Ma. Cecilia L. Alitagtag Section A. Group 3 I.

MATCHING TYPE: From the list of diseases below, match them with the descriptive terms and write the letters before each number a. Diphtheria b. Rabies c. Influenza d. Catarrhal jaundic e. Leptospirosis f. Encephalitis A. SYNONYMS g. Poliomyelitis h. Syphilis i. AIDS j. Leprosy k. Meningitis B. CAUSATIVE AGENT

K 1. Spotted Fever A 6. Klefs Loffler Bacillus F 2. Brain fever 7. Hepatitis RNA virus C 3. La Grippe I 8. HTLV-III B 4. Lyssa D 9. L. Pyrogenes J 5. Hansens Disease H 10. Treponema Pallidum II. IDENTIFICATION: 11-13 The three pathognomonic signs of menigeal irritation. Dry skin 14. Loss of skin turgor; laundry womans hands 15. Unilocular lesions which tends to spread in certrifugal manner. 16. Multilocular lesions which tend to spread centripetal manner. 17. Enlargement of the Peyers patches 18. Characterized by remittent fever and rose colored spots in the abdomen. 19. Most common complication of morbilli. 20. A scab is a secondary lesion caused by the secretions of vesicle drying on the skin. 21. A complication of shingles that can cause blindness Poliomyelitis 22. It is also called as Heine-Media disease. 23. Test when there is an increase of CHON in the spinal fluid. 24. What type of poliomyelitis in which the patient should be placed in the iron lung machine. 25. It is the toxin produces the spasm of the voluntary muscles and convulsion of tetanus. 26. Rashes appear first behind the ears and spread to the hairline of the forehead. 27. There is diminished production of platelets due to generalized intravascular clotting. 28. One of the clinical diagnostic criteria of dengue hemorrhagic fever manifested by rapid weak pulse with narrowing of pulse pressure (20 mm Hg or less) or hypotension, with cold clammy skin and restlessness. 29. Is a disease complex characterized by a collapse of the bodys natural immunity against diseases? 30. Of the three species of blood flukes or schistosomes, only one is endemic in the Philippines. III. Multiple choice Select the best answer and write the letter opposite the number.

D 31. The following diseases are characterized by the appearance of the skin rashes caused by a virus except: a. measles b. varicella/chicken pox c. small pox/variola d. scarlet fever B 32. Measles cases are isolated in a darkened room because of the following: a. glaring lights are hurting the eyes b. the patients have photophobia c. only a d. all of the above D 33. Bed rest must be stressed for influenza cases to: a. conserve strength and energy b. prevent relapse c. prevent post flu complication d. all of the above. A 34. The limitation of movement of exposed to the disease is: a. isolation b. quarantine c. segregation d. separation A 35. Procedure observed to protect patient environmental microorganism a. medical aseptic technique b. reverse isolation c. segregation s. separation I. Matching Type: The list of disease below, match them with the descriptive terms and write the letters opposite each number: a. Pulmonary Tuberculosis b. Typhoid Fever c. Herpes Zoster d. Amoebic Dysentery e. Tetanus A. SYNONYMS C 1. Shingles C 2. Chicken Pox A 3. Kochs Disease G 4. Icterus Epidemicus I 5. Measles f. Malaria g. Infectious hepatitis h. Schistosomiasis i. Rubeola j. Rubella B. CAUSATIVE AGENT F 6.Protoza Plasmodia H 7. S. Japonicum D 8. Entamoeba Histolytica B 9. Salmonela Typhosa E 10. Clostridium Tetani

PATHOGNOMICS OF THE DISEASE Cholera 11. Rice Watery stools; carpopedal tetany Amoebiasis12. Bloody and mucoid stools Diphtheria 13. Presence of pseudomembrane

Meningococcemia 14. Intermittent attacks of chills and fevers Measles 15. Presence of Koplicks spot II. Multiple Choice: Select the best answer and write the letter opposite the number: C 16. In assessing the symptom of a typhoid suspect, a nursing history by the nurse includes: a. source of drinking water a. only c and a b. eating habits b. c only c. environmental factors c. all of these d. type of food eaten D 17. Dysentery is a term that denotes these symptoms except: a. colicky pain b. tenesmus c. chills, fever with nausea d. bloody mucoid stools D 18. Preventive measure against gastro-intensial disease should be more emphasized on: a. health education program on the 3 Fs b. environmental sanitation especially in water supply c. only a and b d. all of the above 19. Melena in typhoid fever is one symptom a nurse should report to the doctor as a sign of: a. ulceration of the Peyers patches b. irritation of mucosa of large bowel c. rupture of the ileum d. stomach bleeding and rectum A 20. The time interval between infection and the appearance of signs and symptoms is a/an: a. infective stage b. period of communicability c. incubation period B 21. Aside from IHN, Streptomycin and PAS, what other anti-tuberculosis drug is being used in TB control? a. penicillin b. rifampicin c. tetracycline d. ampicillin C 22. This is a febrile disease of indefinite clinically characterized by intermittent attack of chills, fever, anemia and enlargement of the spleen: a. dengue fever b. h-fever c. Malaria d. Infectious hepatitis A 23. Oresol is highly recommended in the management of diarrhea. Because of its taste, it is better to give it: a. alone as a solution b. mixed with sugar c. mixed with soft drinks d. with fruit juices B 24. When there is vomiting with diarrhea, the nurse may advice the patient:

a. to discontinue taking the oresol b. continue taking the oresol in small amounts without anti-diarrhea drugs c. discontinue taking the oresol with anti-emetic drug d. continue the oresol without anti-diarrhea drugs. B 25. Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhosa. The disease is transmitted through: a. air and water b. water, food and milk c. bite of mosquito d. bite of herbivorous animal B 26. Infectious hepatitis is also popularity known as: a. catarrhal jaundice a. all of these b. hepatitis A b. both a and b. c. Serum hepatitis c. only b B 27. The tertian type of malaria is caused by: a. P. vivax b. P.ovale c. P. malariae d. P.falciparum B 28. One of the diagnostic examinations for dengue fever in order to detect unusual capillary fragility: a. (+) pandy test b. tourniquet test c. Schick test d. Neifield-Quelling Test D 29. When giving daily skin care to measles patient, the nurse should: a. use germicidal soaps b. apply anti-pruritis drugs c. apply blotting and patting method to the skin d. all of the above A 30. Nurses assigned to a diphtheria ward should be shick tested: a. to determine susceptibility b. to test sensitivity to diphtheria c. to determine signs of asphyxia d. to determine isolation III. DIRECTION: Encircle the best answer Ms. Sharon Cuneta, 25 years old comes to the antepartal clinic after having missed one menstrual cycle period. It is confirmed that she is 6 weeks pregnant. This is her first pregnancy. D 1. It is determined the Ms. Cuneta is suspectible to rubella. When would it be most appropriate for her to receive rubella immunization? a. Immediately b. During 2nd trimester c. Within 2 weeks before her expected date d. During her postpartum hospitalization A 2. German measles when incurred by a woman during the 1st trimester of pregnancy may result congenital defects of the newborn. a. Deaf mutism a. all of these

b. Microcephally c. Congenital cataract d. Congenital immunity

b. only a c. only d

A 3. German measles is: a. A viral disease a. all of these b. A serious disease b. only a c. One lasting immunity c. all except b d. Result to congenital defects of the newborn in the 1st trimester of pregnancy A 40 year old patient was referred to SLH with the complaints of easy fatigability, loss of appetite, night sweating and afternoon fever. A skin test and sputum test for acid fast bacilli is ordered. D 4. Skin test for TB is called: a. Schick test b. Pandy test c. Widal test d. Mantoux test B 5. The above test for TB where 5 units of purified protein derivative is given done by injecting a. Intravenously b. Intradermally c. Subcutancously d. Intramuscularly e. Both b and c D 6. Which of the following vitamin is frequently prescribed to patient receiving INH and Rifampicin to prevent peripheral neuritis? a. Vitamin B b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin B12 B 7. An infectious hepatitis patient may have an impaired function of the liver, like the storage of: a. Glycogen b. Bile c. Fats d. Protein D 8. Nursing care for influenza is generally: a. Prophylactic b. Symptomatic and supportive c. Therapeutic d. Preventive D 9. The intermediate vector of schistosomiasis is: a. Mosquitoes b. Flies c. Mice or rats d. Fresh water snail B 10. During the excitement stage or rabies, the nurse must do the following EXCEPT: a. Provide a quiet environment, free from stimuli b. Offer fluid to relieve laryngeal spasm c. Provide a room away from utility room

d. Quiet isolation room C 11. A vaccine which can be used to immunize against hepatitis B: a. Bacillus calmette gurin b. Salk vaccine c. Engerix B/hepaccine d. Gamma globulin A 12. Rabies can be prevented by: a. Immediate treatment after a dog bite b. Observation of the dog for 10 days before treatment is started c. Killing the dog with rabies d. Maintaining good body resistance A 13. An injection of vaccine produces: a. Acquired immunity b. Natural immunity c. Congenital immunity d. Inherited immunity 14. Richard got his booster dose of tetanus toxoids at age 3. At the age of 6 he got contaminated wound. The nurse must remember in deciding to instruct the parents that a booster dose of tetanus toxoids is: a. To be given if more than 5 years have elapse since last dose b. To be given if more than 3 years have elapse since last dose c. To be given or reinforcement of immunity regardless of the length of time from the last dose d. Not necessary in this case C 15. A body defense against infection called: a. Immunity b. Disinfection c. Immunization d. Antibody B 16. The inability of the patient to extend his legs when the thighs are flexed toward abdomen: a. Kernigs sign b. Babinskis sign c. Brudzinskis sign d. Romberg sign 17. The damage of the heart and CNS in diphtheria is due to: a. Endotoxins b. Exotoxins c. Inclusion body d. Tetanospasmin C 18. When typhoid fever is constantly present to a lesser degree or greater degree in Malabon only is called: a. Pandemic occurrence b. Epidemic occurrence c. Endemic occurrence d. Sporadic occurrence C 19. In which of the following does enteric isolation differ from respiratory isolation: a. A mask is worn a. only a b. A gown maybe worn b. both a and b c. The patient is isolated from the other c. all of the above A 20. The exanthema of typhoid which usually appears on the abdomen

a. Petechiae b. Rose colored spots c. Foreheimers sign d. Stimsons line C 21. The mode of transmission of cholera is thru the following except: a. Ingestion of contaminated foods and water b. Contact with infected persons and carries c. Contamination through flies d. Infection of the flood thru insect bites A 22. Mumps is most contagious: a. When swelling of the parotid b. 24 hours before the swelling until it subsides A 23. The virus of the chicken pox is found in the: a. Contents of the vesicles and the crust b. Discharges of the respiratory tract c. Bothe a and b d. Only b D 24. Enteric isolation includes the following: a. Proper disposal of stool b. Disinfection of urine and vomitus c. Disinfection of bedpans d. All of the above e. Only a A 25. Chicken pox is characterized by: a. Very high fever and severe symptom a. all of the above b. Sudden onset b. only c and d c. Typical rash to become vesicle c. all except a d. A long permanent immunity A 26. Sign of intracranial pressure is meningitis in infant: a. Bulging of the fontanel a. all of the above b. Lethargy b. both a and b c. Irritability and restlessness c. both c and d d. Projectile vomiting C 27. A specific, acute infectious disease transmitted by direct inoculation from an infected animal to man is called: a. Tetanus b. Dengue fever c. Rabies d. Malaria D 28. A specific infectious disease produced by any one of four protozoan parasites, which is transmitted to man by the bite of an infected mosquito is called: a. Ague a. a and b only b. Dengue fever b. b and c only c. Hemorrhagic fever c. only d d. Malaria d. all of the above A 29. Drugs to prevent or arrest the growth of bacteria a. Antibiotics b. Anti-emetics c. Becteriostatics

d. Antacids 30. Any skin eruptions that invade the skin are called: a. Enanthem b. Exanthema c. Rashes d. Lesions C 31. The causative agent of rabies: a. Arbovirus b. Megri bodies c. Rhabdovirus d. Both a and b 32. The short course chemotherapy for TB is good for 6 months. In case the patient fails to take regularly, the daily dose of the drug, the period maybe extended to: a. 1 month b. 1 year c. 2 years d. Cannot be extended, so discontinue the treatment A 33. Which is given to pregnant women as prophylaxis against German measles a. Gamma globulin b. Toxoid c. Anti-toxin D 34. AIDS is caused by a specific virus which has recently been given a new name; Human Immune deficiency Virus (HIV). This is a/an a. Arbovirus b. Rhinovirus c. Adenovirus d. Retrovirus D 35. Which of the following are not vulnerable to AIDS? a. Drug addicts b. Women who have had sex partners c. Person aging 20 to 40 years old d. Person who use condom