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• Background to ITIL
• Benefits of Service Management
• Service Support Modules
• Service Delivery Modules
• Multiple choice examination structure
Service Desk
Incident Management
• Incident Management
• Incident Management and the Service Desk
• Role of Incident Manager
• Goals and Objectives
Problem Management
Configuration Management
Change Management
Release Management
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• Service Level Management framework
• Contents of Service Level Agreements
• Service Level Management reporting
• Goals and Objectives
Availability Management
Capacity Management
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ITIL V3 Sample Paper 1
1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) What is the vision?
b) Did we get there?
c) Is there budget?
d) Where are we now?
9. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual Service
Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
2. Supplier Metrics
3. Service Metrics
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4. Technology Metrics
5. Business Metrics
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
12. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?
1. Incident Management
2. Problem Management
3. Access Management
4. ?
5. ?
a) Event management and Request Fulfillment
b) Event Management and Service Desk
c) Facilities Management and Event Management
d) Change Management and Service Level Management
13. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the Service
Lifecycle?
a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue
b) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue
c) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfolio
d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System
14. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service
Design phase of the Lifecycle?
1. Hardware and Software design
2. Environmental design
3. Process design
4. Data design
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
15. Business drivers and requirements for a new service should be considered during?
a) Review of the router operating system patches
b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery
c) The Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a change
d) Decommissioning legacy servers
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d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement program
20. Which of the following activities is Service Level Management responsible for?
a) Design the configuration management system from a business perspective
b) Create technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Create a customer facing service catalogue
d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service
21. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what attributes of the
service should be considered?
a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome
b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics
c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives
d) People, Products, Technology
22. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following
elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service
Improvement
23. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action
b) The ability to implement monitoring tools
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure
devices
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c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is likely
to happen to support costs?
a) They are likely to increase gradually
b) They are likely to increase dramatically
c) They are likely to gradually reduce
d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level
28. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?
a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves
d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses telecommunications and IT systems
to make it appear that they are in the same location
29. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during particularly
volatile business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether the change
should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no
unacceptable delays occur.
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d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure when
Operators are not available
39. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step Improvement
Process?
a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data and process data
b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data
c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there?
d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define what you can measure
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Answers to ITIL V3 Sample Paper 1:
01. c. 02. a. 03. d. 04. a. 05. a. 06. a. 07. c. 08. d. 09. c. 10. a.
11. b. 12. a. 13. a. 14. c. 15. b. 16. b. 17. b. 18. c. 19. b. 20. c.
21. b. 22. a. 23. a. 24. d. 25. a. 26. c. 27. a. 28. c. 29. c. 30. b.
31. d. 32. b. 33. c. 34. b. 35. a. 36. d. 37. a. 38. d. 39. a. 40. b.
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Free ITIL Dumps Exam Questions Version-3 Paper 2
4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following elements of
the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service
Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement
5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service
Operations?
a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and manage the
infrastructure
b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view and an external business
view
c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the place where value is
realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the services
d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute processes defined by
Service Design
6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?
1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users
for all operational issues
2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?
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a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery
8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?
1. Service Portfolio Management
2. Demand Management
3. Financial Management
a) Service Operations
b) Service Strategy
c) Service Transition
d) Continual Service Improvement
9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of Communication during
Service Operation?
a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service Operation
b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed with Service Operation
c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation, just as it is for any other phase
of the Lifecycle
d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other stage of the Service
Lifecycle
13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management
process?
1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff
3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services
4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) All of the above
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio Management?
a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?
b) What opportunities are there in the market?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?
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15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access Management?
1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services
2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users
3. Defining security policies for system access
4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the
following?
a) The Glossary of Terms
b) A Service Level Agreement
c) An Incident Management record
d) A Configuration Item (CI)
19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service
Transition phase of the lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and Deployment technology
4. Process Design
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
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c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security
23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately
described as?
a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration Items (CIs) in order to
maximize their contribution to service levels
b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were designed to achieve
d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate
configuration records
26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative,
which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?
a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and performance modeling
processes
b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem management
processes
c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships between IT and business units
d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages
27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
a) Master copies of software
b) Backups of application data
c) Software licenses
d) Master copies of controlled documentation
28. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled manner
b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively
c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of failure
d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made
31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing
delivery model options?
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a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(s) resources
b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application service
provisioning
32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people
34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four P’s of Service Design?
a) A four step process for the design of effective Service Management
b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design
c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective Service Management
36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand high-level business requirements
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan
38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
d) Contract Management
39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?
a) The Seven P’s of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
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b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the data and using it
to take corrective action
40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only
01. c. 02. d. 03. c 04. d. 05. b. 06. d. 07. b. 08. b. 09. c. 10. d.
11. b. 12. d. 13. a. 14. b. 15. a. 16. d. 17. b. 18. a. 19. a. 20. b.
21. b. 22. d. 23. d. 24. d. 25. c. 26. c. 27. b. 28. a. 29. c. 30. c
31. a. 32. a. 33. a. 34. d. 35. c. 36. b. 37. a. 38. b. 39. d. 40. c.
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ITIL Dumps Practice Paper 3
1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External Sourcing?
A. Internal Sourcing-.
B. External Sourcing
C. Co-Sourcing
D. Managed Services
5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service Management
Processes:
How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?
A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to Implement Continual Improvement
B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement
D. There should be a single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to
Implement Continual improvement
8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and Deployment
Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that
will accomplish the stakeholders’ requirements and deliver the Intended objectives
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B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets
and service components that are compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified,
and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or changed service
11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by
maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Financial Management for IT services
12. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment of
quality solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are NOT
responsibilities included In this role?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture,
processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the
organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and
the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting processes
13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Problem Management
D. Availability Management
15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the
customer?
A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk
B. The level of availability realized and the time not available per period
C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target
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D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period
18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service improvement
(CSI) Model?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the Solution; continually
improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived; How do we keep
the momentum going?
C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan;
Check the plan has been properly implemented; improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we
get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative
determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue,
the PC will be replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this
user's PC replaced within three hours?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Service Level Management
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24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?
A. Service Catalogue
B. Service Improvement Program
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Quality Plan (SQP)
25. Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category for a change?
A. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc.
B. The speed with which the change is made
C. The sequence in which the change is made
D. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned
26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken, for
example using an emergency power provision.
Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity management
C. Change Management
D. Incident Management
28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption
of a Configuration Item?
A. Availability Manager
B. Incident Manager
C. Problem Manager
D. Service Level Manager
29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is missing?
1. What Is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6.?
A. What is the ROI
B. How much did it cost.
C. How do we keep the momentum going.
D. What is the VOI?
30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security Management
Process?
A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information security is effectively
managed in all service and Service Management activities’.
B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed and enterprise
information resources are used responsibly.
C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security activities.
D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives are achieved
31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) are
correct?
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts throughout their Lifecycle.
2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers
3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.
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4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1, 2 & 3
C. 1, 2 & 4
D. All of above
32. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Design?
1. Perspectives
2. Positioning
3. Plan
4. ???
A. People
B. Product
C. Patterns
D. Partners
33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?
A. Average uptime of a service
B. Average downtime of a service
C. Average time between two consecutive incidents
D. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period
34. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?
A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT service.
B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any IT Service,
configuration Item or Monitoring tool.
C. Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and often lead to Incidents being
logged
D. All of above
35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Media
Library (DML)?
A. Copies of all software versions that are needed
B. Copies of all live software programs
C. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure
D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing
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B. Recommendations
C. Components and resource forecasts
D. Countermeasures for risks
39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management
process?
A. By checking contracts with suppliers
B. By measuring customer satisfaction
C. By defining service levels
D. By reporting on all incidents
01. c. 02. a. 03. c 04. d. 05. b. 06. d. 07. d. 08. a. 09. d. 10. b.
11. c. 12. b. 13. d. 14. d. 15. a. 16. a. 17. a. 18. d. 19. c. 20. b.
21. c. 22. b. 23. c. 24. b. 25. a. 26. a. 27. b. 28. a. 29. c. 30. a.
31. c. 32. c. 33. b. 34. d. 35. c. 36. c. 37. a. 38. d. 39. b. 40. c.
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How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
• A set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
services
• A set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form
of services
• The management of functions within an organisation to perform certain activities
• Units of organisations with roles to perform certain activities
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
• Knowledge
• Information
• Wisdom
• Data
The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process?
• The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses
and software media)
• Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a
predefined approval and qualification process exists
• Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
procedure for obtaining them
• Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
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• The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
• The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
• Thé KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
• The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
• Incident Management
• Access Management
• Change Management
• Request Fulfilment
One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It
includes?
• An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
• A type of Incident
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• An error message to the user of an application
• A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CS!) process, which of the
following items need to be identified?
• To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
• To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
• To design and build processes that will meet business needs
• To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has
started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
• It is measurable
• Delivers specific results
• Responds to specific events
• method of structuring an organisation
• Performance analysis
• Recording Configuration Items
• Monitoring services
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• Defining roles and responsibilities
• Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
• Assisting in the design of the application
• Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application
• Deciding whether to buy or build an application
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed
according to the agreed and documented process?
The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
• Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology
metrics include availability and capacity
• Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and
effectiveness
• Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual
components
• Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics
measure the infrastructure
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