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Continuing Education Hour (CEH) Exam for the Twenty-Sixth

Annual ERCOT Region Operations Training Seminar


Market Participant Training for 2010

Please see correct answers in bold and highlighted below.

ERCOT Update and Overview


1. What is the most important issue to ERCOT at this time?
A. Meeting Nodal go-live schedule of December 2010
B. Maintaining a reliable system
C. Avoiding adverse legislation from the 2011 session
D. Getting a “clean” NERC Compliance Audit

2. What is the primary purpose of Balancing Energy?


A. To make up the second to second differences between load and
generation to maintain scheduled frequency.
B. To make up the difference between the short term load forecast and
generation schedules for each 15 minute interval.
C. To relieve local transmission congestion
D. To pay back Unaccounted for Energy

3. Which of the following will not be a part of Nodal operations?


A. Balancing Energy
B. Ancillary Services
C. Day Ahead Market
D. Reliability Unit Commitment

4. ERCOT ISO can curtail energy schedules:


A. When they are contributing to transmission congestion in ERCOT.
B. Never
C. Only over the DC ties
D. Only during declared emergencies

5. In Nodal Operation:
A. There will be no Zones of any type
B. There will still be Congestion Zones
C. There will be Generation Zones
D. There will be Load Zones

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FERC and NERC Updates
1. The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC) monitors and investigates
__________ markets.
A. Energy
B. Nodal
C. Risk-Based
D. ERCOT
E. None of the Above

2. The North American Electric Reliability Corporation (NERC) has been designated
as FERC’s Electric Reliability Organization (ERO).
A. True
B. False

3. The intent of Reliability Standard _________ is to ensure that System Operators


performing real-time, reliability-related tasks on the Bulk Electric System are
competent to perform those tasks.
A. PER-006-2
B. PER-005-1
C. EOP-005-2
D. EOP-006-2

4. The North American Electric Reliability Corporation (NERC) develops and


enforces reliability standards; assesses adequacy annually via a _______ forecast
and winter and summer forecasts; monitors the bulk power system; and educates,
trains, and certifies industry personnel.
A. 10 month
B. 10 year
C. 10 day
D. 3 year

5. Many areas outside of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission’s (FERC’s)


jurisdictional responsibility are dealt with by State Public Utility Commissions
A. True
B. False

6. Since ______, the North American Electric Reliability Corporation (NERC) has
been committed to ensuring the reliability of the bulk power system in North
America.
A. 1970
B. 2007
C. 1968
D. 2009

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Compliance Update
1. What is the protocol for directives stated in NERC Reliability Standard COM-002-2,
Req. 2?
A. The directive must be clearly stated and logged within 5 minutes by the issuer

B. The directive must be clearly stated by the issuer and logged by the receiving entity that
day

C. The issuer must clearly, concisely, and definitively state the directive, ensure it is
repeated back by the recipient, and acknowledge the correct response

D. All directives must have an assigned NERC identifier for future tracking

2. What items below can be expected as part of an audit of reliability?

A. Review of actively monitored standards

B. Review of open mitigation plans to correct previous violations or those closed within the
last year

C. Possible issues with other NERC Standards that come up during the audit

D. All of the above

3. What performance metrics are in development for Nodal?

A. Reliability performance measures for ancillary services and the current


operating plan
B. Enhanced training requirements for Nodal including simulator exposure
C. Low voltage ride-through requirements for wind farms
D. Reactive capability requirements for wind farms

4. Which is not true about NERC Compliance Violation Investigations?

A. Status updates are publicly posted on the NERC website before the
investigation is complete

B. Entities under investigation will be asked to hold pertinent data for a CVI

C. NERC staff may lead the investigation

D. FERC staff may participate on the investigation team

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Nodal Program Overview – Project Update and Readiness Scorecard
1. In 2010, ERCOT has scheduled system-wide Load Frequency Control (LFC) closed
loop tests to occur in:

A. January, May, and September

B. May, June and July

C. July, August and September

D. February and March

2. __________ is NOT a tab on the Readiness Center:


A. Market Notices
B. Outreach
C. Readiness Scorecard
D. Nodal Advisory Task Force (NATF) Meetings

3. ERCOT will offer each training course from its Nodal Curriculum of Courses at least
once every six to eight weeks until November 2010.
A. True
B. False

4. One feature a Market Participant can obtain only through the secure section of the
Readiness Scorecard is to:
A. Contact the Nodal Executive Sponsor
B. Sort and filter each Market Participant’s readiness status
C. View a summary of that Market Participant’s status for all of its metrics
D. Add a calendar reminder

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ERCOT Network Modeling
1. According to Nodal Protocols, “Transmission Elements” include:
A. Transmission equipment only
B. Resource or generation equipment only
C. Transmission and generation equipment
D. Transmission equipment below 60 KV

2. Nodal Protocols require consistent Network Models. All models must…


A. Reflect the ERCOT system at the “breaker & switch” level
B. Reflect the same day or period of time
C. Use identical equipment naming conventions
D. Use identical testing & validation methods

3. In Nodal, the Network Model Management System (NMMS) will provide the capability
for…
A. Consistent modeling information
B. Transparency of modeling information
C. A single point of entry for all modeling information
D. All of the above

4. Nodal Protocols require that all model changes pertaining to the Network Operations
Model follow the ________ process.
A. Model Change Submission
B. Network Change Submission
C. Network Operations Model Change Request (NOMCR)
D. Resource Asset Registration Form

5. Which model acts as the “source” model or provides the “base model layer” for all
other models?
A. Planning Model
B. CRR Network Model
C. Network Operations Model
D. SCADA Network Model

6. True or False: Nodal Protocols require the continuous telemetry of voltages, flows
and loads.
A. True
B. False

[Questions for ERCOT Network Modeling Continued on Next Page]

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ERCOT Network Modeling (continued)

7. Transmission Service Providers must submit model changes for...


A. Facility or topology changes
B. Equipment limit & rating changes
C. Telemetry mapping additions & changes
D. All of the above

8. True or False: Inaccurate information in the Network Operations Model could


potentially impact CRR Network Models and/or Outage Scheduling?
A. True
B. False

9. What is the furthest date into the future that NOMCRs can be submitted for Network
Operations Models?
A. Up to 6 months in advance
B. Up to 3 months in advance
C. Up to 90 days in advance
D. Up to 1 year in advance

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OTS Commitment Dispatch – Reliability in Day-Ahead Adjustment
Period & Real-Time Operations – Module I:
1. Which of the following is true of Resource Commitment in the Texas Nodal
Market?
A. QSEs may commit Resources in response to Day-Ahead Market or Trade
activities.
B. QSEs may commit Resources simply to produce revenue in Real-Time.
C. ERCOT may commit Resources through the Reliability Unit Commitment
process.
D. All of the above
E. A & B
2. Where does the Reliability Unit Commitment find the expected status for
Resources?
A. The Three-Part Supply Offer
B. The Current Operating Plan
C. The Network Operations Model
D. Resource Telemetry

3. What is the purpose of the Reliability Unit Commitment?


A. To ensure enough Resource capacity is committed in the right locations to
reliably serve the forecasted Load
B. To ensure that enough energy is dispatched in Real-Time to reliably serve the
telemetered load
C. To ensure that enough Resource capacity is committed in the right locations to
re-energize the ERCOT grid after a blackout
D. To ensure that Resources are not decommissioned if they are needed for
reliability

4. Which of the following is not an input to the Reliability Unit Commitment process?
A. Load Forecast
B. Three-Part Supply Offer
C. Output Schedule
D. Current Operating Plan

5. What is the study period of the Day-Ahead Reliability Unit Commitment process?
A. Every hour of the current Operating Day
B. Every hour of the next Operating Day
C. All remaining hours of the current Operating Day
D. Every hour for the next seven days

[Questions for OTS Commitment Dispatch: Module II Continued on Next Page]

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OTS Commitment Dispatch – Reliability in Day-Ahead Adjustment
Period & Real-Time Operations – Module II:

1. Which of the following best describes the purpose of Real-Time Operations?


A. Match generation with demand
B. Operate the transmission system within established limits
C. Operate the system at least cost
D. All of the above
E. A & C

2. Load Frequency Control (LFC) adjusts generation output . . .


A. To achieve the least cost dispatch
B. To manage transmission congestion
C. In response to frequency deviations
D. To match generation frequency to the load frequency

3. What is the goal of SCED?


A. Produce a least-cost generation dispatch while resolving Transmission
Congestion
B. Maintain the system frequency
C. Shed load when there is not enough generation to serve demand
D. Forecast the system demand

4. Which of the following is a function of the Real-Time Network Security Analysis?


A. Dispatch energy
B. Maintain the system frequency
C. Provide a list of security violations for input to SCED
D. Shed load during an emergency

5. Which of the following best describes how Responsive Reserve and Non-Spin
Reserve Ancillary Services are deployed in the Texas Nodal Market?
A. LFC provides the desired output level for Resources providing these services
B. The reserved capacity is deployed by LFC or Operator Instruction and
SCED determines the desired output level.
C. These Ancillary Services are deployed only by Verbal Dispatch Instruction
D. These Ancillary Services are deployed only when SCED fails to solve.

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Outage Scheduler – Module I:
1. The “Actual Start” entry field appears on the Detailed Outage or Summary screen
will not accept entries until ____ hours prior to the Planned Start time.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

2. An ERCOT-issued Digital Certificate is required for access to the Nodal Market


Outage Scheduler.
A. True
B. False

3. The “Nature of Work” pull-down is a required entry field.


A. True
B. False

4. Actual Start and Actual End Dates & Times may be entered on the Detailed Outage
Screen and/or the Summary Page.
A. True
B. False

5. Supporting Information is not required for which of the following Outage types?
A. Forced Outages
B. Unavoidable Extensions
C. Planned Outages
D. Forced Extensions

[Questions for Outage Scheduler: Module II Continued on Next Page]

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Outage Scheduler – Module II:
6. For TSP Planned outages submitted more than 90 days in advance, ERCOT will
approve or reject the request no later than ______ days prior to the proposed Start
Date/Time.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 30
D. 75

7. To indicate that the a Resource will be off-line in an outage request, the HSL and
LSL fields must be set to:
A. The Normal HSL and LSL values
B. The Emergency Limit values
C. One (1) and One (1)
D. Zero (0) and Zero (0)

8. Planned, Maintenance and Forced Outages may be extended _____ times(s).


A. One
B. Two
C. Five
D. Six

9. If a Resource Derating is going to last more than _____ hours, the QSE must enter
a Planned, Maintenance or Forced Outage request as appropriate, based on the
proposed Start Date and Time.
A. 2
B. 24
C. 48
D. 168

10. A Level 1 Maintenance Outages denotes equipment that must be removed from
service within __________ to prevent a possible Forced Outage.
A. 1 hour
B. 24 hours
C. 7 days
D. 30 days

11. Forced Outage requests are automatically accepted by the ERCOT Outage
Scheduler upon submittal.
A. True
B. False

[Questions for Outage Scheduler: Module III Continued on Next Page]

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Outage Scheduler – Module III:
12. Which of the following statements about a Simple Transmission Outage is true?
A. Only involves one Transmission Element
B. May have a duration between 3 and 24 hours
C. Must not cause a topology change or change in the Locational Marginal
Price
D. There’s no such thing as a Simple Transmission Outage

13. Remedial Switching Actions are not a type of Forced Outage.


A. True
B. False

14. What is the purpose of Forced Outage Detection?


A. Uses logic equations to translate breaker and switch status changes into
Transmission Element status changes
B. Notifies ERCOT when an outage is cancelled.
C. Notifies ERCOT that an Opportunity Outage request is pending.
D. Notifies ERCOT when a Warning Message is issued.

15. The Outage Evaluation process runs a sequence of power flow and contingency
studies to determine if submitted outages pose the threat of an insecure operating
state.
A. True
B. False

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Wind Generation in the ERCOT Nodal Market – Modules I & II:
1. In 2009, Wind Generation made up what percentage of ERCOT’s installed
capacity?
A. 1%
B. 6%
C. 11%
D. 19%

2. Senate Bill 20 required which of the following:


A. Customer Choice
B. 20 MW limit on Wind Farms
C. Required designation of Competitive Renewable Energy Zones (CREZ)
D. By 2020 Texas would lead the nation in Solar Energy

3. Significant Wind Generation Challenges include:


A. Difficulty in Forecasting
B. Intermittent Energy Source
C. Dynamic Reactive Control
D. All of the above

4. Who is responsible for producing “Wind Generation Resource Production


Potential (WGRPP) forecasts?
A. Wind Generation Resource
B. ERCOT
C. QSE for WGR
D. Resource Entity

5. Individual WGRPP forecasts are based on:


A. Weather Channel
B. 80% of Installed Capacity of Wind Farms
C. Total ERCOT Wind Power Forecast (TEWPF)
D. Average of last 48 Hour Actual

6. What does Short Term Wind Power Forecast (STWPF) indicate?


A. Most probable value of each WGR’s output
B. How much wind power will be available for the market
C. 80% of Installed Capacity of Wind Farms
D. QSE’s recommended value of each WGR’s output

[Questions for Wind Generation: Module III & IV Continued on Next Page]

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Wind Generation in the ERCOT Nodal Market – Modules III & IV:
7. Which statement about a WGR’s Resource Limit is true?
A. COP HSL must be greater than the WGRPP
B. COP HSL must be less than or equal to the WGRPP
C. COP LSL must be equal to the Minimum Wind Forecast
D. HSL is not required for a WGR

8. Market Rules for WGR’s Resource Limits require the COP to be updated within
______.
A. 3 days of commercial operation of Wind Farm
B. Four hours of receiving updated forecast
C. One hour of receiving updated forecast
D. One SCED dispatch cycle

9. To calculate Capacity Shortfall Charges for RUC, what does ERCOT use to
determine the available capacity from a WGR?
A. COP HSL value at the time of the applicable RUC
B. COP HSL value at the end of the Adjustment period
C. The Real-Time telemetered HSL
D. The higher of “a” and “b”

10. During Real-Time operations, where does SCED get operational data from WGRs
such as status and limits?
A. Telemetry
B. Current Operating Plan
C. MIS certified area
D. Both “a” and “b”

11. How is a WGR typically dispatched WHEN THERE IS NO CURTAILMENT?


A. The WGR’s dispatch level is determined by the QSE
B. The WGR will be dispatched to its nameplate rating
C. The WGR will be dispatched to its telemetered LSL
D. The WGR will be dispatched to its telemetered HSL

12. Which statement is true regarding allowances for deviation above Base Point for
WGRs and Conventional Resources?
A. WGRs have a wider tolerance than Conventional Resources
B. WGRs have a smaller tolerance than Conventional Resources
C. WGRs have a the same tolerance as Conventional Resources
D. Deviations from Base Points are not allowed

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SPS
1. Any entity in ERCOT can install and operate a Special Protection System (SPS)?
A. True
B. False

2. When a Transmission Operator (TO) removes an SPS from service, the TO shall
immediately?
A. Call their QSE
B. Notify the Texas RE
C. Notify ERCOT Operators
D. All of the above

3. SPS Owners will provide a monthly report to ERCOT describing


A. How much longer the SPS will be in operation
B. Each instance an SPS armed/activated and reset
C. The calibration schedule for all SPS’s in their system
D. Any NERC Audit question received regarding their SPS

4. Who submits SPSs for review in the ERCOT Region?


A. Transmission Owners
B. Qualified Scheduling Entities
C. NERC Registered Transmission Service Providers
D. Purchasing/Selling Entities

5. Who is responsible for monitoring the status of SPS components to ensure the
SPS will operate when needed?
A. NERC Registered Balancing Authorities and Load Serving Entities
B. NERC Transmission Operator and Transmission Owners
C. NERC Regional Reliability Organization
D. Texas Regional Entity (Texas RE)

6. Why would a Special Protection System (SPS) be created?


A. To create a market remedy for a high Market Clearing Price
B. To encourage the installation of quick response generation
C. To ensure grid reliability
D. To mitigate the implementation of Under Voltage Load Shed (UVLS)

7. In ERCOT, SPS arming is TRE reportable?


A. True
B. False

[Questions for SPS Continued on Next Page]

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SPS (continued)
8. Owner of SPSs upon installation shall
A. Submit an approval request via a NOMCR
B. Submit a description of the SPS
C. Submit an exit strategy
D. All of the above

9. A Type 2 SPS
A. Must produce an audible alarm
B. Reduces (ramps back) generation
C. Has only local area of impact
D. Involves under-voltage load shedding (ULVS)

10. Which ones are common types of SPSs in ERCOT?


A. Series Reactors Insertion
B. Generator Ramp Back/Tripping
C. Automatic Line Tripping
D. All of the above

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Emergency Operations
1. What is the purpose of keeping accurate records?
A. Major System events will be recreated with information found in the
operator’s logs.
B. The operator needs to be able to tell a good story.
C. The logs give us information on what happened.
D. It is a requirement.
E. The Operator will need accurate records to “major on the majors and minor on
the minors.”

2. During the event that you heard what was the cause of the Hot Point unit trip?
A. The throttle valves didn’t close all the way and the turbine accelerated to over
6000 RPM.
B. The Generator Step-up transformer tripped and exploded.
C. The generation step-up transformer caught on fire and tripped.
D. There was a hydraulic problem that caused the unit to trip.
E. The turbine lube oil pumps never shut down and caused a fire.

3. What entities might be reading the operator’s logs after a major event?
A. Everyone associated with the event.
B. Only ERCOT will be reading the Operator’s logs.
C. Depending on the size and conditions, it could be NERC, FERC, TRE,
ERCOT, PUCT.
D. Only the Shift Supervisor
E. Only Texas Regional Entity will be investigating the event.

4. What happened to cause the Hot Point unit over speed?


A. The generator came apart
B. There was a hydrogen explosion
C. The step up transformer tripped
D. The Operator left the control room to call the System Operator
E. The Governor Valves didn’t close all the way

5. When did the hydrogen explosion occur at the Hot Point unit?
A. Before the generator came apart due to over speed
B. After the generator came apart due to over speed
C. After the transformer ruptured from the falling block wall
D. After the turbine lube oil pumps began fueling the fire with lube oil.
E. After the step up transformer exploded

[Questions for Emergency Operations Continued on Next Page]

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Emergency Operations (continued)

6. What is active listening?


A. Active listening is waiting for the other person to finish before I speak.
B. Active listening is being sure that I capture every word that is said.
C. Active listening is listening while I am writing, this way I can focus on what is
being said.
D. Active listening is making a conscious effort to say absolutely nothing.
E. Active listening is making a conscious decision to hear not only the words
but the message being conveyed.

7. What are two of the five points associated with active listening?
A. Pay attention, be quiet.
B. Show that you are listening by using verbal indicators; Interject opinions when
there is a break in the conversation.
C. Defer judgment; Don’t respond until the end of the conversation
D. Provide feedback; Defer judgment;
E. Talk to the person to help them remain calm; Get off the phone quickly so that
you can log the conversation.

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Generator Voltage Regulators
1. What elements are required for a generator to work?

A. Conductor to carry a current

B. Magnetic field

C. Relative movement between the conductor and the magnetic field

D. All the above

2. The Exciter is the “Back bone” of the generator control system. It is the power source
that supplies ____ current to the voltage regulator which adjusts the magnetizing current
to the field windings of a synchronous generator thereby inducing _____ voltage and
current in the generator.

A. AC/DC

B. DC/AC

3. The voltage regulator and excitation system gives the operator control over?

A. Generator output voltages


B. Generator reactive loading
C. Both

4. MEL stands for Minimum Excitation Limit?

A. True

B. False

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Load Shed Requirements
1. Automatic Under-Frequency Load Shed is initiated by __________.
A. Operator Action
B. Substation Relay Action
C. Generator Relay Action
D. Transient Instability

2. Manual Load Shed is initiated by __________.

A. Operator Action
B. Substation Relay Action
C. Generator Relay Action
D. Transient Instability

3. At what frequency is Block One shed?


A. 59.7
B. 59.3
C. 58.9
D. 58.5

4. If the system frequency fell and Block One circuits tripped, system operators
should take what action after conferring with ERCOT operators?
A. No action since relays arrested frequency decline.
B. Unilaterally shed Block 4 circuits to restore frequency to 60 HZ.
C. Trip Block 4 circuits while restoring an equal amount of Block One circuits.
D. Initiate transformer voltage reduction.

5. If the system frequency fell to 58.9, how much total firm system load would be
shed by UFLS?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 25%

6. A system operator needs to get approval from whom before shedding firm system
load in an emergency where system collapse is imminent?
A. Supervisor
B. Manager
C. Vice President
D. No One

[Questions for Load Shed Requirements Continued on Next Page]

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Load Shed Requirements (continued)

7. The ERCOT Load Shed Table is updated __________.


A. Seasonally
B. Annually
C. Bi Annually
D. When ERCOT annual peak load increases 10%

8. When can the load shed in a Level 3 EEA event be restored?

A. When frequency recovers back to pre-disturbance level


B. As soon as frequency returns to 60 HZ
C. When ERCOT returns to normal operations
D. When ERCOT operators direct you to do so

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