1. Which is the primary goal of enterprise based on net profit A.

For people to attain their

community health nursing?
A. To support and supplement the
efforts of the medical profession in 5. A business firm must
the promotion of health and
prevention of
B. To enhance the capacity of
individuals, families and
communities to cope with their
health needs
C. To increase the productivity of
the people by providing them with D. 301
services that will increase their
level of health
D. To contribute to national
development through promotion
of family welfare, focusing
particularly on mothers and
children
2. CHN is a community-based
practice. Which best explains
this statement?
A. The service is provided in the
natural environment of people
B. The nurse has to conduct
community diagnosis to
determine nursing needs and
problems
C. The service are based on the
available resources within the
community
D. Priority setting is based on the factory
magnitude of the health problems
identified
3. Population- focused nursing RHU in their municipality
practice requires which of the
following processes?
A. Community organizing .
B. Nursing, process
C. Community diagnosis
D. Epidemiologic process
4. RA 1054 is also known as
the Occupational Health Act.
Aside from the number of
employees, what other factor
must be considered in
determining the occupational
health privileges to which the D. The statement may be true or
workers will be entitled?
A. Type of occupation,:
agriculture, commercial, industrial 9. According to C.E. Winslow,
B. Location of the workplace in
relation to health facilities
C. Classification of the business
D. Sex and age composition of
employees
employ an occupational health
nurse when it has at least how
many employees.
A. 21
B. 101
C. 201
6. When the occupational
health nurse employs
ergonomic principles, she is
performing which of her roles?
A. Health care provider
B. Health educator
C. Health care coordinator
D. Environment manager
7. A garment factory does not
have an occupational nurse.
Who shall provide the
occupational health needs of
the factory workers?
A. Occupational health nurse at
the Provincial Health Office
B. Physician employed by the
C. Public Health nurse of the RHU
of their municipality
D. Rural Sanitary inspector of the
8. "Public health services are
given free of charge". Is this
statement true or false?
A. The statement is true; it is the
responsibility of government to
provide haste services
B. The statement is false; people
pay indirectly for public health
services
C. The statement may be true or
false; depending on the Specific
service required
false; depending on policies of the
government concerned.
which of the following is the
goal of Public Health?
birthrights and longevity
B. For promotion of health and
prevention and diseases
C. For people to have access to
basic health services
D. For people to be organized in
their health efforts
10. We say that a Filipino has
attained longevity when he is
able to reach the average life
span of Filipinos. What other
statistic may be used to
determine attainment of
longevity?
A. Age-specific mortality rate
B. Proportionate mortality rate
C. Swaroop's index
D. Case fatality rate
11. Which of the following is
the most prominent feature of
public health nursing?
A. It involves providing home care
to sick people who are not
confined in the hospital
B. Services are provided free of
charge to people within the
catchment area
C. The public health nurse
functions as part of a team
providing a public health nursing
service
D. Public health nursing focuses
on preventive, not curative
services
12. According to Margaret
Shetland, the philosophy of
public health nursing is based
on which of the following?
A. Health and longevity as
birthrights
B. The mandate of the state to
protect the birthrights of its
citizens
C. Public health nursing as a
specialized field of nursing
D. The worth and dignity of man
13. Which of the following is
the mission of the Department
of Health?
A. Health for all Filipinos
B. Ensure the accessibility and
quality of health
C. Improve the general health
status of the population
D. Health in the hands of the
Filipino people by the year 2020
14. Region IV Hospital is
classified as what level of
facility?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
15. What is true of primary
facilities?
A. They are usually government-
run
B. Their services are provided on
an out-patient basis
C. They are training facilities for
health professionals
D. A community hospital is an
example of this level of health
facilities
16. Which is an example of the
school nurse's health care
provider function?
A. Requesting for BCG from the
RHU for school entrance
immunization
B. Conducting random classroom
inspection during measles
epidemic
C. Taking remedial action on an
accident hazard in the school
playground
D. Observing places in the school midwives. Which of the
where pupils spend their free
times
17. When the nurse
determines whether resources A. Referring cases or patients to
were maximized in
implementing Ligtas Tigdas,
she is evaluating:
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Adequacy
D. Appropriateness
18. You are a new B.S.N.
graduate. You want to become you to whom she should refer health services
a Public Health Nurse. Where
will you apply?
A. Department of Health
B. Provincial Health Office A. Public health nurse
C. Regional Health Office B. Rural health midwife
D. Rural Health Unit C. Municipal health officer
D. Any of these health
19. RA 7160 mandates professionals
devolution of basic services
from the national government 24. You are the public health
to local government units. nurse in a municipality with a
Which of the following is the total population of about
major goal of devolution? 20,000. There are3 health
midwives among the RHU
A. To strengthen local government personnel. How many more
units midwife items will the RHU
B. To allow greater autonomy to need?
local government units.
C. To empower the people and A. 1
promote their self-reliance B. 2
D. To make basic services more C. 3
accessible to the people D. 4
20. Who is the Chairman of the 25. If the RHU needs
Municipal Health Board? additional midwife items, you
will submit the request for
A. Mayor additional midwife items for
B. Municipal Health Officer approval to the:
C. Public Health Nurse
D. Any qualified physician A. Rural Health Unit
B. District Health Office
21. Which level of health C. Provincial Health Office
facility is the usual point of D. Municipal Health Board
entry of a client into the
health care delivery system? 26. As an epidemiologist, the
nurse is responsible for
A. Primary reporting cases or notifiable
B. Secondary diseases. What law mandates
C. Intermediate reporting cases of notifiable
D. Tertiary diseases?
22. The public health nurse is A. Act 3573
the supervisor of rural health B. RA.3753
C. RA 1054
following is a supervisory D. RA 1082
function of the pubic health
nurse? 27. According to Freeman and
Heinrich, community health
nursing is a developmental
the midwife service. Which of the following
B. Providing technical guidance to best illustrates this
the midwife statement?
C. Proving nursing care to cases
referred by the midwife A. The community health nurse
D. Formulating and implementing continuously develops himself
training programs for midwives personally and professionally
B. Health education and
23. One of the participants in community organizing are
a hilot training class asked necessary in providing community
a patient in labor who C. Community health nursing in
develops a complication. You intended primarily for health
will answer, to the; promotion and prevention and
treatment of disease.
D. The goal of community health
nursing is to provide nursing
services to people in their own
place of .residence
28. Which disease was
declared through Presidential
Proclamation No. 4 as a target
for, eradication in the
Philippines?
A. Pioliomyelitis
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Neonatal Tetanus
29. The public health nurse is
responsible for presenting the
municipal health statistics
using graphs and tables. To
compare the frequency of the
leading causes of mortality in
the municipality, which graph
will you prepare?
A. Line
B. Bar
C. Pie
D. Scatter diagram
30. Which step in community
organizing involves training of
potential leaders in the
community?
A. Integration
B. Community organization
C. Community study
D. Core group formation
31. In which step are plans
formulated for solving
community problems?
A. Mobilization
B. Community organization
C. Follow-up/extension
D. Core group formation
32. The public health nurse
takes an active role in
community participation.
What is the primary goal of
community organizing?
A. To educate the people
regarding community health
problems
B. To mobilize the people to
resolve community health
problems
C. To maximize the community's
resources in dealing with health
problems
33. An indicator of success in
community organizing is when B. Health deficit
people are able to:
A. Participate in community
activities for the solution of a
community problem
B. Implement activities for the
solution of the community
problem
C. Plan activities for the solution of A. Health threat
the community problem
D. Identify the health problem as a C. Foreseeable crisis
common concern
34. Tertiary prevention is
needed in which stage of the
natural history of disease?
A. Pre-pathogenesis
B. Pathogenesis
C. Predromal
D. Terminal
35. Isolation of a child with
measles belongs to what level
of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
36. On the other hand,
Operation Timbang is_____
prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
37. Which type of family-nurse
contact will provide you with
the best opportunity to
observe family dynamics?
A. Clinic consultation
B. Group conferences
C. Home visit
D. Written communication
38. The typology of family
nursing problems is used in
the statement of nursing
diagnosis in the care of
families. The youngest child of
the delos Reyes family has
been diagnosed as mentally
retarded. This is classified as:
A. Health threat
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point
39. The delos Reyes coupled
have 6-year old child entering
school for the first time. The
delos Reyes family has a:
B. Health deficit
D. Stress point
40. Which of the following is
an advantage of a home visit?
A. It allows the nurse to provide
nursing care to a greater number
of people
B. It provides an opportunity to do
first hand appraisal of the home
situation
C. It allows sharing of experience
among people with similar health
problems
D. It develops the family's
initiative in providing for health
needs of its members
41. Which is CONTRARY to the
principles in planning a home
visit?
A. A home visit should have a
purpose of objective
B. The plan should revolve around
the family health .needs
C. A home visit should be
conducted in the manner
prescribed by RHU
D. Planning of continuing care
should involve a responsible-
family member
42. The PHN bag is an
important tool in providing
nursing care during a home
visit. The most important
principle in bag technique
states that it;
A. Should save time and effort
B. Should minimize if not totally
prevent the spread of infection
C. Should not overshadow concern
for the patient and his family the nurse during an epidemic? increases towards the end of
D. May be done in variety of ways the rainy season. This pattern
depending on the home situation, of occurrence of Dengue fever
etc. A Conducting assessment of is best described as;
suspected cases to detect the
43. To maintain the communicable diseases A. Epidemic occurrence
cleanliness of the bag and its B. Monitoring the condition of the B. Cyclical variation
contents, which of the cases affected by the C. Sporadic occurrence
following must the nurse do? communicable disease D. Secular occurrence
C. Participating in the
A. Wash his/her hands before and investigation to determine the 51. In the year 1980, the
after providing nursing care to the source of epidemic World Health Organization
family members D. Teaching the community on declared the Philippines,
B. In the care of family member's, preventive measures against the together with some other
as much as possible, use only disease countries in the Western
articles taken from the bag Pacific Region, “free" of which
C. Put on an apron to protect her 47. The primary purpose of disease?
uniform and fold it with the right conducting an epidemiologic
side out before putting it back into investigation is to; A. Pneumonic plaque
the bag. B. Poliomyelitis
D. At the end of the visit, fold the A. Delineate the etiology of the C. Small pox
lining on which the bag was epidemic D. Anthrax
placed, ensuring that the B. Encourage cooperation and
contaminated side is on the support of the community 52. In the census of the
outside. C. Identify groups who are at risk Philippines in 1995, there
of contracting the disease were about 35,299,000 males
44. The public health conducts D. Identify geographical location and about 34,968,000
a study on the factors of cases of the disease in the females. What is the sex ratio?
contributing to the high community
morality rate due to heart A. 99.06:100
diseases in the municipality 48. Which is a characteristic of B. 100.94:100
where she works. Which person-to-person propagated C. 50.23%
branch of epidemiology does epidemic? D. 49.76%
the nurse practice in this
situation? A. There are more cases of the 53. Primary health care is a
disease than expected total approach to community
A. Descriptive B. The disease must necessarily development. Which of the
B. Analytical be transmitted through a vector following is an indicator of
C. Therapeutic C. The spread of the disease can success in the use of the
D. Evaluation be attributed to a common vehicle primary health care approach?

45. Which of the following is a D. There is gradual build up of

function of epidemiology? cases before we epidemic A. Health services are provided
becomes easily noticeable free of charge to individuals and
A. Identifying the disease families
condition based on manifestations 49. In the investigation of an B. Local officials are empowered
presented by a client epidemic, you compare the as the major decision makers in
B. Determining factors that present frequency of the matters of health
contributed to the occurrence of disease with the usual C. Health workers are able too
pneumonia in a 3 year old frequency at this time of the provide care based on identified
C. Determining the efficacy of the year in this community. This is health needs of the people
antibiotic used in the treatment of done during which stage of D. Health programs are sustained
the 3 year old client with the investigation? according to the level of
pneumonia development of the community
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of A. Establishing the epidemic
the implementation of the B. Testing the hypothesis 54. Sputum examination is the
Integrated Management of C. Formulation of the hypothesis major screening tool for
Childhood Illness D. Appraisal of facts pulmonary tuberculosis.
Clients would sometimes get
46. Which of the following is 50. The number of cases of false negative results in this
an epidemiologic function of Dengue fever usually exam. This means that the
test is not perfect in terms of
which characteristic of a
diagnostic examination?
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficacy
C. Specificity
D. Sensitivity
55. Use of appropriate
technology requires
knowledge of indigenous
technology. Which medical
herb is given for fever,
headache and cough?
A. Sambong
B. Tsaang gubat
C. Akapulko
D. Lagundi
56. What law created the
Philippine institute of
Traditional and Alternative
Health Care?
A. RA 8483
B. RA4823
C. RA 2483
D. RA 3482
57. In traditional Chinese
medicine, the yielding,
negative and feminine force is
termed:
A. Yin
B. Yang
C. Qi
D. Chai
58. What is the legal basis of
Primary Health Care approach
in the Philippines?
A. Alma Ata Declaration of PHC
B. Letter of Instruction No 949
C. Presidential Decree No. 147
D. Presidential Decree 996
59. Which of the following
demonstrates inter-sectoral
linkages?
A. Two-way referral system
B. Team approach
C. Endorsement done by a
midwife to another midwife
D. Cooperation between PHN and
public school teacher
60. The municipality assigned
to you has a population of
about 20/000. Estimate the
number of 1-4 year old
children who be given Retinol
capsule 200.000 every 6
months.
A. 1,500
B. 1,800
C. 2,000
D. 2,300
61. Estimate the number of
pregnant women who will be
given tetanus toxoid during an
immunization outreach
activity in a barangay with a
population of about 1,500.
A. 265
B. 300
C. 375
D. 400
62. To describe the sex
composition of the population,
which demographic tool may
be used?
A. Sex ratio
B. Sex proportion
C. Population pyramid
D. Any of these maybe used
63. Which of the following is a
natality rate?
A. Crude birth rate
B. Neonatal mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. General fertility rate
64. You are computing the
crude rate of your
municipality, with a total
population o about 18,000 for
last year. There were 94
deaths. Among those who
died, 20 died because of
diseases of the heart and 32
were aged 50 years or older.
What is the crude death rate?
A. 4.1/1000
B. 5.2/1000
C. 6.3/1000
D. 7.3/1000
65. Knowing that malnutrition
is a frequent community
health problem, you decided
to conduct nutritional
assessment. What population
is particularly susceptible to
protein energy malnutrition
(PEM)?
A. Pregnant women and the
elderly
B. Under 5 year old children
C. 1-4 year old children
D. School age children
66. Which statistic can give
the most accurate reflection of
the health status of a
community?
A. 1-4 year old age-specific
mortality rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Swaroop's index
D. Crude death rate
67. In the past year, Barangay
A had an average population
of 1655. 46 babies were born
in that year, 2 of whom died
less than 4 weeks after they
were born. They were 4
recorded stillbirths. What is
the neonatal mortality rate?
A. 27.8/1000
B. 43.5/1000
C. 86.9/1000
D. 130.4/1000
68. Which statistic best
reflects the nutritional status
of a population?
A. 1-4 year old age-specific
mortality rate
B. Proportionate mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. Swaroop's index
69. What numerator is used in
computing general fertility
rate?
A. Estimated midyear population
B. Number of registered live births
C. Number of pregnancies in the
year
D. Number of females of
reproductive age
70. You will gather data for
nutritional assessment of a
purok. You will gather
information only from families
with members who belong to
the target population for PEM.
What method of delta
gathering is best for this
purpose?
A. Census
B. Survey
C. Record Review
D. Review of civil registry
71. In the conduct of a census, setting of health problems is
the method of population
assignment based on the
actual physical location of the
people is termed;
A. De jure
B. De locus
C. De facto
D. De novo
72. The Field Health Services
and information System
(FHSIS) is the recording and
reporting system in public
health) care in the Philippines. delivery. Which of the
The monthly field health
service activity report is a
form used in which of the
components of the FHSIS?
A. Tally report
B. Output report
C. Target/client list
D. Individual health record
73. To monitor clients
registered in long-term
regimens, such as the Multi-
Drug Therapy, which
component will be most
useful?
A. Tally report
B. Output report
C. Target/client list
D. Individual health record
74. Civil registries are
important sources of data.
Which law requires
registration of births within 30 D. Those who just had a delivery
days from the occurrence of
the birth?
A. PD 651
B. Act 3573
C. RA 3753
D. RA 3375
75. Which of the following
professionals can sign the
birth certificate?
A. Public health nurse
B. Rural health midwife
C. Municipal health officer
D. Any of these health
professionals
76. Which criterion in priority
used only in community health responsibility
care?
A. Modifiability of the problem
B. Nature of the problem
presented
C. Magnitude of the health
problem
D. Preventive potential of the
health problem
77. The Sentrong Sigla
Movement has been launched capsule
to improve health service
following is/are true of this
movement?
A. This is a project spearheaded
by local government units
B. It is a basis for increasing
funding from local government
units
C. It encourages health centers to home delivery?
focus on disease prevention and
control
D. Its main strategy is certification B. She has some palmar pallor
of health centers able to comply
with standards
78. Which of the following
women should be considered
as special targets for family
planning?
A. Those who have two children or defects?
more
B. Those with medical conditions
such as anemia
C. Those younger than 20 years
and older than 35 years
within the past 15 months
79. Freedom of choice in one
of the policies of the Family
Planning Program of the
Philippines. Which of the
following illustrates this
principle?
A. Information dissemination
about the need for family planning
B. Support of research and
development in family planning
methods
C. Adequate information for
couples regarding the different
methods
D. Encouragement of couples to
take family planning as a joint
80. A woman, 6 months
pregnant, came to the center
for consultation. Which of the
following substances is
contraindicated?
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Retinol 200,000 IU
C. Ferrous sulfate 200mg
D. Potassium iodate 200 mg,
81. During prenatal
consultation, a client asked
you if she can have her
delivery at home. After history
taking and physical
examination, you advised her
against a home delivery.
Which of the following
findings disqualifies her for a
A. Her OB score is G5P3
C. Her blood pressure is 130/80
D. Her baby is in cephalic
presentation
82. Inadequate intake by the
pregnant woman of which
vitamin may cause neural tube
A. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
C. Folic Acid
D. Thiamine
83. You are in a client's home
to attend to a delivery. Which
of the following will you do
first?
A. Set up a sterile area
B. Put on a clean gown and apron
C. Cleanse the client's vulva with
soap and water
D. Note the interval, duration and
intensity of labor and contractions
84. In preparing a
primigravida for
breastfeeding, which of the
following will you do?
A. Tell her that lactation begins
within a day after delivery
B. Teach her nipple stretching
exercises if her nipples are
everted
C. Instruct her to wash her nipples
before and after each
breastfeeding
D. Explain to her that putting the
baby to breast will lessen blood
loss after delivery
85. A primigravida is
instructed to offer her breast
to the baby for the first time
within 30 minutes after
delivery. What is the purpose
of offering the breast this
early?
A. To initiate the occurrence of
milk letdown
B. To stimulate milk production by
the mammary acini
C. To make sure that the baby is
able to get the colustrum
D. To allow the woman to practice
breastfeeding in the presence of
the health worker
86. In a mother's class, you
discuss proper breastfeeding
technique. Which of these is a
sign that the baby has
"lactated on" the breast
property?
A. The baby takes shallow, rapid
sucks
B. The mother does not feel nipple
pain
C. The baby's mouth is only partly
open
D. Only the mother's nipple is
inside the baby's mouth
87. You explain to a
breastfeeding mother that
breastmilk is sufficient for all
of the baby's nutrient needs
only up to:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
88. What is given to a woman
within a month after the
delivery of a baby?
A. Malunggay capsule
B. Ferrous sutfate l00mg O.D.
C. Retinol 200.000 IU 1 capsule
D. Potassium Iodate 200 mg, 1
capsule
89. Which biological used in
EPI is stored in the freezer?
A. DPT
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. Measles vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
90. Unused BCG should be
discarded how many hours
after reconstitution?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. At the end of the day
91. In immunity school
entrants with BCG, you not
obliged to secure parental
consent. This is because of
which legal document?
A. PD 996
B. RA 7864
C. Presidential Proclamation No. 6
D. Presidential Proclamation No.
46
92. Which immunization
produces a permanent scar?
A. DPT
B. BCG
C. Measles vaccination
D. Hepatitis B vaccination
93. A 4 week old baby was
brought to the health center
for his first immunization.
Which can be given to him?
A. DPT1
B. OPV1
C. Infant BCG
D. Hepatitis B Vaccin
94. You will not give DPT 2 if
the mother says that the
infant had?
A. Seizures a day after DPT1
B. Fever for 3 days after DPT1
C. Abscess formation after DPT1
D. Local tenderness for 3 days
after DPT1
95. A 2-month old infant was
brought to the health center
for immunization. During
assessment, the infant's
temperature registered at
38.1 C. Which is the best
course of action that you will
take?
A. Go on with the infants
immunization
B. Give paracetamol and wait for
his fever to subside
C. Refer the infant to the physician
for further assessment
D. Advise the infant's mother to
bring him back for immunization
when he is well
96. A pregnant woman had
just received her 4th dose of
tetanus toxoid. Subsequently,
her baby will have protection
against tetanus for how long?
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 10 years
D. Lifetime
97. A 4-month old infant was
brought to the health center
of cough. Her respiratory rate
is 42/minute. Using the IMCI
guidelines of assessment, her
breathing is considered;
A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Normal
D. Insignificant
98. Which of the following
signs will indicate that a
young child is suffering from
severe pneumonia?
A. Dyspnea
B. Wheezing
C. Fast breathing
D. Chest indrawing
99. Using IMCI guidelines, you
classify a child as having
severe pneumonia. What is
the best management for the
child?
A. Prescribe antibiotic
B. Refer him urgently to the
hospital
C. Instruct the mother to increase
fluid intake
D. Instruct the mother to continue
breastfeeding
100. A 5-month old infant was
brought by his mother to the
health center because of
diarrhea occurring 4 to 5
times a day. His skin goes
back slowly after a skin pinch
and his eyes are sunken.
Using the IMCI guidelines, you
will classify this infant in
which category?
A. No signs of dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. The data is insufficient
101. Based on the
assessment, you classified a
3-month old infant with the
chief complaint of diarrhea in
the category of SOME
DEHYDRATION. Based on the
IMCI management guidelines,
which of the following will you
do?
A. Bring the infant to the nearest
facility where IV fluids can be
given
B. Supervise the mother in giving
200 to 400ml of Oresol in 4 hours
C. Give the infant's mother
instructions on home
management
D. Keep the infant in your health
center for close observation
102. A mother is using Oresol'
in the management of
diarrhea of her 3-year old
child. She asked you what to
do if her child vomits. You will
tell her to:
A. Bring the child to the nearest
hospital for further assessment
B. Bring the child to the health
center for IV therapy
C. Bring the child to the health
center for assessment by the
physician
D. Let the child rest for 10
minutes then continue giving
Oresol more slowly
103. A 1 1/2 year old child was
classified as having 3rd
degree of protein energy
malnutrition, kwashjorkor.
Which of the following signs
will be most apparent in this
child?
A. Voracious appetite
B. Wasting
C. Apathy
D. Edema
104. Assessment of a 2-year
old child revealed "baggy
pants". Using the IMCI
guidelines, how will you
manage this child?
A. Refer the child urgently to a
hospital for confinement
B. Coordinate with the social
worker to enroll the child in a
feeding program
C. Make a teaching plan for the
mother, focusing on the menu
planning for her child
D. Assess and treat the child for
health problems like infections
and intestinal parasitism
105. During the physical
examination of a young child,
what is the earliest sign of
xerophthalmia that may
observe?
A. Keratomalacia
B. Corneal opacity
C. Night blindness
D. Conjunctival xerosis
106. To prevent
xerophthalmia, young children
are given Retinol capsule
every 6 months. What is the
dose given to preschoolers?
A. 10, 000 IU
B. 20, 000 IU
C. 100, 000 IU
D. 200, 000 IU
107. The major sign of iron
deficiency anemia is pallor.
What part is best examined
for pallor?
A. Palms
B. Nailbeds
C. Around the lips
D. Lower conjunctival sac
108. Food fortification is one
of the strategies to prevent
micronutrient deficiency
conditions. RA 8976 mandates
fortification of certain food
items. Which of the following
is among these food items?
A. Sugar
B. Bread
C. Margarine
D. Filled milk
109. What is the best course
of action when there is a
measles epidemic in a nearby
municipality?
A. Give measles vaccine to babies
aged 6 to 3 months
B. Give babies aged 6 to 11
months one dose of 100,000 IU of
Retinol
C. Instruct mother to keep their
babies at home to prevent disease
transmission
D. Instruct mothers to feed their
babies adequately to enhance
their babies resistance
110. A mother brought her
daughter, 4 years old, to the
RHU because of cough and
colds. Following the IMCI
assessment guide, which of
the following is a danger sign
that indicates the need for
urgent referral to a hospital?
A. Inability to drink
B. High grade fever
C. Signs of severe dehydration
D. Cough for more than 30 days
111. Management of a child
with measles includes the
administration of which of the
following? D. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin
116. Which of the following smear
A. Gentian violet on mouth lesions signs indicates the need for
B. Antibiotic to prevent pneumonia sputum examination for AFB? 121. In the Philippines, which
C. Tetracycline eye ointment for condition is the most frequent
corneal opacity A. Hematemesis cause of death associated by
D. Retinol capsule regardless of B. Fever for 1 week schistosomiasis?
when the last dose was given C. Cough for 3 weeks
D. Chest pain for 1 week A. Liver cancer
112. A mother brought her 10 B. Liver cirrhosis
month old infant for 117. Which clients are C. Bladder cancer
consultation because of fever considered targets for DOTS D. Intestinal perforation
which started 4 days prior to category?
consultation. To determine 122. What is the most
malaria risk, what will you do? A. Sputum negative cavitary cases effective way of controlling
schistosomiasis in an endemic
A. Do a tourniquet test B. Clients returning after default area?
B. Ask where the family resides C. Relapses and failures of
C. Get a specimen for blood smear previous PTB treatment regimens A. Use of molluscicides
D. Clients diagnosed for the first B. Building of foot bridges
D. Ask if the fever is present time through a positive sputum C. Proper use of sanitary toilets
everyday exam D. Use of protective footwear,
such as rubber boots
113. The following are 118. To improve compliance to
strategies implemented by the treatment, what innovation is 123. When residents obtain
DOH to prevent mosquito- being implemented in DOTS? water from an artesian well in
borne diseases. Which of the neighborhood, the level of
these is most effective in the A. Having the health worker follow this approved type of water
control of Dengue fever? up the client at home facility is:
B. Having the health worker or a
A. Stream seeding with larva- responsible family member A. I
eating fish monitor drug intake B. II
B. Destroying breeding places of C. Having the patient come to the C. III
mosquitoes health center every month to get D. IV
C. Chemoprophylaxis of non- his medications
immune persons going to endemic D. Having a target list to check on 124. For prevention of
areas whether the patient has collected Hepatitis A, you decided to
D. Teaching people in endemic his monthly supply of drugs conduct health education
areas to use chemically treated activities. Which of the
mosquito nets 119. Diagnosis of leprosy is following is Irrelevant?
highly dependent on
114. Secondary prevention for recognition of symptoms. A. Use of sterile syringes and
malaria includes? Which of the following is an needles
early sign of leprosy? B. Safe food preparation and food
A. Planting of neem or eucalyptus handling by vendors
trees A. Macular lesions C. Proper disposal of human
B. Residual spraying of B. Inability to close eyelids excreta and personal hygiene
insecticides at night C. Thickened painful nerves D. Immediate reporting of water
C. Determining whether a place is D. Sinking of the nose bridge pipe leaks and illegal water
endemic or not connections
D. Growing larva-eating fish in 120. Which of the following
mosquito breeding places clients should be classified as 125. Which biological used in
a case of mutibacillary EPI should not be stored in the
115. Scotch tape swab is done leprosy? freezer?
to check for which intestinal
parasite? A. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin A. DPT
smear B. OPV
A. Ascaris B. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin C. Measles vaccine
B. Pinworm smear D. MMR
C. Hookworm C. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin
D. Schistosoma smear 126. You will conduct outreach
immunization in a barangay B. Buccal mucosa 136. A 4-year old client was
with a population of about C. Skin on the abdomen brought to the health center
1500. Estimate the number of D. Skin on the antecubital surface with chief complaint of severe
infants in the barangay. diarrhea and the passage of
131. Among the following “rice water”. The client is
A. 45 diseases, which is airborne? most probably suffering from
B. 50 which condition?
C. 55 A. Viral conjunctivitis
D. 60 B. Acute poliomyelitis A. Giardiasis
C. Diptheria B. Cholera
127. In IMCI, severe conditions D. Measles C. Amebiasis
generally require urgent D. Dysentery
referral to a hospital. Which of 132. Among children aged 2
the following severe months to 3 years, the most 137. In the Philippines, which
conditions Does not always prevalent form of meningitis is specie of schistosoma is
require urgent referral to caused by which endemic in certain regions?
hospital? microorganism?
A. S. mansoni
A. Mastoiditis A. Hemophilus Influenzae B. S. japonicum
B. Severe dehydration B. Morbillivirus C. S. malayensis
C. Severe pneumonia C. Streptococcus Pneumoniae D. S. haematobium
D. Severe febrile disease. D. Neisseria meningitides
138. A 32 year old client came
128. A client was diagnosed as 133. Human beings are the for consultation at the health
having Dengue Fever. You will major reservoir of malaria. center with the chief
say that there is slow capillary Which of the following complaint of fever for a week.
refill when the color of the strategies in malaria control is Accompanying symptoms were
nailbed that you pressed does based on this fact? muscle pains and body
not return within how many malaise. A week after the start
seconds? A. Stream seeding of fever, the client noted
B. Stream clearing yellowish discoloration of his
A. 3 C. Destruction of breeding places sclera. History showed that he
B. 5 D. Zooprophylaxis waded in flood waters about 2
C. 8 weeks before the onset of
D. 10 134. The use of larvivorous symptoms. Based on this
fish in malaria control is the history/ which disease
129. A 3-year old child was basis for which strategy of condition will you suspect?
brought by his mother to the malaria control?
health center because of fever A. Hepatitis A
of 4-day duration. The child A. Stream seeding B. Hepatitis B
had a positive tourniquet test B. Stream clearing C. Tetanus
result. In the absence of other C. Destruction of breeding places D. Leptospirosis
signs, which of the most D. Zooprophylaxis .
appropriate measure that the 139. MWSS provides water to
PHN may carry out to prevent 135. Mosquito-borne diseases Manila and other cities in
Dengue shock syndrome? are prevented mostly with the Metro Manila. This is an
use of mosquito control example of which level of
A. Insert an NGT and give fluids measures. Which of the water facility?
per NGT following is NOT appropriate
B. Instruct the mother to give the for malaria control? A. I
child Oresol B. II
C. Start the patient on IV Stat A. Use of chemically treated C. III
D. Refer the client to the physician mosquito nets D. IV
for appropriate management B. Seeding of breeding places with
larva-eating fish 140. You are the PHN in the
130. The pathognomonic sign C. Destruction of breeding places city health center. A client
of measles is Koplik’s spot. of the mosquito vector underwent screening for AIDS
You may see Koplik’s spot by D. Use of mosquito-repelling using ELISA. His result was
inspecting the: soaps, such as those with basil or positive. What is the best
citronella course of action that you may
A. Nasal Mucosa take?

A. Get a thorough history of the
client, focusing on the practice of
high risk behavior
B. Ask the client to be
accompanied by a significant
person before revealing the result.
C. Refer the client to the physician
since he is the best person to
reveal the result to the client
D. Refer the client for a
supplementary test, such as
Western blot, since the ELISA
result maybe false
141. Which is the BEST control
measure for AIDS?
A. Being faithful to a single sexual b. Avoid crowded places, such as
partner
B. Using a condom during each
sexual contact
C. Avoiding sexual contact with
commercial sex workers
D. Making sure that one's sexual
partner does not have signs of
AIDS
A. They prolong the life of the
client with AIDS
B. They reduce the risk of
opportunistic infections
C. They shorten the period of
communicability of the disease
D. They are able to bring about a
cure of the disease condition
145. A barangay had an outbreak
of German measles. To prevent
congenital rubella, what is the
BEST advice that you can give to
women in the first trimester of
pregnancy in the barangay?
a. Advice them on the sign of
German Measles
markets and moviehouses
c. Consult at the health center
where rubella vaccine may be
given
d. Consult a physician who may
give them rubella immunoglobulin

142. The most frequent causes

of death among clients with
AIDS are opportunistic
diseases. Which of the
following opportunistic
infections is characterized by
tonsilllopharyngitis?

A. Respiratory candidiasis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Cytomegalovirus disease
D. Pneumocystis carinii
pneumonia

143. To determine the

possible sources of sexually
transmitted infections, which
is the BEST method that may
be undertaken by the public
health nurse?

A. Contact tracing
B. Community survey
C. Mass screening tests
D. Interview suspects

144. Antiretroviral agents,

such as AZT are used in the
management of AIDS. Which
of the following is not an
action expected of these
drugs?

FOUNDATION OF
PROFESSIONAL NURSING
PRACTICE
Situation 1 - Mr. Ibarra is assigned
to the triage area and while on
duty, he assesses the condition of
Mrs. Simon who came in with
asthma. She has difficulty
breathing and her respiratory rate
is 40 per minute. Mr. Ibarra is
asked to inject the client
epinephrine 0.3mg
subcutaneously
1. The indication for
epinephrine injection for Mrs
Simon is to:
a. Reduce anaphylaxis
b. Relieve hypersensitivity to
allergen
c. Relieve respirator distress due
to bronchial spasm
d. Restore client’s cardiac rhythm
2. When preparing the
epinephrine injection from an
ampule, the nurse initially:
a. Taps the ampule at the top to
allow fluid to flow to the base of
the ampule
b. Checks expiration date of the
medication ampule
c. Removes needle cap of syringe
and pulls plunger to expel air
d. Breaks the neck of the ampule
with a gauze wrapped around it
3. Mrs. Simon is obese. When
administering a subcutaneous
injection to an obese patient,
it is best for the nurse to:
a Inject needle at a 15 degree
angle' over the stretched skin of
the client
b. Pinch skin at the Injection site
and use airlock technique
c. Pull skin of patient down to
administer the drug in a Z track
d. Spread skin or pinch at the
injection site and inject needle at
a 45-90 degree angle
4. When preparing for a
subcutaneous injection, the
proper size of syringe and
needle would be:
a. Syringe 3-5ml and needle
gauge 21 to 23
b. Tuberculin syringe 1 mi with
needle gauge 26 or 27
c. Syringe 2ml and needle gauge
22
d. Syringe 1-3ml and needle
gauge 25 to 27
5. The rationale for giving
medications through the
subcutaneous route is;
a. There are many alternative
sites for subcutaneous injection
b. Absorption time of the medicine these rights as follows
is slower
c. There are less pain receptors in
this area
d. The medication can be injected b. right to compensation
while the client is in any position c. right of privacy
Situation 2 - The use of massage
and meditation to help decrease
stress and pain have been
strongly recommended based on
documented testimonials.
6. Martha wants to do a study secretions. Part of Nurse Mario's
on, this topic. "Effects of
massage and meditation on
stress and pain." The type of
research that best suits this
topic is:
a. applied research
b. qualitative research
c. basic research
d. quantitative research
7. The type of research design when Mario does percussion
that does not manipulate
independent variable is:
a. experimental design
b. quasi-experimental design
c. non-experimental design
d. quantitative design
8. This research topic has the back and on his abdomen
potential to contribute to
nursing because it seeks to:
a. include new modalities of care
b. resolve a clinical problem
c. clarify an ambiguous modality
of care
d. enhance client care
9. Martha does review of
related literature for the
purpose of:
a. determine statistical treatment
of data research
b. gathering data about what is
already known or unknown
c. to identify if problem can be
replicated
d. answering the research
question
10. Client’s rights should be
protected when doing
research using human
subjects. Martha identifies
EXCEPT:
a. right of self-determination
d. right not to be harmed
Situation 3 - Richard has a nursing
diagnosis of ineffective airway
clearance related to excessive
secretions and is at risk for
infection because of retained
nursing care plan is to loosen and
remove excessive secretions in
the airway,
11. Mario listens to Richard's
bilateral sounds and finds that
congestion is in the upper
lobes of the lungs. The
appropriate position to drain
the anterior and posterior
apical segments of the lungs
would be:
a. Client lying on his back then flat
on his abdomen on Trendelenburg
position
b. Client seated upright in bed or
on a chair then leaning forward in
sitting position then flat on his
c. Client lying flat on his back and
then flat on his abdomen
d. Client lying on his right then left
side on Trendelenburg position
12. When documenting
outcome of Richard's
treatment Mario should
include the following in his client's breath rhythm edema. When taking care of
recording EXCEPT: d. Percussion slaps the chest to Mr. Regalado, which of the
loosen secretions while vibration following intervention would
a. Color, amount and consistent of shakes the secretions along with be the most appropriate
sputum the inhalation of air immediate nursing approach.
b. Character of breath sounds and
respirator/rate before and after Situation 4 - A 61 year old man, a. Moisturize lower extremities to
procedure Mr. Regalado, is admitted to the prevent skin irritation
c. Amount of fluid intake of client private ward for observation; after b. Measure fluid intake and output
before and after the procedure complaints of severe chest pain. to decrease edema
d. Significant changes in vital You are assigned to take care of c. Elevate lower extremities for
signs the client. postural drainage
d. Provide the client a list of food
13. When assessing Richard 16. When doing an initial low in sodium
for chest percussion or chest assessment, the best way for
vibration and postural you to identify the client’s 20. Mr. Regalado will be
drainage Mario would focus on priority problem is to: discharged from your unit
the following EXCEPT: within the hour. Nursing
a. Interview the client for chief actions when preparing a
a. Amount of food and fluid taken complaints and other symptoms client for discharge include all
during the last meal before b. Talk to the relatives to gather EXCEPT:
treatment data about history of illness
b. Respiratory rate, breath sounds c. Do auscultation to check for a. Making a final physical
and location of congestion chest congestion assessment before client leaves
c. Teaching the client's relatives to d. Do a physical examination the hospital
perform 'the procedure white asking the client relevant b. Giving instructions about his
d. Doctor's order regarding questions medication regimen
position restriction and client's c. Walking the client to the
tolerance for lying flat 17. Upon establishing Mr. hospital exit to ensure his safety
Regalado's nursing needs, the d. Proper recording of pertinent
14. Mario prepares Richard for next nursing approach would data
postural drainage and be to:
percussion. Which of the Situation 5 - Nancy, mother of 2
flowing is a special a. introduce the client to the ward young kids. 36 years old, had a
consideration when doing the staff to put the client and family at mammogram and was told that
procedure? ease she has breast cysts and that she
b. Give client and relatives a brief may need surgery. This causes her
a. Respiratory rate of 16 to 20 per tour of the physical set up the unit anxiety as shown by increase in
minute c. Take his vital signs for a her pulse and respiratory rate,
b. Client can tolerate sitting and baseline assessment sweating and feelings of tension.
lying position d. Establish priority needs and
c. Client has no signs of infection implement appropriate 21. Considering her level of
d. Time of fast food and fluid interventions anxiety, the nurse can best
intake of the client assist Nancy by:
18. Mr. Regalado says he has
15. The purpose of chest "trouble going to sleep". In a. Giving her activities to divert
percussion and vibration is to order to plan your nursing her attention
loosen secretions in the lungs. intervention you will. b. Giving detailed explanations
The difference between the about the treatments she will
procedure is; a. Observe his sleeping patterns in undergo
the next few days c. Preparing her and her family in
a. Percussion uses only one hand b. Ask him what he means by this case surgery is not successful
white vibration uses both hands statement d. Giving her clear but brief
b. Percussion delivers cushioned c. Check his physical environment information at the level of her
blows to the chest with cupped to decrease noise level understanding
palms while gently shakes d. Take his blood pressure before
secretion loose on the exhalation sleeping and upon waking up 22. Nancy blames God for her
cycle situation. She is easily
c. In both percussion and vibration 19. Mr. Regalado's lower provoked to tears and wants
the hands are on top of each other extremities are swollen and to be left alone, refusing to
and hand action is in tune with shiny. He has pitting pedal eat or talk to her family. A
religious person before, she
now refuses to pray or go to
church stating that God has
abandoned her. The nurse
understands that Nancy is
grieving for her self and is in
the stage of:
a. bargaining
b. denial
c. anger
d. acceptance
23. The nurse visits Nancy and
prods her to eat her food.
Nancy replies "what's the use?
My time is running out. The
nurse's best response would
be:
a. "The doctor ordered full diet for
you so that you will be strong for
surgery."
b. "I understand how you fee! but
you have 1o try for your children's
sake."
c. "Have you told your, doctor how
you feel? Are you changing your
mind) about surgery?"
d. "You sound like you are giving
up."
24. The nurse feels sad about
Nancy's illness and tells her
head nurse during the end of
shift endorsement that "it's
unfair for Nancy to have
cancer when she is still so
young and with two kinds. The
best response of the head
nurse would be:
a. Advise the nurse to "be strong
and learn to control her feelings"
b. Assign the nurse to another
client to avoid sympathy for the
client
c. Reassure the nurse that the
client has hope if she goes
through all statements prescribed
for her
c. Ask the other nurses what they
feel about the patient to find out if
they share the same feelings
25. Realizing that she feels
angry about Nancy's
condition, the nurse Seams
that being self-aware is a
conscious process that she
should do in any situation like
this because:
a. This is a necessary part of the
nurse -client relationship process
b. The nurse is a role model for
the client and should be strong
C. How the nurse thinks and feels
affect her actions towards her
client and her work
d. The nurse has to be therapeutic a. tell client to drink less fluids to
at all times and should not be
affected
Situation 6 – Mrs. Seva, 32 years
old, asks you about possible
problems regarding her
elimination now that she is in the strengthen perineal muscles
menopausal stage.
26. Instruction on health
promotion regarding urinary
elimination is important.
Which would you include?
a. Hold urine, as long as she can
before emptying the bladder to
strengthen her sphincters muscles
b. If burning sensation is
experienced while voiding, drink
pineapple-juice
c. After urination, wipe from anal powder to prevent or mask the
area up towards the pubis
d. Jell client to empty the bladder c. Thorough washing, rising and
at each voiding
27. Mrs. Seva also tells the
nurse that she is often
constipated. Because she is
aging, what physical changes
predispose her to
constipation?
a. inhibition of the
parasympathetic reflex
b. weakness of sphincter muscles meet these needs is important to
of the anus
c. loss of tone of the smooth
muscles of the color
d. decreased ability to absorb
fluids in the lower intestines
28. The nurse understands
that one of these factors
contributes to constipation:
a. excessive exercise
b. high fiber diet
c. no regular tine for defecation
daily
d. prolonged use of laxatives
29. Mrs. Seva talks about rear
of being incontinent due to a
prior experience of dribbling
urine when laughing or
sneezing and when she has a
full bladder. Your most
appropriate .instruction would
be to:
avoid accidents
b. instruct client to start wearing
thin adult diapers
c. ask the client to bring change of
underwear "just in case"
d. teach client pelvic exercise to
30. Mrs. Seva asked for
instructions for skin care for
her mother who has urinary
incontinence and is almost
always in bed. Your
instruction would focus on
prevention of skin irritation
and breakdown by
a. Using thick diapers to absorb
urine well
b. Drying the skin with baby
smell of ammonia
during of skin area that get wet
with urine
d. Making sure that linen are
smooth and dry at all times
Situation 7 - Using Maslow's need
theory, Airway, Breathing and
Circulation are the physiological
needs vital to life. The nurse's
knowledge and ability to identify
and immediately intervene to
save lives.
31. Which of these clients has
a problem with the transport
of oxygen from the lungs to
the tissues:
a. Carol with a tumor in the brain
b. Theresa with anemia
c. Sonny Boy with a fracture in the
femur
d. Brigette with diarrhea
32. You noted from the lab
exams in the chart of Mr.
Santos that he has reduced
oxygen in the blood. should be: are the following except
This condition is called: a. physical activity
a. deflated fully then immediately b. smoking
a. Cyanosis start second reading for same c. genetics
b. Hypoxia client d. nutrition
c. Hypoxemia b deflated quickly after inflating
d. Anemia up to 180 mmHg Situation 9 - Nurse Rivera
c. large enough to wrap around witnesses a vehicular accident
33. You will nasopharyngeal upper arm of the adult client 1 cm near the hospital where she
suctioning Mr. Abad. Your above brachial artery works. She decides to get involved
guide for the length of d. inflated to 30 mmHg above the and help the victims of the
insertion of the tubing for an estimated systolic BP based on accident.
adult would be: palpation of radial or bronchial
artery 41. Her priority nursing action
a. tip of the nose to the base of would be to:
the .neck 37. Chronic Obstructive
b. the distance from the tip of the Pulmonary Disease (COPD) in a. Assess damage to property
nose to the middle of the cheek one of the leading causes of b. Assist in the police investigation
c. the distance from the tip of the death worldwide and is a since she is a witness
nose to the tip of the ear lobe preventable disease. The c. Report the incident immediately
d. eight to ten inches primary cause of COPD is: to the local police authorities
d. Assess the extent of injuries
34. While doing a. tobacco hack incurred by the victims, of the
nasopharyngeal suctioning b. bronchitis accident
on .Mr. Abad, the nurse can c. asthma
avoid trauma to the area by: d. cigarette smoking 42. Priority attention should
be given to which of these
a. Apply suction for at least 20-30 38. In your health education clients?
seconds each time to ensure that class for clients with diabetes
all secretions are removed you teach, them the areas, for a. Linda who shows severe anxiety
b. Using gloves to prevent control . Diabetes which due to trauma of the accident
introduction of pathogens to the include all EXCEPT: b. Ryan who has chest injury, is
respiratory system pate and with difficulty of
c. Applying no suction while a. regular physical activity breathing
inserting the catheter b. thorough knowledge of foot c. Noel who has lacerations on the
d. Rotating catheter as it is care arms with mild-bleeding
inserted with gentle suction c. prevention nutrition c. Andy whose left ankle swelled
d. proper nutrition and has some abrasions
35. Myrna has difficulty
breathing when on her back 39. You teach your clients the 43. In the emergency room,
and must sit upright in bed to difference between, Type I Nurse Rivera is assigned to
breath, effectively and (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) attend to the client with
comfortably. The nurse Diabetes. Which of the .lacerations on the arms, while
documents this condition as: following is true? assessing the extent of the
wound the nurse observes
a. Apnea a. both types diabetes mellitus that the wound is now starting
b. Orthopnea clients are all prone to developing to bleed profusely. The most
c. Dyspnea ketosis immediate nursing action
d. Tachypnea b. Type II (NIDDM) is more would be to:
common and is also preventable
Situation 8 - You are assigned to compared to Type I (IDDM) a. Apply antiseptic to prevent
screen for hypertension: Your task diabetes which is genetic in infection
is to take blood pressure readings etiology b. Clean the wound vigorously of
and you are informed about c. Type I (IDDM) is characterized contaminants
avoiding the common mistakes in by fasting hyperglycemia c. Control and. reduce bleeding of
BP taking that lead to 'false or d. Type II (IDDM) is characterized the wound
inaccurate blood pressure by abnormal immune response d. Bandage the wound and elevate
readings. the arm
40. Lifestyle-related diseases
36. When taking blood in general share areas 44. The nurse applies pressure
pressure reading the cuff common risk factors. These dressing on the bleeding site.
This intervention is done to: after intake of coffee unrelieved c. Caffeine causes a stimulant
by analgesics effect on both the mother and the
a. Reduce the need to change b. After drinking coffee, the client baby
dressing frequently experienced severe abdominal d. Studies show conclusively that
b. Allow the pus to surface faster pain caffeine causes mental retardation
c. Protect the wound from micro c. Client complained of
organisms in the air intermittent abdominal pain an 50. Your health education plan
d. Promote hemostasis hour after drinking coffee for Geline stresses proper diet
d. Client reported abdominal pain for a pregnant woman and the
45. After the treatment, the an hour after drinking black coffee prevention of non-
client is sent home and asked for three weeks now communicable diseases that
to come back for follow-up are influenced by her lifestyle
care. Your responsibilities 48. Geline tells you that she these include of the following
when the client is to be drinks black coffee frequently EXCEPT:
discharged include the within the day to "have energy
following EXCEPT: and be wide awake" and she a. Cardiovascular diseases
eats nothing for breakfast and b. Cancer
a. Encouraging the client to go to eats strictly vegetable salads c. Diabetes Mellitus
the, outpatient clinic for follow up for lunch and dinner to lose d. Osteoporosis
care weight. She has lost weight
b. Accurate recording, of during the past two weeks, in Situation 11 - Management of
treatment done and instructions planning a healthy balanced nurse practitioners is done by
given to client diet with Geline, you will: qualified nursing leaders who have
c. Instructing the client to see you had clinical experience and
after discharge for further a. Start her off with a cleansing management experience.
assistance diet to free her body of toxins then
d. Providing instructions regarding change to a vegetarian, diet and 51. An example of a
wound care drink plenty of fluids management function of a
b. Plan a high protein, diet; low nurse is:
Situation 10 - While working in the carbohydrate diet for her
clinic, a new client, Geline, 35 considering her favorite food a. Teaching patient do breathing
years old, arrives for her doctor's c. Instruct her to attend classes in and coughing exercises
appointment. As the clinic nurse, nutrition to find food rich in b. Preparing for a surprise party
you are to assist the client fiil up complex carbohydrates to for a client
forms, gather data and make an maintain daily high energy level c. Performing nursing procedures
assessment. d. Discuss with her the importance for clients
of eating a variety of food from d. Directing and evaluating the
46. The nurse purpose of your the major food groups with plenty staff nurses
initial nursing interview is to: of fluids
52. Your head nurse in the
a. Record pertinent information in 49. Geline tells you that she unit believes that the staff
the client chart for health team to drinks 4-5 cups of black coffee nurses are not capable of
read and diet cola drinks. She also decision making so she makes
b Assist the client find solutions to smokes up to a pack of the decisions for everyone
her health concerns cigarettes daily. She without consulting anybody.
c. Understand her lifestyle, health confesses that she is in her This type of leadership is:
needs and possible problems to 2nd month of pregnancy but
develop a plan of care she does not want to become a. Laissez faire leadership
d. Make nursing diagnoses for fat that is why she limits her b. Democratic leadership
identified health problems food intake. You warn or c. Autocratic leadership
caution her about which of the d. Managerial leadership
47. While interviewing Geline, following?
she starts to moan and 53. When the head nurse in
doubles up in pain, She tells a. Caffeine products affect the your ward plots and approves
you that this pain occurs central nervous system and may your work schedules and
about an hour after taking cause the mother to have a directs your work, she is
black coffee without breakfast "nervous breakdown" demonstrating:
for a few weeks now. You will b. Malnutrition and its possible
record this as follows: effects on growth and a. Responsibility
development problems in the b. Delegation
a. Claims to have abdominal pains unborn fetus c. Accountability
d. Authority arterial blood before symptoms of referred to as:
hypoxemia develops
54. The following tasks can be a. Morality
safely delegated' by a nurse to 58. After a few hours in the b. Religion
a non-nurse health worker Emergency Room, Mr. Dizon is c. Values
EXCEPT: admitted to the ward with an d. Bioethics
order of hourly monitoring of
a. Transfer a client from bed to blood pressure. The nurse 62. The purpose of having
chair finds that the cuff is too nurses’ code of ethics is:
b. Change IV infusions narrow and this will cause the
c. Irrigation of a nasogastric tube blood pressure reading to be: a. Delineate the scope and areas
d. Take vital signs of nursing practice
a. Inconsistent b. Identify nursing action
55. You made a mistake in b. low systolic and high diastolicrecommended for specific
giving the medicine to the pressure healthcare situations
wrong client You notify the c. higher than what the reading c. To help the public understand
client’s doctor and write an should be professional conduct, expected of
incident report. You are d. lower than what the reading nurses
demonstrating: should be d. To define the roles and
functions of the health care giver,
a. Responsibility 59. Through the client’s health nurses, clients
b. Accountability history, you gather that Mr.
c. Authority Dizon smokes and drinks 63. The most important
d. Autocracy coffee. When taking the blood nursing responsibility where
pressure of a client who ethical situations emerge in
Situation 12 – Mr. Dizon, 84 years recently smoked or drank patient care is to:
old, is brought to the .Emergency coffee, how long should be the
Room for complaint of nurse wait before taking the a. Act only when advised that the
hypertension flushed face, severe client’s blood pressure for action is ethically sound
headache, and nausea. You are accurate reading? b. Not take sides remain neutral
doing the initial assessment of and fair
vital signs. a. 15 minutes c. Assume that ethical questions
b. 30 minutes are the responsibility: of the
56. You are to measure the c. 1 hour health team
client’s initial blood pressure d. 5 minutes d. Be accountable for his or her
reading by doing all of the own actions
following EXCEPT: 60. While the client has the
pulse oximeter on his 64. You inform the patient
a. Take the blood pressure reading fingertip, you notice that the about his rights which include
on both arms for comparison sunlight is shining on .the the following EXCEPT:
b. Listen to and identify the area where the oximeter is.
phases of Korotkoff’s sounds Your action will be to: a. Right to expect reasonable
c. Pump the cuff up to around 50 continuity of care
mmHg above the point where the a. Set and turn on the alarm of the b. Right to consent to or decline to
pulse is obliterated oximeter participate in research studies or
d. Observe procedures for b. Do nothing since there is no experiments
infection control identified problem c. Right to obtain information
c. Cover the fingertip sensor with about another patient
57. A pulse oximeter is a towel or bedsheet d. Right to expect that the records
attached to Mr. Dizon’s finger d. Change the location of the about his care will be treated as
to: sensor every four hours confidential

a. Determine if the client’s
hemoglobin level is low and if he
needs blood transfusion
b. Check level of client’s tissue
perfusion
c. Measure the efficacy of the
client’s anti hypertensive
medications
d. Detect oxygen saturation of
Situation 13 - The nurse's 65. The principle states that a
understanding of ethico-legal person has unconditional
responsibilities will guide his/her worth and has the capacity to
nursing practice. determine his own destiny.
61. The principles that .govern a. Bioethics
right and proper conducts of a b. Justice
person regarding life, biology c. Fidelity
and the health professions is d. Autonomy
 c. Have the registered nurse, include all the following
Situation 14 – Your director of family and doctor sign the order EXCEPT:
nursing wants to improve the d. Have 1 nurse take the order a. eat natural food with little or no
quality of health care offered in and sign it and have the doctor salt added
the hospital. As a staff nurse in sign it within 24 hours b. limit use of table salt and use
that hospital you know that this condiments instead
entails quality assurance 69. To ensure the client safety c. use herbs and spices
programs. before starting blood d. limit intake of preserved or
transfusion the following are processed food
66. The following mechanisms needed before the procedure
can be utilized as part of the can be done EXCEPT: 73. Teaching strategies and
quality assessment program of approaches when giving
your hospital EXCEPT: a. take baseline vital signs nutrition education is
b. blood should be warmed to influenced by age, sex and
a. Patient satisfaction surveys room temperature for 30 minutes immediate concerns of the
provided before blood transfusion is group. Your presentation for a
b. Peer review clinical records of administered group of young mothers would
care of client c. have two nurses verify client be best if you focus on:
c. RO of the Nursing Intervention identification, blood type, unit
Classification number and expiration date of a. diets limited in salt and fat
d. blood b. harmful effect on drugs and
d. get a consent signed for blood alcohol intake
67. The nurse of the Standards transfusion c. commercial preparation of
of Nursing Practice is dishes
important in the hospital. 70. Part of standards of care d. cooking demonstration and
Which of the following has to do with the use of meal planning
statements best describes restraints. Which of the
what it is? following statements is NOT 74. Cancer cure is dependent
true? on
a. These are statements that
describe the maximum or highest a. Doctor’s order for restraints a. use of alternative methods of
level of acceptable performance in should be signed within 24 hours healing
nursing practice. b. Remove and reapply restraints b. watching out for warning signs
b. It refers to the scope of nursing every two hours of cancer
as defined in Republic Act 9173 c. Check client’s pulse, blood c. proficiency in doing breast self-
c. It is a license issued by the pressure and circulation every examination
Professional Regulation four hours d. early detection and prompt
Commission to protect the public d. Offer food and toileting every treatment
from substandard nursing two hours
practice. 75. The role of the health
d. The Standards of care includes Situation 15 – During the worker in health education is
the various steps of the nursing NUTRITION EDUCATION class to:
process and the standards of discussion a 58 year old man, Mr.
professional performance. Bruno shows increased interest. a. report incidence of non-
communicable disease to
68. You are taking care of 71. Mr. Bruno asks what the community health center
critically ill client and the "normal" allowable salt intake b. educate as many people about
doctor in charge calls to order is. Your best response to Mr. warning signs of non-
a DNR (do not resuscitate) for Bruno is: communicable diseases
the client. Which of the c. focus on smoking cessation
following is the appropriate a. 1 tsp of salt/day with iodine and projects
action when getting DNR order sprinkle of MSG d. monitor clients with
over the phone? b. 5 gms per day or 1 tsp of table hypertension
salt/day
a. Have the registered nurse, c. 1 tbsp of salt/day with some Situation 16 – You are assigned to
family spokesperson, nurse patis and toyo take care of 10 patients during the
supervisor and doctor sign d. 1 tsp of salt/day but not patis or morning shift. The endorsement
b. Have two nurses validate the toyo includes the IV infusion and
phone order, both nurses sign the medications for these clients.
order and the doctor should sign 72. Your instructions to
his order within 24 hours. reduce or limit salt intake 76. Mr. Felipe, 36 years old is
to be given 2700ml of D5RL to
infuse for 18 hours starting at
8am. At what rate should the
IV fluid be flowing hourly?
a. 100 ml/hour
b. 210 ml/hour
c. 150 ml/hour
d. 90 ml/hour
77. Mr. Atienza is to receive
150mg/hour of D5W IV
infusion for 12 hours for a
total of 1800ml. He is also
losing gastric fluid which must d. hold the tube above the
be replaced every two hours.
Between 8am to 10am. Mr.
Atienza has lost 250ml of
gastric fluid. How much fluid
should he receive at 11am?
a. 350 ml/hour
b. 275 ml/hour
c. 400 ml/hour
d. 200 ml/hour
78. You are to apply a
transdermal patch of
nitroglycerin to your client.
The following important
guidelines to observe EXCEPT: a. in service education process
a. Apply to hairlines clean are of
the skin not subject to much
wrinkling
b. Patches may be applied to
distal part of the extremities like 82. When Mrs. Guevarra, a
forearm
c. Change application and site
regularly to prevent irritation of
the skin
d. Wear gloves to avoid any
medication of your hand
79. You will be applying eye
drops to Miss Romualdez.
After checking all the
necessary information and
cleaning the affected eyelid
and eyelashes you administer d. most know how to perform task class services. This type of
the ophthalmic drops by
instilling the eye drops.
a. directly onto the cornea
b. pressing on the lacrimal duct
c. into the outer third of the lower give six weeks ago when she
conjunctival sac
d. from the inner canthus going
towards the side of the eye
80. When applying eye
ointment, the following b. tell her to take the day off
guidelines apply EXCEPT: c. discuss how she is adjusting to
her new job
a. squeeze about 2 cm of ointment d. ask about her family life
and gently close but not squeeze
eye 84. Process of formal
b. apply ointment from the inner negotiations of working
canthus going outward of the conditions between a group of
affected eye registered nurses and
c. discard the first bead of the eye employer is:
ointment before application
because the tube likely to expel a. grievance
more than desired amount of b. arbitration
ointment c. collective bargaining
d. strike
conjunctival sac do not let tip
touch the conjuctiva 85. You are attending a
certification program on
Situation 17 – The staff nurse cardiopulmonary resuscitation
supervisor request all the staff (CPR) offered and required by
nurses to “brainstorm” and learn the hospital employing you.
ways to instruct diabetic clients on This is;
self-administration of insulin. She
wants to ensure that there are a. professional course towards
nurses available daily to do health credits
education classess. b. in-service education
c. advance training
81. The plan of the nurse d. continuing education
supervisor is an example of
Situation 18 - There are various
developments in health education
b. efficient management of human that the nurse should know about.
resources
c. increasing human resources 86. The provision of health
d. primary prevention information in the rural areas
nationwide through television
and radio programs and video
nurse, delegates aspects of conferencing is referred to as:
the clients care to the nurse-
aide who is an unlicensed a. Community health program
staff, Mrs. Guevarra. b. Telehealth program
c. Wellness program
a. makes the assignment to teach d. Red cross program
the staff member
b. is assigning the responsibility to 87. A nearby community
the aide but not the accountability provides blood pressure
for those tasks screening, height and weight
c. does not have to supervise or measurement smoking
evaluate the aide cessation classes and aerobics
delegated program is referred to as:
83. Connie, the-new nurse, a. outreach program
appears tired and sluggish b. hospital extension program
and lacks the enthusiasms she c. barangay health center
d. wellness center
started the job. The nurse
supervisor should: 88. Part of teaching client in
health promotion is
a. empathize with the nurse and responsibility for one’s health.
listen to her When Danica states she need
to improve her nutritional d. Poison, control b. Identify yourself and state your
status this means: purpose in being with the client
90. Mrs. Ostrea has a schedule c. Talk to the physician for an
a. Goals and interventions to be for Pap Smear. She has a order of Valium
followed by client are based on strong family history of d. Do inspection and palpation to
nurse's priorities cervical cancer. This is an check extent of his injuries
b. Goals and intervention example of:
developed by nurse and client 92. While doing your
should be approved by the doctor a. tertiary prevention assessment, Ronnie asks you
c. Nurse will decide goals and, b. secondary prevention "Do I have a fracture? I don't
interventions needed to meet c. health screening want to have a cast.” The
client goals d. primary prevention most appropriate nursing
d. Client will decide the goals and response would be:
interventions required to meet her Situation: 19 - Ronnie has a
goals vehicular accident where he a. "You have to have an X-ray first
sustained injury to his left ankle. to know if you have a fracture."
89. Nurse Beatrice is providing In the Emergency Room, you b. "Why do you; sound so scared?
tertiary prevention to Mrs. De notice how anxious he looks. It is just a cast and it's not painful"
Villa. An example of tertiary c. "You seem to be concerned
provestion is: 91. You establish rapport with about being in a cast."
him and to reduce his anxiety d. "Based on my assessment,
a. Marriage counseling you initially there doesn’t seem to be a
b. Self-examination for breast fracture."
cancer a. Take him to the radiology,
c. Identifying complication of section for X-ray of affected
diabetes extremity

ANSWER KEY 31. B 62. C

1. C 32. C 63. D
2. B 33. C 64. C
3. D 34. C 65. D
4. D 35. B 66. D
5. B 36. D 67. A
6. B 37. D 68. D
7. C 38. B 69. D
8. D 39. B 70. C
9. B 40. C 71. B
10. B 41. D 72. B
11. B 42. B 73. D
12. C 43. D 74. D
13. C 44. D 75. B
14. D 45. C 76. C
15. A 46. C 77. -
16. A 47. D 78. B
17. C 48. D 79. B
18. B 49. B 80. C
19. A 50. D 81. C
20. C 51. D 82. B
21. D 52. C 83. C
22. C 53. D 84. C
23. D 54. B 85. B
24. D 55. B 86. B
25. C 56. C 87. A
26. D 57. D 88. D
27. C 58. C 89. C
28. D 59. B 90. B
29. D 60. C 91. B
30. C 61. D 92. C
 site
7. Its a type of non-probability d. Redness around the insertion
FUNDAMENTAL OF NURSING sampling wherein the site
researcher identifies
1. The nurse knows which of population strata and 12. A 27 y.o adult is admitted
the following indicates protein determines how many for treatment of Crohn's
deficiency? participants are needed for disease. Which information is
each stratum most significant when the
a. Hypoalbuminemia and pot belly nurse assesses nurtritional
b. Koionychia (spoon-shaped nails) a. Quota Sampling health?
c. Beefy red tongued. b. Purposive Sampling
d. Bleeding gums c. Convenience sampling a. Anthropometric measurements
d. Simple stratified sampling b. bleeding gums
2. Before administering a tube c. dry skin
feeding the nurse knows to 8. All but one are concepts of d. facial rubor
perform which of the following informed consent.
assessments? 13. ASA (aspirin) is being
a. It must be voluntary-without administered to a client. The
a. The GI tract including bowel coercion or force nurse understands that the
sound, last BM and distention b. Patient must be competent most common mechanism of
b. The clients neurologic status, c. Knowledgeable information action for nonnarcotic
especially gag reflex should be provided analgesic is their ability to:
c. The amount of air in the d. It must be signed right after
stomach administration of pre-ops meds. a. Inhibit prostaglandin systhesis
d. The formula used directly from b. After pain perception in the
the refrigerator 9. The following concepts of cerebellum
liability negligence are true, c. Directly affect the central
3. An adult is being taught except? nervous system
about a healthy diet. The d. Target the pain-producing
nurse can offer: a. Deviation from standard of care effect of kinins
is established.
a. Milk b. Duty is owed to the nurse 14. The nurse caring for an
b. Jello c. Financial, physical and adult client who is receiving
c. Freshly squeezed orange juice emotional harm is establish TPN will need to be monitored
d. Ice cream d. Direct cause for failure to meet for which of the following
standard of care clearly metabolic complications?
5. An adult has received an established.
injection of immunoglobulin. a. Hypoglycemia and
The nurse knows that the 10. The nurse is caring for a Hypercalcemia
client will develop which of client whose arterial blood b. Hyperglycemia and
the following types of gases indicate metabolic Hypokalemia
immunity: acidosis. The nurse knows that c. Hyperglycemia and
of the following, the least Kyperkalemia
a. Active natural immunity likely to cause metabolic d. Hyperkalemia and
b. Active artificial immunity acidosis is: Hypercalcemia
c. Passive natural immunity
d. Passive artificial immunity a. cardiac arrest 15. Total parenteral nutrition
b. Diabetic ketoacidosis is ordered for an adult. Which
6. BON Resolution No 432 S c. decreased serum potassium nutrient is not likely to be in
2003 is: level the solution?
d. renal failure
a. Guidelines for the a. Dextrose 10%
implementation of Board 11. The nurse is caring for a b. Trace minerals
Resolution No. 14 S 1999 client who is receiving IV c. Amino acids
b. Implementing Rules and fluids, Which observation the d. Non of the above
Regulations of RA 9173 nurse makes best indicates
c. Special training on intravenous that the IV has infiltrated? 16. A man has sprained his
injection for nurses ankle. The physician would
d. Adoption of a Guide to Evaluate a. Pain at the site order cold applied to the
Compliance with Standard for Safe b. A change in flow rate injured area to.
Nursing Practice. c. Coldness around the insertion
a. Reduce the body's temperature c. use of multiple sources for best initial action?
b. Increase circulation to the area conclusions
c. Aid in absorbing the edema d. consistency and stability of a. Evacuate any people in the
d. Relieve pain and control evidence over time room, beginning with the most
bleeding. ambultory and ending with the
22. It is thought to be the least mobile
17. An adult is to have a tepid most recent method or system b. activating the fire alarm or call
sponge bath to lower his in providing nursing care the operator, depending on the
fever. What temperature institutions system
should the nurse make the a. Case System method c. get a fire extinguisher and put
water? b. primary nursing method out the fire
c. functional nursing method d. close all the windows and doors
a. 65 F d. team nursing method and turn off any oxygen or
b. 90 F electricity appliance.
c. 110 F 23. A patient classification
d. 105 F system where patients 28. A member of the board of
minimal theraphy and less nursing may be removed
18. An adult has chronic lower frequent observation and/or suspended on the
back pain and receives hot following grounds except:
pack three times a week. The a. minimal care (category 1)
nurse knows that the b. moderate care (category 2) a. Toleration of irregularities in the
treatment is given for which of c. maximum care (category 3) licensure examination
the following reasons? d. intensive care (category 4) b Violation of the Philippine
Nursing Act
a. To help remove debris from the 24. The nurse is to apply a c. Neglect of duty or
wound dressing to a stage II pressure incompetence
b. To keep the client warm and ulcer. Which of the following d. Immoral unprofessional or
raise his temperature dressing is best? dishonorable conduct
c. To improve the client's general
circulation a. Dry gauze dressing 29. A tendency of the
d. To relieve muscle spasm and b. wet gauze dressing evaluator to inaacurately rate
promote muscle relaxation c. wet to dry dressing a group because of the belief
d. moisture vapor permeable that he/she has a very good
19. An insane man got hold of dressing cooperative group.
a knife and stabbed a
pregnant woman. His liability 25. The client has been placed a. hawthorne effect
will be determined by virtue of in the trendelenburg position. b. sunflower effect
: The nurse knows the effects of c. horn's effect
this position to the client d. halo effect
a. Justifying circumstances include which of the following.
b. Exempting circumstances 30. A type of probability
c. Mitigating circumstances a. increase blood flow to the feet sampling where the
d. Aggravating circumstances b. decrease blood pressure researcher selects random
c. increase pressure on the samples, successively from a
20. A crime in which all the diaphragm larger to smaller units by
elements necessary for its d. decrease intracranial pressure either simple or stratified
execution and accomplishment methods.
are present. 26. A man who has been in an
MVA is going into shock. a. Multi-stage sampling
a. Heinous crime Before placing the client in a b. Systematic sampling
b. frustrated crime modified trendelenburg c. purposive sampling
c. consummated crime position, the nurse should d. snowballing sampling
d. attempted crime assess the client for:
31. The nurse is to open a
21. Once criterion to assess a. long bone fracture sterile package from central
the quality of a study is b. air embolus supply. Which is the correct
triangulation. This means. c. head injury direction to open the first lap?
d. thrombophlebitis
a. accuracy and consistency of a. Toward the nurse
information 27. The nurse enter a room b. Away from the nurse
b. soundness of evidence and finds a fire. Which is the c. To the nurse's left or right hand
d. It does not matter as long as ommision changed
the nurse touches only the outside b. such act or omission must be b. A client who needs to be
edge done voluntarily suctioned
c. such act maybe done with or c. A client needs to be medicated
32. The nurse knows which of without intent for postoperative pain
the following is the proper d. such act or omission is d. A client who is incontinent and
technique for medical asepsis? punisable by law needs to be cleaned

a. gloving for all the client contact
b. changing hospital linens weekly
c. using your hands to turn off the
faucet after handwashing
d. gowning to care for a 1 year old
child w/ infections diarrhea
33. An adult ha a left, above
the knee amputation two
weeks ago. The nurse places
him in a prone position tree
times a day because
37. To qualify as a dean of the
college of nursing the
applicants must have?
a. At least 5 years of teaching and
supervision
b. At least 10 years of clinical
practive
c. At least 3 years of being a
clinical coordinator
d. At least 2 years management
units.
42. One of the major ethical
princles in research is
beneficence that includes:
a. Right to protection of protection
from physical and psychological
harm
b. Right to full-disclosure
c. Right to performance of sources
good
d. Right to protection of
participants form explotation.

a. Prevents pressure ulcer on the
sacrum
b. helps the prosthesis to fit
correctly
c. prevents flexion constractures
d. allow better blood flow to the
heart
34. A woman is to have a
pelvic exam. Which of the
following should the nurse
have the client do first?
a. Remove all her clothes and her
socks and shoes
b. go to the bahtroom and void
saving a sample
c. assume a lithotomy position on
the exam table
d. assemble all the equipments
needed for the examination
35. An adult is supine. Which
of the ff. can the nurse to to
prevent external rotation of
the legs?
a. put a pillow under the clients
lower legs
b. place a pillow directly under the
client knee
c. use a trochanter rool alongside
the client's upper thighs
d. lower the client's legs so that
they ae below hips.
36. The following are elements 41. Which of the ff. should the
of felony except? nurse deal first?
a. There must be an act of
38. A research design where
there is manipulation of
independent variable but no
random or control group
a. longitudinal design
b. quasi-experimental
c. experimental
d. cross-sectional
39. Four clients have signaled
with the call bells for the
nurse. Who should you see
first?
a. A client who needs to use the
toilet
b. A client who does not have his
glasses or hearing aide
c. A client who has just been given
morphine
d. A client in a chair with a
restraint vest on.
40. Which of the ff. should the
nurse observe first?
a. A client who has just returned
from the OR
b. A client whose call light is not
working
c. A client with Alzheimer's
disease
d. A clietn who is receiving a
heating pad treatment
a. A client who need her dressing
43. He described humans as
"wanting organism" that
satisfly their basic needs in a
specific sequence?
a. Frederick Herzberg
b. Abraham Maslow
c. BF Skinner
d. Victor Vroom
50. A client has been receiving
an IV solution. What is an
appropriate expected outcome
for this client?
a. Monitor fluid intake and output
every 4 hours
b. The client remains free of signs
and symptoms of phelibits
c. edema and warmth over the IV
site
d. Excess fluid volumn evidenced
by weight gain
51. This theorist of
management developed the
14 principles of management
based on his experience.
a. Mary Follett
b. Max Weber
c. Henry Fayol
d. Kurt Lewin
52. The nurse prepares to
palpate a clients maxillary
sinues. For this procedure,
where should the nurse place
the hands?
a. On the bridge of the nose 57. Which od the following exclusive to nursing
b. below the eyebrows options servers a framework b. Therapeutic use of self
c. below the cheekbones for nursing education and c. Focuses on nursing related to
d. over the temporal area clinical practice? physicians order
d. All of the above.
53. A client who receives a. Scientific breakthrough
general anesthesia returns b. technological advances 63. A research that seeks to
from surgery. Postoperatively, c. theoretical models describe an existing problem
which nursing diagnosis takes d. medical practices situation and examine the
highest priority for this client? underlying factors that
58. Nursing care for a client contributes to the emergence
a. Pain related to the surgery includes removing elastic of the problem:
b. Fluid volume deficit related to stocking once per day. What is
fluid and blood loss from surgery the rationale for this a. Explanatory research
c. Impared physical mobility interventions? b. Quantitative research
related to surgery c. Exploratory research
d. Risk for aspiration related to a. TO increase blood flow to the d. Quantitative research
anesthesia heart
b. to observe the lower 64. During blood transfusion,
54. After a client receives an extremities the patient manifest
IM injection, he complains of a c. to allow the leg muscles to tacycardia, distended neck
burning pain in the injection stretch and relax vein and increase CVP
site. Which nursing action d. To permit veins in the legs to fill reading, the nurse should
whould be best to take at this with blood.
time? a. Obtain vital signs
59. Hyperactive bowel sounds b. Call the physician
a. apply a cold compress to can result from all the c. Stop the infusion
decrease swelling following except. d. Decrease the rate of infusion.
b. apply a warm compress to
dilate the blood vessels a. Paralytic ileus 65. A nurse who is maintainin
c. Massage the area to promote b. hunger a private clinic in the
absorption of the drug c. intestinal obstruction community and renders
d. Instruct the client to tighten his d. diarrhea service on materials and child
gluteal muscles to enhance health amont the
absorption of the drug 60. The following neighborhood for a fee is
characteristics speak of a
55. These are mitigating leader except: a. primary care nurse
circumstances that lessen the b. an independent nurse
penalty, except: a. Do the right thing practioner
b. focus on people c. nurse-midwife
a. Under 18 and over 70 c. develops visions and strategies d. a nurse specialist
b. No intention to commit so grave d. have a short-term views
c. There wa sufficent provocation 66. A client comes to the clinic
d. in contempt of authority 61. This theory of for a diagnostic allergy
management suggest that an testing. Why is intradermal
56. The nurse is monitoring employees work motivation is injections used for such tsting.
options of effectiveness of controlled by conditions in the
drug theraphy, when should external environment rather a. intradermal injection is less
the nurse obtain a than by internal needs and painful
measurement of the blood desires. b. intradermal drugs are easier to
sample through level. administer
a. vroom's expectancy theory c. intradermal drug diffuse more
a. 1 hour before administering the b. skinner's operant theory rapidly
next dose c. adam's equity theory d. intradermal drugs diffuse more
b. immediately before d. white competence theory slowly
administering the next dose
c. immediately after administering 62. In Lydia Hall's theory, 67. A client is placed in
the next dose which of the ff. represents isolation. Client isolation
d. 30 mins. after administering the "core"? techniques attempt to break
next dose the chain of infection by
a. Nurturance and factors that are
interfering with the a. Are interested in efficiency a. Fluctuates
b. emphasize tactics, structure b. Remain the Same
and system c. Increase
a. Agent c. motivate people to comply with d. Decrease
b. susceptible host standards
c. transmission mode d. use person to person influence
78. The nurse assesses the
d. portal of entry skin turgor of an elderly
73. The nurse is assessing client. When evaluating skin
68. A research hypothesis that tactile fremitus in a client with turgon, the nurse should
proposes that there is pneumonia. For this remember that:
association or significant examination, the nurse hould
relationship between variables use the: a. Over hydration causes the skin
is called. to tent
a. fingertips b. Dehydration causes the skin to
b. ulnar surface of the hand appear edematous and spongy
a. null hypothesis
c. dorsal surface of the hand c. Inelastic turgor is a normal part
b. directional hypothesis
d. finger pads of aging
c. alternative hypothesis
d. Normal skin turgon is moist and
d. non-directional hypothesis
74. The ff. activities belong to boggy.
69. Which of the ff. laboratory the design phase in the
research process, except? 79. Which of the ff. does not
test results is themost impt. govern the practice of
indicator of malnutrition in a nursing?
client with a wound? a. developing a time table
b. selecting the study design a. RA 7164
a. serum potassium level c. determining sampling plan b. RA 9173
b. albumin level d. conducting a pilot study c. BON Resolution for Code of
c. lymphocyte count Ethics
d. differential count 75. When inspecting a client's d. Board Resolution Scope of
skin, the nurse finds a vesicle Nursing Practice
70. Which detail of a clients on the client's arm. Which
drug theraphy is the nurse description appliest to a 80. A client with sever chest
legally responsible for vesicle? pain is brought to the
documenting? emergency department. He
a. flat, nonpalpable and colored tells the nurse, "I just have a
a. Peak concentration time of drug b. solid, elevated and little indigestion." Which of
b. Safe ranges of the drug cicumscribed the following mechanisms is
c. Clients socioeconomic data c. circumscribed, elevated, and the client exhibiting?
d. client's reaction to the drug filled with serous fluid
d. elevated, pus-filled and a. Denial
circumscribed b. Anxiety
71. Which of the ff.
c. Repression
statements about these
d. Confusion
nursing practice acts are true? 76. Which nursing action is
essential when providing
continuous enteral feeding? 81. These are "in-between
a. These acts are not effective in factors" present in research
the supervision or revocation of environment that threaten the
licensure of erring nurses a. elevating the head of the bed
b. positioning the client on the left internal and external validity
b. These acts have been of a research study.
authorized by the accredited side
national nurses organization c. warming the formula before
administering it a. Dependent variable
c. These acts usually define the b. Independent variables
scope of nursing practice d. hanging a full day's worth of
formula at one time c. Intervening variables
d. These acts describe the d. Criterion variable
diffences between a registered
nurse and a practice nurse 77. After initial assessment of 82. The ff. are motivational
a client, findings reveals a factors according to Herzberg,
72. The following are true on a body temp of 38.5 C, except:
manager except? Consequently the clients blood
pressure can be expected to a. Challenging aspects of the work
itself
b. Added responsibility
c. Oppurtunities for personal
growth
d. Quality of supervision
83. The nurse measures the
client's temperature at 102 F.
What is the equivalent
centigrade temp?
a. 39.1 C
b. 47.2 C
c. 38.9 C
d. 40.1 C
84. A client is placed on a low-
sodium (500mg/day) diet.
Which client statement
indicates that the nurse's
nutrition teaching plan has
been effective?
a. "I can eat a ham-and-cheese
sandwich w/ potato chips for
lunch"
b. "I choose broiled chiken whith a are assigned to perform secific
baked potato for dinner"
c. "I choose a tossed salad w/
sardines and oil and vinegar
dressing for lunch"
d. "Im glad i can still have chicken 89. Which of the ff. best
bouillon soup"
85. Why should an infant be
quiet and seated upright when
the nurse assess his
fontaanels?
a. The mother will have less
trouble holding a quiet upright
infant
b. Lying down can cause the
fontanels to recede, making
assessment more difficult.
c. The infant can breath more
easily when sitting up
d. Lying down and crying can
cause the fontanels to buldge
86. Communicating and using your memory?
the research findings is under b. Have you noticed a chnge in
what phase of the research
process?
a. Implementation phase
b. Dissemination phase
c. Analysis and interpretation
phase
d. Design phase
87. To give a Z-tract injection, sympton would be most
the nuse measures the correct
medication dose and draws a
small amount of air into the
syringe. What is the rationale
for this action?
a. Adding air decreases pain
caused by the injection
b. Adding air prevents the drug
from flowing back into the needle
tract
c. Adding air prevens the solution
from entering a blood vessel
d. Adding air ensures that client
receives the entire dose.
88. Which of the ff. is true of
Care System method?
a. Autonomy and authority for the
care of four to siz patients on a
24-h basis
b. Assigning nurses to give total
nursing care to a single patient
c. Divison of labor which nurses
tasks
d. Assigning a team to give total
care to a selected group of clients
describes the action of the
nurse who documents her
nursing diagnosis?
a. She documents and charts it
whenever necessary
b. She can be accused of
malpractice
c. She does it reguarly as an impt.
responsibility
d. She starts it only when the pt. is
acutely ill
90. To help assess a clients
cerabral function, the nurse
should ask:
a. Have you noticed a change in
your muscle strength?
c. Have you had any coodination
problem?
d. Have you had any problems
with your eyes?
91. The nurse is evaulating a
postoperative client for
infection. Which sign of
indicative for infection?
a. The presence of an indwelling
urinary catheter
b. Rectal temperature of 100F
c. Red, warm , tender incision
d. WVC count of 8,000/UI
92. A patient classification
system where patients need
close attention and complete
care in most activities and
requires frequent and complex
treatments and medications
a. Minimal Care (category 1)
b. Moderate Care (category 2)
c. Maximum Care (category 3)
d. Intensive Care (category 4)
93. What nursing diagnosis is
commonly used to develop a
plan of care for managing
client's drug regimen?
a. Noncomplience
b. Altered coping mechanism
c. Anxiety
d. Altered home maintenance
94. Which of the ff. provides
that nurses be members of the
national nurse organization?
a. RA 877
b. 1987 Code of Ethics approved
by the house of delegates PNA
c. Board Resolution No 1955
promulgated by the Board of
Nursing
d. RA 7164
95. The ff. are good sources of
research problems except?
a. Literature
b. Clininal experience
c. Daily news reports
d. existing theories
96. What is the common goal
of discharge planning in all
care settings?
a. prolonging hospitalization until
the client can function
independently
b. Teaching client how to perform
self-care activities
c. Providing the financial
resources needed to ensure
proper care
d. Preventing the need for medical
follow-up care.

97. The physician prescribe as

IV infucion of 1000 ml D5W
every 12 hours for a client.
The IV setup delivers 15
gtt/ml. Approx. how many
drops should be administered
each minute?

a. 18
b. 21
c. 24
d. 27

98. Which of the following

provides the material and
human resources and building
the structure to care out the
activities of the organization?

a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Command
d. Control

99. A client is scheduled to

receive a blood transfusion.
During the transfusion, the
nurse should observer for
which sign or symptoms of a
transfusion reaction?

a. Dizziness
b. Chills
c. Hypothermia
d. Hyperreflexia

100. The client has an

abdominal hysterectomy, 10
hours ago. Which position
should the nurse teach the
client to avoid?

a. High Fowlers
b. lateral recumbent
c. Supine
d. Side lying
 now Immobilized and brought to the side of the right foot.
the emergency room. The X-ray D. Holds the cane on the right
SITUATION : Arthur, A registered shows a fractured femur and side.
nurse, witnessed an old woman hit pelvis. The ER Nurse would
by a motorcycle while crossing a carefully monitor Martha for which SITUATION: Alfred, a 40 year old
train railway. The old woman fell of the following sign and construction worker developed
at the railway. Arthur rushed at symptoms? cough, night sweats and fever. He
the scene. was brought to the nursing unit for
A. Tachycardia and Hypotension diagnostic studies. He told the
1. As a registered nurse, Arthur B. Fever and Bradycardia nurse he did not receive a BCG
knew that the first thing that he C. Bradycardia and Hypertension vaccine during childhood
will do at the scene is D. Fever and Hypertension
9. The nurse performs a Mantoux
A. Stay with the person, SITUATION: Mr. D. Rojas, An obese Test. The nurse knows that
Encourage her to remain still and 35 year old MS Professor of OLFU Mantoux Test is also known as
Immobilize the leg while Lagro is admitted due to pain in
While waiting for the ambulance. his weight bearing joint. The A. PPD
B. Leave the person for a few diagnosis was Osteoarthritis. B. PDP
moments to call for help. C. PDD
C. Reduce the fracture manually. 6. As a nurse, you instructed Mr. D. DPP
D. Move the person to a safer Rojas how to use a cane. Mr. Rojas
place. has a weakness on his right leg 10. The nurse would inject the
due to self immobilization and solution in what route?
2. Arthur suspects a hip fracture guarding. You plan to teach Mr.
when he noticed that the old Rojas to hold the cane A. IM
woman’s leg is B. IV
A. On his left hand, because his C. ID
A. Lengthened, Abducted and right side is weak. D. SC
Internally Rotated. B. On his left hand, because of
B. Shortened, Abducted and reciprocal motion. 11. The nurse notes that a positive
Externally Rotated. C. On his right hand, to support result for Alfred is
C. Shortened, Adducted and the right leg.
Internally Rotated. D. On his right hand, because only A. 5 mm wheal
D. Shortened, Adducted and his right leg is weak. B. 5 mm Induration
Externally Rotated. C. 10 mm Wheal
7. You also told Mr. Rojas to hold D. 10 mm Induration
3. The old woman complains of the cane
pain. John noticed that the knee is 12. The nurse told Alfred to come
reddened, warm to touch and A. 1 Inches in front of the foot. back after
swollen. John interprets that this B. 3 Inches at the lateral side of
signs and symptoms are likely the foot. A. a week
related to c. 6 Inches at the lateral side of B. 48 hours
the foot. C. 1 day
A. Infection D. 12 Inches at the lateral side of D. 4 days
B. Thrombophlebitis the foot.
C. Inflammation 13. Mang Alfred returns after the
D. Degenerative disease 8. Mr. Rojas was discharged and 6 Mantoux Test. The test result read
months later, he came back to the POSITIVE. What should be the
4. The old woman told John that emergency room of the hospital nurse’s next action?
she has osteoporosis; Arthur knew because he suffered a mild stroke.
that all of the following factors The right side of the brain was A. Call the Physician
would contribute to osteoporosis affected. At the rehabilitative B. Notify the radiology dept. for
except phase of your nursing care, you CXR evaluation
observe Mr. Rojas use a cane and C. Isolate the patient
A. Hypothyroidism you intervene if you see him D. Order for a sputum exam
B. End stage renal disease
C. Cushing’s Disease A. Moves the cane when the right 14. Why is Mantoux test not
D. Taking Furosemide and leg is moved. routinely done in the Philippines?
Phenytoin. B. Leans on the cane when the
right leg swings through. A. It requires a highly skilled nurse
5. Martha, The old woman was C. keeps the cane 6 Inches out to to perform a Mantoux test
B. The sputum culture is the gold
standard of PTB Diagnosis and it
will definitively determine the
extent of the cavitary lesions
C. Chest X Ray Can diagnose the
specific microorganism
responsible for the lesions
D. Almost all Filipinos will test
positive for Mantoux Test
15. Mang Alfred is now a new TB
patient with an active disease.
What is his category according to
the DOH?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
16. How long is the duration of the A. Primary
maintenance phase of his
treatment?
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 4 months
D. 5 months
17. Which of the following drugs is 22. Michiel shows the BEST
UNLIKELY given to Mang Alfred
during the maintenance phase?
A. Rifampicin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyridoxine
18. According to the DOH, the
most hazardous period for
development of clinical disease is D. Talk about his ostomy openly to evident if she sees which of the
during the first
A. 6-12 months after
B. 3-6 months after
C. 1-2 months after
D. 2-4 weeks after
19. This is the name of the
program of the DOH to control TB
in the country
A. DOTS
B. National Tuberculosis Control
Program
C. Short Coursed Chemotherapy
D. Expanded Program for
Immunization
20. Susceptibility for the disease
[ TB ] is increased markedly in
those with the following condition
except
A. 23 Year old athlete with
diabetes insipidus
B. 23 Year old athlete taking long
term Decadron therapy and
anabolic steroids
C. 23 Year old athlete taking
illegal drugs and abusing
substances
D. Undernourished and
Underweight individual who
undergone gastrectomy
21. Direct sputum examination
and Chest X ray of TB
symptomatic is in what level of
prevention?
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quarterly
SITUATION: Michiel, A male patient 27. While irrigating the client’s
diagnosed with colon cancer was
newly put in colostomy.
adaptation with the new
colostomy if he shows which of the the tube
following?
A. Look at the ostomy site
B. Participate with the nurse in his D. Notify the physician
daily ostomy care
C. Ask for leaflets and contact
numbers of ostomy support
groups
the nurse and friends
23. The nurse plans to teach
Michiel about colostomy irrigation.
As the nurse prepares the
materials needed, which of the
following item indicates that the
nurse needs further instruction?
A. Plain NSS / Normal Saline
B. K-Y Jelly
C. Tap water
D. Irrigation sleeve
24. The nurse should insert the
colostomy tube for irrigation at
approximately
A. 1-2 inches
B. 3-4 inches
C. 6-8 inches
D. 12-18 inches
25. The maximum height of
irrigation solution for colostomy is
A. 5 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 18 inches
D. 24 inches
26. Which of the following
behavior of the client indicates the
best initial step in learning to care
for his colostomy?
A. Ask to defer colostomy care to
another individual
B. Promises he will begin to listen
the next day
C. Agrees to look at the colostomy
D. States that colostomy care is
the function of the nurse while he
is in the hospital
colostomy, Michiel suddenly
complains of severe cramping.
Initially, the nurse would
A. Stop the irrigation by clamping
B. Slow down the irrigation
C. Tell the client that cramping will
subside and is normal
28. The next day, the nurse will
assess Michiel’s stoma. The nurse
noticed that a prolapsed stoma is
following?
A. A sunken and hidden stoma
B. A dusky and bluish stoma
C. A narrow and flattened stoma
D. Protruding stoma with swollen
appearance
29. Michiel asked the nurse, what
foods will help lessen the odor of
his colostomy. The nurse best
response would be
A. Eat eggs
B. Eat cucumbers
C. Eat beet greens and parsley
D. Eat broccoli and spinach
30. The nurse will start to teach
Michiel about the techniques for
colostomy irrigation. Which of the D. 20-25 mmHg
following should be included in the
nurse’s teaching plan?
A. Use 500 ml to 1,000 ml NSS
B. Suspend the irrigant 45 cm
above the stoma
C. Insert the cone 4 cm in the
stoma
D. If cramping occurs, slow the
irrigation
31. The nurse knew that the
normal color of Michiel’s stoma
should be
A. Brick Red
B. Gray
C. Blue
D. Pale Pink
SITUATION: James, A 27 basketball and Oxygen tank
player sustained inhalation burn
that required him to have
tracheostomy due to massive
upper airway edema.
32. Wilma, His sister and a nurse
is suctioning the tracheostomy
tube of James. Which of the
following, if made by Wilma
indicates that she is committing
an error?
A. Hyperventilating James with
100% oxygen before and after
suctioning
B. Instilling 3 to 5 ml normal saline D. Wilma measures the tie from
to loosen up secretion
C. Applying suction during
catheter withdrawal
D. Suction the client every hour
33. What size of suction catheter
would Wilma use for James, who is
6 feet 5 inches in height and
weighing approximately 145 lbs?
A. Fr. 5
B. Fr. 10
C. Fr. 12
D. Fr. 18
34. Wilma is using a portable
suction unit at home, What is the
amount of suction required by
James using this unit?
A. 2-5 mmHg
B. 5-10 mmHg
C. 10-15 mmHg
35. If a Wall unit is used, What
should be the suctioning pressure
required by James?
A. 50-95 mmHg
B. 95-110 mmHg
C. 100-120 mmHg
D. 155-175 mmHg
36. Wilma was shocked to see that
the Tracheostomy was dislodged.
Both the inner and outer cannulas
was removed and left hanging on
James’ neck. What are the 2
equipment’s at james’ bedside
that could help Wilma deal with
this situation?
A. New set of tracheostomy tubes
B. Theophylline and Epinephrine
C. Obturator and Kelly clamp
D. Sterile saline dressing
37. Which of the following method
if used by Wilma will best assure
that the tracheostomy ties are not
too tightly placed?
A. Wilma places 2 fingers between
the tie and neck
B. The tracheotomy can be pulled
slightly away from the neck
C. James’ neck veins are not
engorged
the nose to the tip of the earlobe
and to the xiphoid process.
38. Wilma knew that James have
an adequate respiratory condition
if she notices that
A. James’ respiratory rate is 18
B. James’ Oxygen saturation is
91%
C. There are frank blood suction
from the tube
D. There are moderate amount of
tracheobronchial secretions
39. Wilma knew that the
maximum time when suctioning
James is
A. 10 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 45 seconds
SITUATION : Juan Miguel Lopez
Zobel Ayala de Batumbakal was
diagnosed with Acute Close Angle
Glaucoma. He is being seen by
Nurse Jet.
40. What specific manifestation
would nurse Jet see in Acute close
angle glaucoma that she would
not see in an open angle
glaucoma?
A. Loss of peripheral vision
B. Irreversible vision loss
C. There is an increase in IOP
D. Pain
41. Nurse jet knew that Acute
close angle glaucoma is caused by
A. Sudden blockage of the anterior
angle by the base of the iris
B. Obstruction in trabecular
meshwork
C. Gradual increase of IOP
D. An abrupt rise in IOP from 8 to
15 mmHg
42. Nurse jet performed a
TONOMETRY test to Mr.
Batumbakal. What does this test
measures
A. It measures the peripheral
vision remaining on the client
B. Measures the Intra Ocular
Pressure
C. Measures the Client’s Visual
Acuity
D. Determines the Tone of the eye
in response to the sudden
increase in IOP.
43. The Nurse notices that Mr.
Batumbakal cannot anymore
determine RED from BLUE. The
nurse knew that which part of the
eye is affected by this change?
A. IRIS
B. PUPIL
c. RODS [RETINA]
D. CONES [RETINA]
44. Nurse Jet knows that Aqueous
Humor is produce where?
A. In the sub arachnoid space of
the meninges
B. In the Lateral ventricles
C. In the Choroids
D. In the Ciliary Body
45. Nurse Jet knows that the
normal IOP is
A. 8-21 mmHg
B. 2-7 mmHg
c. 31-35 mmHg
D. 15-30 mmHg
46. Nurse Jet wants to measure
Mr. Batumbakal’s CN II Function.
What test would Nurse Jet
implement to measure CN II’s
Acuity?
A. Slit lamp
B. Snellen’s Chart
C. Wood’s light
D. Gonioscopy
47. The Doctor orders pilocarpine. year old university professor who
Nurse jet knows that the action of recently went into coma after
this drug is to
A. Contract the Ciliary muscle
B. Relax the Ciliary muscle
C. Dilate the pupils
D. Decrease production of
Aqueous Humor
48. The doctor orders timolol
[timoptic]. Nurse jet knows that
the action of this drug is
A. Reduce production of CSF
B. Reduce production of Aquesous
Humor
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Relaxes the Ciliary muscle
49. When caring for Mr.
Batumbakal, Jet teaches the client A. Pull the pinna up and back and protein diet
to avoid
A. Watching large screen TVs
B. Bending at the waist
C. Reading books
D. Going out in the sun
50. Mr. Batumbakal has
undergone eye angiography using D. Pull the pinna up and back and peachy and found out It was an
an Intravenous dye and
fluoroscopy. What activity is
contraindicated immediately after
procedure?
A. Reading newsprint
B. Lying down
C. Watching TV
D. Listening to the music
51. If Mr. Batumbakal is receiving
pilocarpine, what drug should
always be available in any case
systemic toxicity occurs?
A. Atropine Sulfate
B. Pindolol [Visken]
C. Naloxone Hydrochloride
[Narcan]
D. Mesoridazine Besylate
[Serentil]
SITUATION : Wide knowledge
about the human ear, it’s parts
and it’s functions will help a nurse
assess and analyze changes in the 56. The physician orders the
adult client’s health.
52. Nurse Anna is doing a caloric
testing to his patient, Aida, a 55
being mauled by her disgruntled
3rd year nursing students whom
she gave a failing mark. After
instilling a warm water in the ear, D. Diazepam [Valium]
Anna noticed a rotary nystagmus
towards the irrigated ear. What
does this means?
A. Indicates a CN VIII Dysfunction
B. Abnormal
C. Normal
D. Inconclusive
53. Ear drops are prescribed to an intake
infant, The most appropriate
method to administer the ear
drops is
direct the solution towards the
eardrum
B. Pull the pinna down and back
and direct the solution onto the
wall of the canal
C. Pull the pinna down and back
and direct the solution towards
the eardrum
direct the solution onto the wall of insect. What should be the first
the canal
54. Nurse Jenny is developing a
plan of care for a patient with
Menieres disease. What is the
priority nursing intervention in the insect out of peachy’s ear
plan of care for this particular
patient?
A. Air, Breathing, Circulation
B. Love and Belongingness
C. Food, Diet and Nutrition
D. Safety
55. After mastoidectomy, Nurse
John should be aware that the
cranial nerve that is usually
damage after this procedure is
A. CN I
B. CN II
C. CN VII
D. CN VI
following for the client with
Menieres disease. Which of the
following should the nurse
question?
A. Dipenhydramine [Benadryl]
B. Atropine sulfate
C. Out of bed activities and
ambulation
57. Nurse Anna is giving dietary
instruction to a client with
Menieres disease. Which
statement if made by the client
indicates that the teaching has
been successful?
A. I will try to eat foods that are
low in sodium and limit my fluid
B. I must drink atleast 3,000 ml of
fluids per day
C. I will try to follow a 50%
carbohydrate, 30% fat and 20%
D. I will not eat turnips, red meat
and raddish
58. Peachy was rushed by his
father, Steven into the hospital
admission. Peachy is complaining
of something buzzing into her
ears. Nurse Joemar assessed
thing that Nurse Joemar should try
to remove the insect out from
peachy’s ear?
A. Use a flashlight to coax the
B. Instill an antibiotic ear drops WEBERS TEST. He placed the D. Dehydration R/T incessant
C. Irrigate the ear tuning fork in the patients vomiting
D. Pick out the insect using a forehead after tapping it onto his
sterile clean forceps knee. The client states that the 65. Approximately how much fluid
fork is louder in the LEFT EAR. is lost in acute weight loss of .5kg?
59. Following an ear surgery, Which of the following is a correct
which statement if heard by Nurse conclusion for nurse Josph to
Oca from the patient indicates a make? A. 50 ml
correct understanding of the post B. 750 ml
operative instructions? A. He might have a sensory C. 500 ml
hearing loss in the left ear D. 75 ml
A. Activities are resumed within 5 B. Conductive hearing loss is
days possible in the right ear 66. Postural Hypotension is
B. I will make sure that I will clean C. He might have a sensory
my hair and face to prevent hearing loss in the right hear, A. A drop in systolic pressure less
infection and/or a conductive hearing loss than 10 mmHg when patient
C. I will use straw for drinking in the left ear. changes position from lying to
D. I should avoid air travel for a D. He might have a conductive sitting.
while hearing loss in the right ear, B. A drop in systolic pressure
and/or a sensory hearing loss in greater than 10 mmHg when
60. Nurse Oca will do a caloric the left ear. patient changes position from
testing to a client who sustained a lying to sitting
blunt injury in the head. He 63. Aling myrna has Menieres C. A drop in diastolic pressure less
instilled a cold water in the client’s disease. What typical dietary than 10 mmHg when patient
right ear and he noticed that prescription would nurse Oca changes position from lying to
nystagmus occurred towards the expect the doctor to prescribe? sitting
left ear. What does this finding D. A drop in diastolic pressure
indicates? A. A low sodium , high fluid intake greater than 10 mmHg when
B. A high calorie, high protein patient changes position from
A. Indicating a Cranial Nerve VIII dietary intake lying to sitting
Dysfunction C. low fat, low sodium and high
B. The test should be repeated calorie intake 67. Which of the following
again because the result is vague D. low sodium and restricted fluid measures will not help correct the
C. This is Grossly abnormal and intake patient’s condition
should be reported to the
neurosurgeon SITUATION : [ From DEC 1991 A. Offer large amount of oral fluid
D. This indicates an intact and NLE ] A 45 year old male intake to replace fluid lost
working vestibular branch of CN construction worker was admitted B. Give enteral or parenteral fluid
VIII to a tertiary hospital for incessant C. Frequent oral care
vomiting. Assessment disclosed: D. Give small volumes of fluid at
61. A client with Cataract is about weak rapid pulse, acute weight frequent interval
to undergo surgery. Nurse Oca is loss of .5kg, furrows in his tongue,
preparing plan of care. Which of slow flattening of the skin was 68. After nursing intervention, you
the following nursing diagnosis is noted when the nurse released will expect the patient to have
most appropriate to address the her pinch.
long term need of this type of 1. Maintain body temperature at
patient? Temperature: 35.8 C , BUN 36.5 C
Creatinine ratio : 10 : 1, He also 2. Exhibit return of BP and Pulse to
A. Anxiety R/T to the operation complains for postural normal
and its outcome hypotension. There was no 3. Manifest normal skin turgor of
B. Sensory perceptual alteration infection. skin and tongue
R/T Lens extraction and 4. Drinks fluids as prescribed
replacement 64. Which of the following is the
C. Knowledge deficit R/T the pre appropriate nursing diagnosis? A. 1,3
operative and post operative self B. 2,4
care A. Fluid volume deficit R/T furrow C. 1,3,4
D. Body Image disturbance R/T the tongue D. 2,3,4
eye packing after surgery B. Fluid volume deficit R/T
uncontrolled vomiting SITUATION: A 65 year old woman
C. Dehydration R/T subnormal was admitted for Parkinson’s
62. Nurse Joseph is performing a body temperature Disease. The charge nurse is
going to make an initial
assessment.
69. Which of the following is a
characteristic of a patient with
advanced Parkinson’s disease?
A. Disturbed vision
B. Forgetfulness
C. Mask like facial expression
D. Muscle atrophy
70. The onset of Parkinson’s
disease is between 50-60 years
old. This disorder is caused by
A. Injurious chemical substances
B. Hereditary factors
C. Death of brain cells due to old
age
D. Impairment of dopamine
producing cells in the brain
71. The patient was prescribed
with levodopa. What is the action
of this drug?
A. Increase dopamine availability
B. Activates dopaminergic
receptors in the basal ganglia
C. Decrease acetylcholine
availability
D. Release dopamine and other
catecholamine from neurological
storage sites
72. You are discussing with the
dietician what food to avoid with
patients taking levodopa?
A. Vitamin C rich food
B. Vitamin E rich food
C. Thiamine rich food
D. Vitamin B6 rich food
73. One day, the patient
complained of difficulty in walking. A. Emergency Numbers
Your response would be
A. You will need a cane for
support
B. Walk erect with eyes on horizon SITUATION : Knowledge of the
C. I’ll get you a wheelchair
D. Don’t force yourself to walk
SITUATION: Mr. Dela Isla, a client
with early Dementia exhibits
thought process disturbances.
74. The nurse will assess a loss of A. Increases glandular secretion
ability in which of the following
areas?
A. Balance
B. Judgment
C. Speech
D. Endurance
75. Mr. Dela Isla said he cannot
comprehend what the nurse was
saying. He suffers from:
A. Insomnia
B. Aphraxia
C. Agnosia
D. Aphasia
76. The nurse is aware that in
communicating with an elderly
client, the nurse will
A. Lean and shout at the ear of the treatment of Ulcerative colitis
client
B. Open mouth wide while talking missed the previous dose
to the client
C. Use a low-pitched voice
D. Use a medium-pitched voice
77. As the nurse talks to the
daughter of Mr. Dela Isla, which of A. Caffeine
the following statement of the
daughter will require the nurse to C. Acetaminophen
give further teaching?
A. I know the hallucinations are
parts of the disease
B. I told her she is wrong and I
explained to her what is right
C. I help her do some tasks he
cannot do for himself
D. Ill turn off the TV when we go to pool
another room
78. Which of the following is most D. Avoid cold weathers to prevent
important discharge teaching for
Mr. Dela Isla
B. Drug Compliance
C. Relaxation technique
D. Dietary prescription
drug PROPANTHELINE BROMIDE
[Probanthine] Is necessary in
treatment of various disorders.
79. What is the action of this
drug?
for clients affected with cystic
fibrosis
B. Dissolve blockage of the urinary
tract due to obstruction of cystine
stones
C. Reduces secretion of the
glandular organ of the body
D. Stimulate peristalsis for
treatment of constipation and
obstruction
80. What should the nurse caution
the client when using this
medication
A. Avoid hazardous activities like
driving, operating machineries
etc.
B. Take the drug on empty
stomach
C. Take with a full glass of water in
D. I must take double dose if I
81. Which of the following drugs
are not compatible when taking
Probanthine?
B. NSAID
D. Alcohol
82. What should the nurse tell
clients when taking Probanthine?
A. Avoid hot weathers to prevent
heat strokes
B. Never swim on a chlorinated
C. Make sure you limit your fluid
intake to 1L a day
hypothermia
83. Which of the following disease
would Probanthine exert the much
needed action for control or
treatment of the disorder?
A. Urinary retention
B. Peptic Ulcer Disease
C. Ulcerative Colitis
D. Glaucoma
SITUATION : Mr. Franco, 70 years
old, suddenly could not lift his
spoons nor speak at breakfast. He
was rushed to the hospital
unconscious. His diagnosis was
CVA.

84. Which of the following is the
most important assessment during
the acute stage of an unconscious
patient like Mr. Franco?
A. Level of awareness and
response to pain
B. Papillary reflexes and response
to sensory stimuli
C. Coherence and sense of
hearing
D. Patency of airway and
adequacy of respiration
85. Considering Mr. Franco’s
conditions, which of the following
is most important to include in
preparing Franco’s bedside
equipment?
A. Hand bell and extra bed linen
B. Sandbag and trochanter rolls
C. Footboard and splint
D. Suction machine and gloves
86. What is the rationale for giving indicated. Pre op care would
Mr. Franco frequent mouth care?
A. He will be thirsty considering
that he is doesn’t drink enough
fluids
B. To remove dried blood when
tongue is bitten during a seizure
C. The tactile stimulation during
mouth care will hasten return to
consciousness
D. Mouth breathing is used by
comatose patient and it’ll cause
oral mucosa dying and cracking.
87. One of the complications of
prolonged bed rest is decubitus
ulcer. Which of the following can
best prevent its occurrence?
A. Massage reddened areas with
lotion or oils
B. Turn frequently every 2 hours
C. Use special water mattress
D. Keep skin clean and dry
88. If Mr. Franco’s Right side is
weak, What should be the most
accurate analysis by the nurse?
A. Expressive aphasia is
prominent on clients with right
sided weakness
B. The affected lobe in the patient conscious
is the Right lobe
C. The client will have problems in suction
judging distance and D. Deep breathing and leg
proprioception exercise
D. Clients orientation to time and
space will be much affected 94. Peritonitis may occur in
ruptured appendix and may cause
SITUATION : a 20 year old college serious problems which are
student was rushed to the ER of
PGH after he fainted during their 1. Hypovolemia, electrolyte
ROTC drill. Complained of severe imbalance
right iliac pain. Upon palpation of 2. Elevated temperature,
his abdomen, Ernie jerks even on weakness and diaphoresis
slight pressure. Blood test was 3. Nausea and vomiting, rigidity of
ordered. Diagnosis is acute the abdominal wall
appendicitis. 4. Pallor and eventually shock
89. Which result of the lab test will A. 1 and 2
be significant to the diagnosis? B. 2 and 3
C. 1,2,3
A. RBC : 4.5 TO 5 Million / cu. mm. D. All of the above
B. Hgb : 13 to 14 gm/dl.
C. Platelets : 250,000 to 500,000 95. If after surgery the patient’s
cu.mm. abdomen becomes distended and
D. WBC : 12,000 to 13,000/cu.mm no bowel sounds appreciated,
what would be the most suspected
90. Stat appendectomy was complication?
include all of the following except? A. Intussusception
B. Paralytic Ileus
C. Hemorrhage
A. Consent signed by the father D. Ruptured colon
B. Enema STAT
C. Skin prep of the area including 96. NGT was connected to suction.
the pubis In caring for the patient with NGT,
D. Remove the jewelries the nurse must
91. Pre-anesthetic med of A. Irrigate the tube with saline as
Demerol and atrophine sulfate ordered
were ordered to : B. Use sterile technique in
irrigating the tube
A. Allay anxiety and apprehension C. advance the tube every hour to
B. Reduce pain avoid kinks
C. Prevent vomiting D. Offer some ice chips to wet lips
D. Relax abdominal muscle
97. When do you think the NGT
92. Common anesthesia for tube be removed?
appendectomy is
A. When patient requests for it
A. Spinal B. Abdomen is soft and patient
B. General asks for water
C. Caudal C. Abdomen is soft and flatus has
D. Hypnosis been expelled
D. B and C only
93. Post op care for
appendectomy include the Situation: Amanda is suffering
following except from chronic arteriosclerosis Brain
syndrome she fell while getting
A. Early ambulation out of the bed one morning and
B. Diet as tolerated after fully was brought to the hospital, and
she was diagnosed to have
C. Nasogastric tube connect to cerebrovascular thrombosis thus
transferred to a nursing home.

98. What do you call a STROKE

that manifests a bizarre behavior?

A. Inorganic Stroke
B. Inorganic Psychoses
C. Organic Stroke
D. Organic Psychoses

99. The main difference between

chronic and organic brain
syndrome is that the former

A. Occurs suddenly and reversible

B. Is progressive and reversible
C. tends to be progressive and
irreversible
D. Occurs suddenly and
irreversible

100. Which behavior results from

organic psychoses?

A. Memory deficit
B. Disorientation
C. Impaired Judgement
D. Inappropriate affect
 4. The nurse enter the room of a. Mixes room air with oxygen
a client who has a chest tube b. Delivers a precise concentration
Situation I -- Nurse Caria is attached to a water seal of oxygen
assigned in the emergency unit drainage system and notices c. Requires humidity during
meeting. Varied opportunities that the chest tube is dislodge delivery
developed her nursing skills. from the chest. The most d. Is less traumatic to the
appropriate nursing respirator tract
1. A 17-year old is admitted intervention is to:
following an automobile 8. Which statement by Mr.
accident He is very anxious, a. Notify the physician Sison indicates that client
dyspneic, and in severe pain. b. Insert a new chest tube teaching regarding oxygen
The left chest wall moves in c. Cover the insertion site with therapy has been effective?
during inspiration and new petroleum gauze
balloons out when he exhales. d. Instruct the client to breath a. "I was feeling fine so I removed
The nurse understands these deeply until the help arrives my nasal prongs."
symptoms are most b. "I've increased my fluids to six
suggestive of: 5. A 71-year old is admitted to glasses of water daily."
the hospital with congestive c. "Don’t forget to come back
a. Hemothorax heart failure. She has quickly when you get me out of
b. Flail chest shortness of breath and a +3 - the bed; I don't want to be without
c. Atelectasis 4 peripheral edema. The care my oxygen for too long."
d. Pleural effusion plan to reduce the client's d. "My family was angry when I
edema should include nursing told them they could not smoke in
2. A young man is admitted strategies for: my room."
with a flail chest following a
car accident. He is intubated a. Establishing limits on activity 9. Supplemental low-flow
with an endotracheal tube and b. Fostering a relaxed oxygen therapy is prescribed
is placed on a mechanical environment for a man with emphysema.
ventilator (control mode, c. Identifying goals for self care Which is the most essential for
positive pressure). Which d. Restricting IV fluids the nurse to initiate?
physical finding alerts the
nurse to an additional problem Situation 2 - Oxygen is the most a. Anticipate the need for
in respiratory function? vital physiologic need for survival. humidification
b. Notify the physician that this
a. Dullness to percussion in the 6. Mr. Sison, 65 years old has order is contraindicated
third to 5th intercostals space, been smoking since he was 11 c. Place client in high Fowler's
midclavicular line years old. He has long history position
b. Decreased paradoxical motion of emphysema. Mr. Sison is d. Schedule nursing care to allow
c. Louder breath sounds on the admitted to the hospital frequent observations of the client
right chest because of a respiratory
d. pH of 7.36 In arterial blood infection, which has not Situation 3 - Mr. Silverio, 56 years
gases improved with outpatient old, has had significant problem
therapy. Which finding would with alcohol abuse for the past 15
3. The nurse is caring for a the nurse expect to observe years. His wife brings him to the
client who has just had a chest during Mr. Sison's nursing emergency department because
tube attached to a water seal assessment? he is increasingly confused and is
drainage system (Pleur-evac). coughing blood. His medical
To ensure that the system a. Electrocardiogram changes diagnosis is cirrhosis of the liver.
functions effectively the nurse b. Increased anterior-posterior He has ascites and esophageal
should: chest diameter varices.
c. Slow labored respiratory pattern
a. Observe for intermittent d. Weight-Height relationship 10. Assessment of Mr. Silverio
bubbling in the water seal indicating obesity would reveal all of the
chamber following, except:
b. Flush the test tube with 30 to 7. Mr. Sison is ordered oxygen
60 ml of NSS 4 to 6 hours via nasal prongs. The nurse a. Bulging flanks
c. Maintain the client in an administering the oxygen via b. Protruding umbilicus
extreme lateral position the low-flow system c. Abdominal distension
d. Strip the chest tubes in the recognizes that this method of d. Bluish discoloration of the
direction of the client delivery: umbilicus
11. Which laboratory value d. Developmental Situation 6 - One Important fact
would the nurse expect to find that will guide the nurse in the
in a client as a result of liver 16. Noemi, a staff nurse in the practice of the profession is her
failure? emergency room, realizes that knowledge of the nursing law.
she has an important role to
a. Decreased serum creatinine play as a patient advocate to 20. The nurse practice Act of
b. Decreased sodium rape victims. To demonstrate 1991 regulates the practice of
c. Increased ammonia this role, she takes note of nursing in the Philippines.
d. Restricted sodium one of the responsibilities? Which of the following
statements about this Act is
12. The major dietary a. Since this is a legal case, call true?
treatment for ascites calls for: the press about the incidence of
rape a. This Act delineates the practice
b. Perform thorough physical of nursing and midwifery
a. High protein assessment and documenting b. It was enacted in November
b. Increased potassium objectively all the evidences of 1991
c. Restricted fluids rape c. The primary purpose is to
d. Restricted sodium c. Ask the patient to stay in one protect the public
isolated room first to provide d. The Act defines the practice of
13. A Sengstaken-BIakemore privacy while attending to other nursing in the Philippines
tube is inserted in an effort to patients
stop the bleeding. Base on d. Provide emotional support first 21. When a nurse starts
this information, the first and postponed physical working In a hospital but
action the nurse should take is assessment when patient is without a written contract,
to: already calm which of the following is
expected of her?
a. Deflate the esophageal balloon 17. Which of the following is a
b. Encourage him to take the deep form of active, focused, a. She's not bound to perform
breath emotional environmental first according to the standards of
c. Monitor his vital signs aid for patients in crisis? nursing practice
d. Notify the physician b. Provides nursing care within the
a. Attitude therapy acceptable standards of nursing
14. Because the detoxification b. Psychotherapy practice
of alcohol damages tissues a c. Crisis intervention c. She's not obligated to provide
high-calorie diet, fortified with d. Re-motivation technique professional service
vitamins should be d. The employer does not hold the
encouraged to protect Mr. 18. Which of the following is nurse responsible for her action
Silverio's: true with regards to crisis?
22. A patient, G8P5, refused to
a. Liver a. Crisis is self-limiting be injected with the 3rd dose
b. Kidneys b. After crisis, the individual of Depoprovera. The
c. Adrenals always return to a pre-crisis state nurse insisted inspite of the
d. Pancreas or condition patients refusal and forcibly
c. Crisis always result in adaptive injected the contraceptive.
Situation 4 - Rape is one of the behavior She can be sued for which of
most tragic things that could d. The person in crisis is not the following?
happen to anyone especially with susceptible for any help
young girls. Incidence such as a. Misrepresentation
these could develop into a crisis19. If help is not provided in a b. Assault and Battery
situation involving not only the crisis situation, an individual c. Malpractice
rape victims but also their may spontaneously resolve in d. Negligence
families. negatively or positively by
returning to pre-crisis state, 23.A patient has been in the
15. This type of crisis could be usually within which of the ICU for 2 weeks. The relatives
an example of which of the following duration? have consented to a "Do not
following? resuscitate order," When the
a. 2-3 weeks patient develops a cardiac
a. Combination of developmental b. 3-4 weeks arrest, the nurse will carry out
and situational c. 1-2 weeks which of the following actions?
b. Situational d. 4-6 weeks
c. Emotional
a. Only medication will be given
b. All ordinary measure will be
stopped
c. Basic and advance life support
will not be given
d. Mechanical ventilation and NGT
will be stopped
her motor strength?
a. Observe how he talks
b. Instruct her to squeeze her
hands
c. Allowing him to stand alone
d. Pricking her skin with pin
b. Return to an earlier, less
mature stage of development
c. Exclude fro the conscious things
that are psychologically disturbing
d. Channel an acceptable sexual
desire into socially approved
behavior

24. When a patient falls from 29.Which of the following 34. An example of
bed, which of the following is activities would cause her a displacement is:
your immediate action? risk in the increase of
intracranial pressure? a. Imaginative activity to escape
a. Report to the head nurse and reality
calls someone to help a. Coughing b. Ignoring unpleasant aspects of
b. Determine any injury or harm b. Reading reality
c. Refer to the resident on duty c. Turning c. Resisting any demands made by
d. Put back patient to bed d. Sleeping others
d. Pent-up emotion directed to
Situation 7 - Ms. May Mansur Situation 8 - Basic Psychiatric other than the primary source
encountered vehicular accident on concepts a nurse should be aware
her way to the office and he of... Situation 9 - Joan, age 34, is
remains conscious. Police officers hospitalized because of
brought her to the hospital. 30. Mental experiences, alcoholism.
operate on different levels of
25. You have to observe for awareness. The level that best 35. Joan denied that she has a
increase intracranial pressure. portrays one's attitudes, problem with alcohol. The
Which of the following is not a feelings, and desire is the: nurse understands that Joan
sign of increased intracranial uses denial for which of the
pressure? a. Conscious following reasons:
b. Unconscious
a. Headache c. Preconscious a. To reduce her feelings of guilt
b. Vomiting d. Foreconscious b. To iive up to others' expectation
c. Vertigo c. To make her seem more
d. Changes on the level of 31. The ability to tolerate independent
consciousness frustration is an example of d. To make her look better in the
one of the functions of the: eyes of others
26. Which of the following
drug may be given to reduce a. Id 36. Joan appears suspicious of
increase intracranial pressure? b. Ego others and blames them for
c. Superego her personal problems. The
d. Unconscious nurse understands the client
a. Scopalamine is using this behavior because
b. Lanoxin 32. In the process of which of the following
c. Coumadin development the individual difficulties?
d. Mannitol strives to maintain, protect,
and enhance the integrity of a. In telling the truth
27. Since she medicated to the self. This normally b. Meeting an ego ideal
reduce increased intracranial accomplished through the use c. With dependence and
pressure. What nursing of: independence
measure must be done to d. In identifying who is creating
prevent further complication? a. Affective reactions the problem
b. Ritualistic behavior
a. Encourage her to observe bed c. Withdrawal patterns 37. When thinking about
rest d. Defense mechanisms alcohol and drug abuse, the
b. Check blood pressure every nurse is aware that:
shift 33. Sublimation is a defense
c. Observe complete best rest mechanism that helps the a. Most polydrug abusers also
d. Measure intake and output individual: abuse alcohol
b. Most alcoholics become
28. In what manner would you a. Act out in a reverse something polydrug abusers
be able to assess accurately already one or thought c. Addictive individuals tend to use
hostile abusive behavior
d. An unhappy childhood is a
causative factor in many
addictions
38. The most important factor
in rehabilitation of a client
addicted to alcohol is:
a. The availability of community
resources
b. The accepting attitude of the
client’s family
c. The client's emotional or
motivational readiness
d. The qualitative level of the
client's physical state
39. Joan asks if attendance of
Alcoholics Anonymous is
required. Which of the
following would reflect the
nurse's reply?
a. "You'll find you need their
support."
b. "Do you have feelings about
going to these meetings?"
c. "No its best to wait until you
feet you really need them."
d. "Yes, because you will learn
how to cope with your problem."
Situation 10 - Nurse Medie has
been encountering schizophrenic
and different psychotic disorders. . c. Hypoxia of selected areas of
40. A male client who has
delusions of persecution and
auditory hallucination is
admitted for psychiatric
evaluation after stabbing a
friend. Later a nurse on the
unit greets the client by
saying, "Good evening. How
are you?" The client who has
been referring to himself as
"man," answers, "The man is
bad." This is example of:
a. Dissociation
b. Transference
c. Displacement
d. Reaction formation
41. A disturb client starts to
repeat phrase that others
have just said. This type of
speech is known as:
a. Autism
b. Echolalia
c. Neologism
d. Echopraxia
42. Projection, rationalization,
denial, and distortion by
hallucinations and delusions
are examples of a disturbance
in:
a. Logic
b. Association
c. Reality testing
d. The thought process
43. The major reasons for
treating severe emotional
disorders with tranquilizers is c. Have Aisa take the diluted iron
to:
a. Reduce the neurotic syndrome
b. Prevent secondary complication preparation
c. Prevent destructiveness by the
client
d. Make the client more amenable
to psychotherapy
44. The nurse recognizes that
dementia of the Alzheimer's
type is characterized by :
a. Aggressive acting out behavior
b. Periodic remissions and
exacerbations
brain tissue
d. Areas of brain destruction
called senile plaques
Situation 11 - Aisa, is a 4-year old
with severe anemia. She is seen
by the nurse in the clinic.
45. In addition to weakness
and fatigue, which of the
following problems should the
nurse expect Aisa to exhibit?
a. Cold, clammy skin
b. Increased pulse rate
c. Elevated blood pressure
d. Cyanosis of the nail beds
46. Which of the following
problems associated with
anemia best explains why Aisa
becomes dizzy during periods
of physical activity?
a. An inflammation of the inner
ear
b. Insufficient cerebral
oxygenation
c. A sudden drop in blood pressure
d. Decreased level of serum
glucose
47. Aisa is to receive a liquid
iron preparation. Which of the
following directions would be
appropriate for the nurse to
teach Aisa's mother?
a. Administer this at least an hour
before meals
b. Explain that loose stools are
common with iron
preparation through a straw
d. Avoid giving Aisa orange or
other citric juices with the iron
48. Aisa is to have blood
transfusion. Which of the
following problems is most
likely associated with blood
transfusion?
a. Serum hepatitis
b. Allergic response
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Hemolytic reaction
Situation 12 - Eric Pineda is
admitted to hospital to have his
urethra dilated by the physician. A
urinary retention catheter is
inserted following the procedure.
49. A routine urinalysis is
ordered for Mr. Pineda. If the
specimen cannot be sent
immediately to the laboratory,
the nurse should:
a. Take no special action
b. Refrigerate the specimen
c. Store on dry side of utility room
d. Discard and collect a new
specimen later
50. The nurse understands
that the structure that
encircles the male urethra is
the:
a. Epididymis
b. Prostate gland
c. Seminal vesicle
d. Bulbourethral gland

51. The nurse can best
prevent the contamination
from Mr. Pineda's retention
catheter by:
a. Perineal cleansing
b. Encouraging fluids
c. Irrigating the catheter
d. Cleansing around the meatus
periodically
52. When Mr. Pineda, who has
urinary retention catheter in
place, complaints of
discomfort in the bladder and
urethra the nurse should first:
a. Notify the physician
b. Milk the tubing gently
c. Check the patency of the
catheter
d. Irrigate the catheter with
prescribed solutions
53. Mr. Pineda experiences
difficulty in voiding after his
indwelling urinary catheter is
removed. This is probably
related to:
a. Fluid imbalance
b. Mr. Pineda's recent sedentary
lifestyle
c. An interruption in normal
voiding habits
d. Nervous tension following the
procedure
Situation 13 - Helen Alcantara is
admitted to hospital with
complaints of hematuria,
frequency, urgency, and dysuria.
54. Mrs. Alcantara's signs and
symptoms would most likely
be associated with:
a. Pyelitis
b. Cystitis
c. Nephrosis
d. Pyelonephritis
55. Mrs. Alcantara has a
higher risk of developing
cystitis than does a male. This
is
due to:
a. Altered urinary pH
b. Hormonal secretions
c. Position of the bladder
d. Proximity of the urethra and
anus
56. The family of an elderly,
aphasic client complain that
the nurse failed to obtain a
signed consent before
insertion of indwelling
catheter to measure hourly
output. This is an example of:
a. A catheter inserted for the
client's benefit
b. A treatment that does not need
a separate consent form
c. Treatment without consent of
the client, which is an invasion of
rights
d. Inability to obtain consent for
treatment because the client was
aphasic
57. When caring for a client
with continuous bladder
irrigation, the nurse should:
a. Monitor urinary specific gravity b. Provide ample uninterrupted
b. Record urinary output every
hour
c. Subtract irrigant from output to usual daily time for elimination
determine urine volume
d. Include irrigating solution in any two largest meals of the day
24 hour urine tests order
58. When urinary catheter is
removed, the client is unable
to empty the bladder. A drug
is used to relieve urine
retention is:
a. Carbachol injection
b. Neosporin GU irrigant
c. Bethanecol (Urecholine)
d. Pilocarpine hydrochloride
(Pilocar)
Situation 14 - Arman Adriatico is
admitted to hospital with
extensive carcinoma of the
descending portion of the colon
with metastasis to the lymph
nodes.
59. The operative procedure
that would probably be
perform to Mr. Adriatico is a
(an):
a. lleostomy
b. Colectomy
c. Colostomy
d. Cecostomy
60. The primary step toward
long-range goals in Mr.
Adriatico's rehabilitation
involves his:
a. Mastery of techniques of
ostomy care
b. Readiness to accept an altered
body function
c. Awareness of available
community resources
d. Knowledge of the necessary
dietary modifications
61. When teaching Mr.
Adriatico to care for a new
stoma, the nurse should
advice him that irrigations be
done at the same time every
day. The time selected should:
a. Be appropriate hour before
breakfast
bathroom use at home
c. Approximate Mr. Adratico's
d. Be about halfway between the
62. When performing the
colostomy irrigation, the nurse
inserts the catheter into the
stoma:
a. 5cm
b.10cm
c.15cm
d.20cm
63.Mr. Adriatico should follow
a diet that is:
a. Rich in protein
b. Low in fiber content
c. High in carbohydrate
d. As close to normal possible
Situation 15 - Richard Gabatan, a
32-year-old car salesman, suffered
a spinal cord injury in a motor
vehicle accident resulting to
paraplegia.
64. A nurse finds Mr. Gabatan
under the wreckage of the car.
He is conscious, breathing
satisfactorily, and lying on the
back complaining of pain in
the back and an inability to
move his legs. The nurse
should first:
a. Leave Mr. Gabatan lying on his
back with instructions to move
and then go seek additional help
b. Gently raise Mr. Gabatan to a
sitting position to see if the pain
either
c. Roll Mr. Gabatan on his
abdomen, place, a pad under his
head, and cover
him with any material available
d. Gently lift Mr. Gavatan into a
flat piece of lumber and using any
available transportation, rush him
to the nearest medical institution
65. Once admitted to hospital
the physician indicates that
Mr. Gubatan is a paraplegic.
The family asks the nurse
what that means. The nurse
explains that:
a. Upper extremities are paralyzed activities at hand
b. Lower extremities are
paralyzed
c. One side of the body is
paralyzed
d. Both lower and upper
extremities are paralyzed
66. The nurse recognizes that subjects
the major early problem for
Mr. Gabatan will be:
a. Bladder control
b. Client education
c. Quadriceps setting
d. Use of aids for ambulation
67. The nurse should expect
Mr. Gabatan to have some
spasticity of the lower
extremities. To prevent the
development of contractures, throughout the day
careful consideration must be c. Encourage her to discuss why
given to:
a. Active exercise
b. Deep massage
c. Use of tilt board
d. Proper positioning
68. Rehabilitation plans for
Mr. Gabatan;
a. Should be left up to Mr.
Gabatan and his family
b. Should be considered and
planned for early in his care
c. Are not necessary, because he
will return to former activities
d. Are not necessary, because he
will probably not able to work
again
Situation 16- Karen Boltron, age
16, is withdrawn and non
communicative. She spends
most of her time lying on her bed.
69. Which nursing intervention
would be the most appropriate
way to help Karen accept the
realities of daily living?
a. Assist her to care for personal
hygiene needs
b. Encourage her to keep up with
school studies
c. Encourage her to join the other
clients in group singing
d. Leave her alone when these
appears to be a disinterest in the
70. Which is the best plan of
nursing intervention to
encourage Karen to talk:
a. Try to get her discuss feelings
b. Focus oh non threatening
c. Ask simple questions that
require answers
d. Sit and look magazines with her
71. Which of the following is
an important aspect of nursing
intervention when caring for
Karen?
a. Help keep her oriented to
reality
b. Involve her in activities
mixing with other people is
avoided
d. Help her understand that it is
harmful to withdraw from
situations
72. One day Karen suddenly
walks up to the nurse and
shouts. "You think you're so
damned perfect ad good. i
think you stink," Which
response should the nurse
make?
a. "You seem angry with me."
b. "Stink? I don't understand."
c. "Boy, you're in a bad mood."
d. "I can't be all that bad, can I?"
73. On being discharged, a
client with psychiatric
problems should be
encouraged to:
a. Go back to regular activities
b. Call the unit whenever upset
c. Continue in an after care
situation
d. Find a group that has similar
problem
Situation 17 - Danny Dasigao, age
63, has an obsessive-compulsive
behavior disorder. He believes
that the doorknobs are
contaminated and refuses to
touch them except with the tissue.
74. Which intervention should
the nurse make when dealing
with Danny's fear of
doorknobs?
a. Supply rim with paper tissue to
help him function until his anxiety
is reduced
b. Explain to him that this idea
about doorknob is part of his
illness and is not necessary
c. Encourage him to scrub the
doorknobs with a strong antiseptic
so he does not need to use tissues
d. Encourage him to touch
doorknobs by removing all
available paper tissue until he
learns to deal with the situation
75. Which stimulus is possibly
motivating Danny to use paper
towels to open doors?
a. He is using the method to
punish himself
b. He is listening to voices telling
him that the doorknobs are
unclean
c. He wants to unconsciously
control unacceptable impulses or
feelings
d. He has a need to punish others
by carrying out an annoying
procedure
76. Which action by the nurse
would most likely decrease
Danny's anxiety?
a. Explore with him the nature of
his anxiety
b. Stimulate him to express his
ritualistic actions regularly
c. Encourage him to participate in
his therapeutic plan of care
d. Provide him with an
environment that is both
supportive and non-opinionated
77. Which intervention should
be included in Danny's initial
treatment plan?
a. Deny his time for the ritualistic
behavior
b. Give a schedule for the
ritualistic behavior
c. Determine the purpose of the
ritualistic behavior
d. Suggest a symptom substitution
technique to refocus the behavior
78. The most appropriate way
to decrease a clients anxiety is
by:
a. Avoiding unpleasant objects
and events
b. Prolonged exposure to fearful
situation
c. Acquiring skills with which to
face stressful events
d. Introducing an element of
pleasure into fearful situations
Situation 18 - Jennifer Yadao, age
16, is admitted with the diagnosis
of anorexia nervosa. She has lost
10 kg in 5 weeks. She is very thin
but excessively concerned about
being overweight. Her daily intake
is 10 cups of coffee.
79. Which nursing intervention
should the nurse initially
perform for Jennifer?
a. Explain the value of good
nutrition
b. Compliment her on her lovely
figure
c. Try to establish a relationship of
trust
d. Explore the reasons why she
does not eat about the unit and wringing his
hands. He is breathing rapidly and
80. Which stimulus is the most complains of palpitations and
likely cause of Jennifer's nausea and he has difficulty
disorder? focusing on what the nurse is
saying. •
a. Allow self-esteem
b. Feelings of unworthiness 84. Mr. Pascua is experiencing
c. Anger directed at the parents a high degree of anxiety. It is
d. An unconscious fear of growing important to recognize if
up additional help is required
because:
81 Jenifer is to be placed on
behavior modification. Which a. If the client is out of control,
is appropriate to include in the another person will help to
nursing care plan? decrease his anxiety level
b. Being alone with an anxious
a. Remind frequently the client to client is dangerous
eat all the food served on the tray c. It will take another person to
b. Increase phone calls allowed direct the client into activities to
the client by or a per day for each relieve anxiety
pound gained d. Hospital protocol for handling
c. Include the family with the anxious clients requires at least
client in therapy sessions two two people
times per week
d. Weigh the client each day at 85. He says he is having a
6:00 A.M. in hospital gown and heart attack but refuses to
slippers after she voids rest. The nurse would be
Interpret his level of anxiety
82. Another patient, Kara, 17 as:
years old, is also diagnosed
with anorexia nervosa. You a. Mild
have been assigned to sit with b. Moderate
her while she eats her dinner. c. Severe
Kara says to you, "My primary d. Panic
nurse trusts me. I don't see
why you don't." Your best 86.What should the nurse
response is: include in the care plan to Mr.
Pascua when he is having
a. "I do trust you, but S was a panic attack?
assigned to be with you."
b. "It sounds as if you are a. Calm reassurance, deep
manipulating me." breathing and modication as
c. "OK. When S return, you should ordered
have eaten everything." b. Teach Mr. Pascua problem
d. "Who is your primary nurse." solving in relation to his anxiety
c. Expiam the physiologic
83. Which observation of the responses of anxiety
client with anorexia indicates d. Explore alternate methods for
that the client is improving? dealing with the cause of his
anxiety
a. The client eats meals in the
dining room Situation 20 - Joel is a toddler who
b. The client gains one pound per has classical hemophilia.
week
c. The client attends group 87. Which of the following
therapy sessions statements is true regarding
d. The client has a more realistic Joel's disorder?
self-control
a. Hemophilia is an autosomal
Situation 19 - Mr. Pascua is pacing dominant disorder in which the
woman carries
the trait
b. Hemophilia follows regular laws
of Mendelian inherited disorders
such as sickle ceil anemia
c. This disorder can be carried by
either male or female but occurs
in the sex opposite that of the
carrier
d. Hemophilia is an X-linked
disorder in which the mother is
usually the carrier of the illness
but is not affected by it
88. Joel has some internal
bleeding. At which of the
following sites is the most
common for the child with
hemophilia to bleed?
a. Joints
b. Intestines
c. Cerebrum
d. Ends of the log bones
89. Which of the following
blood products is most likely
to be given to Joel?
a. Albumin
b. Fresh frozen plasma
c. Factor VIII concentrate
d. Factor II, Vll, IX, X complex
90. Joel's parents ask if-their
other children will be affected
by the disorder. Which of the
following statements should
guide the nurse in her
response?
a. All the girls will be normal and
the other son a carrier
b. All the girls will be carriers and
one half the boys will be affected
c. Each son has a chance of being
affected and each daughter a 50%
chance of being a carrier
d. Each son has 50% chance of
being affected or a carrier, and
the girls will be all carriers.
91. A child is to receive a
blood transfusion, if an
allergic reaction to the blood
occurs, the nurse's first
intervention should be:
a. Call the physician
b. Slow the flow rate
c. Stop the blood immediately
d. Relieved the symptoms with an
ordered antihistamines
Situation 19 - Mr. Villa who was
admitted to the respiratory floor
with COPD. The nurse finds him
extremely restless, incoherent,
and showing signs of acute
respiratory distress. He Is using
accessory muscles for breathing
and Is diaphoretic and cyanotic.
92. The best initial action by
the nurse is to:
a. Administered oxygen as
ordered
b. Assess vital signs and neural
vital signs
c. Administered medication which
has been ordered for pain
d. Call respiratory therapy for a
prescribed ABG (arterial -blood
gas) analysis
93. An order is written for
oxygen by nasal cannula at 2
liters per minute. Which
assessment is most useful in
assessing the adequacy of the
oxygen therapy?
a. Respiratory rate
b. Color of mucus membranes
c. Pulmonary function tests
d. Arterial blood gases
94. Mr. Villa needs frequent
monitoring of arterial blood
gases. Following the drawing
of arterial blood gasses it is
essential for the nurse to do
which of the following?
a. Encourage the client to cough
an deep breath
b. Apply pressure to the puncture
site for 5 minutes
c. Shake the vial of blood before
transporting it to the lab
d. Keep the client on bed rest for 2
hours
95. The nurse is interpreting
the results of a blood gas
analysis performed on an
adult client. The value include
pH of 7.35, pC02 of 60, HC03
of 35. and 02 of 60. Which
interpretation is most
accurate?
a. The client is in metabolic
acidosis
b. The client is in compensated
metabolic alkalosis
c. The client is in respiratory
alkalosis
d. The client is in compensated
respiratory acidosis
Situation 20 - The nurse is
assigned in a counseling clinic
about preventive measures for
cancers.
96. Cancer is the second major
cause of death in this country.
What is the first step toward
effective cancer control?
a. Increasing governmental
control of potential carcinogens
b. Changing habits and customs
that predispose the individual to
cancer
c. Conducting more mass
screening programs
d. Educating public and
professional people about cancer
97. In order to educate clients,
the nurse should understand
that the most common site of
cancer for a female is the:
a. Uterine cervix
b. Uterine body
c. Vagina
d. Fallopian tube
98.A client has just completed
a course in radiation therapy
and is experiencing radio-
dermatitis. The most effective
method of treating the skin is
to:
a. Wash the area with soap and
warm water
b. Apply a cream or lotion to the
area
c. Leave the skin alone until it is
clear
d. Avoid applying creams or lotion
to the area
99.A client with cancer that
has metastazised to the liver
is started on chemotherapy-
His physician has specified
divided doses of the
antimetabolite. The client asks
why he could take the drug in
divided doses. The
appropriate response is:

a. " There really is no reason your

doctor just wrote the orders that
way."
b. "This schedule will reduce the
side effect of the drug."
c. "Divided doses produce greater
cytotoxic effects on the diseased
cells."
d. "Because these drugs prevent
cell division, they are more
effective in divided doses,"

100. A client has possible

malignancy of the colon, and
surgery is scheduled. The
rationale for administering
Neomycin preoperatively is to:

a. Prevent infection
postoperatively
b. Eliminate the need for
preoperative enemas
c. Decreased and retard the
growth of normal bacteria in the
intestines
d. Treat cancer of the colon
 IV. Modern paraphernalia c. TT1
d. TT2
1. When can trained hilot a. I, III, IV
attend to a delivery? b. I, II, IV 12. A woman uses a
c. II, III, IV diaphragm as contraceptive.
a. When at a time of delivery, no d. I, II, III You would instruct her to
licensed personnel trained on return to the clinic to have
maternal care is around 7. Which drug is not hem diaphragm fit checked
b. When the patient is living in a contraindicated to a patient in after which of the following
remote area a first trimester of pregnancy. circumstances?
c. When the worker is considered
to have a high risk pregnancy a. Paracetamol a. Cervical infection
d. The mother requested the hilot b. Cytoxan b. A weight gain of 20 pounds
to attend to the delivery c. Terbutahe c. A vaginal infection
d. Calcium Lactate d. Six n-onths of non-use
2. What mineral supplement is
given to a pregnant woman in 8. Which can be given to a 13. When a woman uses a
the third trimester of patient with hyperemesis vaginal spermicide, which of
pregnancy? gravidarum to relieve the the following techniques
signs & symptoms? should she use?
a. Vit.C
b. Fe a. Have the patient eat crackers a. Coitus should be followed by a
c. Ca before rising from the bed in the douche within 6 hours
d. FolicAcid morning b. Insert the product by applicator
b. Offer water with meals no more than 1 hour prior to
3. The following are benefits c. Let the patient choose what she coitus
of breastfeeding to the infant feels like eating c. Keep a feminine hygiene
except: d. Let the patient stay on bed until product available to use in case
the feelings of nausea subsides. her supply of spermicide runs out
a. Provides a nutritionally d. Place the product near the
complete food for the young infant 9. When can you inform an vaginal orifice for immediate
b. Strengthens the infants immune adopted child that he/she is contact instead of back of the
system, preventing many adopted? vagina.
infections
c. Reduces the infant's exposure a. When he/she asks where he/she 14. The hormone that is
to infection came from. secreted by the corpus luteum
d. Provides a natural method of b. Wait until the child reaches age and prepares the
delaying pregnancies of majority. endometrium implantation is:
c. When he/she shows interest in
4. Perception of a toddler story telling. a. Estrogen
about illness is: d. Watery and greenish b. Luteinizing
c. Progestorene
a. Life threatening 10. A new mother asks the d. Prostaglandin
b. Punishment for wrong doings nurse to describe the normal
c. A necessary part of life stool pattern of a breast-fed 15. Which hormone causes
d. The will of god neonate. The nurse correctly spinnbarkeit and ferning to
describe the stool as being: occur?
5. Most common manifestation
of Anemia a. Watery and golden yellow a. FS H
b. Pasty and yellow b. Gn RH
a. Weight loss c. Thick, black, and odories c. Progesterone
b. Fatigue d. Watery and greenish brown d. Estrogen
c. Ahorexia
d. Poor digestion 11. For immunization of 16.The pregnant patient is in
pregnant women, which her third month when she
6. The following are needs of tetanus toxoid is given as makes her second prenatal
infants early as possible during visit. She asks the nurse "what
pregnancy? is happening right now in the
I. Comfort development of the baby?"
II. Sleep a. TT3 The nurse answer:
III. Stimulation b. TT4
a. "The heart is beginning to pump b. Pads having cold packs within pain
bloods." them, usually hold more lochia c. Contractions lasting more than
b. "The brain is dividing into than regular pads 40 seconds
section," c. Blood-soaked pads must be d. Contractions lasting more than
c. "Lanugo and vernix caseosa are returned in a plastic bag to the 6 seconds
forming to protect the embryo." hospital after discharge
d. "The embryo is becoming a d. The pads should be' applied 25. In explaining the pattern
fetus and sex is determined." and removed in a front-to-back of discharge following
direction delivery, the nurse explains
17.A new patient states, "I than lochia will be heavier.
must be about four months 21 .To prevent breast
pregnant. I cannot remember engorgement, the nurse a. in the morning
exactly my last menstrual should teach the non-lactating b. at night
period, but I have been feeling postpartum woman to: c. as lochia cessation nears
the baby kicking for 3 to 4 d. toward the end of lactation
weeks now." Upon a. Maintain loose-fitting clothing
auscultation the nurse hears over her breast 26. Choose correct pre-
fetal heart sounds. The nurse b. Pump the breast briefly if they operative teaching before
stales that this assessment become painful planned caesarian birth.
indicates: c. Limit fluid intake to suppress
milk production a. Oral intake will be limited to
a. "You are not quite four months." d. Wear a well-fitting bra or breast clear fluids for 12 hours before
binder constantly surgery
b. "You are in your fifth months." b. Intravenous fluids are usually
c. "You may be six months along." 22. The woman who has just continued for two days after birth
d. "You are probably seven completed her 13th weeks of c. The woman will be asked to
months pregnant." pregnancy comes in for her take deep breaths and cough
monthly visit. The nurse regularly after birth.
18. The nurse is doing an expresses concern regarding d. The nurse will help her
initial assessment with the the weight gain. The patient ambulate to the restroom to urine
pregnant patient who states asks, 'Well, how much weight within 4 hours of birth.
that she is a strict vegetarian. should I have gained by now?
What vitamin supplement The answer is: 27. Twelve hours after birth, a
should be recommended? mother a lies in bed resting
a. "About 10lbs." although she will be
a. A b. “Not more than 2 to 3 Ibs.” discharged in another 12
b. C c. "Not more than 10 Ibs." hours, she does not ask about
c. D d. "No weight gain is expected this her baby provide any care.
d. B12 soon." What is the probable reason
for her behavior?
19.The best method to 23. The pregnant patient asks
prevent hemorrhage after the nurse when she should a. She is still in the taking in
caesarian birth is to: start breastfeeding. The nurse phase maternal adaptation
replies: b. She shows behaviors that may
a. Provide regular analgesics to lead to postpartum depression
enhance urination a. "When your milk comes down." c. She is still affected by
b. Reposition the woman from side b. "As soon as possible after medications given during labor
to side delivery." ' d. She may be dissatisfied with
c. Observe vital signs for falling c. "In two or three days when you some aspect of the new born
blood pressure are feeling better."
d. Assess the uterine fundus d. "I do not recommend breast- 28.A newborn is rooming in
regularly for firmness feeding." with his teenage mother, who
is watching TV. The nurse
20.When teaching the 24.The patient is being notes that the baby is awake
postpartum woman about administered oxytocin at 14 and quite.
peripads, the nurse should tell mi U/min. At what point would
her that: the nurse DC the infusion. a. Pick the baby up and point out
his behaviors to the mother
a. She can change tampons when a. If the patient is not going into b. Tell the mother to pick up her
the initial perineal soreness goes labor baby and talk with him while he is
away b. If the patient is in too much awake
c. Focus care on the mother,
rather than the infant so that she
can recuperate
d. Encourage the mother to feed
the infant before he begin crying
29. A woman is considering
having a tubal ligation after
she giyes birth to her second
child. The nurse should
counsel her that:
a. She should breast feed until
several months after birth to be
certain that the infant is healthy
b. The procedure should be
considered permanent and
irreversible
c. Steralization is an easier
procedure to perform after the
postpartum period
30. How should a woman take
oral contraceptives?
a. On an empty stomach with a
full glass of water
b. At about the same time each
day
c. Before every episode of
intercourse
d. In the morning and at bed time should stretch to at least 6
31. Choose the safety teaching c. Thick, clear, and of a large
related oral contraceptives?
a. A barrier method should also be blood
used to protect from infection
b. Nausea suggests that stroke
may be imminent
c. A toxic shock syndrome is more
likely to occur when the pill is
used
d. Increase fluids if urinary
frequency or urgency occurs
32. The intrauterine device is
an appropriate contraceptive
for the woman who:
a. Has unplanned intercourse with
several partners
b. Was recently hospitalized for
treatment of a pelvic infection
c. Is in mutually monogamous
relationship
d. Has had two ectopic
pregnancies
33. The woman who is
receiving methorexate for an
ectopic pregnancy should be
cautioned to avoid:
a. Driving or operating machinery
b. Eating raw vegetables or fruits
c. Using latex condoms for
intercourse
d. Taking vitamin with folic acid
34.To reduce the risk for toxic
shock syndrome, women
should be taught to:
a. Avoid changing tampons until
they are thoroughly saturated
b. Use a diaphragm with
spermicidal jelly during the
menstrual period
c. Wash hand thoroughly before
inserting a tampon or diaphragm
into the vagina
d. Limit the use of super
absorbent tampons to the times
when the flow is heavy
35. Cervical mucus at
ovulation should be:
a. Thin, slippery, and should
stretch to at least 6 centimeter
b. Cloudy, with a mild odor, and
centimeter
quantity
d. Thin and tinged with a small of
36. An ovulation, the basal
body temperature usually:
a. Rises abruptly and then falls
after 1 or 2 days
b. Falls and remains low for the
last half of the cycle.
c. Is higher during the first half of
the cycle than in the last half
d. Falls slightly at ovulation and is
higher during the last half of the
cycle
37. The goals of maternal and
child health nursing are:
I. That every child lives and grows
up in a family unit with love and
security
II. To ensure that every that every
expected and nursing mother
maintain good health.
III. To ensure that every mother
has a normal delivery and bears
healthy children.
IV. To achieve healthy sexual
development and maturation.
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. II, III, IV
38. Based on the DOH
program, a mother should
have at least how many
prenatal visits during
preqnancy?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 12
39. A standard prenatal
physical examination per visit
should be performed. Which of
the following is not included in
the routine examination?
a. BP .
b. Height
c. Lymph nodes
d. conjunctive of the eyes
40. In goiter endemic areas,
all pregnant women shall be
given one iodized oil capsule
every:
.
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 3 months
d. 4 months
41. In the care of "high risk"
pregnant women, "tagging"
the prenatal record means:
a. Placing a name tag around
patients wrist.
b. Assigning the mother under
"high risk" group
c. Writing the letters "HR" in red
ink against the entry in the
prenatal register
d. Writing the name of the patient
in red ink in the prenatal register
42. In areas where licensed
heath personnel are not
available, who shall be trained
to regular prenatal visits using
the Home Based mother's
Record to identify danger
signs:
a. Midwife
b. Trained hilots
c. Rural Health Nurse
d. Barangay officials
43. The following are qualified b. I, III, IV
for home.delivery:
I. full term
II. more than 4 pregnancies
III. Adequate pelvis
IV. Cephalic presentation
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. I, II IV
44. A home delivery hit should d. length – 49.5 cm
contain a complete set of
gadgets needed during
delivery. Which of the
following is optional?
a. suction bulk
b. boiled razor blade
c. pair of scissors
d. clean towel
45. This provide a valuable
index for evaluation of the
newborn infant’s condition at
birth:
a. APGAR score
b. Muscle tone
c. Respiratory effort
d. Heart rate
46.The major cause of
maternal deaths is:
a. prolonged labors
b. exhaustion
c. hemorrhage
d. infection
47. When giving a nursing
care to a mother after
delivery, the following should
be checked, except:
a. uterus is contracted and hard
b. BP, and pulse rate is normal
c. Placenta must be complately
expelled
d. Milk production is adequate
48. Which of the following are
risk factors for pregnancy?
I. age-under 18 y.o.
ll. height-less than 145 cm tall
lII. 4th pregnancy
IV. History of previous caesarian
section
a. I, II, III
c. I, II, IV
d. II, III, IV
49. Any abnormally detected
during physical examination of
the newborn should be
reported to the physician. This
should include:
a. head circumference 34 cm
b. weight- 2,350 cms
c. chest circumference- 33 cm
50. This law requires
compulsory immunization
against hepatitis B for infants
and children below eight (8)
years old.
a. P.D. 996
b. RA 7846
c. Presidential Proclamation No.
1066
d. P.D. 651
51. Which of the following
immunization can be given
any time after birth?
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. OPV
d. Measles
52. When assessing a 3 month
old infant . Which of the
following will you expect to
find?
I. Smiles spontaneously
II. Rotate the head from side to
side
III. Sits without support
IV. briefly holds toy in hand
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. I, II, IV
53.The following are
strategies used for the
attainment of goals of the
DOH Dental health program,
except:
a. Social mobilization
b. Networking with other services
c. Monitoring feedback
d. Home visits
54. This project will be a
continuous solicitation of
donation for new kiddie
toothbrushes:
a. 2 year care program,
b. Orientation Training on
Comprehensive dental health
program
c. "Sang Milyong Sipilyo Project"
d. Dental Health Services Clinic
55. A mother together with
her 3 year old daughter came
to the Dental Health clinic for
check up. Which of the
following is not one of the
direct services offered by the
Dental Health Program.
a. Dental curative Program
b. Oral Habilitation and
Rehabilitation Program
c. Training Program
d. Dental Preventive Program
56. When assessing a.neonate
a few hours after birth, the
nurse notes an edematous
area over the pariental are
that does not cross the
sagittal suture line, This is
most likely indiates
a. caput succedaneum
b. cranlosyntostosis
c. cranlotables
d. cephalhematoma
57. Mrs. P. has finished
feeding her 5-day old neonate
but is having difficulty burping
him. Which instructions should
the nnurse give her?
a. "Give him water and hold him
on his side"
b. "Hold him upright against your
shoulder and pat his back"
c. Give his pacifier and hold im
face down"
d. Hold him with his head slightly
elevated and rub his stomach"
58. Which is the most reliable
early indicator of neonated
infection?
a. An elevated temperature
b. A change in feeding pattern
c. A palpable mass
d. Excessive mucos
59. When bathing a newborn,
the nurse should be especially
careful to:
a. Avoid cleaning his umbilical
cord stump
b. Immerse him in warm water
only
c. Wash his scalp every day
d. Keep him warm
60 A mother asks the nurse
about scheduling her daughter
for routine immunizations. At
which age should her baby
receive her initial dose of the
diptheria - pertussis - tetanus
vaccine?
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 4 months
d. 6 months
61. A decrease in the baseline
FHR may be caused by all of
the following factors except:
a. Fetal sleep
b. Fetal hypoxia
c. Maternal drug administration
d. Maternal fever
62. Which assessment findng
is not a contraindication for
using tocolytic agent to
manage preterm labor?
a. Active vaginal bleeding
b. fetal distress
c. Cervical dilatation of 2 to 3 cm
d. Cervical dilatation of 4 to 5 cm
63. Which assesement finding
indicates hypoglycemia in a
neonate?
a. Tremors
b. Projectile vomiting
c. Diarrhea
d. jaundice a. Left upper quadrant
b. Left lower quadrant
64. Which adverse effect may c. Right upper quadrant
occur in a patient receiving d. Right lower quadrant
bromocriptine mesylate
(parlodel) to prevent 68.The LOA position means
postpartal lactation? that the:
a. Hypotension a. Lie is longitudinal and the fetal
b. Tachycardia occiput is directed toward the left
c. Bradycardia posterior portion of the maternal
d. Breast engorgement pelvis
b. Lie is transverse and the fetal
65. Mrs Bugna, a 25 year old mentum is directed toward the left
has missed 2 menstrual posterior portion of the maternal
periods and is making her pelvis
initial visit to the antepartal c. Lie is longitudinal and the fetal
clicnic. Her last mentrual occiput is directed toward the left
period began on June 3. Using anterior portion of the maternal
the nagele's rule, the nurse pelvis.
would calculate her expected d. Lie is oblique and the fetal
date of delivery as: anterior fontanel is directed
toward the left posterior portion of
a. April 3 the maternal pelvis
b. March 24
c. March 10 69. Which assessment finding
d. February 24 would necessitate bedrest for
Mrs. Og?
(Questions to 66 to 72 refer to this
situaltion) a. 5cm cervical dilation
b. 80% cervical effacement
Situation: Mrs Og gravida 2 para 1 c. Contractions every 5 to 8
is accompanied to the labor and minutes
delivery are by her husband. Both d. 3 station
have attended lamaze classes.
Initial assessment reveals cervical 70. The fetal monitor strip
dilation of 5 cm. Cervical shows an FHR deceleration
assessment 80% station, -3; occurring during the
duration of contractions, 40 to 50 increment of the contraction,
seconds; frequency of reaching its lowest point at
contractions 5 to 8 minutes; the acme of the contraction,
membranes ruptured and returning to the baseline
spontaneousely 1 hour before during the decrement of the
admission; presentation vertex contraction. This type of
and possition left occiput anterior deceleration:
(LOA). Mrs Og, is connected to an
external fetal monitor; a. indicates fetal distress
b. Is caused by uteroplacental
66. Based on the initial insufficiency
assessment findings, the fetal c. Indicates fetal vagal nerve
presenting part is: stimulation
d. is caused by umbilical cord
a. At the level of the pelvic inlet compression
b. At the level of the ischial spines
c. 1 cm below the iscial spines 71.When should the nurse
d. At the perineum assess Mrs. Og's blood
pressure?
67. The fetal heart rate should
be most audible in which a. During the Increment of a
dominant quadrant? contraction
b. Between contractions
c. During the decrement of a
contraction
d. During the acme of a
contraction
72.Which factor would be
most helpful in assessing the
adequacy of placentas
perfusion in Mrs Og?
a. The duration and intensity of
her contractions
b. Her ability to cope with the
discomfort of labor
c. The duration of the rest phases
between contractions
d. The effectiveness of her
breathing techniques during a
contraction
73. A nurse is demonstrating
cord care to a mother of a
neonate. Which actions would
the nurse teach the mother to
perform?
I. Keep the diaper below the cord
II. Tug gently on the cord as it
begins to dry
III. Only sponge bath the infant
until the cord fails off
IV. Apply antibiotic ointment to the
cord twice daily
a. I, II
b. I, III
c. I, IV
d. II, III
74. A nurse is caring for a 3-
year-old with viral meningitis.
Which signs and symptoms
would the nurse expect to find
during the initial assessment?
a. Bulging anterior fontanel, fever,
nuchal rigidity
b. Fever, nuchal rigidity, petechiae
c. Hypothermia, photophobia,
irritability
d. Fever, nuchal rigidity,
photophobia
75.The nurse teaches that the
most frequent side effect
associated with the use of
IUDs is:
a. ectopic pregnancy
b. Expulsion of the IUD
c. Rupture of the uterus
d. Excessive menstrual flow
76.A client seeking advice
about contraception asks the
nurse about an IUD. The nurse genitalia
explains that the IUD provides
contraception by:
a. Blocking the cervical os
b. Increasing the mobility of the expect the physician to order:
uterus
c. Preventing the sperm from
reaching the vagina
d. IUDs interfere with either
fertilization or implantation.
Promoting contraception
77. A diagnostic test used to
evaluate the fertility is the
post coital test. It is best
timed:
a. 1 week after ovulation
b. Immediately after menses
c. Just before the next menstrual
period
d. With in 1 to 2 days of presumed likely to be prescribed for
ovulation
78. One of the most common
causes of hypotonic uterine
dystocia is:
a. Twin gestation
b. Maternal anemia
c. Pelvic contracture
d. Pregnancy-induced
hypertension
79. The safest position for the b. Abortion
woman in labor when the
nurse notes a prolapsed cord
is:
a. Prone
b. Fowlers
c. Lithotomy
d. Trendeirnburg
80. A birth hazard associated
with breech delivery may be:
a. Abruptio placenta
b. Cephalhematoma
c. Pathologic jaundice
d. Compression of the cord
81 .The nurse reaches the
client that gonorrhea is highly c. Controls its transmission
infectious and:
a. is easily cured
b. Occurs very rarely
c. Can produce sterility
d. Is limited to the external
82. When the client is
diagnosed as having
gonorrhea, the nurse should
a. Colistin
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Actinomycin
d. Chloramphenicol
83. The nurse understands
that the organism that causes
a trichomonal infection is a:
a. Yeast
b. Fungus
c. Protozoan
d. Spirochete
84. Tile oral drug that is most
treatment of Trichomonas
vaginalis is:
a. Penicillin
b. Gentian violet
c. Nystatin (Mycostatin)
d. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
85. Acute salpingitis is most
commonly the result of:
a. Syphilis
c. Gonorrhea
d. Dydatidiform mole
86. Syphilis is not considered
contagious in the:
a. Tertiary stage
b. Primary stage
c. incubation stage
d. Secondary stage
87. When teaching a client
about the drug therapy for
gonorrhea, the nurse should
state that it:
a. Cures the Infection
b. Prevents complications
d. Reverses pathologic changes
88. With cancer of the
prostate, it is possible to
follow the course of the
disease by , monitoring the
serum level of:
a. Creatinine
b. Blood urea nitrogen
c. Non protein nitrogen
d. Prostate specific antigen
89. A client is diagnosed with
herpes genitalis. To prevent
cross contammiation, the
nurse should:
a. Institute droplet precautions
b. Arrange transfer to a private
room
c. Wear a gown and gloves when
giving direct care
d. Close the door and wear a mask
when in the room
90. A nurse should be aware
that benign prostatic
hypertrophy:
a. is a congenital abnormality
b. Usually becomes malignant
c. Predispose to hydronephrosis
d. Causes an eievated acid
phosphatase
91. A 4-year-old has a seizure
disorder and has been taking
phenytoin(Dilantin) for 3
years. An important nursing
measure for the child would
be to:
a. Offer the urinal frequently
b. Check for pupilary reaction
c. Observe for flushing of the face
d. Administer scrupulous oral
hygiene
92. In terms of preventive
teaching for the parents of a
1-year-old, the nurse would
speak to them about:
a. Accidents
b. Toilet training
c. Adequate nutrition
d. Sexual development
93. The best choice for
between meal nourishment for
a preschool-age child with a 99. Nursing care for an infant
urinary infection would be: after the surgical repair of a
cleft lip should include:
a. Skim milk
b. Fresh fruit a. Keeping the baby NPO
c. Hard candy b. Keeping the infant from crying
d. Creamed soup c. Placing the infant in a semi-
sitting position
94.When performing a d. Spoon feeding for the first 2
physical assessment of a days after surgery
newborn with Down
Syndrome, the 100. When teaching the
nurse should carefully parents of an infant diagnosed
evaluate the infant's: with PKU, the nurse should
plan to include the fact that:
a. Heart sounds
b. Anterior fontanel a. Mental retardation occurs if PKU
c. Pupillary reaction is untreated
d. Lower extremities b. Treatment for PKU includes life
long medications
95. If monocular strabismus in c. PKU is transmitted by an
children is not corrected early autosomal dominant gene
enough: d. The infant is tested for PKU
immediately after delivery
a. Dyslexia will develop
b. Peripheral vision will disappear
c. Amblyopia develops in the weak
eye
d. Vision in both eyes will be
diminished
96. Chickenpox can sometimes
be fatal to children who are
receiving:
a. Insulin
b. Steroids
c. Antibiotics
d. Anticonvulsant
97. A viral Infection
characterized by a red blotchy
rash and Koplik's spots in the
mouth is:
a. Mumps
b. Rubella
c. Rubeola
d. Chickenpox
98.The major influence of
eating habits of the early
school-aged child is:
a. Availabilitv of food selections
b. Smell and appearance of food
c. Example of parents at meal
time
d. Food preferences of the peer
group
 c. assessing need for medication 10. To ensure reliability of the
and medicating himself study, the investigator
Situation 1 - Jimmy developed this d. writing out a list of behaviors analysis and interpretations
goal for hospitalization. "To get a that he identifies as anxious were:
handle on my nervousness." The
nurse is going to collaborate with 5. The nurse notes a. subjected to statistical
him to reach his goal. Jimmy was effectiveness of Interventions treatment
admitted to the hospital because in using subjective and b. correlated with a list coping
he called his therapist that he objective data in the: behaviors
planned to asphyxiate himself c. subjected to an inter-observe
with exhaust from his car but a. initial plans or order agreement
frightened instead. He realized he b. database d scored and compared standard
needed help. c. problem list criteria
d. progress notes
1. The nurse recognized that Situation 3 - During the morning
Jimmy had conceptualized his Situation 2 - A research study was endorsement, the' outgoing nurse
problem and the next priority under taken in order to identify informed the nursing staff that
goal in the care plan is: and analyze a disabled boy's Regina, 5 years old, was given
coping reaction pattern during Flurazepam (Dalmane) 15 mg at
a. help the client find meaning in stress. 10:00pm because she had trouble
his experience going to sleep. Before
b. help the client to plan 6. This study which is a depth approaching Regina, the nurse
alternatives study of one boy is a: read the observation of the night
c. help the client cope with nurse.
present problem a. case study
d. help the client to communicate b. longitudinal study 11. Which of the following
c. cross-sectional study approaches of the nurse
2. The nurse is guided that Jimmy d. evaluative study validates the data gathered?
is aware of his concerns of the
"here and now" when he crossed 7. The process recording was a. "I learned that you were up till
out which item from this "list of the principal tool for data ten last night, tell me what
what to know" collection. Which of the happened before you were finally
following is NOT a part of a able to sleep and how was your
a. anxiety laden unconscious process recording? sleep?"
conflicts b. "Hmm...You look like you had a
b. subjective idea of the range of a. Non verbal narrative account very sound sleep. That pill you
mild to severe anxiety b. Audio and interpretation were given last night is effective
c. early signs of anxiety c. Audio-visual recording isn't it?"
d. physiological indices of anxiety d. Verbal narrative account c. "Regina, did you sleep we!!?"
d. "Regina, how are you?"
3. While Jimmy was discussing 8. Which of these does NOT
the signs and symptoms of happen in a descriptive study? 12. Regina is a high school
anxiety with his nurse, he teacher. Which of these
recognized that complete a. Exploration of relationship information LE^ST
disruption of the ability to between two or more phenomena communicate attention and
perceive occurs in: b. Exploration of relationships care for her needs for
between two or more phenomena information about her
a. panic state of anxiety c. Manipulation of phenomenon in medicine?
b. severe anxiety real life context
c. moderate anxiety d. Manipulation of a variable a. Guided by a medication
d. mild anxiety teaching plan go over with her the
9. The investigator also purpose, indications and special
4. Jimmy initiates provided the nursing care of instructions, about the medication
independence and takes an the subject. The investigator and provide her a checklist
active part in his self care with is referred to as a/an. b. Provide a drug literature
the following EXCEPT: c. Have an informal conversation
a. Participant-observer about the medication and its
a. agreeing to contact the staff b. Observer researcher effects
when he is anxious c. Caregiver d. Ask her what time she would
b. becoming aware of the d. Advocate like to watch the informative video
conscious feeling about the medication
 is working from the
13. The nurse engages Regina philosophical framework that a. when the client asks, how long
in the process of mutual states: one relationship would be
inquiry to provide an b. during the working phase
opportunity for Regina to a. All behavior is meaningful, c. towards the end of the
communicating a message or a relationship
a. face emerging problems need d. at the start of the relationship
realistically b. Human beings are systems of
b. conceptualize her problem interdependent and interrelated 22. The client says, "I want to
c. cope with her present problem parts tell you something but can you
d. perceive her participation in an c. Each individual has the promise that you will keep
experience potential for growth and change in this, a secret?" A therapeutic
the direction of positive mental response of the nurse is:
14. Which of these responses health
indicate that Regina needs d. There is a basic similarity a. "Yes, our interaction is
further discussion regarding among all human beings confidential provided the
special instructions? information you tell me is not
18. One way to increase detrimental to your safety."
a. "I have to take this medicine objectivity in dealing with b. "Of course yes, this is just
judiciously." one’s fears and anxieties is between you and me. Promise!"
b. "I know 1 will stop taking the through the process of: c. "Yes, it is my principle to uphold
medicine when there is an advice my client's rights."
form the doctor for me to a. observation d. "Yes, you have the right to
discontinue." b. intervention invoke confidentiality of our
c. "I will inform you and the doctor c. validation interaction."
any untoward reactions I have." d. collaboration
d. "I like taking this sleeping pill. It 23. When the nurse respects
solves my problem of insomnia. I 19. All of the following the client's self-disclosure,
wish I can take it for life." response are non therapeutic. this is a gauge for the nurse's:
Which is the MOST direct
15. Regina commits to herself violation of the concept, a. trustworthiness
that she understood and will congruence of behavior? b. loyalty
observe all the medicine c. integrity
precautions by; a. Responding in a punitive d. professionalism
manner to the client
a. affixing her signature to the b. Rejecting the client as a unique 24. Rapport has been
teaching plan that she has human being established in the nurse-client
understood the nurse c. Tolerating all behavior in the interaction time. I am
b. committing what she learned to client committed to have this time
her memory d. Communicating ambivalent available for us while you are
c. verbally agreeing with the nurse messages to the client at the hospital and ends after
d. relying on her husband to your discharge."
remember the precautions 20. The rnentally ill person
responds positively to the a. "The best time to talk is during
Situation 4 - The nurse-patient nurse who is warm and caring. the nurse-client interaction time. I
relationship is a modality through This demonstration of the am committed to have this time
which the nurse meets the client's nurse’s role as: available for us while you are at
needs. the hospital and ends after your
a. counselor discharge."
16. The nurse's most unique b. mother surrogate b. "Yes, if you keep it confidential,
tool in working with the c. therapist this is part of privileged
emotionally ill client is his/her: d. socializing agent communication."
c. "I am committed for your care."
a. theoretical knowledge Situation 5 - The nurse engages d. "I am sorry, though I would
b. personality make up the client in a. nurse-patient want to, it is against hospital
c. emotional reactions interaction. policy."
d. communication skills
21. The best time to inform 25. The client has not been
17. The psychiatric nurse who the client about terminating visited by relatives for
is alert to both the physical the nurse-patient relationship months. He gives a, telephone
and emotional needs of clients is number and requests the
nurse to call. An appropriate
action of the nurse would be:
a. Inform the attending psychiatric d. Insecurity feelings
about the request of the client
b. Assist the client to bring his
concern to the attention of the
social worker
c. "Here (gives her mobile phone). b. neurosis
You may call this number now."
d. Ask the client what is the
purpose of contacting his relatives
Situation 6 - Camila, 25 years old, widow, has been observed to be
was reported to be gradually
withdrawing and isolating herself
from friends and family members. prefer to be alone and take her
She became neglectful of her
personal hygiene. She was
observed to be talking irrelevantly longer bothers to answer
and incoherently. She was
diagnosed as schizophrenia
26. The past history of Camila the Geriatic clinic for assessment
would most probably reveal
that her premorbid personality
is:
a. schizoid
b. extrovert
c. ambivert
d. cycloid
27. Camila refuses to relate
with others because she:
a. is irritable
b. feels superior of others
c. anticipates rejection
d. is depressed
28. Which of the following
disturbances in interpersonal
relationships MOST often
predispose, to the
development of
schizophrenia?
a. Lack of participation in peer
groups
b. Faulty family atmosphere and
interaction
c. Extreme rebellion towards
authority figures
d. Solo parenting
29. Camila's indifference
toward the environment is a
compensatory behavior to
overcome:
a. Guilt feelings
b. Ambivalence
c. Narcissistic behavior
30. Schizophrenia is a/an:
a. anxiety disorder
c. psychosis
d. personality/disorder
Situation 7 - Salome, 80 year old
irritable, demanding and speaking
louder than usual. She would
meals by herself, minimized
receiving visitors al home and no
telephone calls because of
deterioration of her hearing. 'She
was brought by her daughter to,
and treatment.
31. The nurse counsels
Salome's daughter that
Salome's becoming very loud
and tendency to become
aggressive is a/an:
a. beginning indifference to the
world around her
b. attempt to maintain
authoritative role
c. overcompensation for hearing
loss
d. behavior indicative of
unresolved repressed conflict of
the part
32. A nursing diagnosis for
Salome is:
a. sensory deprivation
b. social isolation
c. cognitive impairment
d. ego despair
33. The nurse will assist
Salome and her daughter to
plan a goal which is:
a. adjust to the loss of sensory
and .perceptual function
b. participate in conversation and
other social situations
c. accept the steady loss of
hearing that occurs with aging
d. increase her self-esteem to
maintain her authoritative role
34. The daughter understood,
the following ways to assist
Salome meet her needs and
avoiding which of the
following:
a. Using short simple sentences
b. Speaking distinctly and slowly
c. Speaking at eye level and
having the client's attention
d. Allowing her to take her meals
alone
35. Salome was fitted a
hearing aid. She understood
the proper .use and wear of
this device when she ways
that the battery should be
functional, the device is
turned on and adjusted to a:
a. therapeutic level
b. comfortable level
c. prescribed level
d. audible level
Situation 8 - For more than a
month now, Cecilia is persistently
feeling restless, worried and
feeling as if something dreadful is
going to happen. She fears being
alone in places and situations
where she thinks that no one
might come to rescue her just in
case something happens to her.
36. Cecilia is demonstrating:
a. acrophobia
b. claustrophobia
c. agoraphobia
d. xenophobia
37. Cecilia's problem is that
she always sees and thinks
negative hence she is always
fearful Phobia is a symptom
described as:
a. organic
b. psychosomatic
c. psychotic
d. neurotic
38. Cecilia has a lot of
irrational thoughts: The goal
of therapy is to modify her:
a. communication
b. cognition c. Parents or legal guardian physiological cause of night
c. observation d. Law enforcement authorities bedwetting?
d. perception
43. In an extreme situation a. deep sleep factors
39. Cognitive therapy is and when no other resident or b. abnormal bladder development
indicated for Cecilia when she intern is available, should a or structure problems
is already able to handle nurse receive, telephone c. infections familial and genetic
anxiety reactions. Which of orders, the order has to be factors
the following should the nurse correctly written and signed
implement? by the physician within. 47. All of the following,
EXCEPT one comprise the
a. assist her in recognizing a. 24 hours concepts of behavior therapy
irrational beliefs, and thoughts b. 36 hours program:
b. help find meaning in her c. 48 hours
behavior d. 12 hours a. reward and punishment
c. provide positive reinforcement b. extinction
for acceptable behavior 44. The following are SOAP c. learning
d. administer anxiolytic drug (Subjective - Objective - d. placebo as a form treatment
Analysis - Plan) statements on
40. After discharge, which of a problem: Anxiety about 48. The help Marie who bed
these behaviors indicate a diagnosis. What is the wets at night practice
positive result of being able to objective data? acceptable and appropriate
overcome her phobia? behavior, it is important for
a. Relate patient's feelings to the parents to be consistent
a. she read a book in the public physician initiate and encourage with the following approaches
library her to verbalize her fears give EXCEPT:
b. she drives alone along the long emotional support by spending
expressway more time with patient, continue a discipline with a king attitude
c. she watches television with the to make necessary explanations b matter of fact in handling the
family in the recreation room regarding diagnostic test. behavior
d. she joint an art therapy group b. Has periods of crying, c. sympathize for the child
frequently verbalizes fear of what d. be lowing yet firm
Situation 9 - it is the first day of diagnostic tests will reveal
clinical experience of nursing c. Anxiety due to the unknown 49. A therapeutic verbal
students at the Psychiatry Ward- d. "I’m so worried about what else approach that communicates
During the orientation, the nurse they'll find wrong with me" strong disapproval is:
emphasizes that the team
members including nursing 45. Nursing care plans provide a. You are supposed to get up and
students are legally responsible to very meaningful data for the go in the toilet when you feel you
safeguard patient's records from patient profile and initial plan have to go and did not. The next
loss or destruction or from people because the focus is on the: time you bed wet, I’ll tell your
not authorized to bead it. friends and hand your sheets out
a. Summary of chronological the window for them to see."
41. It is unethical to tell one's notations made by individuals b. "You are supposed to get up
friends and family member’s health team members and go in the toilet when you feel
data bout patients because b. Identification of patient's you have to go and you did not. I
doing so is violation of responses to medical diagnosis expect you to from now on
patients’ rights to: and treatment without fail."
c. Patient's responses to health: c. "If you bed wet, you will change
a. Informed consent and illness as a total person in your bed linen and wash the
b. Confidentiality interaction with the environment sheets."
c. Least restrictive environment d. Step procedures for the d. "If you don't make an effort to
d. Civil liberty management of common control your bedwetting, I'd be
problems upset and disappointed."
42. The nurse must see to it
that the written consent of Situation 10 - Marie is 5 ½ years 50. During your conference,
mentally ill patients must be old and described by the mother the parent inquires how to
taken from: as bedwetting at night. motivate Marie to be dry in
the morning. Your response
a. Doctor 46. Which of the following is which is an immediate
b. Social worker the MOST common intervention would be:

a. Give a star each time she wakes
up dry and every set of five stars,
give a prize
b. Tokens make her materialistic
at an early age. Give praise and
hugs occasionally
c. What does you child want that
you can give every time he/she
wakes up dray in the morning
d. Promise him/her a long awaited
vacation after school is over.
Situation 11 - The nurse is often
met with t-he following situations
when clients become angry and
hostile.
51. To maintain a therapeutic
eye contact and body posture
while interacting with angry
and aggressive individual, the
nurse should:
a. keep an eye contact while
staring at the client
b. keep his/her hands behind
his/her back or in one's pocket
c. fold his/her arms across his/her
chest
c. keep an "open" posture, e.g.
Hands by sides but palms turned
outwards
52. During the pre-interaction disease, which of these
phase of the N-P
relationship/the nurse
recognizes this normal INITIAL
reaction to an assaultive or
potentially assaultive person. b. altered nutritional state
a. To remain and cope with the
incident
b. Display empathy towards the
patient
c. To call for help from the other
members of the team
d. To stay and fight or run away
53. Which of the following is
an accurate way of reporting
and recording an incident?
a. "When asked about his
relationship with his father, client 58. The frequent use of the
became anxious."
b. "When asked about his
relationship with his father, client alleviating which of the
clenched his jaw/teeth made a fist following responses to old
and turned away from the nurse." age?
c. "When asked about his
relationship with his father, client a. Loneliness
was resistant to respond." b. Suspicion
d. "When asked about his c. Grief
relationship with his father, his d. Confusion
anger was suppressed."
59. An elderly confused client
54. To encourage thought. gets out of bed at night to go
Which of the following to the bathroom and tries to
approaches is NOT go to another bed when she
therapeutic? returns. The MOST
appropriate action the nurse
a. "Why do you feel angry?" would take is to:
b. "When do you usually feel
angry?" a. Assign client to a single room
c. "How do you usually express b. Leave a light on all night
anger?" c. Remind client to call the nurse
d. "What situations provoke you to when she wants to get up
be angry?" d. put side rails on the bed
55. A patient grabs a chair and 60. An elderly who has lots of
about to throw it. The nurse regrets, unhappy and
best responds saying. miserable1 is experiencing:
a. "Stop! Put that chair down." a. Crisis
b. "Don't be silly." b. Despair
c. "Stop, the security will be here c. Loss
in a minute." d. Ambivalence
d. "Calm down."
Situation 13 - Graciela 1 ½ year
Situation 12 - Nursing care for the old is admitted the hospital from
elderly. the emergency room with a
fracture of the left femur due to a
56. In planning care for a Tall down a flight of stairs.
patient with Parkinson's Graciela is placed oh Bryant's
traction.
nursing diagnoses should have
priority? 61. While on Bryant's traction,
which of these observations of
a. potential for injury Graciela and her traction
apparatus would indicate a
c. ineffective coping decrease in the effectiveness
d. altered mood state of her traction?
57. A healthy adaptation to a. Graciela's buttocks are resting
aging is primarily related to on the bed
an individual. b. The traction weights are
hanging 10 inches above the floor
a. Number of accomplishments c. Graciela's legs are suspended at
b. Ability to avoid interpersonal a 90 degree angle to her trunk
conflict d. The traction ropes move freely
c. Physical health throughout life through the pulley
d. Personality development in his
life span 62. The nurse notes that the
fall might also cause a
possible head injury. She will
older client's name by the be observed for signs of
nurse is MOST effective in increased intracranial
pressure which include:
a. Narrowing of the pulse pressure
b. Vomiting
c. Periorbital edema
d. A positive Kernig's sign
63. Graciela is assessed to
have no head injury. The
Bryant's traction is removed.
A plaster of Paris his spica is
applied. Which of these
finding as a concern of
immediate attention that must
be reported to the physician
immediately?
a. Graciela is scratching the cast
over her abdomen
b. The toes of Graciela's left foot
blanch when the nurse applies
pressure on them
c. Graciela's cast is still damp
d. The nurse is unable to insert a
finger under the edge of Graciela's
cast on her left foot
64. Part of discharge plan is
for the nurse to give
instructions about the care of
Graciela's cast to the mother.
Which of these statements
indicate that the mother
understood an important
aspect of case care?
a. I will use white shoe polish to
keep the cast neat
b. I will place plastic sheeting
around the perineal area of the
cast
c. I will use cool water to wash the inadequate
cast
d. I will reinforce cracked areas on 69. Jolina continues to
the cast with adhesive tape
65. The nurse counsels
Graciela's mother ways to
safeguard safety white
providing opportunities of
Graciela to develop a sense of:
a. Trust
b. Initiative
c. Industry
d. Autonomy
Situation 14 - Jolina is an 18 year socialization hour so she will start
old beginning college student. Her to relate with others
mother observed that she is
having problems relating with her therapy with other patients
friends. She is undecided about
her future. She has lost insight,
lost interest in anything and
complained and complained of
constant tiredness.
66. Jolina is out on
antidepressant drugs. These
drugs act on the brain
chemistry, therefore they
would be useful in which type
of depression?
a. exogenous depression
b. neurotic depression
c. endogenous depression
d. psychotic depression
67. This is a tricyclic
antidepressant drug:
a. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
c. Setraline (Zoloft)
b. Flouxetine (Prozac)
d. Imipramine (Tofranil)
68. After one week of
antidepressant medication,
Jolina still manifests
depression. The nurse
evaluates this as;
a. Unusual because action of
antidepressant drug is immediate
b. Unexpected because
therapeutic effectiveness takes
within a few days
c. Expected because therapeutic
effectiveness takes 2-4 weeks
d. Ineffective result because
perhaps the drug's dosage is
verbalize feeling sad and
hopeless. She is not mixing
well with other clients. One of
the nurse's important
consideration for Jolina
Initially is to:
a. Formulate a structured
schedule so she is able to channel
her energies externally
b. Let her alone until she feels like
mingling with others
c. Encourage her to join
d. Encourage her to join group
70. During the predischarge
conference, the nurse
suggests vocational guidance
because it should help Jolina
to:
a. Find a good job
b. Make some decision about her
future
c. Realistically assess her assets
and limitations
d Solve her own problems
Situation 15 - Group Approach" in
Nursing.
71. Membership dropout
generally occurs in group
therapy after a member:
a. Accomplishes his goal in joining
the group
b. Discovers that his feelings are
shared by the group members
c. Experiences feelings of
frustration in the group
d. Discusses personal concerns
with group members
72. Which of the following
questions illustrates the group
role of encourager?
a. What were you saying?
b. Who wants to respond next?
c. Where do you go from here?
d. Why haven't we heard from
you?
73. The goal of remotivation
therapy is to facilitate:
a. Insight
b. Productivity
c. Socialization
d. Intimacy
74. The treatment of the
family as a unit is based on
the belief that the family:
a. is a social system and all the
members are interrelated
components of that system
b. as a unit of society needs the
opportunity to change its own
destiny
c. who has therapy together will
tend to remain together
d. is "contaminated" by the
presence of deviant member and
all members need treatment
75. The working phase in
therapy group is usually increasingly tense and upset repeated use
characterized by which of the because of shortening of their b. requires long term treatment in
following? recreation time. To die a hospital based program
escalate possible anger and c. produces less severe symptoms
a. Caution aggression among the clients than that of abuse
b. Cohesiveness it is BEST to play: d. includes characteristics of
c. Confusion tolerance and withdrawal
d. Competition a. religious music
b. relaxation music 84. During the detoxification
Situation 16 - The mental health - c. dance music stage, it is a priority for the
psychiatric nurse functions in a d. rock music nurse to:
variety of setting with different
types of clients. 80. The parents of special a. teach skills to recognize and
children who are behaviorally respond to health threatening
76. Poverty as reflected in disturbed need mental health situations
prevalence of communicable education. Which of these b. increase the client's awareness
diseases, malnutrition and topics would the school nurse of unsatisfactory protective
social ills such as street consider as priority for their behaviors
children, homeless and parents’ class? c. implement behavior
prostitution is a predisposing modification
factor to mental illness. A a. Drug education d. promote homeostasis and
community approach to cope b. Child abuse minimize the client’s withdrawal
with this problem is for the c. Effective parenting symptoms
nurse to support: d. Sex education
85. Commonly known as
a. aggressive family planning Situation 17 - Nurse's in all "shabu" is:
methods practice areas are likely to come
b. provision of social welfare in contact with clients suffering a. Cannabis Sativa
benefits for the poor from acute or chronic drug abuse. b. Lysergic add diethylamide
c. social action c. Methylenedioxy,
d. free clinics and more hospitals
81. The psychodynamic methamphetamine
therapy of substance abuse is d. Methamphetamine
77. The MOST cost effective based upon the premise that hydrochloride
way to meet the mental health drug abuse is:
needs of the public is through Situation 18 - It is common that
programs with a priority goal a. a common problem brought client ask the nurse personal
of: about by socioeconomic questions.
deprivation
a. treatment b. caused by multiplicity of factors 86. Anticipation of personal
b. prevention c. predisposed by an inability to questions is given adequate
c. rehabilitation develop appropriate psychological attention during which phase
d. research resources to manage of the nurse patient
developmental stresses relationship?
78. Lorelle upon discharge d. due to biochemical factors
was referred to a volunteer a. Orientation phase
group where she has learned 82. Being in contact with b. Working phase
to read patterns, cut out reality and the environment is c. Pre-interaction phase
fabric and use a sewing a function of the: d. Termination phase
machine to make simple
outfits that will help her earn a. conscience 87. The client asks for the
in the future. What type of b. ego nurse's telephone number,
activity therapy is this? c. id which of these responses is
d. super ego NOT appropriate?
a. Recreational therapy
b. Art therapy 83. Substance abuse is a. "it is confidential I just don't
c. Vocational therapy different from substance give it to anyone."
d. Educational therapy dependence is than, b. "What would you do with my
substance dependence: number if I give it to you?"
79. In a residential treatment c. "If I say. No to your request,
home for adolescent girl's the a. includes characteristics of what are your thoughts about it?”
clients were becoming adverse consequences and d. "Are you asking for an official
number of the hospital/clinic for c. Needs for safety and Security 96. The nurse should
your reference?" d. Needs for belonging recognize that the unit
primarily responsible for
88. When the client asks about 92. Ricky's mother visited the education and awareness of
the family of the nurse the school nurse. She asked, " the members of the family on
MOST appropriate response is: What should I do when Ricky the ill effects of dangerous
fond his genitalia?" drugs is the:
a. Avoid the situation and redirect Appropriate response of the
the client's attention nurse is for the mother to: a. law enforcement agencies
b. Give a brief and simple b. school
response and focus on the client a. Divert Ricky's attention and c. church
c. "Why don't we talk about your engage him in satisfying activities d. family
family instead?" b. Tell Ricky that it is wrong to
d. Introduce another topic like the keep fondling his genitalia 97. A drug dependent utilizes
client's interests c. Ignore Ricky's behavior because this defense mechanism and
he will outgrow it later enables him to forget shame
89. When the nurse is asked a d. Engage him in computer TV and pain.
personal question, which of games that engage his hands
these reactions indicate a a. repression
need her to introspect? 93. The nurse has one on one b. rationalization
health education sessions with c. projection
a. The client is simply curious Ricky's mother. The mother d. sublimation
b. His/her right to privacy is being understood that for her son to
intruded learn to cope and be 98. This drug produces
c. The client knows no other way independent, she should mirthfulness, fantasies, flight
to begin a conversation constantly provide activities of ideas, loss of train of
d. Some patients are like children for Ricky to be able to: thought, distortion of size,
in seeking recognition from the distance and time, and
nurse a. socialize with people "bloodshot eyes", due to
b. eventually go to school alone dilated pupils.
90. It is 10 o'clock of your c. select and prepare his own food
watch. The client asks, "What d. do activities of daily living a. Opiates
time is it?" The nurse's b. LSD
appropriate response is: 94. All of the following c. Marijuana
activities are appropriate for d. Heroin
a. "Are you bored?" Ricky EXCEPT:
b. "It is 10 o’clock." 99. The nurse evaluates
c. "Why do you ask?" a. Working with clay that-.her health teaching to a
d. "Guess, what time is it?" b. Competitive sports group of high school boys is
c. Preparing and cooking simple effective if these students
Situation 19 - Ricky is a 12 year menu recognize which of the
old-boy with Down’s syndrome. He d. Card and table games following dangers of inhalant
stands 5' ½" and weight 100 lbs. abuse.
He is slim and walks sluggishly 95. Ricky's IQ falls within the
with a limp. He wears a neck range of 50-55. He can be a. Sudden death from cardiac or
brace as support for his neck. X - expected to: respiratory depression
ray of cervical spine showed b. Danger of acquiring hepatitis or
"subluxation of CI in relation to C2 a. Profit from vocational training AIDS
with cord compression." He with moderate supervision c. Experience of "blackout"
attends a school for special b. Live successfully in the d. Psychological dependence after
education. community prolonged use
c. Perform simple tasks in closely
91. The classroom teacher supervised settings 100. The mother of a drug
consults the school for d. Acquire academic skills of 6th dependent would never
guidance on how to take care grade; level consider referring her son to a
of Ricky while inside the, drug rehabilitation agency
classroom. The nurse Situation 20 - The abuse of because she fears her son
considers as priority, Ricky's: dangerous drug is a serious public might just becomes worse
health concern that nurses need while relating with other
a. Physiological needs to address, drugs users. The mother's
b. Need for self-esteem behavior can be described as:
 c. Caretaking
a. Unhelpful d. Supportive
b. Codependent

ANSWER KEY: 34. D 68. C

1. C 35. D 69. C
2. C 36. C 70. C
3. B 37. D 71. C
4. A 38. B 72. B
5. D 39. A 73. B
6. A 40. A 74. A
7. C 41. B 75. B
8. D 42. C 76. B
9. D 43. A 77. B
10. A 44. B 78. C
11. A 45. C 79. B
12. D 46. 80. C
13. D 47. 81. B
14. D 48. 82. B
15. A 49. 83. D
16. D 50. 84. D
17. C 51. D 85. D
18. B 52. B 86. B
19. 53. B 87. A
20. 54. A 88. B
21. 55. A 89. D
22. 56. A 90. B
23. 57. C 91. C
24. 58. D 92.
25. A 59. A 93. D
26. A 60. B 94. B
27. A 61. A 95. C
28. B 62. B 96. D
29. C 63. D 97. A
30. C 64. D 98. B
31. A 65. D 99. A
32. A 66. B 100. A
33. A 67. D