THE UNIVERSITY OF MANITOBA

October 26 20 05 MID-TERM EXAMINATION

PAPER NO: XXX PAGE NO: 1 of 10
DEPARTMENT & COURSE NO: Chemistry 002.130 TIME: 2 HOURS
EXAMINATION: University I Chemistry: Models EXAMINER: 002.130 Committee______

This Chemistry 002.130 October mid-term examination paper is an objective-type, machine-scored

examination. All questions in this paper are of equal value.

There are forty-eight (48) questions on this examination paper.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

Do not fold, staple, tear, or otherwise mutilate the answer sheet.

Indicate your answers with a bold mark from a soft lead (graphite) pencil. Do NOT use ink, marking
pen, etc..

If you do any erasing, be sure that erasures are complete.

Each question has ONE correct answer only. DO NOT MARK MORE THAN ONE ANSWER PER
QUESTION.

Marks will NOT be deducted for wrong answers.

Blank sheets are attached to this examination to be used for rough work.

Numerical answers are correct to within 5%.

VERY IMPORTANT

For accurate processing of the answer sheet for this examination, we must have on your answer sheet:

1. your correct student number, and

2. your name

Write your student number in the column marked by a coloured arrow on the answer sheet and score, in
PENCIL, your student number correctly in the area to the right of this column.

NO CELLPHONES, PAGERS, CALCULATORS WITH TEXT, ETC. ARE PERMITTED. STUDENTS

FOUND WITH ANY OF THESE PROHIBITED ITEMS WILL HAVE THEIR ANSWER PAPERS
CONFISCATED AND WILL RECEIVE A GRADE OF ZERO ON THE EXAMINATION.

Submit the ANSWER SHEET for grading.

You may keep this question paper. We suggest that you record your answers so that you may compare
them against the answer key which will be posted on the Bulletin Board at the north (river) end of
the 200 floor of the Parker Chemistry Building immediately after the examination.
Paper: Chemistry 2.130 University I Chemistry: Models Page: 2 of 10

1. Which one of the following is the expected chemical formula for the compound ammonium nitride?

a) NH 3 N b) NH4 N c) NH4 NO d) (NH 4 ) 3 N e) NH 4 N 3

2. The stable isotope of aluminium, is 27 Al. Aluminium-25, 25 Al, is unstable, with a half-life of 7.2 s.

Which one of the following is the most likely mode of decay for 25 Al?

a) α-emission d) neutron-emission

b) β-emission e) positron-emission

c) δ-emission

238 206 238

3. Uranium-238, 92 U , decays to lead-206, 82 Pb , in a series of steps. In the first step 92 U emits an

α particle to form isotope X. Isotope X emits a β particle to form isotope Y. Which one of the
following is isotope Y?
234 234 234 243 242
a) 89 Ac b) 90 Th c) 91 Pa d) 92 U e) 93 Np

4. In which of the following nuclear reactions does the neutron to proton, n/p, ratio decrease in order to
achieve more nuclear stability?
27 27 0 8 8 0
(i) 12 Mg → 13 Al + −1 e (iv) 5B → 4Be + −1e
226 222 4 37 0 37
(ii) 88 Ra → 86 Rn + 2 He (v) 18Ar + −1e → 17Cl
14 14 0
(iii) 6 C → 7N + −1e

a) only (i) d) all of (i), (ii), and (iii)

b) only (ii) e) all of (ii), (iv), and (v)

c) only (i) and (iii)

5. Technetium-99m isotope is metastable; losing energy by disintegrating to a more stable version of

the isotope. 99mTc, with a half-life of about 6 h, is used to diagnose bone tumors.

If the delivery of a sample of 99mTc from the reactor to your laboratory requires 24 h, what is the
minimum amount of 99mTc that should be shipped in order that you receive 1.0 mg of 99mTc?

a) 1.0 mg b) 2.0 mg c) 4.0 mg d) 8.0 mg e) 16 mg

Paper: Chemistry 2.130 University I Chemistry: Models Page: 3 of 10

6. A sample of polonium-210, 210 Po, initially weighed 2.000 g. After 25 days, 0.125 g of polonium-210,
210 Po, remained, the rest of the sample having decayed to the stable lead-206, 206 Pb, isotope.

Calculate the mass of lead-206, 206 Pb, formed.

Atomic mass: 206 Pb: 205.974 amu 210 Po: 209.983 amu

a) 1.875 g b) 1.839 g c) 0.858 g d) 0.123 g

e) insufficient information is given to calculate the mass

7. Which of the following statements is(are) correct?

Statement I: Binding energy is the energy required to separate all the nucleons in an atomic
nucleus.

Statement II: Binding energy can be calculated from the difference between the mass of an atom
and the sum of the masses of its protons, neutrons, and electrons.

Statement III: The binding energy is released when a radioactive isotope decays.

a) Only Statement I is correct.

b) Only Statement II is correct.

c) Only Statement III is correct.

d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

e) All of Statements I, II, and III are correct.

8. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a) Radioisotopes have been used to elucidate (infer or deduce) the mechanism of complex chemical
reactions.

b) The radiation from radioisotopes is used to selectively kill cancer cells in radiotherapy.

c) The fusion of radioactive isotopes on Earth is used as a source of useful energy.

d) The decay of radioactive isotopes is used to determine the age of rocks and artifacts.

e) The fission of radioactive isotopes is used as a source of useful energy.

9. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a) The lithosphere is the rocky outer shell of the Earth and “floats” on the liquid mantle.

b) Molten iron and nickel are the major components of the earth’s mantle.

c) The major elements present in the Earth’s core are silicon and aluminum.

d) Sodium and magnesium ions are the most abundant metal ions in the earth’s crust.

e) The elements heavier than iron present in our solar system were formed by nuclear fusion
reactions in first generation stars.
Paper: Chemistry 2.130 University I Chemistry: Models Page: 4 of 10

10. Which one of the following is the most common gas in the air you breathe?

a) argon, Ar d) dioxygen, O2

b) carbon dioxide, CO2 e) water, H2 O

c) dinitrogen, N 2

11. Which one of the following best completes the sentence:

Beta particles are best described as , ejected at high speeds from a radioactive nucleus.

a) protons

b) particles similar in size to an electron, but oppositely charged

c) electrons

d) neutral particles weighing approximately one atomic mass unit

e) positive particles identical to the nucleus of an atom of 4He

12. The force holding the protons and neutrons together in a nucleus is known as

a) nuclear strong force d) gravity

b) gamma radiation e) mass defect

c) electrostatic attraction

13. The heaviest element to form by nuclear fusion processes in first-generation stars is

a) Fe b) Ge c) He d) Ne e) Se

14. Conversion of atmospheric dinitrogen into biologically available compounds is referred to as:

a) amination d) legumization

b) eutropification e) denitrification

c) fixation

15. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere contribute to global warming mainly by

a) absorbing ultraviolet light energy from the sun and emitting it as infrared radiation.

b) absorbing ultraviolet light energy from the sun and storing it as molecular vibrations.

c) absorbing infrared light energy from the sun and storing it as molecular vibrations.

d) absorbing ultraviolet light energy from the earth and storing it as molecular vibrations.

e) absorbing infrared light energy from the earth and storing it as molecular vibrations.
Paper: Chemistry 2.130 University I Chemistry: Models Page: 5 of 10

16. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

184
a) The isotope symbolized by 76 Os has 76 protons, 76 electrons and 108 neutrons.

b) The symbol representing the anion of bromine that has 35 protons, 44 neutrons and 36 electrons is
79 −
35 Br .
54 3+
c) The isotope symbolized by 24 Cr has 21 electrons, 30 neutrons and 24 protons.

d) The ion V 3+ has fewer protons in its nucleus than does the ion Zn2+.

e) The ion Mn2+ has more electrons than does the ion Co3+.

17. The model of the atom in which the positive charge and most of the mass is concentrated in a small
nucleus surrounded by the electrons was the contribution of

a) Dalton b) Rutherford c) Bohr d) Schrodinger e) Moseley

18. Which one of the following accurately completes the statement?

Statement: The majority of stable isotopes have in their nuclei ________

a) an even number of protons and an even number of neutrons.

b) an even number of protons and an odd number of neutrons.

c) an odd number of protons and an even number of neutrons.

d) an odd number of protons and an odd number of neutrons.

e) an equal number of neutrons and protons.

19. By using a mass spectrometer a scientist measured the isotopic composition of an element X in a
sample as:

amu: 193.96 194.96 195.96 197.97

% abundance: 32.90 33.80 25.30 8.000

From this information, calculate the atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X.

a) 193.5 b) 194.9 c) 195.1 d) 195.7 e) 198.1

20. Calculate the energy of a mole of photons of orange light with a wavelength of 585 nm.

a) 2.04 × 105 J b) 2.78 × 10–18 J c) 1.61 × 10–27 J d) 7.41 × 10–29 J e) 1.20 × 10–52 J

21. The experimental technique used to determine ionization energies from a l l energy levels of atoms
and molecules is known as

a) Pauli scattering d) VSEPR

b) x-ray diffraction e) photoelectron spectroscopy

c) mass spectrometry
Paper: Chemistry 2.130 University I Chemistry: Models Page: 6 of 10

22. Some elements emit light of a characteristic color when they are heated in a flame. Historically,
chemists used such "flame tests" to determine whether specific elements were present in a sample.
Characteristic wavelengths for a few selected elements are:

Ag 328.1 nm Ca 422.7 nm K 404.7 nm

Au 267.6 nm Cu 324.8 nm Mg 285.2 nm

Ba 455.4 nm Fe 372.0 nm Na 589.6 nm

When heated in a flame, a sample of an unknown substance was found to emit light of frequency
5.088 × 1014 s–1 . Which one of the following elements is probably in the sample?

a) Ag b) Ba c) Cu d) K e) Na

n=4
23. Atomic energy levels for hydrogen are represented in the diagram to the n=3
right. n=2

Energy
Considering only these levels, which one of the following represents
n=1
the transition which emits a photon with the highest frequency?

a) n=4 → n=3 b) n=4 → n=2 c) n=4 → n=1 d) n=2 → n=1

e) all of these transitions will emit a photon of the same frequency

24. Hund's rule specifies that

a) Electrons in "p" orbitals have higher energy than electrons in "s" orbitals.

b) Electrons in orbitals of the same energy are always unpaired.

c) Electrons in orbitals of the same energy occupy these orbitals singly with parallel spin until all
the orbitals are singly occupied, then subsequent electrons pair up in these same orbitals.

d) "d" orbitals are always filled before "s" orbitals from the third period on.

e) None of the statements a) to d) expresses Hund's rule.

25. Which one of the following combinations of quantum numbers for an electron in an atom is
permissible?
1 1
a) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 1, ms = –2 d) n = 5, l = 2, ml = 2, ms = +2
1 3
b) n = 2, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = +2 e) n = 3, l = 2, ml = –2, ms = 2
1
c) n = 4, l = 3, ml = –4, ms = –2

26. What is the maximum number of orbitals that may be associated with the set of quantum numbers
n = 4 and l = 3?

a) 7 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5
Paper: Chemistry 2.130 University I Chemistry: Models Page: 7 of 10

27. Which one of the following quantum number combinations correctly represents a "p" orbital?

a) n = 1; l = 1; ml = 0 d) n = 2; l = 1; ml = –2

b) n = 2; l = 2; ml = 0 e) n = 3; l = 1; ml = 0

c) n = 3; l = 2; ml = –1

28. Which one of the following is the correct ground state electron configuration for an isolated gaseous
phosphorus atom?

3s 3p 3s 3p

a) [Ne] d) [Ne]

3s 3p 3s 3p

b) [Ne] e) [Ne]

3s 3p

c) [Ne]

29. Which one of the following statements concerning the elements and the periodic table is
INCORRECT?

a) The properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.

b) There are more non-metallic elements than metallic elements.

c) In each row of the periodic table, the elements become less metallic in properties as the atomic
number of the element increases.

d) Some elements have properties that are intermediate between those of metals and those of non-
metals.

e) Elements that are members of the same chemical family are placed in the same group of the
periodic table.

30. In which one of the following pairs of atoms is the atom with the LARGER covalent (atomic)
radius listed first?

a) F > Cl b) B > C c) C > Si d) O > Si e) P > Al

31. Of the following elements, which one has the HIGHEST electronegativity?

a) aluminum b) boron c) carbon d) magnesium e) sodium

32. Of the bonds listed below, the most polar bond is

a) B–F (b) C–S c) C–O d) C–N e) F–Cl

Paper: Chemistry 2.130 University I Chemistry: Models Page: 8 of 10

33. From the graphs below, select the one which most nearly depicts the correlation of first ionization
energy with atomic number for the main group elements within a period of the periodic table.

Ionization
a) d)
Ionization

energy
energy

Atomic number Atomic number

Ionization

b) e)

Ionization
energy

energy
Atomic number Atomic number

c)
Ionization
energy

Atomic number

34. Which one of the following groups of elements is arranged correctly in order of increasing first
ionization energy?

a) C < Si < Li < Ne d) Ne < Si < C < Li

b) Ne < C < Si < Li e) Li < C < Si < Ne

c) Li < Si < C < Ne

35. Which one of the following is a correct statement about “valence shell expansion”?

Valence shell expansion is used to explain

a) that orbital size increases with an increase in the value of the principal quantum number.

b) that, compared to the fluorine atom, F, the valence shell of the fluoride ion, F– , contains an extra
electron.

c) that the oxide ion, O2– , is larger than the fluoride ion, F– .

d) bonding with atoms that involves more than eight (8) valence electrons.

e) that covalent radii increase with atomic number in any group of the periodic table.

36. What is the total charge on the species whose Lewis diagram is given in the figure to
O P O
the right?
O
a) +3 b) +2 c) 0 d) –2 e) –3
Paper: Chemistry 2.130 University I Chemistry: Models Page: 9 of 10

37. What is the formal charge on the N atom in the thiocyanate ion, CNS– , –
whose Lewis diagram is given to the right? C N S

a) +2 b) +1 c) 0 d) –1 e) –2

38. Which one of the following molecules or ions would have a shape (molecular geometry) described
as triangular (trigonal planar)?

a) BF 3 b) CO2 c) ClO 4 – d) PF 3 e) SnCl4

39. For the ion NH2 – , the geometric description that best describes the shape (molecular geometry) of
the ion is

a) angular (bent or V-shaped) d) triangular pyramidal

b) equilateral triangular e) square planar

c) linear

40. Which of the following molecules or ions would have a shape (molecular geometry) best described
as tetrahedral?

CH 4 PF 3 BF 3 ClO 4 – SF 4

a) CH 4 and ClO4 – d) CH 4 , PF 3 , ClO 4 – , and SF4

b) CH4 , ClO4 – , and SF 4 e) all of CH4 , PF 3 , BF 3 , ClO4 – , and SF 4

c) CH 4 , PF 3 , BF 3 , and ClO 4 –

41. Use the data in the accompanying table to calculate the C to Br bond length in carbon tetrabromide,
CBr 4 .

Molecule Bond length / pm

Cl 2 198

Br 2 234

CCl 4 176

a) 250 pm b) 234 pm c) 214 pm d) 200 pm e) 194 pm

42. According to VSEPR theory, which one of the following molecules or ions has a bond angle greater
than 110° but less than 120°?

a) NH 4 + b) BeF4 2– c) BCl3 d) SCl2 e) GeCl 2

43. Which one of the following is the correct general formula for an alkane?

a) CnH 2n b) CnH n+2 c) CnH n d) CnH 2n+2 e) CnH 2n-2

Paper: Chemistry 2.130 University I Chemistry: Models Page: 10 of 10

44. Vanillin is the flavoring agent used in vanilla extract and in vanilla ice cream. Its structure is
shown below.

O
1
C H

H C H
C C
2
C C CH3
H C O
3
O H

What are the approximate values for the three bond angles (1, 2, and 3) shown?

a) 1 = 109°; 2 = 109°; 3 = 109° d) 1 = 120°; 2 = 109°; 3 = 120°

b) 1 = 109°; 2 = 120°; 3 = 109° e) 1 = 120°; 2 = 120°; 3 = 120°

c) 1 = 90°; 2 = 120°; 3 = 120°

45. Alkenes are compounds of carbon and hydrogen with the general formula CnH 2n. If 0.561 g of any
alkene is burnt in excess dioxygen, how much water will be produced?

a) 0.035 mol b) 0.040 mol c) 0.047 mol d) 0.070 mol e) 0.470 mol

46. Which one of the following compounds shows geometric isomerism?

a) 1-butyne, CH3 − CH2 − C ≡ CH d) 2-butene, CH3 − CH = CH − CH3

b) 2-butyne, CH 3 − C ≡ C − CH3 e) methylpropane, CH3 − CH(CH 3 ) − CH3
c) 1-butene, CH 3 − CH2 − CH = CH2

47. Which one of the following best completes the sentence?

Consider the carbon skeleton shown below. If a(n) (A) group is attached to carbon 1,
a (B) alcohol will result; if the group is attached to carbon 2, a (C) alcohol will result.

a) A = hydroxyl; B = secondary; C = tertiary 7

C
b) A = carboxyl; B = primary; C = secondary
C C C C C C
c) A = hydroxyl; B = primary; C = secondary 1 2 3 4 5 6
d) A = carbonyl; B = secondary; C = primary

e) A = hydroxyl; B = tertiary; C = secondary

48. Which one of the following formulae represents a compound described as an alcohol?

a) C6H 13OH b) CH4 c) CH 3 d) C2H 6 e) CH 3 OCH 3

Paper: Chemistry 2.130 University I Chemistry: Models Page: 11 of 10

Chemistry 002.130
University I Chemistry: Structure & Modeling

ANSWERS to October 2004 Mid-term examination

1. D) 17. B) 33. C)
2. E) 18. A) 34. C)
3. C) 19. C) 35. D)
4. C) 20. A) 36. E)
5. E) 21. E) 37. B)
6. B) 22. E) 38. A)
7. D) 23. C) 39. A)
8. C) 24. C) 40. A)
9. A) 25. D) 41. E)
10. C) 26. A) 42. E)
11. C) 27. E) 43. D)
12. A) 28. B) 44. D)
13. A) 29. B) 45. B)
14. C) 30. B) 46. D)
15. E) 31. C) 47. C)
16. E) 32. A) 48. A)