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QUESTION: 1 In information technology, we often build products requirements/specifications which although documented not true quality needs of our customers. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 2 Our products must be corrected so that they will eventually meet our customers' true quality needs. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com
QUESTION: 3 Quality without timeliness and cost consideration is ________________
A. Meaningless B. Beneficial C. One of product deficiencies D. Cheaper
QUESTION: 4 We can produce products at our convenience and at any cost A. True B. False
QUESTION: 5 Those responsible for quality must include
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A. Cost consideration B. delivery at required time C. At required quality D. 1 & 2 E. 2 & 3 F. All the above
QUESTION: 6 Quality is ----------------'s responsibility.
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 7 Management must create an _______________ and _______________ for quality to happen. A. Environment , enthusiasm B. Principles, reward C. Empowerment, rewards
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 8 Management must make quality number one and then reward quality work. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 9 Monetary and non monetary rewards can be considered management to make people enjoy what they are doing. A. True B. False
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Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 10 Product inspections and testing can be eliminated by building processes to eliminate root causes of defects and producing defect free products.
QUESTION: 11 The following comprise the processes - Which is correct A. Policies, standards, procedures B. standards, procedures, policies C. Procedures, policies, standards D. Policies, procedures, standards
QUESTION: 12 Quality is not an attribute of product. A. True B. False
QUESTION: 13 Quality is not a binary state A. True B. False
QUESTION: 14 Quality need not be defined in quantitative terms in order to be measurable. A. True
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B. False
QUESTION: 15 Quality can be controlled only if it is measured. A. True B. False
QUESTION: 16 Judgement is an audit function A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 17 AQL means A. Audit quality level B. Audit quantity level C. Accepted quality level
QUESTION: 18 Management must support zero defects A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 19
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Deficiencies of AQL are A. Undermines the concept of quality B. Does not aim at eradicating the cause of defects From the processes. C. 1 & 2 D. None of the above.
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 20 Non conformance must be detected as early as possible measured. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 21 High defect prone products and processes are identified testing the product after all processes are over. A. True B. False
QUESTION: 22 80% of all defects are attributable to incorrect ineffective processes. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 23 _____________ is responsible for processes and must accept the responsibility for nonconformance at least to 80% attributable to the processes. A. QA department B. QC department C. Information technology management
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Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 24 The concept that is an integral part of information technology function is A. Meeting the requirements B. Producing a quality product C. Customer's view of quality is the correct view quality.
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 25 Probability of being successful is extremely high, customer's problems are taken as company's problems. A. True B. False
QUESTION: 26 Quality work can be rewarded. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 27 The topics of standards and nonconformance should discussed in every meeting to improve quality. A. True B. False
QUESTION: 28
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Quality is a ______________ Responsibility. A. Staff B. Line C. Both
QUESTION: 29 Everyone should be involved in quality improvement programs. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 30 The responsibility of supervisor A. Teach subordinates how to perform B. To evaluate subordinate performance C. Assist and support workers until they become proficient D. 1 &2 E. 1 & 3 F. 2 & 3 G. 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION: 31 Standards, procedures and metrics are to be established workers doing the job. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 32 Management can always override standards and procedures established by workers absolutely when necessary.
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QUESTION: 33 It is better to deal with more number of vendors
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 34 Quality pyramid illustrates core processes (building blocks) of quality) and implementation dimension of each process A. True B. False
QUESTION: 35 Baselining is quantitatively determining what you want be. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 36 Analysis is performed before baselining is done. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 37 Analaysis is done to determine which area is in need improvement. A. True B. False
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Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 38 Vision provides an umbrella for focusing all the plans in order to achieve constancy of purpose. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 39 Planning involves agreeing on specific objectives and you hope to get there. A. True B. False
QUESTION: 40 Six sigma quality is ___________ A. 1.2 Defects per million lines of code B. 3.4 Defects per million lines of code C. 6.1 Defects per million lines of code
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 41 Deming's 14 quality principles emphasize the following strategy: 1. Management must lead, direct, train, empower and support rather than supervise and control. 2. MBP is important rather than MBO 3. Long term continual quality improvement must be focus rather than short term profit/cost. A. 1 only; B. 1 & 2; C. 1 & 3; D. 2 & 3; E. all the above.
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Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 42 The three levels of management are A. Lower, middle and upper B. Executive, middle, line
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 43 Executive is __________ and ____________ A. Directional and tactical B. Tactical and strategic C. Visionary and strategic D. Visionary and directional
QUESTION: 44 Middle is ___________ and ____________ A. Visionary and tactical B. Visionary and directional C. Directional and tactical
QUESTION: 45 Line is ____________ A. Directional B. Tactical C. Operational
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QUESTION: 46 Executive must establish a working relationship with middle management and middle management must establish a working relationship with line management and line management establish a working relationship with executive management A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 47 CASE tools can be introduced duly integrating standards and supporting procedures. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 48 Tools supporting processes to be ensured rather processes supporting tools. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 49 Quality control is the responsibility of people who evolve the processes. A. True B. False
QUESTION: 50 Quality defect is non conformance to standards. A. True B. False
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Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 51 Techniques for identifying deviations from standards Deviations from product specifications must be integrate into all work processes. A. True B. False
QUESTION: 52 Verification activity is a static analysis. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 53 Common verification techniques are A. Walkthroughs, checkpoint reviews, inspections B. Test plan, test execution
QUESTION: 54 Testing is not a verification technique A. True B. False
QUESTION: 55 Types of measurement of performance are A. strategic, statical, operational
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B. Strategic, tactical, operational
QUESTION: 56 Match: A. Strategic - a. Operational management B. Tactical - b. Executive management C. Operational - c. Middle management
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 57 Management must retain decision making authority identify and resolve problems. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 58 Rational, analytical techniques can be used for problem resolution/problem solving. A. True B. False
QUESTION: 59 Seven core processes are A. Baseline, analyse, vision and plan B. Establish a TQM process C. Install and improve processes D. Control quality (walkthrough, reviews and inspections E. Quality control (validation-test plan/test execution) F. Perform quantitative analysis G. Perform continuous improvement
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QUESTION: 60 Plan - Baseline, plan - approach part Do - Set short term objectives , compare results targets, revise approach if required Check & act - check results, replan and recheck Results - final results Approach is repeatable.
QUESTION: 61 Quality means A. conformance to requirements B. meeting customer needs C. both D. none
Answer: C QUESTION: 62 AQL stands for A. Allowable Quality Level B. Allocated Quality Level C. Acceptable Quality Level D. Allowed Quality Level
Answer: C QUESTION: 63 For quality to happen, there must be well-defined standards and procedures which are followed. A. True B. False
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 64 Many technical personnel believe that standards inhibit their creativity. A. True B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 65 Achieving quality (defect-free products and services) is easy. A. True B. False
Answer: B QUESTION: 66 The challenge of making quality happen is A. a miniscule challenge B. a monumental challenge
Answer: B QUESTION: 67 Accomplishing quality requires "a thought revolution by management.". Who stated as above? A. Dr. Malcolm Baldrige B. Dr. Kaoru Ishikawa C. Bill Gatesd)William J Clinton
Answer: B
QUESTION: 68 Taylor approach refers to A. Engineers create work standards and specifications. Workers merely follow.
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B. Engineers create work standards and specifications. Both engineers and workers follow. C. Engineers create work standards and specifications and follow them.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 69 In Zero defect movement all responsibilities and defects are borne by the workers. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 70 The word "kick-off" is used in A. Zero Defect Movement B. Deming's Circle C. QAI's Quality Improvement Model
Answer: A QUESTION: 71 Dr. W. Edwards Deming has stated that it takes ____________ years to change a culture from an emphasis on productivity to an emphasis on quality.(10 years/20 years/2 to 5 years/none of these)
Answer: 20 years
QUESTION: 72 Quality means meeting requirements. This is ____________view. (producer's /customer's )
Answer: producer's view
QUESTION: 73 Quality means fit for use. This is ________________view. (producer's /customer's )
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Answer: customer's view QUESTION: 74 Which one of the following definitions of quality is more important. A. Quality means meeting requirements. B. Quality means fit for use.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 75 Quality control is a ______________ function. (line/staff)
Answer: line
QUESTION: 76 Quality assurance is a ____________ function. (line/staff)
Answer: staff QUESTION: 77 By what other two names is PDCA process referred to?
Answer: Management Cycle/Deming's wheel
QUESTION: 78 What does "Going Around the PDCA Circle" connote?
Answer: The four-step procedure, viz., Plan-Do-Check-Act is referred to as PDCA. Repeatedly going through the management cycle is known as "going around the PDCA circle".
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QUESTION: 79 The no of principles in Dr. W. Edwards Deming's quality principles is ____________. (8/10/12/14/16)
Answer: 14 QUESTION: 80 For quality to happen it is not necessary that all the Deming's principles are used concurrently. A. True B. False
Answer: B QUESTION: 81 The award has three eligibility categories which are Manufacturing, Service and Small business. A. True B. False
QUESTION: 82 Manufacturing Companies includes A. Agriculture B. Mining C. Construction D. All the above E. b & c
QUESTION: 83 Upto two awards can be given in each category each year.(T/F)
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A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 84 Please tick which of the following are covered under award criteria.
A. Leadership. B. Strategic Planning. C. Customer & Market Focus. D. Information & Analysis. E. Human Resource Development & Management. F. Process Management. G. Business Results. H. Funds Management. I. Materials Management.
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 85 The total maximum points for award criteria is A. 100 points B. 500 points C. 1000 points D. 10000 points
QUESTION: 86 Under strategic planning, we have
A. Strategy planning B. Strategy Development C. Human resource plans D. Only a & b E. a, b, & c.
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QUESTION: 87 Leadership category includes
A. Leadership system B. Societal Responsibilities C. Community Involvement D. a,b & c E. a & b only.
QUESTION: 88 Describing how company practices a good citizenship is a part of leadership category. A. True B. False
QUESTION: 89 Performance projections forms part of strategic planning. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 90 Customer and Market focus examines
A. Customer and Market knowledge B. Customer satisfaction & relationship enhancement C. Financial & Market results. D. All the above E. Only a & b.
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Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 91 Accessibility and complaint management forms part of customer and market knowledge. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 92 Information and Analysis deals with
A. Selection and use of Information and data B. Selection and use of comparative Information & data C. Analysis of data D. Only a & c E. a,b & c.
QUESTION: 93 Analysis of data comprises A. Customer related performance B. Operational performance C. Competitive performance D. Financial & market related performance E. All the above F. b,c & d.
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 94 HRD Management includes A. Compensation & Recognition B. Work and Job design
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C. Employee education, training & development D. Work environment E. All the above F. Only a,c & d
QUESTION: 95 Employee support services not forms part of a HRD Management category A. True B. False
QUESTION: 96 Process Management includes
A. Design Process B. Management of Support Process C. Supplier and Partnering process D. Only a & b E. a,b & c.
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 97 Company's key support process should be designed, __________ and improved.
QUESTION: 98 Business results include A. Customer satisfaction results B. Financial and market results C. Human resource principles D. Supplier and Partner results
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E. Company specific results F. All the above G. a,b,d & e.
QUESTION: 99 Pricing is also important to competitive success and customer satisfaction. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 100 Human resource results does not cover work system performance A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 101 Organisation at initial level can improve their performance by instituting
A. Project Management B. Management Oversight C. Quality Assurance D. Change Control E. All the above F. Only a,b, & d
QUESTION: 102 Establishing project management requires A. Adequate Preparation B. Clear Responsibility
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C. Dedication to Perform D. All the above E. None of the above.
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 103 Management oversight does not include review and approval of all major development plans prior to official commitment. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 104 Quality Assurance Dept should not have independent reporting line to senior management and they should report to middle management for better performance. A. True B. False
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 105 Generally the strength of QA dept should be ______________ percent of size of organisation.
A. 1 to 2 B. 3 to 6 C. 10 to 20 D. 70 to 80
QUESTION: 106 Change control for software is fundamental to ____________ and ______________ control as well as to _______________ stability. A. business, finance, technical
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B. finance, technical, business C. technical, business, finance D. None of the above.
QUESTION: 107 In repeatable process, the organisation provides control over its _______________ and ___________________. A. Resources and commitments B. Plan & commitments C. Resources & quality Control D. None of the above.
QUESTION: 108 The changes that effect organisation at repeatable process are
A. New tools & methods. B. When organisation ventures into new field C. Major organisational changes D. All the above E. None of the above
QUESTION: 109 To overcome the changes that affect repeatable process the organisation should do
A. Establish process group B. Establish S/W development process architecture C. Introduces S/W Engg methods & technologies D. All the above. E. Only a,b & c.
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QUESTION: 110 In defined process, the organisation has A. achieved foundation for major and continuing progress B. able to face crisis C. Both D. Neither a or b.
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 111 The Defined process is still only qualitative but not measurable qantatively A. True B. False
QUESTION: 112 Key steps required to be initiated at defined process are A. Establish quality and cost parameters B. Establish process database C. Provide resources to gather & maintain data D. Establish Total quality plan E. All the above F. Only a,b & c.
QUESTION: 113 The greatest potential problem with the managed process is the cost of gathering data A. True B. False
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QUESTION: 114 In managed process
A. Data should be defined B. Automate gathering of data C. Use process data to analyze D. All the above E. Only a & b
QUESTION: 115 In optimising process, process optimising is done to produce major quality & productivity benefits A. True B. False
QUESTION: 116 The Malcolm Baldridge National Quality Award is an annual award to recognise US companies which excel in A. Quality achievement and quality control B. Quality assurance and quality control C. Quality achievement and quality management
Answer: C
QUESTION: 117 Which of the following is inaccurate ? The award promotes A. Awareness of quality as an increasingly important element in competitiveness B. Understanding of the strategies for quality excellence C. Understanding of the requirements for quality excellence D. Sharing of information on successful strategies and on the benefits derived from implementation of these strategies
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Answer: B QUESTION: 118 The Malcolm Baldridge Award was created by Public Law 100-107, signed into law on 20th Aug 1987. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 119 Greater emphasis on statistical process control can lead to dramatic improvements in the cost and quality of manufactured products. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 120 Quality improvement programs must be management led and customer oriented. A. True B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 121 The match the three eligibility categories of the award A Companies or subsidiaries that produce and sell manufactured products or manufacturing processes and those companies which produce agricultural, mining or construction products. B Companies or subsidiaries that sell services. C Complete businesses with not more than 500 full time employees. Business activities may include manufacturing and / or service. 1. Small business 2. Manufacturing 3. Service
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A. 1 2 3, B. 3 2 1, C. 2 3 1.
Answer: C QUESTION: 122 The small business must be able to document that it functions through its equity owners. A. True B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION: 123 The number of awards given in each category each year is A. 3 B. 1 C. 2
Answer: C
QUESTION: 124 The National Quality Award model is divided into _______ categories which cover the major components of a ______________________.
Answer: 7, total quality management system
QUESTION: 125 Match the following A Driver 1. Quality results B System 2. Customer satisfaction C Measures of Progress 3. Information and analysis A. Strategic quality planning B. Human resources utilisation
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C. Quality Assurance of product and services D. Goal 4. Leadership
Answer: a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 2
QUESTION: 126 Leadership category examines the senior executives leadership A. in creating quality values B. building the values into the way the company does business C. how the executive and company project the quality values outside the company D. create a quality department and appoint a quality officer E. all the above F. a, b & c
Answer: F QUESTION: 127 Leadership evaluations are based upon the appropriateness, effectiveness and extent of the executives' and of the company's involvement in relation to the size and type of business. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 128 Quality department or officer / regulatory affairs office or officer is a prerequisite for eligibility under leadership criteria. A. True B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION: 129 Information and analysis category examines the scope, validity and use of data to determine the adequacy of the data system to support total quality management.
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A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 130 The scope, management and analysis of data depend upon
A. the type of business, its resources B. number and geographical distribution of business units C. and other factors D. all of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 131 Information and analysis evaluations are based upon A. the appropriateness and effectiveness of methods for management of data B. information and analysis C. and of technology in relation to these business factors D. all of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 132 Information and analysis evaluations do not depend on
A. how activities are organised or B. whether or not the company has an information department or an officer or C. uses particular technologies to analyse data or D. to make data available throughout the company E. all of the above.
Answer: E QUESTION: 133
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Strategic quality and planning category examines the company's approach to planning to determine its adequacy to achieve or sustain quality leadership. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 134 Competitive and benchmark data are essential for planning quality leadership because they make possible clear and objective quality comparisons. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 135 While the planning processes and priority development do not depend appreciably upon the size and type of business, the scope and type of benchmark may depend upon such business factors. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 136 The principal considerations in assessing the effectiveness of competitive and benchmark data are in relation to A. the competitive environment and resources of the company B. the type and size of the company C. a & b D. b only
Answer: A
QUESTION: 137
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Evaluations of planning are based upon the thoroughness and effectiveness of processes including the information used. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 138 Evaluations for strategic quality planning do not depend upon
A. how planning activities are organised B. whether or not the company has a planning department or officer C. a & b
Answer: C QUESTION: 139 Human resources utilisation category examines the company's efforts to develop and involve A. the entire workforce in total quality B. the management in total quality C. the line staff in total quality d. all the above
Answer: A
QUESTION: 140 The organisation of efforts to develop and involve employees depend upon A. the number of employees B. resources of the company C. geographical distribution of business units D. and other factors E. all the above
Answer: E QUESTION: 141
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Evaluations depend upon the appropriateness and effectiveness of approaches to human resource development and do not depend upon whether or not the company has either a human resource department or officer, or training and education specialists or facilities A. True B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 142 Quality assurance of products and services category has a very strong process and systems orientation throughout. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 143 The degree of formality in systems and processes depends upon a number of factors such as A. size of the business B. types of products and services C. customer and government requirements D. regulatory requirements E. number of business locations F. all the above
Answer: F QUESTION: 144 Quality assurance of products and services evaluations take into account consistency of execution of quality operations that incorporate a sound prevention basis accompanied by continuous quality improvement activities. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 145
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Consistency of execution is taken to mean the existence of defined and A. suitably recorded processes with clear delineation of responsibilities B. consistently executing operations C. other factors
Answer: A
QUESTION: 146 Evaluations for quality assurance of products and services depend upon A. how responsibilities are distributed or organised or B. whether or not the company has a quality organisation or officer C. none of the above
Answer: C QUESTION: 147 Quality results category examines the company's quality improvement and quality levels by themselves and in relation to those of competitors. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 148 The number and types of measures for quality results depend upon factors such as
A. the company's size B. types of products and services C. competitive environment D. all the above
Answer: A QUESTION: 149 Quality results evaluations consider whether or not the measures are sufficient to support overall improvement and to establish clear quality levels and comparisons.
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A. True B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 150 Customer satisfaction category examines A. the company's knowledge of customer requirements B. service and responsiveness C. satisfaction results measures through a variety of indicator D. all the above
Answer: D QUESTION: 151 The scope and organisation of activities to gather information to serve and to respond to customers depend upon many factors such as
A. company resource B. types of products and services C. geographical distribution of business units D. customers E. none of the above F. all of the above
Answer: F QUESTION: 152 Customer satisfaction evaluations are based upon the appropriateness and effectiveness of efforts in relation to these business factors. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 153 Customer satisfaction evaluations do not depend upon

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A. how responsibilities are distributed or B. whether or not the company has separate departments for customer service, complaints or other special purposes C. Both of the above
Answer: C QUESTION: 154 The seven examination categories address all major components of an integrated, prevention - based quality system built around continous quality improvement. A. True B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 155 The system for scoring examination items is based upon which of thefollowing evaluation dimensions
A. Approach B. Deployment C. Results D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 156 Approach refers to the method the company uses to achieve the
A. Evaluation of approaches B. purposes addressed in the examination items C. a & b
Answer: B
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QUESTION: 157 The scoring criteria used to evaluate approaches
A. the degree to which the approach is prevention based B. the appropriateness of the tools, techniques, and methods to the requirements C. the effectiveness of the use of tools, techniques and methods D. the degree to which the approach is systematic, integrated and consistently applied E. the degree to which the approach embodies effective self-evaluation, feedback and adaptation cycles to sustain continuous improvement F. the degree to which the approach is based upon quantitative information that is objective and reliable G. the indicators of unique and innovative approaches, including significant and effective new adaptations of tools and techniques used in other applications or types of businesses. H. all of the above I. any one or more of the above
Answer: I QUESTION: 158 Deployment refers to the extent to which the approaches are applied to all relevant areas and activities addressed and implied in the examination items. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 159 Scoring criteria used to evaluate deployment include
A. any one or more of the below B. the appropriate and effective application to all product and service characteristics C. the appropriate and effective application to all transactions and interactions with customers, suppliers of goods and services and the public D. the appropriate and effective application to all internal processes, activities, facilities and employees
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Results refers to outcomes and effect in achieving the purposes addressed and implied in the examination items A. True B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 161 The scoring criteria used to evaluation results include
A. any one or more of the below B. the quality levels demonstrated C. the contributions of the outcomes and effects to quality improvement D. the rate of quality improvement E. the breadth of quality improvement F. the demonstration of sustained improvement G. the significance of improvements to the company's business H. the comparison with industry and world leaders I. the company's ability to show that improvements derive from their quality practices and actions
Answer: A
QUESTION: 162 Match the following Initial A. Initiate rigorous project management of commitments, costs, schedules and changes Repeatable B. At this point advanced technology can be usefully introduced Defined C. Achieve rudimentary predictability of schedules and costs Managed D. Foundation for continuing improvement and optimisation of process Optimising E. Most significant quality improvements begin
Answer:
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1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - e, 5 - d
QUESTION: 163 The five maturity levels have been selected because they reasonably represent the actual historical phases of evolutionary improvement of real software organisation represent a measure of improvement that is reasonable to achieve from the prior level suggest interim improvement goals and progress measures make obvious a set of immediate improvement priorities, once an organizations status in this framework is known all the above A. Initiate rigorous project management of commitments, costs, schedules and changes Repeatable B. At this point advanced technology can be usefully introduced Defined C. Achieve rudimentary predictability of schedules and costs Managed D. Foundation for continuing improvement and optimisation of process Optimising E. Most significant quality improvements begin
Answer: E QUESTION: 164 The primary objective of the maturity level transitions is to achieve a controlled and measured process as the foundation for continuing improvement. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 165 Assessment methodology helps an organisation establish a structure for implementing the priority improvement actions. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 166 Management system helps an organisation identify its specific maturity status.
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A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 167 Once its position in the maturity structure is defined the organisation can concentrate on those items that will help it advance t the next level. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 168 Poor project planning generally leads to unrealistic schedules, inadequate resources and frequent crises. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 169 When a software organisation does not have an effective project planning system, it may be difficult or even impossible to introduce advanced methods and technology. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 170 In initial process (level 1) software installation and maintenance often present serious problems. A. True B. False
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 171 In organisations in level1, there is no mechanism to ensure that formal procedures for planning and tracking their work are used. A. True B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 172 In a crisis, if the organisation abandons established procedures and essentially reverts to coding and testing it is likely to be in at____________________ level A. repeatable process B. initial process C. both a & b D. none of the above
Answer: B QUESTION: 173 Because many effective software actions (such as design and code inspections or test data analysis) do not appear directly to support shipping the product, they are expendable. A. True B. False
Answer: B QUESTION: 174 Organisations at the initial process level can improve their performance by insisting basicc project controls like A. project management B. management oversight C. quality assurance D. change control E. all the above
Answer: E
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QUESTION: 175 For software, project management starts with an understanding of the job's magnitude. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 176 The fundamental role of the project management system is to ensure effective control of commitments. This requires adequate preparation, clear responsibility, a public declaration and a dedication to performance. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 177 In any but the simplest projects, a plan must be developed to determine the best schedule and the anticipated resources required. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 178 A suitably disciplined software development organisation must have senior management oversight. This includes review and approval of all major development plans prior to their official commitment. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 179 A quarterly review in Initial Process should be conducted of A. Facility-wide process compliance
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B. Installed quality performance C. Schedule tracking D. Cost trends E. Computing service F. Quality and productivity goals by project G. All the above
Answer: G QUESTION: 180 The lack of reviews typically results in uneven and generally inadequate implementation of the process as well as frequent over commitments and cost surprises. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 181 A quality assurance group is charged with assuring management that software work is done the way it is supposed to be done. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 182 To be effective the assurance organisation must have an independent reporting line to senior management and sufficient resources to monitor performance of all
A. Key planning, implementation and verification activities B. Implementation and verification activities C. Change control, verification and planning
Answer: A QUESTION: 183 _____________ for software is fundamental to business and financial control as well as to technical stability.
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A. Design and code change B. Change control C. a & b
Answer: B QUESTION: 184 To develop quality software on a predictable schedule _____________________ and maintained with reasonable stability throughout the development life cycle.
A. Change control must be established B. Requirements must be established
Answer: B QUESTION: 185 While requirement changes are often needed, historical evidence demonstrates that many have to be deferred indefinitely. A. True B. False
Answer: B QUESTION: 186 Design and code changes must be made to correct problems found in ________ ____, but these must be carefully introduced. A. Development plan B. Test plan C. Development and test
Answer: C QUESTION: 187 If changes are not controlled, then orderly _________________ is impossible and no quality plan can be effective.
A. Design, implementation and test
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B. Design and test C. Design and code
Answer: A QUESTION: 188 Organisations at the repeatable process level face major risks when they are presented with new challenges. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 189 Repeatable process provides control over the way the organisation establishes its__________. A. plans and commitments B. processes and products C. both the above
Answer: A QUESTION: 190 Organisations in the _________ process level have achieved a degree of statistical control through learning to make and meet their estimates and plans. A. defined B. initial C. repeatable
Answer: C
QUESTION: 191 New tools and methods will affect the process if they are not introduced with great care in the repeatable process. A. True B. False
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 192 At the repeatable process level, a new manager has orderly basis for understanding the organisation's operation, and new team members must learn the ropes through documents. A. True B. False
Answer: B QUESTION: 193 The key actions required to advance from the repeatable to the next stage, the defined process are A. to establish a process group B. establish a development process architecture C. introduce a family of software engineering methods and technologies D. all the above.
Answer: D QUESTION: 194 The process of establishing a software development process architecture or development life cycle, that describes the technical and management activities required for proper execution of the development process must be attuned to A. the documentation procedure of the organization B. the specific needs of the organisation
Answer: B QUESTION: 195 The decomposition of architecture continues until each defined task is performed by an individual or single management unit. A. True B. False
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 196 The architecture is a structural decomposition of the development cycle into tasks each of which has a defined set of prerequisites, functional descriptions, verification procedures and task completion specifications A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 197 The family of software engineering methods and technologies that can be introduced in repeatable process are
A. Design and code inspections B. Formal design methods C. Library control systems D. comprehensive testing methods E. all the above
Answer: E QUESTION: 198 With the defined process the organisation has achieved the foundation established for examining the process and deciding how to improve it. A. True B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 199 Defined process is quantitative. A. True B. False
Answer: B
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QUESTION: 200 With a defined process, we can focus the measurements on specific tasks. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 201 The process architecture is an essential prerequisite to effective measurement. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 202 The key steps to advance from the defined process to the managed process are establish a minimum basic set of process measurements to identify the quality and cost parameters of each process step. A. establish a process data base and the resources to manage and maintain it. B. provide sufficient process resources to gather and maintain this process data and to advise project members on its use. C. assess the relative quality of each product and inform management where quality targets are not being met. D. all the above E. a, b ,c only
Answer: E QUESTION: 203 The greatest potential problem with the managed process is the cost of gathering data. A. True B. False
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In managed process approach data gathering with care and precisely define each piece of data in advance. A. True B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 205 Productivity data is essentially meaningless unless explicitly defined. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 206 It is rare that two projects are comparable by any simple measures. The variations in task complexity caused by different product types ca exceed five to one. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 207 The degree of requirements change can make no difference as can the design status of the base program in the case of enhancements. A. True B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 208 Process data must be used to compare projects or individuals. A. True B. False
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Answer: B QUESTION: 209 The purpose of process data is to illuminate the product being developed and to provide an informal basis for improving the process. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 210 When process data is used by the management to evaluate individuals or teams, the reliability of the data itself will deteriorate. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 211 The fundamental requirements for advancing from the managed process to optimising process are
A. support automatic gathering of process data B. use process data both to analyse and to modify the process to prevent problems and improve the efficiency C. both the above
Answer: C
QUESTION: 212 In varying degrees, process optimisation goes on at all levels of process maturity. A. True B. False
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 213 Up to managed process level, software development managers have largely focused on their products and will typically gather and analyse only data that directly relates to product improvement. A. True B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 214 In the optimising process the data is available to tune the process itself. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 215 With a little experience, management can soon see that process optimisation can produce major quality and productivity benefits. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 216 Many types of errors can be identified and fixed far more economically by design and code inspections than by testing. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 217 The data that is available with the optimising process gives us a new perspective on testing. A. True B. False
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 218 For most projects, a little analysis shows that there are two distinct activities involved
A. the removal of defects B. the assessment of program quality C. application of technology to critical tasks D. a & b
Answer: C QUESTION: 219 To reduce the cost of removing defects, inspections should be emphasised, together with any other cost-effective techniques. The role of functional system testing should then be changed to one of gathering quality data on the programs A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 220 With the optimising process, the data is available to justify the application of technology to various critical tasks, and numerical evidence is available on the effectiveness with which the process has been applied to any given product. A. True B. False
Answer: A QUESTION: 221 With the optimising process, the organisation has the means to identify the weakest elements of the process and to fix them. A. True B. False
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Answer: A QUESTION: 222 Verification is: A. Checking that we are building the right system B. Checking that we are building the system right C. Performed by an independent test team D. Making sure that it is what the user really wants
Answer: B
QUESTION: 223 A regression test: A. Will always be automated B. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected C. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected D. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
Answer: B QUESTION: 224 If an expected result is not specified then: A. We cannot run the test B. It may be difficult to repeat the test C. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed D. We cannot automate the user inputs
Answer: C
QUESTION: 225 Which of the following could be a reason for a failure 1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Environment Fault 5) Documentation Fault
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A. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not B. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not C. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not D. All of them are valid reasons for failure
Answer: D QUESTION: 226 Test are prioritized so that: A. You shorten the time required for testing B. You do the best testing in the time available C. You do more effective testing D. You find more faults
Answer: B
QUESTION: 227 Which of the following is not a static testing technique A. Error guessing B. Walkthrough C. Data flow analysis D. Inspections
Answer: A QUESTION: 228 Which of the following statements about component testing is not true? A. Component testing should be performed by development B. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing C. Component testing should have completion criteria planned D. Component testing does not involve regression testing
Answer: D QUESTION: 229 During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively? A. Execution
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B. Design C. Planning D. Check Exit criteria completion
Answer: C
QUESTION: 230 Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester? A. Being diplomatic B. Able to write software C. Having good attention to detail D. Able to be relied on
Answer: B
QUESTION: 231 The purpose of requirement phase is A. To freeze requirements B. To understand user needs C. To define the scope of testing D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 232 The process starting with the terminal modules is called A. Top-down integration B. Bottom-up integration C. None of the above D. Module integration
Answer: B
QUESTION: 233 The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
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A. Project plan B. Business plan C. Support plan D. None of the above
Answer: A
QUESTION: 234 Function/Test matrix is a type of A. Interim Test report B. Final test report C. Project status report D. Management report
Answer: C
QUESTION: 235 Defect Management process does not include A. Defect prevention B. Deliverable base-lining C. Management reporting D. None of the above
Answer: B QUESTION: 236 What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor outside your country, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your country? A. Does not meet people needs B. Cultural difference C. Loss of control over reallocation of resources D. Relinquishments of control
Answer: B QUESTION: 237
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Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs? A. 10-20 B. 40-50 C. 70-80 D. 5-10
Answer: B
QUESTION: 238 A reliable system will be one that: A. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule B. Is unlikely to cause a failure C. Is likely to be fault-free D. Is likely to be liked by the users
Answer: B QUESTION: 239 How much testing is enough A. This question is impossible to answer B. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements C. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers D. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry
Answer: B QUESTION: 240 Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability? A. Operability B. Observability C. Simplicity D. Robustness
Answer: B QUESTION: 241 Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
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A. White box B. Black box C. Green box D. Yellow box
Answer: A QUESTION: 242 Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology? A. Simple Loops B. Nested Loops C. Concatenated Loops D. All of the above
Answer: D QUESTION: 243 To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it test data. A. Stub B. Driver C. Proxy D. None of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION: 244 Equivalence partitioning is: A. A black box testing technique used only by developers B. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing C. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing D. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
Answer: C
QUESTION: 245
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When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by: A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool C. The independent testing team D. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
Answer: A
QUESTION: 246 Inspections can find all the following except A. Variables not defined in the code B. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents C. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents D. How much of the code has been covered
Answer: D
QUESTION: 247 Define the following along with examples A. Boundary Value testing B. Equivalence testing C. Error Guessing D. Desk checking E. Control Flow analysis
Answer: A. Boundary value Analysis: - A process of selecting test cases/data by identifying the boundaries that separate valid and invalid conditions. Tests are constructed to test the inside and outside edges of these boundaries, in addition to the actual boundary points. or A selection technique in which test data are chosen to lie along boundaries of the input domain [or output range] classes, data structures, procedure parameters, etc. Choices often include maximum, minimum, and trivial values or parameters. E.g. - Input data 1 to 10 (boundary value) Test input data 0, 1, 2 to 9, 10, 11 B. Equivalence testing: - The input domain of the system is partitioned into classes of representative values, so that the no of test cases can be limited to one-per-class, which represents the minimum no. of test cases that must be executed.
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E.g.- valid data range: 1-10 Test set:-2; 5; 14 C. Error guessing: - Test data selection technique. The selection criterion is to pick values that seem likely to cause errors Error guessing is based mostly upon experience, with some assistance from other techniques such as boundary value analysis. Based on experience, the test designer guesses the types of errors that could occur in a particular type of software and designs test cases to uncover them. E.g. - For example, if any type of resource is allocated dynamically, a good place to look for errors is in the de-allocation of resources. Are all resources correctly deallocated, or are some lost as the software executes? D. Desk checking: - Desk checking is conducted by the developer of the system or program. The process involves reviewing the complete product to ensure that it is structurally sound and that the standards and requirements have been met. This is the most traditional means for analyzing a system or program. E. Control Flow Analysis: - It is based upon graphical representation of the program process. In control flow analysis; the program graphs has nodes which represent a statement or segment possibly ending in an unresolved branch. The graph illustrates the flow of program control from one segment to another as illustrated through branches .the objective of control flow analysis is to determine the potential problems in logic branches that might result in a loop condition or improper processing. QUESTION: 248 You find that there is a senior tester who is making more mistakes than the junior testers. You need to communicate this aspect to the senior tester. Also, you dont want to loose this tester. How should one go about the constructive criticism?
Answer: In the quality approach, it is the responsibility of the supervisor to make His/Her subordinates successful. The effective use of criticism is a tool for improving subordinate performance.In giving constructive criticism, you should incorporate the following tactics: Do it privately. Have the facts. Be prepared to help the worker improve His/Her performance. Be specific on Expectations. Follow a specific process in giving the criticism. QUESTION: 249 Your manager has taken you onboard as a test lead for testing a web-based application. He wants to know what risks you would include in the Test plan. Explain each risk factor that would be a part of your test plan.
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Answer: Web-Based Application primary risk factors:A. Security: anything related to the security of the application. B. Performance:- The amount of computing resources and code required by the system to perform its stated functions. C. Correctness:-Data entered, processed, and outputted in the system is accurate and complete D. Access Control:-Assurance that the application system resources will be protected E. Continuity of processing:-The ability to sustain processing in the event problem occurs F. Audit Trail:-The capability to substantiate the processing that has occurred. G. Authorization:-Assurance that the data is processed in accordance with the intents of the management. General risk or secondary risks:A. Complex - anything disproportionately large, intricate or convoluted. B. New - anything that has no history in the product. C. Changed - anything that has been tampered with or improved. D. Upstream Dependency - anything whose failure will cause cascading failure in the rest of the system. E. Downstream Dependency - anything that is especially sensitive to failures in the rest of the system. F. Critical - anything whose failure could cause substantial damage. G. Precise - anything that must meet its requirements exactly. H. Popular - anything that will be used a lot. I. Strategic - anything that has special importance to your business, such as a feature that sets you apart from the competition. J. Third-party - anything used in the product, but developed outside the project. K. Distributed - anything spread out in time or space, yet whose elements must work together. l. Buggy - anything known to have a lot of problems. M. Recent Failure - anything with a recent history of failure. QUESTION: 250 You are in the contract stage of a project and are developing a comprehensive proposal for a safety critical software system. Your director has consulted you for preparing a guideline document what will enlist users role during acceptance testing phase. Indicate the key roles you feel that the user should play during acceptance stage. Also indicate the categories into which the acceptance requirements should fall.
Answer: 1) Ensure user involvement in developing systems requirement and acceptance criteria. 2) Identify interim and final products for acceptance their acceptance criteria and schedule. 3) Plan how and by whom each acceptance activity will be performed. 4) Plan resources for providing information.
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5) Schedule adequate time for buyer staff to receive and examine the products and evaluation prior to acceptance review. 6) Prepare the acceptance plan. 7) Respond to the analysis of project entitles before accepting and rejecting. 8 ) Approve the various interim software products. 9) Perform the final acceptance activities, including the formal acceptance testing at delivery. 10) Make an acceptance decision for each product. QUESTION: 251 What is parallel testing and when do we use parallel testing? Explain with example?
Answer: Testing a new or an altered data processing system with the same source data that is used in another system. The other system is considered as the standard of comparison. OR we can say that parallel testing requires the same input data be run through two versions of the same application.Parallel testing should be used when there is uncertainty regarding the correctness of processing of the new application. And old and new versions of the applications are same. E.g.1) Operate the old and new version of the payroll system to determine that the paychecks from both systems are reconcilable. 2) Run the old version of the application system to ensure that the operational status of the old system has been maintained in the event that problems are encountered in the new application. QUESTION: 252 What is the difference between testing Techniques and tools? Give examples.
Answer: Testing technique: - Is a process for ensuring that some aspects of the application system or unit functions properly there may be few techniques but many tools. Tools: - Is a vehicle for performing a test process. The tool is a resource to the tester, but itself is insufficient to conduct testing E.g.:- The swinging of hammer to drive the nail. The hammer is a tool, and swinging the hammer is a technique. The concept of tools and technique is important in the testing process. It is a combination of the two that enables the test process to be performed. The tester should first understand the testing techniques and then understand the tools that can be used with each of the technique. QUESTION: 253 Quality control activities are focused on identifying defects in the actual products produced; however your boss wants you to identify and define processes that would
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prevent defects. How would you explain to him to distinguish between QA and QC responsibilities?
Answer: Quality Assurance: 1) A planned and systematic set of activities necessary to provide adequate confidence that requirements are properly established and products or services conform to specified requirements 2) An activity that establishes and evaluates the processes to produce the products. 3) Helps establish processes. 4) Sets up measurements programs to evaluate processes. 5) Identifies weaknesses in processes and improves them. 6) QA is the responsibility of the entire team. 7) Prevents the introduction of issues or defects Quality Control: 1) The process by which product quality is compared with applicable standards; and the action taken when nonconformance is detected. 2) An activity which verifies if the product meets pre-defined standards. 3) Implements the process. 4) Verifies if specific attribute(s) are in a specific product or service 5) Identifies defects for the primary purpose of correcting defects. 6) QC is the responsibility of the tester. 7) Detects, reports and corrects defects
QUESTION: 254 Differentiate between Transaction flow modeling, Finite state modeling, Data flow modeling and Timing modeling?
Answer: Transaction Flow modeling: -The nodes represent the steps in transactions. The links represent the logical connection between steps. Finite state modeling:-The nodes represent the different user observable states of the software. The links represent the transitions that occur to move from state to state. Data flow modeling:-The nodes represent the data objects. The links represent the transformations that occur to translate one data object to another. Timing Modeling:-The nodes are Program Objects. The links are sequential connections between the program objects. The link weights are used to specify the required execution times as program executes. QUESTION: 255 List what you think are the two primary goals of testing
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Answer: 1) Determine whether the system meets specifications (producer view) 2) determine whether the system meets business and user needs (Customer view) QUESTION: 256 As a general rule, __________ measures are much more important. A. Subjective B. Objective
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 257 If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the term as A. Reliability B. Validity C. Calibration D. Ease of Use and Simplicity
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 258 The term __________ refers the degree to which a measure actually measures what it was intended to measure. A. Reliability B. Validity C. Calibration D. Ease of Use and Simplicity
QUESTION: 259 When basic quality aspects have been identified the standards should be defined by A. IT Team B. Project Manager C. Quality Assurance personal D. Management E. Development Team
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Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 260 The standards for the software developed using new technology should be defined by A. IT Team B. Project Manager C. Quality Assurance personal D. Management E. Development Team
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 261 If the COTS software developed by the contractor which is from the another country, then the following problem arises: A. Cultural differences B. Communication barriers C. The two words having the same name in diff. countries D. All of the above E. None of the above
QUESTION: 262 The V represents the following term: A. Verification and Validation B. Static testing and Dynamic testing C. Black box and White Box testing D. Software development process and Software testing process
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 263 Test Readiness Review is conducted by the A. Project Manager
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B. Test Manager C. Quality Assurance Personnel D. User/Customer
QUESTION: 264 Acceptance testing is the ________ type of testing A. Black box testing B. White box testing C. Shoe box testing D. Structural testing
QUESTION: 265 __________ is not the White box testing technique. A. Condition Coverage B. Decision Coverage C. Test script coverage D. User specified Data coverage E. All of the above
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 266 Event identification, Risk Response are the term defined in the ___internal control model A. COSO Enterprise Risk Management (ERM. Model B. COSO Internal Control Model C. CobiT Model
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 267 A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the stability of a process.
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A. Pareto Chart B. Control Chart C. Run Chart D. Cause and Effect Diagram E. Histogram
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 268 Determination to continue with the software development or not is determined from the A. Inspection B. In-process Review C. Phase end review D. Dont remember other options
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 269 The following is the component for the FIT A. Data B. Structure C. People D. Rule E. All of the above
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 270 A major obstacle for deployment of wireless networks is in the A. Standards B. Coverage C. Security
QUESTION: 271 Hand-held and internet enabled devices are example of
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A. Electronic equipment B. Wireless Applications C. Computer devices
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 272 Therapeutic listening is A. Sympathetic listening B. Listening to pieces of information C. Analyzing the listening of the speaker
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 273 Function point is a measure of A. Effort B. Complexity C. Usability D. Size
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 274 Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the: A. Programmer B. Project Leader C. Independent Tester D. Assistance programmer E. User
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 275 While deciding the Test tool the following factors should be considered
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A. Testing for the next builds/releases after making changes B. Testing where large volumes of data is required C. Testing based on the UI interface D. All of the above
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 276 Completeness can be defined as the A. Customer says the product is ready B. Tester says the testing is completed C. Dont remember the other options
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 277 Auxiliary code which sets up an appropriate environment and calls the module is termed as A. Driver B. Function C. Stub D. None of the above
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 278 A question on fit components. Which of the following contributes to fit.
A. Data B. Structure C. People D. Rule E. All of the above
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 279 Reliability, timeliness, consistency are included in which component of fit
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A. Data B. Structure C. People D. Rule
QUESTION: 280 Who will develop the test process for software development using new technology? A. Management B. Project team C. Auditor D. Tester and few more options
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 281 Which of the following are relatively complete acceptance criteria? A. Performance should increaseB. Response time should be with in 10 sec Few more statements.
QUESTION: 282 Which of the following model has these steps .. event identification , risk assessment, risk response
A. ERM B. COSO internal control framework C. CobiT model
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 283 Utilize the computer resources to perform their work.. belong to which type of activity specified below
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A. Interface B. Development C. Computer operation
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 284 Obligations of both contractual parties should be spelled out in detail in which part of the contract?
A. What B. Who C. When D. How
QUESTION: 285 Test planning activity which includes starting and end time for each test milestone.
A. Budgeting B. Scheduling C. Estimation D. Staffing
QUESTION: 286 Which communication skill will be neglected by most A. Reading B. Listening C. Writing
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QUESTION: 287 Therapeutic listening is A. Sympathetic listening B. Listening to pieces of information
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 288 Which model demonstrates relation between 2 or more parameters of effort, duration or resource? A. Cost B. Constraint C. Function Point
QUESTION: 289 In which model expertise can be used to estimate cost A. Top-Down B. Expert Judgment C. Bottom-Up
QUESTION: 290 Fit for use is A. Transcendent B. Product Based C. User Based D. Value Based
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QUESTION: 291 Re-Use of data is done in which type of testing (Similar type 2 questions on retesting and regression testing) A. Capture/Play back B. System Testing C. Regression Testing D. Integration Testing
QUESTION: 292 In Acceptance testing, which data is used. A. Test Cases B. Use Case C. Test Plan
QUESTION: 293 In four components of FIT, reliability is included in (Similar type 2 qs) A. Data B. People C. Structure D. Rules
QUESTION: 294 Obligations of both contractual parties should be spelled out in A. What is done B. Who does it C. When it is done D. How it is done
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Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 295 Dates on which Obligations need to be filled out should be specified in A. What is done B. Who does it C. When it is done D. How it is done
QUESTION: 296 Who defined the standards? A. ISO B. QAI
Answer: A
QUESTION: 297 Juran is famous for A. Quality Control B. Management
Answer: A QUESTION: 298 Which one is not Statistical Tool? A. Cause & effect Graphing B. Stratification C. Run Chart D. Regression Analysis
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 299 Histogram refers to A. Bar Chart B. Run Chart C. Pareto
Answer: A
QUESTION: 300 Who are there in External IT TEAM? A. Non Developer B. Customer/ User
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 301 Which one is not Structural Testing? A. Regression B. Parallel C. Acceptance D. Stress
Answer: C QUESTION: 302 Who is not part of Inspection? A. Prj Manager B. Author C. Moderator D. Reader E. Inspetor
Answer: A
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QUESTION: 303 Tester job is not to A. Report Defect B. Who entered the defect in system
Answer: B QUESTION: 304 Which one is not secondary role of tester
A. Raising Issues B. Instilling Confidence C. cts improving process D. Insight E. developer work
Answer: E QUESTION: 305 Acceptance testing is A. White Box B. Black box C. White box & black Box D. none of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION: 306 Deming 14 principle includes A. mobility of mgmt B. new philosphy C. adobt leadership D. both b& c E. both a & c
Answer: E
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QUESTION: 307 Configuration Management tool used in which phase. A. Unit tetsing B. Integration C. accepting D. all the phases
Answer: D QUESTION: 308 Max Defects created in which phases A. req B. design C. Implementaion D. Coding
Answer: A QUESTION: 309 50% Defect found in which phase A. req B. design C. Implementaion D. Coding
Answer: A
QUESTION: 310 defects are least costly in which phase A. req B. design C. Implementaion D. Coding
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Answer: A QUESTION: 311 Software inspections categorize defects as Wrong, Missing and Extra. A. TRUE B. FALSE
QUESTION: 312 The purpose of Risk Management in a project is to A. Eliminate Risks B. Minimize Risks C. Avoid risks D. Anticipate the risks
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 313 Testing of the system to demonstrate system compliance with user requirements is: A. Black box testing B. System testing C. Independent testing D. Acceptance Testing
QUESTION: 314 Function point is a measure of A. Effort B. Complexity C. Usability D. None of the above
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QUESTION: 315 An activity that verifies compliance with policies and procedures and ensures that resources are conserved is A. an inspection B. an audit C. a review D. an assessment
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 316 Which is the application for the process management and quality improvement concepts to software development and maintenance. A. Malcolm Baldridge B. ISO 9000 C. QAI D. QS14000
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 317 Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs? A. 10-20 B. 30-60 C. 70-80
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 318 Software errors are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle? A. Requirements B. Construction C. Acceptance test D. Design
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QUESTION: 319 Which of the following test approaches is not a Functional test approach? A. Control Technique B. Stress Technique C. Regression Technique D. Cause/effect Graphing E. Requirements
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 320 Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things A. True B. False
QUESTION: 321 Juran is famous for A. Quality Control B. Quality Assurance C. Trend Analysis
QUESTION: 322 Top down & Bottom Up are the part of Incremental Testing A. True B. False
QUESTION: 323
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Achieving quality requires: A. Understanding the customers expectations B. Exceeding the customers expectations C. Meeting all the definitions of quality D. Focusing on the customer E. All the above
QUESTION: 324 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: there is a application which is delivered to the customer now customer found bugs and assume each bug cost is $125 and there are 4 bugs found each day and there are 5 working day. What should be the cost to fix those bugs A. $300 B. $25000 C. $ 15000 D. $ 13,000 E. $ 26,000
Answer: B
QUESTION: 325 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Tester should know A. Test planning B. Automation tool C. Defect tracking tool D. programming language Answer: C QUESTION: 326 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Pareto Analysis A. 80-20 rule B. Trend analysis
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 327 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Testing efforts in SDLC A. 10-20 % B. 30-60% C. 60-80% D. 80-90%
Answer: B QUESTION: 328 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Critical Listening is A. Listen analyses what speaker said B. Listen what is required C. Listen only summary
Answer: A
QUESTION: 329 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Who finds vulnuralibility in system? A. ICO B. ISS C. It Manager
Answer: A
QUESTION: 330 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing:COQ is not
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A. Production B. Appraisal C. Prevention D. Failure
Answer: A
QUESTION: 331 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Training come under what category cost of quality? A. Appraisal B. Preventive C. Failure D. none of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION: 332 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Why testing is called negative A. Easy B. delay in implementation C. No training reqd
QUESTION: 333 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Incremental testing is Top down & bottom Up testing A. True B. false
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 334 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Effectiveness is doing right thing & efficiency is doing thing right
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A. True B. false
Answer: B
QUESTION: 335 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Which one is not part of Demind A. Plan B. do C. check D. act E. risk analysis
Answer: E
QUESTION: 336 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Defect fixed in which phase is lease cost A. same phase B. production C. next phase D. none
Answer: A
QUESTION: 337 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: In White box testing test coverage is A. Decision B. Statement C. branch D. modified decision E. user specified data coverage
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 338 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Test Plan should not contain A. Scope B. Objective C. Policy D. Risk Analysis
Answer: C QUESTION: 339 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the: A. Programmer B. Project Leader C. Independent Tester D. Assistance programmer E. User/Customer
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 340 Which is NOT the exit criteria for unit testing: Cost of Quality is least among A. Prevention B. Appraisal C. Failure Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 341 Which of the following is not a perspective of quality? A. transcendent B. product-based C. translucent D. user-based
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E. value-based F. manufacturing based
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 342 Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things. A. True B. False.
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 343 Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management? A. Adopt a new philosophy B. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the work force C. Mobility of management D. Create constancy of purpose
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 344 The largest cost of quality is from production failure. A. True B. False.
Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 345 Defects are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle? A. Requirements B. Analysis & Design C. Construction D. Implementation
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QUESTION: 346 A review is what category of cost of quality? A. Preventive B. Appraisal C. Failure
QUESTION: 347 A defect is related to the term fault. A. True B. False.
QUESTION: 348 What type of change do you need before you can obtain a behavior change? A. Lifestyle B. Vocabulary C. Internal D. Management
QUESTION: 349 Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs? A. 10-20 B. 40-50 C. 70-80 D. 5-10
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QUESTION: 350 The purpose of software testing is to: A. Demonstrate that the application works properly B. Detect the existence of defects C. Validate the logical design
QUESTION: 351 One of the key concepts of a task force is that the leader be an expert in leading groups as opposed to an expert in a topical area. A. True B. False.
QUESTION: 352 Match the following terms with their definitions: A. Black box testing B. White box testing C. Conversion testing D. Thread testing E. Integration testing
QUESTION: 353 List what you think are the two primary goals of testing. What is a test strategy? Answer: A test strategy must address the risks and present a process that can reduce those risks. The two components of Test strategy are: a) Test Factor: The risk of issue that needs to be addressed as a part of the test strategy. Factors that are to be addressed in testing a specific application system will form the test
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factor. b) Test phase: The phase of the systems development life cycle in which testing win occur.)
QUESTION: 354 When to stop testing?
Answer: a) When all the requirements are adequately executed successfully through test cases b) Bug reporting rate reaches a particular limit c) The test environment no more exists for conducting testing d) The scheduled time for testing is over e) The budget allocation for testing is over
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Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 3 Quality without timeliness and cost consideration is ________________

A. Meaningless B. Beneficial C. One of product deficiencies D. Cheaper

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 5 Those responsible for quality must include

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 6 Quality is ----------------'s responsibility.

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 12 Quality is not an attribute of product. A. True B. False

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 13 Quality is not a binary state A. True B. False

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 15 Quality can be controlled only if it is measured. A. True B. False

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 16 Judgement is an audit function A. True B. False

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 18 Management must support zero defects A. True B. False

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com QUESTION: 19

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 26 Quality work can be rewarded. A. True B. False

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Quality is a ______________ Responsibility. A. Staff B. Line C. Both

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 29 Everyone should be involved in quality improvement programs. A. True B. False

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 33 It is better to deal with more number of vendors

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 45 Line is ____________ A. Directional B. Tactical C. Operational

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 50 Quality defect is non conformance to standards. A. True B. False

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 52 Verification activity is a static analysis. A. True B. False

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 54 Testing is not a verification technique A. True B. False

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 55 Types of measurement of performance are A. strategic, statical, operational

B. Strategic, tactical, operational

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 72 Quality means meeting requirements. This is ____________view. (producer's /customer's )

Answer: producer's view

QUESTION: 75 Quality control is a ______________ function. (line/staff)

QUESTION: 76 Quality assurance is a ____________ function. (line/staff)

Answer: Management Cycle/Deming's wheel

QUESTION: 78 What does "Going Around the PDCA Circle" connote?

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 86 Under strategic planning, we have

Answer: Pending. Please send your suggestions to terry@troytec.com

QUESTION: 87 Leadership category includes