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IN MATHEMATICS (7840, 7842 and 7844)

These specimen question papers and mark schemes are intended to accompany the OCR Advanced

Subsidiary GCE and Advanced GCE specifications in Mathematics for teaching from September

2000.

Centres are permitted to copy material from this booklet for their own internal use.

The GCE awarding bodies have prepared new specifications to incorporate the range of features

required by new GCE and subject criteria. The specimen assessment material accompanying the new

specifications is provided to give centres a reasonable idea of the general shape and character of the

planned question papers in advance of the first operational examination.

CONTENTS

Question Paper Page 5

Mark Scheme Page 9

Question Paper Page 53

Mark Scheme Page 57

Question Paper Page 85

Mark Scheme Page 89

Question Paper Page 117

Mark Scheme Page 121

A2

Question Paper Page 13

Mark Scheme Page 17

Question Paper Page 21

Mark Scheme Page 25

Question Paper Page 29

Mark Scheme Page 33

Question Paper Page 37

Mark Scheme Page 41

Question Paper Page 45

Mark Scheme Page 49

A2 continued

Question Paper Page 61

Mark Scheme Page 65

Question Paper Page 69

Mark Scheme Page 73

Question Paper Page 77

Mark Scheme Page 81

Question Paper Page 93

Mark Scheme Page 97

Question Paper Page 101

Mark Scheme Page 105

Question Paper Page 109

Mark Scheme Page 113

Question Paper Page 125

Insert Page 133

Mark Scheme Page 137

Specimen Materials 4 © OCR 2000

Mathematics Oxford, Cambridge and RSA Examinations

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P1

Pure Mathematics 1

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use only a scientific calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1 (i) Write down the exact value of 7 − 2 . [1]

(x x )3

(ii) Simplify . [2]

2 x4

y = x 2 − 3x + 2, y = 3x − 7. [4]

3 The point A has coordinates (7, 4) . The straight lines with equations x + 3 y + 1 = 0 and 2x + 5 y = 0

intersect at the point B. Show that one of these two lines is perpendicular to AB. [6]

15 cos 2 θ = 13 + sin θ

may be written as a quadratic equation in sin θ . [2]

Hence solve the equation, giving all values of θ such that 0 ° ≤ θ ≤ 360 ° . [5]

cos x° = cos(x − 60)°

for values of x between 0 and 360. Indicate clearly on your diagram how the solutions relate to the graphs.

[3]

cos(10 x)° = cos(10 x − 60 )°

lie between 0 and 360. (You should explain your reasoning briefly, but no further detailed working or

sketching is necessary.) [2]

4

6 (i) Evaluate ∫0 x(4 − x) dx . [3]

(ii)

The diagram shows the curve y = x (4 − x ) , together with a straight line. This line cuts the curve at

the origin O and at the point P with x-coordinate k, where 0 < k < 4 .

(a) Show that the area of the shaded region, bounded by the line and the curve, is 16 k 3 . [4]

(b) Find, correct to 3 decimal places, the value of k for which the area of the shaded region is half of

the total area under the curve between x = 0 and x = 4 . [2]

f( x) = x 2 + kx + 9 ,

where k is a constant. It is given that the equation f(x ) = 0 has two distinct real roots. Find the set of

values that k can take. [3]

(i) express f(x) in the form ( x + a )2 + b , stating the values of a and b, and hence write down the least

value taken by f(x) , [4]

(ii) solve the equation f(x ) = 0 , expressing your answer in terms of surds, simplified as far as possible. [3]

8 The equation of a curve is y = 6 x2 − x3 . Find the coordinates of the two stationary points on the curve,

and determine the nature of each of these stationary points. [6]

The gradient at the point M on the curve is 12. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve at M. [4]

BLANK PAGE

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P1

Pure Mathematics 1

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1

1 (i) 49 B1 1 Correct value stated as final answer

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1

( x x )3 x 42

(ii) = 4 M1 Power 3 × 1 12 or 3 + 1 12 in numerator

2x 4 2x

1

1 1

2

x 2 or 2

x A1 2 Or any equally simple equivalent

x 2 − 6x + 9 = 0 A1 Correct 3-term equation in x

x = 3 only A1 Obtained by any correct solution method

y = 2 only A1 If two values of x are found both y-values

must follow correctly

y + 7 y + 7 + 2

2

OR : y = − 3 M1 Eliminate x to obtain an equation in y only

3 3

y2 − 4y + 4 = 0 A1 Correct 3-term equation in y

y = 2 only A1 Obtained by any correct solution method

x = 3 only A1 4 If two values of y are found both x-values

must follow correctly

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) The line y = 3x − 7 is the tangent to the curve

y = x 2 − 3 x + 2 at the point (3, 2) B1 1 For identifying tangency

3 Solve x + 3y + 1 = 0 and 2x + 5y = 0 simultaneously M1 Attempt soln and obtain at least one answer

x = 5, y = − 2 at B A1 Identify correct coordinates with B, either

explicitly or implicitly

4 − ( −2)

Gradient of AB is =3 A1 For simplified follow-through value

7 −5

Gradients of the lines are − 13 and − 25 B1 For either gradient correctly stated or used

Perpendicular lines require m1m2 = −1 M1 Any statement or use of the correct relation

AB is perpendicular to x + 3y + 1 = 0 A1 6 Correct use of 3 × − 13 = − 1 , or equivalent

15sin 2 θ + sin θ − 2 = 0 A1 2 Any correct 3-term form

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(5 sin θ + 2)( 3sin θ − 1) = 0 M1 Any recognisable solution method attempted

sin θ = − 25 or 1

3

A1 Both correct values

θ = 19 .5 °, 160 . 5°, 203 .6 °, 336 .4 ° A1 For any one correct value

A1 For a second correct value

A1 5 For both remaining values, and no others

5

B1 1 Correct y = cos x over (0, 360) ; ignore

anything outside this interval

---------------------------------------------------------------------------

M1 Translation parallel to the x-axis recognised

A1 2 For correct y = cos(x − 60) throughout

(0, 360) ; ignore anything outside this

interval

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Indicate use of points of intersection on diagram B1 For identifying the points, not necessarily

the x-coordinates

x = 30 , 210 B1 For either correct value

B1 3 For second correct value and no others

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Graphs are ‘squashed’ ×10 in the x-direction M1 Or any equivalent method

There are 20 solutions A1 2 10 × their number of solutions above

6 (i) Expand to 4 x − x 2 and integrate M1 At least one integrated term with correct

power

[2x 2 − 13 x 3]04 A1 Correct indefinite integral

32 − 643

= 323

A1 3 Follow correct use of limits 4 and 0

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

k

(ii) (a) ∫0 x(4 − x) dx = 2k 2 − 13 k 3 B1 Follow their earlier indefinite integral

terms of k

= 2k −2 1 3

2

k A1 Correct simplified expression

Shaded area = 2k − 2 1 3

3

k − ( 2k −

2 1 3

2

k ) = 1 3

6

k A1 4 Given answer correctly obtained

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(b) 16 k 3 = 12 × 32 3

M1 Using previous results correctly to form an

equation for k

k = 3 .175 A1 2 Correct 3dp value

( k − 6)(k + 6) > 0 M1 Factorise or carry out other solution method

k < −6, k > 6 or k > 6 A1 3 Do not allow 6 < k < −6

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(i) EITHER : ( x − 2 3) 2 + 9 − ( 2 3) 2 M1 May be implied by correct a and/or b

a = −2 3 A1

b = −3 A1

Least value of f( x) is −3 B1 Their value of b

a = −2 3 A1

b = −3 A1

Least value of f( x) is −3 B1 4 Their value of b

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Critical values where x − 2 3 = ± 3 M1 Or equivalent, via quadratic formula

x = 3 or 3 3 A1 For either critical value correctly obtained

A1 3 For completely correct answer; allow 27

dy

8 = 12 x − 3x2 B1 Correct derivative stated or used

dx

3x(4 − x) = 0 M1 Equate to zero and factorise, or equivalent

x = 0 and 4 A1

Stationary points are (0, 0) and ( 4, 32) A1

d2 y + 12 when x = 0

= 12 − 6x = M1 Or other correct alternative method

dx 2 − 12 when x = 4

(0, 0) is a minimum and ( 4, 32) is a maximum A1 6 Correct conclusion from correct working

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

x < 0, x > 4 B1 Either interval stated

B1 2 Both intervals, and no others, correct

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

dy

12x − 3x 2 = 12 M1 Equate to 12 and solve for x

dx

x=2 A1

Tangent passes through ( 2, 16) with gradient 12 M1 Use of straight line equation with numerical

gradient and numerical coordinates of M

y = 12x − 8 A1 4 Any correct equivalent 3-term form

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P2

Pure Mathematics 2

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1 The cubic polynomial 3x 3 − 7 x 2 − 18 x − 8 is denoted by f(x) . Use the factor theorem to show that ( x + 1)

is a factor of f(x) . [2]

1.01n − 100 < 10 . [3]

2

The diagram shows the region R which is bounded by the curve y = , the x-axis, and the lines x = 1

x +1

and x = 5 . Use integration

(i) to find the area of R, giving your answer as a single logarithm, [4]

(ii) to show that the volume of the solid formed when R is rotated completely about the x-axis is 43 π . [4]

θ = 200 − 180 e− 0.1t .

(i) State the value which the oven’s temperature approaches after a long time. [1]

(ii) Find the time taken for the oven’s temperature to reach 150 °C . [3]

(iii) Find the rate at which the temperature is increasing at the instant when the temperature reaches

150 °C . [4]

6

The diagram shows a semicircle ABC on AC as diameter. The mid-point of AC is O, and angle

AOB = θ radians , where 0 < θ < 12 π . The area of the segment S1 bounded by the chord BC is twice the

area of the segment S2 bounded by the chord AB. Show that

3θ = π + sin θ . [4]

θ = 13 (π + sin θ ),

together with a suitable starting value, to find θ correct to 3 decimal places. You should show the value of

each approximation that you calculate. [4]

1

f : x a 1 + x2 x ≥ 0,

g : x a x2 x ∈ R.

(iii) Find and simplify an expression for fg(x) for the case where x ≥ 0 . [2]

(v) Sketch the graph of y = fg(x ) , for both positive and negative values of x, and give the equation of this

graph in a simplified form. [3]

8 (i) A sequence of positive integers u1, u2 , u3, K is given by

u1 = 2 and un +1 = 2un for n ≥ 1 .

(a) Write down the first four terms of this sequence. [1]

(b) State what type of sequence this is, and express un in terms of n. [2]

(a) Show that the relation between v n+ 1 and vn may be written in the form

v n+1 − 1 = 2(v n − 1) . [1]

(b) Hence, by using the results in part (i), show that vn = 2 n + 1 for n ≥ 1 . [2]

(iii) The sum of the first N terms of the sequence v1, v2, v3, K is denoted by SN , i.e.

S N = v1 + v2 + v3 + K + vN .

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P2

Pure Mathematics 2

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1 f( −1) = − 3 − 7 + 18 − 8 = 0 M1 Substitute x = −1 and evaluate

Hence ( x + 1) is a factor A1 2 Zero correctly obtained, and conclusion

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

f( x) = ( x + 1)(3 x 2 − 10 x − 8) M1 Carry out division (trinomial quotient) or

attempt factorisation by inspection (3 terms

with at least 3x 2 and ±8 )

A1 Correct quadratic factor

Answer ( x + 1)( 3x + 2)( x − 4) A1 3

B1 2 Completely correct solution set

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

ln 90 < n ln 1 .01 < ln 110 M1 Correct use of logs in any equation or

inequality of the form 1.01n = c

452 . 2 < n < 472 .4 A1 Either value, in exact or decimal form

453 to 472 inclusive A1 3 Allow any clear notation

1 + x + x 2 + x3 + x4 + x5

5 5 5 5 5

3 M1

1 2 3 4 5

1 + 5x + 10x2 + 10x3 + 5x 4 + x5 A1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1 + 5( y + y 2 ) + 10 ( y + y 2 ) 2 + 10 ( y + y 2 )3 + K M1 May be implied

y 4 occurs in ( y + y2 ) 2 , ( y + y2 ) 3 and ( y + y2 ) 4 M1 Expand or pick out the relevant terms in at

least two of these cases

10 y 4 + 30 y4 + 5 y 4 A1 At least two of the three terms correct

Coefficient of y 4 is 45 A1 4 Allow answer 45 y 4

5 5

(i) ⌠ dx = 2 ln(x + 1)

2

4 1

M1 For indefinite integral involving a log

⌡1 x + 1

A1 Correct indefinite integral 2 ln( x + 1)

2 ln 6 − 2 ln 2 = ln 9 M1 Use of both limits and at least one law of logs

A1 4 Correct simplified answer ln 9

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) V = π ∫ y2 dx B1 Correct formula stated or used

π [− 4( x + 1) −1] 1

5

M1 Integration attempt with negative index result

A1 Correct indefinite integral − 4( x + 1) −1

π ( − 46 + 2) = 43 π A1 4 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) 150 = 200 − 180 e− 0. 1t ⇒ e −0 .1t = 18 5

M1 Substitute θ = 150 and rearrange

− 0.1t = ln(18

5

) M1 Take logs correctly

Answer 12.8 minutes A1 3 Allow answer t = 12.8 without units

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

dθ

(iii) Rate of increase of temperature is B1 Recognition may be implied

dt

dθ dθ

= 18 e −0.1t M1 Attempt at involving a term k e− 0. 1t

dt dt

A1 Correct differentiation

Answer 5 °C per minute A1 4 Follow value of t or e −0.1t from (ii)

6 Area of S2 is 2

r (θ

1 2

− sin θ ) B1

Area of S1 is 2

r (π

1 2

− θ − sin(π − θ )) B1

Hence r (π

1 2

2

− θ − sin θ ) = 2 × 12 r 2 (θ − sin θ ) M1 Equate and attempt to simplify sin(π − θ )

i.e. 3θ = π + sin θ A1 4 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

A suitable initial value is θ = 1 (e.g.) B1 State or use any θ1 such that 0 ≤ θ1 ≤ 12 π

θ 2 = 13 (π + sin θ1) = 1. 327... (e.g.) M1 For one iteration using correct formula

A1 For correct θ 2 from their θ1

θ ≈ 1. 374 A1 4 For correct answer and sufficient iterations

to justify 3dp accuracy

i.e. x ≥ 1 A1 2 Allow any intelligible notation

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) y = 1 + x ⇒ x = ( y − 1) 2 M1 Attempt to solve for x

f −1 ( x) = ( x − 1) 2 A1 2 For answer ( x − 1) 2 or x 2 − 2 x + 1 ; do not

allow final answer in terms of y

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1

(iii) fg(x) = 1 + ( x 2 ) 2 M1 Attempt composition in the correct order

=1+ x A1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iv) g(− 2) = 4, f(4) = 3 B1 1 Intermediate value 4 must be seen

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(v)

B1 Sketch reflection in the y-axis for x ≤ 0 only

y = 1+ x B1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(b) This is a geometric progression B1 No need to state first term or ratio here

Hence u n = 2 × 2 n −1 = 2 n B1 2 For simplified answer 2 n

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) (a) vn +1 = 2vn − 1 ⇒ vn+1 − 1 = 2vn − 2 = 2( vn − 1) B1 1 Given result correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(b) vn − 1 satisfies same relation as un M1 For making the connection to part (i)

Hence vn = un + 1 = 2 n + 1 A1 2 Given result correctly shown; no need for an

explicit check that 3 = 2 + 1

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) Σvn = Σ(2 n ) + Σ(1) M1 For considering the two separate sums (use

of Σ notation is not expected in this module)

2(2 − 1)

N

= +N B1 For correct unsimplified GP sum

2 −1

B1 For correct statement of Σ(1) = N

N +1

= 2(2 N − 1) + N or 2 +N−2 A1 4

BLANK PAGE

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P3

Pure Mathematics 3

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use only a scientific calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

Expand (1 − 2 x )− 2 in ascending powers of x, up to and including the term in x 2 .

1

1 [3]

State the set of values of x for which the expansion is valid. [1]

sin( x + 30 °) + 3 cos(x + 30 °) ≡ 2 cos x ,

where x is measured in degrees. [3]

⌠

sin 3 x sin 2x dx ,

⌡

giving your answer in terms of x. [6]

4 Find the centre and radius of the circle with equation x2 + y2 = 6 x . [2]

The line x + y = k is a tangent to this circle. Find the two possible values of the constant k, giving your

answers in surd form. [5]

5 The points A and B have coordinates (3, 2, 4) and (4, 4, − 3) respectively. The line l1 , which passes

through A, has equation

3 5

r = 2 + t 1 .

4 1

4 2

r = 4 + s 1 .

− 3 − 2

Show that the lines l1 and l2 intersect, and find the coordinates of their point of intersection. [5]

6 The parametric equations of a curve are

x = a sin θ , y = aθ cos θ ,

dy

where a is a positive constant and 0 < θ < 12 π . Find in terms of θ , and hence show that the gradient

dx

1

of the curve is zero where tanθ = . [6]

θ

1

By sketching a suitable pair of graphs, show that the equation tanθ = is satisfied by just one value of θ

θ

in the relevant range. [2]

Determine, with reasons, whether this value of θ is greater or less than 14 π . [2]

15 − 13x + 4 x2

7 Express in partial fractions. [5]

(1 − x)2 (4 − x)

3

⌠ 15 − 13x + 4 x 2

(1 − x )2(4 − x) dx = 1 + ln 4 . [5]

⌡2

A cylindrical container has a height of 200 cm. The container was initially full of a chemical but there is a

leak from a hole in the base. When the leak is noticed, the container is half-full and the level of the

chemical is dropping at a rate of 1 cm per minute. It is required to find for how many minutes the

container has been leaking. To model the situation it is assumed that, when the depth of the chemical

remaining is x cm, the rate at which the level is dropping is proportional to x . Set up and solve an

appropriate differential equation, and hence show that the container has been leaking for about 80 minutes.

[10]

BLANK PAGE

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P3

Pure Mathematics 3

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

( − 12)( − 23)

1 1 + (− 12)( −2x) + (−2 x) 2 + K M1 Either x or x 2 term correct (unsimplified)

2

1 + x + 32 x 2 A1 For 1 + x correct

A1 3 For + 32 x 2 correct

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

x < 12 or − 12 < x < 12 B1 1

2

sin(x + 30°) = sin x cos 30° + cos x sin 30°

cos(x + 30°) = cos x cos 30° − sin x sin 30° } B1 Both expansions correct

1

2

3 sin x + 12 cos x + 3 ( 12 3 cos x − 12 sin x) B1 Both exact values substituted throughout

1

2

cos x + 3

2

cos x = 2 cos x B1 3 Given result shown correctly

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

sin 45° + 3 cos 45 ° = 2 cos15° M1 Substitute x = 15° and use exact values for

sin 45 ° and cos 45 °

1+ 3

cos15 ° = A1 2 Allow any equivalent surd form

2 2

du

3 = cos x B1 Or equivalent; may be implied

dx

sin 2 x = 2 sin x cos x B1 Stated or used

A1 Correct simplified integral in terms of u

2 5

5

u +c = 2

5

sin 5 x+c M1 Integrate and substitute back

A1 6 Correct answer in terms of x (including +c )

Centre is (3, 0) and radius is 3 A1 Both correct

Radius g 2 + f 2 − c is 3 B1 2 Ditto; allow this mark for a correct radius

even if there appears to be a sign error in g

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

EITHER : x2 + ( k − x) 2 = 6 x or (k − y )2 + y 2 = 6 (k − y) B1 Eliminate x or y completely

2 x2 − (2 k + 6) x + k 2 = 0 or

2 y 2 − (2 k − 6 ) y + (k 2 − 6 k ) = 0 M1 Simplify to quadratic form

( 2k + 6) 2 − 8k 2 = 0 or ( 2k − 6) 2 − 8(k 2 − 6 k) = 0 M1 Equate discriminant to zero

k 2 − 6k − 9 = 0 A1 Or any equivalent 3-term quadratic in k

k = 3±3 2 A1 Allow any equivalent exact form

Perpendicular diameter is y − 0 = +1( x − 3) M1 Using their (3, 0) and perpendicular gradient

x2 + ( x −3) 2 = 6 x or ( y + 3)2 + y2 = 6( y + 3) M1 Substitute, and solve for x or y

x = 3 ± 32 2 , y = ± 32 2 A1 At least one correct value of each

k = 3±3 2 A1 5 For both values, in any equivalent exact form

1

5 AB = 2 B1 May be implied

− 7

5

Direction of l1 is 1 B1 May be implied

1

1 × 5 + 2 × 1 − 7 × 1 = 0 , hence result B1 3 Given result correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

3 + 5t = 4 + 2 s, 2 + t = 4 + s, 4 + t = −3 − 2 s B1 All three equations stated

Solve any pair of these equations simultaneously M1

s = − 3, t = −1 A1 For both values correct

Check the solutions in the remaining equation B1

Point of intersection is (−2, 1, 3) A1 5 Allow answer as a position vector

6 x& = a cosθ , y& = a(cosθ − θ sin θ ) M1 Differentiate both, with product rule attempt

A1 Both correct, in any form

dy cosθ − θ sin θ

= M1 Use of y& / x&

dx cosθ

A1 Any correct form, involving θ only

cosθ − θ sin θ dy dy

=0 M1 Equate or to zero

cosθ dx dθ

1

1 − θ tanθ = 0 ⇒ tanθ = A1 6 Given result correctly shown

θ

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

B1 2 Correct conclusion, referring to single point

of intersection

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1 4

EITHER : At θ = 14 π , tanθ = 1 and = > 1 M1 Or equivalent calculation(s)

θ π

Hence root is greater than 14 π A1

θ ≈ 0.86 , so greater than 14 π A1 2

A B C

7 + + B1 Correct form stated or implied

1 − x (1 − x) 2 4 − x

B=2 B1 May be obtained by the ‘cover-up’ rule

C =3 B1 Ditto

15 − 13 x + 4 x 2 ≡ A(1 − x)(4 − x) + B (4 − x) + C (1 − x) 2 M1 Any correct use of this identity to give an

equation involving A

A =1 A1 5

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[− ln1 − x + 2(1 − x) −1

− 3ln 4 − x ] 3

2

B1 For both log terms, allowing omission of

modulus signs at this stage

B1 For + 2(1 − x) −1 , or equivalent

( − ln 2 − 1 − 3 ln1) − (− ln 1 − 2 − 3ln 2) = 1 + ln 4 M1 Use both limits and combine terms

A1 For correct reduction to given form of answer

A1 5 Correct use of modulus throughout (not

dependent on correct answer being reached)

dx dx dx

8 = −k x or =k x M1 Use of for rate of change

dt dt dt

A1 Correct form of equation (with either sign)

dx

x = 100 and = −1 ⇒ k = ( ±)0.1 M1 Attempted evaluation of k from their DE

dt

dx

= −0. 1 x A1 Any equivalent correct form

dt

∫ x− dx = −0.1∫ dt

1

2 M1 Separate and integrate both sides

1 1

2 x = −0.1t + A

2 A1 For both 2x 2 and (±)kt (the numerical

evaluation of k may be delayed until after the

DE is solved)

B1 For one arbitrary constant included, or

equivalent statement of both pairs of limits

x = 200 , t = 0 ⇒ A = 2 200 M1 If limits are used, this mark is combined with

the following one

2 100 = −0.1t + 2 200 M1 Evaluating t

= 82 .84 K ≈ 80 A1 10 Given result correctly obtained

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P4

Pure Mathematics 4

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1 A sequence of positive integers u1, u 2, u 3 K is defined by

u1 = 1 and un +1 = 3u n + 2 for n ≥ 1 .

u n = 2(3n −1) − 1 . [4]

dy y

− = x,

dx x

giving y in terms of x in your answer. [4]

1

f(r) = .

r(r + 1)

Verify that

2

f(r) − f(r + 1) = . [1]

r(r + 1)(r + 2)

1 1 1

+ +K+ + K. [3]

1.2.3 2 .3 .4 r (r + 1)(r + 2)

Show that the series is convergent, and state the sum to infinity. [2]

4 Find the first three terms of the Maclaurin series for ln( 2 + x) . [4]

Write down the first three terms of the series for ln( 2 − x ) , and hence show that, if x is small, then

2 + x

ln ≈x. [3]

2 − x

5

2 x2 + 3x + 3

y= .

x +1

Find

(i) the equations of the asymptotes of the curve, [3]

(ii) the values of y between which there are no points on the curve. [4]

( x2 + y 2 )2 = a 2( x2 − y 2 ) ,

where a is a positive constant. Show that the equation may be expressed, in polar coordinates, in the form

r 2 = a 2 cos 2θ . [3]

Explain how you can deduce, from the polar form of the equation, that the line θ = 14 π is tangential to the

curve at the pole. [2]

Find the area of the region enclosed by one loop of the curve. [4]

7 (i) Find the value of a for which

a ∞

⌠ 1 1⌠ 1

1 + x 2 dx = 2 1 + x 2 dx . [3]

⌡0 ⌡0

(ii) By means of the substitution x = tan θ , or otherwise, find the exact value of

∞

⌠ x2

(1 + x 2)2 d x . [7]

⌡0

8 The complex number z satisfies the equation z = z + 2 . Show that the real part of z is − 1 . [2]

The complex number z also satisfies the equation z = 2 . By sketching two loci in an Argand diagram,

find the two possible values of the imaginary part of z, and state the two corresponding values of arg z . [5]

(i) Find a quadratic equation whose roots are z1 and z2 , giving your answer in the form az 2 + bz + c = 0

where the coefficients a, b and c are real. [2]

(ii) Determine the square roots of z1 , giving your answers in the form x + iy . [4]

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P4

Pure Mathematics 4

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1 True for n = 1 since 1 = 2 × 30 − 1 B1 Requires at least 1 = 2 − 1

u n +1 = 3{2(3 n −1 ) − 1} + 2 M1 Substitute given un into 3un + 2

= 2(3 n ) − 1 A1 Correct simplification

= 2(3( n −1) +1 ) − 1 , hence result A1 4 Correct conclusion, dependent on all previous

marks and a properly set out proof

−1

2 Integrating factor is e ∫ −x dx

M1 Requires integration attempt

1 1

i.e. e −ln x = A1 Simplify to x −1 or

x x

d y y

= 1 ⇒ = ∫ 1 dx

dx x

M1

x

y = x2 + Ax A1 4

1 1 r+ 2 − r 2

3 − = = B1 1 Given result correctly shown

r (r + 1) (r + 1)( r + 2) r (r + 1)( r + 2) r (r + 1)( r + 2)

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1 1 1 1 1 1 1

− + − + K + − M1 Using differences

2 1.2 2.3 2.3 3.4 n(n + 1) (n + 1)(n + 2)

1 1

− M1 Cancelling pairs of terms

4 2( n + 1)(n + 2)

A1 3 Correct answer; allow any equivalent form

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1

→ 0 as n → ∞ ; convergent B1 Or equivalent argument

2( n + 1)(n + 2)

1

Sum to infinity is 4

B1 2

1

4 EITHER : If f( x) = ln(2 + x) then f ′( x) = , M1 At least one differentiation attempt

2+ x

1

and f ′′( x) = − A1 Correct first and second derivatives

( 2 + x) 2

f( 0) = ln 2, f ′( 0) = 12 , f ′′(0) = − 14 A1 All three correct

ln(2 + x) ≈ ln 2 + 12 x − 18 x 2 A1 Three correct terms

= ln 2 + ln(1 + 12 x) A1

( 12 x)2

≈ ln 2 + 12 x − M1 Use of standard series for ln(1 + kx)

2

= ln 2 + 12 x − 18 x2 A1 4 Three correct terms

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

ln(2 − x) ≈ ln 2 − 12 x − 18 x2 B1 Replacing x by − x

(ln 2 + 12 x − 18 x2) − (ln 2 − 12 x − 18 x2) M1 Subtracting series

2 +x

ln ≈ x A1 3 Given result correctly shown

2− x

2

5 (i) y = 2x + 1 + M1 Algebraic division, or equivalent

x +1

y = 2x + 1 is an asymptote A1

x = −1 is an asymptote B1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) EITHER : Consider discriminant of

2 x2 + (3 − y) x + (3 − y) M1 Form quadratic in x and refer to ∆

(3 − y) 2 = 8(3 − y) A1 Allow equation or inequality

(3 − y)(5 + y) = 0 M1 Or equivalent solution method

y = 3 and − 5 A1

dy 2

OR : = 2− or

dx ( x + 1) 2

( x + 1)( 4x + 2) − (2x 2 + 3x + 3)

M1 Differentiate and equate to zero

( x + 1) 2

( x + 1) 2 = 1 or 2 x 2 + 4 x = 0 A1 Correct simplification

x = − 2 and 0 ⇒ y = 3 and − 5 M1 Solve for x and substitute to find y

A1 4 Both values of y correct

( r 2 cos 2 θ + r 2 sin 2 θ ) 2 = a 2 ( r 2 cos 2 θ − r 2 sin 2 θ ) M1 Substitute, and use at least one trig identity

r = a cos2θ

2 2

A1 3 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

r = 0 ⇒ cos 2θ = 0 M1 Using r = 0 for form at pole

θ = 4 π is a solution

1

A1 2 Given result correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

2∫

1 a 2 cos 2θ d θ = 1 a 2 sin 2θ

4

M1 Using correct formula 12 ∫ r 2 d θ

B1 Indefinite integral of the form k sin 2θ

[ ] or 2[ 2θ ] 0

1π

1 a 2 sin 2θ 4π

1

1 2 4

a sin M1 Using correct limits

4 − 14π 4

Area = 12 a 2 A1 4

RHS = × π

1 1

2 2

B1 Recognising tan−1 ∞ = 12 π

tan−1 a = 14 π ⇒ a = 1 B1 3 Correct answer for a

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

dx

(ii) = sec2 θ B1 Or equivalent; may be implied

dθ

∞ 1

π

⌠ x2 ⌠2 tan2 θ

(1 + x 2) 2 dx = (1 + tan 2 θ ) 2 sec θ dθ

2

M1 Substitute for x and dx throughout

⌡0 ⌡0

1π

= ∫ 2 sin 2 θ dθ M1 Use trig identities to simplify integrand

0

A1 Correct simplification; ignore limits so far

1π

=∫ 2 1 (1− cos 2θ ) dθ

2

M1 Use relevant double-angle formula

0

= [12 θ − 14 sin 2θ ] 20

1π

A1 For correct indefinite integral

= 14 π A1 7 Correct answer and no previous error

8 EITHER : Locus z = z + 2 is a perp bisector M1 For recognis ing linear locus

Hence Re z = −1 A1 Needs mention of points z = 0, z = −2 , or

equivalent

OR : x 2 + y 2 = ( x + 2) 2 + y 2 M1

Hence x = −1 , i.e. Re z = −1 A1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Im z = ± 3 A1

arg z = ± (π − tan− 1(1 / 3) ) M1 Or equivalent correct method for either case

=± 2

3

π A1 5 Both correct

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(i) ( z + 1 + i 3)( z + 1 − i 3) = 0 M1 Form equation and expand LHS; allow any

equivalent complete method

z 2 + 2z + 4 = 0 A1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) EITHER : z1 = 2 ⇒ z1 = 2 B1 For 2

arg z1 = 23 π ⇒ arg( z1) = 13 π or − 23 π B1 For either possibility

± 2 (cos 13 π + i sin 13 π ) M1 Convert either case to cartesian form

x + i y expression

OR : If z1 = x + i y then

− 1 = x2 − y 2 and 3 = 2xy B1 Both equations correct

4 x4 + 4 x 2 − 3 = 0 or 4 y 4 −4 y 2 −3 = 0 M1 Form and solve quadratic in x 2 or y 2

x2 = 1

2

or y 2 = 3

2

A1 Correct single value for x 2 or y 2

z1 = ± ( 1

2

+i 3

2

) A1 4 Both correct; allow any equivalent exact

x + i y expression

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P5

Pure Mathematics 5

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1 The cubic equation x 3 + ax − b = 0 has roots α , β , γ . Given that γ = αβ , express each of a and b in terms

of γ only, and hence show that (a + b) 2 = b . [5]

2 The part of the curve y = x2 between y = 0 and y = 2 is rotated completely about the y-axis. Show that

the area of the curved surface formed is 13

3

π . [5]

3 Starting from the definitions of sinh x and cosh x in terms of exponentials, show that

cosh 2 x ≡ cosh2 x + sinh 2 x . [2]

dy

= 1 + xy ,

dx

with y = 1 when x = 0 , is to be solved numerically by a step-by-step method.

(i) Use two steps of Euler’s method, with step-length 0.1, to find an approximation for the value of y

when x = 0.2 . [3]

(ii) Use one step of the modified Euler method, with step-length 0.2, to find an alternative approximation

for the value of y when x = 0.2 . [3]

e

5 Given that I n = ⌠

(ln x) n dx , show that, for n ≥ 1 ,

⌡1

I n = e − nI n−1 . [4]

x

y=

cosh x

has one maximum point for x > 0 . Show that the x-coordinate of this maximum point satisfies the

equation x tanh x − 1 = 0 . [2]

The positive root of the equation x tanh x − 1 = 0 is denoted by α . Use the Newton-Raphson method,

taking first approximation x1 = 1 , to find further approximations x2 and x3 for α . [4]

7

1

The diagram shows the curve y = together with four rectangles of unit width and heights 1 1 1 1

, , ,

x+1 2 3 4 5

4

⌠ 1

1

+ 13 + 14 + 15 < dx . [2]

⌡0 x + 1

2

1

The curve y = passes through the top left-hand corner of each of the four rectangles shown. By

x+2

considering the rectangles in relation to this curve, write down a second inequality involving 12 + 13 + 14 + 15

and a definite integral. [2]

∑

1000

1

ln( 500 .5) < < ln(1000 ) . [4]

r

r =2

∑

1000

1

Explain briefly how you can deduce that a reasonable estimate for the value of is 6.5. [2]

r

r= 2

8 The phenomenon of ‘resonance’ in a simple electrical circuit can be modelled by the differential equation

d 2V

+ 100V = 2 cos10t ,

dt 2

where V represents the voltage in the circuit and t represents time.

(i) Verify that kt sin 10t is a particular integral for this differential equation, where k is a constant whose

numerical value is to be found. [4]

dV

(iii) Find the particular solution for which both V and are zero when t = 0 . [3]

dt

(iv) By considering the values of V when t becomes large, explain briefly why the mathematical model

cannot give an entirely satisfactory representation of the voltage in the circuit. [1]

BLANK PAGE

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P5

Pure Mathematics 5

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1 α + β + γ = 0, αβ + βγ + γα = a, αβγ = b B1 All three correct, at any stage

γ = αβ ⇒ b = γ2 B1 Correct answer for b

a = γ + γ (α + β ) = γ − γ 2 B1 Correct answer for a

a = γ − b ⇒ (a + b) 2 = γ2 =b M1 Eliminating γ 2 , or equivalent

A1 5 Given result correctly shown

dx 1

2 EITHER : = B1 Or equivalent; may be implied

dy 2 y

2

⌠ 1

Area = 2π y 1 + dy M1 Stating 2π ∫ x ds all in terms of y

⌡0 4y

2

= 2π ⌠

y + 14 dy A1 Or equivalent simplification

⌡0

[ ]

2

= 43 π ( y + 14 )2

3

0

A1 Correct indefinite integral

= 133 π A1 Given result correctly shown

dy

OR : = 2x B1 Or equivalent; may be implied

dx

2

Area = 2π ⌠

x 1 + 4x 2 dx M1 Stating 2π ∫ x ds all in terms of x

⌡0

A1 Correct limits for x

2

= 16 π (1 + 4x 2 )

3

2 A1 Correct indefinite integral

0

= 3π

13

A1 5 Given result correctly shown

−2 x

= (e +

1 2x

2

e ) = LHS A1 2 Correct simplification and conclusion

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

cosh2 x − sinh2 x = 1 B1 May be implied

cosh x = 2 ( k + 1), sinh x = 2 (k − 1)

2 1 2 1

B1 Both correct

sinh x k −1 sinh x

tanh x = =± M1 Using tanh x =

cosh x k +1 cosh x

A1 4 Both values needed

= 1. 1 A1

y2 = 1. 1 + 0. 1 × (1 + 0. 1 × 1.1) = 1.211 A1 3 Allow 3sf value 1.21 correctly obtained

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) ytemp = 1 + 0 .2 × 1 = 1 .2 B1

y1 = 1 + 12 × 0 .2 × {1 + (1 + 0 .2 × 1 .2)} M1 Use of correct modified Euler method

= 1.224 A1 3 Allow 3sf value 1.22 correctly obtained

I n = [x(ln x)n ]1 − ∫ x n(ln x) n−1 x −1 dx

e e

5 M1 Using relevant integration by parts

1

A1 Correct unsimplified result

= e − nI n−1 A1 First term shown to simplify to e

A1 4 Given result fully justified

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

I 4 = e − 4I 3 = e − 4(e − 3I 2 ) = − 3e + 12( e − 2I1) M1 Reduction formula used at least twice

= 9e − 24(e − I 0) = −15e + 24 I 0 A1 For I 4 = −15e + 24 I 0 or 9e − 24 I 0

I 0 = e − 1 or I1 = 1 B1 For either correct

I 4 = 9e − 24 A1 4

dy cosh x − x sinh x

6 = =0 M1 Differentiate and equate to zero

dx cosh2 x

Maximum when cosh x = x sinh x , i.e. x tanh x = 1 A1 2 Given result correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

xn tanh xn − 1

xn+1 = x n− B1

tanh xn + xnsech2xn

x1 = 1 gives x2 = 1.20177K M1 Newton-Raphson used at least once

A1 x2 correct to at least 3sf

x3 = 1.1996785 K A1 4 x3 correct to at least 4sf

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

e1 ≈ 0.2, e2 ≈ −0.002 B1 For both; ignore signs of errors

e3 e2

≈ ⇒ e3 ≈ −2 × 10− 7 M1 Use of quadratic convergence property

e22 e12

A1 3 Ignore sign of answer

RHS is the corresponding area under the curve; hence

result B1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

4

+ 13 + 14 + 15 > ⌠

1

1

dx M1 Attempt at relevant new inequality

2 ⌡0 x + 2

A1 2 Correct statement

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Σ is the area of 999 rectangles M1 May be implied

999 999

Bounds are ⌠ dx and ⌠

1 1

dx M1 Accuracy of 999 not essential here

⌡0 x + 2 ⌡0 x + 1

Lower limit is ln(500 . 5) A1 Given value correct shown

Upper limit is ln(1000 ) A1 4 Ditto

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1

2

{ln(500 .5) + ln(1000 )} = 6 .56 K M1 For considering the average

Round down to 6.5 as it’s an overestimate A1 2 Some reason for given answer 6.5 rather than

6.6 needed

8 (i) V& = k sin 10t + 10kt cos10t and

V&& = 20k cos10t − 100 ktsin 10t M1 Differentiate twice

A1 Correct V& and V&&

20 k cos10 t ≡ 2 cos10 t M1 Substitute throughout the DE

k = 0. 1 A1 4

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) m 2 + 100 = 0 ⇒ m = ±10 i M1 State and solve auxiliary equation

CF is A sin 10 t + B cos10 t A1 Or equivalent

GS is V = A sin 10 t + B cos10t + 0 .1t sin 10 t A1 3 Follow their CF and k

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) V = 0, t = 0 ⇒ 0 = B M1

V& = 0, t = 0 ⇒ 0 = 10 A M1 Differentiate and substitute

Hence V = 0 .1t sin 10 t A1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iv) V is unbounded as t increases; hence unrealistic B1 1 Follow errors if the result remains true

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P6

Pure Mathematics 6

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1 The matrices A and B are given by

cos α − sin α

A =

0

B =

1

− 1 cos α

, ,

0 sin α

respectively. Find the matrix BAB−1 , simplifying your answer. [5]

2 The set G = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is a cyclic group under addition modulo 6, and the set H = {e, p, q, r, s, t} is a

multiplicative group whose group table is shown below.

e p q r s t

e e p q r s t

p p q e t r s

q q e p s t r

r r s t e p q

s s t r q e p

t t r s p q e

The set K = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} is a group under multiplication modulo 7. Determine the order of the element 3

in K, and hence or otherwise determine which of G and H is isomorphic to K. [3]

3 G is a multiplicative group with identity element e. The group is not commutative, but the elements a and

b in G each commute with every element in G, i.e. for any x in G, ax = xa and bx = xb .

(i) Prove that the element ab commutes with every element in G. [2]

(ii) Prove that the element a −1 commutes with every element in G. [2]

(iii) Deduce that the set of all those elements in G which commute with every element in G forms a

subgroup of G. [4]

sin 5θ = sin θ (5 − 20 sin 2 θ + 16 sin 4 θ ) . [4]

5 Write down the six 6th roots of unity. [1]

6

z + 1 = 1 ,

z

show that the values of z satisfying the equation are given by

1

z= 1 kπi ,

e 3 −1

where k is an integer, and state a set of values of k that gives all the roots of the equation. [4]

Express each of these roots of ( z + 1)6 = z 6 in the form x + iy , where x and y are real. [5]

3x + 2 y − z = 10,

5x − y − 4 z = 17,

x + 5 y + az = b,

Show that, for this value of a, the equations are inconsistent unless b = 3 . [2]

For the case where the equations represent three planes having a common line of intersection, L, find

x− p y −q z −r

equations for L, giving your answer in the form = = . [5]

l m n

The diagram shows a cuboid ABCDA'B'C'D' in which the lengths of AB, AD, and AA' are 3a, 2a and a

respectively. The point A is taken as origin, with unit vectors i, j, k in the directions of AB, AD, AA'

respectively.

(i) Find a normal vector for the plane through A', B and C', and find also the perpendicular distance from

D to this plane. [6]

(ii) Find the shortest distance between the skew lines A'B and AD'. [6]

BLANK PAGE

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS P6

Pure Mathematics 6

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

cosα sin α

B −1 =

cosα

1 B1

− sin α

cosα sin α

BA or AB −1 =

− cosα

M1 Correct multiplication process

sin α

A1 Correct product of either pair

BAB −1 = cos 2 α − sin 2 α

2 sin α cosα

sin 2 α − cos2 α

A1 Correct unsimplified product

2sin α cosα

cos 2α sin 2α

=

− cos 2α

A1 5

sin 2α

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Element of H : e p q r s t

(ii) EITHER : B1

Order : 1 3 3 2 2 2

No element of order 6, hence result B1

OR : H is not commutative,

e.g. pr = t, rp = s B1 Counter-example is required

G is commutative, hence result B1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

32 = 2, 33 = 6, 34 = 4, 35 = 5, 36 = 1 M1 At least 3 calculations

The order of 3 in K is 6 A1

K is isomorphic to G B1 3 If not deduced from orders of elements, a

reason is required (e.g. that K is

commutative)

3 (i) ( ab) x = a(bx) = a( xb) = (ax)b = ( xa)b = x(ab) M1 At least one correct interchange

A1 2 Completely correct proof

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) ax = xa ⇒ a −1 ( ax) a −1 = a −1 ( xa)a −1 M1 Pre- and/or post-multiply and simplify at

least once

−1 −1

Hence xa = a x A1 2 Completely correct proof

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) Closure follows from (i) B1

Associativity is true within G B1

Identity is e, since ex = xe B1

Inverses follow from (ii) B1 4

= 5 cos θ sin θ − 10 cos θ sin θ + sin θ

4 2 3 5

A1 All three terms correct

= 5(1 − s 2 ) 2 s − 10 (1 − s 2 )s 3 + s 5 M1 Use of cos2 θ = 1 − sin 2 θ throughout

= sin θ (5 − 20 sin 2 θ + 16 sin 4 θ ) A1 4 Given answer shown correctly

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

θ = 15 π ⇒ sin 5θ = 0 B1

Hence sin(15 π ) is a root of 16s 4 − 20s 2 + 5 = 0 B1

s2 = 18 (5 ± 5) M1 For solving the quadratic in an exact form

sin 2( 15 π ) = 18 (5 − 5) A1 4 Given answer fully justified, e.g. negative

sign chosen since sin 2( 15 π ) is certainly < 12

1

kπ i

5 e3 for k = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B1 1 Or equivalent values for k; allow exponential

trigonometrical or cartesian form for roots

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

z +1

= ω , where ω is a 6th root of unity M1 ω ≠ 1 not required at this stage

z

1

z + 1 = zω ⇒ z = M1 Solving for z

ω −1

1

= 1 A1 Given answer correctly shown

kπ i

e 3 −1

k = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B1 4 Or any correct set of 5 values

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

k = 3 gives real root − 12 B1

− 1 kπ i

e 3 −1

M1 Use of conjugate for general, or for any one

1

kπ − 1 kπ i

− 1)(e − 1)

i

(e 3 3

specific, case

cos 13 kπ − i sin 13 kπ −1

A1 Correct trigonometric or numerical form

2 − 2 cos 13 kπ

− 12 ± ( 12 3 ) i, − 12 ± ( 16 3) i A1 Any one complex root correct

A1 5 All four correct

3 −1 2

6 det 5 − 4 = 0

−1 B1

1 a

5

3(− a + 20) − 2(5a + 4) − ( 25 + 1) = 0 M1 Correct expansion method

A1 Correct unsimplified equation

a= 2 A1 4

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

EITHER : r3 = 2r1 − r2 M1 Complete method for relation between rows

b=3 A1 Given answer correctly shown

3 2 10

OR : det5 −1 17 = 0 M1

1 b

5

b=3 A1 2 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

3 5

Direction of L is 2 × − 1 M1 For relevant vector product, or complete

− 1 − 4

equivalent method

− 9

i.e. 7 A1 Or any multiple

− 13

3x + 2 y − z = 10, 5x − y − 4z = 17 ⇒ 13x − 9z = 44 (e.g.) M1 Solve two equations simultaneously

So ( 2, 1, − 2) lies on L A1 Or any other correct point

x − 2 y −1 z + 2

L is = = A1 5 Or correct equivalent

−9 7 − 13

3a 3a

7 (i) EITHER : A′B = 0, A′ C′ = 2a M1 Or equivalent pair of vectors

− a 0

3a

3a

Normal n is 0 × 2a M1 Or equivalent complete method

− a 0

2

i.e. n = − 3 A1 Or any multiple

6

3a 2

DB.n = − 2a . − 3 = 12a M1 Or other relevant scalar product

0 6

12a

Perpendicular distance is M1 Calculate n and divide

n

= 12

7

a A1

OR : Equation px + qy + rz = s gives

ar = s, 3ap = s, 3ap + 2aq + ar = s M1 Substitute all three points

ap = 13 s, aq = − 12 s, ar = s M1 Solve for p, q, r or p : q : r

2

Normal vector is − 3 A1 Or any multiple

6

Plane is 2 x − 3 y + 6z = 6a M1

Perp distance from ( 0, 2a, 0) is

− 6a − 6a

M1 Relevant use of formula

22 + 32 + 62

= 12

7

a A1 6

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

3a 0

(ii) A′B = 0 , AD′ = 2a B1 Or equivalent

− a a

Direction of common perpendicular is

3a 0

0 × 2a M1

− a a

2

i.e. n = − 3 is perpendicular to both A1 or any multiple

6

0 2

AA′.n = 0 . − 3 = 6a M1 Or equivalent scalar product

a 6

6a 6

Shortest distance is = a M1 Divide by n

n 7

A1 6 Correct answer

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS M1

Mechanics 1

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

–2

Where a numerical value for the acceleration due to gravity is needed, use 9.8 m s .

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1

Two forces, of magnitudes 1 N and 3 N, act on a particle in the directions shown in the diagram. Calculate

the magnitude of the resultant force on the particle and the angle between this resultant force and the force

of magnitude 3 N. [5]

The diagram shows a railway engine of mass 50 tonnes pulling two trucks horizontally along a straight

track. The trucks are coupled together behind the engine and have masses 8 tonnes and 4 tonnes

respectively, starting with the truck nearer to the engine. The acceleration of the train is 0.5 m s−2 .

Assuming that there are no resistances to motion, find

(i) the driving force of the engine, [2]

(ii) the tensions in the two couplings. [4]

Two particles, of masses x kg and 0.1 kg, are moving towards each other in the same straight line and

collide directly. Immediately before the impact, the speeds of the particles are 2 m s−1 and 3 m s−1

respectively (see diagram).

(i) Given that both particles are brought to rest by the impact, find x. [2]

(ii) Given instead that the particles move with equal speeds of 1 m s−1 after the impact, find the three

possible values of x. [6]

4 A moving particle P travels in a straight line. At time t seconds after starting from the point O on the line,

the velocity of P is v m s−1 , where

v = t 2 (6 − t ) .

Show that the acceleration of P is zero when t = 4 . [3]

After a certain time, P comes instantaneously to rest at the point A on the line. State the time taken for the

motion from O to A, and find the distance OA. [5]

5

A heavy ring of mass 5 kg is threaded on a fixed rough horizontal rod. The coefficient of friction between

the ring and the rod is 12 . A light string is attached to the ring and is pulled downwards with a force of

magnitude T newtons acting at an angle of 30° to the horizontal (see diagram). Given that the ring is about

to slip along the rod, find the value of T. [9]

The diagram shows an approximate (t, v ) graph for the motion of a parachutist falling vertically; v m s−1

is the parachutist’s downwards velocity at time t seconds after he jumps out of the plane. Use the

information in the diagram

(i) to give a brief description of the parachutist’s motion throughout the descent, [4]

(ii) to calculate the height from which the jump was made. [2]

The mass of the parachutist is 90 kg. Calculate the upwards force acting on the parachutist, due to the

parachute, when t = 7 . [5]

7 (i)

Particles A, of mass 5m, and B, of mass 3m, are attached to the ends of a light inextensible string. The

string passes over a fixed peg, and the system is released from rest with both parts of the string taut

and vertical, and each particle a distance d above a fixed horizontal plane (see diagram). Neglecting

all resistances to motion,

(a) find the acceleration of A in terms of g and show that the tension in the string is 15 mg , [6]

4

(b) find an expression in terms of d and g for the time after release at which A hits the plane. [2]

(ii) The results in part (i) are based on a mathematical model in which resistances to motion are

neglected. Describe briefly one resisting force, other than air resistance, which would be present in a

real system in which objects of unequal mass, hanging from a string passing over a fixed support, are

in motion. [1]

When this force is taken into account, state with brief reasons whether each of the following would be

smaller or larger than the value calculated in part (i):

(a) the acceleration of A;

(b) the tension in the string acting on A;

(c) the tension in the string acting on B.

What can you conclude about the tension in the string in this case? [4]

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS M1

Mechanics 1

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1 EITHER : ‘Vertical’ component of resultant is 1sin 40o B1

‘Horizontal’ component is 3 + 1cos 40 ° B1

Magnitude is 3 .766 2 + 0 .6428 2 M1 Allow M mark for either Pythagoras or trig

i.e. 3.82 N A1 For correct magnitude

Angle is tan−1

0. 6428

= 9.69 ° A1 For correct angle

3.766

angle of 140º (not 40º) B1 May be implied

R2 = 32 + 12 − 2 × 3 × 1 × cos140° M1 For use of cosine formula with 3, 1, 140 °

Hence magnitude is 3.82 N A1

sin θ sin 140 °

= M1 For sin formula, or other complete method

1 3. 82

Hence angle is 9.69° A1 5

2 (i) Force = (50000 + 8000 + 4000) × 0.5 M1 For use of NII applied to whole system

= 31000 N or 31 kN A1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) For back t ruck: C1 = 4000 × 0.5 M1 Use of NII for the rear truck only

i.e. Force in rear coupling is 2000 N or 2 kN A1

For both trucks: C2 = 12000× 0. 5 M1 Use of NII for the pair of trucks with one

force, or equivalent, i.e. C2 − C1 = 4000 or

31000 − C2 = 25000

i.e. Force in front coupling is 6000 N or 6 kN A1 4 Follow through if earlier answer is used

Hence x = 0. 15 A1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) 2 x − 0.3 = ( x + 0.1) or − ( x + 0.1) or 0. 1 − x M1 For any one relevant momentum equation

A1 For any one correct (unsimplified) equation

M1 For appreciating at least 2 correct cases

Hence x = 0. 4 or 0.0667 or 0.133 A1 For any one correct value

A1 For a second correct value

A1 6 For all three correct answers

dv

4 = 12t − 3t 2 = 0 M1 For expanding v and differentiating

dt

A1 For correct derivative equated to zero

3t(4 − t) = 0, so a = 0 when t = 4 A1 3 Given answer correctly found or verified

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

P reaches A when t = 6 B1

s = ∫ (6t2 − t 3) dt = [2t3 − 14 t4 ]0

6 6

M1 For integrating v

0

A1 For correct indefinite integral

= 432 − 324 M1 Use of limits or evaluation of arbitrary const

Distance OA = 108 m A1 5

5

otherwise

T cos 30° = F A1

Resolving vertically: M1 For attempting a second resolution

5g + T sin 30 ° = R A1 Other correct equations are possible

For limiting equilibrium F = 12 R B1 Available at any stage

A1 Correct unsimplified equation in T only

T = 39. 8 A1 9

6 (i) Initially the parachutist falls with constant acc B1 Allow ‘free-fall’ etc here

Then decelerates at a constant rate B1

Then falls with constant speed B1

And finally hits the ground and comes to rest B1 4

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Area is 12 × 4 × 40 + 12 (40 + 10) × 6 + 10 × 15 M1 For sensible attempt at total area under graph

Height is 380 m A1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

10 − 40

Acceleration when t = 7 is = −5 (downwards) M1 For use of gradient to find acceleration

10 − 4

A1 For value (±)5 even if sign/direction muddle

Hence 90g − T = 90 × ( −5) M1 For use of NII with three relevant terms

B1 For consistent signs in T and ma terms

Force from parachute is 1330 N A1 5

7 (i) (a) Equations of motion for the particles are: M1 For use of NII for either particle separately

5mg − T = 5ma A1 The ‘system’ equation 8mg = 2ma is an

T − 3mg = 3ma A1 alternative for one of these A marks

1

Hence acceleration is 4

g and M1 For finding T or a from sufficient equation(s)

15

Tension is 4

mg A1 For correct acceleration

A1 6 For obtaining given tension correctly

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(b) d = 12 × 14 g × t 2 M1 Use appropriate uvast equation and solve for t

8d

Time is A1 2

g

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Friction between the string and the support B1 1

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(a) Acceleration is smaller, as the resistance

opposes the motion B1

(b) Tension at A is larger, because

TA = 5mg − 5ma , and a is less than before B1

(c) Tension at B is smaller, because

TB = 3ma + 3mg and a is less than before B1

The tensions in the two parts of the string are now

unequal B1 4

BLANK PAGE

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS M2

Mechanics 2

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

–2

Where a numerical value for the acceleration due to gravity is needed, use 9.8 m s .

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1

The diagram shows the cross-section of a uniform solid rectangular block. This cross-section has

dimensions 20 cm by 10 cm and lies in a vertical plane. The block rests in equilibrium on a rough plane

whose inclination α to the horizontal can be varied. The coefficient of friction between the block and the

plane is 0.7. Given that α is slowly increased from zero, determine whether equilibrium is broken by

toppling or sliding. [5]

2 A small ball of mass 0.2 kg is dropped from rest at a height of 1.2 m above a horizontal floor. The ball

rebounds vertically from the floor, reaching a height of 0.8 m. Assuming that air resistance can be

neglected, calculate

(i) the coefficient of restitution between the ball and the floor, [4]

(ii) the impulse exerted by the floor on the ball when the ball bounces. [2]

If air resistance were taken into account, would the value calculated for the coefficient of restitution be

larger or smaller than the value calculated in part (i)? Justify your conclusion. [1]

A uniform lamina ABCD has the shape of a square of side a adjoining a right-angled isosceles triangle

whose equal sides are also of length a. The weight of the lamina is W. The lamina rests, in a vertical

plane, on smooth supports at A and D, with AD horizontal (see diagram).

(i) Show that the centre of mass of the lamina is at a horizontal distance of 11 a from A. [4]

9

(ii) Find, in terms of W, the magnitudes of the forces on the supports at A and D. [4]

4

Fig. 1 shows the cross-section of a hollow container. The base of the container is circular, and is

horizontal. The sloping part of the side makes an angle of 15° with the horizontal, and the vertical part of

the side forms a circular cylinder of radius 0.4 m. A small steel ball of mass 0.1 kg moves in a horizontal

circle inside the container, in contact with the vertical and sloping parts of the side at A and B respectively,

as shown in Fig. 2.

It is assumed that all contacts are smooth and that the radius of the ball is negligible compared to 0.4 m.

(i) Given that the ball is moving with constant speed 3 m s−1 , find the magnitudes of the contact forces

acting on the ball at A and at B. [5]

(ii) Calculate the least speed that the ball can have while remaining in contact with the vertical part of the

side of the container. [3]

5 A car of mass 650 kg is travelling on a straight road which is inclined to the horizontal at 5°. At a certain

point P on the road the car’s speed is 15 m s −1 . The point Q is 400 m down the hill from P, and at Q the

car’s speed is 35 m s −1 .

(i) Assume that the car’s engine produces a constant driving force on the car as it moves down the hill

from P to Q, and that any resistances to the car’s motion may be neglected. By considering the

change in energy of the car, or otherwise, calculate the magnitude of the driving force of the car’s

engine. [4]

(ii) Assume instead that resistance to the car’s motion between P and Q may be represented by a constant

force of magnitude 900 N. Given that the acceleration of the car at Q is zero, show that the power of

the car’s engine at this instant is approximately 12.1 kW. [4]

Given that the power of the car’s engine is the same when the car is at P as it is when the car is at Q,

calculate the car’s acceleration at P. [2]

6

A uniform rectangular box of weight W stands on a horizontal floor and leans against a vertical wall. The

diagram shows the vertical cross-section ABCD containing the centre of mass G of the box. AD makes an

angle θ with the horizontal, and the lengths of AB and AD are 2a and 8a respectively.

(i) By splitting the weight into components parallel and perpendicular to AD, or otherwise, show that the

anticlockwise moment of the weight about the point D is Wa (4 cos θ − sin θ ) . [3]

(ii) The contact at A between the box and the wall is smooth. Find, in terms of W and θ , the magnitude

of the force acting on the box at A. [3]

(iii) The contact at D between the box and the ground is rough, with coefficient of friction µ . Given that

4

the box is about to slip, show that tanθ = . [4]

8µ + 1

A shell is fired from a stationary ship O which is at a distance of 1000 m from the foot of a vertical cliff AB

of height 100 m. The shell passes vertically above B and lands at a point C on horizontal ground, level

with the top of the cliff (see Fig. 1). The shell is fired with speed 300 m s− 1 at angle of elevation θ , and

air resistance to the motion of the shell may be neglected.

(i) Given that θ = 30 ° , find the time of flight of the shell and the distance BC. [6]

(ii)

Given instead that the shell just passes over B, as shown in Fig. 2, find the value of θ , correct to the

nearest degree. [6]

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS M2

Mechanics 2

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1 Topples when CG is above lowest corner B1 May be implied

i.e. when tanα = 12 B1

Slides when R = mg cosα and 0.7R = mg sin α M1 Both equations attempted

i.e. when tanα = 0. 7 A1 Allow B2 in place of M1 A1 if µ = tanα is

quoted

Hence it topples, since 1

2

< 0. 7 B1 5 Conclusion and reason needed

2 (i) Speed before impact is 2g × 1. 2 and 2g × 0.8 M1 For one relevant use energy or const acc

A1 For both correct (unsimplified) values

1. 6g

Hence e = = 2

3

≈ 0.816 M1 For use of v′ = ev to calculate e

2.4g

A1 4 For correct exact or decimal answer

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Impulse= 0.2( 2. 4g + 1. 6g ) ≈ 1.76 N s M1 Allow M mark even if there is a sign error

A1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

With air resistance, speed before impact is smaller, and

speed after impact is larger; hence e is larger B1 1 For correct conclusion with correct reasons

2

3 (i) CG of triangle is 3

a horizontally from A B1

Moments: 13 W × 2

3

a + 23 W × 32 a = W × x M1 For equating moments about A, or equivalent

A1 For a correct unsimplified equation

Hence x = 119 a A1 4 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) RA × 2a = W × 79 a ⇒ RA = 18 7

W M1 For one moments equation

A1 For one correct answer

RA + RD = W ⇒ RD = 11

18

W M1 For resolving, or a second moments equation

A1 4 For a second correct answer

4 (i) RB cos15 ° = 0. 1g B1

Hence RB = 1.01 N B1

32

RA + RB sin 15 ° = 0. 1× M1 For using NII horizontally (3 terms needed)

0.4

A1 Correct equation

Hence RA = 1. 99 N A1 5

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) RA = 0, and RB = 1. 01 as before B1 May be implied

v2

RB sin 15° = 0.1× M1

0. 4

v = 1. 02 m s −1 A1 3

5 (i) EITHER : ∆ KE = 12 × 650 × (35 2 − 15 2 ) B1 For correct unsimplified expression

∆ PE = 650 g × 400 sin 5° B1 Sign of change not required

400 T = 325 000 − 222 073 M1 For equating work and energy change

T = 257 N A1

352 − 152

OR : a= = 1. 25 B1 For correct unsimplified expression for a

2 × 400

T + 650 g sin 5° = 650 a M1 For 3-term NII equation || slope

A1 Correct equation

T = 257 N A1 4

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

H

(ii) Driving force at Q is B1 For any correct statement of ‘ P = Fv ’

35

H

900 = + 650 g sin 5° M1 For 3-term force equation || slope at Q

35

A1 Correct equation

Hence H ≈ 12069 W i.e. 12 .1 kW A1 4 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

H

+ 650 g sin 5° − 900 = 650 a M1 For 4-term NII equation

15

a = 0.707 m s −2 A1 2

W cosθ × 4a (anticlockwise) B1

W sin θ × a (clockwise) B1

Hence total anticlockwise is

Wa ( 4 cosθ − sin θ ) B1 Given answer correctly shown

−a sin θ + 4a cos θ A1 Correct expression

Hence anticlockwise moment is

Wa ( 4 cosθ − sin θ ) A1 Given answer correctly shown

OR : Horizontal distance G – D is

(4 a ) 2 + a 2 cos(θ + α ) where tanα = 14 B1

Anticlockwise moment is

W × 17a 2 ( 417 cosθ − 1

17

sin θ ) M1

i.e. Wa ( 4 cosθ − sin θ ) A1 3 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Wa ( 4 cosθ − sin θ ) = R A × 8a sin θ M1 For moments equation about D, using (i)

A1 Correct equation

RA = 18 W (4 cotθ − 1) A1 3 For correct answer, in any form

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) RD = W B1

FD = RA B1

4 cotθ − 1

µ= M1 For use of F = µR in equation involving θ

8

4

Hence tanθ = A1 4 For showing given result correctly

8µ + 1

7 (i) EITHER : 100 = 150t − 4. 9t2 M1 For use of s = ut + 12 at 2 vertically

A1 For correct equation

150 ± 20540

t= M1 For any solution method

9.8

Time to C is 29.9 s A1

x = 300 cos 30° × 29 .9 M1

BC = x − 1000 ≈ 6780 m A1

x 9. 8x2

OR : 100 = − M1 For trajectory equation with y = 100 ,

3 2 × 300 2 × 34

V = 300 , θ = 30°

A1 For correct unsimplified equation

x ≈ 7776 M1 For any solution method

Hence BC ≈ 6780 m A1

x

t= M1

300 cos 30 °

= 29. 9 s A1 6

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

9.8 × 1000 2

(ii) 100 = 1000 tanθ − (1 + tan2 θ ) M1 For trajectory equation with y = 100 ,

2 × 300 2

x = 1000 , V = 300

M1 For use of sec2 θ = 1 + tan 2 θ

49 tan θ − 900 tan θ + 139 = 0

2

A1 Correct simplified quadratic

900 ± 900 2 − 27244

tanθ = M1 For any solution method

98

M1 For taking arctan of the smaller root

θ ≈ 9° A1 6

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS M3

Mechanics 3

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

–2

Where a numerical value for the acceleration due to gravity is needed, use 9.8 m s .

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1

A ball of mass 0.2 kg falls vertically onto a sloping grass bank, and rebounds horizontally (see diagram).

Immediately before the bounce the speed of the ball is 8 m s−1 , and immediately after the bounce the speed

is 3 m s−1 . Calculate the magnitude and direction of the impulse on the ball due to the impact. [4]

2 A light elastic string of modulus 28 N and natural length 0.8 m has one end attached to a fixed point O. A

particle of mass 0.5 kg is attached to the other end.

(i) The particle hangs in equilibrium at the point E. Calculate the distance OE. [2]

(ii) The particle is held at O and is released from rest. Calculate the speed of the particle as it passes the

point E. [4]

Two uniform smooth spheres A and B, of equal radius, are free to move on a smooth horizontal table. The

mass of B is twice the mass of A. Initially B is at rest and A is moving with speed 5 m s−1 . The spheres

collide, and immediately before impact the direction of motion of A makes an angle of 30° with the line of

centres. After the collision A moves at right angles to its original direction (see diagram). Show that

3

3 m s− 1 , [2]

3

3 m s− 1 , [3]

4 A particle of mass 0.2 kg is connected by two equal light elastic springs, each of natural length 0.5 m and

modulus of elasticity 5 N, to two points A and B on a smooth horizontal table. The mid-point of AB is O

and the length of AB is 1 m. The particle is displaced from O, towards B, through a distance of 0.3 m to

the point C and released from rest. In the subsequent motion air resistance may be neglected. After

t seconds the displacement of the particle from O is x metres. Show that

d2 x

= −100 x . [3]

dt 2

(i) the speed of the particle at D, [3]

(ii) the time taken to reach D. [3]

5 A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a light inextensible string of length 10a. The other end of

the string is attached to a fixed point O. The particle is released from rest with the string taut and

horizontal. Assuming there is no air resistance, find

(i) the speed of the particle when the string has turned through 30°, [2]

(ii) the tension in the string at this instant. [3]

When the string reaches the vertical position, it comes into contact with a small fixed peg A which is a

distance 7a below O. The particle begins to move in a vertical circle of radius 3a with centre A (see

diagram). Determine, showing your working, whether the particle describes a complete circle about A. [5]

6

Two uniform beams AB and BC, each of length 5a, have masses 3m and 2m respectively. The beams are

freely jointed to fixed points at A and C, and to each other at B. The points A and C are on the same

horizontal level at a distance 8a apart, and the beams are in equilibrium with B vertically below the mid-

point of AC, as shown in the diagram.

(i) Find the vertical component of the force acting on BC at C, and show that the horizontal component

of this force is 53 mg . [6]

(ii) Find the magnitude and direction of the force acting on AB at B. [5]

7 A body falls vertically, the forces acting being gravity and air resistance. The air resistance is proportional

to v, where v is the body’s speed at time t. The value of v for which the acceleration is zero is known as the

‘terminal velocity’ for the motion, and is denoted by U. Show that the equation of motion of the body may

be expressed as

dv g

= (U − v ) . [3]

dt U

A parachutist jumps from a helicopter which is hovering at a height of several hundred metres, and falls

vertically. Assume that, before the parachute is opened, the terminal velocity for the motion is 50 m s −1 .

The parachutist opens the parachute 10 s after jumping. Find the speed at which the parachutist is falling

just before the parachute opens. [5]

The diagram shows a (t, v ) graph for the parachutist’s motion, as modelled using the above differential

equation.

(i) Explain the significance of the speed of 10 m s −1 in relation to the differential equation. [1]

(ii) What has been assumed about the opening of the parachute? [1]

(iii) Find the decele ration of the parachutist just after the parachute opens. [2]

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS M3

Mechanics 3

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1

change of momentum, by means of a triangle

or otherwise

Magnitude = 0.62 + 1.62

1 .6 M1 For either Pythagoras or trig calculation

Direction above horizontal = tan −1

0 . 6

Impulse is 1.71 N s at 69. 4° to horizontal A1 For magnitude

A1 4 For angle to horizontal, or equivalent

28 x

2 (i) 0 .5 g = M1 For equilibrium equation and Hooke

0 .8

x = 0. 14 ⇒ OE = 0.94 m A1 2 Correct answer for OE

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Conservation of energy: M1 For equation involving KE, PE and EE

28 × 0.14 2

1

× 0. 5v2 + = 0.5g × 0.94 B1 For correct EE term

2 2 × 0.8

B1 For PE term, correct apart possibly from sign

0.25v2 + 0.343 = 4.606 , hence v = 4.13 m s−1 A1 4

v A = ÷ ( 3) =

5

2

1

2

5

3

3 A1 2 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) m × 5 cos30° = 2mvB − mvA cos60° M1 Using momentum || line of centres

A1 Correct equation ( v A need not be numerical)

2 vB = 52 3 + 56 3 ⇒ vB = 53 3 A1 3 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) v A cos60° + vB = e × 5 cos30° M1 Using restitution || line of centres

5

3

3 cos 60 ° + 53 3 = 5e cos 30 ° A1 Correct equation

Hence e = 1 , as required A1 3 Given result correctly shown

5x

4 Force in each spring is B1 Correct expression for a general position

0.5

Equation of motion is 10 x + 10x = −0.2x&& M1 For relevant use of NII

i.e. x = − 100 x

&& A1 3 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(i) Motion is SHM with amplitude 0.3 m B1 Allow at any stage in the question

vD = 100 (0 .3 − 0. 2 )

2 2 2 M1

Speed at D is 2. 24 m s −1 A1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) 0.2 = 0.3cos(10tD ) B1 For correct SHM equation involving tD

tD = 0. 1 cos−1(23 ) M1 Or equivalent complete solution method

Time to reach D is 0.0841 s A1 3

5 (i) 1

2

mv2 = mg × 10a sin 30° M1 For relevant use of conservation of energy

Hence v = 10ga A1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

10 ga

(ii) T − mg cos 60 ° = m × M1 3-term NII equation || string

10 a

A1 Correct unsimplified equation

T = 32 mg A1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Critical case is T = 0 at highest point B1 May be implied

1

2

mvH = mg × 4a

2

M1 Use of energy to find v H at highest point

vH2 = 8 ga A1

2

mv

mg + T = M1 Resolving to find T ( = 53 mg ) when v = vH or

3a

to find critical v 2 ( = 3 ga) for T = 0

Hence it does make a complete circle A1 5 Correct result and reason

6 (i) Moments about A for the system: M1 Equation with 3 terms needed

3mg × 2a + 2mg × 6a = YC × 8a A1 For correct unsimplified equation

YC = 94 mg A1 Correct answer for the vertical component

Moments about B for BC: M1 Equation with 3 terms needed

2 mg × 2a + X C × 3a = 9

4

mg × 4a A1 For correct unsimplified equation

XC = 5

3

mg A1 6 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) X B = 53 mg B1

YB = 14 mg B1 Follow the answer for YC in (i)

Magnitude = X B2 + YB2

−1 Y M1 For numerical Pythagoras or trig calculation

Dir above horizontal = tan B

B

X

Magnitude = 12

1

409 mg ≈ 1 .69 mg A1 Correct exact or approximate value

Dir above horizontal = ( ) ≈ 8.5°

tan−1 20

3

A1 5 Correct exact or approximate angle

dv

7 Equation of motion is m = mg − kv B1

dt

At terminal velocity mg = kU B1

dv g

Hence = (U − v) B1 3 Given answer correctly shown

dt U

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

⌠ 1 dv = ⌠ g dt

M1 For separation and attempt at integration

⌡ 50 − v ⌡ 50

− ln(50 − v) = 0.196t + c A1 For both indefinite integrals correct

v = 0, t = 0 ⇒ − ln 50 = c M1 Evaluation of constant or equiv use of limits

− ln(50 − v10) = 1.96 − ln 50 A1 Correct equation for v10

v10 = 50 (1 − e−1 .96 ) ≈ 43 .0 m s-1 A1 5 For correct exact or approximate answer

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(i) 10 m s −1 is the terminal velocity (value of U) after

the parachute opens B1 1

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) The parachute is assumed to open instantaneously B1 1

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

d v 9 .8

(iii) = (10 − 43 .0 ) M1

d t 10

Hence deceleration is 32.3 m s −2 A1 2

BLANK PAGE

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS M4

Mechanics 4

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

–2

Where a numerical value for the acceleration due to gravity is needed, use 9.8 m s .

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

74

1 The region bounded by the part of the curve y = x from x = 0 to x = a , the x-axis and the line x = a is

rotated completely about the x-axis to form a uniform solid of revolution. Find by integration the

x-coordinate of the centre of mass of the solid. [6]

The diagram shows a uniform circular disc, of mass m and radius a, which is free to rotate in a vertical

plane about a smooth fixed horizontal axis through its centre O. A light inextensible string is wrapped

round the circumference of the disc, and has one end attached to the circumference. A particle of mass m

hangs freely at the other end of the string. The system is released from rest. Show that the angular

2g

acceleration of the disc is , and find the tension in the string. [6]

3a

3 A rigid square frame consists of four uniform rods, each of mass m and length 2a, joined at their ends to

form a square. Show that the moment of inertia of the frame, about an axis through one of its corners and

perpendicular to its plane, is 403 ma 2 . [3]

The frame is suspended from one corner, and can rotate in a vertical plane about a smooth horizontal axis

through that corner. Show that the motion in which the frame makes small oscillations about its

equilibrium position is approximately simple harmonic, and find the period of this simple harmonic

motion. [5]

4 A uniform circular disc, of mass m and radius a, can rotate in a vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis

passing through its centre O. When the disc is at rest, a particle of mass 2m is released, from rest, at a

height 2a vertically above one end A of the horizontal diameter of the disc. The particle falls freely, strikes

the disc at A, and adheres to the disc. Find the angular speed with which the disc starts to rotate. [5]

While the disc (with the attached particle) rotates, a constant frictional couple C acts on the disc. The disc

comes to rest after one quarter of a revolution, when the particle is at the lowest point of the disc. Find C.

[3]

75

5 A uniform rod AB, of mass m and length 2a, is free to rotate in a vertical plane about a smooth horizontal

axis through A. When the rod is hanging at rest in equilibrium with B vertically below A, it is given an

angular speed Ω, where

3g

Ω2 = .

4a

Show that the rod comes instantaneously to rest when it has turned through an angle 13 π . [2]

At this position of instantaneous rest, the force acting on the rod at A has horizontal and vertical

components X and Y respectively. Find X and Y in terms of m and g. [8]

A light aircraft flies flies from A due east to B and then flies directly back to A. The distance AB is d, and

the speed of the aircraft relative to the air is 4V. During the flight, there is a steady wind, of speed V in a

direction making an angle θ with AB (see diagram). Show that the total flying time for the journey from A

to B and back is

2d 15 + cos 2 θ

. [10]

15V

76

A small smooth bead B, of mass m, is threaded on a circular wire with centre O and radius a. The wire is

fixed in a vertical plane. A light elastic string, of natural length a and modulus of elasticity λ , has one end

fixed at O. The string passes through a small smooth ring A fixed at the highest point of the wire, and the

other end of the string is attached to B. The diagram shows the system at an instant when OB makes an

angle θ with the downward vertical at O.

(i) Taking the horizontal level of O as the reference level for gravitational potential energy, show that the

total potential energy of the system in the position shown is

λa + a(λ − mg ) cos θ . [4]

(ii) Hence show that there is a position of stable equilibrium with θ = 0 so long as λ < mg . [3]

(iii) Given that λ = 12 mg , show that the approximate period of small oscillations about the equilibrium

position is

2a

2π . [5]

g

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS M4

Mechanics 4

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

a

1 Total mass = πρ ∫ x dx M1 For relevant use of ∫y

2

dx

0

= 12 πρ a 2 A1 Introduction of ρ is required

a

Total moment = πρ ∫ x 2 dx M1 For relevant use of ∫ xy

2

dx

0

Hence 12 πρ a 2 x = 13 πρ a 3 ⇒ x = 23 a M1 For equating and solving for x

A1 6 For correct final answer

2 For particle: mg − T = mf B1

For disc: Ta = 1

2

ma 2α B1

String moves with disc, so f = aα B1 Stated or used at any stage

Hence mg = mf + 12 ma α = 32 ma α M1 For obtaining an equation in α (or T)

2g

α = A1 Given answer shown correctly

3a

T = 3 mg

1

A1 6

3 M.I. for one of the rods opposite the axis is: M1 Relevant use of parallel axes theorem

1

3

ma 2 + m(a 2 + 4a 2) = 16

3

ma 2 A1 For correct unsimplified expression

M.I. of frame = 2( 43 ma 2 + 16 3

ma 2 ) = 40 3

ma 2 A1 3 Given answer shown correctly

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Weight 4mg acts at a 2 from the axis B1

Equation of motion is: 4 mga 2 sin θ = − ma θ 40

3

2 &&

M1 For relevant use of C = I θ&& at general posn

A1 Correct equation

3g 2

i.e. θ&& ≈ − θ A1 Reduction to standard SHM form

10a

10a

Hence SHM with period 2π A1 5

3g 2

2 m 4 ga × a = (12 ma 2 + 2ma 2 )ω M1 Equating ang mom before and after

B1 For total M.I. (12 ma 2 + 2ma 2 ) , or equivalent

A1 Correct equation

8 g

Hence ω = A1 5

5 a

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Work done against friction is C × 12 π B1

Hence 12 πC = 54 ma 2ω 2 + 2mga M1 Equating energy (KE and PE) to work

52mga

C= A1 3

5π

3g

5 1 4

. ma 2.

2 3

= mga(1 − cosθ ) M1 For relevant use of conservation of energy

4a

LHS = 12 mga, so θ = 13 π A1 2 Given answer obtained or verified correctly

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

consistent work is acceptable

3 3g

i.e. α = A1

8a

Acceleration component of CG || rod is zero B1 May be implied

3 3g

and perpendicular to rod is A1

8

cos(13π )

3 3g

EITHER : Res hor: X = m. M1 To include attempt at resolving transverse acc

8

3 3

i.e. X = mg A1

16

sin (13π )

3 3g

Res vert: mg − Y = m. M1

8

Hence Y = 16

7

mg A1

OR : Res || rod: 1

2

3 X + 12 Y = 12 mg B1

Res ⊥ rod: M1 4 terms required

1

2

X − 12 3Y + 12 3mg = 3

8

3mg A1 Correct equation

3 3

X = mg , Y = 16

7

mg A1 8 For both answers

16

6

B1 For correct triangle; may be implied

sin α = 14 sin θ or 16V 2 = R 2 + V 2 − 2RV cosθ B1 For appropriate use of sine or cosine rule

R = V cosθ + 4V 1 − 14 sin 2 θ or M1 Any method for R in terms of V and θ

A1 For any correct (unsimplified) expression

d d

Total time is + M1 For expressing this in terms of d, V, θ

R S

d (R + S ) 2dV cos2 θ + 15

i.e. = 2 M1 For combining the terms algebraically

RS V (cos2 θ + 15) − V 2 cos2 θ

2d 15 + cos2 θ

= A1 10 Given answer correctly shown

15V

7 (i) AB = 2a cos 12 θ or AB 2 = 2a 2 + 2a 2 cosθ M1

2a 2λ (1 + cosθ )

Elastic energy = A1 Or equivalent

2a

PE of B is − mgacosθ B1

Total energy V = λ a + a(λ − mg ) cosθ A1 4 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

dV

(ii) = −a(λ − mg ) sin θ = 0 M1 Differentiate and equate to zero, or equivalent

dθ

argument from properties of cos graph

Hence θ = 0 A1 Given answer correctly shown

2

dV

= a( mg − λ ) > 0 if λ < mg A1 3 Stability explained via identification of min V

dθ 2 θ =0

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) 12 m (a θ&) 2 + V = constant B1

ma 2θ&& + 12 mga sin θ = 0 M1 Differentiate with respect to t

A1 Correct simplified equation

g

i.e. θ&& ≈ − θ , so SHM M1 Reduction to standard form

2a

2a

Period is 2π A1 5 Given answer correctly shown

g

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS S1

Probability & Statistics 1

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1 Janet and John wanted to compare their daily journey times to work, so they each kept a record of their

journey times for a few weeks. Janet’s daily journey times, x minutes, for a period of 25 days, were

summarised by Σx = 2120 and Σx 2 = 180 044 . Calculate the mean and standard deviation of Janet’s

journey times. [3]

John’s journey times had a mean of 79.7 minutes and a standard deviation of 6.22 minutes. Describe

briefly, in everyday terms, how Janet and John’s journey times compare. [2]

2 Two independent assessors awarded marks to each of 5 projects. The results were as shown in the table.

Project A B C D E

First assessor 38 91 62 83 61

Second assessor 56 84 41 85 62

Calculate Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient for the data. [4]

Show, by sketching a suitable scatter diagram, how two assessors might have assessed 5 projects in such a

way that Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient for their marks was + 1 while the product moment

correlation coefficient for their marks was not + 1 . (Your scatter diagram need not be drawn accurately to

scale.) [2]

3 Each packet of the breakfast cereal Fizz contains one plastic toy animal. There are five different animals in

the set, and the cereal manufacturers use equal numbers of each. Without opening a packet it is impossible

to tell which animal it contains. A family has already collected four different animals at the start of a year

and they now need to collect an elephant to complete their set. The family is interested in how many

packets they will need to buy before they complete their set.

(i) Stating any necessary assumption, name an appropriate distribution with which to mode l this

situation. What is the expected number of packets that they family will need to buy? [3]

(ii) Find the probability that the family will complete their set with the third packet they buy after the start

of the year. [2]

(iii) Find the probability that, in order to complete their collection, the family will need to buy more than 4

packets after the start of the year. [3]

4 A sixth-form class consists of 7 girls and 5 boys. Three students from the class are chosen at random. The

number of boys chosen is denoted by the random variable X. Show that

(i) P( X = 0) = 7 ,

44

[2]

(ii) P( X = 2 ) = 7 .

22

[3]

x 0 1 2 3

P(X = x ) 7

44

21

44

7

22

1

22

5

The diagram shows the cumulative frequency graphs for the marks scored by the candidates in an

examination. The 2000 candidates each took two papers; the upper curve shows the distribution of marks

on paper 1 and the lower curve shows the distribution on paper 2. The maximum mark on each paper was

100.

(i) Use the diagram to estimate the median mark for each of paper 1 and paper 2, and the interquartile

range for paper 1. [6]

(ii) State with a reason which of the two papers you think was the easier one. [2]

(iii) The candidates’ marks for the two papers could also be illustrated by means of a pair of box-and

whisker plots. Give two brief comments on any advantages or disadvantages in using cumulative

frequency graphs and box-and-whisker plots to represent the data. [2]

6 Items from a production line are examined for any defects. The probability that any item will be found to

be defective is 0.15, independently of all other items.

(i) A batch of 16 items is inspected. Using tables of cumulative binomial probabilities, or otherwise, find

the probability that

(a) at least 4 items in the batch are defective, [2]

(b) exactly 4 items in the batch are defective. [2]

(a) Find the probability that at most 2 of these 5 batches contain at least 4 defective items. [4]

(b) Find the expected number of batches that contain at least 4 defective items. [2]

7 An experiment was conducted to see whether there was any relationship between the maximum tidal

current, y cm s−1 , and the tidal range, x metres, at a particular marine location. [The tidal range is the

difference between the height of high tide and the height of low tide.] Readings were taken over a period

of 12 days, and the results are shown in the following table.

x 2.0 2.4 3.0 3.1 3.4 3.7 3.8 3.9 4.0 4.5 4.6 4.9

y 15.2 22.0 25.2 33.0 33.1 34.2 51.0 42.3 45.0 50.7 61.0 59.2

[Σx = 43 .3, Σy = 471 .9, Σx2 = 164 .69 , Σy2 = 20 915 .75 , Σxy = 1837 .78.]

(i) Calculate the product moment correlation coefficient for the data, and comment briefly on your

answer with reference to the appearance of the scatter diagram. [4]

(ii) Calculate the equation of the regression line of maximum tidal current on tidal range. [3]

(iii) Estimate the maximum tidal current on a day when the tidal range is 4.2 m, and indicate briefly how

reliable an estimate you consider your answer to be. [3]

(iv) It is suggested that the equation found in part (ii) could be used to predict the maximum tidal current

on a day when the tidal range is 15 m. Comment briefly on the validity of this suggestion. [1]

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS S1

Probability & Statistics 1

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1 Mean is 84.8 minutes B1

180044

Standard deviation = − 84.82 M1 May be implied

25

= 3.27 minutes A1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

John’s average time is about 5 mins less than Janet’s B1

John’s times are more variable than Janet’s B1 2

1 5 3 4 2

2 Ranks are: B1 Or with ranks reversed

2 4 1 5 3

Values of d are − 1, 1, 2, − 1, − 1 M1 Or reversed, or values of d 2

6 ×8

rs = 1 − = 0. 6 M1 Correct formula for Spearman used

5 × 24

A1 4 Correct answer (fraction or decimal)

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

‘increasing’ relationship

5 animals, independently of other packets B1 Allow either ‘equally likely’ or ‘independent’

Geometric distribution B1 No need to state p = 15 here

Expected number is 5 B1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) (45 )2 × (15) = 125

16

or 0.128 M1 Any numerical ‘ q n p ’ calculation

A1 2 Correct answer

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) (45 )4 or 1 − { + ( )( )+ ( ) ( )+ ( ) ( )}

1

5

4 1

5 5

4 2 1

5 5

43 1

5 5

M1 Allow M mark even if there is an error of 1 in

the number of terms

A1 For correct expression for the answer

256

625

or 0 .4096 or 0 .410 A1 3 Correct fraction or decimal

7 12 35 = 7 n

4 (i) M1

3

3 44

r

A1 2 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) P( X = 2) = P(2 boys and 1 girl) B1 May be implied

7 × 10 7

= × ÷ = For use of relevant terms, or complete

7 5 12 n

= 22 M1

1 2 3 220 r

alternative multiplication/addition of probs

A1 3 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

E( X ) = 0 × 44 7

+ 1 × 21

44

+ 2 × 227

+ 3 × 22

1

= 54 M1 For correct calculation process

A1 Correct answer (fraction or decimal form)

E( X ) = 0 ×

2 7

44

+ 1 × 44

21

+ 4 × 22

7

+ 9 × 22

1

= 95

44

B1 For correct numerical expression for Σx 2 p

Var ( X ) = 95

44

−( 4

)

5 2

= 176 or 0. 597 (to 3dp)

105

M1 For correct overall method for variance

A1 5 For correct answer

5 (i) Medians correspond to 1000 candidates M1 Reading off at 1000; may be implied

m1 = 38, m2 = 63 A1 Correct value for either median

A1 For both correct

Quartiles correspond to 1500 and 500 candidates M1 Reading off at either; may be implied

q3 = 56, q1 = 26 A1 Both correct

IQR = 30 A1 6

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Paper 2 was easier B1

Marks were higher on paper 2 B1 2 Or similar statement, e.g. ‘higher median’

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) Possible valid comments include:

Box plots give quick direct comparisons of

medians and IQRs

Box plots don’t include all the information that

CF graphs do

CF graphs can be used to read off values both

ways round B1 For any one valid comment

etc B1 2 Any other valid comment

A1 2 Correct answer

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(b) 0.9209 − 0. 7899 − 0.131 M1 Subtracting relevant tabular values

A1 2 Correct answer

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) (a) 0.7905 + 5 × 0.7904 × 0.210 + 10 × 0.7903 × 0.2102 M1 Any use of B(5, 0.210)

M1 Correct 3 cases identified

A1 Correct numerical expression for required

probability, with their value from (i)(a)

= 0.934 A1 4

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(b) 5 × 0.210 = 1.05 M1 For relevant use of np

A1 2 For correct answer

43 .3 × 471 .9

1837 . 78 −

7 (i) r = 12 M1 Or equivalent; may be implied

43.32 471 . 92

164 . 69 − 20915 .75 −

12 12

= 0. 956 A1

The value is close to +1 , B1 For relating the value to 1

and the points in the diagram lie (fairly) close to

a straight line with positive gradient B1 4 For a reasonable comment about linearity

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Gradient of regression line is

43 .3 × 471 .9

1837 . 78 −

12 = 15 .9789 M1 May be implied if calculator routine used

43 .32

164 .69 −

12

471 .9 43 .3

y− = 15. 9789 x − M1 May similarly be implied

12 12

y = 16. 0x − 18.3 A1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) y = 16. 0 × 4. 2 − 18.3 M1

Current is 48.8 cms −1 A1 Units required in answer

Diagram indicates some uncertainty, e.g. ± 5 cm s−1 B1 3 Allow any reasonable comment

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(v) The prediction would be (very) unreliable because

of the extrapolation involved B1 1 For conclusion and idea of extrapolation

BLANK PAGE

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS S2

Probability & Statistics 2

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

90

1 Before being packed in boxes, apples in a fruit-packing plant have to be checked for bruising. The apples

pass along a conveyor belt, and an inspector removes any of the apples that are badly bruised. Badly

bruised apples arrive at random times, but at a constant average rate of 1.8 per minute.

(i) Find the probability that at least one badly bruised apple arrives in a one-minute period. [3]

(ii) In a period of a minutes, the probability of at least one badly bruised apple arriving is 0.995. Find the

value of a. [3]

2 A student answers a test consisting of 16 multiple-choice questions, in each of which the correct response

has to be selected from the four possible answers given. The student only gets 2 of the questions correct,

and the teacher remarks that this ‘shows that the student did worse than anyone would do just by guessing

the answers’. The probability of the student answering a question correctly is denoted by p, assumed to be

the same for all the questions in the test.

(i) State suitable null and alternative hypotheses, in terms of p, for a test to examine whether the

teacher’s remark is justified. [2]

(ii) Carry out the test, using a 10% significance level, and state your conclusion clearly. [4]

3 Lessons in a school are supposed to last for 40 minutes. However, a Mathematics teacher finds that pupils

are usually late in arriving for his lessons, and that the actual length of teaching time available can be

modelled by a normal distribution with mean 34.8 minutes and standard deviation 1.6 minutes.

(i) Find the probability that the length of teaching time available will be less than 37.0 minutes. [2]

(ii) The probability that the length of teaching time available exceeds m minutes is 0.75. Find m. [3]

The teacher has a weekly allocation of 5 lessons with a particular class. Assuming that these 5 le ssons can

be regarded as a random sample, find the probability that the mean length of teaching time available in

these 5 lessons will lie between 34.0 and 36.0 minutes. [4]

4 It is given that 93% of children in the UK have been immunised against whooping cough. The number of

children in a random sample of 60 UK children who have been immunised is X, and the number who have

not been immunised is Y. State, with reasons, which of X or Y has a distribution which can be

approximated by a Poisson distribution. [3]

Using a Poisson approximation, find the probability that at least 58 children in the sample of 60 have been

immunised against whooping cough. [3]

Three random samples, each of 60 UK children, are taken. Find the probability that in one of these

samples exactly 59 children have been immunised while in each of the other two samples exactly 58

children have been immunised. Give your answer correct to 1 significant figure. [3]

5 The continuous random variable X has probability density function f given by

k x2 (3 − x) 0 ≤ x ≤ 3,

f( x ) =

0 otherwise,

where k is a constant.

4 , and find E(X ) . [5]

(iii) Use your answer to part (ii) to state, with a reason, whether the median of X is less than 2, equal to 2

or greater than 2. [2]

6 The ‘reading age’ of children about to start secondary school is a measure of how good they are at reading

and understanding printed text. A child’s reading age, measured in years, is denoted by the random

variable X. The distribution of X is assumed to be N(µ, σ 2 ) . The reading ages of a random sample of 80

children were measured, and the data obtained is summarised by Σ x = 892 .7 , Σx2 = 10 266 .82 .

(i) Calculate unbiased estimates of µ and σ 2 , giving your answers correct to 2 decimal places. [3]

(ii) Previous research has suggested that the value of µ was 10.75. Determine whether the evidence of

this sample indicates that the value of µ is now different from 10.75. Use a 10% significance level

for your test. [5]

(iii) State, giving a brief reason, whether your conclusion in part (ii) would remain valid if

(a) the distribution of X could not be assumed to be normal, [1]

(b) the 80 children were all chosen from those starting at one particular secondary school. [1]

7 The breaking strength of a certain type of fishing line has a normal distribution with standard deviation

0.24 kN. A random sample of 10 lines is tested. The mean breaking strengths of the sample and of the

population are x kN and µ kN respectively. The null hypothesis µ = 8 .75 is tested against the

alternative hypothesis µ < 8 .75 at the 2 12 % significance level.

(i) Show that the range of values of x for which the null hypothesis is rejected is given by x < 8.60 ,

correct to 2 decimal places. [4]

(ii) Explain briefly what is meant, in the context of this question, by a Type I error, and state the

probability of making a Type I error. [2]

(iii) Explain briefly what is meant, in the context of this question, by a Type II error, and find the

probability of making a Type II error when µ = 8 .50 . [5]

BLANK PAGE

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS S2

Probability & Statistics 2

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1 (i) P( at least one) = 1 − e−1 .8 B1 For any use of Po(1.8)

M1 For use of complementary probability

= 0. 835 A1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) 1 − e− 1. 8a = 0.995 B1

−1.8a = ln 0.005 M1 For correct use of logs in solving for a

a = 2. 94 A1 3

Alternative hypothesis: p < 14 B1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Under the NH, numbercorrect~ B(16, 14) M1 May be implied

Hence P(2 or fewer correct) = 0. 1971 A1 Using tables or direct calculation

This is greater than 0.1 (not significant) M1 For comparing with the significance level

There is insufficient evidence to justify the

teacher’s suggestion that the score was worse

than would be produced by pure guesswork A1 4

37.0 − 34.8

3 (i) P(T < 37. 0) = Φ = Φ(1.375) = 0.915 M1 Standardising and using tables

1.6

A1 2 Correct answer 0.915

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

m − 34 . 8

(ii) = − 0. 674 M1 Equating standardised m to a z value

1 .6

B1 For use of (± )0. 674 in an equation

Hence m = 33 .7 A1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

36.0 − 34. 8 34. 0 − 34 .8 M1

P( 34.0 < T < 36. 0) = Φ − Φ For using N( 34 . 8, 1 .6 2 / 5)

1.6 / 5 1.6 / 5

A1 For both end-points standardised correctly

= Φ(1.677) − {1 − Φ(1. 118)} M1 Correct process for prob between end-points

= 0. 821 A1 4

Hence Y is suitable for a Poisson approximation, A1 For correct conclusion

since n is large and p is small A1 3 For correct justification

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Y ~ Po(4.2) B1 May be implied

Required probability is P(Y ≤ 2) M1 For attempted evaluation of relevant Po prob

i.e. 0.210 A1 3 Using tables or direct calculation

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

2

4.22 −4.2

Required probability is 4.2 e− 4. 2× e ×3 B1 For p1 × p2 × p2 , using Poisson or binomial

2

B1 For correct factor of 3

i.e. 0.003 to 1 sf B1 3 Follow through wrong value of 4.2 only

3

5 (i) k ∫ (3x2 − x 3) dx = 1 M1 Equating to 1 and attempting to integrate

0

k [x3 − 14 x4 ]0 = 1

3

A1 For correct integration

k 27 − = 1 ⇒ k = 27

81 4 A1 Given answer correctly obtained

4

3

E( X ) = 274 ∫ (3x3 − x 4) dx M1 For correct application of ∫ x f(x ) dx

0

= 95 A1 5

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) P( X < 2) = 27

4

[x3 − 14 x 4 ]0 2

M1

= 16

27

A1 2 Or equivalent decimal answer

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) 1627

is greater than 12 M1 For comparison of answer (ii) with 12

Hence the median is less than 2 A1 2

892 .7

6 (i) x= = 11 .16 to 2dp B1 For correct value 11.16

80

1 892 .72

s2 = 10 266. 82 − M1 For this expression, or equivalent

79 80

= 3.87 to 2dp A1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) H0 : µ = 10.75 , H1 : µ ≠ 10.75 B1 Both hypotheses

11 .16 − 10 .75

Test statistic is z = = 1. 86 M1 Standardising attempt using s 2 / 80

3. 87 / 80

A1 Correct value; follow their s

This is greater than critical (2 tail) value z = 1. 645 M1 Or comparing Φ (1.86) with 5%

There is evidence to suggest that the value of µ is

now different A1 5

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) (a) Still valid, since the sample size (80) is large Allow any reasoned conclusion mentioning

enough to appeal to the CLT B1 1 the CLT

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(b) Not valid, since the children starting at one

school may not be representative of all

children of this age. B1 1 For conclusion and reason

0.24

7 (i) Critical value is 8.75 − 1. 96 × M1 Calculation of correct form 8.75 − z × S.E.

10

B1 Relevant use of − 1. 96

A1 Relevant use of 0.24 / 10

i.e. reject null hypothesis when x < 8.60 A1 4

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) NH µ = 8. 75 would be rejected when the mean

breaking strength is in fact 8.75 kN B1

P ( Type I error) = 0.025 B1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) NH µ = 8. 75 would be accepted when the mean

breaking strength is in fact less than 8.75 kN B1

Type II error occurs when x > 8.60 B1 May be implied

8.60 − 8.50

Probability is 1 − Φ M1 Using normal distribution with mean 8.50

0. 24 / 10

A1 Correct standardising, and use of tables

= 0. 0938 A1 5

BLANK PAGE

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS S3

Probability & Statistics 3

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1 A test of the null hypothesis of independence of two characteristics is required for the following

contingency table.

Characteristic 1 Totals

12 9 19 40

Characteristic 2

28 61 71 160

Totals 40 70 90 200

(i) Find the expected frequency corresponding to the cell with observed frequency 12. [1]

(ii) Given that the value of the χ 2 test statistic is 4.80, correct to 3 significant figures, carry out the test at

the 10% significance level. [3]

2 The ‘customer services’ section in a department store deals both with enquiries by telephone and also with

enquiries in person by shoppers in the store. Telephone enquiries occur at random times at an average rate

of 4 per half hour. Shoppers in the store arrive to make enquiries at random times at an average rate of 5

per half hour. Assuming that the two types of enquiries occur independently of each other, find the

probability that a total of between 10 and 20 enquiries (inclusive) have to be dealt with in a randomly

chosen half hour period. [5]

3 A supermarket sells 2 kg bags of new potatoes, in which the potatoes have been selected to be all roughly

the same size. The potatoes used to fill the bags may be assumed to be randomly chosen items from a

population in which the mass, in grams, of an individual potato is normally distributed with mean 90 and

standard deviation 4.

(i) Show that the probability that the total mass of 21 of these potatoes exceeds 2 kg is very small. [4]

(ii) Find the probability that the total mass of 22 of these potatoes exceeds 2 kg. [2]

(iii) The machine filling the bags delivers potatoes one by one until a total mass of at least 2 kg is reached.

Show that the bags are almost certain to contain either 22 or 23 potatoes. [2]

4 A random sample of six observations of the random variable X gave the following values:

3 .2, 1 .8, 4 .0, − 2.1, 6.1, 1.7.

[Σx = 14 .7, Σx = 73 .99 .]

2

(ii) assuming instead that X has a normal distribution with unknown variance.

[9]

5 State what distributional assumptions are necessary for it to be valid to use

(i) the two-sample t-test,

(ii) the paired-sample t-test,

to test for a difference in population means. [3]

Two different types of nylon fibre were tested for the amount of stretching under tension. Ten random

samples of each fibre, of the same length and diameter, were stretched by applying a standard load. For

Fibre 1 the increases in length, x mm, were as follows.

12.84 14.26 13.23 14.75 15.13 14.15 13.37 12.96 15.02 14.38

[Σx = 140 .09, Σx2 = 1969 .0513 .]

14.27 13.25 14.17 13.11 14.92 12.12 14.21 13.68 15.14 14.81

[Σy = 139 .68 , Σy 2 = 1958 .9794 .]

Assuming that any necessary conditions for the validity of your test hold, test whether the mean increase in

length of the two types of fibre is different. Use a 10% significance level. [7]

6 Six hens are observed over a period of 20 days and the number of eggs laid each day is summarised in the

following table.

Number of eggs 3 4 5 6

Number of days 2 2 10 6

Show that the mean number of eggs per day is 5. [2]

It may be assumed that a hen never lays more than one egg in any day. State one other assumption that

needs to be made in order to consider a binomial model, with n = 6 , for the total number of eggs laid in a

day. [1]

Calculate the expected frequencies using a binomial model for the above data and carry out a χ 2 goodness

of fit test, using a 10% significance level. [9]

7 The continuous random variable X has a triangular distribution with probability density function given by

1 + x − 1 ≤ x ≤ 0,

f( x ) = 1 − x 0 ≤ x ≤ 1,

0 otherwise.

Show that, for 0 ≤ a ≤ 1 ,

P( X ≤ a ) = 2a − a 2 . [3]

The random variable Y is given by Y = X 2 . Express P(Y ≤ y ) in terms of y, for 0 ≤ y ≤ 1 , and hence

show that the probability density function of Y is given by

1

g( y ) = −1 , for 0 < y ≤ 1 . [3]

y

Use the density function of Y to find E(Y ) , and show how the value of E(Y ) may also be obtained directly

using the probability density function of X. [4]

Determine E( Y ) . [2]

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS S3

Probability & Statistics 3

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

40 × 40

1 (i) =8 B1 1 For correct answer; working not needed

200

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) 4.80 is greater than critical value 4.605 M1 Comparing with a tabular value

A1 Using correct figure 4.605

There is evidence to suggest that the characteristics

are not independent A1 3

2 Model for all enquiries is Po(9) B1 For any mention of a Poisson distribution

M1 Summing two Poisson distributions

A1 For statement of correct parameter 9

Probabilit y = 0. 9996 − 0. 5874 M1 Subtracting relevant tabular values

= 0. 412 A1 5

3 (i) T21 ~ N(1890 , 336) M1 For normal distribution with correct mean

A1 For variance 21 × 4 2 (both these first two

marks may be implied by later working)

2000 − 1890

P(T21 > 2000 ) = 1 − Φ = 1 − Φ( 6) M1 For correct processes for relevant tail

336

Hence prob is very small since Φ( 6) ≈ 1 A1 4 Correct conclusion, based on suff large z

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

2000 − 22 × 90

(ii) P(T22 > 2000 ) = 1 − Φ M1 For relevant new normal calculation

22 × 16

= 1 − Φ (1.066) = 0.143 A1 2 For correct probability

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

2000 − 2070

(iii) P(T23 > 2000 ) = 1 − Φ = Φ( 3. 649 ) ≈ 1 M1 For relevant calculation for 23 potatoes

368

Hence 23 potatoes is almost always enough A1 2 For correct conclusion based on correct figs

14 .7

4 (i) x= = 2 .45 B1 At any stage; may be implied

6

8.5

Interval is 2.45 ± 1.645 × = 2. 45 ± 1.9579 M1 For calculation of the form x ± z σ 2 / n

6

A1 For relevant use of z = 1. 645

i.e. 0.49 < µ < 4.41 A1 4 For correct interval

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1 14 .72

(ii) s2 = 73 .99 − = 7.595 M1 For correct unsimplified expression for s2

5 6

A1 For correct value (may be implied)

7.595

Interval is 2.45 ± 2.015 × = 2.45 ± 2. 267 M1 For calculation of the form x ± t s2 / n

6

A1 For relevant use of t = 2.015

i.e. 0.18 < µ < 4.72 A1 5 For correct interval

5 (i) The distributions must be normal B1

The distributions must have equal variances B1

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

H 0 : µ x − µ y = 0; H 1 : µ x − µ y ≠ 0 B1 For both

140 .09 2 139 .68 2

1969 . 0513 − + 1958 .9794 −

Sp =

2 10 10

M1 Use of correct formula

18

= 0. 8033 A1 May be implied

14.009 − 13.968

Test statistic t = = 0.1023 M1 Use of correct formula

0.8033 (10

1

+ 10

1

)

A1 Correct value of t

This is less than the critical value 1.734 M1 Comparing to tabular value of t

There is not significant evidence of a difference in mean

increase A1 7

3 × 2 + 4 × 2 + 5 × 10 + 6 × 6

6 Mean = =5 M1

20

A1 2 Obtain given answer correctly

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Assume that the probability of any hen laying an egg on

any day is constant and that hens lay eggs

independently of each other B1 1 For either constant prob or independence

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Distribution to be fitted is B(6, 56 ) B1 May be implied

6 i 6− i

M1 For any one calculation using correct method

i

f6 = 6.70, f5 = 8.04, f4 = 4.02 A1 All three correct to at least 2dp

f3 = 1. 07, f 2 = 0.16, f1 = 0. 02, f0 = 0.00 A1 For all four correct, or f≤ 3 = 1.25 stated

≤4 5 6

Combining cells: fo 4 10 6 M1 Use of criterion fe < 5 for combining

fe 5.27 8.04 6.70

1.27 2 1.96 2 0.70 2

χ2 = + + = 0.857 M1

5.27 8. 04 6.70

A1 Allow anything between 0.85 and 0.86 (inc)

This is less than the critical value 2.706 M1 Compare with tabular value

Hence there is a satisfactory fit A1 9

7 P( X < a) = P( − a < X < a) M1 For consideration of two areas, or equiv

0 a

= ∫ (1 + x ) dx + ∫ (1 − x) dx A1 Or equivalent trapezium areas

−a 0

= [x + 12 x 2]− a + [x − 12 x2 ]0 = 2a − a2

0 a

A1 3 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

P(Y ≤ y) = P( X 2 ≤ y) = P( X ≤ y ) = 2 y − y B1 For correct expression

d

dy

(2 y − y) =

1

−1 M1 For differentiation of previous expression

y

A1 3 Given answer correctly shown

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1

E( Y ) = ∫ y 2 − y d y =

0

1

[y

2

3

3

2

1

]

1

− 12 y 2 = 16

0

M1 For correct integral

1

A1 For answer 6

0 1

E( X 2 ) = ∫ ( x 2 + x3) dx + ∫ ( x 2 − x3) dx M1

−1 0

0 1

1

+ 121

= 16 A1 4

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1

0

1

0

1

[

E( Y ) = ∫ y 2 g( y ) d y = ∫ (1 − y 2 ) dy = y − 23 y 2 = 13

1 3

]

1

0

M1 For forming the correct integral

A1 2 Correct answer

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS S4

Probability & Statistics 4

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1 To compare the effect of a new drug on men and women, a small-scale trial was conducted, involving 6

randomly chosen men and 4 randomly chosen women. For each person, the time, in minutes, before the

drug began to take effect was recorded, with the results shown in the table below.

Men 19 32 24 33 31 28

Women 14 13 18 27

Use a suitable non-parametric test to determine if there is evidence, at the 5% significance level, that the

drug acts more quickly in women than it does in men. [5]

λe −λ x x ≥ 0,

f( x ) =

0 x < 0,

where λ is a positive constant. Show that the moment generating function of X is given by

λ

M X (t ) = . [3]

λ −t

Use this moment generating function to find the mean and variance of X. [4]

P( A) = 12 , P( B ) = 13 , P( A ∪ B) = 34 .

(a) mutually exclusive, [1]

(b) independent. [3]

(a) P( A | B) , [2]

4 A bin contains a large number of seeds of which 20% will produce a plant with a red flower and 30% will

produce a plant with a yellow flower. The remaining 50% will fail to germinate. Two seeds are chosen at

random from the bin and planted in a pot. The random variables R and Y denote the number of red and

yellow flowers, respectively, that will be produced from the seeds. The table below shows the joint

probability distribution of R and Y.

R

0 1 2

0 0.25 0.20 0.04

Y 1 0.30 0.12 0

2 0.09 0 0

(iv) Find the distribution of Y conditional on R = 1 , and hence state the expected value of the number of

yellow flowers in a pot in which there is one red flower. [2]

5 The discrete random variable X denotes the score obtained in a single throw of an ordinary fair die. Show

that the probability generating function of X may be expressed as

t (1 − t 6 )

. [2]

6(1 − t )

Write down the probability generating function for the total score obtained when three fair dice are thrown.

[1]

Hence show that the probability of obtaining a total score of 10 when three fair dice are thrown is 18 . [6]

6 Explain briefly the circumstances under which a non-parametric test of significance should be used in

preference to a parametric test. [1]

The acidity of soil can be measured by its pH value. As a part of a Geography project a student measured

the pH values of 14 randomly chosen samples of soil in a certain area, with the following results.

5.67 5.73 6.64 6.76 6 .10 5.41 5 .80 6 .52 5.16 5 .10 6.71 5.89 5.68 5.37

Use a suitable non-parametric test to test whether the average pH value for soil in this area is 6.24. Use a

10% level of significance. [4]

Some time later, the pH values of soil samples taken at exactly the same locations as before were again

measured. It was found that, for 3 of the 14 locations, the new pH value was higher than the previous

value, while for the other 11 locations the new value was lower. Test, at the 5% significance level,

whether there is evidence that the average pH value of soil in this area is lower than previously. [4]

7 The continuous random variable X has a uniform distribution on the interval 0 ≤ x ≤ a , where the value of

the parameter a is unknown. Three independent observations, X1 , X 2 , X 3 , of X are taken.

find Var(θ ) in terms of a. [6]

(ii) Another estimator φ is based on the greatest of the three values X1 , X 2 , X 3 . Denoting the greatest of

the three values by the variable G, use the fact that, for any value x between 0 and a,

G < x ⇔ ( X1 < x and X 2 < x and X 3 < x )

to write down the cumulative distribution function of G, and hence to obtain the probability density

function of G. [2]

Hence show that, if φ = 43 G , then φ is an unbiased estimator of a, and determine which of θ and φ

is the more efficient estimator. [4]

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS S4

Probability & Statistics 4

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1 H0 : same distributions of times for men and women,

H1 : lower average for women B1 For both NH and AH

M 4 9 5 10 8 7

Ranks are: M1 For ranking all 10 values

W 2 1 3 6

Test statistic is 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12 A1 For sum of women’s ranks

Critical Wilcoxon rank-sum value is 13 M1 For comparing with correct tabular value

Hence reject H0 and conclude that there is evidence to

suggest that drug acts more quickly in women than it

does in men A1 5

∞

2 M X (t) = ∫ etx λ e− λx dx B1 Correct integral stated

0

∞

λ (t − λ) x

= e M1 For correct integration method

t − λ 0

λ

= A1 3 Given answer correctly shown

λ −t

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

2

M X (t) = 1 + + + K

t t

B1 Three correct terms

λ λ

1

E( X ) = B1

λ

2

2! 1 1

Var( X ) = − = 2 M1 For using correct variance formula

λ2 λ λ

A1 4 Correct answer for variance

3 (i) (a) Not exclusive, since 12 + 13 ≠ 34 B1 1 Conclusion and reason both required

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(b) P( A ∩ B) = 34 − 12 − 13 = 12 1

M1 Use of correct formula

1

A1 Correct value 12

Not independent, as 12 × 13 ≠ 12 1

A1 3 Conclusion and reason both required

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

P( A ∩ B) 1

(ii) (a) P( A | B) = =4 M1 Use of correct formula

P( B)

A1 2 Follow answer to (i)(b)

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(b) P( A ∩ B′) = P( A) − P( A ∩ B ) M1 Or equivalent, e.g. from Venn diagram

= 12 − 12

1

= 12

5

A1

P( A | B′) = 12

5

÷ 23 = 5

8

A1 3

0 1 2

4 (i) R : M1 Adding rows (or columns)

0 .64 0 .32 0. 04

0 1 2

Y: A1 2 Both distributions correct

0 .49 0 .42 0. 09

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) E( R) = 0 × 0. 64 + 1 × 0.32 + 2 × 0.04 = 0.4 M1 Correct process for either mean

E( Y ) = 0 × 0. 49 + 1 × 0.42 + 2 × 0. 09 = 0.6 A1 2 Both means correct

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) E( RY ) = 0. 12 B1

Cov(R, Y ) = 0.12 − 0.4 × 0.6 M1

= −0.12 A1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

0 1 2

(iv) Conditional distribution is: 5 3

0 B1

8 8

3

Expected value is 8

B1 2

5 PGF is 1

6

(t + t 2 + t 3 + t 4 + t5 + t 6) B1

t(1 − t 6 )

i.e. B1 2 Use of GP sum to deduce given answer

6(1 − t )

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

t3 (1 − t 6 ) 3

B1 1 For cube of answer (i), in any form

216 (1 − t)3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1 3

216

t (1 − 3t6 + K)(1 + 3t + 6t 2 + K) M1 For using both binomial expansions

A1 Both correct at least as far as shown

7

Terms in t from product of brackets are: M1 Picking out relevant term(s)

− 3t 6 × 3t A1

1 × 36t 7 A1

Probability = 216

1

(36 − 9) = 18 A1 6 Given answer correctly shown

information (or reasonable assumption) available

about an underlying distribution B1 1

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Deviations from NH value 6.24 are:

− 0.57 − 0.51 0.40 0.52 − 0.14 − 0.83 − 0.44

M1 For calculating signed differences from 6.24

0.28 − 1.08 − 1.14 0.47 − 0.35 − 0.56 − 0.87

−10 −7 4 8 −1 −11 −5

Signed ranks are: A1 For calculating correct signed ranks

2 − 13 − 14 6 −3 −9 − 12

Test statistic is 2 + 4 + 6 + 8 = 20 < 25 M1 For calculating T and comparing

Conclude that there is evidence to suggest that the

average pH value is not 6.24 A1 4 For correct conclusion based on correct work

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

H0 : same average pH as before; H1 : lower value B1 For both hypotheses

Under H0 , tail probability for 3 or fewer out of 14 is M1 For use of relevant binomial distribution

()

1 14

2

× (1 + 14 + 91 + 364 ) = 0.0287 < 0.05 A1 For correct value tail probability 0.0287

Hence reject H0 and accept that average pH is lower A1 4 For correct conclusion based on correct work

7 (i) E( X ) = 12 a B1 May be implied

E( θ ) = 23 × 3 E( X ) M1

= a , as required A1 For conclusion correctly shown and stated

a 2

a dx − (2 a)

Var( X ) = ⌠

x 1 2

M1

⌡0

= 1 2

12

a A1

Var( θ ) = 49 × 12 a = 19 a 2

3 2

A1 6

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

3

(ii) P( G < x) =

x

B1

a

3x 2

Hence pdf is B1 2

a3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

4 a 3 x3

E(φ ) = ⌠

3

dx M1

⌡0 a 3

= a , as required A1 For conclusion correctly shown and stated

16 ⌠ a 3x 4

Var( φ ) = dx − a2

9

M1

⌡0 a3

= 1 2

15

a < 19 a 2

Hence φ is more efficient A1 4 Correct Var(φ ) and conclusion

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS D1

Discrete Mathematics 1

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

1 Andy wants to record the following twelve TV programmes onto video tape. Each video tape has space for

up to three hours of programmes.

Programme A B C D E F G H I J K L

1 1 3

Length (hours) 2 2 4

1 1 1 1 1 12 1 12 1 34 2 2

(i) Suppose that Andy records the programmes in the order A to L using the first fit algorithm. Find the

number of tapes needed, and show which programmes are recorded onto which tape. [3]

(ii) Suppose instead that Andy is transferring the programmes from previously recorded tapes, so that

they can be copied in any order, and that Andy uses the first fit decreasing algorithm. Find the

number of tapes needed, and show which programmes are recorded onto which tape. [3]

(i) By considering the order of each node, classify each of the graphs (a), (b) and (c) shown in the

diagram as Eulerian, semi-Eulerian or neither. [4]

(ii) Explain briefly how your classification in part (i) relates to the problem of finding a route through the

graph that includes each arc exactly once. Are there any restrictions on where such a route can start

and finish? [3]

3 A company has offices is six towns, A, B, C, D, E and F. The costs, in £, of travelling between these towns

are shown in the table.

Town A B C D E F

A – 15 26 13 14 25

B 15 – 16 16 25 13

C 26 16 – 38 16 15

D 13 16 38 – 15 19

E 14 25 16 15 – 14

F 25 13 15 19 14 –

Use Prim’s algorithm, starting by deleting row A, to find the cheapest way of connecting the six towns.

You should show all your working and indicate the order in which the towns were included. [7]

4 An express delivery pizza company promises to deliver pizzas within 30 minutes of an order being

telephoned in. Four customers telephone in orders at the same time. While the pizzas are cooking, which

takes 10 minutes, a delivery route must be planned for the person who will deliver all four pizzas. The

diagram below shows the pizza company P and the four customers A, B, C and D, and the accompanying

table shows the travel times for each possible leg of a journey between them.

P A B C D

P – 5 3 4 2

A 5 – 1 4 4

B 3 1 – 3 5

C 4 4 3 – 7

D 2 4 5 7 –

The travel times shown exclude the time taken to stop at a customer’s house and deliver the pizza; this

stopping and delivery time is 2 12 minutes.

(i) Explain why a travelling salesperson solution taking less than 13 minutes guarantees that all four

customers will get their pizzas (including stopping and delivery times) within 30 minutes of their

telephone call. [4]

(ii) The pizzas are delivered using the nearest neighbour algorithm, as follows.

The first delivery is to the customer who is nearest to P (in the sense of having the shortest travel

time).

The second delivery is to the customer who is nearest to the first one.

The third delivery is to the customer nearest to the second who is still waiting for a pizza.

The fourth delivery is to the remaining customer.

Write down the order in which the pizzas are delivered using this algorithm, and calculate how long

the fourth customer has to wait for their pizza (including the stopping and delivery time). [4]

5 Lou Zitt has a budget of £2000 to spend on storage units for his office. The storage units must not cover

more than 50 m 2 of floor space, and Lou wants to maximise the storage capacity. The three types of

storage unit that he can choose from are shown in the following table.

Type Storage capacity (m3 ) Floor space covered (m2 ) Cost (£)

Antique pine units 3 1 100

Beech wood units 8 4 500

Cedar wood units 6 3 200

Suppose that Lou buys a antique pine units, b beech wood units and c cedar wood units.

(i) Write down two constraints that must be satisfied by a, b and c, other than a ≥ 0 , b ≥ 0 , c ≥ 0 . [2]

(ii) Write down the objective function for this problem. [1]

(iii) Set up the problem as an LP formulation. (You are not expected to solve the problem.) [4]

(iv) Identify which aspect of the original problem has been overlooked in the LP formulation. [1]

6 A graph has five vertices, P, Q, R, S, T, and each vertex is directly connected to every other vertex.

Describe how to apply Dijkstra’s algorithm to find the shortest path from P to T, and explain why this

requires 6 addition calculations in the worst case. [6]

Show that when Dijkstra’s algorithm is used on a graph with six vertices it requires 10 addition

calculations in the worst case. [2]

The number of additions affects the amount of time that Dijkstra’s algorithm takes to run on a computer.

(i) Assuming that the problem has already been put into a suitable format, what is the other main factor

that would affect the time that Dijkstra’s algorithm takes to run on a computer? [1]

(ii) Dijkstra’s algorithm is of quadratic order (order n 2 ). Explain what this means. [2]

Maximise P = 3x + 4 y + 5 z

subject to 2x + 8y + 5z ≤ 3

9 x + 3 y + 6z ≤ 2

and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, z ≥ 0.

(i) Set up an initial simplex tableau for this problem. Perform two iterations, choosing first to pivot on

an element chosen from the z column. [9]

(ii) State the values of x, y, z and P that result from each of the two iterations carried out in part (i). [2]

(iii) Explain how you know whether or not the optimal solution has been achieved. [2]

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS D1

Discrete Mathematics 1

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1 (i) A, B, C, D all fit onto one tape but E doesn’t M1 Applying the algorithm with first tape

Tapes hold ABCD, EFG, HI, J, K, L A1

So 6 tapes are needed A1 3

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) First tape contains K and D (or other ‘2 + 1’ pair) M1 Applying the algorithm with first tape

Tapes hold KD, LE, JF, HI, GCAB (or equiv) A1

So 5 tapes are needed A1 3

A B C D E

2 (i) Orders are: (a)

5 5 4 5 5

A B C D E

(b) M1 For recognisable attempt for any one case

5 4 4 4 3

A B C D E

(c)

4 4 4 4 4

Hence (a) is neither, since there are 4 odd nodes A1

(b) is semi-Eulerian, since there are 2 odd nodes A1

(c) is Eulerian, since all the nodes are even A1 4

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) No such route exists for graph (a) B1

There are routes for graph (b), but they have to

start and finish at odd nodes, i.e. A and E B1

There are routes for graph (c), where all routes

start and finish at the same node, which can be

any one of the five B1 3

3 A1 B C D E F

A — 15 26 13 14 25

B 15 — 16 16 25 13

C 26 16 — 38 16 15 B1 Deleting row A and choosing AD

D 13 16 38 — 15 19

E 14 25 16 15 — 14

F 25 13 15 19 14 —

A1 B C D2 E F

A — 15 26 13 14 25

B 15 — 16 16 25 13

C 26 16 — 38 16 15 M1 Deleting row D and choose from cols A, D

D 13 16 38 — 15 19

E 14 25 16 15 — 14

F 25 13 15 19 14 —

A1 B C D2 E3 F

A — 15 26 13 14 25

B 15 — 16 16 25 13

C 26 16 — 38 16 15 A1 Correct choice at this stage

D 13 16 38 — 15 19

E 14 25 16 15 — 14

F 25 13 15 19 14 —

A1 B C D2 E3 F4

A — 15 26 13 14 25

B 15 — 16 16 25 13

C 26 16 — 38 16 15

D 13 16 38 — 15 19

E 14 25 16 15 — 14

F 25 13 15 19 14 —

A1 B5 C D2 E3 F4

A — 15 26 13 14 25

B 15 — 16 16 25 13

C 26 16 — 38 16 15 M1 For carrying out the complete algorithm

D 13 16 38 — 15 19

E 14 25 16 15 — 14

F 25 13 15 19 14 —

Arcs: AD = 13, AE = 14 , EF = 14 , FB = 13, FC = 15 A1 All arcs correct

Order of adding is A, D, E, F, B, C B1

Total cost is 13 + 14 + 14 + 13 + 15 = £69 B1 7

4 (i) Travel time available is 30 − 10 − 4 × 2 12 = 10 mins B1

Return time from last delivery is not relevant M1

This can be at least 3 mins (since any route can be

followed in either direction) A1

Hence TSP solution of 10 + 3 = 13 or less suffices A1 4 Given answer correctly explained

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) The order is DABC B2 Allow B1 for DACB

Total time is 10 + 2 + 4 + 1 + 3 + 4 × 2 12 M1 Cooking and stopping times required

i.e. 30 minutes A1 4

5 (i) a + 4b + 3c ≤ 50 B1

a + 5b + 2c ≤ 20 B1 2 Allow any correct unsimplified version

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) 3a + 8b + 6c B1 1 Allow in the form of an equation

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) Maximise P = 3a + 8b + 6 c B1

Subject to a + 4b + 3c ≤ 50 B1

and a + 5b + 2c ≤ 20 B1

Together with a ≥ 0, b ≥ 0, c ≥ 0 B1 4

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iv) The variables a, b, c must be integers B1 1

smallest (say Q) B1 Correct description of labelling and selecting

Update distances to R, S, T if route from P via Q is

shorter B1 Correct description of first stage of Dijkstra

The initial 3 possible updates require 3 additions so far B1

Select the smallest of R, S, T and repeat the updating

process; this stage requires another 2 additions B1 Explanation of 2 additions at this stage

The final stage similarly requires 1 addition, so the total

is 3 + 2 + 1 = 6 B1 Given total of 6 correctly explained

Trace back to find the shortest path, including an arc XY

whenever the distance to X plus the length of XY is

the same as the distance to Y B1 6 For explanation of tracing back

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Worst case number is 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 M1

i.e. 10 A1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(i) The number of comparisons B1 1

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) The number of operations needed to complete the

algorithm is (approximately) proportional to the

square of the number of nodes B1 Allow e.g. ‘time taken prop to square of size’

So, for example, doubling the number of nodes

will (roughly) quadruple the amount to be done B1 2

7 (i) Simplex tableau is: M1 Table with correct numbers of rows and cols

P x y z

1 −3 − 4 −5 0 0 0

A1 Correct initial values throughout

0 2 8 5 1 0 3

0 9 3 6 0 1 2

Select 6 in the z column as pivot B1

Result of first iteration is: M1 For correct row operations

P x y z

1 4 12 − 1 12 0 0 5

6

123

A1 Correct values throughout

0 − 5 12 5 12 0 1 − 56 113

1 1 1 1

0 12 2

1 0 6 3

Result of second iteration is: M1 For correct row operations

P x y z

3 20 67

1 3 0 0 11 33 33

A2 9 All values correct; allow A1 if one error

0 −1 1 0 2

11

− 5

33

8

33

0 2 0 1 − 111 8

33

7

33

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) After 1 iteration: x = 0, y = 0, z = 13 , P = 1 23 B1

After 2 iterations: x = 0, y = 33 8

, z = 337

, P = 67 33

B1 2

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) There are no negative numbers in the top row

of the tableau B1

Hence the solution is optimal B1 2

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS D2

Discrete Mathematics 2

Additional materials:

Answer paper

Graph paper

List of Formulae

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces provided on the answer paper.

Answer all the questions.

Give non-exact numerical answers correct to 3 significant figures, unless a different degree of

accuracy is specified in the question or is clearly appropriate.

You are permitted to use a graphic calculator in this paper.

The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.

The total number of marks for this paper is 60.

Questions carrying smaller numbers of marks are printed earlier in the paper, and questions carrying

larger numbers of marks later in the paper.

You are reminded of the need for clear presentation in your answers.

This question paper consists of 5 printed pages, 3 blank pages and an insert.

125

Specimen Materials – Mathematics © OCR 2000

1

The diagram represents a system of pipes. The weights show the (directed) maximum capacity for each

pipe in litres per minute.

(i) Calculate the capacity of the cut C marked in the diagram. [2]

(ii) Draw a diagram showing a flow from S to T of 230 litres per minute in which each of the pipes JL,

KM and MT is carrying its full capacity. [1]

(iii) Explain carefully what can be deduced from parts (i) and (ii) about flows through this network. [2]

The teddy bear is suitable for Cathy, Daniel or Elvis;

the book is suitable for Annie or Ben;

the football is suitable for Daniel or Elvis;

the money box is suitable for Annie or Daniel;

the drum is suitable for Cathy or Elvis.

Draw a bipartite graph, G, to show which present is suitable for which grandchild. [2]

Granny decides to give Annie the book, Cathy the teddy bear, Daniel the money box and Elvis the drum.

This leaves Ben without a present, since the football is not suitable for him.

(i) Show the incomplete matching, M, that describes which present Granny had decided to give to each

child. [1]

(ii) Use a matching algorithm to construct an alternating path for M in G, and hence find a maximal

matching between the presents and the grandchildren. [2]

3 Richard and Carol play a two-person zero-sum simultaneous play game. The table shows Richard’s pay-

off matrix for the game.

Carol

Strategy X Strategy Y Strategy Z

Strategy A 2 3 –2

Richard Strategy B –4 –1 –1

Strategy C –5 0 1

(i) Find the play-safe strategy for each player, and hence show that this game does not have a stable

solution. [4]

(ii) Richard’s optimal mixed strategy can be found by using linear programming. Set up a suitable LP

formulation, defining the symbols you use. (You are not required to solve the LP problem.) [4]

4 A relay team consists of four runners, A, B, C and D, each of whom runs one leg of the race. The best

training times, in seconds, for each of the runners over each of the legs are given in the table.

1st leg 2nd leg 3rd leg 4th leg

A 47 45 45 43

B 48 44 45 44

C 46 45 44 43

D 50 47 46 44

Use the Hungarian algorithm to decide which runner should be allocated to which leg of the race. [8]

5 The Rolling Pebbles have been playing as a band for many years. When they tour they sometimes play old

songs, they sometimes play new songs and they sometimes play a mixture of old and new songs. Their

choice depends on the age of the audience. The table shows the audience reaction (as a score out of 10) for

each of the possible combinations. High scores are good.

Audience

Young Mixed Older

Old 1 3 8

Songs played Mixture 3 1 2

New 8 5 3

Explain why, according to this data, the band should never choose to play a mixture of old and new songs.

[1]

The band do not know whether their audience will be young, older or of mixed ages. Suppose that they

choose to play old songs with probability p and new songs with probability 1 − p .

(i) Calculate, in terms of p, the expected reaction from each of the three types of audience. [4]

(ii) Use a graphical method to decide what value p should take to maximise the minimum expected

reaction from part (i). Mark clearly on your graph the vertex where the optimal value occurs. [5]

6 [Answer both parts of this question on the Insert Sheet provided.]

Jim is playing a space adventure game. He has found the alien headquarters and now has four turns to

escape from the planet, or else perish. On each turn, Jim must play one of three tactics. He can attack, run

away or dodge the aliens. The number of energy pods used up during the turn is shown in Table 1.

Table 1

Tactic Energy pods used

Attack 2

Run away 1

Dodge 0

The number of squares that Jim travels with each of these tactics is shown in Table 2.

Table 2

Energy pods remaining at start of turn

5 4 3 2 1

Attack 6 7 6 4 –

Run away 5 4 4 3 1

Dodge 1 2 1 1 0

Jim currently has five energy pods, and needs to maximise the number of squares that he travels in the four

turns that he has left. He should finish the game with no energy pods remaining, but he needs at least one

energy pod at the start of each of his four turns.

(i) The diagram on the Insert Sheet shows the action (A, R or D) for each possible transition. Mark on

the diagram the cost associated with each action, i.e. the number of squares travelled. [3]

(ii) The dynamic programming tabulation on the Insert Sheet shows stages (turns), states (numbers of

energy pods remaining), actions (A, R or D) and a column for costs (numbers of squares travelled).

Complete this tabulation to find Jim’s best strategy, and the number of squares that Jim travels using

this strategy. [8]

7 The table shows the six activities in a project, together with their durations, precedences and the number of

people required for each activity.

A 3 — 2

B 2 — 1

C 1 A, B 3

D 5 B 2

E 4 B, C 1

F 5 D, E 2

Draw an activity network to represent these activities and their precedences. [2]

In addition to the precedences shown in the table, activity E must not start until at least 2 days after activity

B has finished.

(i) Determine the earliest and latest starting times for each activity, for completion of the project in the

minimum time. [4]

(ii) Identify the critical activities, and state the minimum time for completion of the project, assuming that

there are sufficient people available. [2]

(iii) Find the least number of people required for the project to be completed in the minimum time,

explaining your reasoning. [3]

(iv) By how many days must the project over-run if the least possible number of people are used? Justify

your answer. [2]

BLANK PAGE

BLANK PAGE

BLANK PAGE

Candidate

Centre Number Number

MATHEMATICS D2

Discrete Mathematics 2

INSERT

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

This insert contains a diagram for use in Question 6 (i) and a table for use in Question 6 (ii).

Write your name, Centre number and candidate number in the spaces at the top of this page and

attach it to your answers.

133

Specimen Materials – Mathematics © OCR 2000

6 (i) Write your answer on this sheet and hand it in with your answer booklet.

6 (ii) Write your answer on this sheet and hand it in with your answer booklet.

1 R

4 2 A

1 D

R

2

D

3 A

3

R

4 A

A

3 R

D

A

2 4 R

D

A

5

R

A

1 5 R

D

......................................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................................

BLANK PAGE

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary (AS) and Advanced Level

MATHEMATICS D2

Discrete Mathematics 2

MARK SCHEME

MAXIMUM MARK 60

includes the General Instructions for Marking

set out on pages 143 to 145.

1 (i) Capacity of C is 150 + 80 M1 For adding appropriate weights

i.e. 230 litres per minute A1 2 For correct answer

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii)

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii) The maximum flow is 230 litres per minute B1 For stating the correct maximum flow

Max flow is at least 230 from (ii) and min cut is

at most 230 from (i), and result follows from

max flow = min cut B1 2 For explanation using max flow = min cut

A1 2 For completely correct graph

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(i)

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii)

maximal matching is (Annie, Money Box),

(Ben, Book), (Cathy, Teddy Bear),

(Daniel, Football), (Elvis, Drum) A1 2 Alternating path and maximal matching

3 (i) The row minima for A, B, C are − 2, − 4, − 5

and the negatives of the column maxima for X,

Y, Z are −2, − 3, − 1 M1 For row minima and/or (neg) column maxima

Hence Richard’s play-safe strategy is A A1

Carol’s play-safe strategy is Z A1

Not stable, since ( −2) + (− 1) < 0 A1 4 Or equivalent demonstration of given result

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

8 9 4

(ii) Convert to positive values, e.g. 2 5 5 M1 For adding 6 to each entry

1 6 7

Maximise P subject to a + b + c ≤ 1 and

P − 8a − 2b − c ≤ 0 ,

P − 9a − 5b − 6c ≤ 0 , A1 For at least two correct constraints

P − 4a − 5b − 7c ≤ 0 . A1 For all four correct

a, b, c are the probabilities with which Richard

plays strategy A, B, C, and P represents the

value of the game. B1 4

4 Row reduction (or column reduction) gives: M1 For correct row (column) process

1st 2nd 3rd 4th 1st 2nd 3rd 4th

A 4 2 2 0 A 1 1 1 0

B 4 0 1 0 or B 2 0 1 1 A1 For correct reduced matrix

C 3 2 1 0 C 0 1 0 0

D 6 3 2 0 D 4 3 2 1

Column reduction (or row reduction) now gives: M1 For correct subsequent column (row) process

1st 2nd 3rd 4th 1st 2nd 3rd 4th

A 1 2 1 0 A 1 1 1 0

B 1 0 0 0 or B 2 0 1 1 A1 For correct reduced matrix

C 0 2 0 0 C 0 1 0 0

D 3 3 1 0 D 3 2 1 0

Augmenting the matrix (there are 2 possible results) M1 For correct augmentation process

1st 2nd 3rd 4th 1st 2nd 3rd 4th

A 0 1 0 0 A 0 0 0 0

B 1 0 0 1 or B 2 0 1 2 A1 Their reduced matrix correctly augmented

C 0 2 0 1 C 0 1 0 1

D 2 2 0 0 D 2 1 0 0

1A, 2B, 3C, 4D or 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D or 1C, 2B, 3D, 4A B1 8 For any one correct solution

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(i) For ‘young’ expectation is : 1 × p + 8 × (1 − p) M1 Correct calculation method for any one case

i.e. 8 − 7 p A1

For ‘mixed’: 3 × p + 5 × (1 − p) = 5 − 2 p A1

For ‘older’: 8 × p + 3 × (1 − p) = 3 + 5 p A1 4

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii)

B1 For identification of ‘optimal’ vertex

i.e. where p = 2

7

A1 5

6 (i)

A1 For all Turn 1 and Turn 2 costs correct

A1 3 For all remaining costs correct

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Stage State Action Cost

1 R 1 ← B1 Correct details for stage 4

4

2 A 4 ← *

1 D 1+0=1 ← M1 For method of updating costs

R 1+3=4 M1 For sub-optimization

2

D 4+1=5 ← A1 Correct details for stage 3

3

A 1+6=7

3

R 4+4=8 ←

4 A 4 + 7 = 11 ← *

A 1+6=7

3 R 5+4=9 ←

D 8+1=9 ← A1 Correct details for stage 2

A 5 + 7 = 12

2

4 R 8 + 4 = 12

D 11 + 2 = 13 ← *

A 8 + 6 = 14

5

R 11 + 5 = 16 ←

A 9 + 6 = 15

1 5 R 13 + 5 = 18 ← * A1 Correct details for stage 1

D 16 + 1 = 17

4:Attack A1

The number of squares is 18 A1 8

7

alternatively be activity on arc)

A1 2 For all arrows correctly shown (start and

finish nodes may be omitted)

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(i) Earliest starting times are: M1 Carrying out forward pass

A B C D E F

A1

0 0 3 2 4 8

Latest starting times are: M1 Carrying out reverse pass

A B C D E F

A1 4

0 0 3 3 4 8

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Critical events are A, B, C, E and F B1

Minimum completion time is 8 + 5 = 13 days B1 2

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iii)

or otherwise

A1 For a correct schedule, or equivalent

Since C and D overlap, 5 people are needed A1 3

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(iv)

One extra day is required A1 2 A correct schedule or argument is needed

BLANK PAGE

MARKING INSTRUCTIONS

1. Mark in red. Correct answers should be ticked, errors which determine marks should be indicated by

ringing or by a cross or by underlining, and omissions by . Do not cross out or obliterate any work. In

cases of particular difficulty, brief comments written on the script may be helpful should the script be

reviewed at a later stage. Each page of the script (including unused pages in an answer booklet) must have

some indication that it has been seen, e.g. a tick in the margin.

M Method mark, awarded for a valid method applied to the problem. Method marks are not lost for

numerical errors, algebraic slips or errors in units. However, it is not usually sufficient for a candidate

just to indicate an intention of using some method or just to quote a formula; the formula or idea must

be applied to the specific problem in hand, e.g. by substituting the relevant quantities into the formula.

A Accuracy mark, awarded for a correct answer or intermediate step correctly obtained. Accuracy marks

cannot be given unless the associated Method mark is earned (or implied).

B Mark for a correct result or statement independent of Method marks.

The marks indicated in the scheme may not be subdivided. If there is genuine doubt whether a candidate

has earned a mark, allow the candidate the benefit of the doubt. Unless otherwise indicated, marks once

gained cannot subsequently be lost, e.g. wrong working following a correct form of answer is ignored.

3. When a part of a question has two or more ‘method’ steps, the M marks are in principle independent unless

the scheme specifically says otherwise; and similarly where there are several B marks allocated. (The

notation ‘dep *’ is used to indicate that a particular M or B mark is dependent on an earlier, asterisked,

mark in the scheme.) Of course, in practice it may happen that when a candidate has once gone wrong in a

part of a question, the work from there on is worthless so that no more marks can sensibly be given. On the

other hand, when two or more steps are run together by the candidate, the earlier marks are implied and full

credit must be given.

4. The symbol implies that the A or B mark indicated is allowed for work correctly following on from

previously incorrect results. Otherwise, A and B marks are given for correct work only — differences in

notation are of course permitted. A and B marks are not given for ‘correct’ answers or results obtained

from incorrect working. When A or B marks are awarded for work at an intermediate stage of a solution,

there may be various alternatives that are equally acceptable. In such cases, exactly what is acceptable will

be agreed at the standardisation meeting.

5. Wrong or missing units in an answer should not lead to the loss of a mark unless the scheme specifically

indicates otherwise. Candidates are expected to give numerical answers to an appropriate degree of

accuracy, with 3 significant figures being the norm. Small variations in the degree of accuracy to which an

answer is given (e.g. 2 or 4 significant figures where 3 is expected) should not be penalised, while answers

which are grossly over- or under-specified should result in the loss of a mark. The situation regarding any

particular cases where the accuracy of the answer may be a marking issue will be decided at the

standardisation meeting.

6. If work is deleted and replaced, mark the replacement. If work is deleted without replacement, mark the

deleted work provided that it is legible. When two solutions are offered (neither crossed out), count what

appears the more serious attempt or the more complete attempt at the question. If attempts are

indistinguishable in these respects, count the better.

7. For a genuine misreading (of numbers or symbols) which is such that the object and the difficulty of the

question remain unaltered, mark according to the scheme but following through from the candidate’s data.

(Note that a miscopy of the candidate’s own working is not a misread but an accuracy error.) All M marks

are available for a ‘misread’ solution, and A or B marks are initially given, as per the scheme, but for

results as modified by the misread. At the end of each part of the question affected, deduct 0, 1 or 2

according as the number of ‘misread’ A and B marks earned in that part is 0, 1–4 or >4. If the misread

makes the question easier, a further deduction of 1 or more marks may be made at your discretion; this

deduction can include M marks.

8. For a partially correct part of a question, exhibit the detailed marks, e.g. M1 A0, in the margin at the point

where the marks have been first earned. Please give sufficient detail to allow your marking to be

understood. For a completely correct part of a question, only the total mark for that part need be given, in

the margin . Do NOT use subtotals (underlined or otherwise). The question total should be ringed and

placed in the margin at the end of the question. This total MUST equal the sum of all the marks in the

margin for that question and should be entered against the question number in the question grid on the

front of the script. (N.B. Addendum to the booklet ‘Instructions for Examiners’: please use the left hand

margin of left hand pages.)

If a candidate’s answer is in two instalments, indicate the carried forward total at the end of the first part

by, for example, and the brought forward total at the start of the second instalment by, for example, .

The total mark for the paper should be obtained (a) by adding all the unringed marks through the script

(checking at the same time that all pages have been marked) and (b) by adding the question marks in the

grid in reverse order. The two totals must, of course, tally, and the resulting figure should be written,

ringed, on the front of the script.

9. The following abbreviations may be used in a mark scheme, or may be found useful for notating a script.

AEF Any Equivalent Form (of answer or result is equally acceptable).

AG Answer Given on the question paper (so extra care is needed in checking that the detailed working

leading to the result is valid).

BOD Benefit Of Doubt (allowed for work whose validity may not be absolutely plain).

CAO Correct Answer Only (emphasising that no ‘follow through’ from a previous error is allowed).

ISW Ignore Subsequent Working.

MR Misread.

PA Premature Approximation (resulting in basically correct work that is numerically insufficiently

accurate).

SOS See Other Solution (the candidate makes a better attempt at the same question).

SR Special Ruling (detailing the mark to be given for a specific wrong solution, or a case where some

standard marking practice is to be varied in the light of a particular circumstance).

10. Remember that the mark scheme is designed to assist in marking incorrect solutions. Correct solutions get

full marks. Be alert for correct but unfamiliar or unexpected methods — often signalled by a correct result

following an apparently incorrect method. Such work must be carefully assessed. On the other hand, work

must not be judged on the answer alone, and answers that are given in the question, especially, must be

validly obtained. Key steps in the working must always be looked at and anything unfamiliar must be

investigated thoroughly. If a method is not catered for in the scheme, mark at discretion, imitating the

scheme as closely as possible. If a number of candidates are involved, or you are not sure what to do,

telephone your Team Leader.

11. For papers in which graphic (and programmable) calculators are allowed, some answers may be obtained

with little or no working visible. Allow full marks for correct answers (provided, of course, that there is

nothing in the wording of the question specifying that analytical methods are required). Where an answer is

wrong but there is some evidence of method, allow appropriate method marks. Wrong answers with no

supporting method score zero. If in doubt, consult your Team Leader.

12. If in any case the scheme operates with considerable unfairness, mark at discretion but please give a brief

reason and initial the mark. This discretion should only be used very rarely.

13. If there is any suspicion of cheating or copying, mark according to the scheme and enter the marks on the

marksheet as usual. Send the script(s) to your Team Leader, as per OCR instructions. Notes concerning

illness etc should be sent to OCR with the marksheets. Scripts should be marked as per the scheme.

14. Examiners are reminded of the VITAL importance of checking the accuracy of the addition of marks and of

the transcriptions onto the marksheets; in particular that the marks are entered against the right candidates.

Do not assume that the scripts are in the same order as the names on the marksheet. As detailed in §8

above, each Examiner must check the paper total, obtaining the same figure twice by different methods.

The transcription to the marksheet should also be checked; ideally, the Checker should read out the

candidate’s name and mark from the marksheet, while the Examiner checks with the front of the script.

The Examiner has final responsibility for the accuracy of the mark recorded on the marksheet.

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