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BITSAT 2008
MTP 3/QNS
BRILLIANT’S
MOCK TEST 3 Test Booklet Code
FOR STUDENTS OF

C
OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSE
TOWARDS

BITSAT, 2008

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 450

Read the following instructions carefully:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on the Answer Book with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

3. The candidate should write their Enrolment No. only in the space provided on the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.

4. For each correct response, the candidate will get 3 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score,
however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.

5. The test is of 3 hours duration.

6. The test consists of 150 questions.

7. The maximum marks are 450.

8. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on Side − 1
and Side − 2 of the Answer Sheet.

9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

10. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited .

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals): ...........................................................................

Enrolment Number:

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2

PART I: MATHEMATICS

2x B 5 6. Let E = 2 sin2 x − cos 2x. Then for all


1. The solution of the inequality >−1
x B 3 values of x
is
(1) − 1 ≤ E ≤ 3 (2) 0 ≤ E ≤ 2
8
(1) (2, ∞) (2) , ∞
3 (3) − 1 ≤ E ≤ 1 (4) None of these

(3) (3, ∞) (4) (2, 3) 7. The number of ways in which 20 mangoes


may be distributed among 5 children, so
7x B 11 A B
2. If ≡ A , then that each child gets at least one mango
x B1 x B 2 x B1 x B 2
is
A−B=

(1) 7 (2) − 1 (3) 12 (4) 1 (1) 20C4 (2) 19C4 (3) 24C3 (4) 19C5

3. The number of integral solutions of 8. The number of divisors of N = 38808 can


x2 − 10x + 21 ≤ 0 and x 2
− 4x > 0 is have (excluding 1 and N) is

(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 70 (2) 72 (3) 71 (4) 12


(3) 2 (4) infinite 9. If cos x − i sin 2x and sin x − i cos 2x are
4. The sum of the integers from 1 to 100 conjugates of each other, then
that are divisible by 2 or 5 is
(1) x = nπ
(1) 3000 (2) 3050 (3) 3500 (4) 3650
(2) x = 0
5. If the coefficient of the rth and (2r + 5)th
terms of the expansion of (1 + x)15 are π
(3) x = (2n + 1)
equal, r = 2

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 3 (4) no value of x exists

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10. The equation of the lines joining the 2


13. lim x B x A x =
origin to the points of intersection of the
x → ∞
line 3x + y = 12 intercepted between
the axes of coordinates are
1 1
(1) (2) 1 (3) − (4) 0
1 2 2
(1) y = x and y = x
2
π
(2) y = x and y = − x 14. If f(x) = 1 + 2 sin x + 2 cos2 x, 0 ≤ x ≤ ,
2
3 then f(x) is
(3) y = x and y = 6x
2
π
(1) least at x =
(4) none of these 2

11. The point (4, − 3) with respect to the


π
ellipse 4x2 + 5y2 = 1 (2) greatest at x =
2
(1) lies on the curve
π
(2) lies outside the curve (3) least at x =
3
(3) lies inside the curve
π
(4) greatest at x =
(4) is the focus 3
12. The coordinates of the point where the
15. The solution of the differential equation
line joining A(3, 4, 1) and B(5, 1, 6)
dy y 2
crosses the xy-plane are A = x is
dx x
13 23 13 23
(1) , , 0 (2) , B , 0
5 5 5 5 (1) 4xy = x4 + c (2) xy = x4 + c

13 23 (3) 4xy + x4 = c (4) xy + x4 = c


(3) B , , 0 (4) none of these
5 5

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2 2 20. If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3, 8}, then


16. A solution of x A9 A x B 9 = 4 A 34
(A ∪ B) × (A ∩ B) =
is
(1) {(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 8)}
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 25 (4) 5
(2) {(1, 3), (2, 3), (3, 3), (8, 3)}
17. The value of ‘a’ for which the roots α, β
of the equation 2x2 + 6x + a = 0 satisfies (3) {(1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 3), (8, 8)}
α β
the condition A < 2 is (4) {(8, 3), (8, 2), (8, 1), (8, 8)}
β α
21. The mean deviation of the numbers
9 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 is
(1) a > (2) a < 0
2
(1) 0 (2) 25 (3) 5 (4) 1.2
(3) a > 0 (4) none of these
22. For 2 ≤ r ≤ n, nCr + 2nCr − 1 + nCr − 2 =
18. If a, b, c are in G.P., then loga x, logb x,
logc x are in (1) (n + 1)Cr − 1 (2) 2 ⋅ (n + 1)
Cr + 1

(1) A.P. (2) H.P. (3) 2 ⋅ (n + 2)


Cr (4) (n + 2)Cr

(3) G.P. (4) none of these


23. The coefficient of xk, (0 ≤ k ≤ n) in the
expansion of
19. If R and R′ are symmetric relation (not
disjoint) on a set A, then the relation E = 1 + (1 + x) + (1 + x)2 + ... + (1 + x)n
is equal to
R ∩ R′ is

(1) (n + 1)Ck + 1 (2) nCk


(1) reflexive (2) symmetric

(3) transitive (4) none of these (3) (n + 1)Cn + k (4) nCn − k − 1

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6i B 3i 1 28. The general solution of the equation


24. If 4 3i B 1 = x + iy, then 3 cos2 x − 10 cos x + 3 = 0 is
20 3 i
(1) 2n π + cos−1 3
(1) x = 3, y = 1 (2) x = 1, y = 3
1
(3) x = 0, y = 3 (4) x = 0, y = 0 (2) nπ + cos−1
3
25. The inverse of a symmetric matrix is
1
(1) skew-symmetric (3) 2nπ ± cos−1
3

(2) symmetric
1
(4) n π ± cos−1
(3) diagonal matrix 3

(4) unit matrix 4 A z


29. If |z| = 2, then is equal to
1 A z
26. The value of
tan 20° + tan 40° + 3 tan 20° tan 40° = (1) z (2) z (3) 2 z (4) z + z

30. The angle between the tangents from


3
(1) 3 (2)
2 the origin to the circle (x − 7)2 + (y + 1)2 = 2
is
3
(3) (4) none of these
4 π π π π
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 2 6

27. The value of cos−1 B cos is equal
3 31. The directrix of the parabola 4x = y2 − 2y
to has the equation

π π π π (1) 4x − 1 = 0 (2) 4x + 5 = 0
(1) (2) (3) (4) −
4 2 3 4
(3) 4x − 5 = 0 (4) 4y + 5 = 0
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32. Let OA = i A 3 j B 2k and 36. The product of 11, 101, 10001 is

OB = 3 i A j B 2k. The vector OC 6


bisecting the angle AOB, where C lies (1) 1000001 (2) 10 B 1
9
on AB is
8 5
(1) 2 i A j A k (2) 2 i A j B k 10 B 1 10 B 1
(3) (4)
9 9
(3) i A j B k (4) i A j A k
37. The sum of n terms of two A.P. series are
B1 B1 dy
33. If y = sin 1 B x A cos x, then = in the ratio (n + 1) : (n + 3). Then the
dx
ratio of their 4th terms is
B1 1
(1) (2)
x1 B x x1B x 3 1 4 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 5 3
1 1
(3) (4)
x1 B x x1 A x log log a

38. The expression a log a where all the


34. The curve y + x = exy has a vertical
logarithms are to the base b is equal to
tangent at the point
(1) loga (ab) (2) logb (ab)
(1) (1, 1) (2) (1, 0)

(3) (0, 1) (4) at no point (3) logb a (4) loga b

π⁄2 n
39. Cn + (n + 1)Cn + (n + 2)Cn + ... + (n + m)Cn
35. ∫ cos x
1 A sin x 2 A sin x
dx =
+ (n + m + 1)Cn =
0

(1) loge
1 1 (1) (n + m + 1)Cn (2) (n + m + 1)Cn + 1
(2) loge
3 2
(3) (n + m + 2)Cn + 1 (4) (n + m + 2)Cm + 1
4 3
(3) loge (4) loge
3 4

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1 1 1 43. Among the complex numbers, z satisfies


40. If f(x, y) = 1 1A x 1 , then f(x, y) the condition |z + 1 − i| ≤ 1. Then the
1 1 1 A y number having the least positive
is argument is

(1) divisible by x (1) 1 − i (2) − 1 + i (3) − i (4) i

(2) not divisible by x 44. Four persons are chosen at random


from a group containing 3 men, 2 women
(3) not divisible by y
and 4 children. The probability that the
group contain exactly 2 children is
(4) divisible by (1 + x)

1 2 10 5
41. If in a ∆ABC, a2 + b2 + c2 = ca + ab 3 , (1) (2) (3) (4)
21 7 21 21
then the triangle

45. The values of x for which the angle between


(1) is equilateral
2
a = 2x i A 4x j A k and b = 7 i B 2 j A xk is
(2) is right-angled isosceles
obtuse and the angle between b and

(3) has angles 30°, 60° and 90° π


the x-axis is acute and less than are
6
(4) none of these
1 1
(1) x < 0 or x > (2) 0 < x <
42. At most n books are to be selected 2 2
from (2n + 1) books. If a student can
select at least one book in 1023 ways, 1 37
(3) < x< 15 (4) x <
then n = 2 3

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 7

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8

PART II: PHYSICS

46. Which of the following is optically of electrons are accumulated at the


active? screen. According to the quantum
theory, the interference pattern appears
(1) stretched polymer sheet
(1) only if a beam of electrons are in
(2) silvered glass
transit so that one part of the beam
(3) calcite goes through one slit and another
part through the other
(4) quartz
(2) even if one electron at a time is in
47. In the He-Ne laser the role of the He- transit, but an electron goes through
atom is one of the two slits only

(1) to emit the red light (3) even if one electron at a time is in
transit, but an electron goes
(2) to control the output
through both the slits at once
(3) to control the wavelength
(4) the consideration of an electron at
(4) to effect population inversion a time in transit is not physically
between the Ne levels possible

48. The part of a transistor, which is heavily 50. With what aspects of radiation is the
doped to produce a large number of equantion log λ = log R + B associated?
majority carriers, is
(1) characteristic X-rays
(1) base (2) emitter
(2) black body radiation
(3) collector (4) none of these
(3) α-emission
49. The double-slit electron interference
(4) Compton effect
pattern appears when a large number
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51. End of glass tube becomes round on (1) an open circuit


heating due to (2) a short circuit
(1) surface tension (2) viscosity (3) a pure resistance of value R

(3) gravity (4) friction (4) a pure resistor of value much higher
than R
52. The earth revolves round the sun in an
54. Fundamental forces are thought to
elliptical orbit with sun at one of the foci
arise due to exchange of some
as shown in Figure. The orbital speed of
mediating particles. The range of force
the earth is maximum near the point
Ro depends on mass m of mediating
particle in the following way

(1) Ro ∝ m (2) R ∝ m
o

1 1
(3) R o ∝ (4) R o ∝
m m

(1) C (2) D (3) A (4) B 55. In a p-n-junction photo cell, the value of
the phtoelectromotive force produced
53. At resonance, the parallel circuit of by monochromatic light is proportional
Figure constituted by an iron cored coil to
and a capacitor behaves like
(1) the barrier voltage at the p-n
junction
(2) the intensity of the light falling on
the cell
(3) the frequency of light falling on the
cell
(4) the voltage applied at the p-n
junction

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56. When an alpha particle approaches a (1) resonance (2) oscillator


nucleus, the trajectory of the scattered
(3) degenerate (4) linear
alpha particle is

(1) a hyperbola (2) a parabola 60. For detecting light intensity, we use

(3) an ellipse (4) a circle (1) photodiode in reverse bias

57. A full wave rectifier circuit along with (2) photodiode in forward bias
the input and output voltages is shown (3) LED in reverse bias
in the Figure. The contribution to output
voltage from diode-2 is (4) LED in forward bias

61. If elements of principal quantum number


n > 4 were not allowed in nature, the
number of possible elements will be

(1) 4 (2) 32 (3) 60 (4) 64

62. Modulation is the process of changing


some characteristics of high frequency
carrier wave in accordance with the
audio frequency signal. The characteristic
(1) A, C (2) B, D (3) B, C (4) A, D most commonly changed is
6
58. If EC = 20 sin 10 π t and Em = 12 sin 500 πt (1) amplitude (2) velocity
are carrier and modulating signal, then
(3) intensity (4) all of these
the modulation index is
(1) 60% (2) 40% (3) 50% 63. In Compton effect experiment, photons
(4) 56%
of energy hν are incident on a target
59. When the two frequencies are identical material of atomic number Z. The change
in small oscillations, the system is known in wavelength can be seen more easily
as if
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(1) ν is in visible region and Z is small (1) Because it has low power

(2) ν is in X-ray region and Z is small (2) Because its frequency is not convenient

(3) ν is in X-ray region and Z is large (3) Because the frequency is not stable
(4) Because it is not continuous
(4) ν is in visible region and Z is large
68. In an n-p-n transistor the collector
64. A semiconductor is cooled from T1 K to current is 24 mA. If 80% of electrons
T2 K. Its resistance reach collector its base current in mA is

(1) will decrease (1) 36 mA (2) 26 mA


(3) 16 mA (4) 6 mA
(2) will increase
69. The total power content of an AM wave
(3) will first decrease and then increase
is 2.64 kW at a modulation factor 80%.
(4) will not change The power contents of

65. The probable energy of electrons at (i) carrier, and


(ii) each sideband are respectively
absolute zero is called
(1) 2000 W, 2000 W
(1) fermi energy (2) emission energy
(2) 2000 W, 320 W
(3) work function (4) potential energy
(3) 320 W, 320 W
66. Plasma is a cloud of
(4) 640 W, 320 W
(1) α-particle
70. If we dip in water, capillary tubes of
(2) neutrino different radii r, then height h to which
water will rise is such that
(3) completely ionized matter
h
(1) = constant (2) hr = constant
(4) uncharged particles r
h
67. Why is an ammonia maser not useful in (3) = constant (4) hr2 = constant
2
communication? r
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71. The modulation index of an FM carrier (1) coil A is greater than in B


having a carrier swing (S) of 100 kHz
(2) both the coils are same
and a modulating signal of 5 kHz is
(3) coil A is less than in B
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 2 (4) 4
(4) coils A and B are uniform throughout
72. Two equal resistances each of 100 Ω ± 1%
(standard deviation) are connected in 74. March list I with list II and select the
parallel. The standard deviation of the correct answer from the codes given
parallel combination will be below the lists:

1 List I List II
(1) 0.5 % (2) % (3) 2 % (4) 2%
2
(a) Hartley (p) Low frequency
73. oscillator

(b) Wien-Bridge (q) High frequency


oscillator

(c) Crystal (r) Stable frequency


oscillator

(s) Relaxation
oscillator

(t) Negative
resistance
Codes oscillator

(1) (a − q) (b − p) (c − r)

(2) (a − p) (b − r) (c − s)

The flux linkage of (3) (a − p) (b − t) (c − q)

(4) (a − r) (b − s) (c − p)
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75. In a certain 2-input logic gate, when 78. A p-n junction diode cannot be used
A = 0, B = 0, then C =1 and when A = 0,
(1) as a rectifier.
B = 1 then again C = 1. It must be ......
gate.
(2) for converting light energy to
(1) XOR (2) AND electrical energy.

(3) NAND (4) NOR (3) for getting light radiation.


76. In the frame of reference of a rotating (4) for increasing the amplitude of an
turntable, an insect of mass m is moving
AC signal.
radially outwards (+ x direction) with a
speed v. If the turntable is rotating with 79. If two meters X and Y require 40 mA
a constant angular velocity ωk in the and 50 mA respectively to give full
vertically upward direction, the net scale deflection, then
pseudo force on the insect, when it is at
(1) X is more sensitive
a distance from the axis of the turntable
is given by (2) Y is more sensitive
2
(1) imω r + 2 jmωv
(3) both X and Y are equally sensitive
2
(2) imω r − 2 jmωv
(4) it would not be possible to assess
2
(3) − imω r + 2 jmωv the sensitivity on the basis of given
data
(4) imω2r
80. In regard to a p-type semiconductor,
77. Adiabatic demagnetization of a
consider the following statements.
substance

(1) decrease the temperature (i) Holes are the majority carriers.

(2) increase the temperature (ii) At room temperature, electron


(3) increase the volume concentration equals the donor
concentration.
(4) decrease the volume
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(iii) Electron density changes with Codes


temperature.
(1) (a − p) (b − q) (c − r) (d − s)
(iv) Electron concentration is greater
than the carrier concentration in the (2) (a − s) (b − p) (c − r) (d − p)
intrinsic semiconductor at the same
temperature. (3) (a − r) (b − q) (c − s) (d − p)
Of these, the only true statements are (4) (a − q) (b − s) (c − r) (d − p)
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii)
83. Bandwidth of colour television
(3) (ii), (iv) (4) (iii), (iv)
transmission channel in India is of
81. Zener diode is used in regulated power
supply for providing (1) 100 kHz (2) 1 MHz

(1) reference voltage (3) 7 MHz (4) 10 MHz


(2) load
84. Efficiency of a HW rectifier is nearly
(3) control of output voltage
(1) 80% (2) 60% (3) 40% (4) 20%
(4) control of output current
82. Match List I with List II and select the 85. A frequency modulator has a sensitivity
correct answer from the codes given of 20 kHz/V. If the rated system
below the lists: deviation is 75 kHz, what is the maximum
allowable modulating signal voltage?
List I List II
(a) VLF (p) Stratosphere (1) 5V
communication scattering
(b) HF (q) Reflection in (2) 7.5 V
communication ionosphere
(c) Microwave (r) Ground wave (3) 3.75 V
communication
(d) mm wave (s) Line of sight (4) none of the above
comunication propagation

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PART III: CHEMISTRY

86. The radius ratio of I, II and III orbit of He+, (2) Peroxide ion has a longer and weaker
r1 : r2 : r3 is respectively bond than O2.

(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 4 : 9 (3) Peroxide ion and O2 are paramag-


netic.
(3) 9 : 4 : 1 (4) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) Bond length of peroxide ion is stronger
87. The quantum numbers of valence elec- than O2.
tron of 19K is
90. Correct order of hydrolysis is
1 1
(1) 3, 0, 0, + (2) 3, 1, +1, − (1) CCl4 < AlCl3 < SiCl4 < PCl5
2 2
(2) PCl5 < AlCl3 < CCl4 < SiCl4
1 1
(3) 3, 2, +2, + (4) 4, 0, 0, −
2 2 (3) AlCl3 < PCl5 < CCl4 < SiCl4

88. Correct order of ionic character of silver (4) CCl4 < AlCl3 < PCl5 < SiCl4
halides is
91. Correct IUPAC name of the complex
(1) AgCl > AgF > AgBr > AgI [Cr(H2O)4Br2]Br ⋅ 2H2O is
(2) AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI
(1) Dibromotetraaquachromium(II)
(3) AgI > AgBr > AgCl > AgF bromide diaqua

(4) AgF > AgI > AgBr > AgCl (2) Tetraaquadibromochromium(III)
bromide dihydrate
89. Which is the correct statement among
(3) Tetraaquadibromochromium(III)
the following?
hydrate bromide
(1) Peroxide ion has a bond order 2
(4) Tetraaquadibromochromium(III)
while O2 has a bond order 1.
bromide

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92. Match the List I with List II and select the (3) lesser than that of water vapour in air.
correct answer using the codes given
(4) greater than that of water vapour in
below the list:
air.
List I List II B E ⁄RT
94. In Arrhenius equation, k = Ae a
, the
(A) Peroxide (P) Fe3O4
B E ⁄RT
factor e a
is known as
(B) Suboxide (Q) C3O2

(C) Mixed oxide (R) KO2 (1) frequency factor

(D) Superoxide (S) BaO2 (2) activation factor

(T) MnO2 (3) pre-exponential factor


Codes
(4) Boltzmann factor
A B C D 95. For the reaction,

(1) R Q T S
,
(2) S R P Q
the rate of reaction is equal to
(3) P Q R S
k 2
1
(4) S Q P R (1) NO
k 2
2
93. A substance will be deliquescent, if its
vapour pressure is (2) 2k1[NO2]2 − 2k2[N2O4]

(1) equal to the atmospheric pressure. (3) k1[NO2]2 − k2[N2O4]

(2) equal to that of water vapour in air. (4) [2k1 − k2][NO2]

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96. Which of the following statement/s is/are 98. Match the List I with List II and select the
correct? correct answer using the codes given
below the list:
(1) Faraday is defined as the charge
List I List II
carried by 1 mole of electron.
(A) Pc (P) 3b
8a
(2) 1 F = 6.023 × 1023 × 1.602 × 10−19 C (B) Vc (Q)
27Rb
a
(3) Faraday is the quantity of electricity (C) Tc (R)
2
required to decompose or to liberate 27b
1 gram equivalent of a substance. a
(S)
bR
(4) All statements are correct. Codes

A B C
97. Under what conditions ∆H is equal to ∆U,
when (1) P R S

(2) R Q P
(1) the reaction does not involve any
gaseous substance. (3) R P Q

(4) S R Q
(2) the reaction does not involve any
change in volume of reactant and 99. The temperature to which a gas must
product (∆V = 0). be cooled for liquefaction by applying
pressure is known as
(3) there is no change in the number of (1) Boyle’s temperature
moles of products and reactants
(∆n = 0). (2) critical temperature

(3) transition temperature


(4) all of these
(4) inversion temperature

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18

100. A certain quantity of current on passing (3) eclipsed > skew > staggered
through electrolytic baths containing
AgNO3, FeSO4 and CrCl3 in series, and ‘x’ (4) staggered > skew > eclipsed
moles of chromium metal is deposited.
The ratio of moles of Ag and Fe is 103. Correct order of nucleophilicity is
deposited in the ratio of
B B B B
(1) CH > NH > OH > F
(1) x, 2x (2) 3x, 2x 3 2

(3) 3x, 3x (4) x, x B


(2) CH > OH > F
B B
> NH
B
2 3 2

101. The aromatic species among the follow- B B B B


(3) F > NH > OH > CH
2 3
ing is

B B B B
(4) F > OH > NH > CH
2 3

(1) (2)
104. Which of the following reactions does
not yield an alkyl halide?

(1) C2H5OC2H5 + PCl5 →


(3) (4)
(2) C2H5OC2H5 + HI →
102. The correct energy gradation of different
conformers is
(3) C2H5OC2H5 + Cl2 →

(1) skew > staggered > eclipsed


(4)
(2) skew > eclipsed > staggered

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(1) (2)

105. ?
(3) HCOOH (4) CH3COOH

Product is 107. On reduction with LiAlH4, amines can be


prepared by

(1) RCN (2) RNC

(1) (3) RCONH2 (4) All of these

108. Which is ortho, para orienting but deactiva-


ting group?

(1) − NO2 (2) − N+(CH3)3


(2)
(3) − X(halogens) (4) − CH = CH − NO2

109. Which is not true about aniline?

(1) It undergoes bromination at ortho


(3) and para positions.

(2) It will undergo Friedel-Craft’s acyla-


tion and alkylation in presence of
anhydrous AlCl3.

(4) (3) It undergoes bromination at meta


position in presence of strong acid.

(4) It forms picric acid with nitrating


106. Which acid on heating gives a mixture
mixture.
of CO and CO2 gases?

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110. Chromatography is efficient in separa- (3) double halides of K and Mg.


ting complex mixture of substances. It is
(4) double silicates of Al and Na.
based on
113. Decreasing order of oxidising power of
(1) absorption of solute
B
perhalate ion XO is
4
(2) adsorption of solute
B B B
(3) hydration of solute (1) IO > BrO > ClO
4 4 4

(4) adsorption of solvent B B B


(2) ClO > BrO > IO
4 4 4
111. Characteristics of s-block elements are:
B B B
(A) They are prepared by the electrolysis (3) BrO > IO > ClO
4 4 4
of their fused salts.
B B B
(4) BrO > ClO > IO
(B) Their cations are diamagnetic. 4 4 4

(C) Elements have low density, good 114. Transition metals and their compounds
conductor of heat and electricity. are used as catalysts because

(D) Their oxides are basic in property. (1) in the powder form, they have large
surface area
(1) Only D (2) A and B
(2) of presence of free valence electrons
(3) B and D (4) A, B, C and D
(3) of presence of unpaired d-electrons
112. Zeolites are
(4) all of these
(1) double salts of B and Al.
115. Which of the following metals do not
(2) double sulphates of alkali metals with form peroxide?
Cr+3, Al+3, Fe+3.
(1) Na (2) K (3) Ba (4) Pb

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116. Match the List I compound of silver with 118. The products A, B and C of the following
List II with colour and select the correct reaction are respectively
answer using the codes given below the
list:

List I List II
(A) Ag2S (P) White

(B) Ag2CrO4 (Q) Yellow

(C) Ag3PO4 (R) Black

(D) AgCNS (S) Red


(T) Chocolate
brown
(1)
Codes

A B C D

(1) P Q R S
(2)
(2) S R Q T

(3) R T Q S

(4) R S Q P

117. Reducing property of formic acid is due (3)


to ________________ group.

(1) − COOH (2) − OH


(4)
(3) − CHO (4) − H+

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119. Fluorine does not form any interhalogen (1) A, B and C (2) B, C and A
compound as other halogens because
it has (3) C, B and A (4) B, A and C

(1) low F − F bond energy 121. The solubility product (Ksp) of CuS, Ag 2S

and HgS respectively are 10−31, 10−44 and


(2) maximum electronegativity
10−54. The order of their solubility in water
(3) no d-orbitals will be

(4) low electron gain enthalpy (1) Ag2S > CuS > HgS

120. Consider the following metallurgical pro- (2) Ag2S > HgS > CuS
cess:
(3) HgS > Ag2S > CuS
(A) Heating the sulphide ore in blast
furnace so that a part of it is conver- (4) CuS > Ag2S > HgS
ted to oxide and then on further heating
in the absence of air, it undergoes re- 122. The aqueous solution with the lowest
duction to get the metal. freezing point is

(B) Electrolysing the molten electrolyte (1) 0.01 m glucose


with CaCl2 and the metal is got by
electrolytic reduction. (2) 0.01 m KCl

(C) The sulphide ore is mixed with aqueous (3) 0.01 m BaCl2
NaCN in presence of air, the aqueous
metal complex formed is precipita- (4) 0.01 m K4[Fe(CN)6]
ted by adding zinc powder.
123. Match the List I with List II and select the
The process used for obtaining sodium, correct answer using the codes given
silver and copper respectively are below the list:

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List I List II
List I List II
(A) Anomer (P) Non-superim-
(A) Fibrous protein (P) Polypeptide
posable mirror (B) Globular (Q) Peptone
images protein
(B) Enantiomer (Q) Stereoisomer (C) Conjugated (R) Keratin
that are not protein
mirror images
(D) Derived protein (S) Nucleo-
(C) Diastereo- (R) Stereoisomer
protein
mer that differ at C-1
(T) Albumin
configuration
Codes
(D) Mesomer (S) Cis-trans
isomerism A B C D
(T) Optically inact- (1) R S T Q
ive chiral com-
(2) S R Q T
pound due to
internal com- (3) P Q S T
pensation
(4) R T S Q
Codes
125. Zwitter ion is possible in
A B C D
(A) protein (B) sulphanilic acid
(1) R S P T

(2) R Q S T
(C) oxalic acid (D)
(3) R P Q S

(4) R P Q T

124. Match the List I with List II and select the (1) A and B (2) B and C
correct answer using the codes given
below the list: (3) C only (4) A and D

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PART IV: ENGLISH PROFICIENCY AND LOGICAL REASONING

(a) ENGLISH PROFICIENCY 129. ENSCONCE

Directions for questions 126 to 128: In each of (1) to surround


the following questions, a capitalised word is (2) to promote
followed by four words numbered 1 to 4.
(3) to honour
Choose the word that is most opposite to the
meaning of the capitalised word and mark (4) to settle comfortably
your answer in the appropriate place in your 130. INGRATIATE
answer sheet.
(1) to regret
126. SCINTILLA
(2) to provoke
(1) Unscientific
(3) to place oneself in a favourable
(2) Huge quantity
position
(3) Mealy-mouthed
(4) to feel delighted
(4) Unpromising
131. AUGURY
127. KNAVE
(1) Dispute
(1) Honest (2) Ignorant
(2) Altar
(3) Timid (4) Belligerant
128. APOCRYPHAL (3) Place of refuge

(1) Confusing (2) Modern (4) Omen

(3) True (4) Unsophisticated 132. TRANSGRESS


Directions for questions 129 to 133: Each (1) to take loan
question below has a word capitalised
(2) to go beyond the limit
followed by four words or phrases numbered 1
to 4. Choose the word that has nearly the (3) to discuss at length
same meaning as the capitalised word. (4) to show a clean pair of heels

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133. FERRET OUT that something has been left out. Following
each sentence four words are given. Choose
(1) to search (2) to trap
the word that makes the sentence
(3) to hide (4) to flee meaningful.

Directions for questions 134 to 136: Each of the 137. John was so good at mathematics that
following sentence has a mistake in grammar his friends considered him to be a
usage or idiom. Each sentence is broken up ________.
into four parts sequentially 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Choose the part that has an error and mark (1) Profligate (2) Prodigy
accordingly.
(3) Prodigal (4) Primeval
134. (1) It is stupid to go
138. His __________ of the topic was so good
(2) to the expense of taking that students had few doubts to raise at
(3) music lessons the end.

(4) if you never practice (1) exposition (2) picturisation


135. (1) You will find
(3) clarity (4) exposure
(2) if difficult
Directions for questions 139 and 140: Choose
(3) to explain of your use
from among the alternatives given, the word
(4) of such offensive language which will substitute the underlined expression
in each of the following questions and mark
136. (1) Because of the
the same in your answer sheet.
(2) extenuating circumstances
139. Though badly wounded he clung to his
(3) the court acquitted him life with firm determination.
(4) out of the crime
(1) tendency (2) tenacity
Directions for questions 137 and 138: Each
(3) sustenance (4) absteation
sentence below has a blank space indicating

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140. He started the fight without being 143. CANVAS : PAINTER ::


incited by anger.
(1) Leather : Shoe
(1) abjected (2) improvised
(2) Chisel : Wood
(3) provoked (4) poverished
(3) Hammer : Carpenter
(b) LOGICAL REASONING
(4) Marble : Sculptor
Directions for questions 141 to 144: In each of
the following questions a pair of words with 144. ELEVATED : EXALTED ::
certain relationship between them is given
(1) Promoted : Excellence
followed by four pairs numbered 1 to 4. Select
the pair wherein the words have closest (2) Purified : Hygienic
relationship to the original pair.
(3) Dirty : Filthy
141. DRIVER : DRIVING ::
(4) Disorderly : Unfaithful
(1) Carpenter : Wood
Directions for questions 145 to 147: In each
(2) Garden : Plants question you find a set of sentences arranged
in a haphazard way. Choose the correct
(3) Counsellor : Counselling arrangement of sentences as indicated by
the number to make a coherent paragraph.
(4) Psychologist : Teaching
145. A. Galileo saw, too, that all the planets,
142. WATER : SWIM ::
including the earth, travel round the
(1) Graze : Grass sun.

(2) Plan : Implement B. On the sun he saw dark spots that


moved slowly across its surface; and
(3) Ground : Play this proved that the sun, like the
earth, spins round itself.
(4) Knot : Tie

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C. Galileo made many important C. Indeed, most urban Indians are


scientific discoveries, and from the bilingual and speak a smattering of
year 1609 onwards, he was the at least a third language.
maker of the first telescope.
D. Migration to where opportunity
D. With these he studied the heavens, beckons is the order of the day and
and there he saw many wonderful Indians are constantly shifting base
things that men had never seen within the country.
before. E. In the 21st century marketplace,
E. He studied at Pisa University and languages are the new bargaining
chips.
became a professor of Mathematics
there, and afterwards at Padua. F. While English must be actively
promoted, it would be foolhardy to
F. The man who is described as “the
let regional languages fall off the
first truly modern scientist” was an
radar.
Italian astronomer Galileo Galilei, who
was born in Pisa, in the year 1564 (1) FBADCE (2) EFBCAD

(1) BDEAFC (2) FEDCBA (3) DEAFBC (4) DBCEAF

(3) BEDCAF (4) BEACDF 147. A. The other two south Asian contenders
for the worlds most coveted literary
146. A. To be able to integrate socially and prize were Indira Sinha for “Animals
excel in great Indian marketplace, it People” and Mohsin Hamid for “The
makes good sense to be conversant Reluctant Fundamentalist”.
with regional languages other than
B. Nobody was more surprised than
just ones mother tongue.
the 45 year old another herself.
B. A willingness to adopt and adapt to C. The choice raised eyebrows and
another language will enrich the prompted praise for the jury’s bold
individual. move though there was a lack of
happy unenimity.

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D. The judges hailed it as a “powerful” (1) CEA (2) CEF (3) ADE (4) BAE
and unflinching study of a grieving
dysfunctional family. 149. Complete the following series by
choosing the right alternative.
E. She won an award of £ 50,000 for
her novel “The gathering”.

F. Irish writer Anne Enright was declared


the surprise winner of ‘the Man
Booker Prize’.

(1) ABCEFD (2) FBECAD

(3) FEDCBA (4) DACFBE


150. Choose the figure from the five
Directions for question 148: The question alternatives 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 will fit into
contains six statements followed by four sets the box? of the figure marked X
of combinations of three. Choose the set in
which the statements are logically related.

148. A. All cups are saucers

B. All pots are cups.

C. All pots are saucers.

D. All saucers are cups.

E. Some cups are pots.

F. Some saucers are pots.

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1

BITSAT 2008
BRILLIANT’S MTP 3/SOLNS
MOCK TEST 3
FOR STUDENTS OF
OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSE
TOWARDS
BITSAT, 2008

SOLUTIONS

PART I: MATHEMATICS

1. (1) 2x − 5 > − |x − 3|, The integers satisfying both the


conditions are 5, 6, 7 and hence 3
⇒ 2x − 5 > 3 − x, when x > 3 and solutions.
2x − 5 > x − 3, when x < 3. 4. (2) The numbers are even numbers or
multiples of 5.
8
⇒x> , when x > 3 and These are 2, 4, 6, ..., 100 and
3
x > 2, when x < 3. 5, 15, 25, ..., 95.
50
S= (2 + 100) + 5(1 + 3 + 5 + ... + 19)
2

10
∴ x ∈ (2, 3] ∪ [3, ∞) = (2, ∞) = (50 × 51) + 5 × (1 + 19) = 3050
2

2. (4)
7x B 11

4
A
3 5. (1) Tr + 1 = nCr an − r br, 15
Cr − 1 = 15C2r + 4
x B1 x B 2 x B1 x B 2
⇒ either 2r + 4 = r − 1
Using short cut, hence A − B = 4 − 3 or (2r + 4) + (r − 1) = 15

=1 ⇒ r = − 5 or r = 4, (r cannot be
negative)
3. (1) (x − 3)(x − 7) ≤ 0
6. (1) E = 2 sin2 x − cos 2x
⇒ 3 ≤ x ≤ 7 and x(x − 4) > 0 = (1 − cos 2x) − cos 2x

⇒ either x < 0 or x > 4 = 1 − 2 cos 2x ≥ 1 − 2(1) = − 1


and ≤ 1 − 2 (− 1) = 3
∴−1≤E≤3

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7. (2) The number of ways = The number 3


Equation of OP is y = x and of
of positive integral solutions of 2
x + y + z + t + u = 20 = 19
C4 (by OQ is y = 6x
partition method)
11. (2) E ≡ f(x, y) ≡ 4x2 + 5y2 − 1
8. (1) N = 38808 = 23 ⋅ 32 ⋅ 72 ⋅ 111
f(4, − 3) = 108 is positive.
Total number of factors
∴ (4, − 3) lies outside the ellipse.
= (1 + 3)(1 + 2)(1 + 2)(1 + 1)
12. (1) On the xy-plane, z coordinate is
= 72 zero.

∴ number of factors excluding 1 If the line AB crosses the xoy plane


and N = 70 λ
at P, and if AP = , then z coordi-
9. (4) Since cos x − i sin 2x and PB 1
sin x − i cos 2x are conjugates, λ 6 A1
nate of P = should be zero.
λ A1
cos x + i sin 2x ≡ sin x − i cos 2x
Therefore λ = − 1
cos x = sin x and sin 2x = − cos 2x. 6

π B 1 5 A 63 13,
The first ⇒ x = nπ + and the and xp = =
4 B 1A 6 5

π
second ⇒ 2x = mπ − yp = B 1 1 A 6 4 = 23
4 B 1 A 6 5
π
or x = mπ − .
8 13 23
∴P= , , 0
5 5
No value of x satisfies both condi-
tions. 2 2
2 x B x Ax
13. (3) lim x B x A x = lim
2
BP 2 x→∞ x→∞ xA x Ax
10. (3) =
PA 1
B 1
= lim
8 4 1
⇒ P = , 4 and Q = , 8 , x→∞ 1 A 1 A
3 3 x
since Q is the midpoint of BP.
1
=B
2

14. (1) f(x) = 1 + 2 sin x + 2 cos2 x

f ′ (x) = 2 cos x (1 − 2 sin x) and

f ″ (x) = − 2 sin x − 4 cos 2x

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π π a
f ′(x) = 0, when x = or x = 9B 4
2 6 2
⇒ <0
a
π 2
f″ = 2, positive and
2
9 B 2a
π ⇒ <0
f″ =−5 a
6
⇒ a(2a − 9) > 0
π
∴ f(x) is least, when x =
2
9
3
⇒ a < 0 or a >
15. (1) x dy + y dx = x dx 2

4
x α β
⇒ d(xy) = d Now if α and β are real, A ≥ 2.
4 β α
4
x c Hence the roots must be complex.
⇒ xy = A
4 4
Therefore, the discriminant
⇒ 4xy = x4 + c 36 − 8a < 0.
2 2
16. (2) x A 9 A x B 9 = 4 A 34, 9
∴a> ; a < 0 is disqualified.
Multiply numerator and denominator 2
by the conjugate,
18. (2) b2 − ac ⇒ 2 logx b = logx a + logx c
2 2 2
x A 9 B x B 9 4 B 34
=
2 2 4 B 34 2 1 1
x A 9B x B 9 ⇒ = A
log x log x log x
b a c
18 B 18
⇒ =
2 2 4 B 34
x A9 B x B9 ∴ loga x, logb x, logc x are in H.P.

2 2
x A 9B x B 9 = 34 B 4 19. (2) (x, y) ∈ R ∩ R′

2 2
x A 9A x B 9 = 34 A 4 ⇒ (x, y) ∈ R and (x, y) ∈ R′
2
⇒ x A 9 = 34. ⇒ (y, x) ∈ R and (y, x) ∈ R′,
Hence x = ± 5 since R and R′ are symmetric.

∴ the solution is 5. ⇒ (y, x) ∈ R ∩ R′


2 2
α β α A β B 2αβ ⇒ R ∩ R′ is symmetric.
17. (1) A <2⇒ <0
β α αβ
20. (2) A ∪ B = {1, 2, 3, 8} and A ∩ B = {3}
2
α Aβ B 4αβ
⇒ <0
αβ (A ∪ B) × (A ∩ B) = {(1, 3), (2, 3),
(3, 3), (8, 3)}

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5 = (4 + 6i)(3 + 3i2)
1
21. (4) Mean deviation =
5
∑ x B x
i
i = 1 = (4 + 6i)(3 − 3)

Here x = 5 =0
1
= {|3 − 5| + |4 − 5|+ |5 − 5| ∴ x = 0 and y = 0
5
+ |6 − 5|+ |7 − 5|}
25. (2) A is symmetric ⇒ At = A
6
= = 1.2
5 Hence A−1 = (At)−1
n
22. (4) Cr + 2nCr − 1 + nCr − 2 = (nCr + nCr − 1) = (A−1)t
n n
+ ( Cr − 1 + Cr − 2)
⇒ A−1 is symmetric.
(n + 1)
= Cr +
(n + 1) 26. (1) tan 60° = tan (40° + 20°)
Cr − 1

= (n + 2)Cr tan 40° A tan 20°


=
1 B tan 40° ⋅ tan 20°
n A1
r B1
23. (1) E= a = 3
r B 1

n A1 ∴ tan 40° + tan 20° + 3 tan 40°


= 1⋅ 1 A x B 1,
1A x B1 tan 20° = 3

since there are (n + 1) terms.


B1 2π B1 1
27. (3) cos B cos = cos B B
n A1 3 2
= 1A x B1
x
B1 π
Coefficient of xk in E = Coefficient = cos cos
3
of xk +1 in the
numerator π
=
= (n + 1)Ck + 1 3

6i B 3i 1 since 0 ≤ cos−1 x ≤ π
24. (4) x + iy = 4 3i B 1
20 3 i 28. (3) (3 cos x − 1)(cos x − 3) = 0 gives only
1
one solution cos x = and the
4 A 6i 0 0 R1 → R1 A R 2 3
= 4 3i B 1
1
20 3 i general solution is 2nπ ± cos−1
3

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29. (1) z z = |z|2 = 4, For vertical tangent (parallel to


dx
4A z 4 A z z 4 A z y-axis), =0
= = =z dy
1A z 4 z A 4
1A
z xexy = 1, which is satisfied by the
point (1, 0).
30. (3) (x − 7)2 + (y + 1)2 = 52.
35. (3) Putting y = sin x,
The equation of the director circle
1
is (x − 7)2 + (y + 1)2 = 2 × 52

(0, 0) satisfies this equation; origin


I= ∫ dy
1 A y 2 A y
y = 0
lies on the director circle. Angle
1
π
between the tangents is 90° or
2
. = ∫ 1
1A y
B
1
2 A y
dy
0

31. (2) (y − 1)2 = 4 x A 1 1


4 1A y
= ln
2A y 0
1
Vertex = B , 1 ; a = 1;
4 2 1 4
= ln B ln = ln
3 2 3
Equation of the directrix is

x=−
1
−1=−
5
or 4x + 5 = 0 36. (3) 11 × 101 × 10001 = (10 + 1)(102 + 1)
4 4
(104 + 1)
32. (2) OA = 14 = OB Multiplying and dividing by 10 − 1,
we get
⇒ ∆AOB is isosceles.
1
The bisector of AOB is also the N= (10 − 1)(10 + 1)(102 + 1)(104 + 1)
9
median OC; C = (2, 2, − 2);
1
= (102 − 1)(102 + 1)(104 + 1)
∴ OC = 2 i A 2 j B 2k 9

1
33. (1) y = 2 cos−1 x, = (108 − 1)
9
since sin−1 1 B x = cos−1 x n
2a A n B 1 d
2 1 1 n A1
dy B2 1 B1 37. (3) = , for
= × = n n A 3
dx 1 B x 2 x x1B x 2a A n B 1 d
2 2 2

34. (2) y + x = exy all values of n. To get the 4th term


(a + 3d), put n = 7,
Differentiating with respect to y,
we get 2a A 6d
1 1 8 4
= =
2a A 6d 10 5
dx xy dx 2 2
1 A = e y A x
dy dy

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(2n + 1)
38. (3) Let logb a = N. 42. (3) C1 + (2n + 1)C2 + ... + (2n + 1)
Cn
= 1023
log log a log N
b b
∴ =
log a log a ∴ (2n + 1)C0 + (2n + 1) C1 + ... + (2n + 1)Cn
b b
= 1024
= loga N
1
(i.e.,) × 22n + 1 = 1024 = 210
log N 2
∴ a a = N = logb a
⇒n=5
39. (3) Write nCn as (n + 1)
Cn + 1, since both
are equal to 1 43. (4) |z − (− 1 + i)| ≤ 1 represents a
region of a circle with centre (− 1 + i)
Expression and radius 1. The point on this circle
with least amplitude is P(0, 1) and
= {(n + 1)Cn + 1 + (n + 1)Cn} + ... corresponds to i.

= (n + 2)Cn + 1 + (n + 2)Cn + ...

= (n + 3)Cn + 1 + ...

= (n + m + 2)Cn + 1
44. (3) Number of ways of selecting exactly
1 1 1 two children and two others
40. (1) f(0, y) = 1 1 1 =0
4 5
1 1 1A y C × C
2 2 10
= =
9 21
⇒ f(x, y) is divisible by x. C
4

Similarly, f(y) = 0
45. (2) a ⋅ b = 14x2 − 8x + x < 0 and
⇒ f(x, y) is divisible by y. 7 3 π
>
2 2,θ< 6
x A 49 A 4
41. (3) a2 + b2 + c2 − ca − ab 3=0
3
Regrouping, ⇒ cos θ >
2
2 2
a 3 a 37
b B A c B =0 7x (2x − 1) < 0 and x2 <
2 2 3

Both these conditions are valid in


∴a:b:c=2: 3 : 1.
1
0, .
Hence the triangle has angles 2

30°, 60° and 90°.

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7

PART II: PHYSICS

46. (2) 100


68. (4) ie = × 24 = 30 mA
80
47. (4)
ib = ie − ic
48. (2)
= 30 − 24 = 6 mA
49. (3)
2
69. (2) (i) P c = P T
2
50. (3) 2A m
3 2
51. (1) = 2.64 × 10
2
2 A 0.8
52. (3)
= 2000 W
53. (4)
2
54. (4) (ii) P m
=P = P
USB LSB 4 c

55. (2) 2
0.8
P = × 2000 = 320 W
c 4
56. (2)

57. (2) 70. (2)

E 71. (2) CS = 2 × ∆f
m 12
58. (1) m = × 100 = × 100
a E 20
c
CS 100
∆f = = = 50 kHz
= 60% 2 2

59. (3) ∆f 50
∴ m = = = 10
f f 5
60. (1) m

61. (3) 72. (2) 73. (1) 74. (1) 75. (3) 76. (4)

62. (1) 77. (1) 78. (4) 79. (1) 80. (2) 81. (1)

63. (3) 82. (3) 83. (3) 84. (3) 85. (3)

64. (3)

65. (1)

66. (3)

67. (2)

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8

PART III: CHEMISTRY

86. (2) Radius of hydrogen like species, 91. (2) 92. (4) 93. (3) 94. (4)
2
0.53 Å × n
rn =
Z
95. (3)

Radius of He+ electronic orbits


The rate of reaction
+
(Z for He = 2, n = 1, 2, 3)
= − k1[NO2]2 − k2 [N2O4]
2
= 0.53 × n
2 96. (4) 97. (4) 98. (3) 99. (2)

r1 = r2 = r3 = 1 : 4 : 9 100. (3) Mass of element electrodeposited is


proportional to equivalent mass of
element.
87. (4) 19K = 2, 8, 8, 1

Equivalent masses of Ag : Fe : Cr in
1 1 terms of molar mass M
4s = n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = ±
2

M M
88. (2) Cation being the same, ionic character =M: :
2 3
decreases with larger size anion.

= 1 : 0.5 : 0.33
B2
89. (2) O2 O
2
Ratio of moles of electro deposited
B1 B1
B OBOB
Total num- 16 18 3x : 1.5x = x
ber of elec-
trons
Bond order 2 1
Magnetic Para- Dia- 101. (3) 2π-electrons
property magnetic magnetic
Bond length Small Large 4 × 0 + 2π = 2π-electrons, Huckel rule.
Bond High Low
strength 102. (3) 103. (2) 104. (3)
90. (1) CCl4 does not hydrolyse with water
as carbon has no d-electrons.

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9

105. (2)

106. (2) 108. (3) 109. (4) 110. (2) 111. (4) 112. (4)

113. (3) 114. (4) 115. (4) 116. (4) 117. (3)

118. (1) 119. (3) 120. (2) 121. (1) 122. (4)
107. (4)
123. (4) 124. (3) 125. (1)

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10

PART IV: ENGLISH PROFICIENCY AND LOGICAL REASONING

149. (1) The element at the NW is placed


(a) ENGLISH PROFICIENCY inside the element at the SE and
then the whole thing is placed in the
centre (3, 4, 5 are ruled out). The
126. (2) 127. (1) 128. (3) 129. (4) 130. (3) element at the SW is rotated 90° and
then is shifted to the NE (2 is ruled
131. (4) 132. (2) 133. (1) 134. (2) 135. (3) out)

136. (4) 137. (2) 138. (1) 139. (2) 140. (3) 150. (4)

(b) LOGICAL REASONING

141. (3) 142. (3) 143. (4) 144. (3) 145. (2)

146. (1) 147. (3) 148. (2)

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