis C
C. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Choledocholithiasis

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 33

E. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Ans: None

122.True about wegener’s granulomatosis:

A. Sinusitis
B. CD4/CD8 ratio reversed (Confirm as answer or not)
C. ANA positive
D. Hypocomplementia

Ans: A. (Sinusitis) & C. (ANA positive)


123.True about parotid tumor:

A. Facial nerve involvement indicates malignancy
B. Pleomorphic adenoma is MC variety
C. Malignant disease is MC variety

Ans: AB

124.All are true about amoebic liver abscess except:

A. Metronidazole is mainstay of treatment
B. Multifocal abscess can not be treated by aspiration
C. More common in left side
D. More common in female

Ans: C (More common in left side) & D (More common in female)

125.True about Hirschprung's disease :

A. Aganglionic segment is contracted not dilated
B. Descending colon is most common site of aganglionosis
C. Barium enema is diagnostic
D. It is seen in infants & children only
E. Barium enema show calcification

Ans: A (Aganglionic segment is contracted not dilated)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 34

126.True about Ischemic rest pain :

A. More in night
B. MC in calf muscle
C. Increase upon elevation of limbs
D. Relieved by dependent position
E. Often associated with trophic changes

Ans. All

127.All are true about intermittent claudication except :

A. Most common in calf muscle
B. Pain is positional
C. Atherosclerosis is important predisposing factor
D. Relieved by rest

Ans: B (Pain is positional)

128.Hypogastric pain arise from:

A. Uterus
B. Left colon
C. Urinary bladder
D. Gall Bladder

Ans: ABC

129.True about Intussusceptions in children :

A. Most common variety is ileocolic
B. A/w pathological lead point
C. May be seen after viral infection
D. Can be relieved by barium enema
E. Surgery is always indicated


130.True about treatment of intussusceptions :

A. Air enema
B. Saline enema
C. Ba enema
D. Hydostatic reduction under sedation
E. Colonoscopy is always done to confirm diagnosis


PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 35

131.True about volvulus

A. Most common in caecum
B. Common in psychiatric pt.
C. Bird's beak sign
D. May present as intestinal obstruction

Ans: B. (Common ....), C. (Bird's ...) & D. (May present ....)

132. About papillary carcinoma true statement is/are:

A. Radiation cause it
B. Multi focal
C. Hematogenous spread is common
D. Distant metastasis is seen
E. More common in iodine deficient area

Ans. A. (Radiation ...), B. (Multi focal), D. (Distant ....) & E. (More common ....)

133.Colonic disease can be diagnosed by all except:

A. Virtual colonoscopy
B. Ba enema
C. Ba swallow
D. Ba meal follow through
E. Enteroclysis

Ans: C (BA..), D (Ba..),E (Enteroclysis)

Ba swallow & Ba meal follow through is meant for upper GI tract (oesophagus,stomach & small

Enteroclysis (Small bowel enema) en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Enteroclysis

• It is a fluoroscopic X-ray of the small intestine.

134.T/t of CBD stone includes

B. Cholecystectomy
C. Ursodeoxy cholic acid
D. Hepatojejunostomy
E. Choledochotomy


PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 36


135.True statement regarding use of antiepileptic drugs in pregnancy:

A. Valproate is associated with NTD
B. Multiple drug should be given
C. Carbamazepine is safe
D. Phenytoin can produces foetal hydantoin syndrome

Ans: A (Valproate is associated ...) & D (Phenytoin ...)

136.Risk factors for pre-eclampsia:

A. Age >35yr
B. Obesity
C. Previous h/o preeclampsia
D. Multigravida
E. Antiphospholipid syndrome

Ans: All

137.True statement (s) regarding Ca cervix involving parametrium but not pelvic involvement:
A. Stage II A
B. Stage II B
C. Radiotherapy should be given
D. Hysterectomy can be useful
E. Staging should be done only after cystoscopy

Ans: B (Stage II B), C ( Radio..) & E ( Staging)

138.In Ca cervix low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) in Bethesda system includes:
D. Squamous metaplasia

Ans:A (CIN I)

139.A 35 yr old P3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy . T/t includes:
A. Cold knife conization
B. Hysterectomy
C. Radical hysterectomy
D. Lap assisted hysterectomy

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 37

Ans: E (LEEP)

“Although CIN can be treated with a variety of techniques, the preferred treatment for CIN 2 and 3
has become LEEP. Hysterectomy is currently considered too radical for treatment of CIN”- Novak’s

140.True statement regarding cholestasis in pregnancy:

A. Reccurs in subsequent pregnancy
B. Ursodeoxyholic acid relieves pruritus
C. Mild jaundice occurs in majority of patients
D. Pruritus may precedes laboratory findings
E. Serum alkaline phosphatase is most sensitive indicator

Ans: A. (Reccurs...), B. (Ursodeoxyholic ...), C. (Mild ...) & D. (Pruritus ....)

141.Oligohydramnios is/are associated with:

A. Neural tube defect
B. Renal agenesis
C. Postmature birth
D. Premature birth

Ans: B. (Renal agenesis) & C. (Postmature birth)

142.True about MRKH (Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser) syndrome:

A. Absent uterus
B. Absent ovary
C. Absent vagina
D. XX phenotype
E. XY phenotype

Ans: A. (Absent uterus), C. (Absent vagina) & D. (XX phenotype)

143.True about Klinefelter syndrome:

C. Male hypogonadism
D. Female hypogonadism

Ans: A. (XXY), C. (Male hypogonadism) & E. (↑FSH)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 38

144.True about PCOS

A. High FSH/LH ratio
B. Unilateral large ovarian cyst in 60-80%
C. Hirsutism
D. ↑ed. risk of DM
E. OCP given for treatment

Ans: C. (Hirsutism), D. (↑ed. risk ...) & E. (OCP given for treatment)

145.Regarding H1N1 influenza in pregnancy, true statement (s) is/are:

A. Oseltamavir is used
B. H1N1 more dangerous in pregnancy
C. Should start t/t only after confirmation of diagnosis

Ans: A. (Oseltamavir is used) & B. (H1N1 more ...)

146.True regarding changes during pregnancy:

A. Hyperplasia of parathyroid
B. Hyperplasia of thyroid
C. Increased Pigmentation
D. ↓ BMR
E. ↑ Insulin

Ans: A. (Hyperplasia ...), B. (Hyperplasia ...), C. (Increased ....) & E. (↑ Insulin)

147.True about vaccum extraction of fetus :

A. Can be used in non dilated cervix
B. Can be used in incompletely dilated cervix
C. Used in face presentation
D. Applied 3cm post. to Anterior fontanelle
E. Applied 3cm ant. to post fontanelle

Ans: B (Can be used ...) & E (Applied 3cm ....)

148.True about MgSO4

A. Tocolytic
B. Used in Management of eclampsia
C. Cause neonatal respiratory depression

Ans: A. (Tocolytic), B. (Used in ...) & C. (Cause neonatal ...)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 39

149.True statement regarding ectopic pregnancy :

A. Pregnancy test positive
B. βhCG levels should be >1000 mIU/ml for earliest detection by TVS
C. βhCG levels should be <1000 mIU/ml for earliest detection by TVS
D. Methotrexate is used

Ans: A. (Pregnancy ...), B. (βhCG levels ...) & D. (Methotrexate)

“A intrauterine sac should be visible by TVS when the βhCG levels of approximately 1000
mIU/ml”- COGDT 10th/268

150.All are true about Prelabour rupture of membrane (PROM) except:

A. Amnioinfusion is done
B. Amoxiclav antiobiotic should be given
C. Asceptic cervical examination
D. Steroid is used
E. Preterm labour

Ans: A (Amnioinfusion is done)

151.Prolong latent phase is/are seen in:

A. Placenta praevia
B. Unripe cervix
C. Abruptio placentae
D. Excessive sedation
E. Early epidural analgesia

Ans: B. (Unripe cervix), D. (Excessive sedation) & E. (Early ...)

152.True statement regarding sarcoma botryoides:

A. Involvement of vagina
B. Grape like growth seen
C. Common in old age
D. Malignant

Ans: A. (Involvement ...), B. (Grape like ...) & D. (Malignant)

153.Abortion (in men!!!, misprinted in paper, should be women) is/are caused by:
A. Borrelia recurrentis

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 40

C. Listeria
D. Syphilis

Ans: B. (HIV), C. (Listeria) & D. (Syphilis)


154.What are the complication (s) of pyogenic meningitis in a child:

A. Arachinoidits
B. Mental retardation
C. Status epilepticus
D. Sensorineural hearing loss

Ans: All

155.True statement(s) about posterior urethral valves in neonate:

A. B/l hydroneprhosis may be present
B. Creatinine & urea levels remain normal
C. Enlarge & widen prostatic urethra
D. More common in girls

Ans:A (B/l hydroneprhosis ...) C (Enlarge ...)

156.Organic cause of constipation in infant are all except:

A. High fibre diet
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Hypothyroidism

Ans:A (High fibre diet)

157.True regarding neonatal resuscitation:

A. Ist nasal suctioning done
B. Ist mouth suctioning done
C. Max. length of nasal suctioning is upto 3cm and mouth is upto 5cm
D. Max. length of nasal suctioning is upto 5cm and mouth
upto 3cm

Ans:B (Ist mouth ...) & C (Max. length of ....)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 41

158.A 1 & 1/2 yr child can do:

A. Build tower of 4 blocks
B. Speak 10-25 meaningful word
C. Scribble
D. Points 3-4 body parts
E. Copies parents in task

Ans: B. (Speak 10-25 ...), C. (Scribble) & E. (Copies parents ...)

• Scribbles – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/28

• Tower of 3 blocks – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/28
• Tower of 6 blocks – 2 years O.P. Ghai 7th/28
• Copies parents in task – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/30
• Vocabulary of 10-15 words- 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/30
• Vocabulary of 100 words – 2 yr O.P. Ghai 7th/30
• Point 3-4 body part – 2yr O.P. Ghai 7th/30

159.A child presented with cola coloured urine, proteinuria 2+ & h/o rash 2 week ago. Probable Dx is:
A. IgA nephropathy
D. Wegener Granulomatosis

Ans:B (HSP)


160.True about parosteal osteosarcoma:

A. Same prognosis as medullary type
B. Never go to medulla
C. May involve medulla

Ans: C (May involve medulla)

Devita 7th/1671
• It has a better prognosis than classic osteosarcoma
• It has intramedullary extension

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 42

161.True about carpal tunnel syndrome:

A. Occur in pregnancy
B. Affects medial 3 ½ finger
C. Associated with Hypothyroidism
D. Froment sign positive
E. Median nerve involvement is present

Ans: A. (Occur in ..), C. (Associated ...) & E. (Median nerve ..)

Carpal tunnel syndrome affects lateral 3 ½ fingers

Froment sign is seen in ulnar nerve injury

162.Complication of # radius are:

A. Volkmann’s ischemic contracture
B. Myositis ossificans
C. Infection
D. Tendon rupture
E. Angiodysplasia

Ans: A. (Volkmann ...), B. (Myositis..), C. (Infection) & D. (Tendon...)

163.True about Duputurens contracture:

A. A/w peyronie’s disease
B. First affect index finger
C. Nodule formation & thickening of palmar fascia
D. Amputation may be required

Ans: A. (A/w ...), C. (Nodule ...) & (D. (Amputation...)

The ring finger is affected most commonly.

164.All are true statement regarding talipes equinovarus except:

A. Cubitus valgus
B. Inversion of the foot
C. Abduction of the forefoot
D. Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita causes it
E. Treatment should start after 3 month

Ans: A.(Cubitus valgus ), C (Abduction of the forefoot)& E( Treatment should start after 3 month)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 43

Initial treatment is always nonoperative and should be started as soon as possible, preferably
the day the infant is born.
Adduction of the forefoot occurs.


165. True about propofol :

A. Indicated in egg allergy
B. Can be used in porphyria
C. It is of barbiturate group
D. Used in day care surgery

Ans: B. (Can be ..) & D. (Used in...)

166. True about Bain circuit:

A. Mapleson type B
B. Mapleson type D
C. Can be used for spontaneous respiration
D. Can be used for controlled ventilation
E. Coaxial
Ans: B. (Mapleson..), C. (Can be ...), D. (Can be used ....) & E. (Coaxial)

167. True about Laryngeal mask airway:

A. More reliable than face mask
B. Prevent aspiration
C. Alternative to Endotracheal tube (E.T.T)
D. Does not require laryngoscope & visualisation
E. Indicated in full stomach to prevent aspiration

Ans: A. (More ...), C. (Alternative ...) & D. (Does not ...)

168. True statement regarding pin index:

A. Pin is present on cylinder
B. Pin is present on machine
C. Not effective if wrong gas is filled in cylinder
D. Pin index of air is 2,5

Ans: B. (Pin is ...) & C. (Not effective if ..)

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 44

169. True about Epidural anesthesia:

A. Effects start immediately
B. C/I in coagulopathies
C. Given in subarachnoid space
D. Venous return decreases

Ans: B. (C/I in ...) & D. (Venous ...)


170.Which of the following is/are not the cause of hypopigmentation:

A. Leprosy
B. Pinta
C. Syphilis
D. Pytriasis alba
E. Pytriasis versicolor

Ans: C (Syphilis)

“Pinta: Secondary skin lesion is caused by hyperpigmentation or hypopigmentation”-

Ananthanarayan 8th/378

171. Acantholysis is/are seen in:

B. Impetigo
C. Hailey –Hailey disease
D. Darrier’s disease
E. Pemphigus vulgaris

Ans: C (Hailey ...), D (Darrier’s disease) & E (Pemphigus ...)


172.True about Autism:

A. Persistent delusion
B. Persistent hallucination
C. Incoordinate social interaction
D. Defective reciprocal interaction

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 45

E. Onset after 5 yr

Ans: C. (Incoordinate ....) & D. (Defective reciprocal interaction)

173.SSRI is first line treatment for :

B. Panic disorder
C. Social phobia
D. Post traumatic stress disorder
E. Adjustment disorder

Ans: A. (OCD), B. (Panic disorder), C. (Social phobia), D. (Post ..)

“The SSRIs are now 1st choice drugs for OCD, panic disorder, social phobia, eating disorders,
premenstrual dysmorphic disorder & post traumatic stress disorder.”- KDT 6th/446

174.True about treatment of personality disorder:

A. Antipsychotic drugs are used
B. SSRI used in treatment
C. Behaviour therapy
D. No need of medication

Ans: A. (Antipsychotic..), B. (SSRI ...), C. (Behaviour..) & D. (No need ...)

175.Atypical (Second generation or newer) antipsychotics are:

A. Aripiprazole
B. Risperidone
C. Pimozide
D. Penfluridol
E. Olanzapine

Ans: A. (Aripiprazole), B. (Risperidone) & E. (Olanzapine)

176.Indications of ECT is/are:

A. Psychotic depression
B. Catatonic schizophrenia
C. Cyclothymia

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 46

D. Dysthymia
E. Post traumatic stress disorder

Ans: A. (Psychotic depression) & B. (Catatonic schizophrenia)

177.Features of serotonin syndrome associated with SSRI & MAOIs are:

A. Tremors
B. Agitation
C. Cardiovascular collapse
D. Hypothermia
E. Suicidal tendency

Ans: A. (Tremors), B. (Agitation) & C. (Cardiovascular collapse)

178.Prophylactic blood level of Li is:

A. 0.3 mEq/L
B. 0.6 mEq/L
C. 0.9 mEq/L
D. 1.2 mEq/L
E. 1.5 mEq/L

Ans. B. (0.6 mEq/L), C. (0.9 mEq/L) & D. (1.2 mEq/L)

Neeraj Ahuja 6th/84 writes about Li

Therapeutic LevelsQ = 0.8-1.2 mEq/L
Prophylactic LevelsQ = 0.6-1.2 mE/q


179. Which combination is/are false about T1/2 of radioisotopes:

A. Ra-226 : 1626 years
B. I-131 : 60 years
C. Co-60: 5.26 years
D. Ir-192:74 years
E. Cs-137: 30 years

Ans: B. (I-131 : 60 years) & D. (Ir-192:74 years)

T1/2 of Ir-192 is 74 days & I-131 is 8 days

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 47

180. Radium emits:

A. α Rays
B. β Rays
C. γ Rays
D. Neutron
E. X-rays

Ans: A. (α Rays), B. (β Rays), C. (γ Rays) & D. (Neutron)

182. Left sided cardiac bulge seen on chest X-ray is/are d/t to:
A. Enlargement of left atrial appendage
B. Azygous vein enlargement
C. Coronary artery aneurysm
D. Pulmonary edema
E. Right atrial hypertrophy

Ans: A (Enlargement of left atrial appendage)

183. Figure of eight is seen in:

A. Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC)
B. Transposition of great arteries (TGA)
D. Ebstein anomaly

Ans: A (Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC))

184. Earliest investigation for diagnosing Ankylosing spondylitis is :

A. MRI STIR sequence
B. Bone scan
C. CT scan
D. X-ray

Ans: A (MRI STIR sequence)

Dynamic MRI with either short tau inversion recovery (STIR) sequence or T1-weighted images with
contrast enhancement, is highly sensitive and specific for identifying early intraarticular
inflammationQ, cartilage changes, and underlying bone marrow edema in sacroiliitis.

PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Review 48

185. For renal stone, diagnosis is not done by:

B. X-ray
C. PET- Scan
E. CT scan

Ans: C (PET- Scan)

186. 1 Becquerel is equal (Disintegration/sec) to:

A. 3.7 x 1010
B. 2.7 x 1010
C. 1.7x 1010
D. 3.7x 10-2
E. 1

Ans: E (1)

1Bq= 1 disintegration/second
1 Curie (Ci)= 3.7 x 1010 disintegration/second

187. Isotopes used in relief of metastatic bone pain includes:

A. Strontium-89
B. I-131
C. Gold-198
D. P-32
E. Rhenium-186

Ans: A. (Strontium-89), B (I-131) & D(P-32) & E. (Rhenium-186)

188. Teardrop bladder seen in :

A. Pelvic hematoma
B. Pelvic lipomatosis
C. T.B
D. Neurogenic bladder
E. Intraperitoneal bladder rupture

Ans: A.(Pelvic hematoma) & B. (Pelvic lipomatosis)

“Extraperitoneal bladder rupture causes teardrop bladder or Pear-shaped bladder”- Radiology

Review Manual by Wolfgang Dahnert 5th/ 975