Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

Prepared by HM2 Ismat

1. When was the first large scale use of chemical agents? a) b) c) d) WW I WW II Iraq War Vietnam

2. Terrorists will not use chemical agents because they are difficult to make. a) True b) False 3. M9 Chemical Agent Detection Paper turns what color if a nerve agent is present? a) b) c) d) Gold Green Red Yellow

4. M8 Chemical Detection Paper turns what color when it comes into contact with VX? a) b) c) d) Yellow Red Purple Green

5. What MOPP Level affords the most protection? a) b) c) d) 1 2 3 4

6. Nerve Agents enhance the nerve impulses. a) True b) False 7. Nerve agents enter the body through what area. a) b) c) d) Eyes Skin Respiratory Tract All the above

8. A MARK 1 Kit consists of? a) b) c) d) Atropine 2-PAM CL CANA Both 1 and 2

Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

9. M8 Chemical Detection Paper turns what color when it comes into contact with G class nerve agents? a) b) c) d) Yellow Red Purple Green

10. For severe nerve agent symptoms give how many MARK 1 kits in a row? a) b) c) d) 1 2 3 4

11. How many MARK 1 kits can a non-medical person give? a) b) c) d) 1 2 3 None

12. How long do you wait after giving the first MARK 1 kit before giving another in a patient with moderate symptoms? a) b) c) d) 1 to 2 minutes 3 to 5 minutes 10 to 15 minutes Only one can be given

13. To decontaminate a patient with nerve agent you use? a) b) c) d) Soap and Water 0.5% hypochlorite solution M291 All of the above

14. Chemical agents H, HD, and HN are all what type of agents? a) b) c) d) Nerve Blister Riot Pulmonary

15. Symptoms of mustard agent contact are? a) b) c) d) Miosis Paralysis Blisters Dizziness

16. What antidote is used for lewisite? a) Atropine b) BAL

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c) 2-PAM CL d) CANA 17. Decontamination of blister agents within two minutes will reduce the toxic effects by? a) b) c) d) 10% 25% 50% 75%

18. Which of the following is a blood agent? a) b) c) d) AC HD CS CG

19. What is the initial treatment for cyanides? a) b) c) d) Atropine 10mg IM BAL Sodium Nitrate, IV CANA 10mg IM

20. Which agent smells like new mown hay? a) b) c) d) CG Cl DP AC

21. CS is a highly toxic substance. a) True b) False 22. Lacrimators are also known as? a) b) c) d) Tear Gas Nerve Gas Blood Agents Chocking Agents

23. Decontamination for harassment agents generally consists of? a) b) c) d) Use of M291 0.5% Bleach Solution Washing with baby shampoo Exposure to wind

24. The first priority for first aid for a chemical agent patient is? a) Control massive hemorrhage b) Decontaminate exposed skin c) Treat for shock

Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

d) Adjust patients mask 25. Initial management of a chemical agent casualty is? a) b) c) d) Removal of MOPP gear Decontamination with 0.5% hypochlorite solution Both 1 & 2 None of these

26. What are the three types of Biological Agents? a) b) c) d) Fungus, Bacteria and Viruses Fungus, Bacteria and Toxins Bacteria, Viruses, and Toxins Viruses, Toxins, and Fungus

27. Biological outbreaks that occur in multiple geographical locations are classified as? a) b) c) d) Natural Occurrence Intentional Release Both 1 and 2 Small scale

28. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of biological agent release? a) b) c) d) Unusual disease for geographic area Absence of competent natural vector Restricted geographical distribution, epidemiological grouping or clustering Low morbidity and mortality compared with a normal occurrence of the disease

29. Viruses can be treated with the use of antibiotics. a) True b) False 30. Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers are susceptible to? a) b) c) d) Air Phenolic Disinfectants 1% Bleach Solution Both 2 & 3

31. A dirty bomb could be used by a terrorist organization. a) True b) False 32. What type of radiation is sometimes called penetrating radiation? a) b) c) d) Alpha Beta Gamma None of these

Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

33. A lethal full body dose of radiation is? a) b) c) d) 4 to 5 rem 4 to 5 Sv 400 to 500 mrem 40 to 50 mSv

34. What is the most effective shielding? a) b) c) d) MOPP Suit Wood Aluminum Lead

35. The time of onset of which symptoms will give you an estimate of radiation dose/exposure? a) b) c) d) Diarrhea Nausea and Vomiting Seizures Ataxia

36. Once a patient is removed from a radiation source, Chronic Radiation Syndrome symptoms will resolve. a) True b) False 37. Injuries resulting from a nuclear explosion are treated differently. a) True b) False 38. A patient can be certified decontaminated from a radiological incident with? a) b) c) d) M256A1 M291 AN/PQS 2A AN/VDR 2

39. Biological agents can be detected by? a) b) c) d) Physical Senses Chemical Detectors Laboratory Examination All of the above

40. When biological agents are known to have used, all drinking water must be? a) b) c) d) Boiled Chlorinated Filtered Either a or b

Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

41. Of the nuclear, chemical and biological agents which are considered choking agents? a) b) c) d) GA, GB, GD AC, CK DM, DA, DC CG, CL

42. What is the most frequent complication from exposure to mustard and nitrogen mustard? a) b) c) d) Bronchopneumonia Massive Edema Mechanical Pulmonary Obstruction All of the above

43. The symptoms of watering of the eyes, tightness in the chest, and later symptoms of rapid shallow breathing, painful cough, frothy sputum, cyanosis, clammy skin, rapid feeble pulse, and low blood pressure are symptoms of exposure to? a) b) c) d) Blistering agent Choking agent Blood agent Nerve agent

44. The required dose of sodium thiosulfate 100-200 mg/kg IV per a ten-minute period is necessary after the initial treatment if exposed to what agent? a) Cyanogen Chloride (CK) b) Lewisite (L) c) Phosgene (CG) d) Chlorine (CL) 45. The symptoms of a strong pepper like irritation in the upper respiratory of the eyes with lacrimation, violent uncontrollable sneezing, coughing, vomiting, and feeling of malaise are symptoms of exposure to? a) b) c) d) CN DM CK AC

46. Which of the following are weapons of massdestruction? a) Chemical weapons b) Biological agents c) Nuclear weapons d) All of the above

Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

47. Which of the following warfare agents areused to kill or disable personnel by affecting their blood, nerves, lungs, or stomach? a) CW b) BW c) Nuclear d) All of the above 48. Generally, antipersonnel agents are dividedinto how many types? a) b) c) d) Five Two Three Four

49. Cramps, breathing difficulty, nausea,headache, convulsions, and contractionsof the pupils are all symptoms of whichof the following types of contamination? a) Tear agent b) Nerve agent c) Choking agent d) Blister agent 50. Burns from exposure to mustard vapor will bemore serious in which of the following bodyareas? a) b) c) d) Neck Groin Armpits All of the above

51. A person exposed to a blood agent mayexperience respiratory paralysis within whatlength of time? a) Seconds b) Minutes c) Hours 52. Atropine and 2-PAM C1 oxime are usedto counteract the effects and relieve thesymptoms of which of the following agents? a) b) c) d) Nerve Blood Blister Choking

53. What type of agents are used to producetemporary misery and harassment? a) b) c) d) Blister Choking Riot control Nerve

54. Which of following agents can be usedin BW operations? a) Living organisms b) Toxins c) Microtoxins

Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

d) All of the above 55. Which of the following diseases can bespread as part of a BW attack? a) b) c) d) Cholera Anthrax Both 1 and 2 above Mumps

56. In its early stage, which of the followingis/are symptoms of BW attack? a) b) c) d) Fever Inflammation Malaise Each of the above

57. Nuclear weapons have the capability ofdestroying areas in which of the followingways? a) b) c) d) Blast Shock Nuclear radiation All of the above

58. Nuclear explosions are divided into how manyclasses? a) b) c) d) Five Two Three Four

59. What would be the most effective type ofnuclear strike to use against a battle groupat sea? a) b) c) d) High altitude blast Air blast Surface blast Subsurface burst

60. What type of nuclear strike would beused to destroy satellites and interruptcommunications systems through theeffects of EMP? a) b) c) d) High altitude blast Air blast Surface blast Subsurface burst

61. In what type of nuclear strike would theshock wave near ground zero be greaterthan the blast wave? a) b) c) d) High altitude blast Air blast Surface blast Subsurface burst

62. What are the effects of nuclear weapons? a) Blast waves only

Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

b) Incendiary only c) Radiation only d) Blast waves, incendiary, and radiation 63. If a nuclear blast at night causes you toexperience flash blindness, you can expectyour vision to recover in what length of time? a) b) c) d) 15 minutes 2 hours 3 hours 45 minutes

64. What type of radiation hazard must enter thebody through ingestion or cuts to cause bodilyharm? a) b) c) d) Alpha particles Beta particles Gamma rays Neutrons

65. What is TREE? a) b) c) d) The absorption of EMP by electrical conductors Interference of passive sonar systems The effect of gamma or neutron radiation on shipboard electronic systems Interference of radio transmission throughion fields

66. A survey team is made up of what minimumnumber of personnel? a) b) c) d) Five Two Three Four

67. What person is in charge of a survey team? a) b) c) d) Monitor Recorder Messenger Exec

68. Areas contaminated by CW, BW, or nuclearagents are identified by markers having whatshape? a) b) c) d) Triangular Hexagonal Circular Square

69. Dose rate is expressed in roentgens, whichare gamma ray measurements only. a) True b) False 70. What does the acronym radiac stand for? a) Radiation decontamination and control

Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

b) Radiological activity detection andcomputation c) Radioactivity defense, identification, andinstrument calibration d) Radioactivity detection, indication, andcomputation 71. The nonself-reading, high-range casualtydosimeter measures what maximum amountof gamma radiation? a) b) c) d) 5 roentgens 200 roentgens 600 roentgens 200 milliroentgens

72. What kit is used to check areas suspectedto have been contaminated by CW agents? a) b) c) d) M248A2 kit M256A1 kit M258A1 kit M262A2 kit

73. Which of the following actions shouldpersonnel topside take if an airburst occurs? a) b) c) d) Close their eyes Drop to the deck Cover as much exposed skin as possible All of the above

74. Which of the following pieces of protective equipment is/are the most important in protecting you against CBR agents? a) b) c) d) Coveralls Protective mask Both 1 and 2 above Steel-toed shoes

75. Protective masks serve how many functions? a) b) c) d) One Two Three Four

76. You should be able to don and adjust your protective mask in what maximum amount of time? a) b) c) d) 10 seconds 20 seconds 30 seconds 40 seconds

77. The MCU-2/P protective mask has howmany voice emitters? a) b) c) d) One Two Three Four

78. The chemical protective overgarmentconsists of how many parts?

Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

a) b) c) d) One Two Three Four

79. The chemical protective overgarment canbe used for protection against radiologicalcontamination. a) True b) False 80. Which of the following statements bestdescribes the purpose of the mission orientedprotective posture (MOPP)? a) b) c) d) Provides a means to establish levels ofreadiness Provides a method for identifying agents Provides a means to prevent contaminantsfrom entering the ship Provides a method for cleansing the shipof CBR agents

81. At what MOPP level would all protectiveequipment be worn with the hood up andsecured? a) b) c) d) 1 2 3 4

82. How many levels of decontaminationare there? a) b) c) d) One Two Three Four

83. A decontamination team usually consistsof how many people? a) b) c) d) Five Two Six Four

84. What is the most effective way todecontaminate biological agents? a) b) c) d) Burning Using dry heat Using steam under pressure Using a chemical disinfectant

85. Aboard ship, a decontamination stationhas how many parts? a) b) c) d) One Two Three Four

86. Showering will destroy nuclear and biologicalagents.

Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

a) True b) False 87. The Collective Protection System (CPS)consists of how many protection zones? a) b) c) d) One Two Three Four

88. Which of the following CPS levels providesthe maximum operational protectionenvelope? a) b) c) d) Level I Level II Level III Level IV

89. Which of the below is not true concerning the use of chemical and biological agents? a) They do not destroy material b) Chemical agents produce effects within seconds while biological agent effects are not produced for several hours to days c) Immunization is not effective against chemical agents d) Biological agents are more suited for their tactical use 90. What type of material is more resistant to nerve gas? a) b) c) d) Polyester/Butyl rubber Cloth Leather Wood

91. Which of the below is not true concerning blister agents? a) b) c) d) Symptoms from exposure to mustards do not appear for several hours There is no effective treatment once symptoms appear They exert their primary action on the skin Mustard (HD) is less volatile & more persistent than nitrogen mustard (HN)

92. What is the most frequent complication from exposure to mustard and nitrogen mustard? a) b) c) d) Bronchopneumonia Massive edema Mechanical pulmonary obstruction All of the above

93. Which of the below is not true concerning the Vesicant Lewisite (L)? a) Dimpercarprol is a peanut oil suspension for injection and is given in the case of systemic involvement b) British anti-lewisite (BAL) is somewhat toxic & injection of more than 3 mg/kg will cause severe symptoms c) If the eyes are affected, flush immediately with copious amounts of water

Emergency Medicine/CBR Warfare Pre-test

d) Sodium sulfacetamide, 30% solution, may be used to combat eye infections immediately after exposure 94. The symptoms of watering of the eyes, tightness in the chest, later symptoms of rapid, shallow breathing, painful cough, frothy sputum cyanosis, clammy skin, rapid feeble pulse, and low blood pressure are symptoms of exposure to? a) b) c) d) Blister agents Choking agents Blood agents Nerve agents

95. Which of the below is not true concerning lacrimators? a) b) c) d) Facing the wind will aid in eliminating tear agents in the eyes Orthochlorobenzsilidine malanonitrile is more potent than chloracetophenone Chest discomfort may be relieved by talking Symptoms following severe exposure seldom last more than 12 hours

96. What is the specific therapy for a victim exposed to a psychochemical agent? a) b) c) d) Prevent victim from injuring themselves or others There is no specific therapy Physostigmine is effective during the first 4 hours Atrophine because BZ is a cholinergic blocking agent

97. Flash blindness from a nuclear explosion normally persists for? a) b) c) d) 5-15 minutes 20-30 minutes 30-45 minutes 45-60 minutes

98. What type of clothing is best suited for protection during a nuclear exploision? a) b) c) d) Tight fitting, dark colored nylon Loose fitting, light colored nylon Loose fitting, light colored wool Loose fitting, light colored cotton

99. What type of diet should a radiation casualty be placed on? a) b) c) d) High calorie High protein High residue Bland, nonresidue

100. After emergency treatment is rendered in the contaminated emergency treatment station, the nuclear casualty should be taken to the? a) b) c) d) Decontamination station Clean emergency treatment station Sorting station Category I treatment station