 

AIEEE/FST 1
26.12.2010
BRILLIANT’S
FULL SYLLABUS TEST
TOWARDS
FOR STUDENTS OF
OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSE
ALL INDIA ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011

MATHEMATICS, PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY

Time: 3 hours Maximum marks: 432

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432.
2. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
Part A − MATHEMATICS (144 Marks) − Questions No. 1 to 9 and 13 to 21 and 25 to 30
consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 10 to 12 and 22 to 24 consist of EIGHT (8)
marks each for each correct response.
Part B − PHYSICS (144 Marks) − Questions No. 33 to 49 and 54 to 60 consist of FOUR (4)
marks each and Questions No. 31 to 32 and 50 to 53 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each

SEAL
correct response.
Part C − CHEMISTRY (144 Marks) − Questions No. 64 to 69, 73 to 90 consist of FOUR (4)
marks each and Questions No. 61 to 63 and 70 to 72 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each
correct response.
3. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated in instruction No. 2 for correct response of each
question.1/4 (one-fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an
item in the Answer Sheet.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars/ marking responses on Side-1 and
Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, page
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination
hall/room
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This
space is given at the bottom of each page

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :________________________________________________

Roll Number: in figures
: in words ___________________________________________________________________
Examination Centre Number:
Name of Examination Centre (in Capitals): ___________________________________________________
Candidate
s Signature: ___________________________Invigilator
s Signature:____________________

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PART A: MATHEMATICS

1. If A = {x ∈ C : x2 = 1} and B = {x ∈ C : x4 = 1}, 5. If the progressions 3, 10, 17, ....... and

then A ∆ B is equal to 63, 65, 67, ....... are such that their nth
terms are equal, then n is equal to
(1) { − 1, 1} (2) { − i, i}
(1) 13 (2) 15 (3) 19 (4) 18
(3) { − 1, 1, − i, i} (4) none of these 6. In a football championship, 231
matches were played. Every team
2. If n(A) = 125, n(B) = 350, n(A − B) = 65,
played one match with the other. The
then n(A ∪ B) is equal to
number of teams participating in the
(1) 415 (2) 165 championship is
(1) 21 (2) 22
(3) 370 (4) none of these
(3) 11 (4) none of these
3. The relation R defined on A = {1, 2, 3} by
7. Ten different letters of an alphabet are
a R b if |a2 − b2| ≤ 5. Which of the given. Words with five letters are formed
following is false? from these given letters. Then the
number of words which have at least
(1) R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (2, 1), (1, 2),
one letter repeated is
(2, 3), (3, 2)}
(1) 69760 (2) 30240
(2) R− 1 = R (3) 99784 (4) none of these
(3) Domain of R = {1, 2, 3} 8. A problem in Mathematics is given to
3 students whose chances of solving
(4) Range of R = {5}
1 1 1
individually are , and . The
4. The greatest value of λ ≥ 0 for which 3 5 4
both the equations 2x2 + ( λ − 1)x + 8 = 0 probability that the problem will be
2 solved at least by one is
and x − 8x + λ + 4 = 0 have real roots is
1 2 3 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 9 (2) 15 (3) 12 (4) 16 5 5 5 5

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Questions 9 to 14 are Assertion-Reason type. answer. If the probability

Each question contains two statements; of a common mistake is
Statement 1 and Statement 2. Mark your 1
, then the probability
responses according to the choices given 1001
below. that the answer was
13
(1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true, correct is .
14
statement 2 is not the correct explanation
of statement 1. Statement 2: If E1 and E2 are mutually

(2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false. exclusive and exhaustive

events with nonzero prob-
(3) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true. ability of a random experi-
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true, ment and E is any other
statement 2 is the correct explanation of event of a same experi-
statement 1. ment, then
P E /E ⋅P E
1 1
1 P E /E =
9. Statement 1: f x = is 1 P E /E P E
3 1 1
x4
P E /E P E
decreasing in R − {4} 2 2

Statement 2: f′ (x) < 0 ∀ x ≠ 4 11. Statement 1: Let α, β, γ > 0 and

π
10. Statement 1: x and y are 2 weak α β  γ = .
2
students in Mathematics
If p = 5 + tan α tan β,
and their chances of solving
q = 5 + tan β tan γ,
1
a problem correctly are r = 5 + tan γ tan α, then
8
the maximum value of
1
and respectively. They p  q  r is 3 5 .
12
are given a question and Statement 2: tan α tan β + tan β tan γ
they obtain a same
+ tan γ tan α = 1

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12. Statement 1: If a, b, c > 0 and a b c

1 1 1
= = where
1 1 1 1 a b c
cot  cot 2 2 2
a b
a1, b1, c1 and a2, b2, c2 ∈ R.
1 1 π
 cot = , then
c 2
15. The area in the 1st quadrant enclosed
ab + bc + ca = 1.
by x-axis, the line x = y 3 and the circle

1 1
x2 + y2 = 4 is
1
Statement 2: tan a = cot
a π π
(1) sq.units (2) sq.units
∀ a > 0. 2 6

π
13. Statement 1: x = 2 is a repeated root of (3) sq.units (4) π sq. units
3
3 2
the equation x − 3x + 4 = 0.
16. The equation of the circle which passes
through the points (1, − 2) and (4, − 3)
Statement 2: If f(x) = x3 − 3x2 + 4, then
and whose centre lies on 3x + 4y = 7 is
f ″ (2) = 0.
(1) 15 (x2 + y2 ) − 90x + 18y + 50 = 0
14. Statement 1: If a, b, c ∈ R and equations (2) x2 + y2 − 94x + 18y + 55 = 0
2
ax + bx + c = 0 and
2
(3) 15 (x2 + y2 ) − 94x + 18y + 55 = 0
x + 5x + 7 = 0 have a
common root, then (4) 15 (x2 + y2 ) + 94x + 18y + 55 = 0
a c 7
= .
b 5 17. The tangent to the circle x2 + y2 = 5 at
(1, − 2) also touches the circle
Statement 2: If both the roots of x2 + y2 − 8x + 6y + 20 = 0. Then the point
a1x2 + b1x + c1 = 0 and of contact is

a2 x2 + b2 x + c2 = 0 are (1) ( − 1, 3) (2) (3, − 1)

identical, then
(3) (3, 1) (4) ( − 3, − 1)

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18. Events A, B, C are mutually exclusive 21. The value of the limit
3x  1 2 2 2
events such that P A = , lim 1
1/cos x
2
1/cos x
3
1/cos x
..........
3
π
1x 1  2x x→
P B = , and P C = . Then set 2
4 2 2
cos x
of possible values of x are in the interval 2
1/cos x is
10
1 2 1 13
(1) , (2) ,
3 3 3 3 (1) 10! (2) 10C10
1 1
(3) [0, 1] (4) , (3) 10C1 (4) 1010
3 2
19. The mean and variance of a binomial 22. The general solution of the differential
distribution are 12 and 3 respectively. equation y (x2y + ex ) dx − ex dy = 0 is
Then the probability of 2 successes is
2 14 (1) x3 y − 3e x = Cy (2) x3y + 3ex = Cy
16 3 1
(1) C
2 4 4 (3) y3x − 3ey = Cx (4) y3x + 3ey = Cx

16
23. If the vectors i  2x j  3yk and
16 1
(2) C
2 2 i  3x j  2yk are orthogonal to each
2 14 other, then the locus of the point (x, y) is
16 1 3
(3) C (1) a circle (2) an ellipse
2 4 4
(4) none of these (3) a parabola (4) a straight line

4 3 3
x 1 x λ 24. Given vectors x =3 i 6 j k ,
20. The value of λ if lim = lim
x 1 2 2
y = i 4 j 3k and z =3 i 4 j 12k , then
x →1 x → λ x λ

(λ ≠ 0) is the projection of x × y on vector z is

3 8 4 3 (1) 14 (2) − 14 (3) 12 (4) 15
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 3 3 4

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25. Let a = 2 i  j  k, b = i  2 j k and

∫
n
3 sin x
28. dx , n ∈ N is equal to
c = 2 i  3 j  4k . A vector r satisfying n 6
cos x
r × b = c × b and r ⋅a = 0 is
n
1
3 3
(1)  2 i  2 j  2k (1) tan x C
n
(2)  2 i  j  3k n
1
3 3
(2) tan x C
(3)  2 i  j  5k 3 n

3 n1
(4) i  5 j  3k (3) tan x C
n
26. The equation of the plane through the (4) none of these
line x + y + z + 3 = 0 = 2x − y + 3z + 1 and
4 4

∫ ∫
x y z
parallel to the line = = is 29. If f x dx = 4 and 3f x dx =7 ,
1 2 3
1 2
(1) x − 5y + 3z = 7
1
(2) x − 5y + 3z = − 7 then the value of ∫ f x dx is
2
(3) x + 5y + 3z = 7
(1) 2 (2) − 3
(4) none of these
(3) 5 (4) none of these
1 4
27. ∫ sin x
2
dx is equal to 30. The equation of the curve in which
1x subnormal varies as the square of the
ordinate is (λ is constant of
1 3 1 4
sin x sin x proportionality)
(1) C (2) C
3 4 λx
(1) y = Ce2λ x (2) y = Ce
1 5 1
sin x sin x 2
(3) C (4) C (3) y  λ x = C (4) y2 + λ x2 = C
5 x 2

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PART B : PHYSICS

31. E, m, p and G denote energy, mass, bank to a maximum of u at the middle

angular momentum and gravitational of the river. When the boat is rowed at
2 right angles to the bank, its downstream
Ep
constant. Then has the dimensions drift is
5 2
m G
of
2 ud ud
(1) (2)
v v
(1) Length (2) Mass

(3) Angle (4) Time vd ud

32. In a vernier calipers, n divisions on the
mainscale have the same length as
(n + 1) divisions on the vernier scale.
One mainscale division is
a units. The
least count of the vernier on the vernier
calipers is
(3) (4)
u 2v
34. A uniform door of 500 N weight is fixed
with the help of hinges A and B. If the
lower hinge supports the entire weight
of the door, the magnitude of the force
exerted on the door at the lower hinge is

a a
(1) units (2) units
n 1 n 1

n 1 n 1
(3) units (4) units
a a

33. A boat capable of a speed v in still (1) 510.8 N (2) 515.4 N

water wants to cross a river of width d.
The speed of the water current
(3) 520.2 N (4) 525.6 N
increases linearly from zero at either

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35. In the Figure shown, mass of the block is

20 kg, force constant of the spring is
k = 75 N/m, the stretch of the spring in
position A is 0.9 m, the force P = 300 N.
The velocity v of the block when it
reaches the top point C is

36. The resulting speed after adding a mass

m is

3 1
(1) g ms (2) 1 g ms− 1
4

5 1 5 1
(3) g ms (4) g ms
4 6

37. Loss in kinetic energy of the descending

body on adding the mass m is

9 2 7 2
(1) 145 J (2) 140 J (1) mv J (2) mv J
16 9

(3) 135 J (4) 130 J 9 2 7 2

(3) mv J (4) mv J
11 16
Questions 36 and 37 are based on the
Questions 38 to 40 are based on the following
following paragraph
paragraph

Two bodies of masses m and 2m are A sphere of mass 3 kg hits a smooth

connected by a light inextensible spring horizontal floor with a speed 20 m/s at an
passing over a smooth pulley and released. angle of 30° to the line of impact. The
After 4 sec a mass m is suddenly added to the 1
ascending body. coefficient of restitution is .
3

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38. The velocity of the sphere after collision radii of each column are 40 cm and
is 50 cm respectively. When the load
distribution is uniform, the compressional
(1) 10 m/s (2) 10 2 m/ s strain on each column is (Youngs
modulus of steel is 2 × 1011 Pa)
10 10 1
(3) m/ s (4) ms
2 3
(1) 2.65 × 10− 6 (2) 2.45 × 10− 6
39. After impact, the angle between the −4 −4
(3) 2.45 × 10 (4) 2.65 × 10
line of impact and the direction of the
sphere is
43. A particle is performing simple
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 52° (4) 60° harmonic motion along x-axis with
amplitude 6 cm and time period 1.8 sec.
40. The impulse given to the ball by the The minimum time taken by the particle
floor is to move from x = + 3 to x = + 6 cm and
back again is given by
1 1
(1) 40 3 kg ms (2) 36 3 kg ms
(1) 0.5 s (2) 0.6 s
1 1
(3) 40 2 ms (4) 36 2 ms
(3) 0.7 s (4) 0.8 s
41. The escape velocity for an atmospheric
44. Two sources of sound S1 and S2 each
particle 2000 km above the earths
surface is (Radius of the earth emitting waves of wavelength λ are
6 −2 kept symmetrically on either side of the
= 6.4 × 10 m and g = 10 ms )
centre O of a circle ABCD such that
−1 −1 S1O = S2O = 2λ. When the detector is
(1) 9.68 kms (2) 9.78 kms
moved along the circumference of the
−1
(3) 9.88 kms (4) 9.98 kms− 1 circle, the number of maxima recorded
by the detector in one revolution is
42. Four identical hollow cylindrical
columns of steel, support a big structure (1) 24 (2) 18 (3) 12 (4) 6
of mass 60,000 kg. The inner and outer

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45. A reversible heat engine converts one (1) 22.35 µC (2) 25.33 µC
fourth of heat input into work. When the
temperature of the sink is reduced by (3) 27.52 λ µC (4) 29.45 µC
200°C, its efficiency is doubled. The
temperature of the source is 48. A magnetic material of coercivity
3
2 × 10 A/m is placed inside a solenoid
(1) 800 K (2) 750 K
of length 25 cm having 250 turns, the
(3) 700 K (4) 650 K current strength that should be flown
through the solenoid to demagnetise
46. In the following truth table where A and B the material completely is
are inputs and Y the output
(1) 1.4 A (2) 1.6 A (3) 1.8 A (4) 2.0 A
A B Y
0 0 1 49. A long cylindrical conductor of cross-
1 0 1 sectional area A is made of a material
whose resistivity depends only on the
0 1 1
distance r from the axis of the
1 1 0 L
conductor as ρ= where α is a
The output Y is 2
r
constant. The resistance per unit length
(1) AB (2) AB
of such a conductor is

(3) A B (4) AB
2
2 πA 2πα
(1) (2)
47. Two masses of 1 kg each carry equal α 2
A
charges Q and are suspended by light
strings of length 1 m from a point. The
2 2
strings are hung at 30° inclination to the πα πA
(3) (4)
vertical. The value of charge Q when A α
the charges are in equilibrium is

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Question numbers 50 and 51 contain two Statement 2: Gamma rays travel at the
statements. Of the four choices in each question speed of light.
given below, select the correct choice.
(1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is
50. Statement 1: A dentist uses a concave true; statement 2 is a correct explana-
mirror to examine a small tion of statement 1.
cavity in the tooth of a
patient.
(2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is
true, statement 2 is not a correct
Statement 2: A concave mirror always
explanation of statement 1.
forms a magnified and
erect images.
(3) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is
true.
(1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is
true; statement 2 is a correct explana-
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is
tion of statement 1.
false.

(2) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is

52. A square metal wire loop of side 20 cm
true, statement 2 is not a correct
and resistance 1 Ω is moved with a
explanation of statement 1.
constant velocity v0 in a uniform

(3) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is magnetic field of induction B = 4 Wb/m2.

true. The magnetic field lines are
perpendicular to the plane of the loop
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is and directed inwards. The loop is
false. connected to a network of resistors
each of value 2 Ω. The resistance of
51. Statement 1: Gamma rays are more load wires AB and CD are negligible. To
penetrating than X-rays. get a current of 2 mA in the loop, the
speed of rotation of the loop is

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0.001 m. The position of the images and

the distance of separation between
them is

(1) 5.5 cm/s (2) 6.5 cm/s

(3) 7.5 cm/s (4) 8.5 cm/s (1) 0.003 m (2) 0.015 m

(3) 0.0015 m (4) 0.03 m

53. A photosensitive material would emit
electrons when excited by photons
beyond a threshold. To cross the threshold
one should increase
(1) intensity of light
(2) frequency of light
55. A grating with 15000 lines/inch is used
with a monochromatic light of
wavelength 5890 Å. When light is
incident normally on the grating, the
maximum number of orders of spectrum
that can be seen on the screen with this
grating is

(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) wavelength of light
(3) 1 (4) zero
(4) voltage applied to the light source
56. The walls of a closed cubical box of
edge 30 cm are made of a material of
54. A point object is placed in front of a
thickness 1 mm and coefficient of thermal
convex lens (of focal length 0.2 m) at a
distance of 0.3 m. The lens is cut into conductivity 4 × 10− 4 cal/gm/cm/°C.
two halves each part is displaced by The interior of the box is maintained at

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100°C above the outside temperature 59. A radioactive material has an initial
by a heater placed inside the box and mass of 16 g. After 120 days it reduces
connected across 400 V d.c. The to 0.5 g. Half-life of the radioactive
resistance of the heater is element is

(1) 4.07 Ω (2) 5.83 Ω (1) 30 days (2) 24 days

(3) 6.36 Ω (4) 7.54 Ω (3) 20 days (4) 18 days

57. A hydrogen atom emits a photon of 60. In the given circuit, V CE = 30 V, VBB = 20 V,
wavelength 1027Å. Its angular RB = 1 MΩ, RC = 10 kΩ. Neglecting VBE
momentum changes by and taking β = 50, the values of IC and
h h IE are respectively
(1) (2)
π 2π

3h 2h
(3) (4)
2π π

58. In nuclear reaction, energy released

per fission is 200 MeV. When uranium
235 is used as nuclear fuel in a reactor
having a power level of 1 MW, the
amount of fuel needed in 30 days will
be (1) 1 mA, 1.02 mA

(2) 2 mA, 2.02 mA

(1) 48 g (2) 42 g
(3) 10 mA, 1 mA
(3) 38 g (4) 32 g (4) 2 mA, 0.99 mA

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PART C: CHEMISTRY

61. The hydrated salt Na2SO4 ⋅ nH2O under- 64. If the shortest wavelength of the
goes 55% loss in mass on heating at 400 K spectral line of H atom in the Lyman
and becomes anhydrous. The number series is y, then the longest wavelength
of water crystallisation n is of the line in Balmer series of Li2+ is

(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 7 (4) 2 y

(1) 9y (2)
9
62. 75.2 g of C6H5OH (phenol) is dissolved in

1 kg of solvent of solution (14 K molality− 1). 5y 5

(3) (4)
Its depression in freezing point is 7.0 K, 4 4y
calculate the percentage of phenol
that dimerises. 3
65. In PO , the formal charge on each
4
(1) 100% (2) 90.0% oxygen atom and P − O bond order
respectively are
(3) 75.0% (4) 50.0%

63. At 300 K, C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) → (1) − 0.75, 0.0 (2) − 0.75, 1.0

2CO2(g) + 2H2O(l);
(3) − 0.75, 1.25 (4) − 3, 1.25

∆H = − 336.2 kcal. What is the value of

66. The volume of 2.8 g of CO at 27°C and
∆U approximately at 300 K for the same
0.821 atmospheric pressure is
−1
reaction (R = 2 cal degree mol− 1)?
(1) 0.3 L (2) 1.5 L
(1) − 320.0 kcal (2) − 335.0 kcal

(3) − 337.2 kcal (4) − 353.0 kcal (3) 3.0 L (4) 30 L

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67. In mixture of liquid A and B, show 70. Consider the reaction:

negative deviation when Cl2(aq) + H2S(aq) →
 
(1) ∆Vmax > 0 S 2H 2Cl
s aq aq

(2) ∆Hmax < 0

The rate equation for this reaction is:
(3) A − B interaction is weaker than Rate = K[Cl2] [H2S]. Which of these
A − A and B − B mechanisms is /are consistent with this
rate equation?
(4) A − B interaction is more than A − A
and B − B
(A) Cl2 + H2S → H+ + Cl− + Cl+ + HS−
68. For a zero order reaction, the plot of (slow)
concentration of reactant against time − −
+
Cl + HS → H + Cl + S (fast)
+
is linear with

(1) − ve slope and nonzero intercept (B) (fast equilibrium)

(2) + ve slope and zero intercept

Cl2 + HS− → 2Cl− + H+ + S (slow)
(3) − ve slope and zero intercept
(1) (B) only (2) Both (A) and (B)
(4) + ve slope and nonzero intercept

69. The standard reduction potentials of (3) (A) only (4) Neither (A) nor (B)
2+ 2+
Fe  Fe and Sn  Sn are − 0.44 and
71. At 25°C, the solubility product of
− 0.14 volt respectively. For the cell
− 11
2 2 Mg(OH)2 is 1.0 × 10 . At which pH, will
reaction Fe  Sn → Fe Sn ,
s aq aq s +2
Mg ions start precipitating in the form
the standard emf is
of Mg(OH)2 from a solution 0.1 M Mg+2
(1) + 0.30 V (2) + 0.58 V ions?

(3) − 0.58 V (4) − 0.30 V

(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 8 (4) 9

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72. CuCl has face centred cubic lattice. Its 75. Aluminium chloride is a/an
3
density is 3.4 g/cm . The length of the
(1) Bronsted − Lowry acid
unit cell in Å is (molar mass of CuCl = 99)
(2) Arrhenius acid
(1) 5.76 Å (2) 7.58 Å
(3) Lewis acid
(3) 2.8 Å (4) 11.4 Å
(4) Lewis base
73. The correct order of the O − O bond
76. NCl3 is possible but not NCl5. In case of
length in O2, H2O2 and O3 is
phosphorus PCl3 and PCl5 are possible,
(1) O2 > O3 > H2O2 it is due to

(1) availability of vacant d-orbitals in P

(2) O3 > H2O2 > O2
but not in nitrogen

(3) H2O2 > O3 > O2 (2) lower electronegativity of P than N

(4) O2 > H2O2 > O3 (3) lower tendency of H − bond formation

in P than N
74. The correct statement among the
(4) P occurs as solid whereas N is a gas
following is:
77. The correct decreasing order of acidic
(1) Sodium metal is manufactured by
nature is
the electrolysis aqueous solution of
NaCl. (1) HClO > HBrO > HIO

(2) Sodium is a powerful oxidising agent. (2) HIO > HBrO > HClO

(3) Sodium is insoluble in liquid ammonia. (3) HBrO > HIO > HClO

(4) HClO > HIO > HBrO

(4) Sodium is easily oxidised.

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78. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives
(1) Xe (2) XeO2 (3) XeO3 (4) XeO4
79. Which one of the following is not
optically active?
81. Which of the following statements are
correct about nucleophiles?
(1) All negatively charged species are
nucleophiles.
(2) Nuclophiles are Lewis bases.

(3) Alkenes, alkynes and benzene are

(1) [Co(en)3 ]3+
nucleophiles.

(2) [Cr(OX)3 ]− 3 (4) All the above statements are

correct.
(3) cis [CoCl2 (en)2 ]+ 82. 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols can be distin-
guished by
(4) trans [CoCl2 (en)2 ]+
(1) Lucas test

80. Select the correct statement. (2) Victor Meyer test

(1) During the decomposition of an (3) action with hot silver powder
metallic oxide into oxygen and
(4) all the above methods
metal vapour, entropy increases.
83. 1°, 2° and 3° amines can be
(2) Decomposition of an oxide is an
distinguished by
endothermic change.
(1) action with HNO2
(3) To make ∆G° negative, temp-
erature should be large enough so (2) Hinsberg reagent
that T∆S° > ∆H°.
(3) acetylation

(4) All statements are correct. (4) carbylamine reaction

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84. Reducing property of monosaccharide 87. Ozonolysis of benzene with zinc and
is due to the presence of water gives

(1) − CHO group

(1) 3 moles of ethanol
(2) keto group
(2) 3 moles of ethanal
(3) acetal group
(3) 1 mole of ethanal and 1 mole of
(4) anomeric hydroxyl group
HCHO
85. Which of the following contain isoprene
units? (4) 3 moles of

(1) Dacron (2) Nylon 66

(3) Teflon (4) Natural rubber

86. The products A, B and C of the following reaction are respectively

A B C

(1) cis-2-butene, trans-2-butene, mixture of cis and trans-2-butene

(2) trans-2-butene, trans-2-butene, trans-2-butene

(3) cis-2-butene, cis-2-butene, butane

(4) cis-2-butene, trans-2-butene, butane

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88. The products A, B and C of the following reaction are respectively

A B C

(1) C6H5COC6H5 C6H5CHOH, C6H5CH3 C6H5CH2OH

(2) C6H5CH2OH C6H5CH2OH, C6H5COONa C6H5CH2OH

(3) C6H5COOH C6H5CH2OH, C6H5COONa C6H5CH2OH

(4) C6H5COOH C6H5CH2OH, C6H5COONa C6H5CH3

(3) C6H5N2Cl and C6 H5 Cl

89. (4) C6H5N2Cl and C6H5OH

90. Which of the following compounds will

not undergo haloform reaction?

The products A and B of the above CH3OH C6H5 COCH3 HCHO CH3CONH2
reaction are respectively
A B C D
(1) C6H5OH, C6H5BF3 (1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, D

(2) C6H5N2Cl and C6 H5 F (3) A, C, D (4) A, B, C

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READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet
(Side-1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point
Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified
space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. For each incorrect response, one-fourth of the total marks allotted to the question would be
deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if
no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
5. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except
for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code) will another set be provided.
6. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet.
All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test
Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work
.
7. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away
this Test Booklet with them.
8. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave
his/her seat.
10. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer
Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a
candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have
handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates
are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in
the Attendance Sheet.
11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone etc., is
prohibited.
12. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
and Regulations of the Board.
13. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
14. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of
papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit
Card inside the examination hall/room.

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