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Home Questions Final FRCR part A questions Neuro radiology

Neuro set 1

Submitted by admin on Fri, 2010-02-12 11:41

Module 6: Neuroradiology, Spine, and Head & Neck

Dental imaging 1

a) supernumerary teeth are associated with Gardners syndrome

b) apical cysts erode the lamina dura

c) loss of the lamina dura is seen in hypoparathyroidism

Causes of thalamic lesions on MRI 2

a) lead poisoning

b) Wernickes encephalopathy

c) acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

d) biliary encephalopathy

e) neonatal hypoxic injury

Regarding cerebral lymphoma in the immunocompromised patient 3

a) headache is a presenting feature

b) there is more surrounding oedema than in immune competent patients

c) ring enhancement is seen

d) lesions are typically multiple

e) Hodgkins disease is more frequent than NHL

Regarding cranial intraparenchymal AVMs 4

a) they are associated with hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia in 60%

b) flow-related aneurysms are seen in the vicinity of the lesion

c) a prominent draining vein is seen on MRI in more than 50%

d) more than 20% occur in the posterior fossa

Colloid cysts 5

a) are typically of water signal on T1-weighted MR

b) arise from the floor of the third ventricle

c) may show rim enhancement

d) cause hydrocephalus

e) produce symmetrical ventricular enlargement

Widening of the interpedicular distance is seen in 6

a) achrondroplasia

b) acromegaly

c) myelomeningocoele

d) ependymoma

Regarding carotid Doppler ultrasound 7

a) the external carotid artery arises anteromedial to the internal carotid

b) a peak systolic flow of 150 cm s-1 equates to a 50% stenosis

c) a Doppler angle of 70-90 degrees is required to minimise error

d) spectral broadening alone signifies significant stenosis

e) surgical treatment is beneficial in symptomatic patients with 50% stenosis

Glomus jugulare 8

a) presents with pulsatile tinnitus

b) arises from the middle ear

c) typically erodes into the posterior cranial fossa

d) when erosion of the jugular foramen is seen on CT, the diagnosis is confirmed

e) is supplied by the posterior auricular artery

Concerning cerebral involvement in HIV infection 9

a) bacterial infections are common than non-bacterial

b) toxoplasmosis typically causes a thick peripheral rim of enhancment

c) thallium-201 can be used to distinguish between toxoplasmosis and lymphoma

d) leptomeningeal disease is typical of toxoplasmosis

Enhancing suprasellar masses may be due to 10

a) sarcoidosis

b) germinoma

c) tuberculosis

d) mucopolyssacharidosis

e) metastatic breast carcinoma

The following are true of dysthyroid eye disease 11

a) Graves disease commonly involves the inferior and medial rectus muscles

b) An increase in the retro-orbital fat in the presence of normal muscle is recognised

c) Unilateral disease may occur

d) The retro-orbital fat may calcify

In Dandy-Walker malformation 12

a) There is an abnormality of the cerebellar tonsils

b) The cyst communicates with the fourth ventricle

c) The cerebellar hemispheres are widely separated

d) Hydrocephalus is present in 10% of patients

The following are true of meningiomas 13

a) the en plaque variety is typically hypervascular

b) they are the commonest primary brain tumour

c) hyperostosis indicates bony infiltration

d) they are a feature of neurofibromatosis type 2

e) optic nerve meningiomas occur more commonly in children

Adenoid cystic carcinoma of the head and neck 14

a) arises most commonly from the minor salivary glands

b) late recurrence is common

c) arise from the sphenopalatine space

d) are unusual under the age of 20 years

e) has a propensity for perineural spread

Regarding cerebral infections 15

a) in the normal population, Streptococcus is the commonest cause

b) haematogenous infection preferentially goes to the anterior circulation

c) erosion of the petrous apex can cause 6th nerve palsy

Regarding CT and MRI of the spine 16

a) the fallen fragment sign is characteristic of an aneurysmal bone cyst

b) blood-fluid levels are characteristic of haemangioma

c) CSF flow artefacts are more conspicuous on T1- than T2-weighted images

d) an intra-articular osteoid osteomas produces dense sclerosis

Regarding magnetic resonance angiography 17

a) it can be used to screen for 3-4 mm intracerebral aneurysms

b) saturation techniques cancel out the signal in time of flight imaging

c) phase contrast imaging is better for quantitative measurement than time of flight imaging

d) phase contrast imaging can detect flow in all directions

Ring enhancement occurs with the following lesions 18

a) porencephalic cyst

b) lymphoma

c) toxoplasmosis

d) multiple sclerosis

Mucocoele of the sinus 19

a) rarely affects children

b) is usually associated with sinusitis

c) affects the maxillary antrum most commonly

d) is a recognised cause of pulsatile proptosis

e) is known to calcify

Features of Arnold-Chiari malformation type 1 20

a) scalloping of the petrous pyramid

b) a large posterior fossa

c) displacement of the fourth ventricle

d) thinning of the tentorium

e) normal sized ventricles are rare

In CT of the pituitary 21

a) enhancement is less than that of the cavernous sinus

b) microadenomas are reliably diagnosed

c) the gland shows homogeneous enhancement

d) the gland may normally have a convex superior border

e) adenomas show greater enhancement than normal pituitary tissue

The following are true 22

a) The optic canal is invariably widened by a glioma which has caused blindness

b) Calcification is specific for meningioma

c) There is thickening or the orbital muscles in exophthalmos due to thyrotoxicosis

d) There is increased orbital fat in thyroid exophthalmos

e) Phleboliths are associated with orbital haemangioma

Papilloedema is seen in 23

a) carbon monixide poisoning

b) cor pulmonale with hypoxia

c) constrictive pericarditis

d) benign intracranial hypertension

e) cavernous sinus thrombosis

Intervertebral disc narrowing is a feature of 24

(a) juvenile osteochondrosis (Scheuermanns disease

b) ochronosis

c) metastases

d) osteoporosis

e) pyogenic osteomyelitis of the spine

Atlanto-axial dislocation occurs in 25

a) rheumatoid arthritis

b) ankylosing spondylitis

c) pharyngeal sepsis in children

d) gout

e) scleroderma

Carcinoma of the larynx 26

a) arises most commonly on the true cord

b) subglottic extension is best detected by laryngoscopy

c) extension to thyroid cartilage is best detected by isotope bone scan

d) evidence of obliteration of the pre-epiglottic space on CT indicates supraglottic spread

Cerebral arteriovenous malformation 27

a) occurs most commonly in the middle cerebral artery territory

b) the risk of rebleeding increases with size

c) tend to rebleed

d) calcify in 50%

e) are associated with aortic coarctation

Calcification of the intervertebral disc is seen in 28

a) ochronosis

b) psoriasis

c) Reiters syndrome

d) anklyosing spondylitis

e) anklyosing spondylosis

Intracerebral calcification occurs in 29

a) toxoplasmosis

b) tuberous sclerosis

c) glioma

d) Wilsons disease

e) Hypoparathyroidism

Cerebellar atrophy occurs in 30

a) bronchial carcinoma

b) wilsons disease

c) tuberous sclerosis

d) alcohol abuse

Spinal dysraphism is associated with 31

a) diastomatomyelia

b) intrathecal dermoid

c) atrophy of the filum terminale

d) hydrocephalus

Subdural haematoma 32

a) can be isodense at one week

b) is hyperdense at three weeks

c) acutely, can be isodense in patients with iron deficiency anaemia

d) up to one third of chronic subdural haematomas calcifiy

e) hydrocephalus indicates infratentorial haemorrhage

Causes of a hot nodule on a thyroid scintigram include 33

a) thyroid carcinoma

b) adenoma

c) focal thyroiditis

d) simple colloid cyst

e) autonomous nodule

Regarding the orbit 34

a) retinal detachment can be distinguished from vitreous haemorrhage on US

b) metastases rarely involve the bone

c) pseudotumours are associated with autoimmune disesase

d) rhabdomyosarcoma is most frequent in the second decade

e) retinoblastoma is bilateral in one third of cases

The mandible 35

a) is rarely a site of metastatic disease

b) Midline fractures a feature of LeFort III facial injuries

c) most frequently fractures through the ramus

d) alveolar squamous cell carcinoma can cause periosteal reaction

e) hypoplasia is recognised in stills disease

Calcification of brain metastases is reported with the following primary tumours 36

a) colon

b) breast

c) lung

d) oesophagus

e) kidney

MEN type 2 is associated with 37

a) medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

b) phaeochromocytoma

c) parathyroid adenoma

d) pineal adenoma

e) pancreatic adenoma

The following are true of acoustic neuroma 38

a) erosion of the crista falciformis occurs only if the tumour is large

b) it is the commonest tumour of the cerebellopontine angle

c) widening of the internal auditory meatus may result

d) erosion of the petrous apex is an early sign

e) there is an association with phaeochromocytoma

f) if bilateral, neurofibromatosis should be considered

Regarding neurofibromatosis 39

a) gyral calcifcation occurs

b) it can cause posterior scalloping of vertebral bodies

c) bilateral acoustic neuromas are suggestive of the diagnosis

d) there is a recognised association with pseudoarthrosis

Gyral calcifcation may be seen in 40

a) Sturge-Weber syndrome

b) neurofibromatosis

c) herpes encephalitis

d) combination therapy with intrathecal methotrexate and radiotherapy

e) toxoplasmosis

Concerning pituitary tumours 41

a) microadenomas do not exert a mass effect

b) microadenomas do not erode the sella

c) microadenomas doe not enhance to the same extent as the normal gland following IV contrast at CT

d) they are best detected on T2-weighted MR

e) the empty sella is a recognised cause of sella erosion

The following are recognised associations 42

a) medullary thyroid carcinoma and parathyroid adenoma

b) phaeochromocytoma and bilateral acoustic neuromas

Adamantinoma of the jaw 43

a) is multilocular

b) most commonly occurs at the angle of the mandible

c) contains densely calcified dental tissue

d) is associated with colonic polyposis

e) occurs only in the mandible

Calcification is typical in the following lesions 44

a) rhabdomyosarcoma

b) granulomatous pseudotumour

c) retinoblastoma

d) optic nerve glioma

The following are typical features of optic nerve meningioma 45

a) tubular thickening of the optic nerve

b) occurrence in childhood

The following structures return high signal on T1-weighted MRI 46

a) spinal cord

b) glenoid labrum

c) haemopoietic marrow

d) cerebrospinal fluid

e) subcutaneous fat

The following spinal injuries are regarded as stable 47

a) anterior subluxation

b) flexion teardrop fracture

c) unilateral interfacetal dislocation

d) pillar fracture

e) wedge compression fracture

Features of acquired cholesteatoma include 48

a) erosion of the scutum

b) displacement of the auditory ossicles

c) soft tissue density

d) labyrinthine fistula

Regarding sinusitis 49

a) contrast enhancement at ct indicates a mucocele

b) isolated ehtmoid involvement occurs in children

c) the maxillary sinus in the commonest site of disease

d) sphenoid sinusitis never spreads to the orbits

The salivary glands 50

a) calculi most frequently occur in the parotid gland

b) submandibular glands are the commonest site of tumours

c) uptake of 99mtc-pertechnetate is a normal finding

d) duct ectasia is characteristic of Sjgrens disease

e) 80% of mixed tumours show calcification on CT

The following are features of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) 2 syndrome 51

a) medullary carcinoma of the thymus

b) pituitary adenoma

c) phaeochromocytoma

d) pancreatic adenoma

e) parathyroid adenoma

Concerning petrous temporal bone imaging 52

a) congenital cholesteatoma arises from epithelial nests

b) cholesteatoma of the petrous air cells arises following infection

c) cholesteatoma of the petrous apex results in bone sclerosis

d) longitudinal fractures occur more frequently than transverse fractures

e) CT does not resolve the auditory ossicles separately

Thyroid acropachy 53

a) occurs following treatment of hyperthyroidism

b) is commoner in females

c) is usually painful

d) is usually asymmetrical

Enlargement of the optic nerve on CT is a feature of 54

a) meningioma

b) vitreous haemorrhage

c) subarachnoid haemorrhage

d) raised intracranial pressure

Recognised associations of myelomeningocoele include 55

a) pes planus

b) florid callus formation

c) metaphyseal fractures

d) varus deformity of the hip joint

e) Arnold-Chiari malformation

Pulmonary hypoplasia occurs in association with 56

a) polycystic renal disease

b) delayed closure of the foramen of Bochdalek

c) congenital lobar emphysema

d) scimitar syndrome

e) scoliosis of the thoracic spine

Regarding the imaging of multiple sclerosis 57

a) gadolinium contrast enhancement at MRI indicates active plaques

b) CT is superior to MRI in the demonstration of spinal cord plaques

c) the diagnosis is excluded by a normal brain MRI

d) on non-contrast CT, plaques are seen as areas of increased attenuation

Regarding the larynx 58

a) crico-arytenoid involvement by rheumatoid arthritis is recognised

b) it is a recognised site for extra-medullary plasmacytoma

c) carcinoma crossing the anterior commissure has prognostic significance

d) tuberculosis is a recognised cause of hoarseness

e) supraglottic tumours frequently present with lymph node spread

Increased signal intensity on T2-weighted MRI is seen with 59

a) multiple sclerosis

b) colloid cyst

c) cerebral oedema

d) sagittal sinus thrombosis

Recognised associations of neurofibromatosis include 60

a) abdominal aortic coarctation

b) right-sided aortic arch

c) phaeochromocytoma

d) platyspondyly

e) hepatic and splenic cysts

Concerning radionuclide imaging of the thyroid 61

a) radio-iodine can be used to detect metastases prior to thyroidectomy

b) radio-iodine is the preferred isotope for the demonstration of retrosternal thyroid tissue

c) 99mTc-pertechnetate scintigraphy is performed following administration of carbimazole

Cervical vertebral fusion occurs in 62

a) Stills disease

b) tuberculosis

c) diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis

d) ankylosing spondylitis

Atlantoaxial subluxation is associated with 63

a) rheumatoid arthritis

b) os odontoideum

c) atlanto-occipital fusion

d) psoriasis

e) Downs syndrome

The following are recognised associations 64

a) neurofibromatosis and abdominal aortic coarctation

b) neurofibromatosis and optic nerve glioma

Concerning chordoma 65

a) 50% occur in the sacrum

b) metastases are common

c) the thoracolumbar spine is a common site of disease

d) the tumour originates from remnants of the notochord

e) the mandible is a further site of occurrence

Ependymoma 66

a) can present as a pre-sacral mass

b) is extra-dural

c) shows calcification on CT in the majority of cases

Regarding lipoma of the corpus callosum 67

a) the commones site is in the splenium

b) there is an association with abnormal behaviour

c) it does not undergo calcification

d) the diagnosis may be made on a plain skull radiograph

e) there is an association with agenesis of the corpus callosum

Causes of a small pituitary fossa include 68

a) normal variant

b) myotonic dystrophy

c) congenital hypothyroidism

d) local irradation in childhood

e) hypopituitarism

Thickening of the skull vault occurs in 69

a) phenytoin therapy

b) iron deficiency anaemia

c) histiocytosis X

The optic nerve is enlarged with 70

a) meningioma

b) raised intracranial pressure

c) ophthalmic artery aneurysm

d) retinal vein thrombosis

e) orbital pseudotumour

Regarding unilateral exophthalmos 71

a) endrocrine ophthalmopathy is the commonest cause

b) proptosis is due to an increase in retrobulbar fat

c) orbital pseudotumour is a recognised cause

The superior orbital fissure is enlarged in 72

a) cavernous sinus aneurysm

b) neurofibromatosis

c) fibrous dysplasia

Bilateral, symmetrical intracranial calcification is a feature of 73

a) lipoma of the corpus callosum

b) Parkinsons disease

c) pseudohypoparathyroidism

d) Sturge-Weber syndrome

e) Cysticercosis

Suprasellar lesions may be caused by 74

a) craniopharyngioma

b) chordoma

c) histiocytosis X

d) metastases

e) medulloblastoma

Giant intracranial aneurysms 75

a) are commoner in middle aged women

b) commonly occur at the basilar tip

c) commonly present as a space occupying lesion

With subarachnoid haemorrhage 76

a) an obstructive hydrocephalus may occur in the first four days

b) blood may persist for up to one week

c) the site of the bloody is a good indicator of the site of the vessel rupture

d) if an aneurysm is seen at CT, angiography is not required

e) if an arteriovenous malformation is seen at CT, angiography is not required

Regarding brain MRI 77

a) an aneurysm can be excluded by gadolinium-enhanced MRI

b) a cerebral infarct is better seen in the first 24 hours by MRI than by CT

Parathyroid adenomas 78

a) are commoner in the inferior parathyroids

b) are of increased reflectivity on ultrasound

c) are associated with acute pancreatitis

d) appear as areas of increased uptake on A 99mTc-pertechnetate scintigram

The following statements are true 79

a) angiofibromas are commoner in girls

b) glomus tumours are hypervascular

c) glomus tympanicum tumours cause bone erosion

d) benign neurofibromas are relatively avascular

e) cutaneous capillary angiomas are treated by intra-arterial embolisation

Spinal cord compression may be due to 80

a) achrondroplasia

b) Pagets disease

c) haemangioma

d) ankylosing spondylitis

e) Marfans syndrome

f) spinal dysraphism

In the lumbar spine 81

a) disc degeneration has low signal on T2-weighted MR

b) the lumbosacral junction is better demonstrated on CT than MR

c) post-operative fibrosis shows increased signal following gadolinium on T1-weighted MR

d) intrathecal contrast is required for the CT diagnosis of a prolapsed disc

Widened sutures are seen in 82

a) leukaemia

b) secondary neuroblastoma

c) hypervitaminosis D

d) hypophosphatasia

e) cretinism

f) histiocytosis X

Regarding MRI of the spine 83

a) subcutaneous fat returns high signal on T1-weighted images

b) csf returns high signal on T1-weighted images

c) the STIR sequence can reliably distinguish metastases from cysts

d) following intravenous gadolinium, T2-weighted images are obtained

Acquired cholesteatoma of the middle ear 84

a) erodes the ossicles

b) causes a well-defined lesion of the attic

c) is a causes of middle ear calcification

d) causes erosion of the lateral semicircular canal

e) presents with pain

Regarding intracranial mass lesions 85

a) calcification in astrocytomas is a reliable indicator of benignity

b) multifocal lymphoma may mimic metastases

c) the majority of metastases do not enhance

Increased size of the optic nerve is a feature of 86

a) thyrotoxicosis

b) retinal vein thrombosis

c) raised intracranial pressure

d) subarachnoid haemorrhage

e) acromegaly

Regarding thyrpoid scintigraphy 87

a) 99mTc-pertechnetate is the best agent for assessing retrosternal extension

b) 123I results in a lower patient dose than 131I

c) in a thyrotoxic patient, thyroiditis is a cause of decreased uptake

d) the chance of malignancy in a solitary nodule is approximately 30%

e) a child with congenital hypothyroidism would have an abnormal perchlorate discharge test

Laryngeal carcinoma 88

a) most commonly involves the true vocal cords

b) causes cavitating lung metastases

c) subglottic spread is most reliably assessed by laryngoscopy

d) involvement of the thyroid cartilage is best assessed by bone scintigraphy

Regarding ameloblastoma 89

a) it is found only in the mandible

b) it arise most commonly at the angle of the mandible

c) it contains calcified dental elements

d) it is characteristically multilocular

e) there is an association with colonic polyps

Spina bifida is associated with 90

a) syringomyelia

b) metaphyseal fractures

c) exuberant callus formation

d) coxa vara

e) scoliosis

Syringomyelia is associated with 91

a) radiotherapy

b) trauma

c) Arnold-Chiari malformation

d) von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

Atlanto-axial instability is a feature of 92

a) Downs syndrome

b) rheumatoid arthritis

c) acute pharyngitis

d) ankylosing spondylitis

e) Marfans syndrome

The following are features of acute extradural haematoma 93

a) contralateral skull fracture

b) a crescent-shaped fluid collection

c) a fluid level visible on CT

d) compression of the ipsilateral lateral ventricle

e) a fluid collection of increased attenuation on CT

Optic nerve enlargement seen on CT may be due to 94

a) optic nerve glioma

b) leukaemia

c) subarachnoid haemorrhage

d) meningioma

Calcification within the orbit on plain radiographs may be due to 95

a) rhabdomyosarcoma

b) retinoblastoma

c) orbital pseudotumour

d) optic glioma

e) untreated lymphoma

Chordoma 96

a) arises in the sacro-coccygeal region in 50%

b) arises from the remains of the primitive notochord

c) is characteristically seen in the mid-thoracic spine

d) commonly metastasises

e) appears photopenic on bone scintigraphy

Regarding acoustic neuromas 97

a) The majority arise outside the internal auditory meatus

b) The degree of internal auditory meatus enlargement is a reliable indicator of tumour size

Regarding CT of the temporal bones 98

a) Coronal sections deliver a lower radiation dose to the eye than axial sections

b) Congenital cholesteatomas cause sclerosis of the apex of the petrous temporal bone

Complications of phenytoin therapy include 99

a) basal ganglia calcification

b) renal papillary necrosis

c) hepatocellular carcinoma

Regarding CT of the lumbar spine 100

a) the ligamentum flavum may normally be greater than 6 mm thick

b) post-operative fibrosis can be reliably differentiated from disc prolapse

c) neurofibroma can simulate disc herniation

d) the procedure should be performed within one hour of the instillation of intrathecal contrast

Frontal sinus mucocoele 101

a) is commoner than maxillary sinus mucocoele

b) may cause pulsatile proptosis

c) is rare in children

d) is associated with symptoms of acute sinusitis

Regarding the larynx 102

a) solitary plasmacytoma may occur there

b) rheumatoid arthritis may involve the crico-arytenoid joints

c) tuberculosis may cause hoarseness

d) spread of carcinoma across the commissure has a poor prognosis

e) supraglottic spread rarely presents with lymphadenopathy

Features of Wegeners granulomatosis include 103

a) erosion of the walls of the paranasal sinuses

b) orbital masses

Concerning intracranial haemorrhage 104

a) subdural haematoma is more likely with a depressed skull fracture than with a non-depressed fracture

b) extradural haematoma is more likely with a depressed skull fracture than non-depressed

The mandible is small in 105

a) hypothyroidism

b) crangiopharyngioma

A 30 year old male homosexual patient presents with paraplegia and myelography is requested 106

a) HIV status should be determined without the patients consent

b) hospital staff are at risk

c) 1% hyperchlorite solution is suitable for cleaning surfaces

d) lymphoma is a recognised complication of HIV infection

Reliable indicators of cervical spine instability include 107

a) soft tissue swelling anteriorly

b) odontoid peg fracture

c) decreased height of a vertebral body

d) widened disc space anteriorly

e) narrowed disc space

Orbital pseudotumour 108

a) may be caused by Wegeners granulomatosis

b) presents with proptosis

Multiple areas of low attenuation are seen on brain CT in 109

a) Alzheimers disease

b) multiple sclerosis

c) multiple infarcts

Mandibular cysts are a recognised finding in 110

a) cementoma

b) abscess

c) ameloblastoma

Neurofibromatosis is associated with 111

a) aneurysmal bone cysts

b) phaeochromocytoma

c) abdominal aortic coarctation

d) liver and renal cysts

e) platyspondylae

The following can be seen in spinal dysraphism 112

a) thin filum terminale

b) intrathecal dermoid

c) subcutaneous lipoma

Atlanto-axial instability is associated with 113

a) achrondroplasia

b) Downs syndrome

Nasal polyps are associated with 114

a) atopy

b) Wegeners granulomatosis

c) an opaque maxillary antrum

d) commoner in the ethmoid sinuses in children

Primary hyperparathyroidism in adults 115

a) is most commonly caused by adrenal hypoplasia

b) brown tumours are epiphyseal in location

c) is associated with erosive joint disease

The following cause neurological disease in HIV patients 116

a) coccidioidomycosis

b) cytomegalovirus

c) apsergillosis

d) tuberculosis

e) lymphoma

Mucocoele of the sphenoid sinus 117

a) commonly erodes the orbit

On unenhanced CT, the following are characteristically of low attenuation 118

a) colloid cyst of the third ventricle

b) meningioma

c) medulloblastoma

d) glioblastoma

The following associations are true 119

a) a hyperdense subdural collection and recent subdural haemorrhage three weeks ago with no evidence of rebleed

b) an isodense acute subdural haemorrhage and anaemia

Spinal cord injury is common with 120

a) bilateral interfacetal dislocation

b) Jeffersons fracture of C1

(c) traumatic spondylolysis of C2 (hangmans fracture

d) fracture of the odontoid peg

Apical (periodontal) cysts 121

a) are associated with Gorlins syndrome

b) do not erode the lamina dura

c) most commonly affect the third molar

the following can cause an enhancing mass in the suprasellar area 122

a) sarcoidosis

b) TB

c) metastases from carcinoma breast

d) germinoma

e) mucoploysaccharidosis

The following can present as a mass in the nasal cavity in a 24 yr old male 123

a) antrochoanal polyp

b) Hodgkins lymphoma

c) sarcoidosis

d) angiofibroma

Features of Sturge-Weber 124

a) pial angiomatosis

b) cortical tubers

c) hemiencephaly

d) subependymal nodules

e) choroidal heamangiomas

Intraorbital calcifications 125

a) choroidal haemangiomas

b) retinoblastoma

c) optic drusen

d) uveal melanoma

e) sarcoidosis

Carotid body tumours 126

a) are paragangliomas

b) 10-15% mailignant

c) displace the internal carotid anteriorly

CT head of an adult 2 weeks post infarct 127

a) peripheral enhancement is unusual

b) mass effect means tumour

Throid opthalmopathy 128

a) there is increased risk of closed angle glaucoma

b) optic canal enlargement is a feature

c) there is increased retro orbital fat

d) can be unilateral

Carotid angiography 129

a) risk of stroke is 0.1%

b) aneurysms are seen in 10-15% of population

Regarding tumours of parapharyngeal space 130

a) ring enhancement suggests paraganglioma

b) patchy enhancement is characteristic of lymph nodes

c) homogeneous enhancement is seen in ganglioblastoma

d) tumour of deep lobe of parotid will displace the parapharyngeal space laterally

Orbital lesions 131

a) primary choroidal haemangioma is the most common retro-orbital tumour in adults

b) orbital melanoma is better seen on US thn CT

c) diagnosis of uveal melanoma is excluded if retinal in origin

Cerebral trauma 132

a) cortical contusions are more common in the temporal lobe than frontal

# b) an extradural haematoma indicates basal skull

Carotid Doppler 133

a) it is normal to see reverse flow in the carotid bulb

b) plaque morphology is best seen on high resolution US

c) a velocity >300 m s-1 implies a stenosis >70%

d) patients with stenosis > 70% benefit from surgery

The second branchial arch cyst 134

a) can lie anywhere between sternomastoid and midline

b) 50% enter beyond carotid bifurcation

c) are hyperintense on T1W and T2W MR

the following are seen in chronic alcoholism 135

a) mamillary body atrophy

b) central pontine myelinolysis

c) pancreatitis

dandy walker amlformation 136

a) associated with other CNS malformations in 30%

b) is a large cyst that communicates with 4th ventricle

c) is due to a defect in the cerebellar hemisphere

d) is likely to occur in 60% of future pregnancies

Herpes simplex encephalitis 137

a) characteristically involves temporal lobes

b) characteristically associated with AIDS

c) commonly causes basal ganglia infarction

d) focal haemorrhage is common

e) in AIDS causes a ventriculitis

Retinoblastoma 138

a) majority present > 5 yrs

b) bilateral in majority

c) calcify

d) typically spread along optic nerve

e) low signal on T2

Glomus jugulare 139

a) typically erosion of floor of posterior cranial fossa

b) supplied by the posterior auricular artery

c) presents wih pulsatile tinnitus

d) expansion of jugular formamen is pathognomonic

e) inhomogeneous enhancement on MRI

Concerning parathyroid imaging 140

a) 99mTc sesta-MIBI can be used

b) essential prior to surgery

c) dual phase imaging is required with sesta-MIBI

d) useful for ectopic parathyroid

e) requires pin-hole collomator

Blood on MR 141

a) deoxyhaemoglobin is low signal on T2

b) MR at 2 hrs post SAH shows high signal on T1

c) haemosiderin staining is seen on CT 3 months after SAH

Low density change in thalami seen in 142

a) acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

b) Wernickes encephalopathy

c) neonatal hypoxia

d) biliary encephalopathy

e) cryptosporidium

CT of paranasal sinuses 143

a) best performed in axial plane

b) can differentiate polyp and mucocoele

c) better than MRI in inflammation

CT of the parapharyngeal sinuses: the following are intimately associated with the osteomeatal complex 144

a) inferior turbinate

b) sinus lateralis

c) a Halers cell

d) ostium of maxillary sinus

e) infundibulum

Retinoblastoma 145

a) > 80%c alcify

b) enhance post contrast

c) commonest orbital tumour in childhood

the following are recognised in von Hippel Lindau 146

a) retro-bulbar haemangioblastoma

b) spinal haemangioblastomas in 15%

c) acoustic neuromas

d) pancreatic cysts

e) renal cell carcinomas

in patients with diagnosis of acute SAH 147

a) negative angiogram in <5%

b) 10% patients will experience a deterioration in neurological signs following the angiogram

c) rebleeding is more likely in patients who presented with a larger bleed

the following sequences are better than standard spin echo T2 MR at picking up MS lesions 148

a) GE T2

b) T1 spin echo

c) STIR

d) FLAIR

e) PD

Lesions in the posterior cerebellum or associated connective pathways cause 149

a) ataxia of the limbs

b) intention tremor

c) limb spasticity

d) rombergism

e) jerking nystagmus

Intr cerebral haemorrhage is associated with 150

a) Sturge weber

b) subcalvian steal

c) bacterial endocarditis

d) aduld polycystic kidney

e) amphetamime abuse

Concerning the mandible 151

a) # most commonly through coronoid

# b) # in midline associated with le fort 2 facial

c) is a rare site for metastases

d) marked periosteal reaction with ameloblastoma

e) Stills disease associated with mandibular hypoplasia

Branchial cysts 152

a) found post to sternomastoid

b) lined by simple squamous epithelium

c) much higher signal than surrounding muscle on T1

d) generally present in neonatal period

Retroorbital pseudotumour 153

a) associated with thickening of optic nerve

b) associated with proptosis on CT

c) associated with thickening of intraocular muscles

d) enhances on CT following IV contrast

Concerning cerebral angio 154

a) frame rate of 6/sec suitable for assessment of AVMs

b) angio CI with mycotic aneurysms

Cerebral involvement in HIV 155

a) bacterial infections more common than non-bacterial

b) toxoplasmosis typically causes thick peripheral rim of enhancement

c) thallium 201 used to distinguish between toxoplasmosis and lymphoma

d) leptomeningeal disease typical of toxoplasmosis

Enhancing suprasellar masses 156

a) sarcoidodis

b) germinoma

c) TB

d) mucopolysaccharidosis

e) metastatic breast cancer

Thyroid eye disease 157

a) Graves disease commonly involves the inf and medial rectus muscle

b) an increase in retro-orbital fat in the presence of normal muscles is recognised

c) unilateral disease recognised

d) retro orbital fat may calcify

Adenoid cystic carcinoma in head and neck 158

a) arises most commonly from minor salivary glands

b) late recurrence is common

c) arises from sphenopalatine space

d) are most unusual under 20

e) has propensity for perineural spread

Regarding cerebral infections 159

a) in normal population most commonly due to strep

b) haematogenous infx preferentially goes to ant cerebral circulation

c) erosion of petrous apex causes 6th nerve palsy

Ring enhancement seen in 160

a) porencephalic cyst

b) lymphoma

c) toxoplasmosis

d) MS

:Dandy walker malformation 161

a) is an abnormality of the cerebellar tonsils

b) the cyst communicates with the fourth ventricle

c) associated CNS neurological abnormalities are seen in <10%

d) widely separated cerebellar hemispheres are seen

e) the risk in subsequent pregnancies is 60%

:Dental cysts 162

a) adamantinoma occurs in the same age group as aneurismal bone cysts

b) apical cysts account for 10% of radiolucencies

:Orbital calcification seen in 163

a) choriodal haemangioma

b) sarcoidosis

c) retinoblastoma

d) drusen

e) melanoma deposits

:SAH 164

a) CT positive in 70%

b) at least 15% angiograms are negative

c) MRI is better than CT for acute bleeds

d) negative angiograms are associated with a worse prognosis

e) associated with RA

:Concerning stroke 165

a) negative CT at 6 hours favours TIA

b) negative MRI at 24 hours favours TIA

c) haemorrhagic infarction is usually secondary to embolus

d) mass effect common feature

:High signal on T2 seen in 166

a) multiple sclerosis

b) meningiomata

c) colloid cyst

d) normal blood in the sagittal sinus

e) normal anterior pituitary

:Concerning cystic hygroma 167

a) caused by lymphatic disorder

b) multiloculated

c) arise mainly in the anterior triangle of the neck

d) 10% shows thoracic extension

e) commonly cause respiratory distress

:CT of parapharyngeal tissue 168

a) enlargement of deep part of parotid gland causes lateral displacement of parapharyngeal fat

b) paraganglioneuroma is intensely enhancing

c) sialectasis is associated with infection

d) 80% submandibular stones are radiolucent

e) stones more common in parotid gland than submandibular gland

f) Warthins tumour shows peripheral enhancement with central low attenuation

:Extradural haematoma 169

a) reliable indicator of basal skull fracture

b) biconvex appearance

c) causes mass effect

d) occurs 2-7 days after injury

:MRI brain increased signal on T1 170

a) multiple sclerosis

b) arachnoid cyst

:Imaging of petrous ridge 171

a) coronal ct scanning reduces radiation dose to the eyes

b) congenital cholesteatoma cause bone destruction with sclerosis

c) bone destruction can be due to acoustic neuroma

d) acquired cholesteatoma has high signal on gadolinium enhanced T1

:Absence of corpus callosum 172

a) associated with lipoma

b) can be diagnosed on trans fontanelle us

c) associated with widely separated lateral ventricles

d) associated with a high 3rd ventricle

e) associated with Dandy walker malformation

:White matter lesions in MS may be better visualised compared to conventional spin echo T2 images with the following sequences 173

a) FLAIR

b) STIR

c) GE T2

d) SE T1

e) Proton density/spin density

:Regarding dural sinus thrombosis 174

a) the thrombus is isointense to grey matter on t1 within 5 days

b) the appearances are characteristic on enhanced scan

c) it is the cause of CVA in 10-20% of young adults

d) transverse sinus thrombosis causes temporal lobe infarct

e) classically causes grey matter infarction

:Regarding neurofibromatosis 175

a) is associated with optic nerve meningioma

b) bilateral acoustic neuromas are pathonogmonic

c) is associated with subungual fibromas

d) tibial pseudoarthrosis may be present

e) inheritance is autosomal recessive

:Regarding mucocele 176

a) 10% occur within the frontal sinus

b) the commonest site is the sphenoid sinus

c) has ill defined margins on CT

d) enhances uniformly

e) is high signal on T2

:Regarding orbital rhabdomyosarcoma 177

a) it is the commonest intra orbital tumour in childhood

b) presents as visual loss

c) occurs intraconally

d) calcification occurs in 30%

e) enhances on CT following contrast

:The following are features of pseudotumour 178

a) soft tissue infiltration

b) proptosis

c) swollen extra-ocular muscles

d) optic nerve enlargement

:Regarding thyroid imaging 179

a) a pericardial effusion occurs with hypothyroidism

b) a thyroglossal cyst is well demonstrated on isotope scanning

c) an ectopic thyroid is best seen with isotope scanning

:A 64 year old man attends with a presumed diagnosis of a glioma. The following imaging features would cast doubt on the diagnosis 180

a) located solely within grey matter

b) entirely intraventricular

c) thin wall enhancement seen after contrast

d) high density on unenhanced CT

e) minimal peritumoral oedema

:Regarding mandibular lesions 181

a) midline fractures are associated with Le Fort II

b) periosteal reaction occurs with alveolar cell carcinoma

c) metastatic disease is rare

d) fractures are commonest in the coronoid process

e) hypoplastic mandible is associated with Stills

:Loss of intervertebral joint space may occur with 182

a) ochronosis

b) DISH

c) histiocytosis X

d) Schuermanns disease

:Causes of sclerotic pedicle 183

a) contralateral pedicle hypoplasia

b) osteoid osteoma

c) Pagets

d) Hodgkins lymphoma

:Fused vertebrae 184

a) cleidocranial dysplasia

b) psoriasis

c) achondroplasia

d) Reiters

e) TB

Disc space narrowing seen in 185

a) ochronosis

b) DISH

c) histiocytosis X

d) Scheuermanns disease

e) ankylosing spondylitis

Spondylosis 186

a) 50% occurs at L4

b) best imaged in AP view with 30% cranial angulation

c) occurs with certain sporting activities

d) best imaged with reversed angle gantry

e) best if image is perpendicular to pars

Loss of lamina dura is seen in 187

a) achondroplasia

b) osteomyelitis

c) hypoparathyroidism

d) osteomalacia

Sudden osteoparotic collapse of a vertebral body 188

a) associated with increased signal on T1W

b) extradural soft tissue is seen in 40%

c) associated with cord compression at that level

Causes of radiolucent lesions in the jaw 189

a) marble bone disease

b) amelloblastoma

c) odontogenic keratocyst

d) ossifying fibroma

e) cavernous haemangioma

Widening of the interpedicular distance is seen in 190

a) achondroplasia

b) acromegaly

c) myelomeningocoele

d) ependymoma

Increased interpedicular distance seen in 191

a) achondrplasia

b) mucopolysacharidosis

c) diastetomyelia

d) meningocoele

:Regarding CT of parapharyngeal tissue 192

a) paraganglioneuromas enhance intensely

.b) sialectasis is associated with infections

c) 80% of submandibular stones are radioluscent

d) stones are more common in the parotid gland than the submandibular gland

.e) Warthins tumour shows peripheral enhancemet with central low attenuation

:Regarding extradural haematomas 193

.a) are a reliable indicator of a basal skull fracture

.b) has a biconvex appearance

.c) causes mass effect

.d) occurs 2-7 days post injury

:The following lesions demonstrate increased signal on T1 weighted imaging of the brain 194

.a) multiple sclerosis

b) arachnoid cyst

:Regarding imaging of the petrous ridge 195

.a) coronal CT imaging reduces the radiation dose to the eyes

.b) congenital cholesteotoma causes bone destruction with sclerosis

c) bone destruction can be due to an acoustic neuroma

.d) acquired cholesteotoma has high signal on gadolinium enhanced t1 weighted imaging

:Regarding parathyroid adenomas 196

.a) causes dysphagia

.b) is hyperechoic on ultrasound

c) demonstrated increased uptake on technetium scans

.d) is associated with pancreatitis

e) is diagnosed on technetium / thallium scans

: The MEN IIA syndrome is associated with 197

a) medullary carcinoma

b) hyperparathyroidism

c) phaeochromocytoma

d) pancreatic tumour

e) pineal tumour

.The following conditions are causes of low attenuation in the basal ganglia on unenhanced CT 198

a) Parkinsons disease

b) carbon Monoxide

c) Wilsons disease

d) hyperparathyroidism

e) hypoparathyroidism

Causes of hyperdense lesions on non-contrast brain CT 199

a) colloid cyst

b) metastases from colorectal adenocarcinoma

c) metastatic melanoma

d) brain abscess

e) metastatic deposit from carcinoma of the bronchus

f) lymphoma

g) osteosarcoma metastasis

h) medulloblastoma

i) renal cell carcinoma metastasis

Features of an arachnoid cyst include 200

a) most commonly occur in the anterior cerebral compartment

b) is of similar signal to csf on mri scanning

c) characteristically causes underdevelopment of adjacent cerebral structures

d) may haemorrhage

Concerning CT scanning of the parapharyngeal space 201

a) a carcinoma of the deep lobe of the parotid characteristically displaces the parapharyngeal fat planes laterally

b) an enhancing lesion is most likely a paraganglioma

Regarding thyroid acropachy 202

a) is painful

b) is associated with treated hyperthyroidism

c) is associated with pretibial myxoedema

d) is commoner in females

e) is more commonly manifested in the lower extremity than in the upper

The following are features of a primordial cyst 203

a) is the most common odontogenic cyst

b) most commonly arises in the maxilla

c) characteristically erodes teeth

The following are true of CSF rhinorrhoea in head injury 204

a) most commonly presents 9-10 days following injury

b) 90% develop meningitis

Odontogenic Keratocysts 205

a) most commonly occurs in the maxilla

b) is characteristically multiloculated

c) is associated with calcification of the falx

d) recurs in over 50% following curettage

Regarding retinoblastoma 206

a) is hereditary in 10%

b) is bilateral in 30%

c) shows calcification on ct in 90%

d) calcification is a favourable prognostic sign

Concerning pituitary adenoma 207

a) microadenoma is more common than macroadenoma

b) macroadenomas have a diameter of >10mm

c) macroadenoma expands the pituitary fossa in 90% of cases

d) macroadenoma characteristically gives a low signal on T1W MRI

Cystic hygroma 208

a) is a congenital malformation of lymphoid tissue

b) is usually situated in the anterior triangle

c) may produce compression of the airways

d) associated with chromosomal abnormalities in 70%

e) associated with the fetal alcohol syndrome

The following are recognised causes of intracranial calcification 209

a) Wilsons disease

b) metastases from colorectal carcinoma

c) carbon monoxide poisoning

d) asphyxia

Low attenuation areas in the basal ganglia on CT are seen in 210

a) eclampsia

b) posterior cerebral artery occlusion

c) cerebral adenoma

An intraventricular mass may be due to 211

a) toxoplamosis

b) cysticecosis

c) metastases

d) meningioma

e) ependymoma

Branchial cysts 212

a) originate from the thyroglossal duct

b) are located in the posterior triangle of the neck

c) are evident at birth

d) communicate with the pharynx

e) calcify

The majority of these lesions are calcified when seen on CT 213

a) craniopharyngioma

b) venous haemangioma of the brain

c) choroids plexus pappiloma

d) intracranial osteosarcomatous meatstaes

In subarachnoid haemorrhage 214

a) 75% are caused by aneurysms

b) in 30% the CT scan can be normal for 3 days

c) In 10% the angiogram is normal

Concerning acoustic neuromas 215

a) most commonly presents with sensorineural deafness

b) when bilateral are associated with neurofibromatosis

c) 5% of patients with sensorineural deafness have them

In benign intracranial hypertension 216

a) it does not have a characteristic clinical presentation

b) is associated with temporal horn dilatation

c) shunting is ineffective

d) has characteristic appearances on CT

Abnormal teeth are a feature of 217

a) hypoparathyroidism

b) hypophosphotasia

c) Ellis Von Creveld syndrome

d) Langerhans cell histiocytosis

Gyral calcification may be seen in 218

a) Sturge Weber syndrome

b) intrathecal methotrexate followed by radiotherapy

c) toxoplasmosis

CT features of orbital pseudotumours 219

.a) increased orbital fat

b) scleral thickening

c) increased size of the optic nerve

d) increased size of the extraocular muscles

.e) intraconal calcification

The IAMs are characteristically widened in 220

a) basilar artery ectasia

b) petrous apex epidermoids

c) cerebellopontine angle meningiomas

d) trigeminal neuromas

e) glomus jugulare tumours

MRI of multiple sclerosis 221

a) qlaques are bright on T2

b) active plaques enhance with gadolinium

c) plaques radiate perpendicular to the ventricles

d) atrophy of the corpus callosum is characteristic

e) plaques are of low signal on proton density imaging

CT brain 222

a) punctate calcification is characteristic of medulloblastoma

b) dense calcification in an astrocytoma correlates with benignity

c) most metastases do not enhance

d) melanoma metastases are typically hyperdense

e) multicentric lymphoma can be difficult to differentiate from mets

The following lesions are of decrease signal on T1 and increased signal on T2 223

a) medulloblastoma drop metastases

b) acute contusion

c) haemosiderin

d) haemangioblastoma

e) acute haemorrhage

CT of the ears 224

a) otosclerosis cannot reliably be diagnosed

b) nasopharyngeal carcinoma can present as acute otitis media

c) cholesteatoma is associated with chronic suppurative otitis media

d) ossicular dislocation cannot be diagnosed

Diplopia occurs in 225

a) frontal mucocele

b) myasthenia

c) blow out fractures

d) Horners syndrome

e) multiple sclerosis

Concerning thyroid scintigraphy 226

a) I-123 has a lower dose than I-131

b) Pertechnatate is better than I-123 for diagnosing retrosternal thyroid

c) decreased uptake can be seen with thyrotoxic thyroiditis

d) thyroxine replacement therapy should be discontinued one week prior to imaging

ANSWERS

Dental imaging 1

a) T also with cleft palate, cleidocranial dysplasia, achondroplasia, E-Danlos

b) T

c) T more commonly with hyperparathyroidism, also: anaemia, Burkitts, Cushings, FD, hypothyroidism

Causes of thalamic lesions on MRI 2

a) T also Reyes syn., Wilsons dx, Leighs dx, glioma, near drowning

b) T glioma, measles, venous infarct

c) T

d) T

e) T

Regarding cerebral lymphoma in the immunocompromised patient 3

a) T uncommon confusion, lethargy, memory loss commoner

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) F NHL > HD

Regarding cranial intraparenchymal AVMs 4

a) F AVMs occur in 5-10% with HHT, 2% of AVMs occur in people with HHT

b) T aneurysm decrease with treatment of AVM

c) T the hallmark of the lesion

d) F < 10% occur in posterior fossa

Colloid cysts 5

a) F high SI on T1W and T2W in 60%

b) F anterosuperior aspect of third ventricle

c) T due to draped choroid plexus/capsule

d) T

e) F asymmetrical

Widening of the interpedicular distance is seen in 6

a) F reduction of distance

b) F posterior scalloping

c) T

d) T also: diastematomyelia, Marfans, NF1, syringomyelia

Regarding carotid Doppler ultrasound 7

a) T

b) F 60-79% stenosis

c) F

d) F

e) F 70% in NASCET trial

Glomus jugulare 8

a) T

b) F arises from adventitia of jugular vein glomus tympanicum arises in middle ear

c) T destroys posteroinferior petrous pyramid

d) F DD: ICA aneurysm, AVM, schwannomas of IX, X, XI

e) T chief supply is from ascending pharyngeal

Concerning cerebral involvement in HIV infection 9

a) F toxoplasmosis & cryptcococcosis commoner

b) F thin rim of enhancement

c) T lymphoma shows more uptake of 201-Tl

d) F basal ganglia, peripheral G/W interface main sites of disease

Enhancing suprasellar masses may be due to 10

a) T also aneurysm, craniopharyngioma, pituitary adenoma

b) T

c) T

d) F

e) T

The following are true of dysthyroid eye disease 11

a) T

b) T

c) T unilateral in 25-30%

d) F

In Dandy-Walker malformation 12

a) F absence of the vermis

b) T pathognomonic of DWM

c) T small, widely-separated cerebellar hemispheres

d) F hydrocephalus in 75%

Complete/partial absence of vermis

Hypoplastic cerebellar hemispheres

Large posterior fossa cyst

Enlarged posterior fossa with elevated tentorium

The following are true of meningiomas 13

a) F poorly vascularised

b) F commonest extra-axial tumour

c) F

d) T

e) F optic nerve meningiomas mainly in middle-aged women worse prognosis in children

Adenoid cystic carcinoma of the head and neck 14

a) T minor glands in 25-30%

b) T 60-70% late recurrence at 5 years

c) T oral > pharynx > nose

d) T 3rd-9th decades, max 40-70

e) T

Regarding cerebral infections 15

a) T

b) T mainly MCA territory

c) T Gradenigos syndrome

Regarding CT and MRI of the spine 16

a) F unicameral bone cyst

b) F ABC, UBC, GCT, FD, chondroblastoma

c) F T2 > T1

d) F little or no reactive sclerosis

Regarding magnetic resonance angiography 17

a) T sensitivity > 90%, specificity 88%

b) T

c) T

d) T usually suppress directional information

Ring enhancement occurs with the following lesions 18

a) F

b) T especially in the immunocompromised

c) T

d) T also: GBM, cysticercosis, resolving haematoma, resolving SDH (1-4/52), resolving infarction, radiation necrosis

Mucocoele of the sinus 19

a) T usually in adulthood

b) T end-stage of chronically obstructed sinus

c) F frontal > ethmoidal > maxillary > sphenoidal

d) F proptosis, but not pulsatile

e) T macroscopic calcification in 5%

Features of Arnold-Chiari malformation type 1 20

a) F Arnold-Chiari II

b) F small fossa large fossa in DW

c) F displaced caudally in AC II

d) F

e) F

In CT of the pituitary 21

a) T

b) F

c) the gland shows homogeneous enhancement

d) T

e) F

The following are true 22

a) F

b) F calcification highly suggestive of meningioma, seen in 20-50%

c) T

d) T

e) T

Papilloedema is seen in 23

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) T

Intervertebral disc narrowing is a feature of 24

a) T

b) T uncommon cause

c) F neoplasm very rarely narrows disc

d) F wide disc space

e) T also TB, brucellosis, sarcoid, typhoid

AS, block vertebra, degenerative disc disease, herniated disc, kyphosis

Atlanto-axial dislocation occurs in 25

a) T

b) T also psoriatic & Reiters

c) T

d) T also CPDD

e) T also other collagen vascular diseases

Carcinoma of the larynx 26

a) T 50-60% true cord, 20-30% supraglottic, 5% subglottic

b) T

c) F MRI

d) T

Cerebral arteriovenous malformation 27

a) T parietal > frontal > temporal

b) the risk of rebleeding increases with size

c) F 4% annual bleeding rate, 6% after 1 bleed, 25% after 2 bleeds

d) F 15-30% show calcification

e) T

Calcification of the intervertebral disc is seen in 28

a) T idiopathic, post-trauma, spinal fusion, acromegaly, CPPD, gout, Wilsons

b) F

c) F

d) T also haemochromatosis

e) T

Intracerebral calcification occurs in 29

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) T

Cerebellar atrophy occurs in 30

a) T paraneoplastic syndrome

b) F

c) F

d) T also: CJD, MSA, MS, Friedreichs ataxia

Spinal dysraphism is associated with 31

a) T lipomeningocoele, tethered cord, filum lipoma, meningocele

b) T

c) F thickening of filum

d) T

Subdural haematoma 32

a) T hyperdense < 1 week, isodense 1-2 weeks, hypodense > 2 weeks

b) F

c) T

d) F 1-2% calcify

e) F

Causes of a hot nodule on a thyroid scintigram include 33

a) T hot thyroid nodules are very rare, however

b) T

c) T more usually cold nodule

d) F cold

e) T

Regarding the orbit 34

a) T

b) T 85% intraocular, 12% intraorbital breast, lung NB commonest

c) T

d) F average age for RMS - 7 years, 90% by 16 years

e) T 60% unilateral

The mandible 35

a) F

b) F

c) F condylar neck

d) T

e) T

Calcification of brain metastases is reported with the following primary tumours 36

a) T mucin producing

b) T also chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma, following chemoradiotherapy

c) F

d) F

e) F

MEN type 2 is associated with 37

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) F

e) F

The following are true of acoustic neuroma 38

a) F

(b) T also commonest tumour of IAM (60-90%

c) T

d) F

e) there is an association with phaeochromocytoma

f) T

Regarding neurofibromatosis 39

a) F

b) T

c) T type 2

d) T tibial, secondary to anterior bowing fracture also of fibula, uncommon in upper extremity

Gyral calcifcation may be seen in 40

a) T

b) F

c) T meningoencephalitis is a cause

d) T also post-infarction

e) F

Concerning pituitary tumours 41

a) F microadenomas can cause bulge in gland, and deviate the stalk

b) F microadenomas can cause focal depression of the sellar floor

c) T

d) F post-gadolinium T1 MRI best test

e) T completely empty sella leads to secondary enlargement of the sellar floor

The following are recognised associations 42

a) T

b) F bilat acoustic neuromas in NF2 NF1 associated with phaeo

Adamantinoma of the jaw 43

a) T expansile with carotid margins

b) T ramus & posterior body in 75%

c) T

d) F Gardners syn. assoc with osteomas, unerupted and supernumerary teeth

e) F 25% occur in maxilla

Calcification is typical in the following lesions 44

a) F

b) F

c) T

d) F glioma rarely calcifies, cf. meningioma

The following are typical features of optic nerve meningioma 45

a) T

b) F middle-aged women, most often

The following structures return high signal on T1-weighted MRI 46

a) F

b) F

c) F

d) F

e) T

The following spinal injuries are regarded as stable 47

a) T

b) F

c) T

d) T

e) T

Anterior subluxation, avulsion of anterior or posterior arch of C1, burst fracture of lower C-spine, clay shovellers, laminar, pillar, wedge, spinous process, UID

Features of acquired cholesteatoma include 48

(a) T scutum erosion with primary acquired (pars flaccida

(b) T ossicular displacement with secondary acquired (pars tensa

c) T

d) T causes severe vertigo

Regarding sinusitis 49

a) F rim enhancement with mucocele

b) T

c) T

d) F

The salivary glands 50

a) F four times commoner in submandibular gland, more often multiple in parotid

b) F 95% in parotid

c) T

d) T

e) F pleomorphic adenoma only rarely calcifies

The following are features of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) 2 syndrome 51

a) T

b) F

c) T

d) F

e) T

Concerning petrous temporal bone imaging 52

a) T aberrant embryonic ectodermal nests

b) T

c) F

d) T fractures are longitudinal in 70-85%

e) F

Thyroid acropachy 53

a) T post-thyroidectomy

b) F no sex difference

c) F

d) T

Enlargement of the optic nerve on CT is a feature of 54

a) T glioma, meningioma, leukaemia, lymphoma, haematoma, BIH, sarcoid, MS

b) F

c) T

d) T

Recognised associations of myelomeningocoele include 55

a) T rocker bottom feet

b) T

c) T

d) F valgus deformity

e) T type II Chiari

Pulmonary hypoplasia occurs in association with 56

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) T

Regarding the imaging of multiple sclerosis 57

a) T

b) F

c) F

d) F iso- or hypoattenuating with transient enhancement

Regarding the larynx 58

a) T

b) T 50% of extramedullary plasmacytoma arises in air passages, 30% conjunctival, 3% nodal

c) T

d) T

e) T early nodal spread in 25-55% at presentation

Increased signal intensity on T2-weighted MRI is seen with 59

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T acute thrombus, venous infarction

Recognised associations of neurofibromatosis include 60

a) T

b) F

c) T

d) F platyspondyly in thanatophoric dysplasia/OI/achondroplasia/Morquios

e) T

Concerning radionuclide imaging of the thyroid 61

a) T

b) T

c) F

Cervical vertebral fusion occurs in 62

a) T DISH, psoriasis, AS, Reiters, RA, infection, trauma

b) T

c) T

d) T

Atlantoaxial subluxation is associated with 63

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) T

The following are recognised associations 64

a) T

b) T in 30%

Concerning chordoma 65

a) T 50-70% sacral, 15-35% spheno-occipital, 15-20% vertebral

(b) F metastases in 5-43% (liver, lung, nodes, skin, heart

c) F cervical spine > thoracolumbar

d) T

e) F may reach maxillary antrum

Ependymoma 66

a) T ectopic sacrococcygeal or broad ligament

b) F intramedullary

c) F punctate multifocal calcification in 25-50%

Regarding lipoma of the corpus callosum 67

a) F commonest site is pericallosal does not actually arise in the CC

b) T

c) F

d) T

e) T

Causes of a small pituitary fossa include 68

a) T also: low ICP, hypopituitarism, fibrous dysplasia, Prader Willi

b) T

c) F

d) T

e) T

Thickening of the skull vault occurs in 69

a) T

b) T chronic severe anaemia sickle & thalassaemia

c) F may show thickening in healing phase, but a bit small print

shunted hydrocephalus, PTH, acromegaly, osteopetrosis, meningioma, FD, Pagets, HFI

The optic nerve is enlarged with 70

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) T

Regarding unilateral exophthalmos 71

a) T thyroid orbitopathy also commonest cause of bilat. exophthalmos

b) T

c) T

The superior orbital fissure is enlarged in 72

a) T also: ICA aneurysm, LCH, pituitary tumour

b) T

c) F small SOF

Bilateral, symmetrical intracranial calcification is a feature of 73

a) F midline calcification

b) T basal ganglia calcification

c) T

d) F

e) T

Suprasellar lesions may be caused by 74

a) T meningioma, craniopharyngioma, chiasmal glioma, hypothalamic glioma

b) F

c) T germinoma, epidermoid, dermoid, arachnoid cyst, infundibular tumour

d) T

e) F

Giant intracranial aneurysms 75

a) F no age predilection, twice as common in men

b) T also at AICA, VA, cavernous ICA, supraclinoid ICA

c) T

With subarachnoid haemorrhage 76

a) T obstructive hydroephalus in first week

b) T can persist longer than one week

c) T indicates site of vessel rupture in 70%

d) F bleeding aneurysm is C/L in 60%, and not seen at CT because of spasm

e) F

Regarding brain MRI 77

a) F

b) T

Parathyroid adenomas 78

a) are commoner in the inferior parathyroids

b) F low reflectivity

c) T

d) F

The following statements are true 79

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) T usually no enhancement

e) T

Spinal cord compression may be due to 80

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) F

f) F

In the lumbar spine 81

a) T

b) F

c) T

d) T

Widened sutures are seen in 82

a) T OI, rickets, cleidocranial dysplasia, pyknodysostosis

b) T

c) F hypervitaminosis A

d) T

e) T

f) F

Regarding MRI of the spine 83

a) T

b) F

c) F

d) F

Acquired cholesteatoma of the middle ear 84

a) T erodes long process of incus first of all

b) T

c) F

d) T erodes lateral semicircular canal before others

e) F presents with vertigo and deafness

Regarding intracranial mass lesions 85

a) F

b) T

c) F

Increased size of the optic nerve is a feature of 86

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) T

Regarding thyrpoid scintigraphy 87

a) F 123I

b) T

c) T

d) F

e) T

Laryngeal carcinoma 88

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) F

Regarding ameloblastoma 89

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) F

Spina bifida is associated with 90

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) F coax valga

e) T

Syringomyelia is associated with 91

a) F

b) T mostly in T-spine

c) T

d) T

Atlanto-axial instability is a feature of 92

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) T

The following are features of acute extradural haematoma 93

a) F usually ipsilateral

b) F

c) T rarely admixture of acute and old blood, or with settling and haematocrit

d) T

e) T

Optic nerve enlargement seen on CT may be due to 94

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

Calcification within the orbit on plain radiographs may be due to 95

a) F

b) T

c) F

d) F

e) F

Chordoma 96

a) T

b) T

c) F

d) F up to 40% metastasize

e) T photopaenia

Regarding acoustic neuromas 97

a) F 80% arise in IAM

b) F

Regarding CT of the temporal bones 98

a) T

b) F

Complications of phenytoin therapy include 99

a) F

b) F

c) F

Regarding CT of the lumbar spine 100

a) F

b) F

c) T

d) F

Frontal sinus mucocoele 101

a) T

b) F

c) T usually in adulthood

d) T

Regarding the larynx 102

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) F

Features of Wegeners granulomatosis include 103

a) T

b) T

Concerning intracranial haemorrhage 104

a) T

b) T

The mandible is small in 105

a) F

b) F

Silver Russel, Pierre Robin, Treacher Collins, fetal alcohol, progeria, Turners

A 30 year old male homosexual patient presents with paraplegia and myelography is requested 106

a) HIV status should be determined without the patients consent

b) hospital staff are at risk

c) 1% hyperchlorite solution is suitable for cleaning surfaces

d) lymphoma is a recognised complication of HIV infection

Reliable indicators of cervical spine instability include 107

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) F focal narrowing or widening

reduced height, > 2 mm displacement, widening of interlaminar space/interspinous space/facet joints/interpedicular distance, disruption of posterior vertebral body line, focal angulation

Orbital pseudotumour 108

a) T

b) T

Multiple areas of low attenuation are seen on brain CT in 109

a) F symmetrically enlarged sulci

b) T

c) T

Mandibular cysts are a recognised finding in 110

a) T

b) T

c) T

Neurofibromatosis is associated with 111

a) F multiple cystic bone lesions do occur, also NOF

b) T

c) T

d) liver and renal cysts

e) F

The following can be seen in spinal dysraphism 112

a) F

b) T

c) T

Atlanto-axial instability is associated with 113

a) F

b) T

Nasal polyps are associated with 114

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) commoner in the ethmoid sinuses in children

Primary hyperparathyroidism in adults 115

a) F 90% due to parathyroid adenoma

b) F brown tumours are usually diaphyseal

c) T

The following cause neurological disease in HIV patients 116

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) T

Mucocoele of the sphenoid sinus 117

a) F commonly expands into orbit, BUT NO BONE DESTRUCTION

On unenhanced CT, the following are characteristically of low attenuation 118

a) F

b) F

c) F

d) T

The following associations are true 119

a) F

b) T

Spinal cord injury is common with 120

a) bilateral interfacetal dislocation

b) F

c) F

d) fracture of the odontoid peg

Apical (periodontal) cysts 121

a) F

b) F

c) F 60% anterior to canines

of all dental cysts, commoner in men 70%

in maxilla, 40% mandible 60%

the following can cause an enhancing mass in the suprasellar area 122

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) F

The following can present as a mass in the nasal cavity in a 24 yr old male 123

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

Features of Sturge-Weber 124

a) T

b) F

c) CAUSES HEMIATROPHY

d) F

e) T

Intraorbital calcifications 125

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) F not calcified, but increased attenuation of hyaline material

e) T secondary to systemic hypercalcaemia

Carotid body tumours 126

a) T

b) F 6% are malignant mets to nodes, brachial plexus, cerebellum, lung

c) F splays the ICA & CCA, but no narrowing

CT head of an adult 2 weeks post infarct 127

a) F

b) F

Throid opthalmopathy 128

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) T

Carotid angiography 129

a) T

b) F aneurysms in 0.5-5%

Regarding tumours of parapharyngeal space 130

a) T

b) patchy enhancement is characteristic of lymph nodes

c) homogeneous enhancement is seen in ganglioblastoma

d) F anteromedial displacement

Orbital lesions 131

a) F

b) T

c) diagnosis of uveal melanoma is excluded if retinal in origin

Cerebral trauma 132

a) T frontal < temporal

b) F

Carotid Doppler 133

a) T

b) T but is unreliably assessed due to poor intimal visualisation

c) T at least 70% - more like 80-99%

d) T

The second branchial arch cyst 134

a) T

b) 50% enter beyond carotid bifurcation

c) T

the following are seen in chronic alcoholism 135

a) T

b) T

c) T

dandy walker amlformation 136

(a) F other CNS anomalies in > 60% (dysgenesis of CC, holoprosencephaly

b) T

c) F agenesis of vemis

d) F

Herpes simplex encephalitis 137

a) T

b) F

c) F spares the putamen

d) T

e) T

Retinoblastoma 138

a) F

b) F 40% bilateral

c) T

d) T in 25% spread along optic nerve

e) T similar SI to uveal melanoma

Glomus jugulare 139

a) F erodes posteroinferior petrous pyramid

b) T

c) T

d) F

e) T salt & pepper appearance due oo multiple small vessels

Concerning parathyroid imaging 140

a) T enters mitochondria-rich tissues, washes out of thyroid quickly and stays in abnormal parathyroid

b) F

c) T

d) T

e) T low energy high resolution for 201-thallium

Blood on MR 141

a) T

b) F isointense or low signal

c) F haemosiderin staining is not detected by CT

_/_ _ oxyHb

_ _/_ deoxyHb

_ _ IC metHb

_ _ EC metHb

__ _ haemosid

Low density change in thalami seen in 142

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) cryptosporidium

CT of paranasal sinuses 143

a) F

b) T

c) better than MRI in inflammation

CT of the parapharyngeal sinuses: the following are intimately associated with the osteomeatal complex 144

a) F

b) sinus lateralis

c) T uncinate, ethmoids bulla, hiatus semilunaris

d) T

e) T

Retinoblastoma 145

a) T

b) T enhancement a poor prognostic sign

c) T

the following are recognised in von Hippel Lindau 146

a) F

b) T haemangioblastomas cerebellum 65%, brainstem 20%, spinal cord 15%

c) F

d) T pancreatic cysts in 30-50%

e) T lifetime risk of RCC 70%, also 20-45% quoted! cysts in 75%

in patients with diagnosis of acute SAH 147

a) negative angiogram in <5%

b) 10% patients will experience a deterioration in neurological signs following the angiogram

c) rebleeding is more likely in patients who presented with a larger bleed

the following sequences are better than standard spin echo T2 MR at picking up MS lesions 148

a) F

b) F

c) T STIR better for spinal cord, probably

d) T good for periventricular lesions, but not for posterior fossa or cord

e) T better lesion to CSF contrast

Lesions in the posterior cerebellum or associated connective pathways cause 149

a) T

b) T

c) F

d) F

e) T

Intr cerebral haemorrhage is associated with 150

a) T pial venous angiomas can rarely bleed

b) F

c) T

d) T

e) T

Concerning the mandible 151

a) F CONDYLAR NECK

b) F

c) F

d) T

e) T

Branchial cysts 152

a) F

b) F lined by stratified squamous epi

c) F slightly higher signal than muscle due to cholesterol

d) F usually present in ages range 10-40

Retroorbital pseudotumour 153

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

Concerning cerebral angio 154

a) frame rate of 6/sec suitable for assessment of AVMs

b) F

Cerebral involvement in HIV 155

a) F

b) F

c) T

d) F

Enhancing suprasellar masses 156

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) F

e) T

Thyroid eye disease 157

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) F

Adenoid cystic carcinoma in head and neck 158

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) T

Regarding cerebral infections 159

a) T

b) T

c) T

Ring enhancement seen in 160

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) T

:Dandy walker malformation 161

a) F

b) T

c) F assoc abnormalities in > 60%

d) T

e) F

:Dental cysts 162

a) F peak 30-60 for adamantinoma ABC in range 10-30

b) F commonest cyst, accounting for 60%

:Orbital calcification seen in 163

a) F

b) T also NF, RB, choroidal osteoma, TSC

c) T

d) T

e) F

:SAH 164

a) F 98% day 1, 50% day 7

b) T

c) F

d) F

e) T few case reports of SAH in RA

:Concerning stroke 165

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) F

:High signal on T2 seen in 166

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) F high signal on GE, which would be T2* - signal void on SE

e) F anterior pituitary isointense to white matter T1/T2, posterior is bright on T1, iso on T2

:Concerning cystic hygroma 167

a) T

b) T

c) F arise in posterior cervical space and lower face in 75-80%

d) T

e) F respiratory distress not common

:CT of parapharyngeal tissue 168

a) F anteromedial

b) T

c) T

d) F

e) F

f) T

:Extradural haematoma 169

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) T 80% occur in first few days, up to 21 days

:MRI brain increased signal on T1 170

a) F

b) F

:Imaging of petrous ridge 171

a) T

b) F no sclerosis

c) T

d) F cholesteatoma does not enhance

:Absence of corpus callosum 172

a) T

b) T

c) T bat wing appearance of LVs

d) T

e) T DWM in 10%

:White matter lesions in MS may be better visualised compared to conventional spin echo T2 images with the following sequences 173

a) T

b) F better for SC though

c) F

d) F

e) T

:Regarding dural sinus thrombosis 174

a) T see below

b) F

c) F 1-2%

d) T

e) classically causes grey matter infarction

T1 T2

Normal sinus Variable Low

Acute (0-5/7) Intermediate Low

Subacute (5-15/7) High High

Late (> 15/7) Progressive heterogeneous signal loss

:Regarding neurofibromatosis 175

a) T

b) T

c) F subungual fibromas are a feature of TSC

d) T

e) F AD

:Regarding mucocele 176

a) F 60% frontal

!b) F are you not listening? frontal

c) F

d) F rim enhancement

e) F signal void due to inspissated debris

:Regarding orbital rhabdomyosarcoma 177

a) F

b) T more often as exophthalmos and proptosis of upper lid

c) T

d) T

e) T may show significant enhancement

:The following are features of pseudotumour 178

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

:Regarding thyroid imaging 179

a) T

b) T if it contains functioning thyroid tissue

c) T

:A 64 year old man attends with a presumed diagnosis of a glioma. The following imaging features would cast doubt on the diagnosis 180

a) located solely within grey matter

b) entirely intraventricular

c) thin wall enhancement seen after contrast

d) T

e) T

:Regarding mandibular lesions 181

a) F

b) T

c) F

d) F

e) T

:Loss of intervertebral joint space may occur with 182

a) T

b) F disc space well preserved

c) F vertebra plana with preserved disc space

d) T

:Causes of sclerotic pedicle 183

a) T mets, OB, OO, stress-induced (congenital absence, malalignment, spondylolisthesis), lymphoma, osteosarcoma, Pagets

b) T

c) T

d) T

:Fused vertebrae 184

a) F

b) T

c) F

d) T

e) T

Disc space narrowing seen in 185

a) T

b) F

c) F

d) T slight narrowing, endplate irregularity and vertebral wedging

e) T

WIDE in: acromegaly, biconcave vertebra, calcific discitis, endplate infarction, osteomalacia, osteoporosis

Spondylosis 186

(a) F 65-95% L5, 15-30% L4, 5% L3 (bilateral in 75%

b) F

c) T gymnastics, diving, soccer, hockey, lacrosse

d) T

e) T

Loss of lamina dura is seen in 187

a) F

b) T PTH, inflammation, osteoporosis, periodontitis

c) T

d) T

Sudden osteoparotic collapse of a vertebral body 188

a) F

b) F

c) T

Causes of radiolucent lesions in the jaw 189

a) F

b) T radicular cyst, cementoma, dentigerous cyst, ameloblastoma, bone cyst, Fong disease, basal cell naevus

c) T

d) T

e) T

Widening of the interpedicular distance is seen in 190

a) F

b) F reduced ALSO reduced in Klippel Feil, Turners

c) T also in NF1, MPS, syringomyelia

d) T

Increased interpedicular distance seen in 191

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) T

:Regarding CT of parapharyngeal tissue 192

a) T

b) T

c) F

d) F

e) T

:Regarding extradural haematomas 193

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) T

:The following lesions demonstrate increased signal on T1 weighted imaging of the brain 194

a) F

b) F

:Regarding imaging of the petrous ridge 195

a) T

b) F

c) T

d) F

:Regarding parathyroid adenomas 196

a) F

b) F

c) F

d) T

e) T

: The MEN IIA syndrome is associated with 197

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) F

e) F

.The following conditions are causes of low attenuation in the basal ganglia on unenhanced CT 198

a) Parkinsons disease

b) T

c) T

d) F calcification

e) F calcification

Causes of hyperdense lesions on non-contrast brain CT 199

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) F

e) T

f) T

g) T

h) T

i) T

Features of an arachnoid cyst include 200

a) F floor of middle cerebral fossa 50% at anterior temporal obe

b) T

c) characteristically causes underdevelopment of adjacent cerebral structures

d) T SDH/intracystic haemorrhage also hydrocephalus in 30-60%

Concerning CT scanning of the parapharyngeal space 201

a) F

b) T

Regarding thyroid acropachy 202

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) F

e) F

The following are features of a primordial cyst 203

a) F radicular cyst 60-75%, dentigerous cyst 10-15%, OKC 5-10%

b) F 70-80% in mandible, mostly in region posterior to first premolar

c) T

Tend to recur after treatment, associated with Gorlin syndrome, unilocular or multilocular, reach large sizes without causng gross bony expansion

The following are true of CSF rhinorrhoea in head injury 204

a) F most non-surgical cases present immediately, only 50% of iatrogenic cases present in the first week

(b) F 10% develop meningitis in first week (40% if non-traumatic

Odontogenic Keratocysts 205

a) F

b) F can be unilocular or multilocular

c) T

d) T recurrence in 10-60%

Regarding retinoblastoma 206

(a) F 33% (20-25% heritable sporadic form, 10% AD

b) T

c) T

d) T unlike contrast enhancement

Concerning pituitary adenoma 207

a) F macroadenomas account for 70-80%

b) T

c) T

d) T high SI on T2W

Cystic hygroma 208

a) T

b) F

c) T can compress airways and oesophagus

d) T chromosomal anomalies in 60-80%

e) T also with aminopterin, trimethadione

The following are recognised causes of intracranial calcification 209

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

Low attenuation areas in the basal ganglia on CT are seen in 210

a) T CO/CN/antifreeze/methanol poisoning, lacunar infarct, near drowning, MS, NF1, CJD, MELAS, MERRF

b) F

c) F no such thing as a cerebral adenoma

An intraventricular mass may be due to 211

a) toxoplasmosis

b) T ependymoma, astrocytoma, colloid cyst, meningioma, choroid plexus papilloma, epidermoid, dermoid, craniopharyngioma

c) T

d) T

e) T

Branchial cysts 212

a) F

b) F

c) F present at 10-40 yrs

d) F branchial fistulas communicate with pharynx

e) calcify

The majority of these lesions are calcified when seen on CT 213

a) T 70-90% childhood, 30-50% adult craniopharyngiomas

b) F

c) F 25% CP papillomas calcify

d) T

In subarachnoid haemorrhage 214

a) T 75% aneurysms, 10% AVM

b) F

c) T

Concerning acoustic neuromas 215

a) T sensorineural deafness in 95% - for high frequency sounds

b) T

c) 5% of patients with sensorineural deafness have them

In benign intracranial hypertension 216

a) F headache and papilloedema is characteristic presentation

b) F small ventricles

c) F shunting lowers pressure, main drawback is need for frequent revision in a few people

d) F

Abnormal teeth are a feature of 217

(a) T dental hypoplasia (delayed eruption, impaction, supernumerary teeth

(b) T premature loss of deciduous teeth (incisor first

c) T irregular, pointed dysplastic teeth, partial anodontia

d) T floating teeth

Gyral calcification may be seen in 218

a) T

b) T

c) F

CT features of orbital pseudotumours 219

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) F

The IAMs are characteristically widened in 220

a) F

b) F uncommon in IAM

c) T also: vestibular schwannomas, cholesteatoma, brain stem glioma,mets, NF

d) F erosion of petrous apex, widening of FO, FR, SOF

e) F

MRI of multiple sclerosis 221

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) T

e) F

CT brain 222

a) F calcification is atypical of medulloblastoma

b) F

c) F

d) T

e) T

The following lesions are of decrease signal on T1 and increased signal on T2 223

a) T

b) F

c) F

d) T cystic component

e) F low signal on T1 and T2

CT of the ears 224

a) F

b) T

c) T

d) D

Diplopia occurs in 225

a) T

b) T

c) T

d) F

e) T

Concerning thyroid scintigraphy 226

a) T

b) F

c) T

d) T

Neuro radiology up Neuro set 2

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