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1) Find a cause
a) Substantive law
b) Violation of statute, breach of common law standard of care, etc.
2) Decide court in which to bring suit
a) State v. federal court
i) Subject matter jurisdiction
b) Which state or federal court
i) Personal jurisdiction
ii) Venue
3) Decide which law to apply
a) Source of law doctrine – Erie
4) File a complaint and notify opposing party
5) Disclosure and discovery
6) Attempts to avoid litigation
a) Motions, settlement, etc.
7) Modification of parties
a) Joinder
8) Trial – not covered in this course
9) Finality of judgments
a) Preclusion
THE COMPLAINT
RESPONSES: MOTIONS
Rule 12(a)
o (1)(A-C): Must serve answer to complaint, answer to counterclaim or crossclaim, and reply to an answer
within 21 days of service
o (4): Service of motion extends responsive pleadings by 14 days of court’s decision on disposition of motion
Rule 12(b): Defenses that can be raised by motion (or answer)
o (1): Lack of subject matter jurisdiction
o (2): Lack of personal jurisdiction
o (3): Improper venue aaa = Defense is waived if
o (4): Insufficient process not raised in first response
per Rule 12(g)(2) and 12(h)
o (5): Insufficient service of process
o (6): Failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted
o (7): Failure to join a party under Rule 19
Rule 12(c): Motion for Judgment on the Pleadings
o After pleadings are over, and before discovery begins, either party can file motion which will on be granted if
there are no factual disputes
Rule 12(d): Result of Presenting Matters Outside the Pleadings
o Only applies to motions under Rules 12(b)(6) and 12(c)
o If evidence outside the pleadings are presented, then the motions must be treated as a motion for summary
judgment and each party should be given a reasonable opportunity to present pertinent material
Rule 12(e): Motion for a More Definite Statement
o Must be made in response to a pleading requiring a response and must be made before any response is filed
Forms:
o Form 30: Answer Presenting Defenses Under Rule 12(b)
Responding to Allegations in the Complaint
Failure to State a Claim
Failure to Join a Required Party
o Form 40: Motion to Dismiss Under Rule 12(b) for Lack of Jurisdiction, Improper Venue, Insufficient Service of
Process, or Failure to State a Claim
1) Waivers
a) Justification for waivers
i) Issues in Rules 12(b)(2-5) can all be consented to
ii) Cannot consent to issues in Rules 12(b)(1,6,7)
iii) Will not necessarily know who is a required party until discovery is over
iv) Without SMJ, judge has no authority to decide a case
v) If there is no claim, then there is no case
b) Defenses in motions v. answer
i) All defenses must be stated in responsive pleading if required but those in 12(b)(1-7) can additionally be
raised by motion
ii) If 12(b)(1,6,7) motions are not raised before response, then they can no longer be raised by motion and
must be included in a response or raised at trial
iii) Dismissal under Rule 12(b)(1) can be issued by judge at any time
iv) Always raise the defense via motion if possible because it requires less work
v) Motions cannot be amended, only pleadings
RESPONSES: ANSWERS
AMENDMENTS
Rule 11(b): Representations to the Court – by presenting to the court any filing through any means, the attorney
certifies to the best of his knowledge, information and belief after an inquiry reasonable under the circumstances,
that
o (1): there is no improper purpose such as harassment, undue delay, etc.
o (2): claims and defenses are warranted by existing law, or by a nonfrivolous argument for changing current
law
o (3): facts have evidentiary support, or will likely have such support after a reasonable opportunity for
discovery
o (4): denials of fact are warranted on evidence, or if stated, reasonably based on belief or lack of information
Rule 11(c): Sanctions
o (1): if after notice and a chance to respond and fix problem, a violation of 11(b) is found, court can impose
sanctions for which attorney and law firm are jointly responsible
o (2): motion for sanctions must first be served on violating party, and only filed with court if violating party
does not fix problem with 21 days of service (“safe harbor”)
o (4): can take any form, but no greater than needed to deter violator and those similarly situated
1) Patsy’s Brand, Inc. v. I.O.B. Realty, Inc. (pg. 87)
a) Court issues a sua sponte sanction of D’s law firm for relying on its clients assertion that it had been selling pasta
sauce under its trademark before P when, under its previous representation, it was clear that P was unreliable.
b) Pennie and Edmonds might have acted in subjective good faith in believing the information in client’s affidavit,
but the proper standard for Rule 11(b) is objective reasonableness
i) Given the information that lead to the trial court’s preliminary injunction when prior counsel represented
client, P&E did not engage in a “reasonable inquiry under the circumstances”
2) In Re: Pennie & Edmonds LLP (pg. 91)
a) Court rules for sua sponte sanctions should apply harder to prove subjective bad faith standard (whether P&E
actually knew client was lying), instead of easier to prove objective bad faith standard (would a similarly situated
reasonable firm have known client was lying)
i) Subjective standard in sua sponte sanctions because there is no “safe harbor”
ii) Objective standard when sanction brought by motion because of “safe harbor”
b) Dissent says there is only a single mens rea requirement in Rule 11(b) with respect to whether there has been a
violation irrespective of how to procedurally apply sanction
i) Implied reasoning:
(1) Too hard to prove the subjective standard
(2) Judge unwilling to impose subjective standard – calling lawyer evil
3) Frantz v. United States Powerlifting Federation (pg. 99)
a) P files a claim against Ds in direct contravention of recent precedent without mentioning or distinguishing recent
precedent.
i) Regardless of whether D recognizes via motion the precedential grounds for dismissing P’s claim under 12(b)
(6), P is in violation of Rule 11(b) if it does not conduct “reasonable inquiry” into the law, find the
precedential roadblock, and make a “nonfrivolous” argument for overturning or distinguishing it
ii) A single claim sufficient under Rule 11 does not validate the pleading if it contains additional claims
insufficient under Rule 11
iii) To pass Rule 11, P need not plead facts certain facts, but P engage in a reasonable inquire to know certain
facts that make it reasonable to press litigation
(1) Rule 8, and the line of pleading cases tells you what facts satisfy notice pleading
b) Model Code of Professional Responsibility, adopted by most bars, requires attorney to disclose adverse case law
to client, even if opposing counsel does not mention it
i) This also gives fair notice to D, and allows time for court to consider
o (c): renamed party knew or should have known = notice or constructive notice = see above
8(c): Forfeiture of late affirmative defense
o P would behave the same regardless = no prejudice = no forfeiture of affirmative defense
DISCOVERY
TOOLS AND MECHANICS
Pre-Reqs 1. Notice Same as oral depos None 1. Parties: none 1. Good cause None
2. Subp for non- 2. Others: subp 2. Court order
parties if needed 3. “In control”
3. Court order in
limited circs
Use at Trial Limited: Same as oral depos Fully admissible Fully admissible Fully admissible Conclusive
1. Impeachment except your own.
2. Unavailable Party can
3. Against adverse supplement partial
party use
4. Exceptional circs
Challenges Limited objections: Same as oral depos Can object and not Can object Dispute motion Can object and not
1. Note any for answer answer
later
2. Privilege; court
order
3. Terminate for
harassment
CASE MANAGEMENT
Rule 16: Pretrial Conferences; Scheduling; Management
o (a) Purposes: expediting; establishing control so case will not be protracted for lack of management;
discouraging wasteful pretrial activity, improving quality of trial with more preparation; facilitating
settlement
o (b): Scheduling: Requires issuance of scheduling order after Rule 26(f) conference and submission of parties’
discovery plan per Rule 26(f); can only be modified for good cause with judge’s consent; order includes:
Required: Limits on time to join parties, amend pleadings, complete discovery, file motions
Permitted: Modify required disclosures, modify extent of discovery, provide for ESI disclosure,
include privilege agreements , pretrial conference dates, other stuff
o (c): Requires an individual be authorized to appear at a pretrial conference that can make stipulations,
admissions and speak to settlement; matters under consideration include
Formulating or simplifying issues
Amending pleadings
Factual admissions/stipulations
Appropriateness/timing of summary adjudication
Controlling and scheduling discovery
Identifying witnesses and documents, scheduling brief filing dates, or further trial dates
Settling the case
Disposing of pending motions
Ordering a separate trial
Other stuff
o (d): Pretrial Order: Court should issue an order reciting action taken in pretrial conference and should serve
as the order controlling the course of the action going forward
o (e): Court may hold a final pretrial conference to formulate a trial plan
o (f): Sanctions for failure to appear at conferences, obey scheduling orders, or participate in bad faith
1) Balancing of the adversarial model, the liberal discovery required by notice pleading, and due proces with a need to
manage the sprawling nature and increasing costs of complex cases
2) Tower Ventures v. City of Westfield (pg. 186)
a) P’s case dismissed for serial violations of the scheduling order
i) Does not matter if both parties tacitly agreed to conduct discovery at their own pace and that there was no
prejudice to D
ii) P’s attitude ignores courts independent interest in administering its own docket
iii) Other factors
(1) P failed to meet its own self-imposed deadline extension
(2) Multiple infractions
(3) Flaunted purpose of Rule 16
(4) Deterrence
3) There is tension between Rule 15(a)(2) giving leave to amend when justice requires it, and the good cause
requirement for modification of scheduling order that might have deadlines for amendment
4) Rule 16(e): Judges may (and most do) hold final pretrial conference (held after discovery) and should issue final
pretrial order
a) Order generally includes: stipulations of law/fact disputed issues of law/fact, witnesses, documents to be used
as evidence, objections to other parties evidence, witnesses, etc
b) Final pretrial order distills the discovery process – the heart of the case emerges in this order
c) Rule 16€: Order can only be modified to prevent manifest injustice
5) R.M.R. v. Muscogee County School District (pg. 198)
a) P’s witness not allowed to testify because not listed on final pretrial order even though P did not discover
witness until after order (perhaps due to D hiding witness) resulting in verdict for D
i) P claims importance of witness outweighs prejudice to D
ii) Not valid – P could have asked for continuance or mistrial to allow D time to prepare but only offered the
judge the narrow view
b) Harm in RMR greater than Venture, even though sanction in Venture harsher than in RMR – Tower can still
recover through malpractice while RMR cannot given the type of relief mother sought
i) Rules are trans-substantive in that they should apply the same in every case
(1) Judges already have the “manifest injustice” discretion
SUMMARY JUDGMENT
Rule 50: Judgment as a Matter of Law in a Jury Trial; Related Motion for a New Trial; Conditional Ruling
o (a): Authorizes motions for judgment as a matter of the law at any time before the case is sent to the jury
and authorizes grant if a reasonable jury would not have a legally sufficient evidentiary basis to find for the
non-movant
o (b): If 50(a) motion is not granted, the movant may renew the motion under 50(b) within 28 days of judge’s
entry of jury’s verdict along with a motion for new trial under Rule 59 to which the judge may
Deny and let verdict stand
Order a new trial
Grant motion and direct the verdict
o (c): Any motions for a new trial accompanying a granted 50(b) motion must be ruled on conditionally in case
the appellate court reverses or vacates the 50(b) grant
o (e): If a court denies motion for judgment as a matter of law, the prevailing party can assert grounds in the
court of appeals entitling it to a new trial should the court of appeals find the denial of motion was in error
1) Standard for summary judgment is the same as the standard for JMOL (and JNOV)
a) Reeves v. Sanderson Plumbing Products, Inc. (pg. 273)
i) COA reverses trial court denial of D’s 50(b) motion of JMOL. Supreme Court reinstates the jury’s verdict.
(1) In considering motion, judge must:
(a) Draw all reasonable inferences in favor of the nonmoving party
(b) Not make credibility determinations nor weight the evidence (Liberty Lobby)
(2) P offered sufficient evidence to disbelieve D’s nondiscriminatory reasons for firing P, and sufficient
evidence of age-based animus that reasonable jury could find in its favor
b) However, summary judgment is granted much more frequently (see trilogy) and its granting is much more
predictable in the way it is granted
2) Limitations on Rule 50(b) and appeals
a) Can only file Rule 50(b) motion if
i) Have already filed a Rule 50(a) pre-verdict motion
ii) It is on the same grounds (insufficiency of the evidence) as the 50(a) motion
iii) Can only appeal trial court verdict if appellant has filed a Rule 50(b) or 59 motion
(1) Unitherm v. Swift-Eckrich, Inc. (pg. 287)
(a) COA inappropriately ordered a new trial on the grounds of insufficient evidence after appellant
failed to file post-verdict Rule 50(b) motion or Rule 59 motion
(i) New trial or directed verdict calls of judgment in the first instance (trial court judge)
(ii) Thus for fairness and to reduce prejudice to appellee, the trial court judge should first have the
opportunity to decide new trial or directed verdict before the COA
(b) A party cannot appeal a denial of Rule 50(a) motion because it is not a final judgment
b) Reasons for grants of 50(a) after denials of for 50(b)
i) Judge believes the jury will agree with his assessment and would rather have the decision come from jury
ii) If COA reverses grant of 50(b), there is already a jury result to reinstate – new trial not needed
JOINDER
CLAIMS
Rule 18(a): A party may join to a claim, counterclaim, crossclaim, or third-party claim, as independent or alternative,
as many claims as it has against the opposing party
Rule 13: Counterclaim and Crossclaim
o (a): Compulsory Counterclaim
Must plead all counterclaims arising out of the same transaction or occurrence that is the subject of
the opposing party’s claim as long as it does not require adding a party over which the court does
not have personal jurisdiction
o (b): Permissive Counterclaim
May plead any counterclaim
o (g): Crossclaim Against a Co-party
May plead a claim against a co-party if it arises out the same transaction or occurrence that is the
subject matter of the original action, or of a counterclaim, or if the claim relates to any property that
is the subject matter of the original actions
o (h): Rules 19 and 20 govern the joinder of parties to a counterclaim or crossclaim
Rule 42: Judge may consolidate claims into a single trial or may separate claims into separate trials
1) Test for whether a transaction arises out of the same transaction or occurrence:
a) Painter v. Harvey (pg. 365)
i) Cop counterclaims against P for defamation/libel, after P sued cop for violation of federal excessive force
statute and went to press about cop’s actions
ii) If counterclaim is compulsory (i.e. arises out of the same transaction or occurrence) then libel counterclaim
has supplemental jurisdiction
iii) Test for same transaction or occurrence is one of “evidentiary similarity” – not bright line test – “litmus”
(1) Are the issues of fact and law raised in the claim and counterclaim largely the same?
(2) Would res judicata bar a subsequent suit on the party’s counterclaim, absent the compulsory
counterclaim rule?
(3) Will substantially the same evidence support or refute the claim as well as the counter?
(4) Is there any logical relationship between the claim and counterclaim?
iv) Uses a looser “related to” test rather than “arises out of the same transaction or occurrence”
(1) This mirrors the often used “logical relationship” test for supplemental jurisdiction so a federal court
automatically has jurisdiction over compulsory counterclaims
(2) This is where one can make counterarguments to defeat jurisdiction
(a) Going to the press is a different transaction or occurrence than the arrest/accident
2) If a compulsory counterclaim is not plead, the claim is forever waived/precluded
3) “Same transaction or occurrence “ language is interpreted differently for different purposes
a) Broader in §1367 when conferring supplemental jurisdiction (“same case or controversy”)
b) Narrowly in Rule 13(a) when considering preclusion
i) Creates a tension where permissive counterclaims (in order to prevent preclusion) get supplemental
jurisdiction (under “same case or controversy” language)
c) Somewhere in the middle in Rule 15(c)(1)(B) depending on judge’s view of importance of SOL
4) Using Rule 18(a) to join claims, that are unrelated to opposing party’s original claim, to a crossclaim are is allowed in
only half the jurisdiction because it flaunts the “transactionally-related limitations of crossclaims under Rule 13(g)
PARTIES
PARTIES: IMPLEADER
Rule 14(a): Defendant, as third-party plaintiff, may implead at non-party third-party defendant for derivative liability
within 14 days of its original answer, or if later, with the courts leave
o (2): Third-Party Defendant’s Claims and Defenses
(A): Against third-party plaintiff: must assert defenses under Rule 12
(B): Against third-party plaintiff: must assert compulsory counterclaims under Rule 13(a), may assert
permissive counterclaims under Rule 13(b)
(B): Against another third-party defendant: may assert crossclaim under Rule 13(g)
(C): Against original plaintiff: may assert any defense that the third-party plaintiff has
(D): Against original plaintiff: may assert any claim arising out of the transaction or occurrence that is
the subject matter of the plaintiff’s claim against the third-party plaintiff
o (3): Original plaintiff may assert against third-party defendant any claim arising out of the transaction or
occurrence that is the subject matter of the plaintiff’s claim against the third-party plaintiff
Then, third-party defendant must assert any defense under Rule 12, any compulsory counterclaim
under Rule 13(a), and may assert any counterclaim under Rule 13(b) and crossclaim under Rule 13(g)
against the original plaintiff
o (5): Third-party, as fourth-party plaintiff, may implead a non-party fourth-party defendant for derivative
liability
Rule 14(b): Plaintiff may implead a third-party for derivative liability
1) Lehman v. Revolution Portfolio LLC (pg. 377)
a) Rule 18(a) allows joinder of as many claims as claimant has to any properly situated claim, counterclaim,
impleader, crossclaim, etc.
b) FDIC’s impleader of Roffman was permissive and thus would not have precluded the claim, but FDIC risks having
the issue precluded
c) Rule 14 is structured to balance the interests of the defendant to avoid incurring costs he is not liable for and
the interest of the plaintiff to remain in control of the structure of the lawsuit
i) Rule 19 and 20 are for the plaintiff only
ii) Rule 14 requires transactional relatedness
2) Impleader is only fore derivative liability: if defendant is liable to plaintiff, then third-party defendant has to pay
plaintiff for all or part of what defendant owes
a) Not that third party defendant is independently liable to third-party plaintiff
b) Not that third party defendant is directly liable instead of or in addition to plaintiff
3) Impleader creates no substantive obligations – just a procedural obligation – not a finding of liability
a) Rule 13(g) can be used for derivative liability for those already parties
4) Asher v. Unarco Material Handling, Inc. (pg. 382) – 6th circuit
a) A sues B and C. C impleads D. B (original defendant) crossclaims against D (third-party defendant)
b) Court dismisses crossclaim under the reasoning that original defendant B is not a co-party of D under a plan
reading of Rule 13(g); co-parties must be of “like status”
i) Follows the reasoning of Murray and International Paving Systems
(1) Inconsistent and confusing if some defendants need leave of court to serve third-party complaints under
Rule 14, while other original defendants can crossclaim against that third-party defendant without leave
c) Most courts follow the Murray and IPS rule, however other circuits define co-parties as anyone that is not an
opposing party
i) Thomas v. Barton Lodge II (5th Circuit) – nonsensical that 14(a) allows a defendant to bring in a nonparty but
defendants cannot crossclaim against those who are already parties
(1) Ridiculous that, instead, the original defendant would have to bring a separate suit – duplicative
ii) Georgia Ports Authority
5) Rule 14(a)(2)(D) when there is no original jurisdiction: the rule allows claims by third party defendant against original
plaintiff because §1367(b) does not expressly prohibit the claim, while §1367(b) expressly prohibits claims by
plaintiff against third party defendants (codified Kroger)
6) Rule 14(3) when there is no original jurisdiction: prior to §1367, common law judges reasoned that counterclaims by
P are allowed against third party defendant because they were not a result of P’s manipulation of jurisdiction as in
the Kroger backdoor claims, however courts are split on whether §1367 has changed this
7) Claims between defendant and fourth party defendant are not crossclaims, but using the Asher plain reading, the
claims are not allowed, while the non-Asher logic allows the claims because the relationship between P and third
party defendant is the same as between defendant and fourth party defendant
MINIMUM CONTACTS
28 U.S.C. § 1331: District courts have original jurisdiction of all civil actions arising under the Constitution, laws, or
treaties of the United States
o State courts have concurrent jurisdiction unless the Congress has created exclusive jurisdiction over an area
1) Louisville & Nashville Railroad Co. v. Mottley (pg. 527)
a) “Well pleaded complaint” rule: federal question must be necessary to the complaint
i) If complaint would not satisfy a 12(b)(6) motion without the federal question, then it is necessary
ii) Federal question cannot solely be an anticipated defense
b) Case interprets §1331, NOT Article III of the constitution, which contains more broad “arising under” language
that would encompass anticipated defenses for federal question jurisdiction
i) Congress could change the well pleaded complaint rule by amending §1331
c) Efficiency reasons seem to drive the decision
2) If the federal question stands on its own (i.e.it is not incorporated in a state cause of action)
a) Newburyport Water Co. v. Newburyport (pg. 548)
i) Jurisdiction exists unless claim is “so attenuated and unsubstantial as to be absolutely devoid of merit”
ii) Very lenient standard
3) If a federal question embedded in a state cause of action, it must be sufficient to confer federal jurisdiction
a) Embedded federal questions satisfy the Mottley “well pleaded complaint” rule to the extent that the claim turns
on a question of federal law – federal question is necessary, but Mottley does not decide whether the
embedded federal question is sufficient
b) Smith v. Kansas City Title & Trust Co. (pg. 532)
i) Plaintiffs successfully sued company in federal court for purchasing bonds that were unauthorized by state
law because the federal government issued them in violation of the constitution.
ii) “the right to relief depends on the construction or application of” federal law
c) Moore v. Chesapeake & Ohio Railway Co. (pg. 532)
i) Plaintiff unsuccessfully sued in federal court for tort where plaintiff’s ability to recover (whether
contributory negligence applied) hinged on whether defendant violated the federal Employee Liability Act
ii) Court could have used anticipatory defense reasoning of Mottley but instead characterized complaint as
negligence per se where the fact that a state statute brings within its purview a duty imposed by a federal
statute does not constitute a suit arising under the laws of the United States
d) Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals Inc. v. Thompson (pg. 533)
i) Plaintiffs alleged in Count IV negligence per se for the violation of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
for which the defendant’s unsuccessfully removed to federal court
ii) Stevens and five justices
(1) Federal jurisdiction is only appropriate if considerations of “congressional purpose and the federal
system” indicate that the federal question is “substantial”. The lack of a private federal cause of action
under the FDCA is “tantamount to a Congressional conclusion” that the embedded federal question is
not substantial
iii) Brennan and four justices
(1) There should always be federal jurisdiction over embedded federal questions so long as the federal
question is necessary to the claim (satisfies Mottley)
(a) Using a “nature” test (one way to distinguish Smith from Moore) is too ad hoc, rather Moore should
be overruled – no one relies on it – vitality of Smith continues
(2) Concluding no federal jurisdiction because of no private cause of action is nonsensical
(a) Same logic would make state court private enforcement improper
(b) Implied accuracy/coordination rationale for relying on public enforcement strengthens case for
federal private enforcement
(c) Federal courts already interpret the FDCA when FDA sues private entities – FDA has not
independent enforcement authority
(3) Just because a plaintiff has multiple theories of identical recovery (state and federal), does not make the
federal question unnecessary to the complaint per Mottley, rather, the Mottley test should be applied to
each claim in isolation
e) Grable & Sons Metal Products, Inc. v. Darue Engineering & Manufacturing (pg. 542)
i) Federal jurisdiction is appropriate if state-law claim necessarily raises a state federal issue, actually disputed
and substantial, which a federal forum may entertain without disturbing an congressionally approved
balance of federal and state judicial responsibilities
(1) Does not “change” Merrell Dow
(2) Merrell Dow: no private federal cause of action and no preemption of state remedies for misbranding
was just a “missing welcome mat”
ii) This result seems driven by the fact that the situation is so rare that it will not attract a “horde” of filings
f) Implications for who “decides” jurisdiction:
i) Merrell Dow majority: United States Congress
ii) Merrell Dow dissent: State legislators or Courts
iii) Grable court: Federal Courts
DIVERSITY JURISDICTION
28 U.S.C. § 1332(a): diversity jurisdiction lies when amount in controversy exceed $75K and is between:
o Citizens of different states; or
o Citizens of US state and a foreign state
o Citizens of different states and in which citizens of foreign states are additional parties
o 1603(a) foreign state as a plaintiff and citizens of a state or different states
28 U.S.C. § 1332(b): if award is less than $75K, without regard to setoff or counterclaims, court may deny costs to
plaintiff and may impose costs on plaintiff
28 U.S.C. § 1332(c): citizenship of corporations and estates of decedents
o State of incorporation and its primary place of business,
o In cases where insured is not a party-defendant, insurance companies are additionally citizens of the state of
which the insured is a citizen
o Estates of decedents are citizens of the state of which decedent is a citizen
28 U.S.C. § 1332(e): states in include
o the Territories
o District of Columbia
o Commonwealth of Puerto Rico
1) Citizenship
a) Strawbridge v. Curtiss (pg. 549): held that §1332 requires complete diversity in that no plaintiff can be from the
same state as a defendant
i) State Farm Fire & Cas. Co. v. Tashire (pg. 549): complete diversity does not apply to interpleader
ii) Court has upheld targeted use of minimal diversity as valid under Article III in §1335, §1369 (single accident
causing more than 75 deaths), §1332(d) (class actions)
iii) Impleaded parties do not destroy diversity; if so, defendants could destroy jurisdiction “at will”
b) Sheehan v. Gustafson (pg. 550)
i) Citizenship is a matter of domicile where party seeking to establish citizenship must establish that at the
time of commencing suit there is:
(1) Presence in the purported state of domicile; and
(2) An intention to remain there indefinitely
ii) Driver’s license, vehicle registration, filing of tax returns, ownership of property, voter registration act as
evidence to establish citizenship through the test
iii) Requires courts to strictly construe §1332; burden on party seeking federal jurisdiction to show by a
preponderance of the evidence that the parties are diverse
(1) In toss-ups, there is a presumption against federal jurisdiction
c) Other issues
i) Must go back to last state where court is certain of citizenship
ii) Must have a physical presence, intention to move to state X, is not enough if no presence yet in X
iii) Those under 18 cannot legally have an intent to move
iv) For a transient person, consider no intent to stay vs. no intent to leave
d) Hertz Corp. v. Friend (supp pg. 45)
i) A corporation has a single principal place of business that is usually the state of its corporate headquarters
provided the headquarters is the center of direction, control and coordination of the corporation
ii) Simplifies the complex “nerve center”, “business activity”, and “center of gravity” tests
e) Citizenship and thus diversity jurisdiction is purportedly about reducing prejudice to out-of-state defendants
i) In-state defendants cannot remove
ii) However, plaintiffs can file wherever they want
f) Unincorporated associations
i) Carden v. Arkona Assocs. (pg. 557): unincorporated associations have the citizenship of each member
ii) Wise v. Wachovia Secs., LLC (pg. 557): American LLCs are treated as unincorporated associations
iii) Lear Corp. v. Johnson Elec. Holding Ltd (pg. 557): Foreign LLCs are sometimes treated as corporations
g) Foreigners, under §1332, that cannot be parties when complete diversity is require
i) “Stateless persons” who are not citizens of any nation
ii) American-citizen expatriates domiciled abroad (not “citizen” of any state or foreign nation)
2) Amount in controversy
a) Del Vecchio v. Conseco, Inc. (pg. 558)
i) Amount in controversy is solely what plaintiff asks for in complaint (akin to Mottley)
ii) Aggregation:
(1) A single plaintiff may aggregate damages from as many related and unrelated claims as plaintiff likes if
they are all against a single defendant
(2) A single plaintiff may not aggregate damages from multiple defendants unless the defendants are jointly
and severally liable for the entire amount
(a) Rare, assume the opposite
(3) Multiple plaintiffs may not aggregate damages against defendant(s) unless there is a “single indivisible
harm” or “common undivided interest” such as an estate
(a) Rare, assume the opposite
iii) Jurisdictional amount is proper unless it is beyond a legal certainty that the plaintiff is not entitled
(1) Very hard to meet
(2) Courts may scrutinize punitive damages more closely (think about mutlipliers)
SUPPLEMENTAL JURISDICTION
Key Questions
1) Does claim in question have independent jurisdiction?
2) If not, is there another claim that has independent jurisdiction (FQJ, Diversity)?
3) If so, is claim in question part “same case or controversy” as the claim over which there is independent jurisdiction?
4) Do any exceptions prohibit jurisdiction (incomplete diversity, §1367(b))?
5) If jurisdiction is improper, what will court do (dismiss whole case, dismiss claims)?
T1 ($50K) + T2 ($30K) v. K No SMJ, aggregation rule still stands, where plaintiffs cannot add together to get >$75K; there must be at least one
claim with independent jx before there may be supplemental jx
T1 v. K2 ($80K) + K2 ($80K) Yes, independent diversity jx over both because each are diverse and meet min amount; no need for supplemental
T1 + T2 v. K1 + K2 combined Seems yes, because each T1 claim has independent diversity jx, giving each T2 claim supplemental jx
But Allapattah literal reading would say K1 and K2 joined as Rule 20 defendant which is explicitly barred by 1367(b)
(T1 sues K1 and K2 for $80K) Seems absurd; courts have ignored argument about Allapattah /1367 barring jx in this case
(T2 sues K1 and K2 for $40K)
REMOVAL JURISDICTION
CHOICE OF LAW
INTRODUCTION